IVMS Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts
Q0001:What test is done to diagnose CGD?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
Q0002:What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
Q0003:What is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavychain variable domain and one light chain?
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.
Q0004:What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?
IgM
Q0005:What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?
Cell-mediated immunity
10
Q0006:True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient?
11
False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.
12
Q0007:What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
13
Thrombocytopenia; eczema; and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X-linked recessive disorder.
14
Q0008:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
15
C3 deficiency
16
Q0009:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Recurrent gonococcal infections?
17
C5-C8 deficiency
18
Q0010:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor opsonization?
19
C1; C2; or C4 deficiency
20
Q0011:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Hereditary angioedema?
21
C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)
22
Q0012:Which IgG cannot activate complement?
23
IgG4
24
Q0013:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
25
CD40 ligand
26
Q0014:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Interacts with MHC class I molecules
27
CD8
28
Q0015:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Expressed on all T cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell receptor
29
CD3
30
Q0016:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Interacts with MHC class II molecules
31
CD4
32
Q0017:Name the T-cell CD marker;Is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation
33
CD28
34
Q0018:What three cells are essential for T-cell differentiation in the thymus?
35
Dendritic cells; macrophages; and thymic epithelial cells
36
Q0019:What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?
37
B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.
38
Q0020:What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
39
Rigors; leukopenia; decrease in blood pressure; and increase in temperature
40
Q0021:What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?
41
Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)
42
Q0022:What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with papain?
43
There would be two Fab and Fc regions.
44
Q0023:What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?
45
14 days
46
Q0024:Which leukotrienes are associated with the late-phase inflammatory response?
47
LTC4 and LTD4
48
Q0025:What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag and an Ab?
49
Affinity (one of each)
50
Q0026:True or false? More Ag is needed to produce a secondary immune response than a first immune response.
51
False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary response.
52
Q0027:What is the term for the strength of association between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?
53
Avidity (more than one binding site)
54
Q0028:What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells; opsonizes; and is the Ig of the secondary immune response?
55
IgG
56
Q0029:What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in hemolytic anemia?
57
Coombs test
58
Q0030:What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class I Ags?
59
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic);Remember; 81=8 (CD8 MHC class I=8); 42=8 (CD4 MHC class II 8)
60
Q0031:What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?
61
CD40
62
Q0032:What are the five Ig isotypes?
63
IgA; IgD; IgE; IgG; and IgM
64
Q0033:Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration in and out of the blood during an immune response?
65
Beta2-integrins
66
Q0034:What type of hypersensitivity is an Abmediated response against our own cells; receptors; or membranes via IgG or IgM?
67
Type II hypersensitivity reaction
68
Q0035:What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is recognized by an Ab?
69
Antigenic determinant (epitope)
70
Q0036:What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?
71
INF-gamma
72
Q0037:What three cells are essential for T-cell maturation?
73
Thymic epithelial cells; dendritic cells; and macrophages
74
Q0038:What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?
75
Hapten (not immunogenic)
76
Q0039:What are the two opsonizing factors?
77
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
78
Q0040:What is the most common Ig deficiency?
79
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.
80
Q0041:What is the name of the B cellrich area of the spleen?
81
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
82
Q0042:What IL; produced by macrophages; is chemotactic for neutrophils?
83
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic; it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.
84
Q0043:What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?
85
IgA
86
Q0044:What are the three rules of clonal selection?
87
1. One cell type ;2. One Ab type ;3. Random selection of hypervariable regions; and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
88
Q0045:What is a plasma cell's life expectancy?
89
7 to 14 days
90
Q0046:What are defined by Ag-binding specificity?
91
Idiotypes
92
Q0047:What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
93
Affinity
94
Q0048:What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?
95
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
96
Q0049:What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T-cell signaling?
97
Thymus-independent Ags
98
Q0050:What are the three rules governing a secondary immune response?
99
1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier ;2. B-cell exposure to hapten twice ;3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice
100
Q0051:What type of hypersensitivity is a T cellmediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement?
101
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 4896 hour latency)
102
Q0052:Name the macrophages by location;? Liver
103
Kupffer cells
104
Q0053:Name the macrophages by location;? Lungs
105
Alveolar macrophages
106
Q0054:Name the macrophages by location;? CNS
107
Microglial cells
108
Q0055:Name the macrophages by location;? Kidney
109
Mesangial macrophages
110
Q0056:What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?
111
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
112
Q0057:What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?
113
CD16 and CD56
114
Q0058:True or false? Ag-Ab binding is irreversible
115
False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are not linked covalently.
116
Q0059:What three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system?
117
T cells; B cells; and macrophages
118
Q0060:What test is used to screen for HIV?
119
ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG.
120
Q0061:During what stage of B-cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?
121
Immature B cells
122
Q0062:What Ig is responsible for AntibodyDependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites; has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils; and is responsible for the allergic response?
123
IgE
124
Q0063:True or false? B-cell Ag receptors can be secreted.
125
True. B cell antigen receptors are Abs.
126
Q0064:Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?
127
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
128
Q0065:By which process do Abs make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?
129
Opsonization
130
Q0066:What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?
131
MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.
132
Q0067:What disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF?
133
Pernicious anemia
134
Q0068:What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function?
135
IL-4; IL-10; and IL-13
136
Q0069:What is the term for the number of Agbinding sites on an Ig?
137
Valence
138
Q0070:Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
139
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.
140
Q0071:What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?
141
Lipoxygenase pathway; from arachidonic acid
142
Q0072:What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue?
143
Mast cells
144
Q0073:What are the three major functions of secretory IgA?
145
1. IgA receptor ;2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers ;3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
146
Q0074:What IL is important in myeloid cell development?
147
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
148
Q0075:What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products?
149
Isotypes
150
Q0076:What is the first Ab a baby makes?
151
IgM
152
Q0077:What test; by using specific Abs to different receptors; allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a blood sample?
153
Flow cytometric analysis
154
Q0078:What is the name of the T cellrich area of the spleen?
155
PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic sheath)
156
Q0079:What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?
157
C3a; C4a; and C5a
158
Q0080:Name the B-cell CD marker;? Required for class switching signals from T cells
159
CD40
160
Q0081:Name the B-cell CD marker;? Receptor for EBV
161
CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3
162
Q0082:Name the B-cell CD marker;? Used clinically to count B cells in blood
163
CD19
164
Q0083:What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)
165
Agglutination test
166
Q0084:Which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils?
167
LTB4
168
Q0085:What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?
169
IgA
170
Q0086:What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?
171
Allotypes
172
Q0087:What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?
173
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response; known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF-alpha to activate macrophages
174
Q0088:Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?
175
Invariant chain
176
Q0089:What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with pepsin?
177
There would be a Fab' region; thus; it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
178
Q0090:Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease not prone to develop infections from catalase-negative bacteria?
179
Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember; catalase breaks down H2O2); allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are prone to catalase-positive bacterial infections.
180
Q0091:What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?
181
gamma and delta chains
182
Q0092:Which IL is associated with increases of IgG and IgE?
183
IL-4
184
Q0093:What branch of the immune system is acquired in response to an Ag?
185
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
186
Q0094:True or false? T cells can recognize; bind; and internalize unprocessed Ags.
187
False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags; but T cells can recognize only processed Ags.
188
Q0095:What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high circulating levels of soluble immune complexes made up of IgG or IgM Abs?
189
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
190
Q0096:At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD be expressed on the cell surface?
191
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG; IgA; or IgE on its surface.
192
Q0097:What T cell deficiency syndrome is associated with facial anomalies; hypoparathyroidism; thymic hypoplasia; and recurrent viral and fungal infections?
193
DiGeorge syndrome; which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember; B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections
194
Q0098:What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?
195
Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.
196
Q0099:What is the first membrane-bound Ig on B cell membranes?
197
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
198
Q0100:What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?
199
Hypervariable region
200
Q0101:In MHC class II molecules; what chain blocks access to the peptide-binding groove during transportation within the cell; ensuring that the MHC class IIpeptide complex is transported to the surface?
201
Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)
202
Q0102:What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?
203
The short arm of chromosome 6
204
Q0103:What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
205
T cells; not B cells
206
Q0104:What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response in the mucosal barriers?
207
IgA
208
Q0105:What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections; uncoordinated muscle movements; and dilation of the blood vessels?
209
Ataxia-telangiectasia
210
Q0106:What are the four chemotactic agents?
211
1. C5a ;2. Leukotriene B4 ;3. IL-8 ;4. Bacterial peptides
212
Q0107:What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell division and differentiation?
213
Th2
214
Q0108:Which region of the variable domain comprises the Ag-binding site of the Ab?
215
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
216
Q0109:True or false? The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for ATP production.
217
False; it is for the production of toxic metabolites.
218
Q0110:What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually be recognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?
219
Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
220
Q0111:What complement factor or factors are associated with;? Chemotaxis?
221
C5a
222
Q0112:What complement factor or factors are associated with;? Membrane attack complex (MAC)?
223
C5C9
224
Q0113:What complement factor or factors are associated with;? Opsonization?
225
C3b
226
Q0114:What complement factor or factors are associated with;? Anaphylaxis?
227
C3a; C4a; C5a
228
Q0115:What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?
229
As the isotype is switched; the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.
230
Q0116:What IL down-regulates cell mediated immunity?
231
IL-10
232
Q0117:Name the type of graft described by these transplants;? From one site to another on the same person
233
Autograft
234
Q0118:Name the type of graft described by these transplants;Between genetically identical individuals
235
Isograft
236
Q0119:Name the type of graft described by these transplants;? From one person to the next (the same species)
237
Allograft
238
Q0120:Name the type of graft described by these transplants;? From one species to another
239
Xenograft
240
Q0121:What is the name of the process in which cells migrate toward an attractant along a concentration gradient?
241
Chemotaxis
242
Q0122:What are the two functions of the thymus in T-cell differentiation?
243
Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and T-cell education to recognize self from nonself
244
Q0123:What is the name of the T cellrich area of the lymph node?
245
Paracortex
246
Q0124:What cell surface marker do all T cells have?
247
CD3
248
Q0125:True or false? Patients with common variable hypogammaglobinemia have B cells in the peripheral blood.
249
True. Common variable hypogammaglobinemia first appears by the time patients reach their 20s and is associated with a gradual decrease in Ig levels over time.
250
Q0126:What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?
251
IgM
252
Q0127:What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells carry on their surface membranes?
253
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
254
Q0128:What Ig is responsible for activation of complement; opsonization; and ADCC and is actively transported across the placenta?
255
IgG
256
Q0129:What type of Ag do T cells recognize?
257
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
258
Q0130:What Ig is the major protective factor in colostrum?
259
IgA
260
Q0131:What is the second cell involved in the immune response?
261
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the immune response.
262
Q0132:What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with high-affinity Ag receptors for self that are programmed to undergo apoptosis?
263
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
264
Q0133:What five main oxidizing reactions are used to kill ingested organisms?
265
1. H2O2 ;2. Superoxide ;3. Hydroxyl radical ;4. Myeloperoxidase ;5. Hypochlorous acid
266
Q0134:What Ig is associated with ADCC for parasites?
267
IgE
268
Q0135:True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I Ags on their surface.
269
True. Remember; all nucleated cells (and platelets) have MHC class I Ags; and RBCs are not nucleated.
270
Q0136:What Ig is associated with mast cell and basophil binding?
271
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain
272
Q0137:What IL do T cells secrete to induce T-and B-cell division?
273
IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface to induce self-expression.
274
Q0138:Development of what T cell line follows low affinity for self-MHC class II Ags in the thymus?
275
CD4+T cells
276
Q0139:What is the term for a substance secreted by a leukocyte in response to a stimulus?
277
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of leukocytes; it is called an interleukin.
278
Q0140:What subset of CD4 T cells is responsible for mast cell and eosinophil precursor proliferation?
279
Th2 cells
280
Q0141:What are the four major functions of the acquired immune system?
281
1. Recognize self from nonself ;2. Amplify via cell division or complementation ;3. Control the level of the response ;4. Remove foreign material
282
Q0142:What endotoxin receptor is the best marker for macrophages?
283
CD14
284
Q0143:What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a specific immune response?
285
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
286
Q0144:What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in the light chain.)
287
The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the separately encoded Beta-chain for class I Ags.
288
Q0145:What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in the bone marrow; no circulating B cells in plasma; normal cell-mediated immunity; low Igs; and appearance by 6 months of age?
289
Bruton X-linked hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine kinase deficiency leads to inadequate B cell maturation.
290
Q0146:What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal A protein?
291
IgG3
292
Q0147:What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?
293
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A
294
Q0148:What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response?
295
IgG
296
Q0149:What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
297
TCR
298
Q0150:What is the confirmatory test for HIV?
299
Western blot
300
Q0151:What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from;? Neutrophils?
301
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
302
Q0152:What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from;? Macrophages?
303
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma also)
304
Q0153:What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from;? The blood serum? (Hint: it is a complement factor.)
305
C5a
306
Q0154:What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from;? Bacteria?
307
F-Met-Peptides
308
Q0155:What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?
309
CD19
310
Q0156:What is the name of the B cellrich area in the lymph node?
311
Primary follicle of the cortex
312
Q0157:What are the four ways to down-regulate the immune system?
313
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels ;2. Administer IgG in high concentrations ;3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) ;4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti-Ab
314
Q0158:What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?
315
IgG
316
Q0159:What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from their circulation?
317
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM); an anti-RhD IgG antibody; prevents generation of RhD-specific memory B cells in the mother.
318
Q0160:What IL is essential for lymphoid cell development?
319
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)
320
Q0161:What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?
321
Plasma cell
322
Q0162:Via what pathway is glycolysis increased after phagocytosis?
323
HMP shunt
324
Q0163:What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?
325
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.
326
Q0164:What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping the development of CD8 T cells?
327
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV)
328
Q0165:What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?
329
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.
330
Q0166:What type of Ag do B cells recognize?
331
Free; unprocessed Ag
332
Q0167:What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor on the surface of mature B cells?
333
IgD; IgM is also correct.
334
Q0168:Which chromosome is associated with MHC genes?
335
Chromosome 6
336
Q0169:What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?
337
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. Class II molecules have an invariant chain that protects them from breakdown.
338
Q0170:What is the most common precipitin test used in clinical medicine?
339
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.
340
Q0171:What Ig activates the complement cascade most efficiently?
341
IgM
342
Q0172:What assay is used to identify MHC class I molecules?
343
Microcytotoxic assay
344
Q0173:Which IL increases IgA synthesis?
345
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.
346
Q0174:What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is too small to elicit an immune response?
347
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier; it may become immunogenic.
348
Q0175:What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as;? Autoantibodies directed against ACh receptors?
349
Myasthenia gravis
350
Q0176:What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as;? Autoantibodies directed against platelet integrin?
351
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
352
Q0177:What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as;? Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen in the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs?
353
Goodpasture syndrome
354
Q0178:What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as;? Autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor?
355
Graves disease
356
Q0179:What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as;? Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
357
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
358
Q0180:What Ig activates the alternate pathway; neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses; and prevents bacterial adherence?
359
IgA
360
Q0181:What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?
361
NADPH oxidase is deficient; resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.
362
Q0182:What subtype of IgG does not activate complement cascade?
363
IgG4
364
Q0183:What two cell lines of the immune system do not belong to the innate branch?
365
T and B-cells belong to the adaptive branch; whereas PMNs; NK cells; eosinophils; macrophages; and monocytes belong to the innate branch.
366
Q0184:What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class II Ags?
367
CD4+ T cells (helper)
368
Q0185:What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC class I Ags in the thymus?
369
CD8+ T cells
370
Q0186:What MHC class functions as a target for elimination of abnormal host cells?
371
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells; virusinfected cellsanything the body recognizes as nonself via CD8+ T cells.
372
Q0187:What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes? Be specific.
373
Neutrophils; eosinophils; and basophils
374
Q0188:What disease is associated with the HLA-A3 allele
375
Primary Hemochromatosis
376
Q0189:What diseases are associated with the HLAB27 allele
377
Psoriasis; ankylosing spondylitis; inflammatory bowel disease; and Reiter's syndrome
378
Q0190:What disease is associated with the HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3 alleles
379
Systemic lupus erythematosus
380
Q0191:What diseases are associated with the HLADR3 allele
381
Sjogren's syndrome; active hepatitis; systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA-DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA-DR4)
382
Q0192:What diseases are associated with HLA-DR4
383
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA-DR3)
384
Q0193:Lymph drainage: What does the right lymphatic duct drain?
385
Right arm and right half of head
386
Q0194:Lymph drainage: What does the thoracic duct drain?
387
Everything except for the right arm and the right half of head
388
Q0195:Splenic sinusoids: What are they?
389
Long; vascular channels in red pulp with fenestrated "barrel hoop" basement membrane and macrophages nearby. Adjacent to splenic cords and contain blood.
390
Q0196:How can the spleen be distinguished from a lymph node on histologic section?
391
Spleens have no subscapsular sinus and no cortex or medulla. They have white pulp and red pulp.
392
Q0197:What does the white pulp of the spleen contain?
393
Contains;1. Lymphoid follicles with germinal centers (mostly B cells). Can see aggregation of dark basophilic lymphocytic nuclei;2. Characteristic central arterioles. Surrounded by a Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) which is a collection of T-lymphocytes.
394
Q0198:Where is the red pulp of the spleen located?
395
Around and between the lymphatic nodules of the white pulp
396
Q0199:Splenic cords: What are they?
397
Structures containing macrophages; plasma cells; lymphocytes; and few RBCs. Separated from each other by splenic sinusoids.
398
Q0200:Thymus: Function
399
Site of T-cell differentiation and maturation (T cells differentiate in the Thymus. B cells differentiate in the Bone marrow)
400
Q0201:Thymus: Embryological origin
401
Epithelium of 3rd branchial pouches
402
Q0202:Lymphocytes: Embryological origin
403
Mesenchyme
404
Q0203:Thymus: What does the cortex contain and what does it look like?
405
The lobules resemble lymphatic nodules except they are angular; not round;Contains;1. Densely packed (dark) immature T cells;2. Large epithelial reticular cells which appear as holes within the cortical cells.
406
Q0204:Thymus: What does the medulla contain and what does it look like?
407
Pale;Contains;Thymic (Hassall's) corpuscles which have a lamellated or whorled appearance due to degenerating epithelial reticular cells.
408
Q0205:What percentage of T cells which enter thymus survive?
409
2%
410
Q0206:What is positive selection of T cells?
411
Retention of T cells that have functioning T cell receptors
412
Q0207:Where do positive and negative selection of T-cells occur in the thymus?
413
At the corticomedullary junction
414
Q0208:What is negative selection of T cells?
415
Destruction of T-cells that react to self-antigen
416
Q0209:Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How are receptors that recognize pathogens encoded?
417
Innate: Germline encoded;Adaptive: Undergo VDJ recombination during development
418
Q0210:Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How fast is response to pathogens?
419
Innate: Always fast; no memory response;Adaptive: Slow on 1st exposure but memory response is faster and more robust.
420
Q0211:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: Neutrophils
421
Innate immunity
422
Q0212:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: Macrophages
423
Innate immunity
424
Q0213:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: Dendritic cells
425
Innate immunity
426
Q0214:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: Complement
427
Innate immunity
428
Q0215:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: T cells
429
Adaptive immunity
430
Q0216:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: B cells
431
Adaptive immunity
432
Q0217:Innate immunity or adaptive immunity: Circulating antibody
433
Adaptive immunity
434
Q0218:T-cell differentiation: Where do T-cell precursors come from and where do they go?
435
From the bone marrow to the thymus
436
Q0219:T-cell differentiation: What CD?
437
CD3
438
Q0220:T-cell differentiation: What happens to Tcell precursors when they enter the thymus; and what are they called?
439
Once T-cell precursors acquire and display CD4 and CD8; they are cortical thymocytes.
440
Q0221:T-cell differentiation: Where is the T-cell in its development when it undergoes positive selection?
441
Both CD4 positive and CD8 positive
442
Q0222:T-cell differentiation: Where in the thymus are cells which are positive for both CD4 and CD8 located?
443
Thymic cortex
444
Q0223:T-cell differentiation: Where is the T-cell in its development when it undergoes negative selection?
445
Either CD4 positive or CD8 positive; not both
446
Q0224:T-cell differentiation: Where in the thymus are cells which are positive for either CD4 or CD8 located?
447
Thymic medulla
448
Q0225:T-cell differentiation: What are the two types of helper T cells and where do they differentiate?
449
In the lymph node; helper T cells differentiate into Th1 cells; and Th2 cells.
450
Q0226:Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Stimulant for differentiation from archetypical helper T cell.
451
Th1: IL-12 from both other Th1 cells and antigenpresenting dendritic cells;Th2: IL-4 from other Th2 cells and presumably an unknown factor from dendritic cells
452
Q0227:Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Cytokines produced by both types
453
Both: IL-2;Th1: IFN-gamma; TNF-alpha;Th2: IL-4; IL-5; IL-6; IL-10; IL-13
454
Q0228:Cytokine effects: Interleukin 2
455
Stimulates T-cell growth and proliferation;Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk
456
Q0229:Cytokine effects: Interferon gamma
457
1. Inhibits Th2 cytokines;2. Induces class I and II MHC;3. Stimulates differentiation of monocytes into macrophages;4. Activates macrophages.
458
Q0230:Cytokine effects: Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha
459
1. Activates macrophages; neutrophils (also attracts them); and CD8 cells;2. Induces neutrophil-endothelial cell adhesion;3. Constitutional: sepsis; cachexia ("wasting away"); fever; acute phase proteins;4. Tumor cell lysis;5. Increased proliferation of B-cells;6. Increased synthesis of IL-2 receptors by Th cells;7. Stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes.
460
461
1. Growth of B-cells;2. Growth and proliferation of T-cells;3. Synthesis of IgE;4. Class switching of IgG to IgE;5. Inhibits IL-8; IL-1; and TNFalpha;Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot Tbone stEAk. E as in stimulates IgE production.
462
463
1. Differentiation of B cells 2. Class switching of IgA;3. Production and activation of eosinophils;Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. A as in stimulates IgA production.
464
Q0233:What cytokines stimulate the acute phase response?
465
1. IL-1;2. IL-6;3. TNF-alpha
466
Q0234:What are acute phase response proteins used for?
467
1. Augment immune response (complement; Ig);2. Regulate the extent of response (protease inhibitors like alpha-1-antitrypsin);3. Stimulate additional responses (alpha-2-macroglobulin)
468
469
Big picture: Stimulates Th2 while inhibiting Th1;Specifically inhibits;1. IL-8;2. IL-1;3. TNFalpha;4. IFN-gamma
470
Q0236:What releases: Interleukin 10
471
1. Th2 cells;2. Macrophages
472
Q0237:Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Major effects
473
Both: Downregulate each other;Th1: Activates all lymphocytes and APCs; especially CD8 cells and macrophages;Th2 cells;1. B cells: Increased differentiation; proliferation; antibody; and class switching;2: Activation of eosinophils
474
475
Th cells
476
Q0239:What releases: Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha
477
Macrophages (emphasized) and Th1 cells
478
Q0240:What releases: Interferon gamma
479
Th1 cells (emphasized) and NK cells
480
481
T cells (especially Th2) and mast cells
482
483
T cells (especially Th); macrophages; and endothelial cells
484
Q0243:What is MHC and what codes for it?
485
Major Histocompatability Complex encoded by Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)
486
Q0244:What genes code for MHC I?
487
1. HLA-A;2. HLA-B;3. HLA-C
488
Q0245:What genes code for MHC II?
489
1. HLA-DP;2. HLA-DQ;3. HLA-DR
490
Q0246:MHC I and II: What cells are they expressed on?
491
I: All nucleated cells except sperm;II: Antigen Presenting Cells
492
Q0247:MHC I and II: Where in the cell is antigen loaded onto the MHC?
493
I: RER (mostly intracellular peptides);II: Acidified endosome
494
Q0248:B cells and T cells: Effect on Ig
495
B cells: Make it;T cells: (CD4) Help B cells make it and release IFN-gamma to activate macrophages
496
Q0249:B cells and T cells: Method of killing
497
B cells: IgG opsonizes bacteria and viruses;T cells: (CD8) Directly kills virus-infected cells
498
Q0250:B cells and T cells: Allergy mechanism
499
B: Type I hypersensitivity; through IgE;T: Type IV hypersensitivity
500
Q0251:B cells and T cells: Organ rejection speed
501
B: Fast; through antibodies;T: Slow
502
Q0252:CD/MHC: What binds MHC II?
503
CD4 T-cell receptors
504
Q0253:What does MHC I pair with (allosteric interaction)
505
beta2-microglobulin
506
Q0254:CD/MHC: What binds MHC I?
507
CD8 T-cell receptors
508
Q0255:CD/MHC: What binds CD4 T-cell receptors?
509
MHC II on antigen presenting cells
510
Q0256:CD/MHC: What binds CD8 T-cell receptors?
511
MHC I on virus-infected cells
512
513
Big picture: Stimulates growth differentiation or product synthesis by T cells; B cells; neutrophils; fibroblasts; and epithelial cells;1. Endogenous pyrogen;2. Activates T cells;3. Upregulates adhesion molecules;4. Induces acute phase reactants;5. Synergizes with TNFalpha;Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot Tbone stEAk. Hot as in fever.
514
515
1. Professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages; monocytes; dendritic cells; and B cells);2. Some non-professional antigen presenting cells (fibroblasts; endothelial cells; others)
516
Q0259:How does Interleukin 1 cause fever?
517
Steps;1. Migrates to the circumventricular organs;2. Binds with endothelial receptors;3. Receptors activate Phospholipase A2-COX2-PGE2 pathway;4. Prostaglandin E2's presence in the hypothalamus elevates the thermoregulatory set point and activates neuroendocrine determinants of fever.
518
Q0260:What are the professional antigen presenting cells?
519
1. Macrophages;2. B cells;3. Dendritic cells
520
Q0261:What is the CD3 complex?
521
Cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor. It is important in signal transduction.
522
Q0262:How are Th cells activated?
523
1. APC phagocytoses foreign body;2. APC presents antigen on MHC II;3. Signal 1: Th cell's TCR recognizes antigen;4. Signal 2 (costimulatory): APC's B7 molecule stimulates Th cell's CD28 molecule;5. Autocrine IL-2 stimulates Th cell to produces cytokines
524
Q0263:How are Tc cells activated?
525
1. Virus-infected cell presents endogenously synthesized proteins on MHC I;2. Signal 1: Tc cell's TCR recognizes antigen;3. Signal 2: IL-2 released from Th cell activates T c cell to kill virus infected cell.
526
Q0264:Antibody structure/function: What are the components of the heavy chain?
527
Variable: VH;Constant: CH1; CH2; CH3
528
Q0265:Antibody structure/function: What are the components of the light chain?
529
Variable: VL;Constant: CL
530
Q0266:What part of an antibody recognizes antigen?
531
Variable portion of Fab fragment
532
Q0267:What part of an antibody fixes complement?
533
Constant part of H chain of IgM and IgG
534
Q0268:Antibody structure/function; True or False: Light chain contributes to Fab
535
True
536
Q0269:Antibody structure/function; True or False: Heavy chain contributes to Fab
537
True
538
Q0270:Antibody structure/function; True or False: Light chain contributes to Fc
539
False
540
Q0271:Antibody structure/function; True or False: Heavy chain contributes to Fc
541
True
542
Q0272:What is the middle of the variable component of an antibody component chain called?
543
Hypervariable region
544
Q0273:Antibody structure/function: Where on an antibody is the hypervariable region?
545
The majority of the variable segments excluding the edges
546
Q0274:How are the four chains of an antibody connected?
547
Interchain disulfide bonds at;1. between the two heavy chains on the Fc side of the hinge region;2. between corresponding light and heavy chains on the Fab side of the hinge region
548
Q0275:What disulfide bonds does an antibody have?
549
Interchain: Bonds between both heavy chains and between corresponding light and heavy chains;Intrachain: On each segment
550
Q0276:Where on an antibody is the Amino terminal?
551
At the variable edges of the chains
552
Q0277:Where on an antibody is the carboxyl terminal?
553
At the constant edges of the heavy chains
554
Q0278:Antibody structure/function: What are the five Cs of Fc?
555
1. Constant;2. Carboxy terminal;3. Complement binding (IgG and IgM only);4. Carbohydrate side chains;5. Complement binding fragment
556
Q0279:3 main functions of the antibody
557
1. Opsonization;2. Neutralization (prevents bacterial adherence);3. Complement activation
558
Q0280:How is antibody diversity generated?
559
1. Random "recombination" of VJ (light chain) or VDJ (heavy chain) genes;2. Random combination of heavy chains with light chains;3. Somatic hypermutation;4. Addition of nucleotides to DNA during "genetic recombination" by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.
560
Q0281:What does terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase do?
561
Addition of nucleotides to DNA during "genetic recombination" in B cells
562
Q0282:What does Tdt stand for?
563
Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
564
Q0283:Which immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of mature B cells?
565
IgM and IgD
566
Q0284:What is isotype switching?
567
Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells that secrete IgG; IgA; or IgE
568
Q0285:What stimulates isotype switching?
569
Cytokines (IL-4 and IL-5) and CD40-Ligand on Tcells
570
Q0286:Main antibody isotype in secondary immune response
571
IgG
572
Q0287:Most abundant antibody isotype
573
IgG
574
Q0288:Antibody isotypes which cross placenta
575
IgG
576
Q0289:Antibody isotypes which fix complement
577
IgG and IgM in the classic complement pathway;Mnemonic: GM makes classic cars
578
Q0290:Antibody isotypes which opsonize bacteria
579
IgG (and IgA weakly)
580
Q0291:Main antibody isotype in primary immune response
581
IgM
582
Q0292:Antibody isotypes associated with the J chain
583
IgM and IgA
584
Q0293:Antibody isotypes associated with the SP
585
IgA;SP = Secretory Protein
586
Q0294:Antibody isotype with longest half life
587
IgG (26 days compared with 5 for IgM; the next longest)
588
Q0295:Antibody isotype which prevents bacterial/viral attachment to mucous membranes
589
IgA
590
Q0296:Antibody isotype found in secretions
591
IgA
592
Q0297:Antibody isotype which mediates type I hypersensitivity
593
IgE
594
Q0298:How does IgE cause an allergic response?
595
Type I hypersensitivity;1. IgE binds to basophils or mast cells;2. IgE binds antigen;3. These cells release histamine and leukotrienes.
596
Q0299:Which cells have receptors for IgE?
597
1. mast cells;2. basophils;3. eosinophils;4. monocytes/macrophages;5. platelets
598
Q0300:Antibody isotype which mediates immunity to worms
599
IgE
600
Q0301:Least abundant antibody isotype
601
IgE
602
Q0302:Define allotype
603
An individual's allele coding for the constant portions of the antibody's heavy chains.
604
Q0303:Define isotype
605
Type of chain in an antibody;Heavy isotypes: alpha; gamma; delta; epsilon; mu;Light isotypes: kappa; lambda
606
Q0304:Define idiotype
607
antibodies of one idiotype share structure of their variable region and thus; antigen binding specificity.
608
609
Supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells (similar to GM-CSF). Most important during early growth;Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. bone; as in bone development
610
611
T cells (emphasis on activated T cells) and thymic epithelial cells
612
613
1. Differentiation and growth of B cells and T cells ;2. Systemic effects (Acute Phase Response and Fever);3. Stimulates Ig production
614
615
Th2 cells
616
617
1. Major neutrophil chemotactic and adhesion factor;2. Angiogenesis;3. High levels associated with schizophrenia
618
619
1. Monocytes;2. Endothelial cells;3. Fibroblasts
620
621
1. Promotes differentiation of Th cells into Th1;2. Activates NK cells
622
623
Professional Antigen Presenting Cells;1. Dendritic cells;2. Macrophages;3. B cells
624
Q0313:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Helper T cells
625
1. CD4;2. TCR;3. CD3 (Signal transduction);4. CD28 and CD40L (Receive costimulatory activation signal respectively from B7 and CD40 which are both on B cells and professional APCs. These two signaling pathways each upregulate the other.)
626
Q0314:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Cytotoxic T cells
627
1. CD8;2. TCR;3. CD3 (Signal transduction)
628
Q0315:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: B cells
629
1. IgM;2. MHC II (Presents foreign antigens to Th cells);2. B7 and CD40 (Costimulatory activation signal respectively to CD28 and CD40L which are both on T cells. These two signaling pathways each upregulate the other.);2. CD19; CD21 (Subunits of co-receptor for BCR complex) ;4. CD20 (Target in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of monoclonal antibodies like rituximab)
630
Q0316:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Macrophages
631
1. MHC II (Presents foreign antigens to Th cells);2. CD14 (Works with toll-like receptor 4 to bind lipopolysaccharide. Also a marker for monocytes);3. Receptors for Fc and C3b (ie opsonins)
632
Q0317:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: NK cells
633
1. Receptors for MHC I;2. CD16 (subunit of lowaffinity Fc receptor [ie. opsonins]);3. CD56 (adhesion molecule)
634
Q0318:Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Hematopoietic stem cells
635
CD34 (marker for this type of cell; and a receptor for CD62L; a selectin)
636
Q0319:Complement: Viral neutralization
637
C1; C2; C3; C4
638
Q0320:Complement: Opsonization
639
C3b
640
Q0321:Complement: Anaphylatoxins
641
C3a; C5a
642
Q0322:Complement: Neutrophil Chemotaxis
643
C5a
644
Q0323:Complement: Membrane attack complex
645
C5b to C9
646
Q0324:Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to:
647
Hereditary angioedema (overactive complement)
648
Q0325:Deficiency of C3 leads to:
649
Severe recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections
650
Q0326:Deficiency of C6 through C8 leads to:
651
Neisseria bacteremia
652
Q0327:What is Decay Accelerating Factor?
653
Prevents attachment of the alternative complement complex (C3 convertase) to the membrane
654
Q0328:When is Decay Accelerating Factor missing?
655
In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
656
Q0329:What kind of bacteria does complement defend against?
657
Gram negative bacteria
658
Q0330:What activates the classic complement pathway?
659
IgG and IgM;Mnemonic: GM makes classic cars.
660
Q0331:What activates the alternative complement pathway?
661
Microbe surface molecules (especially endotoxin)
662
Q0332:PGI2
663
Prostacyclin. Vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation. Aspirin does not inhibit its synthesis by endothelial cells. Synthesized from PGH2 by prostacyclin synthase in intact endothelial cells.
664
Q0333:PGH2
665
Synthesizes PGI2 with prostacyclin synthase in intact endothelial cells. Precursor of thromboxanes. Synthesized from PGG2.
666
Q0334:PGE2
667
Vasodilation; pain and fever. Synthesized from PGH2
668
Q0335:TxA2
669
Vasoconstriction; platelet aggregation and bronchoconstriction. Coverted from PGH2 by thromboxane synthase.
670
Q0336:LTB4
671
chemotaxis and activation of neutrophil adhesion molecules
672
Q0337:LTC4
673
Vasoconstriction; increased vessel permeability; bronchoconstriction
674
Q0338:LTD4
675
676
Q0339:LTE4
677
678
Q0340:HLA DR5
679
pernicious anemia & juvenile RA
680
Q0341:HLA DR2
681
Goodpasture syndrome; allergy; multiple sclerosis; & narcolepsy
682
Q0342:HLA DR3
683
celiac sprue; type I diabetes mellitus; & SLE
684
Q0343:HLA DR4
685
pemphigus vulgaris; RA; type I diabetes
686
Q0344:HLA DR7
687
steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome
688
Q0345:HLA B27
689
psoriasis; ankylosing spnondylitis; inflammatory bowel disease; Reiter's syndrome (PAIR)
690
Q0346:HLA B8
691
Graves' disease; celiac sprue
692
Q0347:HLA DR5
693
pernicious anemia (B12 deficiency); Hashimoto's thyroiditis
694
Q0348:antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
695
SLE
696
Q0349:anti-dsDNA; anti-Smith
697
specific for SLE
698
Q0350:antihistone
699
drug-induced SLE
700
Q0351:anti-IgG (rheumatoid factor)
701
rheumatoid arthritis
702
Q0352:antineutrophil (C-ANCA; P-ANCA)
703
vasculitis
704
Q0353:anticentromere
705
scleroderma (CREST)
706
Q0354:anti-Scl-70
707
scleroderma (diffuse)
708
Q0355:antimitochondrial
709
primary biliary cirrhosis
710
Q0356:antigliadin
711
celiac disease
712
Q0357:anti-basment membrane
713
Goodpasture's
714
Q0358:anti-epithelial cell
715
pemphigus vulgaris
716
Q0359:antimicrosomal
717
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
718
Q0360:anti-Jo-1
719
polymyositis; dermatomyositis
720
Q0361:IL-1
721
secreted by macrophages; stimulates T cells; B cells; neutrophils; fibroblasts; and epithelial cells to grow; differentiate or synthesize specific products
722
Q0362:this cytokine is an endogenous pyogen
723
IL-1
724
Q0363:IL-2
725
secreted by Th cells; stimulates growth of helper and cytotoxic T cells
726
Q0364:IL-3
727
secreted by activated T cells; supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells
728
Q0365:this cytokine has a function similar to GMCSF
729
IL-3
730
Q0366:IL-4
731
secreted y Th cells; promotes growth of B cells; enhances cass switching of IgE and IgG
732
Q0367:IL-5
733
secreted by Th cells; promotes differentiation of B cells; enhances class switching of IgA & stimulates production and activation of eosinophils
734
Q0368:IL-6
735
secreted by Th cells and macrophages; stimiulates production of actute-phase reactants and immunoglobulins
736
Q0369:IL-8
737
major chemotactic factor for neutrophils
738
Q0370:IL-10
739
secreted by Th2 cells; stimulates Th2 while inihibiting Th1
740
Q0371:IL-12
741
secreted by B cells and macrophages; activates NK and Th2 cells
742
Q0372:gamma-interferon
743
secreted by Th cells; stimulates macrophages
744
Q0373:TNF-alpha
745
secreted by macrophages; increases IL-2 receptor synthesis by Th cells; increases B cell proliferation; attracts and activates neutrophils; stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes
746
Q0374:what are the cell surface proteins on helper T cells?
747
CD4; TCR; CD3; CD28; CD40L
748
Q0375:cell surface proteins on cytotoxic T cells
749
CD8; TCR; CD3
750
Q0376:cell surface proteins on B cells
751
IgM; B7; CD19; CD20; CD40; MHC II
752
Q0377:cell surface proteins on macrophages
753
MHC II; CD14; receptors for Fc and C3b
754
Q0378:cell surface proteins on NK cells
755
receptors for MHC I; CD 16
756
Q0379:cell surface protein on all cells except mature RBCs
757
MHC I
758
Q0380:complement proteins involved in viral neutralization (4)
759
C1; C2; C3; C4
760
Q0381:complement protein responsible for opsonization
761
C3b
762
Q0382:complement proteins involved in anaphylaxis
763
C3a; C5a
764
Q0383:complement protein responsbile for neutrophil chemotaxis
765
C5a
766
Q0384:complement proteins involved in cytolysis by MAC
767
C5b-9
768
Q0385:rheumatoid factor and anti-SS-A
769
Sjogren syndrome
770
Q0386:HLA A3
771
primary hemochromatosis
772
Q0387:high antibody titers to ribonucleoprotein (RNP); low titer RF and anti-ssDNA
773
mixed connective tissue disease
774
Q0388:c-ANCA
775
Wegener's granulomatosis
776
Q0389:anti-Ro/anti-SS-A
777
Sjogren's syndrome
778
Q0390:anti-SS-B
779
Sjogren's syndrome
780
Q0391:what instructs macrophages to become epitheliod and multinucleated giant cells?
781
interferon-gamma
782
Q0392:what is the most specific marker for NK cells?
783
CD56; also CD16
784
Q0393:cytokine that mediates the isotype switch to IgE in B lymphocytes
785
IL-4; produced by Th2 cells
786
Q0394:what are the functions of lymph nodes?
787
filtration by macrophages; storage/proliferation of B and T cells; antibody production
788
Q0395:what is the site of B cell localization and proliferation?
789
follicle
790
Q0396:which follicles are dense and dormant?
791
primary
792
Q0397:which follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active?
793
secondary
794
Q0398:these communicate with efferent lymphatics and contain reticular cells and macrophages
795
medulla
796
Q0399:what region of the lymph node houses T cells?
797
paracortex
798
Q0400:in an extreme cellullar immune response; what part of the lymph node becomes greatly enlarged?
799
paracortex
800
Q0401:this portion of the lymph node is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge syndrome
801
paracortex
802
Q0402:what drains the right arm and the right half of the head?
803
right lymphatic duct
804
Q0403:what drains everything but the right arm and right half of head?
805
thoracic duct
806
Q0404:where are T cells found in the spleen?
807
periarterial lymphatic sheath adn red pulp (T rex)
808
Q0405:where are B cells found within the spleen?
809
white pulp
810
Q0406:these are long; vascular channels in red pulp with fenestrated "barrel hoop" basement membrane
811
sinusoids of spleen
812
Q0407:what is found in the marginal zone of the spleen?
813
APCs
814
Q0408:where do T cells mature? what is this derived from embryologically?
815
thymus; epithelium of 3rd branchial pouches
816
Q0409:what part of the thymus is dense with immature T cells?
817
cortex
818
Q0410:what part of the thymus is pale with mature T cells and epithelial reticular cells?
819
medulla (M-mature/medulla)
820
Q0411:what part of the thymus contains Hassall's corpuscles?
821
medulla
822
Q0412:MHC restriction occurs in what type of selection?
823
positive
824
Q0413:nonreactive to self is associated with what type of selection?
825
negative
826
Q0414:where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
827
corticomedullary junction
828
Q0415:these cells producse IL-2 and gammainterferon
829
Th1 cells
830
Q0416:these cells activate macrophages and Tc cells
831
Th1 cells
832
Q0417:what do macrophages produces to influence naive helper T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells?
833
IL-12
834
Q0418:what cells produce IL-4 and IL-5? what does this do?
835
Th2 cells - causes B cells to differentiate into plasma cells
836
Q0419:what type of cells are responsible for host defense against infection with TB; virus-infected cells; and fungi?
837
T cells
838
Q0420:what type of cells opsonize bacteria and neutralize toxins and viruses?
839
B cells
840
Q0421:what type of cells are responsible for hay fever and Type I hypersensitivity reactions?
841
B cells
842
Q0422:what type of cells are responsible for poison oak allergy and type IV hypersensitivity?
843
T cells
844
Q0423:what type of cells are responsible for autoimmunity?
845
B cells
846
Q0424:what type of cells are responsible for graft and tumor rejection and regulation of antibody response?
847
T cells
848
Q0425:what MHC class consists of 1 polypeptide with beta2-microglobulin?
849
MHC class I
850
Q0426:what MHC class consists of 2 polypeptides; and alpha and beta chain?
851
MHC class II
852
Q0427:what cells have MHC I proteins?
853
all nucleated cells
854
Q0428:what cells have MHC I and MHC II proteins?
855
APCs
856
Q0429:what MHC class are the main determinants of organ rejection?
857
MHC class II
858
Q0430:where does MHC I antigen loading occur?
859
in RER (viral antigens)
860
Q0431:where does MHC II antigen loading occur?
861
in acidified endosome
862
Q0432:helper T cells have ____; which binds to ____ on antigen-presenting cells
863
CD4; MHC II
864
Q0433:cytotoxic T cells have ____; which binds to ____ on virus-infected cells
865
CD8; MHC I
866
Q0434:this is a cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor; it is important in signal transduction
867
CD3 complex
868
Q0435:what does Th cell secrete that activates Tc cell to kill virus-infected cell?
869
IL-2
870
Q0436:what do APCs express that bind to CD28 on Th cells to create the costimulatory signal?
871
B7
872
Q0437:what part of an antibody recognizes antigens?
873
variable part of L and H chains
874
Q0438:what part of antibody fixes complement?
875
constant part of H chain of IgM and IgG
876
Q0439:what chain contributes to both Fc and Fab fractions?
877
heavy chain
878
Q0440:what chain contributes only to Fab fraction?
879
light chain
880
Q0441:how is antibody diversity generated?
881
1. random recombination of VJ (light chain) or VDJ (heavy chain) genes 2. random combination of heavy chains with light chains 3. somatic hypermutation 4. addition of nucleotides to DNA during genetic recombination by tdt
882
Q0442:what mediates isotype switching?
883
cytokines and CD40 ligand
884
Q0443:what is the main antibody in the secondary response?
885
IgG
886
Q0444:what is the most abundant antibody?
887
IgG
888
Q0445:this Ig type fixes complement; crosses the placenta; opsonizes bacteria; and neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses
889
IgG (Goes across placenta)
890
Q0446:this Ig type prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes; does not fix complement
891
IgA
892
Q0447:this Ig type is a monomer or dimer that is found in secretions and picks up secretory cmoponent from epithelial cells before secretion
893
IgA
894
Q0448:this Ig type is produced in the primary response to an antigen
895
IgM (priMary)
896
Q0449:this momomer or pentamer fixes complement but does not cross the placenta; antigen receptor found on the surface of B cells
897
IgM
898
Q0450:this Ig type does not have a clear function; it is found on the surface of many B cells in serum
899
IgD
900
Q0451:this Ig mediates immediate (type I) hypersensitivity by inducing the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils when exposed to allergen
901
IgE
902
Q0452:this Ig has the lowest concentration in serum
903
IgE
904
Q0453:this Ig mediates immunity to worms
905
IgE
906
Q0454:this type of Ig epitope differs among members among members of same species; can be on light chain or heavy chain
907
allotype (polymorphism)
908
Q0455:this is an Ig epitope common to a single class of Ig (5 classes; determined by heavy chainn)
909
isotpe (IgG; IgA; etc.)
910
Q0456:this Ig epitope is determined by antigenbinding site; specific for a given antigen
911
idiotype
912
Q0457:patients are given preformed antibodies after exposure to what four diseases?
913
tetanus; botulinum; HBV; rabies (to be healed rapidly)
914
Q0458:this type of immunity is based on receiving preformed antibodies from another host
915
passive
916
Q0459:this type of immunity is induced after exposure to foreign antigen - slow onset but long-lasting production
917
active
918
Q0460:how does salmonella show antigen variation?
919
two flagellar variants
920
Q0461:how does nenisseria gonorrhoeae show antigen variation?
921
pilus protein
922
Q0462:what is anergy?
923
self=reactive T cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule
924
Q0463:what types of hypersensitivity are antibody-mediated?
925
I; II; III
926
Q0464:in this type of hypersensitivity; antigen cross=links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils; triggering release of vasoactive amines (e.g. histamine)
927
type I (anaphylactic and atopic)
928
Q0465:anaphylaxis; asthma; hives; local wheal and flare are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?
929
type I
930
Q0466:in this type of hypersensitivity; IgM; IgG bind to antigen on "enemy" cell; leading to lysis (by complement) or phagocytosis
931
type II (cyotoxic)
932
Q0467:autoimmune hemolytic anemia; Rh disease; Goodpasture's; rheumatic fever; Grave's disease; bullous pemphigoid; MG; and ITP are all examples of what type of hypersensitivity?
933
type II
934
Q0468:in this type of hypersensitivity; antigenantibody complexes activate complement; which attracts neutrophils; neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes
935
type III
936
Q0469:polyarteritis nodosa; immune complex glomerulonephritis; SLE; RA; serum sickness; and Arthus reaction are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?
937
type III
938
Q0470:this is an imuune complex disease in which antibodies to foreign proteins are produced (takes 5 days); immune complexes are formed and deposit in membranes where they fix complement
939
serum sickness (type III)
940
Q0471:this is a local subacute antibody-mediated hypersensitivity (type III) reaction in which intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies which form Ag-Ab complexes in skin
941
Arthus reaction
942
Q0472:this type III hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by edema; necrosis; and activation of complement
943
Arthus reaction
944
Q0473:hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung) and thermophilic actinomycetes are examples of what?
945
Arthus reaction
946
Q0474:in this type of hypersensitivity; sensitized T lymphocytes encounter antigen and then release lymphokines; which leads to macrophage activation
947
type IV (delayed/T-cell mediated)
948
Q0475:transplant rejections; TB skin tests; and contact dermatitis are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?
949
type IV
950
Q0476:fever; urticaria; arthralgias; proteinuria; lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after drug exposure
951
serum sickness
952
Q0477:what defends agains gram-negative bacteria?
953
complement
954
Q0478:the classic pathway is activated by what?
955
IgG or IgM (GM makes classic cars)
956
Q0479:what activates the alternate pathway?
957
molecules on the surface of microbes (especially endotoxin)
958
Q0480:interferons induce the production of a 2nd protein that inhibits viral protein synthesis by doing what?
959
degrading viral mRNA
960
Q0481:these are proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state
961
interferons (alpha; beta; gamma)
962
Q0482:which interferons inhibit viral protein synthesis?
963
alpha and beta interferons
964
Q0483:what does gamma-interferon do?
965
increases MHC I and II expression and antigen presentation in all cells
966
Q0484:this type of rejection is due to the presence of preformed antidonor antibodies in the transplant recipient
967
hyperacute rejection
968
Q0485:this type of transplant rejection is cellmediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes reacting against foreign MHCs
969
acute rejection
970
Q0486:what type of transplant rejection is reverisble with immunosuppressants such as cyclosporin and OKT3?
971
acute rejection
972
Q0487:this type of transplant rejection is characterized by antibody-mediated vascular damage (fibrinoid necrosis) and is irreversible
973
chronic rejection
974
Q0488:what are major symptoms of graft-versushost disease?
975
maculopapular rash; jaundice; hepatosplenomegaly; and diarrhea
976
Q0489:what is the defect in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?
977
X-linked recessive defect in a tyrosine kinase gene associated with low levels of all classes of Igs
978
Q0490:this disorder occurs in boys and is associated with recurrent bacterial infections after 6 months of age; when levels of maternal IgG antibody decline
979
Brutons agammaglobulinemia (B cells)
980
Q0491:this immune deficiency presents with tetany owing to hypocalcemia and recurrent viral and fungal infections
981
DiGeorge syndrome/thymic aplasia (T cells)
982
Q0492:this immune deficiency is associated with congenital defects of heart and great vessels
983
DiGeorge syndrome
984
Q0493:what ist eh chromosomal abnormality associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
985
22q11 deletion
986
Q0494:this is a defect in early stem cell differentiation and presents with recurrent viral; bacterial; fungal; and protozoal infections
987
SCID - B and T cell deficiency
988
Q0495:failure to synthesize MHC II antigens; defective IL-2 receptors; and adenosine deaminase deficiency can all lead to what immune deficiency?
989
SCID
990
Q0496:what does IL-12 receptor deficiency (decreased activation of T cells) present with?
991
disseminated mycobacterial infections
992
Q0497:defect in CD40 ligand on CD4 T helper cells leads to inability to class switch; presents early in life with severe pyogenic infections
993
hyper-IgM syndrome (decreased activation of B cells)
994
Q0498:this disorder is characterized by high levels of IgM and very low levels of IgG; IgA; and IgE
995
hyper-IgM syndrome
996
Q0499:this syndrome is characterized by an Xlinked defect in the ability to mount an IgM response to capsular polysaccharides of bacteria
997
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (decreased activation of B cells)
998
Q0500:what is the triad of symptoms associated with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
999
infections; thrombocytopenic purpura; eczema (WIPE)
1000
Q0501:this syndrome is associated with elevated IgA levels; normal IgE levels; and low IgM levels
1001
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
1002
Q0502:this syndrome presents with recurrent 'cold' (noninflamed) staphylococcal abscesses; eczema; coarse facies; retained primary teeth; and high IgE levels
1003
Job's syndrome (decreased activation of macrophages)
1004
Q0503:this syndrome is characterized by failure of gamma-interferon production by helper T cells; neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
1005
JOb's syndrome
1006
Q0504:what is the defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome?
1007
defect in LFA-1 adhesion proteins on phagocytes
1008
Q0505:this syndrome presents early with severe pyogenic and fungal infections and delayed separation of umbilicus
1009
leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
1010
Q0506:how is Chediak-Higashi inherited?
1011
autosomal recessive
1012
Q0507:this disease is marked by a defect in microtubular function and lysosomal emptying of phagocytic cells
1013
Chediak-Higashi disease
1014
Q0508:this disease presents with recurrent pyogenic infections by staph and strep; partial albinism; and peripheral neuropathy
1015
1016
Q0509:defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or similar enzymes
1017
chronic granulomatous disease
1018
Q0510:how is the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease confirmed?
1019
negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test
1020
Q0511:this disease presents with marked susceptibility to opportunistic infections with bacteria; especially S. aureus; E. coli; and Aspergillus
1021
1022
Q0512:what is the defect in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis present?
1023
idiopathic dysfunction of T cells specifically against candida albicans
1024
Q0513:what is the most comon selective immunoglobulin deficiency? how does it present?
1025
selective IgA deficiency - presents with sinus and lung infections; milk allergies and diarrhea are common
1026
Q0514:ataxia-telangiectasia is an idiopathic dysfunction of what type of cells?
1027
B cells
1028
Q0515:defect in DNA repair enzymes with associated IgA deficiency; presents with cerebellar problems and spider angiomas
1029
ataxia-telangiectasia
1030
Q0516:deficiency of what leads to hereditary angioedema?
1031
C1 esterase inhibitor
1032
Q0517:deficiency of which complement protein leads to severe; recurrent; pyogenic sinus and RT infections?
1033
C3
1034
Q0518:deficiency of what complement proteins leads to Neisseria bacteremia?
1035
C6-C8
1036
Q0519:deficiency of what leads to paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
1037
decay-accelerating factor
1038
Q0520:patients with what deficiency have an increased susceptibility to recurrent bacterial infections; especially with encapsulated bacteria
1039
C3 deficiency; not detected until later in life
1040
Q0521:what is the most important immunological protective mechanism against blood-borne encapsulated organisms?
1041
IgG-mediated opsonization in the spleen
1042
Q0522:Warthin-Finkeldy giant cell is pathognomonic for what?
1043
measles or the live attenuated measles vaccine
1044
Q0523:Lyme arthritis is associated with what HLA?
1045
HLA-DR4
1046
Q0524:patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome have a 12% chance of developing what?
1047
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
1048
Q0525:test of choice to determine presence of circulating anti-Rh antibody?
1049
indirect Coombs test to measure IgG anti-Rh antibody
1050
Q0526:low levels of all antibody classes
1051
common variable immunodeficiency
1052
Q0527:spleen is important for removing what type of organisms? list 3
1053
strep pneumo; H. flu; Neisseria
1054
Q0528:what is defective in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
1055
integrins - function both in adhesion of leukocytes to other cells and in the phagocytosis of complement-coated material
1056
Q0529:HLA types associated with SLE?
1057
HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3
1058
Q0530:most likely sequelae of rheumatic fever?
1059
mitral valve disease
1060
Q0531:antitopoisomerase antibodies?
1061
scleroderma/systemic fibrosis - likely to develop diffuse systemic fibrosis & death from consequences of systemic disease such as pulmonary fibrosis or malignant hypertension
1062
Q0532:what is responsible for strong binding between monocytes; T lymphocytes; macrophages; neutrophils; and dendritic cells; and injured epithelium?
1063
LFA-1; interacts with ICAM-1
1064
Q0533:an increased level of what cytokine would decrease the likelihood of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction?
1065
IL-10
1066
Q0534:what 2 molecules exert the most powerful chemotactic effect on neutrophils?
1067
C5a and C8
1068
Q0535:what are the best markers for identification of B cells?
1069
CD19; CD20; CD21
1070
Q0536:IgG subclass deficiency is associated with a deficiency with what other substrate?
1071
IgA
1072
Q0537:what is C-reactive protein a marker of?
1073
non-specific inflammation - one of the most commonly measured acute-phase reactants
1074
Q0538:what test is done to diagnose CGD
1075
nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT);-neg in patients with CGD because they don't make oxygen radicals
1076
Q0539:what is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to
1077
number of Ags the Ab can bind to
1078
Q0540:what is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavy chain variable domain and one light chain
1079
allelic exclusion
1080
Q0541:what is the major ab of the primary immune response
1081
IgM
1082
Q0542:what form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infection
1083
CMI
1084
Q0543:t or f;direct fluuorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient
1085
false;direct test is for Ags;indirect test is for Abs
1086
Q0544:what is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich?;mode of inheritance
1087
thrombocytopenia;eczema;immunodeficiency;-XLR
1088
Q0545:what complement factor deficiency leads to ;1. inc pyogenic infection;2. recurrent gonoccal infection;3. leukocyte adhesion deficiency w/ poor opsonization;4. hereditary angioedema
1089
1. C3 def;2. C5-C8 def;3. C1; C2; or C4 def;4. C1 inhibitor
1090
Q0546:which IgG can't activate complement
1091
IgG4
1092
Q0547:name the T-cell CD marker;1. essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding;2. interacts w/ MHC class I ;2. exprssed on all T cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell receptor;4. interacts w/ MHC II;5. is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation
1093
1. CD40;2. CD8;3. CD3;4. CD4;5. CD28
1094
Q0548:what three cells are essential for t cell differentiation in the thymus
1095
dendritic cells;macrophages;thymic epithelial cells
1096
Q0549:what is the only specific ag presenting cell
1097
b cell
1098
Q0550:what is the tetrad of jarisch-herscheimer reax
1099
rigors;leukopenia;dec BP;(after tx for syphilis)
1100
Q0551:what is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig
1101
plasma cell
1102
Q0552:what would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with papain
1103
there would be two Fab and Fc regions
1104
Q0553:what is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell
1105
14 days
1106
Q0554:which leukotrienes are assoc with the late phase inflammatory response
1107
LTC4;LTD4
1108
Q0555:what is the term for the strength of the assoc between Ag and an Ab
1109
affinity (one of each)
1110
Q0556:t or f;more ag is needed to produce a secondary immune response than a first immune response
1111
f;fewere Ags are needed
1112
Q0557:what is the term for the strength of association between multiple Ab binding sites and multiple antigenic determinants
1113
avidity;(more than one binding site)
1114
Q0558:what Ig mediates ADCC via k cells; opsonizes; and is the Ig of the secondary immune response
1115
IgG
1116
Q0559:what test is used to detect ant-RBC Abs seen in hemolytic anemia
1117
coombs test
1118
Q0560:what subset of T cells recognizes the MHC I
1119
CD8 cytotoxic T cells
1120
Q0561:what cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells
1121
CD40
1122
Q0562:what re the five Ig isotypes
1123
IgG;IgA;IgM;IgE;IgD
1124
Q0563:which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration to and out of the blood during an immune response
1125
beta-2 integrins
1126
Q0564:what type of hypersensitivity is an ab0mediated response against our own cells; receptors or membranes via IgG or IgM
1127
type II
1128
Q0565:what is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is recognized by an Ab
1129
antigenic determinant (epitope)
1130
Q0566:what cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 function
1131
INF-gamma
1132
Q0567:what three cells are essential for T cell maturation
1133
thymic epi cells;dendritic cells;macrophages
1134
Q0568:what is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant
1135
hapten
1136
Q0569:what are the two opsonizing factors
1137
Fc region of IgG;C3b
1138
Q0570:what is the most common Ig deficiency
1139
IgA
1140
Q0571:what is the name of the B cell rich area of the spleen
1141
primary follicle in white pulp
1142
Q0572:what IL; produced by macrophages is chemotactic for neutrophils
1143
IL-8
1144
Q0573:what Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces
1145
IgA
1146
Q0574:what are the three rules of clonal selection
1147
one cell type;one Ab type;random selection of hypervariable regions; and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
1148
Q0575:what is a plasma cell's life expectancy
1149
7 to 14 days
1150
Q0576:what are defined by Ag binding specificity
1151
idiotypes
1152
Q0577:what type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG
1153
affinity
1154
Q0578:what molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR
1155
CD3
1156
Q0579:what is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T cell signaling
1157
thymus-independent Ags
1158
Q0580:what are the three rules governing a secondary immune response
1159
1. covalent binding between the hapten and carrier;2. b cell esposure to hapten twice;3. t cell exposure to carrier twice
1160
Q0581:what type of hypersensitivity is a T cell mediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement
1161
type IV
1162
Q0582:name the macrophage;1. liver;2. lungs;3. CNS;4. kidney
1163
1. kupffer;2. alveolar;3. microglial;4. mesangial
1164
Q0583:what is the first human disease successfully tx with gene therapy
1165
adenosine deaminase (ADA) def
1166
Q0584:what receptors are the best markers for NK cells
1167
CD 16;CD 56
1168
Q0585:t or f;ag-ab binding is irreversible
1169
1170
Q0586:what three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system
1171
t cells;b cells;macrophages
1172
Q0587:what test is used to screen for HIV
1173
ELISA for anti-p24 IgG
1174
Q0588:during what stage of b cell development is IgM first seen on the surface
1175
immature b cells
1176
Q0589:what Ig is responsible for ADCC of parasites; has a high affinity Fc receptor on mast cells; and basophils and is responsible for the allergic response
1177
IgE
1178
Q0590:t or f;b cell ag receptors can be secreted
1179
true
1180
Q0591:are more abs produced in a primary or secondary immune response
1181
secondary
1182
Q0592:by which process do abs make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis
1183
opsonization
1184
Q0593:what MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body
1185
MHC II
1186
Q0594:what disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF
1187
pernicious anemia
1188
Q0595:what cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function
1189
IL-4;IL-10;IL-13
1190
Q0596:what is the term for the number of Agbinding sites on an Ig
1191
valence
1192
Q0597:which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen
1193
RBC
1194
Q0598:what is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes
1195
Lipoxygenase
1196
Q0599:what is the term to describe basophils; that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue
1197
mast cells
1198
Q0600:what are the three major functions of secretory IgA
1199
IgA receptor;transport of IgA across epi ;protection of IgA from degradation proteases
1200
Q0601:what IL is important in myeloid cell development
1201
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
1202
Q0602:what is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products
1203
isotypes
1204
Q0603:what is the first Ab a baby makes
1205
IgM
1206
Q0604:what test by using specific Abs to different receptors allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a blood test
1207
flow cytometry analysis
1208
Q0605:what is the name of the T cell rich area of the spleen
1209
PALS
1210
Q0606:what three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins
1211
C3a;C4a;C5a
1212
Q0607:name the B cell CD marker;1. req for class switching signlas from T cells;2. receptor for EBV;3. used clinically to count B cells in blood
1213
1. CD40;2. CD21- a complement receptor for cleaved C3;3. CD19
1214
Q0608:what immunologic test checks for a reax between Abs and a paricular Ag (hint: ABO testing)
1215
agglutination test
1216
Q0609:which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils
1217
LTB4
1218
Q0610:what Ig is assoc w/ mucosal surfaces and external secretions
1219
IgA
1220
Q0611:what are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species
1221
allotypes
1222
Q0612:what cytokine do CD4 t cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR
1223
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells;-> begins ACTIVATION;CD4 t cells also secrete INF-alpha to activate macrophages
1224
Q0613:which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC II cell
1225
invariant chain
1226
Q0614:what would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with pepsin
1227
Fab' fragment- it could still participate in precipitation and agglutination
1228
Q0615:why are patients with CGD not prone to develop infection from catalase neg bacteria
1229
catalase neg bacteria secrete H2O2 allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for other toxic metabolites;patients with CGD are prone to catalase pos infections;(NADPH defect)
1230
Q0616:what are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal surfaces
1231
gamma and delta chains
1232
Q0617:which IL is assoc with increases of IgG and igE
1233
IL-4
1234
Q0618:Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
1235
SLE
1236
Q0619:Anti-dsDNA
1237
specific for SLE
1238
Q0620:Anti-Smith
1239
specific for SLE
1240
Q0621:Anti-histone
1241
specific for drug-induced lupus;(caused by;Hydralazine; INH; Phenytoin; Procainamide)
1242
Q0622:Anti-IgG
1243
Rheumatoid arthritis (autoantibody also known as rheumatoid factor)
1244
Q0623:Antineutrophil
1245
Vasculitis
1246
Q0624:p-ANCA
1247
Polyarteritis Nodosa ;1. necrotizing degeneration of media --> aneurysms;2. small and med arteries;3. ass'd w/ Hep B
1248
Q0625:c-ANCA
1249
Wegener's Granulomatosis;1. necrotizing; granulomatous lesions in kidney and lung;2. small arteries and veins;3. cough; ulcers of nasal septum; RBC casts
1250
Q0626:Anticentromere
1251
Scleroderma (CREsT);Calcinosis;Raynaud's;ESophageal dysfn;Telangiectasia
1252
Q0627:Anti-Scl-70
1253
Scleroderma (diffuse)
1254
Q0628:Antimitochondrial
1255
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)
1256
Q0629:Antigliadin
1257
Celiac sprue
1258
Q0630:Anti-basement membrane
1259
Goodpasture's Syndrome
1260
Q0631:Anti-epithelial cell
1261
Pemphigus vulgaris
1262
Q0632:Antimicrosomal
1263
Hashimoto's thyroiditis;(anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroid peroxidase)
1264
Q0633:Autoantibody;ANA
1265
Associated Disorder;SLE
1266
Q0634:Autoantibody;Anti-dsDNA;Anti-Smith
1267
Associated Disorder;specific for SLE
1268
Q0635:Autoantibody;antihistone
1269
Associated Disorder;drug-induced lupus
1270
Q0636:Autoantibody;Anti-IgG;(rheumatoid factor)
1271
Associated Disorder;Rheumatoid arthritis
1272
Q0637:Autoantibody;Antineutrophil;(P-ANCA; CANCA)
1273
Associated Disorder;Vaculitis
1274
Q0638:Autoantibody;Anticentromere
1275
Associated Disorder;Scleroderma (CREST)
1276
Q0639:Autoantibody;Anti-Scl-70
1277
Associated Disorder;Scleroderma (diffuse)
1278
Q0640:Autoantibody;antimitochondrial
1279
Associated Disorder;Primary biliary cirrhosis
1280
Q0641:Autoantibody;antigliadin
1281
Associated Disorder;Celiac Disease
1282
Q0642:Autoantibody;Anti-basement membrane
1283
Associated Disorder;Goodpasture's syndrome
1284
Q0643:Autoantibody;anti-Epithelial cell
1285
Associated Disorder;Pemphigus vulgaris
1286
Q0644:Autoantibody;Antimicrosomal
1287
Associated Disorder;Hashimoto's thyroiditis
1288
Q0645:Autoantibody;Anti-Jo-1
1289
Associated Disorder;Polymysitis;Dermatomyositis
1290
Q0646:what is the defect in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?
1291
X-linked recessive defect in a tyrosine kinase gene associated with low levels of all classes of Igs
1292
Q0647:this disorder occurs in boys and is associated with recurrent bacterial infections after 6 months of age; when levels of maternal IgG antibody decline
1293
Brutons agammaglobulinemia (B cells)
1294
Q0648:this immune deficiency presents with tetany owing to hypocalcemia and recurrent viral and fungal infections
1295
DiGeorge syndrome/thymic aplasia (T cells)
1296
Q0649:this immune deficiency is associated with congenital defects of heart and great vessels
1297
DiGeorge syndrome
1298
Q0650:what ist eh chromosomal abnormality associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
1299
22q11 deletion
1300
Q0651:this is a defect in early stem cell differentiation and presents with recurrent viral; bacterial; fungal; and protozoal infections
1301
SCID - B and T cell deficiency
1302
Q0652:failure to synthesize MHC II antigens; defective IL-2 receptors; and adenosine deaminase deficiency can all lead to what immune deficiency?
1303
SCID
1304
Q0653:what does IL-12 receptor deficiency (decreased activation of T cells) present with?
1305
disseminated mycobacterial infections
1306
Q0654:defect in CD40 ligand on CD4 T helper cells leads to inability to class switch; presents early in life with severe pyogenic infections
1307
hyper-IgM syndrome (decreased activation of B cells)
1308
Q0655:this disorder is characterized by high levels of IgM and very low levels of IgG; IgA; and IgE
1309
hyper-IgM syndrome
1310
Q0656:this syndrome is characterized by an Xlinked defect in the ability to mount an IgM response to capsular polysaccharides of bacteria
1311
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (decreased activation of B cells)
1312
Q0657:what is the triad of symptoms associated with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
1313
infections; thrombocytopenic purpura; eczema (WIPE)
1314
Q0658:this syndrome is associated with elevated IgA levels; normal IgE levels; and low IgM levels
1315
1316
Q0659:this syndrome presents with recurrent 'cold' (noninflamed) staphylococcal abscesses; eczema; coarse facies; retained primary teeth; and high IgE levels
1317
Job's syndrome (decreased activation of macrophages)
1318
Q0660:this syndrome is characterized by failure of gamma-interferon production by helper T cells; neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
1319
JOb's syndrome
1320
Q0661:what is the defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome?
1321
defect in LFA-1 adhesion proteins on phagocytes
1322
Q0662:this syndrome presents early with severe pyogenic and fungal infections and delayed separation of umbilicus
1323
leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
1324
Q0663:how is Chediak-Higashi inherited?
1325
autosomal recessive
1326
Q0664:this disease is marked by a defect in microtubular function and lysosomal emptying of phagocytic cells
1327
1328
Q0665:this disease presents with recurrent pyogenic infections by staph and strep; partial albinism; and peripheral neuropathy
1329
1330
Q0666:defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or similar enzymes
1331
1332
Q0667:how is the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease confirmed?
1333
negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test
1334
Q0668:this disease presents with marked susceptibility to opportunistic infections with bacteria; especially S. aureus; E. coli; and Aspergillus
1335
1336
Q0669:what is the defect in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis present?
1337
idiopathic dysfunction of T cells specifically against candida albicans
1338
Q0670:what is the most comon selective immunoglobulin deficiency? how does it present?
1339
selective IgA deficiency - presents with sinus and lung infections; milk allergies and diarrhea are common
1340
Q0671:ataxia-telangiectasia is an idiopathic dysfunction of what type of cells?
1341
B cells
1342
Q0672:defect in DNA repair enzymes with associated IgA deficiency; presents with cerebellar problems and spider angiomas
1343
ataxia-telangiectasia
1344
Q0673:deficiency of what leads to hereditary angioedema?
1345
C1 esterase inhibitor
1346
Q0674:deficiency of which complement protein leads to severe; recurrent; pyogenic sinus and RT infections?
1347
C3
1348
Q0675:deficiency of what complement proteins leads to Neisseria bacteremia?
1349
C6-C8
1350
Q0676:deficiency of what leads to paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
1351
decay-accelerating factor
1352
Q0677:patients with what deficiency have an increased susceptibility to recurrent bacterial infections; especially with encapsulated bacteria
1353
C3 deficiency; not detected until later in life
1354
Q0678:what is the most important immunological protective mechanism against blood-borne encapsulated organisms?
1355
IgG-mediated opsonization in the spleen
1356
Q0679:Warthin-Finkeldy giant cell is pathognomonic for what?
1357
measles or the live attenuated measles vaccine
1358
Q0680:Lyme arthritis is associated with what HLA?
1359
HLA-DR4
1360
Q0681:patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome have a 12% chance of developing what?
1361
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
1362
Q0682:test of choice to determine presence of circulating anti-Rh antibody?
1363
indirect Coombs test to measure IgG anti-Rh antibody
1364
Q0683:low levels of all antibody classes
1365
common variable immunodeficiency
1366
Q0684:spleen is important for removing what type of organisms? list 3
1367
strep pneumo; H. flu; Neisseria
1368
Q0685:what is defective in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
1369
integrins - function both in adhesion of leukocytes to other cells and in the phagocytosis of complement-coated material
1370
Q0686:HLA types associated with SLE?
1371
HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3
1372
Q0687:most likely sequelae of rheumatic fever?
1373
mitral valve disease
1374
Q0688:antitopoisomerase antibodies?
1375
scleroderma/systemic fibrosis - likely to develop diffuse systemic fibrosis & death from consequences of systemic disease such as pulmonary fibrosis or malignant hypertension
1376
Q0689:what is responsible for strong binding between monocytes; T lymphocytes; macrophages; neutrophils; and dendritic cells; and injured epithelium?
1377
LFA-1; interacts with ICAM-1
1378
Q0690:an increased level of what cytokine would decrease the likelihood of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction?
1379
IL-10
1380
Q0691:what 2 molecules exert the most powerful chemotactic effect on neutrophils?
1381
C5a and C8
1382
Q0692:what are the best markers for identification of B cells?
1383
CD19; CD20; CD21
1384
Q0693:IgG subclass deficiency is associated with a deficiency with what other substrate?
1385
IgA
1386
Q0694:what is C-reactive protein a marker of?
1387
non-specific inflammation - one of the most commonly measured acute-phase reactants
1388
Q0695:Name the cytokine:secreted by macrophages; stimulates just about everything; endogenous pyrogen
1389
IL-1
1390
Q0696:which cytokine stimulates growth of helper and cytotoxic T cells
1391
IL-2
1392
Q0697:which cytokine supports growth and differentiation of BM stem cells
1393
IL-3 (secreted by activated T cells)
1394
Q0698:which cytokine promotes growth of B cells and enhances class switching of IgE; IgG?
1395
IL-4
1396
Q0699:which cytokine enhances class switching of IgA?
1397
IL-5 (also promotes differentiation of B cells; stimulates production and activation of eosinophils)
1398
Q0700:which cytokine stimulates activation and production of eosinophils?
1399
IL-5
1400
Q0701:which cytokine stimulates production of acute phase reactants and immunoglobulins?
1401
IL-6
1402
Q0702:which interleukin is one of the MAJOR chemotactic factors for PMNs?
1403
IL-8 (also; C5a)
1404
Q0703:which cytokine stimulates Th2 and inhibits Th1?
1405
IL-10 (secreted by Th2 cells)
1406
Q0704:IL-10
1407
secreted by Th2 cells; stimulates Th2; inhibits Th1
1408
Q0705:which cytokine activates NK cells and Th1 cells?
1409
IL-12 (secreted by macrophages; B cells)
1410
Q0706:who is the "anticytokine" that inhibits growth and activity of T cells; counteracts effects of inflammatory cytokines; and stimulates wound healing?
1411
TGF-beta
1412
Q0707:which cytokine increases IL-2 receptor synthesis by Th cells; and increased B cell proliferation?
1413
TNF-alpha (also attracts and activates PMNs; stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes)
1414
Q0708:which cytokine is NOT produced in Job's syndrome--> "cold" staph abscesses
1415
gamma-IFN (secreted by Th1 cells; stimulates macrophages)
1416
Q0709:what are the 2 signals required for activation of helper T cells?
1417
1) foreign Ag on MHC II recognized by TCR on Th cell; 2) costim by B7-CD28
1418
Q0710:what are the 2 signals required for activation of cytotoxic T cells
1419
1) endogenously synthesized proteins on MHC I recognized by TCR; 2) IL-2 from Th cell activates cytotoxic cell
1420
Q0711:what kind of hypersensitivity reaction-allergic rhinitis
1421
type I hypersensitivity
1422
Q0712:what kind of hypersensitivity reaction-hemolytic anemia
1423
type II hypersensitivity
1424
Q0713:idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
1425
1426
Q0714:erythroblastosis fetalis
1427
1428
Q0715:rheumatic fever
1429
1430
Q0716:Goodpasture's syndrome
1431
1432
Q0717:bullous pemphigoid
1433
1434
Q0718:Graves' dz
1435
1436
Q0719:myasthenia gravis
1437
1438
Q0720:SLE
1439
type III hypersensitivity
1440
Q0721:rheumatoid arthritis
1441
1442
Q0722:polyarteritis nodosum
1443
1444
Q0723:post-strep glomerulonephritis
1445
1446
Q0724:serium sickness
1447
1448
Q0725:arthus reaction
1449
1450
Q0726:hypersensitivity pneumonitis
1451
1452
Q0727:type I diabetes mellitus
1453
type IV hypersensitivity
1454
Q0728:multiple sclerosis
1455
1456
Q0729:Guillain-Barre syndrome
1457
1458
Q0730:Hashimoto thyroiditis
1459
1460
Q0731:GVHdz
1461
1462
Q0732:PPD (TB test)
1463
1464
Q0733:contact dermatitis
1465
1466
Q0734:IgM; IgG bind to Ag on "enemy" cell--> lysis or phagocytosis
1467
type II (Ab-mediated) hypersensitivity
1468
Q0735:Ag-Ab complexes activate complement which attracts PMNs who release dangerous substances
1469
type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
1470
Q0736:sensitized T cells encounter Ag and release lymphokines to activate macrophages
1471
type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
1472
Q0737:fever; urticaria; arthralgias; proteinuria; lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after Ag exposure
1473
(serum sickness) type III hypersensitivity
1474
Q0738:Psoriasis
1475
B27 HLA association
1476
Q0739:Ankylosing Spondylitis
1477
B27 HLA association
1478
Q0740:IBD
1479
B27 HLA association
1480
Q0741:Reiter's syndrome
1481
B27 HLA association
1482
Q0742:Grave's
1483
B8 HLA association
1484
Q0743:Celiac sprue
1485
B8 HLA association
1486
Q0744:MS
1487
DR2 HLA association
1488
Q0745:hay fever
1489
DR2 HLA association
1490
Q0746:SLE
1491
DR2 HLA association
1492
Q0747:Goodpasture's
1493
DR2 HLA association
1494
Q0748:DM 1
1495
DR3; DR4 HLA association
1496
Q0749:Rheumatoid arthritis
1497
DR4 HLA association
1498
Q0750:Pernicious anemia
1499
DR5 HLA association
1500
Q0751:Hashimoto's
1501
DR5 HLA association
1502
Q0752:Steroid responsive nephrotic syndrome
1503
DR7 HLA association
1504
Q0753:x-linked recessive defect un tyrosine kinase gene assoc with low levels of all Ig classes. > after 6 months in bacterial infections (maternal IgG declines); mostly in BOYS
1505
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia - Decreased PRODUCTION B cells
1506
Q0754:Presents with tetany from HYPOCALCEMIA. Viral and fungal infs from T CELL DEFICIT;Thymus and parathyroid failure to dev - failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches to form;Congenital defects of heart and great vessels. 22q11 del.
1507
DiGeorge Syndrome - decreased PRODUCTION of T cells - Thymic aplasia
1508
Q0755:Prob in early stem cell differemtiation. recurrent bact; viral; fungal; protozoan infections. may have multiple causes (failure to synth MHC II antigens; defective IL2 receptors; adenosine deaminase deficiency)
1509
SCID - B and T cells decreased PRODUCTION
1510
Q0756:disseminated mycobacterial infections
1511
Decreased ACTIVATION of T cells - IL-12 receptor deficiency
1512
Q0757:Early severe pyogenic infections;High IgM - Low everything else;Defective CD40L on CD4 Thelpers so cannot class switch.
1513
Hyper IgM syndrome - decreased ACTIVATION of B cells
1514
Q0758:Triad of symps;1. recurrent pyogenic Infecs;2. Thrombocytopenic purpura;3. Eczema;xlinked. Not able to mount IgM response to capsular polysaccs of bacteria;High IgA;NORMAL IgE;Low IgM.
1515
Wiskott-Aldrich - decreased ACTIVATION of B cells
1516
Q0759:Recurrent "cold"/non-inflamed staph abcesses; eczema; course facies; retained primary teeth;HIGH IgE;Failure of gamma interferon production by T helpers.
1517
Job's syndrome - decreased ACTIVATION of macrophages.
1518
Q0760:Early severe pyogenic and fungal infections and DELAYED SEPARATION OF UMBILICUS;Defect in LFA-1 adhesion proteins on phagocytes.
1519
PHAGOCYTIC CELL DEFICIENCY -;Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
1520
Q0761:Presents recurrent pyogenic staph and strep; PARTIAL ALBINISM; peripheral neuropathy;Autosomal Recessive;Defect in MICROTUBULAR FUNCTION AND LYSOSOMAL EMPTYING OF PHAGOCYTES.
1521
PHAGOCYTIC CELL DEFICIENCY -;Chediak-Higashi dz
1522
Q0762:Marked suscepitibility to opport. infecs with bacteria - esp S. aureusm E. coli; and Aspergillus. Dx with NEGATIVE nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test - lack of NADPH oxidase activity in PMNs.
1523
PHAGOCYTIC CELL DEFICIENCY - ;Chronic granulomatous disease
1524
Q0763:Candida - skin and mucous membranes. T cell dysfunc against Candida specifically.
1525
IDIOPATHIC DYSFUNCTION OF;T Cells;Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
1526
Q0764:Sinus and lung infections; milk allergies and diarrhea common. Deficiency in one specific Ig class - IgA def is most common. Could be due to defect in isotype switching.
1527
IDIOPATHIC DYSFUNCTION OF;B Cells;Selective Immunoglobulin Deficiency
1528
Q0765:Presents as cerebellar problems (ataxia) and spider angiomas (telangiectasia). Defect in DNA repair enzymes with associated IgA deficit.
1529
IDIOPATHIC DYSFUNCTION OF;B cells;Ataxiatelangiectasia
1530
Q0766:Acquired in 20-30's;NORMAL B cell numbers circulating;LOW PLASMA CELLS ;LOW Ig
1531
IDIOPATHIC DYSFUNCTION OF;B cells;Common variable immunodeficiency
1532
Q0767:Rheumatoid factor
1533
It is an antibody against the Fc portion of IgG = RF & IgG form immune complexes;* which is itself an antibody; IgM or IgA type.
1534
Q0768:RF or RhF positive in;is often determined in patients suspected in any form of arthritis
1535
* High levels RF: generally > 20 IU/mL;* rheumatoid arthritis: present in 80%;* Sj?gren's syndrome: present in 60%
1536
Q0769:false (+) RF or RhF;Blood test performed in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
1537
* Chronic hepatitis;* Any chronic viral infection;* Leukemia;* Dermatomyositis;* Infectious mononucleosis;* Scleroderma;* Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
1538
Q0770:Sj?gren's syndrome;* antibodies to Ro(SSA) or La(SSB) antigens; or both;* > 40 years old at the time of diagnosis & Woman >> Man
1539
* an autoimmune disorder in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva with Schirmer test(+);* A lip biopsy can reveal lymphocytes clustered around salivary gland
1540
Q0771:Spondyloarthropathies
1541
Group of related INFLAMMATORY JOINT Ds associated with the MHC class I molecule HLA-B27
1542
Q0772:Seronegative spondylarthropathy
1543
Spondylarthropathy & (-)rheumatoid factor (RhF)
1544
Q0773:Non-specific spondylarthropathy
1545
Indicator of other rheumatological disease (in particular rheumatoid arthritis)
1546
Q0774:Subgroups (with increased HLA-B27 frequency)
1547
* ankylosing spondylitis Caucasians (AS; 92%);* ankylosing spondylitis African-Americans (AS; 50%);* reactive arthritis (Reiter's syndrome) (RS; 60-80%);* enteropathic arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD; 60%);* Psoriatic arthritis (60%);* isolated acute anterior uveitis (AAU; iritis or iridocyclitis; 50%); and;* undifferentiated SpA (USpA; 20-25%).
1548
Q0775:Dx;boys afound 6 mo w/ absence of plasma cells in tissue; recurrent bacterial infections w/ strep; staph; h. influenzae and pneumococci; absent or poorly defined germinal centers in LN; no immunoglobulins;genetic problem?
1549
Bruton's Agammaglobinemia;(Brutons = Boys = Bacteria infect);(X-recessive)
1550
Q0776:MCC of B-cell defect
1551
Isolated IgA deficiency
1552
Q0777:Dx;sinus and lung infections; milk allergies; diarrhea
1553
Isolated IgA deficiency;(infections of mucosal surfaces)
1554
Q0778:Dx;recurrent viral and fungal infections; tetany; lymphopenia; cardiac defects; cleft palate
1555
Di George syndrome;;(CATCH-22; 22q11 deletion)
1556
Q0779:Dx;severe bacterial; viral; fungal and protozoal infections; failure-to-thrive; high incidence of malignancy; thymic and LN hypoplasia
1557
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Dz;(SCID);(no/low B or T cells)
1558
Q0780:(3) possible causes of SCIDs
1559
Failure to make MHC-2;;defective IL-2 receptors;Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency (ADA)
1560
Q0781:Dx;Eczema; thrombocytopenic Purpura; recurrent Infections; elevated IgA; low IgM;genetic problem?
1561
Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome;(WIPE = Wiscott; Infect; Purpura; Eczema);(X-linked disorder)
1562
Q0782:what is the dysfunction if patient gets chronic Candida albicans infections?
1563
T-cell dysfunction
1564
Q0783:Dx;cerebellar problems; spider angiomas; IgA deficiency;where is the defect?
1565
Ataxia-Telangiectasia;defect;DNA reapir enzyme
1566
Q0784:what lymphocyte surface protein deficiency would cause an increase in mycobacterial infections?
1567
IL-12 receptor deficiency
1568
Q0785:Dx;baby presents w/ severe pyogenic infections; high IgM; very low IgG; IgA and IgE;where is the defect?
1569
Hyper-IgM syndrome;defect;CD40L on Th1 helper cells;(leads to inability to class-switch)
1570
Q0786:Dx;recurrent "cold" staph abscesses; eczema; coarse facies; Retained Primary Teeth; increased IgE;where is the defect?
1571
Job's syndrome;;defect;Failure of INF-gamma by Tcells (low Macros)
1572
Q0787:What cell surface protein on HIV binds to CD4 T-cells?;what does it inser into host genome?
1573
gp120;;Proviral DNA;(via reverse transcriptase)
1574
Q0788:what is the test for HIV?;follow-up test?
1575
ELISA;;follow: Western Blot
1576
Q0789:what type of genome does HIV have?
1577
Diploid;(2 molecules of RNA)
1578
Q0790:what is the rectangular nucleocapsid protein (holds the 2 molecules of RNA) in HIV?
1579
p24 capsid
1580
Q0791:what is the product of HIV reverse transcriptase?
1581
dsDNA
1582
Q0792:(2) AIDS criteria
1583
CD4 < 200;or;CD4/CD8 ratio < 1.5
1584
Q0793:what homozygous mutation gives immunity to HIV?
1585
CCR5 mutation
1586
Q0794:Dx;lymphadenopathy; weight loss; arthritis; photosensitivity; raynauds; pulmonary fibrosis; endocarditis; immune-complex vasculitis; glomerular changes;COD?
1587
SLE;;COD;Renal failure (and infections)
1588
Q0795:what may be the earliest lab abnormality in some SLE patients?
1589
False Positive test for Syphilis
1590
Q0796:Dx;tightening of facial skin; sclerodactyly (claw-hand); raynauds; dysphagia; pulmonary fibrosis; HTN
1591
Scleroderma;(CREST-syndrome also has calcinosis and telangiectasia)
1592
Q0797:Dx;xerostomia (dry mouth); keratoconjunctivitis (dry eyes); RA or other CT problem; hypergammaglobinemia; parotid enlargement
1593
Sjogren syndrome;[when you're JOGin' you sweat and get dry]
1594
Q0798:Dx;chronic inflammation of proximal extremity muscles due to CD8 injury; possible reddish-purple rash on face and neck; increased CK and Adolase
1595
Polymyositis;(w/ skin rash: Dermatomyositis)
1596
Q0799:Dx;arthralgias; raynauds; myositis; esophageal hypomotility; no renal involvement;antibody?
1597
Mixed Connective Tissue Dz;(MCTD);Ab: anti-nRNP
1598
Q0800:Amyloid associated with;heart; muscle and tongue; plasma cell disorders
1599
AL (Amyloid Light chain)
1600
Q0801:Amyloid associated with;kidney; liver; adrenals; pancreas; LN and spleen
1601
AA protein
1602
Q0802:Amyloid associated with;chronic inflammatory diseases;RA; TB; osteomyelitis; syphilis
1603
AA protein
1604
Q0803:Amyloid associated with;Alzheimers;(2)
1605
amyloid Beta-protein;;A4 amyloid
1606
Q0804:Amyloid associated with;Insulin or glucagon (in DM-2);(2 names)
1607
Amylin;Islet Amyloid Polypeptide;(IAPP)
1608
Q0805:Amyloid associated with;Elderly (called senile Amyloidosis)
1609
Transthyretin
1610
Q0806:Young child presents with tetany ;and candidiasis. Hypocalcemia ;and immunosuppression are ;ound.
1611
T cell deficient;(DiGeorge).
1612
Q0807:Young child has recurrent lung ;infections and granulomatous ;lesions. What is the defect in ;neutrophils?
1613
NADPH oxidase (chronic ;granulomatous disease).
1614
Q0808:A 2 lymphoid organ that has many afferents; 1 or more efferents. Encapsulated; with trabeculae.
1615
Lymph node
1616
Q0809:Lymph node definition
1617
A 2 lymphoid organ that has many afferents; 1 or more efferents. Encapsulated; with trabeculae.
1618
Q0810:Lymph node;function
1619
Functions are nonspeci?c ?ltration by macrophages; storage/proliferation ;of B and T cells; antibody production.
1620
Q0811:Lymph node;Follicle ;what and location
1621
Site of B-cell localization and ;proliferation. In outer cortex.
1622
Q0812:Lymph node;Follicle ;1 vs 2
1623
1 follicles are dense and ;dormant. 2 follicles have ;pale central germinal ;centers and are active.
1624
Q0813:Lymph node;Medulla description
1625
Consists of medullary cords ;(closely packed lymphocytes ;and plasma cells) and ;medullary sinuses.
1626
Q0814:Lymph node;Medullary sinuses
1627
communicate with efferent ;lymphatics and contain ;reticular cells and macrophages.
1628
Q0815:Lymph node;Paracortex description (cells; location; vessels)
1629
Houses T cells. Region of cortex between follicles and medulla. Contains high endothelial venules through which T and B cells enter from blood.
1630
Q0816:Lymph node;Paracortex wrt extreme
1631
In an extreme cellular immune response;paracortex becomes greatly enlarged.
1632
Q0817:Lymph node;which part is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge syndrome.
1633
Paracortex
1634
Q0818:Lymph drainage;ducts
1635
Right lymphatic duct Drains right arm and right half of head;Thoracic duct Drains everything else.
1636
Q0819:Sinusoids of spleen description
1637
Long; vascular channels in red pulp with fenestrated barrel hoop basement membrane. Macrophages found nearby.
1638
Q0820:Long; vascular channels in red pulp with fenestrated barrel hoop basement membrane. Macrophages found nearby.
1639
Sinusoids of spleen
1640
Q0821:spleen;where are T cells
1641
in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) and in the red pulp ;of the spleen.
1642
Q0822:spleen;where are B cells
1643
B cells are found in follicles within the white pulp of the spleen.
1644
Q0823:Site of T-cell differentiation and maturation.
1645
Thymus
1646
Q0824:Thymus derivation
1647
From epithelium of 3rd branchial ;pouches. Lymphocytes of mesenchymal origin.
1648
Q0825:Thymus WRT capsule
1649
Encapsulated.
1650
Q0826:Thymus;different areas and what happens there
1651
Cortex is dense with immature T cells;medulla is pale with mature T cells and epithelial reticular cells and contains Hassalls corpuscles;Positive (MHC restriction) and negative selection ;selection (nonreactive to self) occur at the ;corticomedullary junction.
1652
Q0827:where are Hassalls corpuscles.
1653
Thymus medulla is pale with mature T cells and epithelial ;reticular cells and contains Hassall s corpuscles.
1654
Q0828:what are Hassalls corpuscles.
1655
formed from type VI epithelial reticular cells with unclear function
1656
Q0829:1 Lymph node draining;Upper limb and lateral breast
1657
Axillary
1658
Q0830:1 Lymph node draining;Stomach
1659
Celiac
1660
Q0831:1 Lymph node draining;Duodenum and jejunum
1661
Superior mesenteric
1662
Q0832:1 Lymph node draining;Sigmoid colon
1663
colic to the inferior mesenteric
1664
Q0833:1 Lymph node draining;lower rectum and anal canal above pectinate line
1665
internal iliac
1666
Q0834:1 Lymph node draining;anal canal below pectinate line
1667
superficial inguinal
1668
Q0835:1 Lymph node draining;testies
1669
superficial and deep plexuses to the para-aortic
1670
Q0836:1 Lymph node draining;scrotum
1671
1672
Q0837:1 Lymph node draining;superficial thigh
1673
1674
Q0838:1 Lymph node draining;lateral side of the dorsum of the foot
1675
popliteal
1676
Q0839:Innate vs. adaptive immunity;Innate cells
1677
Consists of neutrophils; macrophages; dendritic cells; and complement.
1678
Q0840:Innate vs. adaptive immunity;adaptive cells
1679
Consists of T cells; B cells;and circulating antibody.
1680
Q0841:Innate vs. adaptive immunity;innate receptor
1681
receptors that recognize pathogens are germline encoded
1682
Q0842:Innate vs. adaptive immunity;adaptive receptor
1683
receptors that recognize pathogens undergo VDJ recombination during lymphocyte development
1684
Q0843:Th1 cells produce/activate
1685
IL-2 and IFN-gamma; activate macrophages and cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells.
1686
Q0844:Th2 cells produce/activate
1687
IL-4; and IL-5; provide help for B cells to make antibody.
1688
Q0845:produce IL-2 and IFN-gamma; activate macrophages and cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells.
1689
Th1 cells
1690
Q0846:produce IL-4; and IL-5; provide help for B cells to make antibody.
1691
Th2 cells
1692
Q0847:MHC what is it and what encodes it
1693
major histocompatability complex; encoded by Human Leukocyte ;Antigen (HLA) genes.
1694
Q0848:MHC I ;what HLA's
1695
HLA-A; HLA-B; HLA-C.
1696
Q0849:MHC I ;what cells
1697
Expressed on almost all nucleated cells.
1698
Q0850:MHC I ;what is antigen loaded in
1699
RER of mostly intracellular peptides.
1700
Q0851:MHC I ;mediation
1701
Mediates viral immunity.
1702
Q0852:MHC I ;pairing
1703
Pairs with beta2-microglobulin.
1704
Q0853:Pairs with beta -microglobulin.
1705
MHC I
1706
Q0854:MHC II ;what HLA's
1707
HLA-DR; HLA-DP; HLA-DQ.
1708
Q0855:MHC II;what cells
1709
Expressed only on antigen presenting cells (APCs).
1710
Q0856:MHC II ;what is antigen loaded in
1711
Antigen is loaded in an acidi?ed endosome.
1712
Q0857:Which MHC type;HLA-A; HLA-B; HLA-C.
1713
MHC I
1714
Q0858:Which MHC type;Expressed on almost all nucleated cells.
1715
MHC I
1716
Q0859:Which MHC type;Antigen is loaded in RER of mostly intracellular peptides.
1717
MHC I
1718
Q0860:Which MHC type;Mediates viral immunity.
1719
MHC I
1720
Q0861:Which MHC type;HLA-DR; HLA-DP; HLA-DQ.
1721
MHC II
1722
Q0862:Which MHC type;Expressed only on antigen presenting cells (APCs).
1723
MHC II
1724
Q0863:Which MHC type;Antigen is loaded in an acidi?ed endosome.
1725
MHC II
1726
Q0864:Which MHC type;Main determinants of organ rejection.
1727
MHC II
1728
Q0865:Which lymphocyte B or T;Allergy (type I hypersensitivity)
1729
B : IgE
1730
Q0866:Which lymphocyte B or T;Allergy (type IV hypersensitivity)
1731
T cells
1732
Q0867:Major function of;CD4+ T cells
1733
help B cells make antibody and produce gammainterferon that activates macrophages.
1734
Q0868:Major function of ;CD8+ T cells
1735
Kill virus-infected cells directly
1736
Q0869:B vs T cell role in organ rejection
1737
B cells--hyperacute (IgG);T cells---Organ rejection (slow)
1738
Q0870:T-cell glycoproteins;functions on just helper T
1739
Helper T cells have CD4; which binds to MHC II on antigen-presenting cells.
1740
Q0871:T-cell glycoproteins;functions on just Cytotoxic T
1741
Cytotoxic T cells ;have CD8; which binds to MHC I on virus- infected cells.
1742
Q0872:T-cell glycoproteins;functions on both
1743
CD3 complexcluster of ;polypeptides associated with ;a T-cell receptor. Important ;in signal transduction.
1744
Q0873:name the Antigen-presenting cells:
1745
1. Macrophage;2. B cell;3. Dendritic cell/langerhan's in skin
1746
Q0874:# of signals are required for T cell activation
1747
1748
Q0875:Th activation steps
1749
1. Foreign body is phagocytosed by APC;2. Foreign antigen is presented on MHC II and;recognized by TCR on Th cell (Signal 1);3. Costimulatory signal is given by interaction;of B7 and CD28 (Signal 2);4. Th cell activated to produce cytokines.
1750
Q0876:Tc activation
1751
1. Endogenously synthesized (viral or self) proteins are presented on MHC I and ;recognized by TCR on Tc cell (Signal 1);2. IL-2 from Th cell activates Tc cell to kill virus-infected cell (Signal 2).
1752
Q0877:Antibodies;function of Variable part of L and H chains
1753
recognizes antigens
1754
Q0878:Antibodies;what ?xes complement
1755
Constant part of H chain of IgM and IgG ?xes complement.
1756
Q0879:Fc and Fab fractions. what contributes
1757
Heavy chain contributes to Fc and Fab fractions. Light chain contributes only to Fab fraction.
1758
Q0880:Fc and Fab;mnemonic
1759
Fab: antigen binding fragment;Fc;Constant;Carboxy terminal;Complement-binding;(IgG + IgM only);Carbohydrate;side chains;Complement binding;fragment
1760
Q0881:Antibody diversity is generated by: (4 things)
1761
1. Random recombination of VJ (light-chain) or VDJ (heavy-chain) genes;2. Random combination of heavy chains with light chains;3. Somatic hypermutation;4. Addition of nucleotides to DNA during genetic recombination by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
1762
Q0882:describe in general ;Opsonization
1763
Antibody promotes;phagocytosis
1764
Q0883:describe in general ;Neutralization
1765
Antibody prevents bacterial adherence
1766
Q0884:describe in general ;Complement activation
1767
Antibody activates complement; enhancing opsonization and lysis
1768
Q0885:Antibody activates complement; enhancing opsonization and lysis
1769
Complement activation
1770
Q0886:Antibody prevents bacterial adherence
1771
Neutralization
1772
Q0887:Antibody promotes;phagocytosis
1773
Opsonization
1774
Q0888:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Mature B lymphocytes express on their surfaces
1775
IgM and IgD
1776
Q0889:Immunoglobulin isotypes;isotype switching mediated by
1777
by cytokines and CD40 ligand
1778
Q0890:Immunoglobulin isotypes;plasma cells secrete
1779
IgA; IgE; or IgG.
1780
Q0891:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgG (what response; how common; where it goes; what it does)
1781
Main antibody in 2 response. Most abundant. Fixes complement; crosses the placenta;opsonizes bacteria; neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses.
1782
Q0892:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Main antibody in 2 response.
1783
IgG
1784
Q0893:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Most abundant.
1785
IgG
1786
Q0894:Immunoglobulin isotypes;crosses the placenta
1787
IgG
1788
Q0895:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Fixes complement; crosses the placenta; opsonizes bacteria; neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses
1789
Fixes complement
1790
Q0896:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgA (what response; where it goes; structure elements; what it does)
1791
Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes; does not ?x ;complement. Monomer or dimer. Found in secretions. Picks up secretory component from epithelial cells before secretion.
1792
Q0897:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgA wrt complement
1793
does not ?x ;complement
1794
Q0898:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes
1795
IgA
1796
Q0899:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Monomer or dimer. Found in secretions
1797
IgA
1798
Q0900:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Picks up secretory component ;from epithelial cells before secretion.
1799
IgA
1800
Q0901:Immunoglobulin isotypes;what are they
1801
IgG ;IgA ;IgM ;IgD ;IgE
1802
Q0902:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgM (when; what it does; where it goes; srtucture)
1803
Produced in the 1 response to an antigen. Fixes complement but does not cross the placenta. Antigen receptor on the surface of B cells. Monomer or pentamer.
1804
Q0903:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Monomer or pentamer.
1805
IgM
1806
Q0904:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Antigen receptor on the surface of B cells.
1807
IgM
1808
Q0905:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Fixes complement but does not cross the placenta.
1809
IgM
1810
Q0906:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgD (what it does; where is it)
1811
Unclear function. Found on the surface of many B cells and in serum.
1812
Q0907:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Unclear function. Found on the surface of many B cells and in serum.
1813
IgD
1814
Q0908:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgE (role; where; how common)
1815
Mediates immediate (type I) hypersensitivity Mediates immunity to worms;Lowest concentration in serum.
1816
Q0909:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Mediates immediate (type I) hypersensitivity by inducing the release of mediators from ;mast cells and basophils when exposed to allergen.
1817
IgE
1818
Q0910:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Mediates immunity to worms.
1819
IgE
1820
Q0911:Immunoglobulin isotypes;Lowest concentration in serum.
1821
IgE
1822
Q0912:Immunoglobulin isotypes;IgE (role in hypersensitivity mech)
1823
by inducing the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils when exposed to allergen.
1824
Q0913:Ig epitopes;Allotype
1825
Allotype (polymorphism)Ig epitope that differs among members of same species. Can be on light chain or heavy chain.
1826
Q0914:Ig epitopes;Isotype
1827
iso (same). Common to same class;Isotype (IgG; IgA; etc.)Ig epitope common to a ;single class of Ig (5 classes; determined by heavy ;chain).
1828
Q0915:Ig epitopes;Idiotype
1829
idio (unique). Hypervariable region is unique;Idiotype (speci?c for a given antigen) Ig epitope ;determined by antigen-binding site.
1830
Q0916:Ig epitope that differs;among members of same species. Can be on ;light chain or heavy chain.
1831
Allotype (polymorphism)
1832
Q0917:Ig epitope common to a ;single class of Ig (5 classes; determined by heavy ;chain).
1833
Isotype (IgG; IgA; etc.)
1834
Q0918:(speci?c for a given antigen)Ig epitope ;determined by antigen-binding site.
1835
Idiotype
1836
Q0919:Important cytokines;mnemonic
1837
Hot T-bone stEAk;IL-1: fever (hot);IL-2: stimulates T cells;IL-3: stimulates bone marrow;IL-4: stimulates IgE;production;IL-5: stimulates IgA;production
1838
Q0920:what secretes and what is the role of;IL-1
1839
Secreted by macrophages. Stimulates T cells; B cells;neutrophils; ?broblasts; and epithelial cells to ;grow; differentiate; or synthesize speci?c products;An endogenous pyrogen.
1840
1841
Secreted by Th cells. Stimulates growth of helper;and cytotoxic T cells.
1842
1843
Secreted by activated T cells. Supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. Has a function similar to GM-CSF.
1844
1845
Secreted by Th2 cells. Promotes growth of B cells. Enhances class switching of IgE and IgG.
1846
1847
Secreted by Th2 cells. Promotes differentiation of B ;cells. Enhances class switching of IgA. Stimulates ;production and activation of eosinophils.
1848
1849
Secreted by Th cells and macrophages. Stimulates;production of acute-phase reactants and immunoglobulins.
1850
1851
Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils.
1852
1853
Secreted by Th2 cells. Stimulates Th2 while;inhibiting Th1.
1854
1855
Secreted by B cells and macrophages. Activates NK ;and Th1 cells.
1856
Q0929:what secretes and what is the role of;gamma-interferon
1857
Secreted by Th1 cells. Stimulates macrophages.
1858
Q0930:what secretes and what is the role of;TNFalpha
1859
Secreted by macrophages. IL-2 receptor synthesis by Th cells. increased B-cell proliferation. Attracts and activates neutrophils. Stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes.
1860
Q0931:Name the cytokine;An endogenous pyrogen.
1861
IL-1
1862
Q0932:Name the cytokine;Secreted by macrophages. Stimulates T cells; B cells;neutrophils; ?broblasts; and epithelial cells to ;grow; differentiate; or synthesize speci?c products.
1863
IL-1
1864
Q0933:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th cells. Stimulates growth of helper ;and cytotoxic T cells.
1865
IL-2
1866
Q0934:Name the cytokine;Secreted by activated T cells. Supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells.
1867
IL-3
1868
Q0935:Name the cytokine;Has a function similar to GM-CSF.
1869
IL-3
1870
Q0936:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th2 cells. Promotes growth of B cells;Enhances class switching of IgE and IgG.
1871
IL-4
1872
Q0937:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th2 cells. Promotes differentiation of B ;cells. Enhances class switching of IgA.
1873
IL-5
1874
Q0938:Name the cytokine;Stimulates production and activation of eosinophils.
1875
IL-5
1876
Q0939:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th cells and macrophages. Stimulates;production of acute-phase reactants and immunoglobulins.
1877
IL-6
1878
Q0940:Name the cytokine;Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils.
1879
IL-8
1880
Q0941:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th2 cells. Stimulates Th2 while inhibiting Th1.
1881
IL-10
1882
Q0942:Name the cytokine;Secreted by B cells and macrophages. Activates NK and Th1 cells.
1883
IL-12
1884
Q0943:Name the cytokine;Secreted by Th1 cells. Stimulates macrophages.
1885
gamma-interferon
1886
Q0944:Name the cytokine;Secreted by macrophages. increased IL-2 receptor synthesis ;by Th cells. increased B-cell proliferation.
1887
TNF-alpha
1888
Q0945:Name the cytokine;Attracts and activates neutrophils. Stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes.
1889
TNF-alpha
1890
Q0946:Cell surface proteins;Helper T cells
1891
CD4; TCR; CD3; CD28; CD40L.
1892
Q0947:Cell surface proteins;Cytotoxic T cells
1893
CD8; TCR; CD3.
1894
Q0948:Cell surface proteins;B cells
1895
IgM; B7; CD19; CD20; CD40; MHC II.
1896
Q0949:Cell surface proteins;Macrophages
1897
MHC II; CD14. Receptors for Fc and C3b.
1898
Q0950:Cell surface proteins;NK cells
1899
Receptors for MHC I; CD16; CD56.
1900
Q0951:Cell surface proteins;All cells except mature red cells
1901
MHC I.
1902
Q0952:what cell has ;CD4
1903
Helper T cells
1904
Q0953:what cell has ;TCR
1905
Helper T cells;and;Cytotoxic T cells
1906
1907
Helper T cells ;and;Cytotoxic T cells
1908
1909
Helper T cells
1910
Q0956:what cell has ;CD40L
1911
Helper T cells
1912
1913
Cytotoxic T cells
1914
Q0958:what cell has ;IgM
1915
B cells
1916
Q0959:what cell has ;B7
1917
B cells
1918
1919
B cells
1920
1921
B cells
1922
1923
B cells
1924
Q0963:what cell has ;MHC II
1925
APC's
1926
Q0964:what cell has ;Fc receptor (FcR)
1927
Dendritic cells;Macrophages
1928
Q0965:what cell has ;MHC I.
1929
All cells except mature red cells
1930
Q0966:what cell has ;CD14. Receptors for C3b
1931
Macrophages
1932
Q0967:what cell has ;Receptors for C3b
1933
Macrophages
1934
Q0968:what cell has ;Receptors for MHC I
1935
NK cells
1936
1937
NK cells
1938
Q0970:what cell has ;CD56.
1939
NK cells
1940
Q0971:Membrane attack complex of complement defends ;against
1941
gram-negative bacteria. Activated by IgG
1942
Q0972:Membrane attache complex ;activation in general
1943
Activated by IgG or IgM in the classic pathway; (GM makes classic cars.);Activated by molecules on the surface of microbes especially ;endotoxin) in the alternate pathway.
1944
Q0973:the two primary opsonins in ;bacterial defense.
1945
C3b and IgG
1946
Q0974:C3b and IgG are the
1947
two primary opsonins in ;bacterial defense.
1948
Q0975:Roles of different complement molecules;C1
1949
C1; C2; C3; C4viral ;neutralization.
1950
1951
1952
1953
1954
1955
1956
Q0979:Roles of different complement molecules;C3b
1957
C3b - opsonization.
1958
Q0980:Roles of different complement molecules;C3a
1959
C3a; C5aanaphylaxis.
1960
Q0981:Roles of different complement molecules;C5a
1961
C3a; and C5aanaphylaxis;C5aneutrophil chemotaxis.
1962
Q0982:Roles of different complement molecules;C5b-9
1963
C5b-9cytolysis by membrane;attack complex (MAC).
1964
Q0983:Roles of different complement molecules;De?ciency of C1 esterase ;inhibitor
1965
hereditary angioedema (overactive complement).
1966
Q0984:Roles of different complement molecules;De?ciency of C3
1967
severe; recurrent pyogenic ;sinus and respiratory tract ;infections.
1968
Q0985:Roles of different complement molecules;De?ciency of C6C8
1969
Neisseria bacteremia.
1970
Q0986:Roles of different complement molecules;De?ciency of decay;accelerating factor (DAF)
1971
leads to paroxysmal nocturnal;hemoglobinuria (PNH).
1972
Q0987:Name the complement molecules involved in/function;viral neutralization.
1973
C1; C2; C3; C4
1974
Q0988:Name the complement molecules involved in/function;opsonization.
1975
C3b
1976
Q0989:Name the complement molecules involved in/function;anaphylaxis.
1977
C3a; C5a
1978
Q0990:Name the complement molecules involved in/function;neutrophil chemotaxis.
1979
C5a
1980
Q0991:Name the complement molecules involved in/function;cytolysis by membrane attack complex (MAC).
1981
C5b-9
1982
Q0992:WRT complement ;What leads to hereditary;angioedema
1983
De?ciency of C1 esterase ;inhibitor
1984
Q0993:WRT complement ;What leads to severe; recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections.
1985
De?ciency of C3
1986
Q0994:WRT complement ;What leads to;Neisseria bacteremia.
1987
De?ciency of C6C8
1988
Q0995:WRT complement ;What leads to paroxysmal nocturnal;hemoglobinuria (PNH).
1989
De?ciency of decay-;accelerating factor (DAF)
1990
Q0996:hereditary angioedema aka
1991
overactive complement
1992
Q0997:overactive complement aka
1993
hereditary angioedema
1994
Q0998:proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state.
1995
Interferons (alpha; beta; gamma) are
1996
Q0999:Interferon mechanism ;in general
1997
Interferons induce the production of a 2nd protein that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral mRNA (but not host mRNA).
1998
Q1000:role of the interferons and what different ones do
1999
1. alpha- and beta-interferons inhibit viral protein synthesis;2. gamma-interferons increased MHC I;and II expression and ;antigen presentation ;in all cells;3. Activates NK cells to ;kill virus-infected cells
2000
Q1001:when are some of the times patients given preformed antibodies
2001
(passive)To Be Healed ;Rapidly;After exposure to Tetanus toxin; Botulinum toxin; HBV; or Rabies;
2002
Q1002:Antigen variation examples;wrt Bacteria
2003
Salmonella (two ?agellar variants); Borrelia (relapsing fever); Neisseria gonorrhoeae;(pilus protein).
2004
Q1003:Antigen variation examples;wrt Virus
2005
in?uenza (major = shift; minor = drift).
2006
Q1004:Antigen variation examples;wrt Parasites
2007
trypanosomes (programmed ;rearrangement).
2008
Q1005:Antigen variation;wrt in?uenza major shift
2009
and RNA segment rearrangement
2010
Q1006:Anergy describe in different cells
2011
Self-reactive T cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule;B cells also become anergic; but tolerance is less complete than in T cells.
2012
Q1007:Self-reactive T cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule.
2013
Anergy
2014
Q1008:Hypersensitivity Mechs;Type I
2015
Anaphylactic and atopic: antigen cross-links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils; triggering ;release of vasoactive amines (i.e; histamine).
2016
Q1009:Hypersensitivity Mechs;Type II
2017
Antibody mediated IgM; IgG bind to antigen on enemycell; leading to lysis (by complement) ;or phagocytosis.
2018
Q1010:Hypersensitivity Mechs;Type III
2019
Immune complex: antigen-antibody complexes activate complement; which attracts neutrophils;neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes.
2020
Q1011:Hypersensitivity Mechs;Type IV
2021
Delayed (T-cell-mediated): sensitized T cells encounter antigen and then release;lymphokines (leads to macrophage activation).
2022
Q1012:Serum sickness;mech
2023
antibodies to the foreign proteins are produced (takes 5 days). Immune complexes form and are deposited in membranes;where they ?x complement (leads to tissue damage).
2024
Q1013:Arthus reaction;mech
2025
Intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies; which form antigen-antibody complexes in the skin;Characterized by edema; necrosis; and activation ;of complement.
2026
Q1014:Intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies; which form antigen-antibody complexes in the skin;Characterized by edema; necrosis; and activation ;of complement.
2027
Arthus reaction
2028
Q1015:antibodies to the foreign proteins are produced (takes 5 days). Immune complexes form and are deposited in membranes;where they ?x complement (leads to tissue damage).
2029
Serum sickness
2030
Q1016:which is more common;serum sickness or Arthus reaction
2031
Serum sickness
2032
Q1017:which Hypersensitivity reactions are antibody mediated
2033
Types I; II; and III are all ;antibody mediated.
2034
Q1018:Hypersensitivity ;why is Type 1 so fast
2035
Reaction develops rapidly after antigen exposure due to preformed antibody.
2036
Q1019:Hypersensitivity ;how does type II do its damage
2037
Cy-2-toxic;Antibody and complement lead;to membrane attack complex;(MAC).
2038
Q1020:serum sickness ;cause and findings
2039
Most serum sickness is now ;caused by drugs (not serum);Fever; urticaria; arthralgias; proteinuria; lymphadenopathy 510 days after antigen exposure.
2040
Q1021:Fever; urticaria; arthralgias; proteinuria; lymphadenopathy 510 days after antigen exposure.
2041
serum sickness
2042
Q1022:Mnemonic for type III Hypersensitivity
2043
Imagine an immune complex as ;3 things stuck together;antigen-antibody-complement.
2044
Q1023:is Type IV Hypersensitivity transferable by serum
2045
Cell mediated; therefore; it is ;not transferable by serum.
2046
Q1024:Type IV Hypersensitivity ;mnemonic
2047
4 Ts = T lymphocytes;Transplant rejections;TB skin tests; Touching ;(contact dermatitis).
2048
Q1025:Hypersensitivity mnemonic
2049
ACID;-Anaphylactic and Atopic ;(type I);Cytotoxic (antibody mediated);(type II);-Immune complex (type III);-Delayed (cell mediated) ;(type IV)
2050
Q1026:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Type I
2051
Anaphylaxis;Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)
2052
Q1027:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Anaphylaxis
2053
Type I
2054
Q1028:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)
2055
Type I
2056
Q1029:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Type II
2057
Hemolytic anemia;Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura;Erythroblastosis fetalis;Rheumatic fever;Goodpastures syndrome;Bullous pemphigoid;Graves disease;Myasthenia gravis
2058
Q1030:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Hemolytic anemia
2059
Type II
2060
Q1031:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
2061
Type II
2062
Q1032:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Erythroblastosis fetalis
2063
Type II
2064
Q1033:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Rheumatic fever
2065
Type II
2066
Q1034:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Goodpastures syndrome
2067
Type II
2068
Q1035:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Bullous pemphigoid
2069
Type II
2070
Q1036:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Graves disease
2071
Type II
2072
Q1037:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Myasthenia gravis
2073
Type II
2074
Q1038:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Type III
2075
Lupus;Rheumatoid arthritis;Polyarteritis nodosum;Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis;Serum sickness;Arthus reaction;Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
2076
Q1039:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Lupus
2077
Type III
2078
Q1040:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Rheumatoid arthritis
2079
Type III
2080
Q1041:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Polyarteritis nodosum
2081
Type III
2082
Q1042:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
2083
Type III
2084
Q1043:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Serum sickness
2085
Type III
2086
Q1044:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Arthus reaction
2087
Type III
2088
Q1045:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
2089
Type III
2090
Q1046:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Type IV
2091
Type 1 diabetes mellitus;Multiple sclerosis;Guillain-Barr syndrome;Hashimotos thyroiditis;Graft-versus-host disease;PPD (test for M. tuberculosis);Contact dermatitis
2092
Q1047:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Type 1 diabetes mellitus
2093
Type IV
2094
Q1048:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Multiple sclerosis
2095
Type IV
2096
Q1049:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Guillain-Barr syndrome
2097
Type IV
2098
Q1050:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Hashimotos thyroiditis
2099
Type IV
2100
Q1051:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Graftversus-host disease
2101
Type IV
2102
Q1052:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;PPD
2103
Type IV
2104
Q1053:Diseases caused by hypersensitivity;Contact dermatitis
2105
Type IV
2106
Q1054:decreased production of: B cells
2107
Brutons agammaglobulinemia
2108
Q1055:decreased production of: T Cells
2109
Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge ;syndrome)
2110
Q1056:decreased production of: B and T cells
2111
severe combined immunode?ciency ;(SCID)
2112
Q1057:Brutons agammaglobulinemia;mech
2113
decreased production of: B cells ;X-linked recessive defect in a tyrosine kinase gene associated with low levels of all classes of immunoglobulins.
2114
Q1058:Brutons agammaglobulinemia;inheritance
2115
X-linked recessive
2116
Q1059:Brutons agammaglobulinemia;clinical findings
2117
recurrent Bacterial infections after 6 months of age; when levels of maternal IgG antibody decline. Occurs in Boys
2118
Q1060:recurrent Bacterial infections after 6 months of age; when levels of maternal IgG antibody decline. Occurs in Boys (X-linked).
2119
Brutons agammaglobulinemia
2120
Q1061:DiGeorge syndrome aka
2121
Thymic aplasia
2122
Q1062:Thymic aplasia aka
2123
DiGeorge syndrome
2124
Q1063:DiGeorge syndrome;mnemonic
2125
CATCH-22 ;C = cardiac defects;A = abnormal facies;T = thymic hypoplasia;C = cleft palate;H = hypocalcemia (tetany)from parathyroid aplasia;22 = microdeletions in chromosome 22- 22q11 deletion
2126
Q1064:DiGeorge syndrome;mech
2127
decreased production of: T Cells;Thymus and parathyroids fail to develop owing to failure of development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches.
2128
Q1065:severe combined immunode?ciency ;(SCID);mech/causes
2129
Defect in early stem-cell differentiation;decreased production of: B and T Cells;May have multiple causes (e.g; failure to synthesize MHC II antigens; defective IL-2 receptors; or adenosine deaminase de?ciency).
2130
Q1066:severe combined immunode?ciency ;(SCID);clinical findings
2131
recurrent viral; bacterial; fungal; and protozoal infections.
2132
Q1067:recurrent viral; bacterial; fungal; and protozoal infections.
2133
severe combined immunode?ciency ;(SCID)
2134
Q1068:IL-12 receptor de?ciency ;mech and findings
2135
decreased activation of: T-cells;;Presents with disseminated mycobacterial infections.
2136
Q1069:decreased activation of: T-cells;Presents with disseminated mycobacterial infections.
2137
IL-12 receptor de?ciency
2138
Q1070:hyper-IgM syndrome ;mech
2139
decreased activation of: B-cells;Defect in CD40 ligand on CD4 T helper cells leads to inability to class switch.
2140
Q1071:decreased activation of: B-cells
2141
hyper- IgM syndrome ;Wiskott-Aldrich ;syndrome
2142
Q1072:decreased activation of: Macrophages
2143
Jobs syndrome
2144
Q1073:hyper-IgM syndrome;clinical findings
2145
Presents early in life with severe pyogenic infections.
2146
Q1074:hyper-IgM syndrome;lab findings
2147
High levels of IgM; very low levels of IgG; IgA; and IgE.
2148
Q1075:Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ;mech
2149
decreased activation of: B-cells;X-linked recessive defect in the ability to mount an IgM response to capsular polysaccharides of;bacteria.
2150
Q1076:Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ;inheritance
2151
X-linked recessive
2152
Q1077:Defect in CD40 ligand on CD4 T helper cells leads to inability to class switch.
2153
hyper-IgM syndrome
2154
Q1078:defect in the ability to mount an IgM response to capsular polysaccharides of;bacteria.
2155
2156
Q1079:Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ;clinical findings
2157
Triad of symptoms includes recurrent pyogenic Infections; thrombocytopenic ;Purpura; Eczema (WIPE).
2158
Q1080:Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ;lab findings
2159
elevated IgA levels; normal IgE levels; and low IgM levels.
2160
Q1081:Jobs syndrome ;mech
2161
decreased activation of: Macrophages;Failure of gamma-interferon production by helper T cells. Neutrophils fail to respond to ;chemotactic stimuli.
2162
Q1082:Jobs syndrome ;clinical findings
2163
recurrent cold (nonin?amed) staphylococcal abscesses; eczema; coarse facies; retained primary teeth;
2164
Q1083:Jobs syndrome ;lab findings
2165
and high levels of IgE.
2166
Q1084:recurrent cold (nonin?amed) staphylococcal abscesses; eczema; coarse facies; retained primary teeth;
2167
Jobs syndrome
2168
Q1085:Phagocytic cell de?ciency;name them
2169
Leukocyte adhesion de?ciency syndrome;ChdiakHigashi ;disease ;Chronic granulomatous disease
2170
Q1086:Leukocyte adhesion de?ciency syndrome;mech
2171
Phagocytic cell de?ciency;Defect in LFA-1 adhesion proteins on phagocyte
2172
Q1087:Leukocyte adhesion de?ciency syndrome;clinical findings
2173
early with severe pyogenic;and fungal infections and delayed separation of umbilicus.
2174
Q1088:early with severe pyogenic;and fungal infections and delayed separation of umbilicus
2175
Leukocyte adhesion de?ciency syndrome
2176
Q1089:Chdiak-Higashi disease ;mech
2177
Phagocytic cell de?ciency;Defect in microtubular function and lysosomal emptying of ;phagocytic cells.
2178
Q1090:Chdiak-Higashi disease ;inheritance
2179
AR
2180
Q1091:Chdiak-Higashi disease ;clinical presentation
2181
Presents with recurrent pyogenic infections by staphylococci and ;streptococci; partial albinism; and peripheral neuropathy.
2182
Q1092:Presents with recurrent pyogenic infections by staphylococci and ;streptococci; partial albinism; and peripheral neuropathy
2183
Chdiak-Higashi disease
2184
Q1093:Chronic granulomatous disease;mech
2185
Defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or ;similar enzymes.
2186
Q1094:Defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or ;similar enzymes.
2187
Chronic granulomatous disease
2188
Q1095:Chronic granulomatous disease;Clinical findings
2189
Presents with marked susceptibility to opportunistic infections ;with bacteria; especially S. aureus; E. coli; and Aspergillus.
2190
Q1096:Chronic granulomatous disease;Dx
2191
Diagnosis con?rmed ;with negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test.
2192
Q1097:Presents with marked susceptibility to opportunistic infections ;with bacteria; especially S. aureus; E. coli; and Aspergillus.
2193
2194
Q1098:Diagnosis con?rmed ;with negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test.
2195
2196
Q1099:Idiopathic dysfunction of: T cells
2197
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
2198
Q1100:chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis;Mech
2199
Idiopathic dysfunction of: T cells;T-cell dysfunction speci?cally against Candida albicans
2200
Q1101:T-cell dysfunction speci?cally against Candida albicans
2201
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
2202
Q1102:chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis;clinical findings
2203
skin and mucous membrane Candida infections.
2204
Q1103:Idiopathic dysfunction of: B cells;name them
2205
-selective immunoglobulin ;de?ciency ;-ataxia telangiectasia ;-common variable immunode?ciency
2206
Q1104:selective immunoglobulin ;de?ciency;mech
2207
Idiopathic dysfunction of: B cells;De?ciency in a speci?c class of immunoglobulinspossibly due to a defect in isotype ;switching.
2208
Q1105:selective immunoglobulin ;de?ciency;most common
2209
Selective IgA de?ciency is the most common
2210
Q1106:selective immunoglobulin ;de?ciency;clinical findings
2211
sinus and lung infections; milk allergies and diarrhea are;common.
2212
Q1107:ataxia-telangiectasia ;mech
2213
Idiopathic dysfunction of: B cells;Defect in DNA repair enzymes with associated IgA de?ciency.
2214
Q1108:ataxia-telangiectasia ;clinical findings
2215
Presents with cerebellar ;problems (ataxia) and spider angiomas (telangiectasia).
2216
Q1109:common variable immunode?ciency;mech and who
2217
Idiopathic dysfunction of: B cells;Normal numbers of circulating B cells; decreased plasma cells; decreased Ig; can be acquired in 20's-30's
2218
Q1110:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
2219
SLE
2220
Q1111:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-dsDNA
2221
Speci?c for SLE
2222
Q1112:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;anti-Smith
2223
Speci?c for SLE
2224
Q1113:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antihistone
2225
Drug-induced lupus
2226
Q1114:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Drug-induced lupus
2227
Antihistone
2228
Q1115:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;SLE (general)
2229
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
2230
Q1116:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Speci?c for SLE
2231
Anti-dsDNA ;anti-Smith
2232
Q1117:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-IgG
2233
Rheumatoid arthritis
2234
Q1118:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Rheumatoid arthritis
2235
Anti-IgG (rheumatoid factor)
2236
Q1119:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antineutrophil
2237
Vasculitis
2238
Q1120:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Vasculitis
2239
Antineutrophil (C-ANCA; P-ANCA)
2240
Q1121:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-Scl-70
2241
Scleroderma (diffuse)
2242
Q1122:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anticentromere
2243
Scleroderma (CREST)
2244
Q1123:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Scleroderma (CREST)
2245
Anticentromere
2246
Q1124:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Scleroderma (diffuse)
2247
Anti-Scl-70
2248
Q1125:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antimitochondrial
2249
1 biliary cirrhosis
2250
Q1126:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;1 biliary cirrhosis
2251
Antimitochondrial
2252
Q1127:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antigliadin
2253
Celiac disease
2254
Q1128:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Celiac disease
2255
Antigliadin
2256
Q1129:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antibasement membrane
2257
Goodpastures syndrome
2258
Q1130:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Goodpastures syndrome
2259
Antibasement membrane
2260
Q1131:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antiepithelial cell (desmoglein)
2261
Pemphigus vulgaris
2262
Q1132:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Pemphigus vulgaris
2263
Antiepithelial cell (desmoglein)
2264
Q1133:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-hemidesmosomes
2265
Bullous pemphigoid
2266
Q1134:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Bullous pemphigoid
2267
Anti-hemidesmosomes
2268
Q1135:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antimicrosomal
2269
Hashimotos thyroiditis
2270
Q1136:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Hashimotos thyroiditis
2271
Antimicrosomal ;Antithyroglobulin
2272
Q1137:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Antithyroglobulin
2273
Hashimotos thyroiditis
2274
Q1138:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-Jo-1
2275
Polymyositis; dermatomyositis
2276
Q1139:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Polymyositis; dermatomyositis
2277
Anti-Jo-1
2278
Q1140:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-SS-A
2279
aka anti Ro ;Sjogren's syndrome
2280
Q1141:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-SS-B
2281
aka anti La ;Sjogren's syndrome
2282
Q1142:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Sjogren's syndrome
2283
Anti - SSA/Ro ;Anti -SSB/La;and often ANA positive
2284
Q1143:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-U1 RNP
2285
Mixed connective tissue disease
2286
Q1144:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Mixed connective tissue disease
2287
Anti-U1 RNP (Ribonucleoprotein)
2288
Q1145:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-smooth muscle
2289
Autoimmune Hepatitis
2290
Q1146:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Autoimmune Hepatitis
2291
Anti-smooth muscle
2292
Q1147:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
2293
DM type I
2294
Q1148:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;DM type I
2295
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
2296
Q1149:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;CANCA
2297
Wegener's granulomatosis
2298
Q1150:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;PANCA
2299
microscopic polyangiitis ;and focal necrotising and crescentic glomerulonephritis;sometimes Churg-Strauss
2300
Q1151:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;sometimes Churg-Strauss
2301
P-ANCA (anti myeloperoxidase)
2302
Q1152:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;Wegener's granulomatosis
2303
C-ANCA (anti Protinase 3)
2304
Q1153:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;focal necrotising and crescentic glomerulonephritis.
2305
2306
Q1154:Autoantibodies and associated disorders;microscopic polyangiitis
2307
2308
Q1155:Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies aka
2309
ANCA
2310
Q1156:ANCA aka
2311
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
2312
Q1157:perinuclear-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies aka
2313
P-ANCA
2314
Q1158:P-ANCA what letters stand for
2315
perinuclear-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
2316
Q1159:cytoplasmic-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies aka
2317
C-ANCA
2318
Q1160:C-ANCA what letters stand for
2319
cytoplasmic-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
2320
Q1161:HLA subtype associations;B27
2321
PAIR;Psoriasis;Ankylosing spondylitis; In?ammatory bowel disease; Reiters syndrome.
2322
Q1162:HLA subtype associations;Psoriasis
2323
B27
2324
Q1163:HLA subtype associations;Ankylosing spondylitis
2325
B27
2326
Q1164:HLA subtype associations;In?ammatory ;bowel disease
2327
B27
2328
Q1165:HLA subtype associations;Reiters syndrome.
2329
B27
2330
Q1166:HLA subtype associations;B8
2331
Graves disease; celiac sprue.
2332
Q1167:HLA subtype associations;celiac sprue.
2333
B8
2334
Q1168:HLA subtype associations;Graves disease
2335
B8
2336
Q1169:HLA subtype associations;DR2
2337
Multiple sclerosis; hay fever; SLE; Goodpasture s.
2338
Q1170:HLA subtype associations;Multiple sclerosis
2339
DR2
2340
Q1171:HLA subtype associations;hay fever
2341
DR2
2342
Q1172:HLA subtype associations;SLE
2343
DR2
2344
Q1173:HLA subtype associations;Goodpastures.
2345
DR2
2346
2347
Diabetes mellitus type 1.
2348
Q1175:HLA subtype associations;Diabetes mellitus type 1.
2349
DR3 and DR4
2350
2351
Rheumatoid arthritis; diabetes mellitus type 1.
2352
Q1177:HLA subtype associations;Rheumatoid arthritis
2353
DR4
2354
Q1178:HLA subtype associations;diabetes mellitus type 1.
2355
DR3 and DR4
2356
Q1179:HLA subtype associations;Pernicious anemia
2357
DR5
2358
Q1180:HLA subtype associations;Hashimotos thyroiditis.
2359
DR5
2360
Q1181:HLA subtype associations;Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome.
2361
DR7
2362
2363
Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome.
2364
Q1183:Hyperacute rejection ;description; time; and mechanism
2365
Antibody mediated due to the presence of preformed antidonor antibodies in the ;transplant recipient. Occurs within minutes after transplantation.
2366
Q1184:Acute rejection ;description; time; and mechanism
2367
Cell mediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes reacting against foreign MHCs. Occurs ;weeks after transplantation.
2368
Q1185:Acute rejection ;Tx
2369
Reversible with immunosuppressants such as cyclosporin and OKT3.
2370
Q1186:Chronic rejection ;description; time; and mechanism
2371
Antibody-mediated vascular damage (?brinoid necrosis); occurs months to years after ;transplantation. Irreversible.
2372
Q1187:Graft-versus-host disease ;description; time; and mechanism
2373
Grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in the irradiated immunocompromised ;host and reject cells with foreign proteins; resulting in severe organ dysfunction.
2374
Q1188:Graft-versus-host disease ;findings
2375
Major symptoms include a maculopapular rash; jaundice; hepatosplenomegaly; and;diarrhea.
2376
Q1189:The World Health Organization identifies an alarming increase in hospital admissions worldwide attributable to a new and unexpected serotype of influenza A virus. The biological attribute of influenza A virus; which allows the sudden appearance of dramatically new genetic variants; is also present in a limited number of other viral families. What viruse also possesses this biological attribute?
2377
Rotavirus
2378
Q1190:A 37-year-old newly married man presents with multiple blister-like lesions on the glans of his penis; appearing over the past 2 days. On questioning; he recalls similar episodes over the past 2 years. Examination is remarkable for tender; 3-4 mm vesicular lesions on the shaft of his penis with no apparent crusting; drainage; or bleeding. There is also slight bilateral inguinal adenopathy. During the asymptomatic period between outbreaks; where would the causative agent likely have been found? 2379
Neurons of the sacral ganglia
2380
Q1191:A veterinary student at a state university is referred to the student health clinic with complaints of fatigue; malaise; and lymphadenopathy. She has a fever of 38.2 C (100.8F); pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy; and a moderate lymphocytosis. She is three months pregnant with her first child. She is concerned with the potential for having become infected with Toxoplasma gondii. What stage of the parasite is capable of crossing the placenta?
2381
Tachyzoite
2382
Q1192:A 54-year-old woman suffering from influenza deteriorates and develops shaking chills and a high fever. Physical examination is remarkable for dullness to percussion at the left base and decreased breath sounds on the left. Chest x-ray confirms the diagnosis of lobar pneumonia; presumed to be caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The patient has no known drug allergies. What antibiotic would be most appropriate to treat the patient's condition?
2383
Penicillin
2384
Q1193:A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents to her physician and mentions that after many years without teeth problems; she has recently developed seven caries. This is a clue to her clinician that she should be evaluated for what disease?
2385
Sjogren's syndrome
2386
Q1194:A 46-year-old woman complains to her physician at the time of her annual examination of fatigue and painful lymph nodes in her neck; which she says have been present for at least 6 months. A lymph node biopsy reveals hypercellularity in the cortical areas; and serum electrophoresis shows a spike of protein in the gamma region. The abnormal immunoglobulin is determined to be of the IgG2 isotype. An IgG2 molecule is composed of?
2387
Two gamma2 chains and two kappa chains
2388
Q1195:A 67-year-old black man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency presents with fever; irritative voiding symptoms; and perineal pain. Rectal examination is remarkable for a boggy; exquisitely tender prostate. A urine Gram's stain is positive for gram-negative rods. The risk for development of hemolytic anemia is highest if he receives high-dose; 21-day therapy with ?
2389
Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
2390
Q1196:A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with one week of increasingly severe sore throat; fever; fatigue; and headache. His temperature is 39 C (102.2F) orally. He has palpable anterior cervical adenopathy and petechiae over his trunk and oral mucosae but lacks a pharyngeal exudate. His liver is palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin and his spleen tip is also palpable. His sclerae are anicteric. A blood smear appears as shown above. What is the identity of the predominating white blood cell? 2391
CD8+ lymphocyte
2392
Q1197:A 24-year-old man presents with complaints of itching on his arms and face. Physical examination reveals well-circumscribed wheals with raised; erythematous borders and blanched centers. What form of hypersensitivity is this patient probably exhibiting?
2393
Immediate type hypersensitivity
2394
Q1198:A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatrician's office complaining of a severe sore throat. ON examination; the child is febrile; and the throat is extremely erythematous with obvious abscesses on the tonsillar pillars. A rapid antigen test is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes. At what stage of the above growth curve would a beta-lactam antibiotic have greatest efficacy?
2395
log phase
2396
Q1199:In a random quality-control test of 73 batches of Hemophilus influenzae vaccines administered nationwide; the FDA discovered two lots in which the capsular polysaccharide of Hemophilus was not covalently coupled to the Diptheria toxoid. What immunologic response would be predicted in children receiving one of these unusual vaccine lots?
2397
They should produce a normal IgM response to Hemophilus
2398
Q1200:A 48-year-old waitress presents to a physician with malaise; loss of appetite; nausea; moderate fever; and jaundice. Laboratory tests indicate a marked increase in serum transaminases. Serology for hepatitis viruses is performed and indicates positive results for the presnce of HBsAg; HBc IgM antibody; and HCV antibody. Antibody tests for HBsAb and HAV are negative. The results indicate:
2399
The presence of an acute HBV infection
2400
Q1201:A febrile 23-year-old college coed presents with fatigue and difficulty swallowing. Physical exam reveals exudative tonsilitis; palatal petechiae; cervical lymphadenopathy; and tender hepatosplemonegaly. A complete blood count reveals mild anemia; lymphocytosis with about 30% of the lymphocytes exhibiting atypical features; and a mild thrombocytopenia. Coombs' test is positive. What is the most likely complication of this syndrome?
2401
splenic rupture
2402
Q1202:A 25-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester is diagnosed with an upper respiratory infection. What would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
2403
Azithromycin
2404
Q1203:A six-year-old child is brought to the pediatrician by Immunology Flash Facts his mother. While playing with friends after school; he received a puncture wound on his hand. Although his mother washed and disinfected it to the best of her ability; she is now concerned about the possibility of tetanus; and is seeking medical advice. After checking the child's vaccination status; the physician advised the mother that a new tetanus booster is not necessary at this time. If bacteria have been introduced into this child's puncture wound; what pair of complementary molecules will be most 2405 important in causing phagocytic cells to enter the area of infection?
LFA-1 and ICAM-1
2406
Q1204:A 33-year-old single mother of two young children visits her physician because of an oral ulcer. A review of systems is significant for fatigue; myalgia; and joint pain. Laboratory results demonstrate leukopenia; and a hightitered antinuclear antibody. A speckled staining pattern due to anti-Sm is seen with immunofluorescence; urinary protein is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2407
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
2408
Q1205:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); An experimental study on acne is performed using biopsy samples from acne pustules. The electron micrograph above illustrates one of the types of cells present in the wall of the pustules. What characteristic would most strongly suggest that the cell depicted above is a phagocytically active macrophage?
2409
Presence of receptors for IgG and complement
2410
Q1206:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A 16-year-old high school cheerleader presents with low grade fever; pleuritic pain; and a nonproductive cough. Her serum agglutinates Streptococcus salivarius strain MG. Therapy should include ?
2411
Erythromycin
2412
Q1207:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A 52-year-old woman reports to her family practitioner for an annual physical examination. She has been experiencing periods of heat intolerance; which she has attributed to the menopause. On examination; her physician notices that her eyeballs seem to be unusually protuberant and she has sinus tachycardia. Blood tests confirm that her T3/T4 levels are elevated. What is the mechanism of pathogenesis of her condition? 2413
Type II non-cytotoxic hypersensitivity
2414
Q1208:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY GENERAL PRINCIPLES); Immunology a hisjtroy of prostate A 70-year-old man with Flash Facts cancer presents with a chief complaint of pain on the right side of his chest for the past several days. He has been receiving external beam radiation to spinal metastases of his prostate cancer forj the past several weeks. On examination; there is marked tenderness along the right side of the chest wall in a 4-6 cm stripe from the midline to the flank. Multiple small vesicular lesions are visible in this area on an erythematous base. Some of the lesions are fluid2415 filled; and some are crusted. How do members of the virus family responsible for his condition
By transcribing the genomic DNA
2416
Q1209:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A Immunology Flash Facts patient with Epstein-Barr virus lymphoma enrolls in an experimental protocol to stimulate production of CD8+ cells specific for his EBVtransformed cells. His peripheral blood cells are tested with a battery of anti-HLA; A; B; and C antibodies; followed by addition of complement; and trypan blue dye. The wells of the microtiter plate in which dye was taken up by the cells is shown below: (*picture*). What molecule implanted into the membrane of a culture of tissue fibroblasts enriched for expression of 2417 costimulatory molecules would serve to stimulate the most effective cytotoxic killing?
EBNA plus HLA-A1
2418
Immunology Flash Facts Q1210:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A 6-month-old infant is rushed to the emergency department because he seems to be having touble breathing. His mother was breast-feeding the child when she noticed that he seemed to be unable to suckle strongly; his eyelids were drooping; and his breaths were shallow and irregular. The child is placed on respiratory support immediately. The mother acknowledges adding honey to the infant's first solid foods. Where is the genetic coding for this toxin 2419 located?
lysogenic phage genome
2420
Immunology Flash Facts Q1211:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A colony of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated on Thayer-Martin medium. Over the course of ten generations in culture; this strain produces a homogeneous antigenic type of pili. Lysates froma culture of N. gonorrhoeae with a different pilus type are added to the stable colonies. After overnight incubation; the bacteria are cloned; and their pilus expression is analyzed. In 50% of the new colonies; a new antigenic form of pili is now expressed. What has happened in these 2421 cultures?
natural transformation
2422
Q1212:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A couple brings their son into a specialty clinic for evaluation of recurrent bacterial infections involving the respiratory tract. Causative agents have included Streptococcus pneumoniae; and Hemophilus influenzae; in spite of current immunization status. Other family members have a similar disorder; as noted in the pedigree above. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2423
Bruton agmmablobulinemia
2424
Q1213:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY; RESPIRATORY); A 9month-old infant is brought to the pediatrician by her mother during a winter month. The child has a febrile illness; which has now become associated with labored breathing and wheezing. Auscultation of the chest reveals expiratory wheezes over both lung fields and there is clear tachypnea and tachycardia. What is the first thing that this causative agent virus does upon entering a cell?
2425
It transcribes its genome into messenger RNA using a virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
2426
Q1214:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY GENERAL PRINCIPLES); Immunology Flash Facts A 34-year-old HIV-positive man without previous opportunistic infections presents complaining of dyspnea with daily activity. He states that he has had a mild cough and fever but denies having had chills; sputum production; or chest discomfort. Physical examination is remarkable for oral thrush and a few small; nontender cervical lymph nodes. A chest x-ray film reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates; and bronchoalveolar lavage reveals small silverstaining cysts. IN what other patient population 2427 in the U.S; is this organism a frequent cause of a life-threatening pneumonia?
premature infants
2428
Q1215:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY; RESPIRATORY); A newborn infant develops respiratory distress shortly after delivery and is taken to the neonatal intensive care unit for observation. The next day; she become febrile with persistent dyspnea and coughing. Sputum recovered by the respiratory therapist reveals numerous neutrophils and gram-negative rods that grow as pink colonies on MacConkey's agar. The infective organism most likely belong to what genera?
2429
Escherichia
2430
Q1216:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY; NERVOUS); A 38-yearImmunology Flash Facts old AIDS patient presents to his physician's office in Kansas City; Missouri; complaining of fever for the past week and an increasing headache. He also states that sunlight hurts his eyes and that he has been feeling nauseated and weak. His past medical history is significant for Pneumocytis pneumonia and a total CD4 count of 89/mm3. Current medications are trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and indinavir. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reveals 4 WBC/mm3; and budding encapsulated yeast forms grown on 2431 Sabouraud's agar. What is an accurate description of the morphology of the infectious form of the
Broad-based budding yeasts
2432
Q1217:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY; NERVOUS); A 42-yearold heart transplant patient complains to her primary care physician about headache and nausea 14 months after transplant. A CT scan of the head shows ring-enhancing lesions. Bacterial; fungal; and viral cultures of the lesions are negative. A biopsy is performed; and a hematoxylin-eosin stain of the biopsied tissue reveals multiple cyst-like structures. How did the infection most likely arise?
2433
Reactivation of latent infection
2434
Q1218:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES). A 32-year-old medical technician had a history of acute eczematous dermatitis on her hands and wrist in the distribution of the latex gloves she wore. The skin of her hands was dry; crusted; and thickened. The eczematous reaction cleared after a 2-week vacation. After 72 hours back on the job; the eczematous dermatitis returned and continued to grow worse. What characterizes the technician's reaction to the latex gloves?
2435
Type IV reaction
2436
Q1219:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A 15-year-old boy Immunology Flash Facts a pediatrician is evaluated by because of a history of multiple bacterial pneumonias. The boy had been apparently normal up until about age 12. In the last three years; he had had five episodes of bacterial pneumonia that were severe enough to require hospitalization. Chest x-ray films taken during the present evaluation demonstrates moderately severe bronchiectasis. A pilocarpine-induced sweat test is negative. T and B cell counts from peripheral blood are normal. Delayed hypersensitivity skin 2437 testing shows reactivity to Candida. Immunoglobulin studies demonstrate the following:
Common variable immunodeficiency
2438
Q1220:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A trauma victim in the emergency department requires a transfusion immediately. Type and cross-match tests reveal the following: (NO AGGLUTINATION WITH "PATIENT'S RBC PLUS SERUM FROM AB PERSON" and "Patient's serum plus [type A; B; AB; O; and RhD] RBC). What type of blood should the physician order for him?
2439
AB; RhD+
2440
Q1221:(SYSTEM: MICROBIOLOGY; RESPIRATORY); A 54year-old farmer in rural Pennsylvania presents to his physician with chronic cough. Chest x-ray demonstrates a mass lesion with hilar lymphadenopathy. Biopsy of the mass demonstrates multiple; tiny yeast forms within macrophages. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2441
Histoplasmosis
2442
Immunology Flash Facts Q1222:(SYSTEM: IMMUNOLOGY; GENERAL PRINCIPLES); A 3-year-old male who is small for his age presents with a history of pyogenic infections. Physical examination is remarkable for a high fever; hepatosplenomegaly; and inguinal and cervical lymphadenopathy. A culture of a purulent discharge from an abscess grows out Staphylococcus aureus. Immunoglobulin and complement levels are normal. The boy received all of the standard immunizations without any adverse effects. The boy's immune deficiency most 2443 likely involves ?
phagocytic cells
2444
Q1223:A 2-day-old baby girl suddenly develops abdominal distention; progressive pallid cyanosis; and irregular respirations. The newborn also has "refused" to breast-feed for the past 18 hours. If the mother was treated for a serious infection with antibiotics for 14 days up to and including the day of delivery; what medication did the mother most likely receive?
2445
Chloramphenicol
2446
Q1224:A previously healthy 18-month-old girl is brought to Immunology Flash with 2 days of the office Facts irritability; poor appetite; and pulling at her left ear. She has no known allergies; and her vaccinations are up-to-date. On examination; the child's temperature is 102.8 F. She is easily consoled by the mother and moves her neck spontaneously without discomfort. There is a clear discharge from the nares. The left tympanic membrane is erythematous; dull; and bulging. What virulence factor is generally ABSENT in the strains of the causative organisms that produce obits media; compared2447 with those that produce epiglotittis or meningitis?
polyribitol phosphate
2448
Q1225:A 35-year-old Cajun man living in the bayous of the Mississippi River basin near New Orleans develops a tuberculosis-like illness with formation of masses within the lungs. PPD is negative; but the histoplasmin skin test is positive. CT-guided biopsy of one of the lung masses would be most likely to demonstrate ?
2449
2-5 micrometer yeast with a thin cell wall but no true capsule
2450
Q1226:A Washington; D.C; letter carrier is Immunology Flash Facts brought to the emergency department of a local hospital by his wife; who fears that he is having a heart attack. The man is suffering severe substernal pain accompanied by a fever of 40 C (104 F) and cough. ON radiographic examination; there is pronounced mediastinal widening. A sample of blood is cultured on blood agar; and nonhemolytic; rough gray colonies are produced. During what stage of the bacterial growth curve shown above would the maxiumum number of the infectious forms inhaled by this patient 2451 produced?
stationary phase
2452
Q1227:A 54-year-old man presents with complaints of shortness of breath; a sore tongue; and a "pins-and-needles" sensation in his feet. Laboratory examination revelas macrocytosis; anemia; and hypersegmented neutrophils. Antibodies to intrinsic factor are detected in the patient's serum. What class II antigen would be most likely to play a contributing role in the etiology of this patient's disease?
2453
DR5
2454
Q1228:A sexually active 18-year-old woman presents with a fever of 38.9 C (102 F) for the past 24 hours and lower abdominal pain and anorexia for the past 5 days. ON physical examination; there is generalized tenderness of the abdomen; and the cervix is erythematous with motion tenderness. There is no rash nor any lesions on the external genitalia. A smear of the odorless cervical discharge contains sloughed epithelial cells and scant neutrophils. What would likely be found in the exudate? 2455
Iodine-staining intraepithelial inclusion bodies
2456
Q1229:Approximately 1 week after starting therapy for a complicated urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis; a 13-year-old girl develops leg cramps; myalgia; and arthralgias. What medication was this patient most likely prescribed?
2457
lomefloxacin
2458
Q1230:A 35-year old man develops hemiparesis; ataxia; homonymous hemianopa; and cognitive deterioration. An MRI of the brain demonstrates widespread areas of abnormal T2 signal in the white matter. An electroencephalogram is remarkable for diffuse slowing over both cerebral hemispheres. Brain biopsy revelas demyelination with abnormal oligodendrocytes; some of which contain eosinophilic inclusions. This patient's condition is most closely related to what diseases? 2459
AIDS
2460
Q1231:A bacterium cultured from the bloodstream of an HIV-positive patient is determined by electron microscopy to possess an envelope. The basic structure of the envelop is diagrammed above. The culture isolate is subjected to Gram's staining. Provided that the laboratory technologist conducts this test properly what reagent will give this organism its primary color in the staining procedure?
2461
Safranin
2462
Q1232:A 3-year-old male presents with a skin rash and epistaxis. He has had several; severe sinopulmonary infections. A careful history reveals that his maternal uncle died of bleeding complications following an emergency cholecystectomy. What additional findings are likely in this case?
2463
low platelet count and low serum IgM levels
2464
Q1233:A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of fever; chills; chest pain; and cough productive of reddish-brown sputum. Past medical history includes a splenectomy 1 year ago. A chest x-ray film indicates consolidation of the right lower lobe. Blood cultures are positive for alpha-hemolytic gram-posotive diplococci. Immunity to the causative organism is based on ?
2465
IgG antibodies to a surface acidic polysaccharide
2466
Q1234:A British dairy farmer develops fever with chills; myalgia;s headache; skin rash; and vomiting. He is quite ill and is hospitalized. Blood cultures demonstrate tightly coiled; thin; flexible spirochetes shaped like a Shepherd's crook. The spirochetes are easily cultrued in serum-enriched nutrient agar. What organism should be suspected?
2467
Leptospira interrogans
2468
Q1235:A high school student badly burned in an automobile accident develops a skin lesions on the burn area during his hospitalization. What is the causative agent?
2469
An oxidase-postive; aerobic; gram-negative bacillus
2470
Q1236:A newborn infant has multiple; hemorrhagic; cutaneous lesions and does not respond to sound. Head CT scan shows periventricular calcifications. What infectious agent is the most likely cause of this child's presentation?
2471
cytomegalovirus
2472
Immunology Flash is Q1237:A 9-month-old infantFacts brought to the Health Department to receive the second dose of OPV (ORAL POLIO VACCINE); 2 weeks after the first vaccination. The child has mild diarrhea; so the decision is made to defer further immunizations. Bacteriologic examination of a stool culture is unremarkable; however; a small; single-stranded positive RNA virus is isolated from the specimen. This same agent was isolated from sewage effluent the preceding week. The viral isolate was not inactiviated by ether. What viruse was most likely 2473 isolated?
poliovirus
2474
Q1238:A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes Immunology primary seeks treatment from herFlash Facts care physician for painful; burning urination. She is given a course of ampicillin; but returns to her physician a week later with complaints of fever and flank pain. At the time of her second visit; her temperature is 40 C (104 F); and she is tachycardic; with a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. She has a petechial rash on her trunk and mucous membranes; and her fingertips show signs of peripheral vascular coagulopathy. A blood culture is positive for growth of gram-negative 2475 lactose-fermenting bacilli. What substance is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
lipid A
2476
Q1239:A neonate is born at term with multiple problems. He is small for gestational age and has cataracts; hepatosplenomegaly; and thrombocytopenia with purpura. Further studies demonstrate patent ductus arteriosus; bone lucency; pneumonia; and meningoencephalitis. The mother is a 15-year-old girl who had no prenatal care and had a mild maculopapular rash in midpregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2477
congenital rubella
2478
Q1240:A young military recruit scheduled for overseas assignment begins a course of immunization. The corpsman administering the inoculations warns the private that one of these immunizations is likely to cause swelling and inflammation 24-48 hours after injection and therefore should be administered in his nondominant arm. To what vaccine is the corpsman referring?
2479
tetanus
2480
Q1241:A 3-year-old child with cystic fibrosis presents with weight loss; irritability; and a chronic productive cough. On physical exam; he is febrile and lung exam reveals intercostal retractions; wheezing; rhonchi; and rales. Chest x-ray demonstrates pathy infiltrates and atelectasis and Gram's stain of the sputum reveals slighly curved; motile gram-negative rods that grow aerobically. The microorganism responsible for this child's pneumonia is also the most common cause of what disease? 2481
otitis externa
2482
Q1242:A 14-year-old patient is brough in by his parents because of a sore throat. ON physical examination; he is febirle; and has pharyngeal erythemia with a tonsillar absscess. A throat culture on sheep blood agar yields colonies of gram-positive cocci that are surrounded by a zone of complete hemolysis. The organism was also plated on mannitol salt agar; it grew well and cuased the medium to turn yellow. What microorganism is the most likely cause of the patient's illness? 2483
Staphylococcus aureus
2484
Q1243:An 18-year-old man is evaulated for possible immunodeficiency disease because of a life-long history of chronic lung infections; recurrent otitis media; and multiple episodes of bacterial meningitis. While total IgG is normal; the patient is found to have a selective deficiency of IgG2. IgG2 deficiency is most likely to be associated with a deficiency of what substance?
2485
IgA
2486
Q1244:An 8-year-old child is brought in by her mother with complaints of crampy abdominal pain; nausea; and mild diarrhea for approximately 2 weeks. The day before this visit; she vomited up a cylindrical white worm 30 cm in length; which the mother preserved in a jar. What is the most likely means by which this organism was acquired?
2487
ingestion of eggs from human feces
2488
Q1245:A 38-year-old primigravid woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains to her obstetrician of urinary frequency and burning. A clean catch specimen of urine is obtained and submitted to the laboratory for culture; Gram's stain; and biochemical analysis. Urease-positive gram-negative bacilli with smarming motility are detected. Where is the proton-motive force that generates energy for flagella located in this organism?
2489
Cytoplasmic membrane
2490
Q1246:An autopsy is performed on a man who suddenly began vomiting voluminous quantitis of blood and exanguinated. The man's stomach is presnted in the accompanying photograph. What organism is most likely implicated in the pathogenesis of this disease?
2491
Helicobacter pylori
2492
Immunology Flash Facts Q1247:A new vaccine developed by the military protects recruits against respiratory infections causes by adenovirus serotypes 4 and 7. The virus; which is living and non-attenuated; is delivered in an enteric coated capsule. It establishes an asymptomatic intestinal infection; which stimulations production of memory cells that disseminate throughout the body to protect all the mucosal surfaces from subseuqnt respiratory attack. What cytokine produced as a result of this vaccination is most likely to 2493 induce a protective response?
Interleukin-5
2494
Q1248:A 73-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents with left ear pain and drainage of pus from the ear canal. She has swelling and tenderness over the left mastoid bone. What microorganism is the most likely causative agent?
2495
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2496
Q1249:A 7-year-old girl develops behavioral changes; and her performance in school begins to deteriorate. Several months later; she develops a seizure disorder; ataxia; and focal neurologic symptoms. She is eventually quadriparetic; spastic; and unresponsive. Death occurs within a year. This patient may have had what viral disease at 1 year of age?
2497
Measles
2498
Q1250:A 36-year-old farmer has been exposed to poison ivy on several different occasions and usually develops severe skin lesions. He enrolls in an immunological study at an urban medical center. A flow cytometric measurement of T cells rev3eals values within the normal range. An increased serum concentration of what cytokines would decrease the likelihood of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in this individual?
2499
IL-10
2500
Q1251:An 8-year-old boy is brought to the Immunology Flash history of fever of emergency room with a 3-day Facts 102 degrees F and abdominal pain. He also complains of pain in hbis right knee and right elbow. He was seen four weeks ago because of a sore throat and a rash. A throat culture performed at that time grew gram-positive cocci in chains. Amoxicillin was prescribed; but the boy's mother did not fill the prescription. ON physical examination; his temp is 38.7 C (101.7 F); HR is 96; and BP is 100/60. Cardiac examination reveals a pansystolic blowing murmur heard best at the apex.2501 right elbow is tender His on extension and flexion with mild swelling.
sensitivity to bacitracin
2502
Q1252:A traveler to a foreign country develops acute lymphatic filariasis four months after his return to the United States. His symptoms include scrotal inflammation; itching; and localized scrotal swelling and tenderness of the inguinal lymph nodes. What immune mechanism does the body employ against the live filarial worms?
2503
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytoxocitiy
2504
Q1253:A Malaysian famiy is referred to a specialist in Memphis; Tennessee for evaluation of a possible genetic immunologic defect. 4 of 6 of the members of this family have displayed increased susceptibility to extracellular bacteria and elevated serum levels of IgM and IgG. Analysis of serum complement protein levels reveals near absence of component C4. This deficiency would inhibit whihc of the following complement activities?
2505
Completion of the classic pathway to the splitting of C3
2506
Q1254:A 15-year-old boy presents to his physician with several weeks of slowly worsening pruritis of both of his feet. He is otherwise well and taking no medications. On examination; he has bilateral; erythematous; dry scaling lesions that are most obvious in the interdigital web spaces and on the soles. There is no bleeding or exudate. What would most likely be found in a potassium hydroxide (KOH) mount of a scraping of the affected skin?
2507
Branching; septate hyphae with arthroconidia
2508
Q1255:A 12-year-old girl presents with a skin abscess. The causative organism is found to be Staphylococcus aureus. Over the past year; she has had several similar abscesses; as well as two bouts of aspergillosis. What is the most likely explanation for her repeated infections?
2509
Defective NAPDH oxidase
2510
Q1256:A 38-year-old woman with SLE is seen by her family physician. On her last visit; he sent blood to the laboratory for an antinuclear antibody panel. Based on the results; he recommends that the patient by seen by a nephrologist. A high titer of autoantibodies directed against what antigen most likely prompted his decision?
2511
Double-stranded DNA (dsDNA)
2512
Q1257:A small 9-month-old male with a history of recurrent pyogenic infections is seen in a clinic. Immunoglobulin levels and a CBC are performed. The CBC is normal except for slight neutropenia and thrombocytopenia. Determination of immunoglobulin levels indicates elevated IgM; but deficiencies of IgG and IgA. The underlying defect involves whihc of the following molecules?
2513
CD40 ligand (CD40L) on the T cell
2514
Q1258:A 21-year-old college student from Connecticut with a past history of Lyme disease presents with chronic pain and swelling in his right knee. He states that he has had problems with the knee for the past two years. What HLA allele would you expect to be present in this individual?
2515
HLA-DR4
2516
Q1259:A 33-year-old woman presents with fever; vomiting; severe irritative voiding symptoms; and pronounced costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory evaulation reveals leukocytosis with a left shift; blood cultures indicate bacteremia. Urinalysis shows pyuria; mild hematuria; and gram-negative bacteria. What drug would best treat this patient's infection?
2517
Ampicillin and gentamicin
2518
Q1260:A 44-year-old white female presents with severe Raynaud's phenomenon; dysphagia; and sclerodactyly; and facial and palmar telangiectasis. What autoantibody is most likely to be present in this patient?
2519
Anti-centromere antibody
2520
Q1261:A 6-year-old boy presents with a rash that started as a superficial accumulation of several small vesicles on his legs below the knees. He is afebrile and appears normal; other than these lesions. The child lives in the suburbs and often plays outside in the local woods in short pants. The lesions are honey-brown and crusted; with an erythematous base; and are in various stages of crusting and openness. What is the most important laboratory test to distinguish between the genera of potential causative agents for this condition? 2521
Catalase test
2522
Q1262:A research laboratory is studying mechanisms of immunity to Babesia microti in mice. Cells from immune mice are separated by flow cytometry; using fluorescently labeled anibodies directed against a variety of cell surface markers. Infected red blood cells are then added to the separated populations of immune cells and observed for lysis in the absence of complement. What cell surface marker would be most useful in identifying a cell capable of lysing infected cells in this system? 2523
CD56
2524
Q1263:What is more frequently associated with Klebsiella pneumoniae than with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
2525
upper lobe cavitation
2526
Q1264:A 46-year-old woman presents with complaints of feeling as if she has "sand in her eyes" and reports difficulty swallowing such foods as crackers or toast. A biopsy of an enlarged salivary gland reveals lymphocytic infiltration. There is hperplasia of the ductal linings and signs of fibrosis and hyalinization of the acini. What pair of tests would likely yield positive results in this patient?
2527
Rheumatoid factor and anti-SS-A antibody
2528
Q1265:A 26-year-old obstetric patient becomes Immunology Flash Facts acutely ill during her first trimester with infectious mononucleosis-like symptms; but her heterophil antibody test was negative. A careful history reveals that the family has two cats in the house. The approprate laboratory tests indicate the expectant mother is infected with Toxoplasma gondii. Months later; the woman delivers a full-term baby with no obvious signs of infection with the protozoan parasite. The best test to diagnose acute infection in the neonate would be a parasite-specific ELISA for 2529 which isotype of immunoglobulin?
IgM
2530
Immunology Flash Facts Q1266:An infectious disease specialist in New York City is conducting a study of the effect of cytokine administration on the progression of multiple drug-resistant tuberculosis in HIVpositive patients. A variety of cytokines produced by recombinant DNA are aerosolized and administered twice daily to a group of 20 individuals. Treatment progress is monitored by chest x-ray and sputum culture. What cytokine is likely to have the most beneficial effect on macrophage intracellular killing of the 2531 mycobacteria?
Interferon-gamma
2532
Q1267:A 39-year-old black man presents with Immunology malaise; complaints of anorexia; Flash Facts fatigue; dark urine; and upper abdominal discomfort. He admits to homosexuality; but denies blood transfusions; alcohol intake; or intravenous drug abuse. On physical examination; the patient has a temperature of 100.2 degrees F; scleral icterus; and jaundice. His liver is palpable below the right costal margin; and there is moderate right upper quadrant tenderness. Liver function test results are as follows: total bilirubin 12.4% SGOT 980 units; SGPT 1200 units. Serologic 2533 findings are as follows: anti-hepatitis A IgM negative; HBsAg positive; anti-HBc IgM positive;
He will become HBsAg negative
2534
Q1268:An autopsy Immunology Flash Facts homeless middleperformed on a aged man demonstrates scattered small nodules within the apex of the right lung. On histologic examination; these nodules are composed of collections of large epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells; surrounded by lymphocytes and fibroblasts. Caseating necrosis is seen in some of these lesions; and acid-fast bacilli are demonstrated with appropriate staining. What mediators is responsible for the devleopment of epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated giant2535 cells in this context?
Interferon-gamma
2536
Q1269:A 30-year-old woman presents to a physician with a prominent rash over her nose and cheeks. She also has complaints of fever; malaise; and muscle soreness of several months duration. Serologic studies demonstrate positive ANA with autoantibodies to double-stranded DNA. This patient's probable condition is associated with what HLA type?
2537
HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3
2538
Immunology Flash presents to her Q1270:A 16-year-old girlFacts physician complaining of redness and a yellowish discharge from her left eye for the past 2 days. She reports minimal crusting upon awakening and denies eye pain or previous trauma. Upon examination; there is diffuse conjunctival hyperemia associated with a mucoid discharge. The pupils dilate normally; although there is mild photophobia in the affected eye. Gram's stain of the exudate shows pleomorphic; gram-negative bacilli. To culture this organism with whole 2539 blood agar; what must be used?
2540
Immunology Flash Facts Q1271:A 22-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of mild lower abdominal pain and a yellowish vaginal discharge. She describes the pain as dull in nature; relieved slightly by acetaminophen and worsened by intercourse. Pelvixc examination reveals a red; swollen cervix without motion tenderness. The mucosas is friable. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mount is negative; and wet mount does not reveal clue cells. Gram's stain of the exudate reveals gramnegative cocci. What procedure would most likely 2541 lead to the correct diagnosis?
Order DNA probe assays of endocervical exudates
2542
Q1272:A new laboratory technologist receives an orientation on her first day of hospital employment. She is instructed on accepted procedures for biohazardous waste disposal. All reusable glassware is subjected to 20 minutes at 121 C at 15 pounds pressure. What would retain pathogenicity following this treatment?
2543
Endotoxin
2544
Immunology Flash boy Q1273:An 8-month-old babyFacts is evaluated because of repeated episodes of pneumococcal pneumonia. Serum studies demonstrate very low levels of IgM; IgG; and IgA. Flow cytometry of peripheral blood cells demonstrates a near absence of CD19+ cells; although levels of CD4+ and CD56+ cells are within normal limits. Studies of the bone marrow reveal abnormally high numbers of cells with cytoplasmic mu chains; but none bearing surface IgM molecules. This patient's condition is thought to be related to a 2545 deficiency of what protein?
tyrosine kinase
2546
Q1274:A patient with colorectal cancer develops septicemia complicated by endocarditis. You would expect the blood cultures to grow:
2547
Streptococcus bovis
2548
Q1275:A 24-year-old male Asian immigrant presents with an ulcerative genital lesion. The lesion first appeared 1 month ago as a papule with an erythematous base; which eventually became ulcerated and painful. On physical examination; the man is afebrile. A tender ulcerative lesion is present on his prepuce; and inguinal adenopathy is evident. What would be the most likely microscopic finding in a scraping from the rash.
2549
Pleomorphic gram-negative rods in parallel short chains
2550
Q1276:What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in the process of graft rejection?
2551
They are recognized by helper T cells; which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor donor cells.
2552
Q1277:A psychotic; indigent man with a history of multisubstance abuse has been involuntarily hospitalized for 1 week. Because of persistent diarrhea; stools are sent for ova and parasites; revealing numerous granular; spherical; thinwalled cysts measuring 10-20 micrometeres in diameter. Trichrome stains show up to four nuclei in most of the cysts. These findings are consistent with an infection by what organism?
2553
Entamoeba histolytica
2554
Q1278:A 35-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with complains of burning on urination for the past 2 days. Dipstick test of her urine demonstrates marked positivity for leukocyte esterase; but no reactivity for nitrite. Urine culture later grows out large numbers of organisms. What bacteria are most likely to be responsible for this patient's infection?
2555
Enterococcus faecalis
2556
Q1279:A ten-year-old immigrant child from Haiti is brought to a free clinic complaining of shortness of breath; wheezing; exertional dyspnea; and occasional urticaria. A fecal examination for ova and parasites is positive for numerous golden-brown; oval; rough-shelleed nematode eggs. Sputum samples are positive for nematode larvae and eosinophilic infiltrates. What is the mechanism of this child's lung symptoms?
2557
Type I hypersensitivity
2558
Q1280:A 7-month-old child is hospitalized for a yeast infection that does not respond to therapy. The patient has a history of multiple; acute pyogenic infections. Physical examination reveals that the spleen and lymph nodes are not palpable. A differential WBC count shows 95%$ neutrophils; 1 % lymphocytes; and 4% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy contains no plasma cells or lymphocytes. A chest x-ray reveals the absence of a thymic shadow. Tonsils are absent. These findings are most consistent with: 2559
severe combined immunodeficiency
2560
Q1281:A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with pelvic pain. A Gram's stain of her cervical discharge reveals multiple polymorphonuclear leukocytes; but none contain gram-negaitve diplococci. What statement best describes the two organisms that most commonly cause this disorder?
2561
Both induce endocytosis by epithelial cells
2562
Q1282:A 54-year-old HIV-positive homosexual is brought to theImmunology Flash department by his emergency Facts partner because of a sudeen detioration of mental acuity. He complains of headache; and at the time of examination; has nuchal rigidity; time-place disorientation; and marked confusion. Lumbar puncture reveals 100 white blood cells; 80% lymphocytes; protein = 85 mg/dL; and glucose = 45 mg/dL. A simultaneous blood glucose is 90 mg/dL. After the attending physician treats a drop of cerebrospinal fluid with a particulate dye; microscopic examination reveals the structures 2563 shown above. What would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
urease positivity
2564
Q1283:A perimenopausal woman elects to have her intrauterine device (IUD) removed. She has been experiencing unusual vaginal discharge for the past six months. When removed; the IUD is covered with yellowish flecks. What is most likely to be cultured from the IUD?
2565
Actinomyces israelii
2566
Q1284:A 54-year-old diabetic patient reports to his physician's office complaining of an unresolved skin lesion on his foot. The lesion began several weeks ago as a blister and has since become a painful; erosive; expanding sore. On examination; the affected site is now 5 cm in diameter; with a black necrotic center and raised red edges. What toxin has a mechanism of action most similar to the toxin responsible for tissue damage in this patient?
2567
diptheria toxin
2568
Q1285:A 32-year-old woman consults her gynecologist because of fever and progressively severe pain in her left lower abdominal quadrant. The pain began several days ago; shortly after the onset of her menses. Pelvic examination demonstrates bilateral adnexal tenderness; much more marked on the left than the right. What is the most likely pathogen?
2569
Neisseria
2570
Q1286:A 33-year-old G1P0 female at 6 months gestation returns from a visit to her parent's house in Arizona. Approximately 7 days following her return; she develops axillary lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever. Her physician notices a small papule and healing scratch on her arm on the affected side. The patient states that she has pet birds at home; and there was a new kitten at her mother's house. She does not remember receiving the scratch. What organism is most likely responsible for this illness? 2571
Bartonella henselae
2572
Q1287:The mother of a 5-year-old girl claims that her stepfather may have had inappropriate sexual contact with the girl. Physical examination reveals an intact hymnen and no evidence of trauma. A vaginal swab is negative for acid phosphatase and reveals only normal flora. What organism was most likely isolated?
2573
2574
Q1288:During the course of a pre-employment physical; a registered nurse receives an intradermal inoculation of tuberculin. During her employment in Pakistan; she was vaccinated with BCG (Bacille Calmet-Gueirn). At 48 hours; there is an 8 cm zone of erythema and induration over the injection site. What is the most important costimulatory signal involved in the elicitation of this response?
2575
B7 molecules interacting with CD 28
2576
Q1289:A 4-year-old child presnts to a physician with purpura. Questioning of the mother revleas that the child has a history of eczema and recureent pneumococcal pneumonia. Blood studies demonstrate thrombocytopenia and a selective decrease in IgM. Patients with this disorder have a 12% change of developing what potentially fatal malignancies?
2577
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
2578
Q1290:A 35-year-old woman consults an ophthalmologist because of double vision and droopy eyelids. She also has complaints of generalized muscle weakness. IV injection of edrophonium dramatically; but only briefly; reverses her symptoms. This patient's most probably disease has a pathophysiologic basis that is closest to that of what condition?
2579
Insulin resistance
2580
Q1291:A 23-year-old man develops explosive watery diarrhea with blood; fecal leukocytes; and mucus approximately 3 days after eating chicken that was improperly cooked. Curved rods were found in the fecal smear along with red blood cells and leukocytes. What pathogen is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
2581
Campylobacter jejuni
2582
Q1292:A 16-year-old girl presents with a painfully enlarged lymph node in her right axilla. Peripheral blood counts are within normal limits. The lymph node is biopsied; and numerous granulomas filled with neutrophils and necrotic debris are observed. What organism could produce this disease?
2583
Bartonella henselae
2584
Immunology Flash is Q1293:A 4-year-old child Facts referred to a specialist for the diagnosis of a potential immunologic defect. Since the age of 14 months; he has been plagued with repeated infections with Candida; Staphylococcus; and Klebsiella. At the present time; the child is suffering from a large; painful boil on one knee. Peripheral blood leukocytes have a negative neutrophil oxidative index. Culture of the pus of the boil grows Staphylococcus aureus. Which intracellular killing mechanism is still operation in 2585 phagocytic cells in this abscess?
defensins
2586
Q1294:A composite virus is created in a laboratory. The capsid of coxsackie virus A is used to deliver the naked genomic material of five viruses to appropate target cells. After 24 hours in culture; the total virus per culture is determined. Use of which of the folloiwng viruses' naked genomic material in this fashion would result in the absence of progeny viruses?
2587
Reovirus
2588
Q1295:A family is referred to a genetic counseling clinic because one of the parents is discovered to have a reciprocal translocation involving chromosomes 14 and 22. One of the children of the family received an unbalanced chromosome complements; resulting in a partial monosomy of one chromosome. The chromosome for whichere there is a monosomy is shown to be one encoding immunoglobulin genes. Such an event could result in the loss of what pair of genes involved in the synthesis of immunoglobulins? 2589
C gene for gamma chain and C gene for alpha chain
2590
Q1296:A 6-year-old child is taken to a Immunology severe pediatrician because of aFlash Facts sore throat that is accompanied by a rash. Examination of the head and neck reveals pharyngeal injection; swollen; bright red tonsils with discrete white spots on the surface; and enlarged anterior cervical lymph nodes. Examination of the skin reveals a diffuse; erythematous; symmetrical rash that blanches on pressure; has a slightly rough sand-paper like texture; and is most prominent on the neck; chest; and folds of the axilla; elbow; and groin. The strain of the organism that produces the child's disease would 2591 most likely to differ be from a less pathogenic strain of the same
By containing a phage
2592
Q1297:A patient with chronic active hepatitis B develops a low-grade fever and a generalized petechial rash. Routine urinalysis detects proteinuria. Needle biopsy of the kidney demonstrates the presence of irregular deposits of antigen-antibody complexes with underlying areas of neutrophilic infiltration and tubular damage. What is most important in the removal of these immune complexes from the blood stream?
2593
C3b
2594
Q1298:A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of 10-12 episodes of nonbloody diarrhea per day for the past 2 days; along with severe abdominal cramsp; nausea; vomiting; and a low-grade fever. She states that she just returned from a vacation to Mexico. While in Mexico; she did not drink any of the local water and ate only cooked foods and a few fresh salads. If fecal leukocytes are present; the patient should most likely be empericially treated with: 2595
Ciprofloxacin
2596
Q1299:Two weeks after birth; a neonate develops sepsis; skin vesicles; and conjunctivitis. Over the next several days; the baby's condition deteriorates with development of seizures; cranial nerve palsies; and lethargy. The baby dies approximately one week after onset of symptoms. What infectious agent would most likely cause this clinical presentation?
2597
Herpes simplex
2598
Q1300:A 33-year-old woman begins seeing a new boyfriend. Several weeks later; a week after her menstrual period; the woman develops a painful; swollen right knee. The most likely causative organism has what characteristic?
2599
Can live within neutrophils
2600
Q1301:A 27-year-old woman has a pruritic linear; vesicular rash on her leg. The rash developed 16 hours after she returned from a hiking trip. It began as a swollen; erythematous streak that developed into extremely itchy bliasters. She goes on hiking and camping trips twice a year and has experienced similar episodes in the past. The rash is most likely a result of what mechanism?
2601
Release of lymphokines from sensitized lymphocytes
2602
Q1302:A 32-year-old female who is 6 months pregnant presents for prenatal care. A routine evaluation is performed; including testing for HIV antibody. The patient is reported to be negative for RPR; but positive for HIV antibody by the enzyme-linked immunoassay (EIA). The HIV Western blot is positive for antibody to the p24 antigen. The patient should be counseled:
2603
to have an HIV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test performed
2604
Q1303:A 57-year-old man presents with an episode of shaking chills the previous night. He has now developed right-sided pleuritic chest pain; fever; sweats; malaise; purulent sputum; and mild hemoptysis. On examination; the patient is diaphoretic but alert; with right basilar rales. Chest X-ray films show a right lower lobe infiltrate with blunting of the right costophrenic angle. Why is this patient's sputum filled with pus?
2605
Teichoic acids and peptidoglycan are chemotactic for neutrophils
2606
Q1304:A medical virology laboratory coinfects cells in a tissue culture flask with Influenza A (H3N2) and Influenza A (H1N1). The flask is incubated for 48 hours; and the progeny viruses are analyzed. Four distinct variants of Influenza A are isolated: H3N2; H1N1; H3N1; and H1N2. What viral attribute made the production of H3N1 and H1N2 variants possible?
2607
segmented genome
2608
Q1305:A newborn is infected in utero with an enveloped virus containing double-stranded DNA. The child develops petechiae; hepatosplenomegaly; and jaundice. Brain calcifications are detected on CT. With what viruse is the newborn most likely infected?
2609
Cytomegalovirus
2610
Q1306:A 4-year-old child is brought into your clinic by his mother. A week ago; the child received an MMR vaccine; and now the child has an unusual rash; as show here. What is the most likely explanation for this occurrence?
2611
A latent infection in the child has been reactivated
2612
Q1307:A research laboratory studying virus life cycles has created a continuous culture of bovine kidney fibroblasts that are suitable hosts for a large variety of viral agents. In one experiment; the nuclei of these cells are removed by cytosurgery; and various viral agents are added to the cultures. Following culture of the viruses with the enucleated cells; the yield of cytopathic units of virus is quantified. What viruse would be capable of replication in enucleated cells? 2613
Poliovirus
2614
Q1308:Six days after receiving several flea bites in a rat-infested shed in Southeastern New Mexico; a homeless 24-year-old man develops fever; chills; and a rash that spreads from his abdomen to cover his extremities. He is seen at the local hospital emergency department; where blood is drawn for analysis. Eight days later; the public health department reports the presence of antibody to one of the rickettsial group antigens. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2615
ENdemic typhus
2616
Q1309:A 68-year-old man presents to his physician Immunology Flash Facts with complaints of fatigue and night sweats. Physical examination is remarkable for generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count shows anemia; thrombocytopenia; and neutropenia. A peripheral blood smear shows numerous small lymphocytes; some of which appear to have been disrupted during the process of making the smear. Which marker or markers is most likely present on the abnormal cells and could be used to specifically identify such cells in a flow 2617 cytometric analyzer?
CD 19 and CD 20
2618
Immunology Flash Facts Q1310:A 28-year-old male intravenous drug user presents with a febrile illness that has lasted 2 weeks. He also complains of chills; weakness; dyspnea; cough; arthralgia; diarrhea; and abdominal pain. On examination; a heart murmur is present; and small; tender nodules are found on the finger and toe pads; along with small hemorrhages on the palms and soles. Three sets of blood cultures are obtained from different veins. While awaiting laboratory confirmation; an emperic antibiotic regimen should primarily be directed at 2619 organism? what
2620
Q1311:A 22-year-old male military recruit complains of a headache and stiff neck. He is examined; blood is drawn; and a lumbar puncture performed. The glucose in the CSF is 100 mg/dL; and the serum glucose is 120 mg/dL. The CSF shows 3 lymphocytes and 0 neutrophils/microliter. What conclusion concerning the interpretation of these findings is most accurate?
2621
There is no evidence for meningitis
2622
Q1312:A 67-year-o0ld woman in a skilled nursing facility complains of flu-like symptoms. After several days; she develops high fever; dyspnea; and a productive cough. The nurses also notice mental status changes; and she is transported to the nearby community hospital. A chest x-ray shows a cavitary lesion in her left lung. What organism would most likely be identified from examination of her sputum?
2623
2624
Q1313:A sexually active 25-year-old man develops epididymitis and orchitis. Needle biopsy demonstrates a prominent leukocytic infiltrate with numerous neutrophils. What organism is the most likely cause of this man's infection?
2625
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
2626
Immunology Flash Facts Q1314:A 67-year-old man with moderate renal dysfunction presents with influenza-like symptoms. The patient also has a red macular rash that first appeared on the ankles; then spread centrally. He reports nausea; vomiting; and profound restlessness. He states that he was recently hiking with some friends in the mountains; about a week ago. Rickettsia rickettsiae is demonstrated by immunohistochemistry on skin biopsy. What agent would be most appropriate to treat this patient's 2627 infection?
Doxycycline
2628
Q1315:A 57-year-old fisherman with a history of alcoholism is hospitalized in Gulfport; Mississippi with a 1-day history of severe; watery diarrhea after eating several raw oysters. He is badly dehydrated on admission; and has numerous fluid-filled vesicular lesions on his legs. Within 12 hours; he becomes severely hypotensive and dies. What pathogen is the most likely cause of this man's death?
2629
Vibrio vulnificus
2630
Q1316:A man presents to a dermatologist because of a severe mucocutaneous rash that involves most of his body; including his palms and soles. Questioning revleas that he is a merchant marine who; several months previously; had an encounter with a prostitute in Southeast Asia. What is the most likely causative agent of this rash?
2631
Treponemia palldium
2632
Q1317:A number of encapsulated organisms are capable of entering the body across the respiratory mucosa. If these organisms enter the bloodstream; delivery to the meninges is a risk. Streptococcus pneumoniae; Hemophilus influenzae; Neisseria meningitidis; and Cryptococcus neoformans are all capable of making this transition. What is the most important immunological protective mechanisn against such blood-borne encapsulated organisms?
2633
IgG-mediated osponization in the spleen
2634
Q1318:A 24-year-old man presents with fever; rash; a mild headache; and a sore throat. He denies HIV risk factors; although he is sexually active. On examination; his temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit; and his pulse is 90/minute. There is a diffuse; erythematous; maculopapular rash over most of his body. Generalized adenopathy is appreciated; and photophobia is noted when fundoscopic examination is attempted. If this man is not treated; what change in his serologic status will most likely occur? 2635
The VDRL titer would fall
2636
Immunology Flash Facts Q1319:A 25-year-old man presents with a high fever and generalized malaise. His condition deteriorates so rapidly that his friends decide to take him to the emergency department 24 hours after the onset of symptoms. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse. A test for anti-HIV antibodies is negative. Phbysical examination reveals a systolic murmur; and echocardiography shows bulky vegetations attached to the tricuspid valve leaflets. What microorganism will be most likely isolated from this patient's blood 2637 cultures?
2638
Immunology Flash Facts Q1320:A 10-year-old boy is attending summer camp in Texas. After 2 weeks of camp; he complains of a sore throat; headache; cough; and malaise. On physical examination; he also has a low-grade fever; and keratoconjunctivitis. Within hours; several other campers and counselors visit the infirmary with similar symptoms. All of the patients had been swimming in the camp swimming pool. Eventually; more than 50% of the camp complain of symptoms similar to the initial case that last 5 to 7 days. What is the most likely 2639 causative organism?
Adenovirus
2640

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Immunology Flash Facts

Q0001:What test is done to diagnose CGD?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0002:What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?

Immunology Flash Facts

The number of Ags that the Ab can bind

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0004:What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0005:What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0006:True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient?

Immunology Flash Facts

False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0007:What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0009:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Recurrent gonococcal infections?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

C1; C2; or C4 deficiency

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0011:What complement factor deficiency leads to;? Hereditary angioedema?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0012:Which IgG cannot activate complement?

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0014:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Interacts with MHC class I molecules

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0016:Name the T-cell CD marker;? Interacts with MHC class II molecules

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0017:Name the T-cell CD marker;Is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Immunology Flash Facts

Dendritic cells; macrophages; and thymic epithelial cells

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0019:What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?

Immunology Flash Facts

B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0020:What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

Immunology Flash Facts

Rigors; leukopenia; decrease in blood pressure; and increase in temperature

Immunology Flash Facts

Q0021:What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?

Immunology Flash Facts

Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)