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Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0001:What organism has elevated cold agglutinins in its laboratory values?

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Mycoplasma Pneumonia (MYCOLDplasma);My it's cold plasma pneumoniae)

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Q0002:What bacteria from struvite stones?

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Proteus Mirabilis

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Q0003:What is the pathology that start with maculopapular rash begining on the face and spreading downward to trunk?

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Rubella (you are not bella any more)

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Q0004:What bacteria causes mesenteric adenitis which mimics apendicitis?

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Yersenia enterocolitica

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Q0005:What two antibiotics cause pseudomembranous colitis?;What organism is responsible for pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

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Ampicillin and Clindamycin;Clostridium difficile

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Q0006:What antibiotics do you use to treat Pseudomembranous colitis?

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Vancomycin and Metronidazol

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Q0007:Which E. coli causes traveler's diarrhea?

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Enterotoxigenic E. coli ;ETEC;Traveler's = Toxigenic

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Q0008:what does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi

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forms a germinal tube at 37C

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Q0009:what protozoal parasite results in dysentery w/ blood and pus in the stool; is transmitted via fecal-oral route; is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool and forms liver abscesses and inverted falask-shaped lesions in the large int?;tx w/?

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e. histolytica;metronidazole

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Q0010:what is the most likely causitive organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub

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pseudomonas

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Q0011:what two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding

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HIV;pox

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Q0012:which type of hepatitis can cause hepaticellular carcinoma

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Q0013:gas gangrene is associated with which clostridium species

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perfringens

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Q0014:which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the upper great lakes; ohio; mississippi; eastern seaboard of the US and southern canada

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blastomyces dermatitidis

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Q0015:which parasitic organism; when it crosses the placenta; results in intracerebral calcifications; chorioretinitis; microcephaly; hydrocephaly; and convulsions

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toxoplasma gondii

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Q0016:what staphylococcal species is pos for beta-hemolysis and coagulase

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staph a.

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Q0017:what vector is assoc w/ malaria

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anopheles mosquito

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Q0018:what is the term for hyphae w/ constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in candida albicans

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pseudohyphae

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Q0019:which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease

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echinococcus multilocularis

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Q0020:which hepatitis virus is in the flaviviridae family

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HCV ;HGV

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Q0021:what nonmotile gram negative; non-lactose fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is transmitted by fecal oral spread

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shigella

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Q0022:what is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment

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coxiella burnetti;(doesn't need a vector)

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Q0023:regarding the viral growth curve; is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period

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after the eclipse period

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Q0024:what Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis

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HBcAB

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Q0025:what small gram pos; non-spore forming rod is a faultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is assoc w/ unpasteurized milk products

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listeria monocytogenes

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Q0026:what is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral

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poxvirus

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Q0027:which organsism causes trench mouth

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fusobacterium

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Q0028:t or f;all of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the US: influenza; vibrio cholera; hep A; rabies; and adenovirus

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F;adenovirus vaccine is live

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Q0029:name the plasmodium spp;1. no persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; assoc w/ cerebral malaria;2. no persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72 hr fever spike pattern;3. persistent hypnozoite liver stage w/ relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites w/ oval; jagged infected RBCs; 48 hrs fever spike pattern;4. persisten hypnozoite liver stage w/ relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48 hr fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide 57

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. plasmodium falciparum;2. plasmodium malariae;3. plasmodium ovale;4. plasmodium vivax

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Q0030:t or f;a pos PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease

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f;it tests exposure

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Q0031:what viral infection is kown to cause intracerebral calcification

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CMV;toxo also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite

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Q0032:what motile; gram neg spiral bacillus w/ flagella is oxidase pos; urease pos; and assoc w/ gastritis; peptuc ulcer disease; and stomach cancer

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h. pylori

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Q0033:what glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion

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GP41

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Q0034:what Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient w/ hep B

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HBeAG

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Q0035:which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching

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borrelia recurrentis

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Q0036:what is the first Ag seen in an individual w/ hep

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HBsAG

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Q0037:with which DNA virus are guanieri bodies assoc

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variola (small pox)

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Q0038:what nematode is known as pinworms? what is the tx

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enterobus vermicularis;tx = albendazole

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Q0039:what protein allows mycoplasma to attach to the resp epithelium

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p1 protein

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Q0040:what organism is assoc w/ the following type of diarrhea;1. day care-assoc diarrhea in infants;2. watery diarrhea from beef; poultry; or gravies;3. rice water stools;4. diarrhea assoc w/ raw or undercooked shellfish;5. blood diarrhea assoc w/ hamburger ingestion

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1. rotavirus;2. clostridium perfringens;3. vibrio cholera;4. vibrio parahaemolyticus;5. enterotoxigenic E. coli

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Q0041:which fungus is found worldwide on plants; is a cigarshaped yeast in tissue form; and resultsin rose gardener's dis

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sporothrix schenckii

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Q0042:what type of hepatitis is a picornavirus

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HepA

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Q0043:what grap pos rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility

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listeria

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Q0044:what is the vector for leishmania infections

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sandfly

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Q0045:what is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellulary

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eclipse period

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Q0046:what organsism causes Q fever

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coxiella burnetti;(A rickettsia)

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Q0047:what are the three naked RNA virus

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1. picornavirus;2. calicivirus;3. reovirus;PCR;and astro

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Q0048:HIV capsid; core nucleocapsid; and matrix proteins are products of what structural gene

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gag gene

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Q0049:what facultative intracellular fungus is assoc w/ hepatosplenomegaly

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histoplasma capsulatum

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Q0050:what type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women

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HEV

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Q0051:which gram neg diplococcus ferments maltose

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meningococcus

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Q0052:are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion

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no

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Q0053:what bacterium is rsponsible for woolsorter's disease

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bacillus anthracis

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Q0054:what picornavirus is assoc w/ hand-foot-and mouth diseaes

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coxsackie A

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Q0055:what is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic

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schistosoma have boys and girls

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Q0056:what water-assoc organism is weakly stained gram neg rod that requires cysteine and iron from growth

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legionella;*all the "ellas" req cysteine for growth

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Q0057:with what virus are Downey type II cells assoc

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EBV

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Q0058:t or f;interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific

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false;interferons are produced by virally infected cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus; nor ar they virus specific

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Q0059:what is the vector for yellow fever

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aedes mosquito

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Q0060:what sm; facultative gram neg intracellular rod's transmission is assoc w/ unpasterurized dairy products and undulant fever

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brucella

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Q0061:t or f;all proteus spp are urease pos

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Q0062:which genus of dermatophytes is assoc w/ the following asites of infection;1. nails and skin;2. hair and skin;3. skin; hair; and nails

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1. epidermophyton;2. microsporum;3. trichophyton

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Q0063:what protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect

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P24

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Q0064:what genus of bacteria is described by catalase-pos; gram pos cocci in clusters

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staph

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Q0065:t or f;vibrio parahemolyticus req NaCl in its growth medium

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t;staph a. and group D enterococci also grow in high salt media

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Q0066:what virus causes sm pink benign wartlike tumors and is assoc w/ HIV pos patients

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molluscum contagiosum

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Q0067:what two bacteria are assoc w/ drinking unpasteurized milk

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bucella and listeria (the tumbler)

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Q0068:what cestode causes cysticercosis

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taenia solium

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Q0069:what DNA virus is assoc w/ exanthem subitum (roseola)

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HHV 6

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Q0070:which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite

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mycobacterium leprae

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Q0071:what form of the plasmodium spp is ingested by mosquitoes

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gametocytes

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Q0072:what sm gram neg aerobic rod requires Regan-Low or Bordet-Gengou medium for growth

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bordetella pertussis

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Q0073:t or f;streptococci have catalase

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f;staph have catalase

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Q0074:what three bacteria are pos to quellung reactive test

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neisseria meningitidis;haemophilus influenza;streptococcus pneumoniae;-must have capsules;Quellung - swelling

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Q0075:a patient goes to the ER w/ abdominal cramps; vomiting; diarrhea; and sweating less thean 24 hrs after eating potato salad at a picnic

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staph a

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Q0076:t or f;all spore formers are gram pos

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t;(bacillus and clostridium)

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Q0077:what is the only DNA virus thata has reverse transcriptase

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hepadnavirus

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Q0078:what enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host

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integrase

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Q0079:what are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma

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HBV and HCV

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Q0080:what gram pos spore forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ; resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis

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clostridium botulinum

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Q0081:name at least two products of HIVs pol gene

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protesase;integrase;reverse transcriptase

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Q0082:what form of plasmodium spp affects the liver

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hypozoite

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Q0083:what sm coagulase pos; gram neg rod w/ bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes

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yersinia pestis

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Q0084:what hemoflagellate spp is the cause of chagas dis

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trypanosoma cruzi

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Q0085:to what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach

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ACh receptor

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Q0086:which hepatitis virus is in the picornaviridae family

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HAV

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Q0087:Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity

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Abs to HBsAg

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Q0088:what type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell

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blastoconidia

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Q0089:which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi; bacteria; viruses; and parasites;1. eukaryotic cell; 15 to 25 microns; 80S ribosomes; no cell walls; replicates via cytokinesis w/ mitosis and meiosis;2. sm prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission;3. eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis w/ mitosis and meiosis;4. acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host177 no cell walls cell;

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. parasites;2. bacteria;3. fungi;4. viruses

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Q0090:what mosquito is the vector for dengue fever

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aedes;(same for yellow fever)

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Q0091:t or f;gonococcus in encapsulated

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f- meningococcus is encapsulated;no gonococcus

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Q0092:regarding the viral growth curve; is the external virus present before or after the latent period

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after

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Q0093:what aerobic branching rod that is gram pos and partially acid fast is assoc w/ cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients

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nocardia asteroides

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Q0094:what obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain pos and is assoc w/ pneumonia in patients w/ AIDS

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pneumocystis carinii

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Q0095:what Vi encapsulated gram neg motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is assoc w/ enteric fever; gastroenteririts; and septicemia

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salmonella typhi

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Q0096:what is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell

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vibrio vulnificus

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Q0097:what virus is assoc w/ norwalk agent

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calicivirus

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Q0098:describe the organsism;1. beta-hemolytic streptococcus; pos cAMP; hydrolyzes hippurate;2. alphahemolytic strep; lysed by bile; sens to optochin;3. alpha hemolytic strep; not lysed by bile; not sens to optochin;4. beta hemolytic strep sens to bacitracin

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1. strep agalactiae;2. pneumococcus (strep pneumo);3. strep viridans;4. strep pyogenes

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Q0099:what is the only nonmotile pathogenic clostridium spp

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perfringens

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Q0100:if a virus has pos sense RNA; can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed

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pos sense RNA can be used as mRNA;neg sense requires a special RNA dep RNA polymerase

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Q0101:where do adult tapeworms develop; in the intermediate or definitive host

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adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host;cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host

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Q0102:which strep spp is characterized by being catalase neg; turning bile exculin agar back; producing a pos PYR test; and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections

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enterococcus (strep faecalis)

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Q0103:what three carcinomas are assoc w/ EBV

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burkitt's lymphoma;nasopharyngeal carcinoma;thymic carcinoma

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Q0104:which organism causes trench fever

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rochalimaea quintana;aka bartonella quintana

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Q0105:based on the onset of the sx; how are bacterial conjunctiviits from neisseria and chlamydia differentiated

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neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days;chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days

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Q0106:what toxin produced by clostridium tetani; binds to ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse

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tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin)

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Q0107:t or f;all of the following are live attenuated vaccines;measles;mumps;variclla;francissela tularensis;rubeola;smallpox;yellow fever;sabin polio

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true

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Q0108:what family do the following belong to;1. ebola;2. california encephalitis;3. hantavirus;4. rabies;5. RSV;6. measles

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1. filovirus;2. bunyavirus;3. bunyavirus;4. rhabdovirus;5. paramyxovirus;6. paramyxovirus

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Q0109:what microaerophile is a motile gramneg curved rod w/ polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses

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campylobacter jejuni

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Q0110:what bacterium is diagnosed useing the dieterle silver strain

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legionella

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Q0111:how many strains of pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine

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23 capsular polysaccharides

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Q0112:what nematode is known as whipworm?;tx?

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trichuris trichuria;albendazole

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Q0113:which strep pyotenes toxin is immunogenic

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streptolysin O

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Q0114:a urethral swab of a patient shows gram neg diplococci in PMNs;

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neisseria gonorrhea

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Q0115:a suspected dermatophyte infection is stained w/ KOH; what do you see

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arthroconidia w/ hyphae

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Q0116:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc w/ cough; coryza; and conjunctivitis w/ photophobia

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measles (rubeola)

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Q0117:which M-protein strain of strep pyogenes is assoc w/ acute glomerulonephritis

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M12

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Q0118:what are the three Cs of measles

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cough;coryza;conjunctivitis

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Q0119:what is the term given to arthropod borne viruses

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arbovirus (bunyavirus; flavivirus; and togavirus) and reovirus

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Q0120:which organism causes weil's disease

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leptospira;transmitted by rat -> hemorrhagic and renal sx plus juandice

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Q0121:what form of the plasmodium spp are injected into humans mosquito

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sporozoites

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Q0122:what ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA

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parvovirus;(the only ssDNA virus)

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Q0123:what is the vector of african sleeping sickness

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tsetse fly

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Q0124:what HIV enzyme prodces a dsDNA provirus

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reverse transcriptase

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Q0125:what non spore forming gram pos aerobic rod produces bull neck; sore throat w/ pseudomembranes; myocarditis; and sometimes respiratory obstructions

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corynebacterium diphtheria

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Q0126:what organism is assoc w/ megalobastic anemia

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diphyllobothrium latum

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Q0127:what is the most serious form of tinea capitis; which results in permanent hair loss and is higly contagious

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tinea favosa

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Q0128:what are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes

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snails

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Q0129:what are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the neisseria meningitides vaccine

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Y;W-125; C and A

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Q0130:what is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen

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cryptococcus

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Q0131:what type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae

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conidia

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Q0132:what is the only plasmodium that is quartan

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plasmodium malaria;others are tertian

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Q0133:1. red pigmentation;2. black-gray pigmentation;3. pyocyanin (blue-green);4. yellow pigmentation

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1. serratia;2. corynebacterium diphtheria;3. pseudomonas;4. staph a

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Q0134:what capsular serotype is assoc w/ e.coli-induced meningitis

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K1 capsule

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Q0135:what two Ags must be pos for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis

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HBsAG;HBeAG

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Q0136:t or f;all strep are catalase neg

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Q0137:in what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome

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first trimester

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Q0138:what virus causes hoof and mouth disease

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vesicular stomatitis virus

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Q0139:which gram neg diplococcus growns on chocolate agar? thayer martin medium?

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meningococcus on chocolate;gonococcus on Thayer-Martin

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Q0140:which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a pos whiff test with KOH staining?;tx?

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trichomonas vaginalis;metronidazole

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Q0141:what fungus is urease pos

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cryptococcus

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Q0142:what bacterium has large boxcar shaped gram pos rods and is sporeforming; aerboic; and assoc with cutaneous inf and woolsorter's disease

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bacillus anthracis

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Q0143:is the salk polio vaccine inactivated

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yes

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Q0144:t or f;all neg sense RNA viruses are enveloped

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t;they all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-assoc polymerases

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Q0145:what urease-pos non-lactose fermenting gram neg rod with swarming type motility is assoc with staghorn renal calculi

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proteus

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Q0146:with what two viruses are Reye's syndrome asssoc

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varicella;influenza

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Q0147:which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death

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neisseria meningitidis

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Q0148:clue cells are assoc with which organism that causes vaginal discharge

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gardnrella vaginalis

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Q0149:what is the name of the bullet-shaped virus

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rhabdovirus

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Q0150:what fungus is characterized by india ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background

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cryptococcus neoformans

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Q0151:what does hepatitis D virus need from hep B virus to be infective

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HBsAG as its envelope

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Q0152:which type of hep is a calicivirus

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HEV

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Q0153:what genus is kown as the smallest free living bacteria

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mycoplasma

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Q0154:what three organs can be affected by trypanosoma cruzi

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heart esophagus colon;cardiomegaly;megaesophagus;megacolon

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Q0155:which serotypes of HPV are assoc with plantar warts

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1 and 4

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Q0156:what facultative gram neg anaerobic rod is motile; fermetns lactose; and is the MCC of UTIs

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e. coli

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Q0157:what is the only ds RNA virus

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reovirus

314

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0158:what are the four segmented RNA viruses

315

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bunyavirus;Orthomyxovirus;Reovirus;Arenavirus;(BORA)

316

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0159:what type of plasmodium affects;1. only mature RBCs;2. ony reticulocytes;3. RBCs of all ages

317

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. plasmodium malaria;2. plasmodium vivax;3. plasmodium falciparum

318

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0160:what is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi

319

Microbiology Flash Facts

ergosterol

320

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0161:what Ab is an indicaction for low transmissibility for hepatitis

321

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBeAb

322

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0162:what is the term for RNA dep DNA pol

323

Microbiology Flash Facts

reverse transcriptase

324

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0163:which gram pos bacteria infection of infancy is assoc w/ ingestion of honey

325

Microbiology Flash Facts

clostridium botulinum

326

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0164:which trematode is assoc with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and AFrica

327

Microbiology Flash Facts

schistosoma haematobium

328

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0165:which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings

329

Microbiology Flash Facts

cryptococcus neorformans

330

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0166:what virus lies dormant in the;1. trigeminal ganglia;2. dorsal root ganglia;3. sensory ganglia of S2 and s3

331

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. herpes I;2. varicella;3. herpes II

332

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0167:what is the name of the exotoxin shigella dysenteriae produces; which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition

333

Microbiology Flash Facts

shiga toxin;EHEC produces vero toxin

334

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0168:what protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum; is transmitted via fecal oral route; and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water

335

Microbiology Flash Facts

giardia lamblia;tx metronidazole

336

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0169:what color do fungi stain w/ PAS?;silver stain?

337

Microbiology Flash Facts

hot pink w/ PAS and grey to back with silver stain

338

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0170:a tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis

339

Microbiology Flash Facts

mycobacterium marinum

340

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0171:which dimorphic fungus is found as arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwester US;(San Joaquin valley)

341

Microbiology Flash Facts

coccidioides inmitis

342

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0172:which mycoplasma spp is assoc w/ urethritis; prostatitis; and renal calculi

343

Microbiology Flash Facts

ureaplasma ureatlyticum

344

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0173:what tick is the vector for babesiosis

345

Microbiology Flash Facts

ixodes;also for Lyme

346

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0174:what is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell

347

Microbiology Flash Facts

poxvirus replicates in the cytoplasm

348

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0175:what organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice

349

Microbiology Flash Facts

bacillus cereus

350

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0176:what small gram neg facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by dermacentor tick bite

351

Microbiology Flash Facts

francisella tularensis

352

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0177:t or f;cestodes have no GI tract

353

Microbiology Flash Facts

true

354

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0178:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with parotitis; pancreatitis; and orchitis

355

Microbiology Flash Facts

mumps

356

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0179:what is the size of a pos PPD test for;1. IV drug user;2. patient with AIDS;3. recent immigrant;4. healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses;5. posttransplantation patient on immunosuppressive drugs

357

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. >10 mm;2. >5;3. >10;4. >15;5. >5

358

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0180:what are the only two picornavirus that do not lead to aseptic meningitis

359

Microbiology Flash Facts

rhinovirus and HAV

360

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0181:which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms

361

Microbiology Flash Facts

taenia saginata

362

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0182:what DNA viral diseae is assoc w/ aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia

363

Microbiology Flash Facts

parvovirus B19

364

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0183:what glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4

365

Microbiology Flash Facts

gp120

366

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0184:what enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients

367

Microbiology Flash Facts

salmonella

368

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0185:what organism is commonly assoc w/ a cellulitis from an animal bite

369

Microbiology Flash Facts

pasteurella mutocida

370

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0186:what fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions

371

Microbiology Flash Facts

chromomycosis

372

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0187:what is the reservoir for the togavirus

373

Microbiology Flash Facts

birds

374

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0188:what are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram pos"

375

Microbiology Flash Facts

both neisseria and moraxella are gram neg

376

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0189:what nematode isknown as hookworms? what is the tx?

377

Microbiology Flash Facts

necator americanus is tx with mebendazole and iron therapy

378

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0190:what HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41

379

Microbiology Flash Facts

env structural protein

380

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0191:which hemoflagellate spp causes kala azar

381

Microbiology Flash Facts

leishmania donovani

382

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0192:what dna virus is assoc w/ heterophile neg mononucleosis

383

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV

384

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0193:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with intracytoplasmic inclusion Negri bodies

385

Microbiology Flash Facts

rabies

386

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0194:what large; spore forming gram pos anaerobic rod is assoc with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma

387

Microbiology Flash Facts

clostridium tetani

388

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0195:what is the vector for chagas

389

Microbiology Flash Facts

reduviid bug

390

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0196:what is the polariity of a pos sense RNA

391

Microbiology Flash Facts

5'-3' (it can serve as mRNA)

392

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0197:what viral infection is associated with black vomit

393

Microbiology Flash Facts

yellow fever (flavivirus)

394

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0198:what encapsulated gramneg lactose fermenting rod is assoc with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism ; diabetes; and chronic lung diseaes

395

Microbiology Flash Facts

klebsiella

396

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0199:what is the essntial reservoir host for toxoplasma gondi

397

Microbiology Flash Facts

cat

398

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0200:what gram pos anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the nl flora of the mouth and female gentital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates

399

Microbiology Flash Facts

actinomyces israelii

400

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0201:what is the term for candida infection of the oral mucosa

401

Microbiology Flash Facts

thrush

402

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0202:what is the term for fungi that an convert from hyphal to yeast forms

403

Microbiology Flash Facts

dimorphic

404

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0203:to what viral family does the polio virus belong

405

Microbiology Flash Facts

picornaviridae

406

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0204:name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense mechanism

407

Microbiology Flash Facts

streptococcus pneumonia;klebsiella pneumonia;h. influenza;pseudomonas aeruginosa;neisseria meningitidis;cryptococcus neoformans

408

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0205:t or f;there are no persistent infections with naked virus

409

Microbiology Flash Facts

t;they lyse the host cell

410

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0206:what virus is assoc w/ progressive multifocal leukoencephalophaty

411

Microbiology Flash Facts

JC virus

412

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0207:what bacterium is a gram neg oxidase pos aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odoer and pyocyanin pigmentation

413

Microbiology Flash Facts

pseudomonas aeruginosa

414

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0208:which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mono

415

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV;toxoplasma gondii;listeria

416

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0209:what bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis

417

Microbiology Flash Facts

c. botulinum

418

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0210:which two neg sense RNA viruses ahve neuraminidase enzymes

419

Microbiology Flash Facts

mumps and influenza

420

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0211:what staph a. protein inhibits phagocytosis

421

Microbiology Flash Facts

protein A

422

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0212:which four bacteria require cysteine for growth

423

Microbiology Flash Facts

pasteuralla;brucella;legionella;francisella

424

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0213:what fungus causes endocardidtis in IV drug users

425

Microbiology Flash Facts

candida albicans

426

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0214:what virus are assoc with Cowdry type A intranuclear includsion

427

Microbiology Flash Facts

Herpes I and II

428

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0215:which streptococcal spp is assoc w/ dental caries and infective endocarditis

429

Microbiology Flash Facts

strep viridans

430

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0216:what is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts

431

Microbiology Flash Facts

cysticerci

432

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0217:what fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax; spaghetti and meatball KOH staining; and pityriasis or tinea versicolor;tx?

433

Microbiology Flash Facts

malassezia furufur;tx w/ selenium sulfide

434

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0218:what nematode is known as threadworms?;what is the tx?

435

Microbiology Flash Facts

strongyloids stercoralis;thiabendazole

436

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0219:what are kown as jumping genes

437

Microbiology Flash Facts

transposons

438

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0220:which dimorphic fungus is endemic in ohio; mississippi; missouri; and easter great lakes; is found in soil with bird and bat feces; and is assoc w/ infections in spelungers and chicken coop cleanerrs

439

Microbiology Flash Facts

histoplasma capsulatum

440

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0221:which of the following enterobacteriaceae family members- yersina; klebsiella; enterobacter; escherichia; proteus; and citrobacter; do not ferment lactose?

441

Microbiology Flash Facts

all do except yersinia and proteus

442

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0222:what two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I exprssion

443

Microbiology Flash Facts

nef and tat

444

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0223:what size ribosomes do fungi have

445

Microbiology Flash Facts

80S (eukaryotes)

446

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0224:BUZZWORD: Pyoverdin

447

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

448

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0225:BUZZWORD: Pyocyanin

449

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

450

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0226:BUZZWORD: Coagulase positive

451

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

452

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0227:BUZZWORD: Protein A

453

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

454

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0228:BUZZWORD: M protein

455

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes

456

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0229:BUZZWORD: Chocolate agar

457

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

458

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0230:BUZZWORD: Factors X and V

459

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

460

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0231:BUZZWORD: Tellurite plate

461

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

462

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0232:BUZZWORD: Dieterle silver stain

463

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophila

464

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0233:BUZZWORD: Tracheal cytotoxin

465

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

466

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0234:BUZZWORD: Alpha-hemolytic

467

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

468

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0235:BUZZWORD: Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)

469

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes

470

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0236:BUZZWORD: Filamentous hemagglutinin

471

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

472

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0237:BUZZWORD: Lancet-shaped diplococci

473

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

474

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0238:BUZZWORD: Gram-negative coccobacilli

475

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

476

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0239:BUZZWORD: Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST)

477

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

478

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0240:BUZZWORD: Oxidase positive

479

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

480

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0241:BUZZWORD: Enterotoxin

481

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

482

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0242:BUZZWORD: Exfoliatin (scalded skin syndrome)

483

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

484

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0243:BUZZWORD: Optochin sensitive

485

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

486

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0244:BUZZWORD: Bacitracin sensitive

487

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes

488

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0245:BUZZWORD: Spe toxins

489

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes

490

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0246:BUZZWORD: C-substance/CRP

491

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

492

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0247:BUZZWORD: Club-shaped bacilli in palisades

493

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

494

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0248:BUZZWORD: Toxin that ADP-ribosylates EF-2

495

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae; Pseudomonas aeruginosa

496

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0249:BUZZWORD: Exotoxin A

497

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

498

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0250:BUZZWORD: Toxin that ADP-ribosylates Gi protein

499

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

500

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0251:BUZZWORD: Tumbling motility

501

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

502

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0252:BUZZWORD: IgA protease

503

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae

504

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0253:BUZZWORD: Quellung reaction

505

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae; Neisseria meningitidis

506

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0254:BUZZWORD: Iron/cysteine supplement (charcoalyeast agar)

507

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophila

508

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0255:BUZZWORD: Cold-agglutinin titer

509

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

510

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0256:BUZZWORD: Bacterial membrane contains cholesterol

511

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

512

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0257:BUZZWORD: Fried egg shaped colony

513

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

514

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0258:BUZZWORD: Cord factor

515

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

516

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0259:BUZZWORD: Niacin production

517

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

518

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0260:Dominant normal flora of dental plaque

519

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus mutans

520

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0261:Dominant normal flora of the skin

521

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus epidermidis

522

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0262:Dominant normal flora of the nose

523

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

524

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0263:Dominant normal flora of the colon

525

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Bacteroides fragilis;2. E. coli

526

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0264:Dominant normal flora of the vagina

527

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Lactobacillus;2. E. coli;3. Group B strep

528

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0265:Dominant normal flora in neonates

529

Microbiology Flash Facts

When delivered by cesarean section; none; but are rapidly colonized after birth.

530

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0266:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 6 weeks to 18 years old.

531

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Viruses (RSV);2. Mycoplasma;3. Chlamydia pneumoniae;4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

532

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0267:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 18 to 40 years old.

533

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Mycoplasma;2. Chlamydia pneumoniae;3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

534

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0268:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 40 to 65 years old.

535

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Haemophilus influenzae;3. Anaerobes;4. Viruses;5. Mycoplasma

536

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0269:Most common causes of pneumonia in people over 65 years old.

537

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Anaerobes;3. Viruses;4. Haemophilus influenzae;5. Gram negative rods

538

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0270:Most common causes of nosocomial pneumonia

539

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus;2. Gram negative rods

540

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0271:Most common causes of immunocompromised pneumonia

541

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus;2. Gram negative rods;3. Fungi;4. Viruses;5. Pneumocystis jirovecii (with HIV)

542

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0272:Most common causes of aspiration pneumonia

543

Microbiology Flash Facts

Anaerobes

544

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0273:Most common causes of pneumonia in alcoholics or IV drug users

545

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Klebsiella;3. Staphylococcus

546

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0274:Most common causes of postviral pneumonia

547

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus;2. Haemophilus influenzae

548

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0275:Most common causes of neonatal pneumonia

549

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Group B streptococci;2. E. coli

550

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0276:Most common causes of atypical pneumonia

551

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Mycoplasma;2. Legionella;3. Chlamydia

552

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0277:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 0-6 months old

553

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Group B streptococci;2. E. coli;3. Listeria;All from birth canal

554

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0278:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 6 months to 6 years old

555

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Neisseria meningitidis;3. Haemophilus influenzae type B;4. Enteroviruses

556

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0279:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 6 years to 60 years old

557

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Neisseria meningitidis;2. Enteroviruses;3. Streptococcus pneumoniae;4. HSV

558

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0280:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people greater than 60 years old

559

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Gram negative rods;3. Listeria

560

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0281:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased PMNs;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased

561

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacterial (not TB)

562

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0282:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased lymphocytes;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased

563

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fungal or TB

564

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0283:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Normal/Increased;Cell type: Increased lymphocytes;Protein: Normal;Sugar: Normal

565

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viral

566

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0284:Common causes of osteomyelitis in most people.

567

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

568

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0285:Common causes of osteomyelitis in sexually active people.

569

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare); septic arthritis more common

570

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0286:Common causes of osteomyelitis in diabetics.

571

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

572

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0287:Common causes of osteomyelitis in drug addicts.

573

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

574

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0288:Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with sickle cell disease.

575

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella

576

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0289:Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with prosthetic replacement

577

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis

578

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0290:Common causes of vertebral osteomyelitis

579

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott's disease)

580

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0291:Common causes of urinary tract infections in ambulatory people

581

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mostly ascending infections;1. E. coli (50-80%);2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young amubulatory women;3. Klebsiella (8-10%)

582

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0292:Common causes of urinary tract infections in the hospital

583

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mostly ascending infections;1. E. coli;2. Proteus;3. Klebsiella;4. Serratia;5. Pseudomonas

584

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0293:Epidemiology of urinary tract infections

585

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mostly ascending infections. Ratio of women:men is 10:1. (short urethra colonized by fecal flora);Males;1. Babies: Congenital defects;2. Elderly: Enlarged prostates

586

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0294:Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections

587

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Flow obstruction;2. Kidney surgery;3. Catheterization;4. Gynecologic abnormalities;5. Diabetes;6. Pregnancy

588

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0295:Signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections

589

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Dysuria;2. Frequency;3. Urgency;4. Suprapubic pain

590

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0296:Signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis

591

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Fever;2. Chills;3. Flank pain;4. Costovertebral angle tenderness

592

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0297:What disease states does Serratia marcescens cause?

593

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nosocomial (4th most common) and drug-resistant urinary tract infection

594

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0298:What bug: metallic sheen on EMB agar

595

Microbiology Flash Facts

E. coli

596

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0299:What disease states does Enterobacter cloacae cause?

597

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nosocomial and drug-resistant urinary tract infection

598

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0300:What disease states does Proteus mirablis cause?

599

Microbiology Flash Facts

Urinary tract infection. Urease positive; and associated with struvite stones. Motility causes "swarming" on agar.

600

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0301:List of bugs that cause UTI

601

Microbiology Flash Facts

SSEEK PP;1. Serratia marcescens (nosocomial/drugresistant);2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (2nd most common cause in ambulatory young women);3. E. coli (Most common cause. Metallic sheen on EMB agar);4. Enterobacter cloacae (nosocomial and drug resistant);5. Klebsiella (thick viscous colonies);6. Proteus mirablis (urease positive; struvite stones; swarming on agar);7. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (bluegreen pigment; fruity odor)
602

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0302:Most common causes of bronchitis/bronchiolitis

603

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. RSV;2. Influenza A;3. Coronavirus;All RNA viruses with envelope

604

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0303:How does gonorrhea present?

605

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Urethritis;2. Cervicitis;3. PID;4. Prostatitis;5. Epididymitis;6. Arthritis;7. Creamy purulent discharge (mmm!)

606

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0304:What organism causes gonorrhea?

607

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrheae aka Gonococcus

608

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0305:What organism causes syphilis?

609

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

610

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0306:How does genital herpes present?

611

Microbiology Flash Facts

Painful ulcers on the;1. Penis;2. Vulva;3. Cervix

612

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0307:What disease states does HPV 6 cause?

613

Microbiology Flash Facts

Condylomata acuminata: Genital warts and koilocytes;(same as HPV 11)

614

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0308:What disease states does HPV 11 cause?

615

Microbiology Flash Facts

Condylomata acuminata: Genital warts and koilocytes;(same as HPV 6)

616

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0309:What causes condylomata acuminata?

617

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV 6 and 11

618

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0310:What causes condylomata lata?

619

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

620

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0311:Condylomata lata vs Condylomata acuminata

621

Microbiology Flash Facts

Condyloma (plural: "Condylomata"; from Greek "knob") refers to an infection of the genitals. The two subtypes are;"condylomata acuminata"; another term for genital warts caused by human papilloma virus ;"condylomata lata"; white lesions associated with secondary syphilis ;(copied from Wikipedia)
622

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0312:What disease states does Haemophilus ducreyi cause?

623

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chancroid;1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellowgray exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy

624

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0313:How does Chancroid present?

625

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellow-gray exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy

626

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0314:What causes chancroid?

627

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus ducreyi

628

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0315:What is the Whiff test?

629

Microbiology Flash Facts

Several drops of a potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution are added to a sample of vaginal discharge to see whether a strong fishy odor is produced. A fishy odor on the whiff test usually means bacterial vaginosis is present.

630

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0316:How does bacterial vaginosis present?

631

Microbiology Flash Facts

Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell;2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen;4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff test

632

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0317:Top causes of PID

633

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Chlamydia trachomatis (subacute; often undiagnosed);2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (acute; high fever);3. Gardnerella;4. Trichomonas

634

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0318:Most common STD in the US

635

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis (3-4 million cases per year)

636

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0319:Clinical presentation of PID

637

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign);2. Purulent cervical discharge;3. Possibly salpingitis; endrometritis; hydrosalpinx; or tubo-ovarian abscess

638

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0320:What is the chandelier sign?

639

Microbiology Flash Facts

Colloquial term referring to severe pain elicited during pelvic examination of patients with pelvic inflammatory disease in which the patient responds by reaching upwards towards the ceiling for relief;Retrieved from "http://www.biologyonline.org/dictionary/Chandelier_sign"

640

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0321:What is salpingitis a risk factor for?

641

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Ectopic pregnancy;2. Infertility;3. Chronic pelvic pain;4. Adhesions

642

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0322:Risk factor for nosocomial CMV infection.

643

Microbiology Flash Facts

Newborn nursery

644

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0323:Risk factor for nosocomial RSV infection.

645

Microbiology Flash Facts

Newborn nursery

646

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0324:Risk factor for nosocomial E. coli infection.

647

Microbiology Flash Facts

Urinary catheterization

648

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0325:Risk factor for nosocomial Proteus mirablis infection.

649

Microbiology Flash Facts

Urinary catheterization

650

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0326:Risk factor for nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection.

651

Microbiology Flash Facts

Respiratory therapy equipment

652

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0327:Risk factor for nosocomial HBV infection.

653

Microbiology Flash Facts

Work in renal dialysis unit

654

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0328:Risk factor for nosocomial Candida albicans infection.

655

Microbiology Flash Facts

Hyperalimentation

656

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0329:Risk factor for nosocomial Legionella infection.

657

Microbiology Flash Facts

Water aerosols

658

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0330:2 most common causes of nosocomial infections

659

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. E. coli (UTI);2. S. aureus (wound infection)

660

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0331:Infections dangerous in pregnancy

661

Microbiology Flash Facts

ToRCHeS;1. Toxoplasma;2. Rubella;3. CMV;4. HSV/HIV;5. Syphilis

662

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0332:What bugs: Hyaluronidase

663

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus;2. Streptococcus pyogenes;3. Clostridium dificile

664

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0333:What bug: Pus

665

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

666

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0334:What bug: Empyema

667

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus (means pus in a natural body cavity; not an abscess)

668

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0335:What bug: Abscess

669

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

670

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0336:What bug: Pediatric infection

671

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

672

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0337:Most common causes of pneumonia in people with cystic fibrosis.

673

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

674

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0338:What bug: Branching rods in oral infection

675

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii

676

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0339:What bug: Traumatic open wound infection

677

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens

678

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0340:What bug: Surgical wound

679

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

680

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0341:What bug: Dog or cat bite

681

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pasteurella multocida

682

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0342:What bug: Sepsis in a newborn

683

Microbiology Flash Facts

Group B Strep

684

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0343:What bug: Meningitis in a newborn

685

Microbiology Flash Facts

Group B Strep

686

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0344:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking

687

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: It's forming its cell wall. ACT PAPI!;1. Aztreonam;2. Cephalosporins;3. Ticarcillin;4. Penicillin;5. Ampicillin;6. Piperacillin;7. Imipenem

688

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0345:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block peptidoglycan synthesis

689

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Bacitracin;2. Vancomycin;3. Cycloserine

690

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0346:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Disrupt bacterial cell membranes

691

Microbiology Flash Facts

Polymyxins

692

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0347:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Disrupt fungal cell membranes

693

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Amphotericin B;2. Nystatin;3. Fluconzaole/azoles;4. Polymyxins

694

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0348:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block nucleotide synthesis

695

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Sulfonamides;2. Trimethprim

696

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0349:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block DNA topoisomerases

697

Microbiology Flash Facts

Quinolones

698

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0350:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block mRNA synthesis

699

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rifampin

700

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0351:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal subunit

701

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Chloramphenicol;2. Erythromycin/macrolides;3. Lincomycin;4. Clindamycin;5. Streptogramins (quinupristin; dalfopristin);6. Linezolid

702

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0352:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit

703

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Aminoglycosides;2. Tetracyclines

704

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0353:Bactericidal antibiotics

705

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Am I Safe using a Metropolitan Pen in a Van; Flo?;1. Aminoglycosides;2. Cephalosporins;3. Metronidazole;4. Penicillin;5. Vancomycin;6. Fluoroquinolones

706

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0354:Patient with blotchy hypopigmentation of skin

707

Microbiology Flash Facts

Malassezia furfur

708

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0355:KOH scraping shows spaghetti and meatballs

709

Microbiology Flash Facts

Malassezia furfur

710

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0356:Patient with scaly; ringlike lesions of ski that may involved hair shafts or nails

711

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails; Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and skin)

712

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0357:KOH scraping shows arthroconidia and hyphae

713

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails; Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and skin)

714

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0358:Patient with subcutaneous/lymphocutaneous mycetoma

715

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sporothrix schenckii

716

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0359:Fardener; florist; basket weaver

717

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sporothrix schenckii

718

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0360:Cigar-shaped yeasts in pus

719

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sporothrix schenckii

720

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0361:Normal patient with acute pulmonary; immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or disseminated infection

721

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasma capsulatum

722

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0362:States following drainages of Great Lakes to Gulf of Mexico

723

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasma capsulatum

724

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0363:Exposure to bird or bat excrement

725

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasma capsulatum

726

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0364:Sputum or blood cultures with mononuclear cells packed with yeast cells

727

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasma capsulatum

728

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0365:Normal patient with erythema nodosum or self resolving pneumonia

729

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioides immitis

730

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0366:Immunocompromised patient with calcifying chronic pulmonary or disseminated infections

731

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioides immitis

732

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0367:Pregnant female in third trimester; disseminated infection

733

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioides immitis

734

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0368:Desert southwest

735

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioides immitis

736

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0369:Sputum has spherule with endospores

737

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioides immitis

738

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0370:Normal patient with acute pulmonary symptoms

739

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomyces dermatitidis

740

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0371:Immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or disseminated infection

741

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomyces dermatitidis

742

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0372:North and South Carolina Sputum has broad-based; budding yeasts with double; refractile cell walls

743

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomyces dermatitidis

744

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0373:Sputum has broad-based budding yeasts with double refractile cell walls

745

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomyces dermatitidis

746

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0374:Patient with asthma allergies-growing mucous plugs in lung

747

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

748

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0375:Patient with cavitary lung lesions-fungus ball

749

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

750

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0376:Patient with burns-cellulitis invasion

751

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

752

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0377:Immunocompromised patient-penumonia; meningitis

753

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

754

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0378:Septate hyphae branch at acute angles (45-degrees)

755

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

756

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0379:Immunocrompromised patient; overuse of antibioticsthrust;spread down GI tract; septicemia

757

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans

758

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0380:IV drug abusers-endocarditis

759

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans

760

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0381:Germ tube test demonstrates pseudohyphae and hyphae

761

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans

762

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0382:Pigeon breeder with acute pulmonary symptoms

763

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptococcus neoformans

764

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0383:Hodgkins/AIDS patient with meningitis

765

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptococcus neoformans

766

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0384:India ink mount of CSF with encapsulated yeasts

767

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptococcus neoformans

768

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0385:Ketoacidotic diabetic or leukemic patient with rhinocerebral infection

769

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mucor; Rhizopus; Absidia

770

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0386:Biopsy with nonseptate; irregular-width hyphae branching at 90-degree angles

771

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mucor; Rhizopus; Absidia

772

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0387:Premature infant or AIDS patient with atypical pneumonia

773

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumocystis jiroveci

774

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0388:Biopsy with honeycomb exudate and silver staining cysts

775

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumocystis jiroveci

776

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0389:X-ray: ground glass

777

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumocystis jiroveci

778

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0390:Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci

779

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus epidermidis

780

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0391:Novobiocin sensitive

781

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus epidermidis

782

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0392:Infections of catheters and shunts

783

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus epidermidis

784

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0393:Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci

785

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

786

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0394:Novobiocin resistant

787

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

788

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0395:"Honeymoon cystitis"

789

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

790

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0396:Coagulase (+); gram (+) cocci in clusters

791

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

792

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0397:Gastroenteritis: 2-6 hours onset; salty foods; custards

793

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

794

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0398:Endocarditis: acute

795

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

796

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0399:Toxic shock syndrome: desquamating rash; fever; hypotension

797

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

798

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0400:Impetigo: bullous

799

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

800

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0401:Pneumonia: nosocomial; typical; acute

801

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

802

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0402:Osteomyelitis: #1 cause unless HbS mentioned

803

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureas

804

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0403:Catalase (-); Beta hemolytic; gram (+) cocci; bacitracin sensitive

805

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

806

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0404:Pharyngitis: abrupt onset; tonsillar abscesses

807

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

808

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0405:Scarlet fever: blanching; sandpaper rash; strawnerry tongue

809

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

810

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0406:Impetigo: honey-crusted lesions

811

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

812

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0407:Rheumatic fever

813

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

814

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0408:Increased ASO titer

815

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

816

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0409:Acute glomerulonephritis after skin or throat infection; hypertension; edema; smoky urine

817

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

818

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0410:Bacitracin sensitive; gram (+) cocci

819

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

820

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0411:Bacitracin resistant; gram (+) cocci

821

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

822

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0412:Hydrolyze hippurate

823

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

824

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0413:CAMP test (+)

825

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

826

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0414:Catalase (-); Beta hemolytic; gram (+) cocci; bacitracin resistant

827

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

828

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0415:MCC of Neonatal meningitis and septicemia: especially in prolonged labors

829

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

830

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0416:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin sensitive; bile soluble

831

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

832

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0417:Lancet shaped diplococci

833

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

834

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0418:MCC of typical pneumonia; rusty sputum

835

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

836

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0419:MCC pf adult meningitis - many PMNs; decreased glucose; increased protein in CSF

837

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

838

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0420:MCC of otitis media and sinusitis

839

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

840

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0421:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin resistant; bile insoluble

841

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)

842

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0422:Plaque and dental caries

843

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)

844

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0423:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - preexisting damage to the heart valves; follows dental work

845

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)

846

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0424:Gram (+); catalase (-); variable hemolysis; hydrolyzes esculin

847

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococcus faecalis/faecium

848

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0425:Urinary and biliary tract infections - elderly males after prostate treatment

849

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococcus faecalis/faecium

850

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0426:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - elderly males; follows GI/GU surgery; preexisting heart valve damage

851

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococcus faecalis/faecium

852

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0427:Gram (+); spore forming aerobic rods

853

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus antracis

854

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0428:Contact with animal hides or postal worker; eschar or life-threatening pneumonia

855

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus antracis

856

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0429:Rapid-onset gastroenteritis

857

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus cereus

858

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0430:Fried rice; Chinese restaurants

859

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus cereus

860

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0431:Dirty puncture wound

861

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium tetani

862

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0432:Rigid paralysis

863

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium tetani

864

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0433:Home-canned alkaline vegtables

865

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum

866

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0434:Floppy baby syndrome (infant with flaccid paralysis)

867

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum

868

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0435:Reversible flaccid paralysis

869

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum

870

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0436:Contamined wound

871

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens

872

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0437:Pain; edema; gas; fever; tachycardia

873

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens

874

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0438:Food poisoning: reheated meats; noninflammatory diarrhea

875

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens

876

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0439:Hospitalized patient on antibiotics

877

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium difficile

878

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0440:Develops colitis; diarrhea

879

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium difficile

880

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0441:Gram (+); beta hemolytic bacilli; facultative intracellular

881

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

882

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0442:Foodborne (deli foods)

883

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

884

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0443:Transplacental - granulomatosis infantiseptica

885

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

886

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0444:Neonatal septicemia and meningitis (third most common cause)

887

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

888

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0445:MCC of meningitis in renal transplant or cancer patients

889

Microbiology Flash Facts

Listeria monocytogenes

890

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0446:Gram (+); aerobic; non-spore forming rods

891

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

892

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0447:Bull neck; myocarditis; nerve palsies

893

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

894

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0448:Gray pseudomembrane airway obstruction

895

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

896

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0449:Toxin produced by lysogeny and ribosylates EF-2; heart; nerve damage

897

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

898

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0450:Mycetoma on jaw line or spread from IUD

899

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii

900

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0451:Sulfur granules in pus grow anaerobic; gram (+); nonacid fast branching rods

901

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii

902

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0452:Gram (+) filamentous bacilli; aerobic; partially acid fast

903

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis

904

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0453:Cavitary bronchopulmonary disease; mycetomas

905

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis

906

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0454:High-risk patient (low SES; HIV+; IV drug user)

907

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

908

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0455:Chronic cough; weight loss

909

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

910

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0456:Ghon complex

911

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

912

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0457:Auramine-rhodamine staining; acid fast bacilli in sputum; faculative intracellular

913

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

914

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0458:Produce niacin; heat-sensitive catalase

915

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

916

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0459:Positive DTH test (PPD)

917

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

918

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0460:Acid fast bacilli in punch biopsy

919

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

920

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0461:Immigrant patient with sensory loss in extremities

921

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

922

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0462:Armadillos in Texas and Louisana

923

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

924

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0463:Hansen's disease

925

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

926

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0464:AIDS patients; cancer; chronic lung disease with pulmonary; GI; disseminated symptoms; atypical mycobacteria

927

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare; Mycobacterium kansasii

928

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0465:Fish tank granuloma - cutaneous granulomas

929

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium marinum

930

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0466:Solitary cervical lymph node in kids; lymphadenitis; atypical mycobacteria

931

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

932

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0467:Gran (-) diplococcus in CSF

933

Microbiology Flash Facts

Meningococcal meningitis

934

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0468:Young adults with meningitis; abrupt onset with signs of endotoxin toxicity

935

Microbiology Flash Facts

Meningococcal meningitis

936

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0469:Sexually active patient

937

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

938

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0470:Urethral/vaginal discharge (leukorrhea)

939

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

940

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0471:Arthiritis possible

941

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

942

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0472:Neonatal opthalmia

943

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

944

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0473:Gram (-) diplococcus in neutrophils

945

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

946

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0474:Gram (-) diplococcus causes otitis media; sinusitis; bronchitis; bronchopneumonia in elderly patients with COPD

947

Microbiology Flash Facts

Moraxella catarrhalis

948

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0475:Gram (-); oxidase (+); aerobic bacillus

949

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

950

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0476:Blue-green pigments; fruity odor

951

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

952

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0477:Burn infections - blue-green pus; fruity odor

953

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

954

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0478:Typical pneumonia - Chonic granulomatous disease or Cystic fibrosis

955

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

956

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0479:UTI - catheterized patients

957

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

958

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0480:Elderly smoker; heavy drinker or immunosuppressed

959

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophilia

960

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0481:Exposure to aerosols of water

961

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophilia

962

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0482:Atypical pneumonia

963

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophilia

964

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0483:Pontiac fever

965

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophilia

966

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0484:Patient with ulceroglandular disease; atypical pneumonia; or gastrointestinal disease

967

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella tularensis

968

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0485:Arkansas/Missouri

969

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella tularensis

970

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0486:Exposure to rabbits/ticks

971

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella tularensis

972

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0487:Tularemia

973

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella tularensis

974

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0488:Unvaccinated child (immigrant family or religious objections)

975

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

976

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0489:Cough with inspiratory "whoop"

977

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

978

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0490:Whooping cough

979

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis

980

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0491:Patient with acute septicemia

981

Microbiology Flash Facts

Brucella species

982

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0492:Exposure to animals or unpasteurized dairy

983

Microbiology Flash Facts

Brucella species

984

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0493:California/Texas or travel to Mexico

985

Microbiology Flash Facts

Brucella species

986

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0494:Patient with inflammatory diarrhea

987

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter jejuni

988

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0495:Gram (-); curved rod; microaerophilic; exidase (+); grows at 42 degrees C

989

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter jejuni

990

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0496:Patient with gastritis; ulcers; stomach cancer

991

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helicobacter pylori

992

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0497:Gram (-); helical bacilli; oxidase (+); microaerophilic; urease (+)

993

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helicobacter pylori

994

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0498:MCC of UTI

995

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli

996

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0499:Neonatal septicemia (2nd MCC)

997

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli

998

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0500:Gastroenteritis; Traveler's diarrhea

999

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli (ETEC)

1000

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0501:Infantile diarrhea (2nd MCC)

1001

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli (EPEC)

1002

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0502:Hemorrhagic colitis; HUS

1003

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli (EHEC)

1004

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0503:Lactose fermenter; gram-negative rod

1005

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli

1006

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0504:Inflammatory diarrhea; similar to shigellosis

1007

Microbiology Flash Facts

Escherichia coli (EIEC)

1008

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0505:Patient with acute bloody diarrhea and fever

1009

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shigella sonnei (MC in US); dysenteriae (most severe)

1010

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0506:Gram (-) bacilli; which are nonmotile; nonlactose fermenters; do not produce H2S

1011

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shigella sonnei (MC in US); dysenteriae (most severe)

1012

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0507:Elderly patient with typical pneumonia currant-jelly sputum

1013

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella pneumoniae

1014

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0508:UTI - catheterized patients

1015

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella pneumoniae

1016

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0509:Septicemia: immunocompromised or nosocomial

1017

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella pneumoniae

1018

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0510:Gram (-) bacilli; oxidase (-); encapsulated; lactose fermenters

1019

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella pneumoniae

1020

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0511:Patient from Caribbean or New Guinea with subcutaneous genital nodules

1021

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella granulomatis

1022

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0512:Encapsulated gram (-) rods inside mononuclear cells

1023

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella granulomatis

1024

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0513:Patient with fever; abdominal pain with travel to endemic area

1025

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica typhi

1026

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0514:Gram (-); encapsulated; nonlactose fermenter; produces H2S gas

1027

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi

1028

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0515:Widal test

1029

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi

1030

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0516:Enterocolitis - inflammatory; follows ingestion of poultry products or handling pet reptiles

1031

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica non-typhi

1032

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0517:Septicemia - very young or elderly

1033

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica non-typhi

1034

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0518:Osteomyelitis - sickle cell disease

1035

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica non-typhi

1036

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0519:Gram (-) bacillus; motile; non-lactose fermenter; produces H2S gas

1037

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi

1038

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0520:Widal test

1039

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi

1040

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0521:Patient with high fever; buboes; conjunctivitis; pneumonia

1041

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia pestis

1042

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0522:Exposure to small rodents; desert southwest

1043

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia pestis

1044

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0523:Patient with inflammatory diarrhea or pseudoappendicitis

1045

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

1046

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0524:Cold climates

1047

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

1048

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0525:Unpateurized milk; pork

1049

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

1050

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0526:Gram (-) bacilli; non-lactose fermenters; non-H2S producers

1051

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

1052

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0527:Patient with UTI or septicemia

1053

Microbiology Flash Facts

Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris

1054

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0528:Swarming motility

1055

Microbiology Flash Facts

Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris

1056

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0529:Staghorn renal calculi (struvite stones)

1057

Microbiology Flash Facts

Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris

1058

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0530:Gram (-); non-lactose fermenting; urease (+)

1059

Microbiology Flash Facts

Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris

1060

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0531:Female patient with thin vaginal discharge; post antibiotic or menses

1061

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gardnerella vaginalis

1062

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0532:Clue cells

1063

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gardnerella vaginalis

1064

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0533:Whiff test

1065

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gardnerella vaginalis

1066

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0534:Patient with noninflammatory diarrhea

1067

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

1068

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0535:Rice-water stool

1069

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

1070

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0536:Dehydration

1071

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

1072

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0537:Gram (-) curved rods; polar flagellae; oxidase (+); travel to endemic area

1073

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

1074

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0538:Patient with cat (animal) bite

1075

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pasteurella multocida

1076

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0539:Cellulitis / lymphadenitis

1077

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pasteurella multocida

1078

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0540:3 mo-2 year old unvaccinated child - meningitis; pneumonia; epiglottitis

1079

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

1080

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0541:Smokers with COPD - bronchitis; pneumonia

1081

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

1082

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0542:Gram (-) rod; requires factors X and V

1083

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae

1084

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0543:MCC of gram-negative endocarditis in non-IV drug users

1085

Microbiology Flash Facts

HACEK group infections

1086

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0544:Painful chancre

1087

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus ducreyi

1088

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0545:Patient with abdominal trauma; emergency abdominal surgery

1089

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacteroides fragilis

1090

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0546:Septicemia; peritonitis; abscess

1091

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacteroides fragilis

1092

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0547:Gram (-) bacilli; anaerobic

1093

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacteroides fragilis

1094

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0548:Sexually active patient or neonate of IV drug-using female

1095

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1096

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0549:Primary disease - nontender indurated genital chancre

1097

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1098

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0550:Secondary disease - maculopapular; copper-colored rash; condylomata lata

1099

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1100

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0551:Tertiary disease - gumma in CNS and cardiovascular system

1101

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1102

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0552:Spirilar; gram (-) bacteria visualized by dark-field or fluorescent antibody

1103

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1104

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0553:FTA-ABS; VDRL

1105

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

1106

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0554:Patient with influenza-like symptoms and erythema migrans

1107

Microbiology Flash Facts

Borrelia burgdorferi

1108

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0555:Spring/summer seasons; noreast; midwest; west coast

1109

Microbiology Flash Facts

Borrelia burgdorferi

1110

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0556:Later-neurologic; cardiac; arthiritis/arthralgias

1111

Microbiology Flash Facts

Borrelia burgdorferi

1112

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0557:Lyme disease

1113

Microbiology Flash Facts

Borrelia burgdorferi

1114

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0558:Patients with influenza-like symptoms +/- GI symptoms

1115

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leptospira interrogans

1116

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0559:Occupational or recreational exposure to water aerosols

1117

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leptospira interrogans

1118

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0560:Hawaii

1119

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leptospira interrogans

1120

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0561:Spirochetes with terminal hook

1121

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leptospira interrogans

1122

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0562:Patient with influenza-like symptoms and petechial rash that begins on ankles and wrists and moves to trunk

1123

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia rickettsii

1124

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0563:East coast mountainous areas

1125

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia rickettsii

1126

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0564:Sring/summer seasons; outdoor exposure; Weil-Felix (+)

1127

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia rickettsii

1128

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0565:Rocky Mountain spotted fever

1129

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia rickettsii

1130

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0566:Patient with fever; pneumonia; granulomatous hepatitis

1131

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coxiella burnetii

1132

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0567:Exposure to domestic animal breeding operation; gram (-) bacilli; diagnose serologically

1133

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coxiella burnetii

1134

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0568:Sexually active patient or neonate

1135

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis

1136

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0569:Adult: urethritis; cervicitis; PID; inclusion conjunctivitis

1137

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis

1138

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0570:Neonate: inclusion conjunctivitis / pneumonia

1139

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis

1140

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0571:Immigrant from Africa/Asia; swollen genital lymphadenopathy

1141

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis

1142

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0572:Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in scrapings

1143

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis

1144

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0573:Atypical pneumonia; sputum with intracytoplasmic inclusion

1145

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia pneumoniae

1146

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0574:Atypical pneumonia; exposure to parrots

1147

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia psittaci

1148

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0575:Young adult with atypical pneumonia (MCC)

1149

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumonia

1150

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0576:Mulberry-shaped colonies on media containing sterols

1151

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumonia

1152

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0577:Positive cold agglutinin test

1153

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumonia

1154

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0578:Adult patient with urethritis; prostitis; renal calculi

1155

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ureaplasma urealyticum

1156

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0579:Alkaline urine

1157

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ureaplasma urealyticum

1158

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0580:Non-Gram-staining; urease (+)

1159

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ureaplasma urealyticum

1160

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0581:Amebiasis: dysentery

1161

Microbiology Flash Facts

Entamoeba histolytica

1162

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0582:Liver abscesses (protozoa etiology)

1163

Microbiology Flash Facts

Entamoeba histolytica

1164

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0583:Inverted flask shaped lesions

1165

Microbiology Flash Facts

Entamoeba histolytica

1166

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0584:Fatty; foul-smelling diarrhea leading to malabsorption

1167

Microbiology Flash Facts

Giardia lamblia

1168

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0585:Fecal (human; beaver; muskrat); water ; food; day care

1169

Microbiology Flash Facts

Giardia lamblia

1170

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0586:Trophozoites with "falling leaf" motility

1171

Microbiology Flash Facts

Giardia lamblia

1172

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0587:Transient diarrhea in healthy; severe in immunocompromisted hosts; acid fast round oocysts in stool

1173

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptosporidium species

1174

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0588:Undercooked meat; water - no killed by chlorination; cysts

1175

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptosporidium species

1176

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0589:Frothy vaginal discharge; motile trophozoites with corkscrew motility; sexual transmission

1177

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trichomonas vaginalis

1178

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0590:Chills; fever spike; and malarial rigors; relapses

1179

Microbiology Flash Facts

Plasmodium vivax

1180

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0591:Irregular fever spikes; causes cerebral malaria; multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes

1181

Microbiology Flash Facts

Plasmodium falciparum

1182

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0592:Chagas diseases; Romana sign (swelling around eye); cardiac muscle; liver; brain often involved; reduviid bug

1183

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trypanosoma cruzi

1184

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0593:African sleeping sickness; tsetse fly; antigenic variation

1185

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trypanosoma brucei; gambiense; rhodesiense

1186

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0594:Viseral Leishmaniasis; sandfly; amastigotes in macrophages in bone marrow; liver; spleen

1187

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leishmania donovani

1188

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0595:Cutaneous Leishmaniasis; sandfly; amastigotes in cutaneous lesions

1189

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leismania species

1190

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0596:Malaria-like Babesiosis; NE; N Central; California; and NW U.S; Ixodes tick; co-infection with Borrelia

1191

Microbiology Flash Facts

Babesia

1192

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0597:Cat is definitive host; raw meat in US #1 = pork; contact with cat feces; deadly in pregnant patients

1193

Microbiology Flash Facts

Toxoplasma gondii

1194

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0598:Intestinal schistosomiasis

1195

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma mansoni; japonicum

1196

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0599:Skin penetration; mature in veins of mesentery; eggs cause granulomas in liver

1197

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma mansoni; japonicum

1198

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0600:Vesicular schistosomiasis

1199

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium

1200

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0601:Skin penetration; bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa

1201

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium

1202

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0602:Chinese liver fluke

1203

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clonorchis sinesis

1204

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0603:Raw fish ingestion; serum-like sickness

1205

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clonorchis sinesis

1206

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0604:Lung fluke

1207

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani

1208

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0605:Raw crabs; crayfish; mimics pulmonary TB

1209

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani

1210

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0606:Pork tapeworm

1211

Microbiology Flash Facts

Taenia solium

1212

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0607:Cysticercosis; calcified larva in brain; eye; heart; lung; IH: pigs

1213

Microbiology Flash Facts

Taenia solium

1214

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0608:Raw pork containing cysticerci ingested by humans; DH: humans - intestinal tapeworm; proglottids in feces

1215

Microbiology Flash Facts

Taenia solium

1216

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0609:Raw pickled fism containing a sparganum; intestinal tapeworm; megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency)

1217

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphyllobothrium latum

1218

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0610:Fish tapeworm

1219

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphyllobothrium latum

1220

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0611:Hydatid cyst disease

1221

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enchinococcus granulosus

1222

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0612:Pinworms; large intestine; perinal itching

1223

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius vermicularis

1224

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0613:Scotch tape test

1225

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius vermicularis

1226

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0614:Most frequent helminth parasite in U.S.

1227

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius vermicularis

1228

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0615:Ascariasis

1229

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ascaris lumbricoides

1230

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0616:MC helminth worldwide

1231

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ascaris lumbricoides

1232

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0617:Largest roundworm; may obstruct intestine or bile duct

1233

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ascaris lumbricoides

1234

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0618:Visceral Larva Migrans - larvae wader aimlessly until they die; cause inflmmation; from hangling puppies or eating dirt (pica)

1235

Microbiology Flash Facts

Toxocara canis or cati

1236

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0619:Hookworm; larva penetrates intact skin of bare feet; penumonitis; anemia; occult blood fecal may be +

1237

Microbiology Flash Facts

Necator americanus

1238

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0620:Threadworm; early: pneumonitis; diarrhea; abdominal pain later: malabsorption; ulcers; bloody stools; larva penerates intact skin

1239

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strongyloides stercoralis

1240

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0621:Trichinosis; variable encysted larvae in meat; wild game meat; in muscle; fever; myalgia; splinter hemorrhages; eosinophilia

1241

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trichinella spiralis

1242

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0622:Elephantiasis; mosquito

1243

Microbiology Flash Facts

Wucheria bancrofti

1244

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0623:Pruritus; calabar swelling; chrysops mango fly; African eye worm

1245

Microbiology Flash Facts

Loa loa

1246

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0624:River blindness; itchy leopard rash

1247

Microbiology Flash Facts

Onchocerca volvulus

1248

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0625:Creeping eruptions; ulcerations; rash; remove with stick; fiery serpant

1249

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dracunculus medinesis

1250

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0626:School-aged child with fever and indurated facial rash; slapped cheek fever

1251

Microbiology Flash Facts

B19 - Parvoviridae

1252

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0627:Pregnant woman with flu-like symptoms; hydrops fetalis or spontaneous abortion

1253

Microbiology Flash Facts

B19 - Parvoviridae

1254

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0628:Warts

1255

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV - Papovaviridae

1256

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0629:Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

1257

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV - Papovaviridae

1258

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0630:Biopsy or pap smear reveals koilocytic cells

1259

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV - Papovaviridae

1260

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0631:Cold sores / gential vesicles

1261

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1262

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0632:Keratoconjunctivitis

1263

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1264

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0633:Meningoencephalitis / encephalitis

1265

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1266

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0634:Neonatal disseminated / encephalitis

1267

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1268

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0635:Tzanck smear; Cowdry type A inclusion bodies

1269

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1270

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0636:Latency in trigeminal ganglion

1271

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-1 - Herpesviridae

1272

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0637:Latency in sacral ganglion

1273

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV-2 - Herpesviridae

1274

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0638:unvaccinated child with asynchronous rash

1275

Microbiology Flash Facts

VZV - Herpesviridae - Chickenpox

1276

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0639:Elderly with unilateral vesicular rash that follows dermatome

1277

Microbiology Flash Facts

VZV - Herpesviridae - Shingles

1278

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0640:Tzanck smear; Cowdry type A inclusion bodies; and synctia intranuclear inclusions

1279

Microbiology Flash Facts

VZV - Herpesviridae

1280

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0641:Latency in DRG

1281

Microbiology Flash Facts

VZV - Herpesviridae

1282

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0642:Young adult with fever; lymphadenopathy; splenomegaly

1283

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV - Herpesviridae

1284

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0643:Downey type II atypical T lymphocytes reach 70% in blood

1285

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV - Herpesviridae

1286

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0644:Heterophile (monospot) positive mononucleosis

1287

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV - Herpesviridae

1288

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0645:Latency in B cells

1289

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV - Herpesviridae

1290

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0646:Kissing disease

1291

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV - Herpesviridae

1292

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0647:Heterophile-negative mononucleosis in children and adults

1293

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV - Herpesviridae

1294

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0648:Neonate with jaundice; hepatosplenomegaly; thrombocytic purpura

1295

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV - Herpesviridae

1296

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0649:Owl-eye inclusion bodies in biopsy

1297

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV - Herpesviridae

1298

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0650:Infant with fever leading to lacy body rash

1299

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHV-6 - Herpesviridae

1300

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0651:AIDS patient with sarcoma

1301

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHV-8 - Herpesviridae

1302

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0652:Kaposi sarcoma

1303

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHV-8 - Herpesviridae

1304

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0653:Latency in mononuclear cells

1305

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV; CMV - Herpesviridae

1306

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0654:Young adults with ARDS; spring and winter peak

1307

Microbiology Flash Facts

Adenovirus - Adenoviridae

1308

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0655:Swimmers and shipyard workers: nonpurulent conjunctivitis

1309

Microbiology Flash Facts

Adenovirus - Adenoviridae

1310

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0656:Daycare: viral gastroenteritis

1311

Microbiology Flash Facts

Adenovirus - Adenoviridae

1312

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0657:Young adult (wrestling; swim team); umbilicated warts; Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

1313

Microbiology Flash Facts

Molluscum Contagiosum - Poxviridae

1314

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0658:Virus extinct

1315

Microbiology Flash Facts

Variola - Poxviridae

1316

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0659:Syncronous rash begins in mouth goes to face and body

1317

Microbiology Flash Facts

Variola - Poxviridae

1318

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0660:Guarnieri bodies (intracytoplasmic inclusions)

1319

Microbiology Flash Facts

Variola - Poxviridae

1320

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0661:Smallpox

1321

Microbiology Flash Facts

Variola - Poxviridae

1322

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0662:Dane particle; infectious

1323

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBV - Hepadnaviridae

1324

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0663:Fecal oral; infectious

1325

Microbiology Flash Facts

HAV - Picornavirus

1326

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0664:Parenteral; sexual; serum; infacts chronic carriers; primary HCC; cirrosis

1327

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBV - Hepadnaviridae

1328

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0665:Parenteral; sexual; post-transfusion; 80% chronic carriers; primary HCC; cirrhosis

1329

Microbiology Flash Facts

HCV - Flavivirus

1330

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0666:Parenteral; sexual; superinfection; cirrhosis; fulminant hepatitis

1331

Microbiology Flash Facts

HDV - Defective

1332

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0667:Fecal oral; enteric; pregnant patients severly affected

1333

Microbiology Flash Facts

HEV - Calcivirus

1334

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0668:Sheep; goat; fur; spore; bioterror; Wool-sorter's disease

1335

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative rod; Bacillus antracis

1336

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0669:Rice; preformed toxin; heat-stable toxin vomiting;heat-labile toxin - diarrhea

1337

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative rod Bacillus cereus

1338

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0670:Bordet-Gengou agar; whooping cough; DPT vaccine

1339

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative coccobacilli Bordetella pertussis

1340

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0671:Bloody diarrhea; undercooked poultry; microaerophillic

1341

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative; curved rod Campylobacter jejuni

1342

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0672:STD; UTI; PID; LGV; trachoma; iodine stain; elementary bodies; reticulate bodies

1343

Microbiology Flash Facts

Poorly gram stain; gram negative without peptidoglycan Chlamydia trachomatis

1344

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0673:Boxcar shaped; double zone of hemolysis; lecithinase; toxins; gas gangrene; diarrhea

1345

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive bacilli; spore forming; anaerobic Chlostridium perfringens

1346

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0674:Botulism;Floppy baby;Honey;Sepores;Food-borne

1347

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive bacilli;Spore forming;Anaerobic Clostridium botulinum

1348

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0675:Pseudomembrane;DPT vaccine;A-B toxin;Schick test

1349

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive bacilli;Non-spore forming Corynebacterium diptheriae

1350

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0676:Diarrhea;Neonatal meningitis;EIEC; EHEC; ETEC;EAEC;EPEC;Lactose positive;O157:H7;UTI

1351

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anerobe;Enterobacteriaciae Escherichia coli

1352

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0677:Currant jelly (blood) sputum;Pneumonia; aspiration;Capsule

1353

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anaerobe;Enterobacteriaciae Klebsiella pneumoniae

1354

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0678:Sulfur granules;Anaerobic;Filamentous

1355

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive bacilli;Anaerobic Actinomyces

1356

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0679:Intracellular;Rabbit;Ulcer;Tularemia

1357

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative coccobavilli Francisella tularensis

1358

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0680:Undulant fever;Unpasteurized milk and cheese;Intracellular growth;Goats and sheep

1359

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative coccobacilli Brucella spp.

1360

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0681:Foul-smelling;Mixed infection;Abscess

1361

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Strict anaerobe Bacteroides gragillis

1362

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0682:X and V factors;Hib;Capsule;Meningitis

1363

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative coccobacilli Haemophilus

1364

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0683:Gastric or duodenal ulcer;Urease;Urease breath test

1365

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative curved rod;Micro-aerophillic Helicobacter pylori

1366

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0684:Air-conditioning coolant;Shower and other lukewarm water sources;Charcoal yeast agar (BCYE agar);Silver stain

1367

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Aerobic Legionella pneumophilia

1368

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0685:Meningitis;Intracellular growth;Baby;Cold enrichment;Milk products;Motility;Undercooked meat

1369

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive bacilli;Non-spore forming Listeria monocytogenes

1370

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0686:Walking pneumonia;No cell wall

1371

Microbiology Flash Facts

Non-gram staining;Triple layer membrane Mycoplasma pneumonia

1372

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0687:Diplocci in CSF;Meningitis;Lipoligosaccharide;Endotoxin;Septic shock;Petechiae;Purpura;Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

1373

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative cocci Neisseria meningitidis

1374

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0688:Diplococci;Urethritis;STD;Thayer-Martin medium;Chocolate agar

1375

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative cocci Neisseria gonorrhoeae

1376

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0689:Nerve damage;Lepromatous leprosy Th2;Tuberculoid leprosy - Th1

1377

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid fast;mycolic acid Mycobacterium leprae

1378

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0690:Mantoux reaction;PPD;Granuloma;Caseation;Opportunistic disease;Ghon complexes;Isoniazid

1379

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid fast;mycolic acid Mycobacterium tuberculosis

1380

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0691:Nosocomial infection;Cystic fibrosis;Opportunistic;Antibiotic resistant;Fruity smell;Burn patient

1381

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Aerobic Pseudomonas aeruginosa

1382

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0692:Tick;Southeastern Atlantic and south central states;Weil-Felix reaction;Obligate intracellular growth

1383

Microbiology Flash Facts

Poorly gram staing Rickettsia spp.

1384

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0693:Grapelike clusters;Coagulase+;Catalase+;Toxins;MRSA

1385

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive cocci Staphlococcus aureus

1386

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0694:Dairy foods;Motile;Raw eggs and chicken;Nonlactose fermenter;Nonbloody diarrhea

1387

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anaerobe;Intracellular Salmonella spp.

1388

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0695:Capsule;Optichin (P disk) sensitive;Polysaccharide vaccine

1389

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive diplococci Streptococcus pneumoniae

1390

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0696:Beta-hemolysis;Streptolysin O and S;Group A Bacitracin sensitive

1391

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive cocci in chains Streptococcus pyogenes

1392

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0697:Entero-feces-gutbug;Nosocomial;Antibiotic resistant

1393

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive cocci Entercoccus

1394

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0698:Syphilis;FTA-ABS;Painless chancre;Spirochete;Gumma;Unculturable;CDRL test;STD

1395

Microbiology Flash Facts

Poorly gram staining;Spirochete Treponema pallidum

1396

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0699:Erythema chronicum migrans;Deer tick;High grass;Lyme disease

1397

Microbiology Flash Facts

Poorly gram staining;Spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi

1398

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0700:Comma (S) shaped;Rice-water diarrhea;Shellfish;A-B toxin

1399

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative curved rod;Facultative anaerobe Vibrio cholerae

1400

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0701:coagulase +;anterior nares;beta-hemolytic;yellow colonies;various toxins [alpha toxins; Panton-Valentine leukocidin; superantigens; enterotoxins (food poisoning); TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome)]

1401

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive cocci Staphyloccocus aureus

1402

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0702:Bacteria producing an AB exotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release.

1403

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium Botulinum - causes flaccid paralysis.

1404

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0703:Mechanism of action of shiga toxin.

1405

Microbiology Flash Facts

An AB exotoxin that cleaves 28S rRNA in 60S ribosomal subunit - disrupts protein synthesis. Damages intestinal epithelium and glomerular endothelial cells.

1406

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0704:Cause of secretory diarrhea in cholera infection.

1407

Microbiology Flash Facts

AB exotoxin activates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - increases cAMP.

1408

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0705:Exotoxin that binds gangliosides.

1409

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetanus toxin - blocks inhibitory neurotransmitter release and causes spastic paralysis.

1410

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0706:Mechanism of pseudomembrane formation in corynebacterium diphtheria infection.

1411

Microbiology Flash Facts

AB exotoxin inactivates EF-2 and inhibits protein synthesis causes cell death.

1412

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0707:Type of toxin produced by S. aureus or S. pyogenes and mechanism of action.

1413

Microbiology Flash Facts

Superantigens - bind to T-cell receptor and MHC II of another cell simultaneously and cause massive non-specific release of interleukins.

1414

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0708:effects of endotoxin.

1415

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Binds to CD14 (TLR4) on macrophages; B cells and others to stimulate acute phase cytokine release (IL1; TNFa; IL6; PGs);2. activates alternative complement pathway - fever; hypotension; shock;3. Activation of blood coagulation pathways - DIC.

1416

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0709:Portion of LPS responsible for activity.

1417

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lipid A.

1418

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0710:Organism causing double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.

1419

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens. Alpha toxin is a lecithinase that causes gas gangrene.

1420

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0711:Mechanism of B. Pertussis toxin.

1421

Microbiology Flash Facts

Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation.

1422

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0712:Gram negative aerobic organism producing a heat-labile toxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause watery diarrhea.

1423

Microbiology Flash Facts

E. coli.

1424

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0713:Gram negative facultative anaerobe producing a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause a watery diarrhea.

1425

Microbiology Flash Facts

V. cholerae.

1426

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0714:Protein that allows certain species of bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces.

1427

Microbiology Flash Facts

IgA protease.

1428

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0715:Catalase

1429

Microbiology Flash Facts

An enzyme that catabolizes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas.

1430

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0716:Catalase positive organisms

1431

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococci.

1432

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0717:Catalase negative organisms.

1433

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococci; enterococci.

1434

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0718:The only human bacterial species that produces coagulase.

1435

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph aureus.

1436

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0719:Coagulase action.

1437

Microbiology Flash Facts

Binds a serum factor - converts fibrinogen to fibrin to form clot. Produced by S. aureus.

1438

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0720:Function of protein A.

1439

Microbiology Flash Facts

Binds Fc receptor of IgG and prevents Ab-mediated immune clearance. Extracellular protein A can produce immune complexes. Produced by S. aureus.

1440

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0721:Lancet-shaped gram positive diplococci.

1441

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumococcus.

1442

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0722:Quellung reaction.

1443

Microbiology Flash Facts

Used for detection of pneumococcus. Polyvalent anticapsular antibodies are mixed with the bacteria; and then the mixture is examined microscopically. A greater refractiveness around the bacteria is a positive reaction for S. pneumoniae.

1444

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0723:Use of optochin.

1445

Microbiology Flash Facts

Differentiation of S. pneumoniae from viridans strep. Viridans and enterococci are optochin resistant.

1446

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0724:Differentiation of S. pneumoniae from other alphahemolytic strep.

1447

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bile solubility - S. pneumoniae lyse in bile; while others do not. Also: pneumococci are sensitive to optochin; where others are not.

1448

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0725:Differentiation of Group A beta-hemolytic strep from Group B.

1449

Microbiology Flash Facts

Group A is bacitracin sensitive; Group B is resisitant.

1450

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0726:Gamma hemolytic (no hemolysis) strep species.

1451

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococcus and peptostreptococcus.

1452

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0727:Gram positive rods.

1453

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium; Corynebacterium; Listeria; Bacillus.

1454

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0728:Coagulase negative staph.

1455

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. epidermidis; S. saprophyticus (nobobiocin resistant).

1456

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0729:Gram negative cocci.

1457

Microbiology Flash Facts

N. meningitidis (Maltose fermenter); N. gonorrhea.

1458

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0730:Gram negative coccobacilli.

1459

Microbiology Flash Facts

H. influenzae; Pasteurella; Brucella; Bordetella.

1460

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0731:Gram negative; lactose-fermenting rods.

1461

Microbiology Flash Facts

E. coli; Klebsiella.

1462

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0732:Gram negative Non-lactose fermenting; oxidase negative rods.

1463

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shigella; Salmonella; Proteus.

1464

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0733:Gram negative; Non-lactose fermenting; oxidase positive rods.

1465

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas.

1466

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0734:Obligate intracellular organisms.

1467

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia and Chlamydia can't make their own ATP.

1468

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0735:Facultative intracellular organisms.

1469

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacteria; Listeria; Yersinia; Legionella; Salmonella.

1470

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0736:Organism requiring chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin).

1471

Microbiology Flash Facts

H. influenzae.

1472

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0737:Organism requiring Thayer-Martin (VCN) medium.

1473

Microbiology Flash Facts

N. gonorrheae.

1474

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0738:Organism requiring Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

1475

Microbiology Flash Facts

B. pertussis.

1476

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0739:Organism requiring Lowenstein-Jensen agar.

1477

Microbiology Flash Facts

M. tuberculosis.

1478

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0740:Organism requiring charcoal yeast extract agar with increased iron and cysteine.

1479

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophila.

1480

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0741:Organisms producing pink colonies on MacConkey's agar.

1481

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lactose-fermenting enterics - Escherichia; Klebsiella; Enterobacter.

1482

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0742:Organisms requiring Tellurite plate; Loffler's medium; blood agar.

1483

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. diphtheriae.

1484

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0743:Organisms requiring Sabouraud's agar.

1485

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fungi.

1486

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0744:Obligate aerobes.

1487

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Mycobacterium TB; Bacillus.

1488

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0745:Organisms stained with Giemsa.

1489

Microbiology Flash Facts

Stains blood parasites; viral and chlamydial inclusion bodies; intracellular organisms. Borrelia; Plasmodium; trypansosomes; Chlamydia; yeast.

1490

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0746:Acid fast stains

1491

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ziehl-Neelsen; Kinyoun; auramine-rhodamine. All stain for mycobacteria and other acid-fast organisms.

1492

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0747:PAS stain

1493

Microbiology Flash Facts

Stains glycogen; mucopolysaccharides - used to dx whipple's dz.

1494

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0748:India ink.

1495

Microbiology Flash Facts

Detects cryptococcus neoformans.

1496

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0749:Iron hematoxylin stain.

1497

Microbiology Flash Facts

Used to detect fecal protozoa.

1498

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0750:Toluidine blue O stain.

1499

Microbiology Flash Facts

Detects Pneumocystis organisms in sputum.

1500

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0751:Trichrome stain.

1501

Microbiology Flash Facts

Detects protozoa.

1502

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0752:In order to be a spore-former; an organism must be a:

1503

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive rod. (examples: bacillus anthracis; clostridium)

1504

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0753:Mechanism of action of Quinolones.

1505

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prevent supercoiling of DNA.

1506

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0754:Cellular target of aminoglycosides and tetracyclines.

1507

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ribosomal 30s subunit.

1508

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0755:Portion of LPS giving specificity.

1509

Microbiology Flash Facts

O-specific chain - repeating sugars. Highly variable; highly antigenic.

1510

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0756:Antibiotics affecting the ribosomal 50s subunit.

1511

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chloramphenicol; Macrolides (erythromycin; clarithromycin; azithromycin); Lincosamines (Lincomycin; clindamycin).

1512

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0757:Antibiotics affecting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

1513

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillins; cephalosporins; Bacitracin; vancomycin; Dcycloserine.

1514

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0758:Antibiotics that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.

1515

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides; quinolones.

1516

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0759:Food poisoning from reheated rice.

1517

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus cereus.

1518

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0760:Food poisoning from meat; mayo; or custard.

1519

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph aureus.

1520

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0761:Food poisoning from reheated meat dishes.

1521

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens.

1522

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0762:Food poisoning from undercooked beef.

1523

Microbiology Flash Facts

E. coli.

1524

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0763:Food poisoning from poultry; meat; eggs.

1525

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella.

1526

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0764:Food poisoning from contaminated seafood.

1527

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio parahemolyticus.

1528

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0765:Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patient.

1529

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia asteroides.

1530

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0766:Dental caries.

1531

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep mutans (viridans).

1532

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0767:Acute bacterial endocarditis.

1533

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph aureus.

1534

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0768:Food poisoning within a few hours of eating; resolves in 10 hours.

1535

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. aureus preformed toxin.

1536

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0769:Rheumatic fever.

1537

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pyogenes.

1538

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0770:Diarrhea after Clindamycin use.

1539

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. difficile.

1540

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0771:Woolsorter's Disease.

1541

Microbiology Flash Facts

Inhalation anthrax.

1542

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0772:Diarrhea after playing with puppy.

1543

Microbiology Flash Facts

Y. enterocolitica.

1544

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0773:Diarrhea after eating seafood.

1545

Microbiology Flash Facts

V. parahemolyticus.

1546

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0774:Diarrhea from comma shaped organism grown at 42 degrees.

1547

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter jejuni.

1548

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0775:Diarrhea from tiny amount of non-motile; non-lactose fermenter.

1549

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shigella.

1550

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0776:Diarrhea from motile non-lactose fermenter.

1551

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella.

1552

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0777:Diarrhea from lactose fermenter.

1553

Microbiology Flash Facts

E. coli.

1554

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0778:Gram negative produsing epiglottitis; meningitis; otitis media; pneumonia. Culture on chocolate agar.

1555

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus influenzae.

1556

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0779:Poorly-staining gram negative rod grown on charcoal yeast with iron and cysteine.

1557

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella pneumophila.

1558

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0780:Gram negative aerobic organism producing otitis externa and burn/wound infections.

1559

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruguinosa.

1560

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0781:Coccobacillus causing vaginosis.

1561

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gardernella vaginalis.

1562

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0782:Gram negative diplococci which ferments maltose and has a capsule.

1563

Microbiology Flash Facts

N. meningitidis.

1564

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0783:Fever; night sweats; weight loss; hemoptysis.

1565

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium TB.

1566

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0784:Typical tx for rickettsiae.

1567

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline.

1568

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0785:Q fever (no rash)

1569

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coxiella burnettii.

1570

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0786:Outward spread of rash.

1571

Microbiology Flash Facts

R. typhi.

1572

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0787:Rash starts on palms and soles - inward spread of rash; headache; fever. Endemic to east coast.

1573

Microbiology Flash Facts

R. rickettsii - rocky mountain spotted fever. (tick spread)

1574

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0788:Weil-Felix reaction.

1575

Microbiology Flash Facts

Assay for anti-rickettsial Ab. Positive for typhus and spotted fever; negative for Q fever.

1576

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0789:Insidious onset pneumonia with headache; nonproductive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate. High titer cold agglutinins.

1577

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Only bacterial membrane containing cholesterol.

1578

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0790:Cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa or flourescent abstained smear.

1579

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydiae. Cell wall lacks muramic acid.

1580

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0791:"Bull's eye" rash; flu-like sx; progessing to neurologic and cardiac manifestations; then to autoimmune migratory polyarthritis.

1581

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lyme disease.

1582

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0792:Painless chancre - disseminated dz with maculopapular rash; condylomata lata - aortitis; neurosyphilis; argyll robertson pupil.

1583

Microbiology Flash Facts

Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

1584

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0793:FTA-ABS test.

1585

Microbiology Flash Facts

specific for treponemes - positive earlier in dz; remains positive longer than VDRL.

1586

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0794:Lung abscess in immunocompromised.

1587

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia asteroides.

1588

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0795:alpha-hemolytic strep that lyses in bile.

1589

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. pneumoniae.

1590

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0796:Coagulase negative staph that is resistant to novobiocin.

1591

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. sparophyticus.

1592

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0797:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Peptidoglycan

1593

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function;1. Rigid support;2. Protects against osmotic pressure;Chemical composition;Sugar backbone with crosslinked peptide side chains

1594

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0798:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Cell wall/cell membrane

1595

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positives only;Function: Major surface antigen;Chemical composition: Teichoic acid; which induces TNF and IL-1

1596

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0799:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Outer membrane

1597

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negatives only;Function: Site of endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) and major surface antigen;Chemical composition: Lipid A induces TNF and IL-1; and polysaccharide is the antigen

1598

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0800:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasma membrane

1599

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes;Chemical composition: Lipoprotein bilayer

1600

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0801:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Ribosome

1601

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Protein synthesis;Chemical composition: 50S and 30S subunits

1602

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0802:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Periplasm

1603

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria;Chemical composition: Contains many hydrolytic enzymes; including beta-lactamases

1604

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0803:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Capsule

1605

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Protects against phagocytosis;Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate)

1606

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0804:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Pilus/fimbria

1607

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Mediates adherence of bacteria to cell surface; sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation;Chemical composition: Glycoprotein

1608

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0805:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Flagellum

1609

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Motility;Chemical composition: Protein

1610

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0806:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Spore

1611

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Provides resistance to dehydration; heat; and chemicals;Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid

1612

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0807:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasmid

1613

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance; enzymes; and toxins;Chemical composition: DNA

1614

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0808:Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Glycocalyx

1615

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces; especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters);Chemical composition: Polysaccharide

1616

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0809:Function of this structure: IgA proteases

1617

Microbiology Flash Facts

Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces

1618

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0810:Which bacteria have IgA proteases?

1619

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Neisseria meningitidis;3. Neisseria gonorrheae;4. Hemophilus influenzae

1620

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0811:Which bacterial substances induce cytokines; and which are they?

1621

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cytokines induced;1. IL-1;2. TNF;Gram positive inducer: Teichoic acid;Gram negative inducer: Lipopolysaccharide (Endoxtoxin)

1622

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0812:What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of?

1623

Microbiology Flash Facts

D-glutamate

1624

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0813:What bacterial structure contains D-glutamate?

1625

Microbiology Flash Facts

Capsule of Bacillus anthracis

1626

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0814:What are the main differences between gram negative and gram positive organisms?

1627

Microbiology Flash Facts

Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram positive has thick. Gram negative has thin;Flagellar basal body rings: Gram positive has two. Gram negative has four;Outer antigen: Gram positive: Teichoic acid. Gram negative: Lipidpolysaccharide;Periplasmic space: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has;Porin channel: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has;Lysozyme and penicillin attack: Gram positive are sensitive. Gram negative are resistant.
1628

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0815:What bacteria do not gram stain well?

1629

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color;1. Treponema;2. Rickettsia;3. Mycobacteria;4. Mycoplasma;5. Legionella pneumophila;6. Chlamydia

1630

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0816:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema

1631

Microbiology Flash Facts

Too thin to be visualized

1632

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0817:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia

1633

Microbiology Flash Facts

Intracellular parasite

1634

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0818:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria

1635

Microbiology Flash Facts

high-lipid-content cell wall

1636

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0819:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma

1637

Microbiology Flash Facts

No cell wall

1638

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0820:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila

1639

Microbiology Flash Facts

Primarily intracellular

1640

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0821:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia

1641

Microbiology Flash Facts

Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall

1642

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0822:How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema

1643

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Darkfield microscopy;2. Fluorescent antibody staining;3. silver stain

1644

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0823:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria

1645

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid fast for high lipid content cell wall

1646

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0824:What are the stages of bacterial growth and what are their relative lengths?

1647

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Lag phase: x;2. Log phase: 1.5x;3. Stationary phase: 2.5x;4. Death phase: 4x

1648

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0825:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Lag

1649

Microbiology Flash Facts

1st phase: Metabolic activity without division

1650

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0826:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Log

1651

Microbiology Flash Facts

2nd phase: Rapid cell division

1652

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0827:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Stationary

1653

Microbiology Flash Facts

3rd phase: Nutrient depletion slows growth

1654

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0828:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Death

1655

Microbiology Flash Facts

4th phase: Prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products leads to death

1656

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0829:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Source?

1657

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Certain species of gram positive and gram negative bacteria;Endotoxin: Cell wall of most gram-negative bacteria

1658

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0830:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Secreted from cell?

1659

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Yes;Endotoxin: No

1660

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0831:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Chemistry

1661

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Polypeptide;Endotoxin: Lipopolysaccharide

1662

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0832:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Location of genes

1663

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Plasmid or bacteriophage;Endotoxin: Bacterial chromosome

1664

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0833:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Toxicity (fatal dosage)

1665

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: High (fatal dose on the order of 1 microgram);Endotoxin: Low (fatal dose on the order of hundreds of micrograms)

1666

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0834:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Clinical effects

1667

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Toxin specific;Endotoxin: Fever and shock

1668

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0835:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Mode of action

1669

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Toxin specific;Endotoxin: Includes TNF and IL-1

1670

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0836:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Antigenicity

1671

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins;Endotoxin: Poorly antigenic

1672

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0837:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Vaccines

1673

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Toxoids used as vaccines;Endotoxin: No toxoids formed and no vaccine available

1674

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0838:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Heat stability

1675

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Destroyed rapidly at 60 degrees celsius (except Staphylococcal enterotoxin);Endotoxin: Stable at 100 degrees celsius for 1 hour

1676

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0839:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Typical diseases

1677

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin: Tetanus; botulism; diphtheria;Endotoxin: Meningococcemia; sepsis by gram negative rods

1678

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0840:Mechanism of superantigens

1679

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor;2. Large numbers of T cells are activated;3. Stimulates release of IFNgamma and IL-2

1680

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0841:Mechanism of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins

1681

Microbiology Flash Facts

Interfere with host cell function;1. B (binding) component binds to a receptor on surface of host cell;2. The toxin is endocytosed;3. A (active) component attaches an ADPribosyl to a host cell protein;4. That protein's function is altered.

1682

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0842:List of bugs that release superantigens

1683

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus aureus;2. Streptococcus pyogenes

1684

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0843:List of bugs that release ADP ribosylating A-B toxins

1685

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae;2. Vibrio cholerae;3. E. coli;4. Bordetella pertussis

1686

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0844:What to know about exotoxins released by Staphylococcus aureus

1687

Microbiology Flash Facts

Superantigens;1. TSST-1 causes toxic shock syndrome (fever; rash; shock);2. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning.

1688

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0845:What to know about exotoxins released by Streptococcus pyogenes

1689

Microbiology Flash Facts

Scarlet fever (superantigen);1. Erythrogenic;2. Causes toxic shock-like syndrome;Streptolysin O (hemolysin). The antigen for ASO antibody is found in rheumatic fever

1690

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0846:What to know about exotoxins released by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

1691

Microbiology Flash Facts

ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Pseudomonas exotoxin A);Encoded by beta-prophage;Disease: Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy;Mechanism;Inactivates elongation ;factor 2 (EF-2);Mnemonic: ABCDEFG;ADP ribosylation;Betaprophage;Corynebacterium;Diphtheriae;Elongation Factor 2;Granules (metachromatic)
1692

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0847:What to know about exotoxins released by Vibrio cholerae

1693

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. A-B toxin ADP ribosylates Gs protein thus;2. Permanently activates Gs protein;3. Constant stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which;4. Increases pumping of Cl into gut;5. H2O follows it;6. Leads to rice water diarrhea

1694

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0848:What to know about exotoxins released by E. coli

1695

Microbiology Flash Facts

E.coli 0157:H7 produces Shiga toxin;ADP ribosylating A-B toxins;Heat-labile: Permanent activation of adenylyl cyclase (cholera-like mechanism) leading to watery diarrhea;Heatstabile: Stimulates guanylate cyclase;Mnemonic: Labile like the Air; Stabile like the Ground.

1696

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0849:What to know about exotoxins released by Bordetella pertussis

1697

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. ADP ribosylating A-B toxin;2. Permanently disables Gi;3. Constant stimulation of adenylate cyclase;4. Causes whooping cough;5. Also inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis

1698

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0850:What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium perfringens

1699

Microbiology Flash Facts

alpha toxin (aka lecithinase) causes;1. gas gangrene;2. myonecrosis;3. hemolysis (See double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.);PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg.

1700

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0851:What to know about exotoxin released by Clostridium botulinum

1701

Microbiology Flash Facts

Properties;1. Preformed;2. Heat-labile;Mechanism;Blocks the release of acetylcholine causing;1. anticholinergic symptoms ;2. CNS paralysis (especially cranial nerves);3. Floppy baby syndrome;BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage (causes flaccid paralysis)

1702

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0852:What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani

1703

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes "lockjaw"

1704

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0853:What to know about exotoxins released by Bacillus anthracis

1705

Microbiology Flash Facts

1 toxin in the toxin complex is edema factor; an adenylate cyclase

1706

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0854:What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella

1707

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7);Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome.

1708

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0855:Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found?

1709

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gramnegative bacteria. Heat stable.

1710

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0856:Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they release?

1711

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Macrophages (IL-1; TNF; Nitric oxide);2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a; C5a);3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade)

1712

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0857:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages; and what do they do?

1713

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. IL-1: Fever;2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis;3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock)

1714

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0858:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade; and what do they do?

1715

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. C3a: Hypotension and edema;2. C5a: Neutrophil chemotaxis

1716

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0859:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor; and what do they do?

1717

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

1718

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0860:What method is used to differentiate Neisseria?

1719

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sugar fermentation

1720

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0861:What do meningococci ferment?

1721

Microbiology Flash Facts

MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose

1722

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0862:What do gonococci ferment?

1723

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gonococci ferments Glucose

1724

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0863:What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce?

1725

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment (Aureus means gold in Latin);Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment;Serratia marcescens: red pigment (think red maraschino cherries)

1726

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0864:Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus influenzae

1727

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin);Mnemonic: When a child has "flu" mom goes to five (V) and dime (X) to buy some chocolate.

1728

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0865:Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

1729

Microbiology Flash Facts

Thayer-Martin media

1730

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0866:Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis

1731

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

1732

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0867:Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis

1733

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

1734

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0868:Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

1735

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar

1736

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0869:Special culture requirements for: Legionella

1737

Microbiology Flash Facts

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine

1738

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0870:Special culture requirements for: Fungi

1739

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sabouraud's agar

1740

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0871:What microbes can be stained with: Congo red

1741

Microbiology Flash Facts

Amyloid. Apple-green birefringence in polarized light (because of beta-pleated sheets)

1742

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0872:What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's

1743

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Borrelia;2. Plasmodium;3. Trypanosomes;4. Chlamydia

1744

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0873:What microbes can be stained with: periodic acidSchiff (PAS)

1745

Microbiology Flash Facts

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose Whipple's disease

1746

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0874:What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen

1747

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid-fast bacteria.

1748

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0875:What microbes can be stained with: India ink

1749

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptococcus neoformans

1750

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0876:What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain

1751

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Fungi;2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia);3. Legionella;4. Treponema

1752

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0877:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Conjugation

1753

Microbiology Flash Facts

Direct cell to cell DNA transfer

1754

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0878:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Transduction

1755

Microbiology Flash Facts

Phage-mediated cell to cell DNA transfer

1756

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0879:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Transformation

1757

Microbiology Flash Facts

Purified DNA taken up by a cell

1758

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0880:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the processd: Transposition

1759

Microbiology Flash Facts

DNA transfer to same or another chromosome or plasmid WITHIN a cell

1760

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0881:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Conjugation

1761

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prokaryotic

1762

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0882:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transduction

1763

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prokaryotic

1764

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0883:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transformation

1765

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

1766

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0884:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transposition

1767

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

1768

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0885:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Conjugation

1769

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chromosomal or plasmid

1770

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0886:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transduction

1771

Microbiology Flash Facts

Generalized transduction: Any gene;Specialized transduction: Only certain genes

1772

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0887:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transformation

1773

Microbiology Flash Facts

Any DNA

1774

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0888:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transposition

1775

Microbiology Flash Facts

DNA sequences "jumping genes"

1776

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0889:What is lysogeny?

1777

Microbiology Flash Facts

When the genetic code for a bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage.

1778

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0890:Name 4 lysogenic toxins.

1779

Microbiology Flash Facts

BCDE;1. Botulinum;2. Cholera;3. Diphtheria;4. Erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes

1780

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0891:List four obligate aerobes.

1781

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nocardia; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Mycobacterium tuberculosis; Bacillus;Mnemonic: Nagging Pests Must Breathe

1782

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0892:Where in the lung does M. tuberculosis prefer; and why?

1783

Microbiology Flash Facts

Apices of the lung; as they have the highest PO2.

1784

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0893:What conditions occur concurrently with P. Aeruginosa infection?

1785

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Burn wounds;2. Nosocomial pneumonia;3. Pneumonias in Cystic Fibrosis patients

1786

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0894:List 3 obligate anaerobes

1787

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium; Bacteroides; and Actinomyces

1788

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0895:What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?

1789

Microbiology Flash Facts

Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase);AND/OR;Superoxide dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2)

1790

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0896:Why are anaerobes foul-smelling?

1791

Microbiology Flash Facts

They produce short-chain fatty acids.

1792

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0897:What do anaerobes produce in tissue?

1793

Microbiology Flash Facts

CO2 and H2 gases

1794

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0898:Where are anaerobes normal flora?

1795

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. GI tract;2. Between teeth and gums

1796

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0899:What antibiotics are particularly ineffective against anaerobes?

1797

Microbiology Flash Facts

AminO2glycosides; as they require O2 to enter the bacterial cell.

1798

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0900:List the obligate intracellular bacteria.

1799

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia and Chlamydia;Mnemonic: Stay inside (cells) when it is Really Cold

1800

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0901:What is the defining characteristic of obligate intracellular bacteria.

1801

Microbiology Flash Facts

Can't make their own ATP.

1802

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0902:List the facultative intracellular bacteria.

1803

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY;Salmonella; Neisseria; Brucella; Mycobacterium; Listeria; Francisella; Legionella; Yersinia;OR;Mnemonic: My Liege; Your Niece Lists Frank; Bruce and Sam;Mycobacterium; Leigonella; Yersinia; Neisseria; Listeria; Francisella; Brucella; Salmonella.
1804

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0903:List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria

1805

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype);3. Neisseria meningitidis;4. Klebsiella pneumoniae

1806

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0904:What does a positive quellung reaction indicate?

1807

Microbiology Flash Facts

Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present; capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added;Mnemonic: Quellung = capsular "swellung"

1808

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0905:In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an antigen?

1809

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumovax; H influenzae B; Meningococcal vaccines

1810

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0906:What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen?

1811

Microbiology Flash Facts

Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce.

1812

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0907:Which bacteria form spores?

1813

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis; Clostridium perfringens; Clostridium tetani)

1814

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0908:How can one destroy spores?

1815

Microbiology Flash Facts

Autoclave (as is done to surgical equipment)

1816

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0909:Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic?

1817

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus (all catalase-negative);If optochin sensitive; bile soluble; or quellung positive: Streptococcus Pneumoniae;If optochin resistant; bile insoluble; or quellung negative: Streptococcus Viridans (eg S. Mutans)

1818

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0910:Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?

1819

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rods;Listeria monocytogenes;Cocci;If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus;If catalase negative; Streptococcus;Then; if bacitracin sensitive; S. pyogenes. If bacitracin resistant; S. agalactiae.

1820

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0911:What are the important points about Listeria monocytogenes?

1821

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Tumbling motility;2. Meningitis in newborns;3. Unpasteurized milk

1822

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0912:Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which are catalase negative?

1823

Microbiology Flash Facts

Positive: Staph;Negative: Strep

1824

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0913:Gram positive: Which are catalase positive bacteria make coagulase?

1825

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph aureus does;Staph epidermidis and saprophyticus do not.

1826

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0914:What is Protein A?

1827

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virulence factor of Staphylococcus Aureus. Binds Fc-IgG; inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis.

1828

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0915:What disease states does Staphylococcus Aureus cause?

1829

Microbiology Flash Facts

Inflammatory;1. Skin infections;2. Organ abscesses (acute bacterial endocarditis; osteomyelitis);3. Pneumonia;Toxinmediated;1. Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1);2. Scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin);3. Rapid-onset food poisoning (ingestion of preformed enterotoxin)

1830

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0916:What disease states does Streptococcus Pyogenes cause?

1831

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pyogenic;1. Pharyngitis;2. Cellulitis;3. Impetigo;Toxigenic;1. Scarlet fever;2. Toxic shock syndrome;Immunologic;1. Rheumatic fever;2. Acute glomerulonephritis

1832

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0917:What are two sequelae of Streptococcus Pyogenes pharyngitis?

1833

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis;Mnemonoic: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic PHever and glomerulonePHritis

1834

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0918:Which antibody enhances host defenses against Streptococcus Pyogenes?

1835

Microbiology Flash Facts

Antibody to M protein

1836

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0919:Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against what?

1837

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus Pyogenes

1838

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0920:What does ASO titer detect?

1839

Microbiology Flash Facts

Recent S. Pyogenes infection

1840

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0921:How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection?

1841

Microbiology Flash Facts

ASO titer

1842

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0922:What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever?

1843

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Subcutaneous nodules;2. Polyarthritis;3. Erythema marginatum;4. Chorea;5. Carditis (bacterial endocarditis);Mnemonic: No "rheum" for SPECCulation

1844

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0923:What is streptococcus pneumoniae the most common cause of?

1845

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Meningitis;2. Otitis media (in children);3. Pneumonia;4. Sinusitis;S. pneumoniae MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive

1846

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0924:What is the most common cause of meningitis?

1847

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

1848

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0925:What is the most common cause of otitis media?

1849

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

1850

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0926:What is the most common cause of pneumonia?

1851

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

1852

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0927:What is the most common cause of sinusitis?

1853

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

1854

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0928:What is indicated by "rusty" sputum?

1855

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae infection

1856

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0929:What are common associations with Pneumococcus?

1857

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus Pneumoniae;1. "Rusty" sputum;2. Sepsis in sickle cell anemia 3. splenectomy

1858

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0930:What does sepsin in sickle cell anemia indicate?

1859

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococcus pneumoniae

1860

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0931:What do Group B streptococci cause?

1861

Microbiology Flash Facts

B for Baby;1. Pneumonia;2. Meningitis;3. Sepsis

1862

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0932:3 most common causes of meningitis in infants younger than 3 months of age

1863

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. E. coli;2. Listeria monocytogenes;3. Group B streptococcus

1864

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0933:How do infants with meningitis present?

1865

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Fever;2. Vomiting;3. Poor feeding;4. Irritability

1866

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0934:Name the Lancefield Group D bacterial categories and examples of each.

1867

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococci;1. Enterococcus faecalis;2. Enterococcus faecium;Non-enterococci;1. Streptococcus bovis;2. Streptococcus equinus

1868

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0935:What is Streptococcus bovis infection a sign of?

1869

Microbiology Flash Facts

Colonic malignancy

1870

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0936:What kind of hemolysis do enterococci cause?

1871

Microbiology Flash Facts

Variable;(CMMRS says alpha; FA says variable and gamma)

1872

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0937:What drug resistances do the enterococci show?

1873

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Penicillin G;2. Ampicillin;3. Vancomycin

1874

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0938:What is Lancefield grouping determined by?

1875

Microbiology Flash Facts

Differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall

1876

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0939:Which Group D bacteria are hardier?

1877

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in 6.5% NaCl

1878

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0940:A colony of bacteria grows in 6.5% NaCl. What is it?

1879

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterococcus

1880

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0941:What disease states/problems does Staphylococcus epidermidis cause?

1881

Microbiology Flash Facts

Infection of prosthetic devices and catheters. Contaminates blood cultures.

1882

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0942:How is Streptococcus Viridans characterized?

1883

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Alpha hemolysis;2. Optochin resistant ;3. Normal mouth flora;(Mnemonic: Viridans lives in the mouth because it is not afraid of-the-chin)

1884

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0943:Where is Strep. Viridans part of the normal flora?

1885

Microbiology Flash Facts

Oropharynx

1886

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0944:What disease states/problems does Streptococcus Viridans cause?

1887

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Dental caries (Streptococcus mutans);2. Subacute Bacterial endocarditis (Streptococcus Sanguis)

1888

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0945:What disease states does Streptococcus mutans cause?

1889

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dental caries

1890

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0946:What disease states does Streptococcus sanguis cause?

1891

Microbiology Flash Facts

Subacute bacterial endocarditis;Sanguis = blood; lots of blood in the heart.

1892

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0947:How are clostridia characterized?

1893

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gram positive rods;2. Spore forming;3. Obligate anaerobes

1894

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0948:What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause; and what is its mechanism?

1895

Microbiology Flash Facts

Disease state: pseudomembranous colitis secondary to clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes DIarrhea);Mechanism;1. Antibiotic kills off protective flora;2. C. difficile takes hold and proliferates;3. Produces cytotoxin; an enterotoxin;4. Cytotoxin kills enterocytes.

1896

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0949:Treatment for C. difficile infection

1897

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

1898

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0950:Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

1899

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules; grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)

1900

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0951:How is Bacillus anthracis characterized?

1901

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gram positive rod;2. Spore forming;3. Protein capsule

1902

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0952:Which bacteria have a protein capsule?

1903

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus anthracis (the only one)

1904

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0953:What are the mechanisms of anthrax infection and disease?

1905

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis;2. Formation of malignant pustule (painless ulcer);3. Progression to bacteremia;4. Death;1. Inhalation of spores;2. Development of flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever; pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.

1906

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0954:What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever; pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.

1907

Microbiology Flash Facts

Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis

1908

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0955:What do skin lesions in anthrax look like?

1909

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vesicular papules covered by black eschar

1910

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0956:What is Woolsorter's disease

1911

Microbiology Flash Facts

Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores from contaminated wool

1912

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0957:What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi

1913

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides

1914

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0958:What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts

1915

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii

1916

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0959:What disease state does Actinomyces israelii cause?

1917

Microbiology Flash Facts

Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin through sinus tracts

1918

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0960:How is Actinomyces israelii characterised?

1919

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this description);Causes oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules

1920

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0961:How is Nocardia asteroides characterized?

1921

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description)

1922

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0962:What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause?

1923

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients

1924

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0963:What is the treatment for Actinomyces israelii?

1925

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin;Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia; Acintomyces use Penicillin)

1926

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0964:What is the treatment for Nocardia Asteroides?

1927

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides;Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia; Acintomyces use Penicillin)

1928

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0965:Penicillin G and Gram negative bugs

1929

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-negatives are resistant to benzyl penicillin G. The gramnegative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin;May be susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin.

1930

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0966:What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils?

1931

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria

1932

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0967:How are neisseria characterized?

1933

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired coffee beans

1934

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0968:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Polysaccharide capsule

1935

Microbiology Flash Facts

G: No;M: Yes

1936

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0969:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Maltose fermentation

1937

Microbiology Flash Facts

G: No (Gonococcus ferments Glucose);M: Yes (MeninGococcus ferments Maltose and Glucose)

1938

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0970:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Vaccine availability

1939

Microbiology Flash Facts

G: No;M: Yes

1940

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0971:What disease states does Gonococcus cause?

1941

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gonorrhea;2. septic arthritis;3. neonatal conjunctivitis;4. PID

1942

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0972:What disease states does Meningococcus cause?

1943

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Meningococcemia;2. Meningitis;3. WaterhouseFriderichsen syndrome

1944

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0973:What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

1945

Microbiology Flash Facts

massive; usually bilateral; hemorrhage into the adrenal glands caused by fulminant meningococcemia;Characterised by overwhelming bacterial infection; rapidly progressive hypotension leading to shock; disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) with widespread purpura; particularly of the skin; and rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency associated with massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
1946

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0974:What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae cause?

1947

Microbiology Flash Facts

HaEMOPhilus causes;1. Epiglottitis;2. Meningitis;3. Otitis media;4. Pneumonia;Does not cause flu (that's a virus)!

1948

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0975:How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized?

1949

Microbiology Flash Facts

Small gram-negative coccoid rod.

1950

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0976:How is Haemophilus Influenzae transmitted?

1951

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aerosol

1952

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0977:Which type of Haemophilus Influenzae is most pathogenic?

1953

Microbiology Flash Facts

capsular type B

1954

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0978:Treatment for Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis

1955

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ceftriaxone

1956

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0979:Prophylaxis for Hemophilus Influenzae

1957

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vaccine: Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. Given between 2 and 18 months of age;Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin

1958

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0980:How are enterobacteriaceae characterized?

1959

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative diverse group;Mnemonic: COFFEe;3. Capsule (K [kapsular] antigen related to virulence of the bug);2. O antigen (somatic antigen which is the polysaccharide of endotoxin);4. Flagella (H antigen found in motile species);5. Ferment glucose;6. Enterobacteriaceae (woo!)

1960

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0981:Enterobacteriaceae list

1961

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Escherichia coli;2. Klebsiella pneumoniae;3. Proteus mirablis;4. Enterobacter sp;5. Serratia;6. Shigella;7. Salmonella;8. Yersinia enterocolitica

1962

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0982:What disease states does Klebsiella cause?

1963

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae);2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies);Mnemonic: AAA (Aspiration pneumonia; Abscess in lungs; Alcoholics)

1964

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0983:Signs and symptoms of Klebsiella infection

1965

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Red currant jelly sputum;2. Abscess in lungs

1966

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0984:Orange sputum: What bugs?

1967

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Pneumococcus;2. Klebsiella (or described as "red currant jelly sputum")

1968

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0985:Red currant jelly sputum: What bug?

1969

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella

1970

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0986:Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

1971

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Test lactose with MacConKEES;1. Citrobacter;2. Klebsiella;3. E. coli;4. Enterobacter;5. Serratia

1972

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0987:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Lactose fermenter?

1973

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neither

1974

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0988:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile

1975

Microbiology Flash Facts

Both (Though; the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.);Can invade and disseminate hematogenously.

1976

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0989:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Animal reservoir

1977

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella: Yes;Shigella: No

1978

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0990:Shigella transmission

1979

Microbiology Flash Facts

4 Fs;1. Food;2. Fingers;3. Feces;4. Flies

1980

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0991:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Virulence

1981

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella: 100;000 organisms;Shigella: 10 organisms

1982

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0992:True or False: Salmonellosis symptoms may be prolonged with antibiotic treatments

1983

Microbiology Flash Facts

True

1984

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0993:What type of inflammatory response is seen in Salmonellosis?

1985

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monocytes

1986

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0994:Transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica

1987

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Pet feces (eg puppies);2. Contaminated milk or pork

1988

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0995:Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation

1989

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers;2. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis

1990

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0996:What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood

1991

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio;1. parahaemolyticus;2. vulnificus

1992

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0997:What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated rice

1993

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus cereus;Mnem: "Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!"

1994

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0998:What bug causes contamination of this food: Meat

1995

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly);2. Salmonella (including poultry);3. Clostridium perfringens (reheated meat dishes);4. Vibrio (parahaemolyticus; vulnificus) (in seafood);5. E. coli O157:H7 (undercooked meat);6. Clostridium Botulinum (in sausage)

1996

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q0999:What bug causes contamination of this food: Mayonnaise

1997

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)

1998

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1000:What bug causes contamination of this food: Custard

1999

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)

2000

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1001:What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated meat

2001

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens;Mnem: "Food poisoning from reheated meat? Clostridium perfringens!"

2002

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1002:What bug causes contamination of this food: Bulging cans

2003

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)

2004

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1003:What bug causes contamination of this food: Sausage

2005

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)

2006

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1004:What bug causes contamination of this food: Honey

2007

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)

2008

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1005:What bug causes contamination of this food: Poultry

2009

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella

2010

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1006:What bug causes contamination of this food: Eggs

2011

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella

2012

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1007:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus

2013

Microbiology Flash Facts

Either bloody or watery

2014

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1008:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter

2015

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2016

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1009:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella

2017

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2018

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1010:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Shigella

2019

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2020

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1011:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

2021

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2022

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1012:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enteroinvasive E. coli

2023

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2024

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1013:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica

2025

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2026

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1014:Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile

2027

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2028

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1015:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica

2029

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody

2030

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1016:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli

2031

Microbiology Flash Facts

Watery

2032

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1017:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio cholerae

2033

Microbiology Flash Facts

Watery

2034

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1018:Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens

2035

Microbiology Flash Facts

Watery

2036

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1019:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa

2037

Microbiology Flash Facts

Watery

2038

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1020:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Viruses

2039

Microbiology Flash Facts

Watery

2040

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1021:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius

2041

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter

2042

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1022:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile; lactose negative gram negative bugs

2043

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella or Shigella;Shigella have a very low ID50 and cause dysentery

2044

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1023:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and azotemia

2045

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7);Caused by shiga-like toxin

2046

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1024:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome

2047

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7);Caused by shiga-like toxin

2048

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1025:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa

2049

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enteroinvasive E. coli

2050

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1026:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of appendicitis

2051

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

2052

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1027:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center

2053

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia enterocolitica

2054

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1028:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pseudomembranous colitis

2055

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium dificile

2056

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1029:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with protozoans

2057

Microbiology Flash Facts

Entamoeba histolytica

2058

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1030:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just visited Mexico

2059

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin)

2060

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1031:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with comma-shaped organisms

2061

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

2062

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1032:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with appearance of rice water

2063

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vibrio cholerae

2064

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1033:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with gangrenous leg

2065

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium perfringens

2066

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1034:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised patient

2067

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium)

2068

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1035:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea

2069

Microbiology Flash Facts

Think viruses first;Rotavirus;Adenovirus;Norwalk virus

2070

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1036:Difference between mechanisms of cholera and pertussis toxins

2071

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on);Pertussis: Permanently disables Gi (turns the "off" off)

2072

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1037:What is edema factor?

2073

Microbiology Flash Facts

A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase

2074

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1038:Disease states caused by Legionella (list only)

2075

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Asymptomatic infection;2. Pontiac fever;3. Legionnaires disease

2076

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1039:Describe Pontiac fever

2077

Microbiology Flash Facts

Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes suddenly and completely resolves in one week. Originally described in the Pontiac Michigan government AC.

2078

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1040:Describe Legionnaires' disease

2079

Microbiology Flash Facts

Very high fever with severe pneumonia

2080

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1041:Treatment for Legionella

2081

Microbiology Flash Facts

Has a beta-lacatamase (penicillin-resistant);1. Erythromycin;2. Rifampin

2082

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1042:Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes.

2083

Microbiology Flash Facts

Legionella

2084

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1043:Special culture requirements for: Legionella

2085

Microbiology Flash Facts

Grows on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).

2086

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1044:Legionella: Gram stain

2087

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver stain);;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).

2088

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1045:Legionella: How transmitted?

2089

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC; Showers; whirlpools; cooling towers; supermarket produce mist);Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
2090

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1046:Pseudomonas: Disease states

2091

Microbiology Flash Facts

PSEUDDOburnnas;1. Pneumonia (especially in CF);2. Sepsis (black lesions on skin);3. External otitis (swimmer's ear);4. UTI (nosocomial and drug-resistant);5. Drug use;6. Diabetic Osteomyelitis;7. Burns and wound infections;8. Hot tub folliculitis

2092

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1047:Pseudomonas: Organism characterization

2093

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gram-negative rod;2. non-lactose fermenting;3. Aerobic (think AERuginosa) and oxidase positive (cytochrome c oxidase for oxidative phosphorylation);4. Produces pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment;5. Fruity odor

2094

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1048:What to know about exotoxins produced by: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

2095

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin A is an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Diphtheria toxin);Mechanism;Inactivates elongation;factor 2 (EF-2);Also has endotoxin (as it is gram negative) which produces fever and shock.

2096

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1049:Diagnosis: Sepsis in burn victim

2097

Microbiology Flash Facts

Most likely Pseudomonas

2098

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1050:Treatment for pseudomonas

2099

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aminoglycoside ;plus;Extended-spectrum penicillin (eg piperacillin; ticarcillin)

2100

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1051:Helicobacter pylori: Disease states

2101

Microbiology Flash Facts

Causes;1. Gastritis;2. 90% of duodenal ulcers;Risk factor for;1. Peptic ulcer;2. Gastric carcinoma

2102

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1052:Helicobacter pylori: Characterization

2103

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gram negative rod;2. Urease-positive;3. Creates alkaline environment

2104

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1053:Treatment for Helicobacter Pylori

2105

Microbiology Flash Facts

Triple treatment;1. Metronidazole with one of the two combos below;$;2. Bismuth (eg Pepto-Bismol);3. Either Tetracycline or Amoxicillin;$$;2. Omeprazole;3. Clarithromycin

2106

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1054:What bug?: Urease-positive gram-negative bacteria

2107

Microbiology Flash Facts

Proteus and H. Pylori

2108

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1055:Zoonotic bacteria

2109

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Borrelia burdorferi;2. Francisella tularensis;3. Yersinia pestis;4. Pasteurella multocida;5. Brucella spp. (Undulant fever from dairy/contact with animals);Mnemonic: Bugs From Your Pet Undulate and Unpasteurized dairy gives you Undulant fever

2110

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1056:Borrelia burgdorferi: Disease states

2111

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lyme disease

2112

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1057:Brucella: Disease states

2113

Microbiology Flash Facts

Undulant fever/Brucellosis. Temperature slowly rises during day; peaks in the evening; and slowly declines to normal by morning;Accompanied by other systemic symptoms.

2114

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1058:Brucella: Transmission

2115

Microbiology Flash Facts

from animal contact (meat worker; farmer; veterinarian) or unpasteurized milk

2116

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1059:Gross mechanism of brucellosis

2117

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Penetration of skin (but no buboes or primary skin ulcer); conjunctiva; lungs; GI tract;2. Lymphatic spread;3. Facultative intracellular growth in macrophages; and blood and organ invasion

2118

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1060:Francisella Tularensis: Disease states (list)

2119

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tularemia; either;1. Pneumonic;2. Oculoglandular;3. Ulceroglandular;4. Typhoidal;(Don't POUT when you've got tularemia.)

2120

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1061:Describe Ulceroglandular tularemia

2121

Microbiology Flash Facts

a. Well-demarcated hole in the skin with a black base;b. Fever and systemic symptoms;c. Swollen/red/painful purulent lymph nodes;Similar to plague; but with skin ulcer; and low mortality.

2122

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1062:Francisella tularensis: Transmission

2123

Microbiology Flash Facts

Most common: Handling of infected rabbits or from bites of ticks and deer flies;Hundred creatures in total all over US;Mnemonic: Francis the rabbit is playing in the TULips; with a deerfly on one ear and a tick on the other.

2124

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1063:Virulence of Francisella tularensis

2125

Microbiology Flash Facts

Very. (10 organisms cause disease.)

2126

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1064:Diagnosis of Francisella tularensis

2127

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clinical picture; PPD-like skin test; and titers of Francisella Ig

2128

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1065:Yersinia pestis: Transmission

2129

Microbiology Flash Facts

PESTS like rats harbor the disease and fleas are the vector; biting the skin of humans. Found in campers; hunters; and hikers;Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.

2130

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1066:Fraction 1 (F1) antigen

2131

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.

2132

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1067:V antigen

2133

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.

2134

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1068:W antigen

2135

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.

2136

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1069:Yersinia pestis: Presentation in humans

2137

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Lymph node (usually inguinal [boubon is Greek for groin]) becomes inflamed (all four signs);2. Fever; and headache;3. Blackish discoloration under skin ("Black death")

2138

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1070:Disease states caused by Yersinia pestis

2139

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bubonic plague/pneumonic plague

2140

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1071:Pasteurella Multocida: Transmission

2141

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cat; dog; and animal bites. Also infects birds;Mnemonic: Cat and dog chasing a bird in a "Pasteur".

2142

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1072:T/F: All Zoonotic Gram negative bugs are facultative intracellular.

2143

Microbiology Flash Facts

False. Pasteurella is not.

2144

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1073:Pasteurella: Treatment

2145

Microbiology Flash Facts

Do not suture wound after dog or cat bite/scratch. (Best breeding ground for Pasteurella);Treat with penicillin or doxycycline.

2146

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1074:Gardnerella: Characterization

2147

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pleomorphic; gram-variable rod.

2148

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1075:What disease states does Gardnernella cause?

2149

Microbiology Flash Facts

Vaginosis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell;2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen;4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff test

2150

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1076:What does a positive PPD indicate?

2151

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Current infection;2. Past exposure;3. BCG vaccination

2152

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1077:What does a negative PPD indicate?

2153

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. No infection;2. Anergy (due to: steroids; immunocompromise; malnutrition); inject candida/mumps vaccine into other arm. If still negative; anergic.

2154

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1078:Fast-fermenting lactose bacteria

2155

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fast fermenters: (EEK! Too fast!);1. E.coli;2. Enterobacter sp;3. Klebsiella

2156

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1079:Slow fermenting lactose bacteria

2157

Microbiology Flash Facts

Slow fermenters;1. Serratia;2. Citrobacter;3. "Others"

2158

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1080:Tuberculosis infection: Gross mechanism

2159

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Inhaled aerosols from infected adults;2. Land in middle or lower lobes of lung (highest airflow) leading to small area of pneumonitis;3. Bacteria enter macrophages; multiply; and spread hematogenously.

2160

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1081:Mechanism of asymptomatic primary TB

2161

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Cell-mediated defense walls off foci of bacteria in caseous granulomas;2. Granulomas heal with fibrosis; calcification and scar formation

2162

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1082:Difference between Ghon focus and Ghon complex

2163

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ghon focus: Calcified tubercle in the middle or lower lung;Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas

2164

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1083:What is a Ranke complex?

2165

Microbiology Flash Facts

Same as a Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas

2166

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1084:Mechanism of symptomatic primary TB

2167

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Large caseous granulomas develop in the lungs/other organs;2. In the lungs; caseous material liquifies; is extruded out the bronchi and leaves cavitary lesions behind.

2168

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1085:Mechanism of secondary Pulmonary TB

2169

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Infection occurs at apical areas of lung around the clavicles due to highest oxygen tension caused by decreased pulmonary circulation;2. Infected areas grow; caseate; liquify and cavitate.

2170

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1086:TB reactivation sites

2171

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Pulmonary (Lung parenchyma);2. Pleura;3. Pericardium;4. Scrofula (Cervical lymph nodes: most common extrapulmonary site worldwide);5. Kidney (Sterile pyuria);6. Thoracic and lumbar spine (Pott's disease);7. Chronic monoarthritis;8. CNS (subacute meningitis or parenchymal tuberculoma);9. Miliary TB (Millet sized tubercles all over the body)
2172

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1087:Tuberculosis rule of 5s

2173

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Droplet nuclei are 5 micrometers and contain 5 mycobacteria;2. 5% risk of reactivation in first 2 years and then 5% lifetime risk;3. Patients with HIV ("High five") have 5+5% yearly reactivation risk;4. Induration measurements;a. HIV: >5 mm;b. High risk: >5+5 mm;c. Everyone else: >5+5+5 mm
2174

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1088:Cause of Miliary tuberculosis

2175

Microbiology Flash Facts

Severe bacteremia

2176

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1089:Types of Mycobacteria and what they cause

2177

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Identifying mycobacteria is no Light TASK;Mycobacterium;1. Leprae;2. Tuberculosis;3. Aviumintracellulare;4. Scrofulaceum;5. Kansasii

2178

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1090:What disease state does Mycobacterium Aviumintracellulare cause?

2179

Microbiology Flash Facts

bugs are multiple drug resistant and cause disseminated disease in AIDS

2180

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1091:Symptoms of tuberculosis

2181

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Fever;2. Night sweats;3. Weight loss;4. Hemoptysis

2182

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1092:What is Hansen's disease?

2183

Microbiology Flash Facts

leprosy

2184

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1093:What is leprosy caused by?

2185

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

2186

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1094:Characterization and reservoir of Mycobacterium Leprae

2187

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Acid fast bacillus;2. Likes cool temperatures;3. Infects skin and superficial nerves;4. Cannot be grown invitro;5. Reservoir: Armadillos

2188

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1095:Presentation of lepromatous leprosy

2189

Microbiology Flash Facts

"Leonine facies";1. Loss of eyebrows;2. Nasal collapse;3. Lumpy earlobe

2190

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1096:Treatment for leprosy

2191

Microbiology Flash Facts

Long-term oral dapsone;Alternative: Rifampin; clofazimine; and dapsone

2192

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1097:Toxicity of longterm oral dapsone

2193

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Hemolysis;2. Methemoglobinemia

2194

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1098:2 forms of leprosy

2195

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Lepromatous (Due to failed cell-mediated immunity. Lep. is Lethal);2. Tuberculoid (self=limiting)

2196

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1099:Rickettsiae: Characterization

2197

Microbiology Flash Facts

Obligate intracellular parasites. Need CoA and NAD.

2198

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1100:Rickettsiae: Transmission and presentation

2199

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coxiella: Atypical. Transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia;All others: Arthropod vector causes classic triad of headache; fever and rash (vasculitis)

2200

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1101:Treatment of Rickettsiae

2201

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline

2202

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1102:Difference between spread of rash in typhus and spotted fever

2203

Microbiology Flash Facts

tyPHus is centriPHugal (moves outwards);sPotted fever is centriPetal (moves inwards);Both are caused by Rickettsiae

2204

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1103:Which bug causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

2205

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia rickettsii; transmitted by tick

2206

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1104:Which bug causes endemic typhus?

2207

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia typhi; transmitted by fleas

2208

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1105:Which bug causes epidemic typhus?

2209

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia prowazekii; transmitted by human body louse

2210

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1106:Which bug causes typhus?

2211

Microbiology Flash Facts

Endemic: Rickettsia typhi; transmitted by fleas;Epidemic: Rickettsia prowazekii; transmitted by human body louse

2212

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1107:Which bug causes Q fever?

2213

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coxiella burnetii; by inhaled aerosols from cowhide and placentas;Remember: Carol Burnett coughing "Q" after inhaling spores from cowhide.

2214

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1108:What separates Q fever from other rickettsial diseases?

2215

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q fever is Queer. Rickettsial; but has an endospore; thus;1. Caused by Coxiella burnetii (not called Rickettsia);2. No rash;3. No vector (inhaled aerosols);4. Negative Weil-Felix;5. Causative organism can survive outside for a long time.

2216

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1109:Difference in tropism between Chlamydia and Rickettsia

2217

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia: Endothelial cells of blood vessels;Chlamydia: Columnar epithelium

2218

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1110:Where is the rash in Rocky Mountain spotted fever found?

2219

Microbiology Flash Facts

Palms and soles; migrating to wrists; ankles; then trunk.

2220

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1111:Where can rashes on the palms and soles of feet be seen?

2221

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Rocky mountain spotted fever;2. Syphilis;3. Coxsackie virus A infection (hand; foot; and mouth disease)

2222

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1112:Weil-Felix reaction

2223

Microbiology Flash Facts

Assays for antirickettsial antibodies; which cross-react with Proteus antigen

2224

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1113:Typhus: positive or negative Weil-Felix

2225

Microbiology Flash Facts

positive

2226

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1114:Rocky mountain spotted fever: positive or negative Weil-Felix

2227

Microbiology Flash Facts

positive

2228

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1115:Q fever: positive or negative Weil-Felix

2229

Microbiology Flash Facts

negative

2230

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1116:What bug: Atypical walking pneumonia in prisoner or military recruit younger than 30

2231

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

2232

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1117:Describe mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia

2233

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Atypical walking pneumonia (insidious onset; headache; non productive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate);2. X-ray looks worse than patient;3. High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)

2234

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1118:Special culture requirements for: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

2235

Microbiology Flash Facts

Eaton's agar

2236

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1119:Treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae

2237

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline or erythromycin;Pencillin resistant because they have no cell wall.

2238

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1120:Characterization of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

2239

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Facultative anaerobe with no cell wall (hence no gram stain);2. Only bacterial membrane with cholesterol;3. High titer of cold agglutinins;4. Grown on Eaton's agar

2240

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1121:True or False: No Gram-positive bugs have endotoxin.

2241

Microbiology Flash Facts

False. Listeria monocytogenes has it.

2242

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1122:Characterize Chlamydia

2243

Microbiology Flash Facts

Obligate intracellular parasites

2244

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1123:2 forms of chlamydia

2245

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Elementary body (small; dense) which Enters cell via endocytosis;2. Initial or Reticulate body; which Replicates In cell by fission

2246

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1124:Disease states caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

2247

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter's syndrome);2. Conjunctivitis;3. Non-gonococcal urethritis; cervicitis; and PID

2248

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1125:Disease states caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae

2249

Microbiology Flash Facts

Atypical pneumonia

2250

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1126:Disease states caused by Chlamydia psittaci

2251

Microbiology Flash Facts

Atypical pneumonia

2252

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1127:Chlamydia species

2253

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Trachomatis;2. Pneumoniae;3. Psittaci

2254

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1128:What is unusual about the chlamydial wall?

2255

Microbiology Flash Facts

It lacks muramic acid.

2256

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1129:Treatment of Chlamydia

2257

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythromycin or tetracycline

2258

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1130:Reservoir for Chlamydia psittaci

2259

Microbiology Flash Facts

Avian

2260

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1131:Which chlamydia has an animal reservoir?

2261

Microbiology Flash Facts

Psittaci: Avian

2262

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1132:Lab diagnosis of chlamydia

2263

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescentantibody stained smear

2264

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1133:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes A-C

2265

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Chronic infection;2. Blindness in Africa;Mnemonic: ABC: Africa; Blindness; Chronic infection

2266

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1134:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes D-K

2267

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Urethritis/PID;2. Ectopic pregnancy;3. Neonatal pneumonia;4. Neonatal conjunctivitis

2268

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1135:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes L1-L3

2269

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lymphogranuloma venereum ;1. acute lymphadenitis with a positive Frei test;2. ulcers;3. rectal strictures;Mnemonic: L13: Lymphogranuloma

2270

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1136:Positive Frei test

2271

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes L1-L3

2272

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1137:Acquisition and treatment of neonatal conjunctivitis

2273

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K acquired by passage through infected birth canal. Treat with erythromycin eye drops.

2274

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1138:Characterization of spirochetes

2275

Microbiology Flash Facts

Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments

2276

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1139:List of spirochetes

2277

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: BLT with spiral bacon;1. Borrelia (Big!);2. Leptospira;3. Treponema

2278

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1140:Visualization of Borrelia

2279

Microbiology Flash Facts

Light microscopy with choice of aniline dye;1. Wright's stain;2. Giemsa's stain

2280

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1141:Stages of Lyme disease

2281

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Erythema chronicum migrans and flu-like symptoms;2. Neurologic and cardiac manifestations;3. Autoimmune migratory polyarthritis

2282

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1142:Signs and symptoms of Lyme disease

2283

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: BAKE a Key Lime pie;1. Bell's palsy (and other CNS manifestations in Stage 2);2. Arthritis (Autoimmune migratory in Stage 3);3. Kardiac block (Stage 2);4. Erythema chronicum migrans (Stage 1)

2284

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1143:What species transmits Borrelia burgdorferi to humans?

2285

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ixodes tick. Live o

2286

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1144:Classic symptom of Lyme disease and which stage is it in?

2287

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythema chronicum migrans; an expanding "bull's eye" red rash with central clearing. Stage 1.

2288

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1145:Animal reservoirs for borrelia burgdorferi

2289

Microbiology Flash Facts

White-footed mouse and other small rodens; and the whitetailed deer. Ixodes tick picks up bugs from these animals and transmits them.

2290

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1146:Most common setting for Borrelia burgdorferi infection

2291

Microbiology Flash Facts

In the summer months in northeastern US (Lyme; CT)

2292

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1147:What disease states does Treponema cause?

2293

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema Pallidum causes syphilis;Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL)

2294

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1148:What is yaws?

2295

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL)

2296

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1149:Presentation of primary syphilis

2297

Microbiology Flash Facts

Painless chancre (localized disease)

2298

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1150:What stage of syphilis: Painless chancre (localized disease)

2299

Microbiology Flash Facts

Primary

2300

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1151:Presentation of secondary syphilis

2301

Microbiology Flash Facts

Disseminated disease with;1. constitutional symptoms (fever; lymphadenopathy);2. maculopapular rash (palms and soles);3. condylomata lata;Mnemonic: Secondary means Systemic

2302

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1152:What stage of syphilis: Disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms

2303

Microbiology Flash Facts

Secondary syphilis

2304

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1153:Presentation of tertiary syphilis

2305

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Gummas;2. Aortitis;3. Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis; general paresis);4. Argyll Robertson pupil

2306

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1154:What stage of syphilis: Gummas

2307

Microbiology Flash Facts

tertiary syphilis

2308

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1155:What stage of syphilis: Aortitis

2309

Microbiology Flash Facts

tertiary syphilis

2310

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1156:What stage of syphilis: Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)

2311

Microbiology Flash Facts

tertiary syphilis

2312

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1157:What stage of syphilis: Argyll Robertson pupil

2313

Microbiology Flash Facts

tertiary syphilis

2314

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1158:What stage of syphilis: maculopapular rash (palms and soles)

2315

Microbiology Flash Facts

Secondary syphilis

2316

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1159:What stage of syphilis: condylomata lata

2317

Microbiology Flash Facts

Secondary syphilis

2318

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1160:Presentation of Congenital syphilis

2319

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Saber shins;2. Saddle nose;3. Deafness

2320

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1161:What stage of syphilis: Saber shins

2321

Microbiology Flash Facts

Congenital syphilis (not a stage)

2322

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1162:What stage of syphilis: Saddle nose

2323

Microbiology Flash Facts

Congenital syphilis (not a stage)

2324

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1163:What stage of syphilis: Deafness

2325

Microbiology Flash Facts

Congenital syphilis (not a stage)

2326

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1164:Treatment for Syphilis

2327

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin G

2328

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1165:Signs and symptoms of tertiary syphilis

2329

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Broad-based ataxia;2. Positive Romberg sign;3. Charcot joints;4. Stroke without hypertension

2330

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1166:What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil?

2331

Microbiology Flash Facts

Same as prostitute's pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.

2332

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1167:What is the prostitute's pupil.

2333

Microbiology Flash Facts

Same as Argyll-Robertson pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.

2334

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1168:What is FTA-ABS used for?

2335

Microbiology Flash Facts

FTA-ABS: Find the Antibody-Absolutely;1. Most specific for treponemes;2. Positive the earliest;3. Remains positive the longest

2336

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1169:Interpret: Positive VDRL; Positive FTA

2337

Microbiology Flash Facts

Active treponemal infection

2338

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1170:Interpret: Positive VDRL; Negative FTA

2339

Microbiology Flash Facts

Probably false positive;VDRL;1. Viruses (mono; hepatitis);2. Drugs;3. Rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis;4. Lupus and leprosy

2340

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1171:Interpret: Negative VDRL; Positive FTA

2341

Microbiology Flash Facts

Successfully treated treponemal infection

2342

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1172:Characteristics of Staph aureus

2343

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase+; beta hemolytic; ferments mannitol; salt tolerant

2344

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1173:Characteristics of Staph epidirmidis

2345

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase-; novobiocin sensitive

2346

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1174:Characteristics of Staph saprophyticus

2347

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase-; novobiocin resistant

2348

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1175:Characteristics of S. pneumoniae

2349

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ catalase- lancet-chapes diplococci in chains; alpha hemolytic; "MOPS" optochin sensitive; bile soluble; +quellung

2350

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1176:Characteristics of Viridans strep

2351

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ catalase- cocci; alpha hemolytic; optochin resistant; bile insoluble

2352

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1177:Characteristics of S. pyogenes

2353

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ catalase- cocci; group B; beta hemolytic; bacitracin sensitive; PYR+

2354

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1178:Characteristics of S. agalactiae

2355

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ catalase- cocci; group A; beta hemolytic; bacitracin resistant; cAMP test+

2356

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1179:Characteristics of Enterococcus

2357

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ catalase- cocci; PYR+; hydrolizes esculin in 40% bile and 6.5% NaCl

2358

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1180:Characteristics of Clostridium tetani

2359

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods

2360

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1181:Characteristics of Clostridium botulinum

2361

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods

2362

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1182:Characteristics of Clostridium perfingens

2363

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods; double zone of beta hemolysis

2364

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1183:Characteristics of Clostridium difficile

2365

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods

2366

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1184:Characteristics of Corynebacterium diptheriae

2367

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ aerobic club-shaped rods; V or L shapes on tellurite; metachromatic granules on Leoffler. beta-prophage contains diptheria toxin gene (lysogeny)

2368

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1185:Characteristics of Bacillus

2369

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ spore-forming aerobic rods

2370

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1186:Characteristics of Listeria

2371

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+ rods with tumbling or actin jet motility; beta hemolutic; cold growth; facultative intracellular

2372

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1187:Characteristics of Actinomyces

2373

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+; long branching filaments; non-acid fast anaerobic rods

2374

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1188:Characteristics of Nocardia

2375

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram+; long branching filaments; partially acid-fast aerobic rods

2376

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1189:Characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

2377

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid-fast aerobic rods on Lowenstein-Jensen medium; auramine-rhodamine stainning (fluorescent apple green). Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall

2378

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1190:Characteristics of Mycobacterium lepreae

2379

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acid-fast aerobic rods; can't be cultured (obligate intracellular). Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall

2380

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1191:Characteristics of Neisseria menigitidis

2381

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- kidneybean-shaped diplococci; growws on chocolate agar; maltose fermenter; polysaccharide capsule

2382

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1192:Characteristics of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

2383

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- kidneybean-shpaed diplococci; growws ThayerMartin; maltose non-fermenter; no polysaccharide capsule

2384

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1193:Characteristics of Haemophilus influezae

2385

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- cocobacillus; requires factor X and V (chocolate agar). Satellite phenomenon near staph aureus on blood agar

2386

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1194:Characteristics of Pasteurella

2387

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- cocobacillus; anaerobic

2388

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1195:Characteristics of Brucella

2389

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- cocobacillus; aerobic; zoonosis; biowarfare

2390

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1196:Characteristics of Bordetella pertussis

2391

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- aerobic cocobacillus

2392

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1197:Characteristics of Klebsiella

2393

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- lactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; polysacchride capsule; oxidase-

2394

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1198:Characteristics of E. coli

2395

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- lactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; oxidase-

2396

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1199:Characteristics of Shigella

2397

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; nonmotile; no H2S production; oxidase-

2398

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1200:Characteristics of Salmonella

2399

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; highly motile; H2S producer; oxidase-

2400

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1201:Characteristics of Proteus

2401

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods with swarming motility; H2S producer; urease+; oxidase-

2402

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1202:Characteristics of Pseudomonas

2403

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey oxidase+; aerobic; produces green pigment pyocyanin

2404

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1203:Characteristics of C. jejuni

2405

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting curved rods with flagella; oxidase+; microaerophillic

2406

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1204:Characteristics of H. pylori

2407

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting helical rods with flagella; oxidase+; urease+; microaerophillic

2408

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1205:Characteristics of Vibrio cholera

2409

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- nonlactose-fermenting curved rod with flagella; oxidase+ grows on alkaline media (thiosulfate)

2410

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1206:Characteristics of Francisella

2411

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- facultative intracellular rods; zoonosis; biowarfare

2412

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1207:Characteristics of Yersinia

2413

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- coagulase+ rods with bipolar stainnning; facultative intracellular; zoonosis

2414

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1208:Characteristics of Gardnerella

2415

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram variable rod; positive whiff fishy smell test

2416

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1209:Characteristics of Bacteroides

2417

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- anaerobic rod

2418

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1210:Characteristics of Treponema

2419

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- spirochete; spiral-shaped with axial filaments; dark microscopy

2420

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1211:Characteristics of Borrelia

2421

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- spirochete; spiral-shaped with axial filaments; microaerophilic

2422

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1212:Characteristics of Leptospira

2423

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- spirochete; spiral question mark-shaped with axial filaments

2424

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1213:Characteristics of Rickettsia

2425

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- (doesn't stain well) obligate intracellular rods

2426

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1214:Characteristics of Coxiella

2427

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram- (doesn't stain well) obligate intracellular rods

2428

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1215:Characteristics of Chlamydia

2429

Microbiology Flash Facts

Obligate intracellular bug seen in Giemsa stain. Wall lacks muramic acid. Elementary body is infective; reticulate bodies are replicating in the cell

2430

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1216:Characteristics of Mycoplasma

2431

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lacks peptidoglycan cell wall; does not gram stain. Cholesterols in membrane

2432

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1217:what is unique to gram-positive organisms?;what does it induce?

2433

Microbiology Flash Facts

Teichoic Acid;TNF and IL-1

2434

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1218:what is unique to gram-negative organisms?;what does it induce?

2435

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) / Endotoxin;(both considered the Outer Membrane);TNF and IL-1

2436

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1219:what bug has a D-glutamate capsule?

2437

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillis Anthrax

2438

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1220:what is a spore made of?;(2)

2439

Microbiology Flash Facts

Keratin-like coat;;Dipicolinic acid

2440

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1221:in the bacterial growth curve; when is rapid cell division?

2441

Microbiology Flash Facts

Log phase

2442

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1222:Definition;substance that binds directly to MHC-II and T-cell receptors activating a large number of T-cells to stimulate release of IL-1 and IL-2

2443

Microbiology Flash Facts

Superantigen;(TSST-1 in S.aureus);(SPE toxin in S.pyogenes Scarlet fever)

2444

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1223:(4) Bugs w/ A-B toxins

2445

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheria;;Vibrio;;E.coli;;B.pertussis

2446

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1224:Bug that inactivates elongation factor EF-2

2447

Microbiology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium diphtheria

2448

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1225:what toxin in clostridium causes gas gangrene?

2449

Microbiology Flash Facts

Alpha toxin

2450

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1226:what NT does C.tetani block?

2451

Microbiology Flash Facts

Glycine

2452

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1227:what toxin cleaves host cell rRNA?;which Bugs use it?;(2)

2453

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shiga Toxin;bugs;Shigella;E.coli

2454

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1228:what does the following Neisseria ferment;Meningococci;Gonococci

2455

Microbiology Flash Facts

MeninGococci = Maltose and Glucose;Gonococci = Glucose

2456

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1229:Pigment-producing Bug;1. Blue-green;2. Red;3. Yellow

2457

Microbiology Flash Facts

in alphabetical order;Blue = Pseudomonas Aeruginosa;Red = Serratia;Yellow = Staph Aureus

2458

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1230:(3)* Bugs that form spores

2459

Microbiology Flash Facts

PAT the soil for spores;c.Perfringens;;b.Anthrax;;c.Tetani

2460

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1231:Catalase positive

2461

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph;(coagulase+ = Aureus)

2462

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1232:(4)* Dx that Strep Pneumonae is MCC of;what are they sensitive to?

2463

Microbiology Flash Facts

MOPS;Meningitis;Otitis Media;Pneumonia;Sinusitis;MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive

2464

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1233:what Strep group lives in the mouth and is Optochin resistant?

2465

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viridians;(not afraid Of-the-chin and are OP-TO-CHIN resistant)

2466

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1234:which clostridia causes;Diarrhea?;gas Gangrene?

2467

Microbiology Flash Facts

DIarrhea = DIfficle;gas gangrene PERForates the leg = PERfringens

2468

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1235:Dx;vesicular papules covered w/ black eschar

2469

Microbiology Flash Facts

Anthrax

2470

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1236:Food poison bug;poultry; meat and eggs

2471

Microbiology Flash Facts

Salmonella

2472

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1237:Food poison bug;reheated meat dishes

2473

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium Perfringens

2474

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1238:Food poison bug;meats; mayo or custard

2475

Microbiology Flash Facts

S.Aureus

2476

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1239:MCC of swimmers ear

2477

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas

2478

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1240:what types of chlamydia cause blindness in Africa and chronic infection?

2479

Microbiology Flash Facts

Types A; B; C;Africa;Blindness;Chronic infection

2480

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1241:term for asexual fungal spores

2481

Microbiology Flash Facts

"Conidia"

2482

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1242:Mycoses type from;Desert or SW USA

2483

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioidomycosis

2484

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1243:Mycoses type from;Mississippi or Ohio river valley

2485

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

2486

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1244:Mycoses type from;East of Mississippi

2487

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomycosis

2488

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1245:which DNA virus is not dsDNA;(it is ssDNA)?

2489

Microbiology Flash Facts

Parvovirus;("Part-of-a-virus")

2490

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1246:what is the only dsRNA?

2491

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reovirus;("Repeat-O-virus")

2492

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1247:which virus class gets its envelope from the nuclear membrane versus the cytoplasmic membrane?

2493

Microbiology Flash Facts

Herpesviruses

2494

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1248:what are the (2) circular DNA viruses?

2495

Microbiology Flash Facts

Papova;Hepadna

2496

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1249:which DNA virus replicates in cytoplasm?

2497

Microbiology Flash Facts

Poxvirus

2498

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1250:MCC of global infantile gastroenteritis

2499

Microbiology Flash Facts

ROTAvirus;Right Out of The Anus!

2500

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1251:(2) Main causes of Meningitis in Newborn

2501

Microbiology Flash Facts

Group B Strep;;E.coli

2502

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1252:MCC of meningitis in children 6 mo - 6 yo;(2)

2503

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep Pneumonia;H.Influenzae

2504

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1253:MCC of meningitis in 6 yo - 60 yo

2505

Microbiology Flash Facts

N. Meningitis

2506

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1254:MCC of meningitis > 60 yo

2507

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. Pneumonia

2508

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1255:infectious agents of TORCHES

2509

Microbiology Flash Facts

ToRCHeS;Toxoplasmosis;Rubella;CMV;HSV;Syphilis

2510

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1256:Bug hints;Pus; empyema; abscess

2511

Microbiology Flash Facts

S.Aureus

2512

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1257:Bug hints;pediatric infection

2513

Microbiology Flash Facts

H.influenzae

2514

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1258:Bug hints;Branching rods in oral infection

2515

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelii

2516

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1259:Bug hints;traumatic open wound

2517

Microbiology Flash Facts

C.perfringens

2518

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1260:Bug hints;surgical wound

2519

Microbiology Flash Facts

S.Aureus

2520

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1261:Bug hints;Dog or Cat bite

2521

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pasturella

2522

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1262:Bug hints;sepsis/meningitis in newborn

2523

Microbiology Flash Facts

Group B strep

2524

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1263:Average bacterial diameter

2525

Microbiology Flash Facts

Small (0.3-2 micrometers)

2526

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1264:Bacterial cellular membranes lack these

2527

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sterols; with the exception of Mycoplasma; are not a component.

2528

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1265:Mycoplasma cell membranes contain what; making them different from all other bacterial cell membranes?

2529

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cholesterol

2530

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1266:The bacterial cell wall is composed of what?

2531

Microbiology Flash Facts

Peptidoglycan

2532

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1267:How bacteria replicate

2533

Microbiology Flash Facts

binary fission (assexual)

2534

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1268:Bacteria contain mono- and poly-cistronic mRNA. The presence of what allows for this?

2535

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shine-Dalgarno sites allow for what property of bacteria?

2536

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1269:Normal flora of blood; stomach and internal organs

2537

Microbiology Flash Facts

These have NO common organisms and are generally sterile

2538

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1270:Important normal flora of cutaneous surfaces; including urethra and outer ear

2539

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Staph epidermidis;Less common: Staph aureus; Corynebacteria (diphtheroids); streptococci; yeasts (Candida spp.)

2540

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1271:Important normal flora of the nose

2541

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Staph aureus;Less common: S. epidermidis; diphtheroids; assorted streptococci

2542

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1272:Important normal flora of the oropharynx

2543

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Viridians streptococci; including Strep mutans;Less common: assorted Streptococci; nonpathogenic Neisseria; nontypeable H. flu (unencapsulated)

2544

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1273:Important normal flora of the gingival crevices

2545

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Anerobes (Prevotella; Fusobacterium; Streptococcus; Actinomyces)

2546

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1274:Important normal flora of the colon (in breastfed babies)

2547

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Bifidobacterium;Less common: Lactobacillus; streptococci

2548

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1275:Important normal flora of the colon (in adults)

2549

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Bacteriodes (predominant;) Escherichia; Bifidobacterium;Less common: Eubacterium; Fusobacterium; Lactobacillus; gram-negative anaerobic rods; Strep faecalis and other streptococci

2550

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1276:Important normal flora of the vagina

2551

Microbiology Flash Facts

Common: Lactobacillus; group B strep in 15-20% of women;Less common: assorted streptococci; gram-negative rods; diphtheroids; yeasts

2552

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1277:Encapsulated bacteria

2553

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pneumo; Klebsiella pneumo; Haemophilus influenza; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Neisseria meningitidis; Cryptococcus neoformans

2554

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1278:These bacteria can adhere to inert materials through the creation of biofilms

2555

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph epidermidis; Strep mutans

2556

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1279:Responsible for dental plaque

2557

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep mutans

2558

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1280:Factors that assist with bacterial adherence

2559

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pili/fimbriae (in gram negative cells);Teichoic acids (in gram positive cells);Adhesins (colonizing factor; pertussis toxin; hemagglutinins);IgA proteases (cleaved Fc portion may coat bacteria and bind them to cellular Fc receptors)

2560

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1281:Antiphagocytic surface component of Strep pyogenes

2561

Microbiology Flash Facts

M protein

2562

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1282:Antiphagocytic surface component of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

2563

Microbiology Flash Facts

pili (antiphagocytic in which organism?)

2564

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1283:Antiphagocytic surface component of Staph aureus

2565

Microbiology Flash Facts

A protein

2566

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1284:These bacteria contain IgA proteases which destroy mucosal IgA

2567

Microbiology Flash Facts

Haemophilus; Neisseria; S. pneumoniae

2568

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1285:Siderophores

2569

Microbiology Flash Facts

these chelate ("steal") and import iron into bacteria; effectively obtaining needed nutrients

2570

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1286:M. tuberculosis evades intracellular killing by this mechanism

2571

Microbiology Flash Facts

this bacteria prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion

2572

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1287:Listeria evades intracellular killing by this mechanism

2573

Microbiology Flash Facts

this bacteria escapes the phagosome before phagosomelysosome fusion

2574

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1288:Invasins

2575

Microbiology Flash Facts

surface proteins that allow an organism to bind to and invade normally non-phagocytic human cells; thus escaping the immune system (such as in Yersinia pseudotuberculosis)

2576

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1289:Another name for endotoxin

2577

Microbiology Flash Facts

LPS

2578

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1290:Where endotoxin is found

2579

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-negative outer membrane

2580

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1291:Toxic portion of LPS

2581

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lipid A; generally not released until cell death;Exception: N. meningitidis overproduces outer membrane fragments

2582

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1292:Mechanism of LPS

2583

Microbiology Flash Facts

activates macrophages; leading to release of TNF-a; IL-1; and IL-6. This leads to tissue damage. Damage to the endothelium from bradykinin-induced vasodilation leads to shock; and DIC is mediated through the activation of Hageman factor.

2584

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1293:Can LPS be converted to a toxoid?

2585

Microbiology Flash Facts

No; so LPS remains non-immunogenic and cannot be used for vaccines

2586

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1294:Protein toxins secreted from bacterial cells (both gram positive and gram negative)

2587

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxins

2588

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1295:Can exotoxin be converted to a toxoid?

2589

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yes; these are modifiable by heat or chemicals to a nontoxic but immunogenic form useful for vaccination.

2590

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1296:The A and B components of exotoxins have these functions

2591

Microbiology Flash Facts

B component Binds specific receptors to assist the internalization of A;A component is the Active component (often an enzyme)

2592

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1297:Toxin; Mode of Action; and Disease Role of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

2593

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphtheria toxin;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF2;Primarily targets heart; nerves and epithelium;Inhibits eukaryotic cell protein synthesis

2594

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1298:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

2595

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin A;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF-2;Primary target is the liver;Inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis

2596

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1299:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Shigella

2597

Microbiology Flash Facts

Shiga toxin;Interferes with 60s ribosomal subunit;Inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells;Enterotoxic; cytotoxic and neurotoxic

2598

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1300:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of EHEC

2599

Microbiology Flash Facts

Verotoxin (shiga-like toxin);Interferes with 60s ribosomal subunit;Inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells

2600

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1301:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Clostridium tetani

2601

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetanus toxin;Blocks release of inhibitory transmitters glycine and GABA;Inhibits neurotransmission in inhibitory synapses

2602

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1302:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Clostridium botulinum

2603

Microbiology Flash Facts

Botulinum toxin;Blocks release of ACh;Inhibits cholinergic synapses

2604

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1303:Toxins of Staph aureus

2605

Microbiology Flash Facts

Toxins: TSST-1 & Alpha toxin

2606

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1304:Mode of Action and Disease Role of TSST-1

2607

Microbiology Flash Facts

An endotoxin enhancer; this toxin is pyrogenic and decreases liver clearance of LPS and superantigen;Causes fever; increases susceptibility to LPS; rash; shock and capillary leakage

2608

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1305:Mode of Action and Disease Role of Alpha toxin

2609

Microbiology Flash Facts

In Staph aureus; this toxin intercalates and forms pores in the cell membrane of eukaryotic cells;In C. perfringens; this toxin is a lecithinase that damages cell membranes and causes myonecrosis

2610

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1306:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Strep pyogenes

2611

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exotoxin A; aka pyrogenic toxin;Similar to TSST-1;Endotoxin enhancer;Fever; increased suceptibility to LPS; rash; shock; capillary leakage; cardiotoxicity

2612

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1307:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of ETEC

2613

Microbiology Flash Facts

Heat labile Toxin (LT);Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of GTP binding protein;Promotes secretion of fluid and electrolytes from intestinal epithelium;A cAMP inducer toxin

2614

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1308:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Vibrio cholerae

2615

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cholera toxin;similar to E coli LT-- stimulates an adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation;Profuse; watery diarrhea

2616

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1309:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Bacillus anthracis

2617

Microbiology Flash Facts

Anthrax toxin (3 proteins; 2 toxins);EF = edema factor -> adenylate cyclase;LF = lethal factor;PA = protective antigen (B component for both);Decreases phagocytosis; causes edema; kills cells

2618

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1310:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Bordetella pertussis

2619

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pertussis toxin;ADP ribosylates Gi; the negative regulator of adenylate cyclase -> increased cAMP;Histamine sensitizing;Lymphocytosis promotion;Islet activation

2620

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1311:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Clostridium perferingens

2621

Microbiology Flash Facts

Alpha toxin;Lecithinase activity causes myonecrosis

2622

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1312:Bacterial capsule

2623

Microbiology Flash Facts

present in many gram positive and gram negative bacteria; composed of polysaccharide gel (except B. anthracis); protects against phagocytosis until opsonized; immunogenic (except S. pyogenes and N. meningitidis.)

2624

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1313:Capsule component of B. anthracis

2625

Microbiology Flash Facts

polypeptide of poly D-glutamate

2626

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1314:Nonimmunogenic cell capsules

2627

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. pyogenes (hyaluronic acid);N. meningitidis (sialic acid)

2628

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1315:Chemical composition and fuctions of bacterial outer cell membrane

2629

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram-negative only;Lipid A & polysaccharide (LPS);LPS = endotoxin;Lipid A = toxic moiety;PS = immunogenic portion;Contains protein porins for passive transport and proteins for attachment and virulence

2630

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1316:Bacterial cell wall composition and function

2631

Microbiology Flash Facts

Made of peptidoglycan; net of NAG-NAM ;Functions to provide support; cell shape and protection from osmotic damage;Synthesis inhibited by penicillins and cephalosporins;Confers gram reaction

2632

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1317:Gram positives have this in their cell wall; which gram negative bacteria do not. What is its function?

2633

Microbiology Flash Facts

Techoic acids;Immunogenic; induce TNF-a; IL-1

2634

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1318:Acid-fast bacteria have this in their cell wall; which other bacteria do not. What is its function?

2635

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycolic acids;Confers resistance to drying and chemicals

2636

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1319:Periplasmic space-- location; bacteria and function

2637

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram negative bacteria only;Located between inner and outer cell membranes;Contains enzymes to break down large molecules; aids regulation of osmolarity

2638

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1320:Cytoplasmic membrane-- location and function

2639

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive and gram negative;Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins;Selective permeability and active transport;Carrier enzymes for oxidative metabolism; phosphorylation; phospholipid synthesis; DNA replication; peptidoglycan crosslinking; penicillin binding proteins

2640

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1321:Pili or fimbria-- type of bacteria; composition and function

2641

Microbiology Flash Facts

Primarily gram negative;Made of glycoprotein (pilin);Adherence to cell surfaces; attachment to other bacteria during conjugation

2642

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1322:Flagellum -- type of bacteria; composition and function

2643

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram (+) and (-);Made of protein (flagellin);Used for motility

2644

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1323:Axial filaments-- type of bacteria; composition and function

2645

Microbiology Flash Facts

Spirochetes and gram negative bacteria;Made of protein;Used for motility

2646

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1324:Acid fast bacteria turn this color with methylene blue stain

2647

Microbiology Flash Facts

Red color after methylene blue staining indicates these bacteria

2648

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1325:Acid fast bacteria

2649

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium;Legionella;Nocardia (partially)

2650

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1326:Bonus: protozoan parasites with acid-fast oocysts

2651

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptosporidium and Isospora

2652

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1327:Corynebacterium diphtheriae have granules of this

2653

Microbiology Flash Facts

volutin granules are useful for identifying this species

2654

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1328:Endospores-- bacteria; composition and function

2655

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive only;Made of keratin coat; calcium dipicolinate;Confers resistance to heal; chemicals and dehydration (not reproductive)

2656

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1329:Bacteria that make endospores

2657

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillis and Clostridium

2658

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1330:Special media for anaerobes

2659

Microbiology Flash Facts

thioglycolate

2660

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1331:Special media for Corynebacterium

2661

Microbiology Flash Facts

Loffler's coagulated serum medium (selective);Tellurite agar (differential)

2662

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1332:Special media for enteric bacteria

2663

Microbiology Flash Facts

Eosin methylene blue (differential);MacConkeys (differential)

2664

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1333:Special media for enteric pathogens

2665

Microbiology Flash Facts

Hektoen enteric agar (differential);Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar

2666

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1334:Special media for Vibrio cholera

2667

Microbiology Flash Facts

TCBS (thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar) (selective);This organism likes an alkaline growth medium

2668

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1335:Special media for Legionella

2669

Microbiology Flash Facts

Charcoal yeast extract agar (selective)

2670

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1336:Special media for Mycobacterium

2671

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lowenstein-Jensen medium (selective)

2672

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1337:Special media for Neisseria from normally sterile sites; Haemophilus

2673

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chocolate agar

2674

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1338:Special media for Neisseria from sites with normal flora

2675

Microbiology Flash Facts

Thayer-Martin selective medium (selective);This is a chocolate agar with vancomycin; nystatin and colistin to inhibit normal flora

2676

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1339:Growth requirements of mycoplasma

2677

Microbiology Flash Facts

cholesterol; purines and pyrimidines

2678

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1340:Bacteria requiring cysteine for growth

2679

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella; Brucella; Legionella; Pasteurella

2680

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1341:Growth requirements of Haemophilus

2681

Microbiology Flash Facts

X (protoporphyrin) and V (NAD) are required by what bacteria for growth?

2682

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1342:These bacteria are obligate aerobes

2683

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium;Pseudomonas;(Bacillus)

2684

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1343:Superoxide dismutase

2685

Microbiology Flash Facts

O2 + 2H ------->H2O2;enzyme contained by most obligate anaerobes

2686

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1344:Microaerophilic (requires low but not full oxygen tension) bacteria

2687

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter;Helicobacter

2688

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1345:Obligate anaerobes

2689

Microbiology Flash Facts

Actinomyces;Bacteriodes;Clostridium

2690

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1346:DTaP vs DTP

2691

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphtheria-- diphtheria toxoid;Tetanus-- tetanus toxoid;Pertussis -- killed pertussis cells vs acellular pertusis toxoid; filamentous hemagglutinin and pertacin.

2692

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1347:Neisseria vaccine is active against these capsular polysaccharides; but not against which one that causes 50% of US cases?

2693

Microbiology Flash Facts

Active against Y; W-135; C and A;Not active against B (capsule is sialic acid; non-immunogenic)

2694

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1348:Bacillus anthracis vaccine

2695

Microbiology Flash Facts

supernatant of partially purified proteins used as vaccine for military or occupational usage

2696

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1349:Salmonella typhi vaccine (ty21)

2697

Microbiology Flash Facts

attenuated bacterial vaccine for travelers to endemic typhoid areas

2698

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1350:HIB vaccine (H. influenza type B)

2699

Microbiology Flash Facts

protects against 95% of US cases;capsular polysaccharide conjugated to protein; making a T cell dependent vaccine which infants respond to

2700

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1351:BCG vaccine

2701

Microbiology Flash Facts

attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis;does not prevent pulmonary TB; but does prevent dissemination;not used in US

2702

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1352:Yersinia pestis vaccine

2703

Microbiology Flash Facts

Killed cellular F-1 antigen vaccine;Used in military in endemic areas and with laboratory workers

2704

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1353:Gram negative aerobic cocci

2705

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria & Moraxella ;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2706

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1354:Gram negative aerobic rods

2707

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas; Legionella; Brucella; Bordetella; Francisella;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2708

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1355:Gram negative helical microaerophilic bacteria

2709

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter & Helicobacter;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2710

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1356:Gram postive cocci

2711

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus & Streptococcus;have what shape and gram stain?

2712

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1357:Gram positive aerobic or facultative rods

2713

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus; Listeria; Corynebacterium; Nocardia; Mycobacterium;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2714

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1358:Gram positive anaerobic rods

2715

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium; Actinomyces; Eubacterium; Propionibacterium; Lactobacillus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2716

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1359:Spore forming bacteria

2717

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus & Clostridium;... are capable of what?

2718

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1360:Non-gram staining bacteria

2719

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma ;... are not capable of what?

2720

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1361:Gram negative facultative anaerobic rods

2721

Microbiology Flash Facts

Esherichia; Shigella; Salmonella; Citrobacter; Klebsiella; Enterobacer; Serratia; Proteus; Yersinia; Vibrio; Pasteurella; Haemophilus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2722

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1362:Gram negative anaerobic straight or helical rods

2723

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacteroides; prevotella; Fusobacterium; spirochetes; Rickettsia; Chlamydia;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?

2724

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1363:Spirochetes

2725

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema; Borrelia; Leptospira;... are all what?

2726

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1364:Features of all Staphylococcus species

2727

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gram positive; cocci arranged in clusters; catalase positive

2728

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1365:Staphylococcus aureus;Description; Virulence factors and Associated Diseases

2729

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coagulase positive; Beta-hemolytic;Contains protein A; TSST-1; enterotoxins; exfoliatins; cytolysins;Causes: osteomyelitis; infective endocarditis in IVDU; abscesses; TSS; gastroenteritis and suppurative lesions

2730

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1366:Staphylococcus epidermidis;Description; Virulence factors and Associated Diseases

2731

Microbiology Flash Facts

coagulase negative; no hemolysis; susceptible to novobiocin;Part of normal skin flora; can form a biofilm;Causes: catheter and device infections; endocarditis in IVDU

2732

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1367:Staphylococcus saphrophyticus;Description; Virulence factors and Associated Diseases

2733

Microbiology Flash Facts

coagulase negative; non-hemolytic; resistant to novobiocin;Causes: UTIs in newly sexually active women

2734

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1368:What color on blood agar is associated with beta hemolysis?

2735

Microbiology Flash Facts

"Clear" color on blood agar is indicative of this type of hemolysis

2736

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1369:What color on blood agar is associated with alpha hemolysis?

2737

Microbiology Flash Facts

Green color on blood agar is indicative of this type of hemolysis

2738

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1370:What color on blood agar is associated with gamma hemolysis?

2739

Microbiology Flash Facts

Red color on blood agar is indicative of this type of hemolysis

2740

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1371:Common features of all Streptococcus

2741

Microbiology Flash Facts

gram positive cocci in chains or pairs; catalase negative

2742

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1372:This streptococcus is serotyped by capsular antibodies

2743

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pneumo ;... is serotyped by what?

2744

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1373:This streptococcus is serotyped by the M protein

2745

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pyogenes ;... is serotyped by what?

2746

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1374:Lancefields' groups A-O refer to what?

2747

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptococci are serotyped by what; using known antigens to cell wall carbohydrates?

2748

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1375:S. pyogenes;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2749

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: A;Hemolysis: beta;Bacitracin-sensitive; PYR test positive

2750

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1376:S. agalactiae;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2751

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: B;Hemolysis: beta;Bacitracin resistant; hippurate utilized; cAMP test positive

2752

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1377:Enterococcus faecalis;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2753

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: D;Hemolysis: alpha; beta or none;Growth in 6.5% NaCl; PYR test positive

2754

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1378:S. bovis;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2755

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: D;Hemolysis: alpha or none;No growth in 6.5% NaCl

2756

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1379:S. pneumonia;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2757

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: not groupable;Hemolysis: alpha;bilesoluble; inhibited by optochin

2758

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1380:S. viridans;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important lab characteristics

2759

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lancefield Group: not groubable;Hemolysis: beta;not bilesoluble; not inhibited by optochin

2760

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1381:Diseases caused by S. pyogenes

2761

Microbiology Flash Facts

pharyngitis; scarlet fever; pyoderma; impetigo;... can all be caused by what?

2762

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1382:Rheumatic fever occurs after this; and manifests through this mechanism

2763

Microbiology Flash Facts

post-streptococcal pharyngitis with group A strep;antibodies to heart tissue (mean 19 days);fever; joint inflammation; carditis

2764

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1383:post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs after this infection; and manifests in this manner.

2765

Microbiology Flash Facts

post-strep pharyngitis; immune complexes bind to glomeruli; leading to pulmonary edema; hypertension and dark urine.

2766

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1384:Group B Strep = Strep agalactiae;commonly causes what?

2767

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neonatal septicemia and meningitis

2768

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1385:Treatment for group B strep

2769

Microbiology Flash Facts

ampicillin with cefotaxime or gentamicin

2770

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1386:Predisposing conditions for strep pneumoniae pneumonia

2771

Microbiology Flash Facts

antecedent influeza or measles infection; COPD; congestive heart failure; alcoholism; asplenia;... predispose to what infection?

2772

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1387:Pathogenic factors in Strep pneumo

2773

Microbiology Flash Facts

IgA protease aids colonization;Teichoic acids aid attachment and are highly inflammatory in CNS;Polysaccharide capsule; major virulence factor; inhibits phagocytosis;pneumolysin O is a hemolysin

2774

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1388:postive Quelling reaction

2775

Microbiology Flash Facts

this test demonstrates capsular swelling with type-specific antiserum in Strep pneumo

2776

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1389:positive latex particle agglutination test

2777

Microbiology Flash Facts

this test for capsular antigen in spinal fluid is diagnostic for S. pneumo meningitis

2778

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1390:Actions of pneumolysin O

2779

Microbiology Flash Facts

This hemolysin/cytolysin in S. pneumo causes;damage to respiratory epithelium;inhibition of classical complement fixation;inhibition of leukocyte respiratory burst

2780

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1391:Most common cause of adult meningitis

2781

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. pneumo-- most common cause of what in adults?

2782

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1392:Most common cause of otitis media and sinusitis in children

2783

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. pneumo-- most common cause of what in children?

2784

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1393:Reason for S. pneumo resistance to penicillin

2785

Microbiology Flash Facts

chromosomal-- altered penicillin binding proteins

2786

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1394:treatment of S. viridans infective endocarditis

2787

Microbiology Flash Facts

penicillin G with aminoglycoside useful for treatment of this Strep infection

2788

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1395:Pathogenesis of enterococcus endocarditis

2789

Microbiology Flash Facts

medical procedures in GI or GU tract --> bloodstream --> previously damaged heart valves --> endocarditis

2790

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1396:Disease associated with group D Gram-positive cocci in chains; PYR test +; with variable hemolysis

2791

Microbiology Flash Facts

urinary and biliary tract infections

2792

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1397:vancomycin resistance in enterococcus faecalis

2793

Microbiology Flash Facts

resistant strains of this have D-alanyl D-lactate as terminal of the UDP-N-acetylmuramyl pentapeptide; which functions in cell wall synthesis but is not inhibited by the drug in question

2794

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1398:4 Lactose Fermenters

2795

Microbiology Flash Facts

CEEK;1. Citrobacter;2. Enterobacter;3. E.coli;4. Klebsiella

2796

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1399:Non Lactose Fermenters

2797

Microbiology Flash Facts

SHYPS;1. Shigella;2. Yersinia enterolytica;3. Proteus;4. Salmonella

2798

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1400:6 Bacteria that may lack color

2799

Microbiology Flash Facts

These rascals may microscopically lack color;1. Treponema;2. Rickettsia;3. Mycobacterium;4. Mycoplasma;5. Legionella;6. Chlamydia

2800

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1401:4 Microbes that increase cAMP

2801

Microbiology Flash Facts

CAPE;1. Cholera;2. Anthracis (poly D glutamate capsule);3. Pertussis (via Gi);4. E. coli (LT enterotoxin)

2802

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1402:Bacteria that have capsules

2803

Microbiology Flash Facts

Some killers have pretty nice capsules;1. Strep pneumo;2. Klebsiella;3. H. influenza ;4. P. aeruginosa;5. Neisseria meningitidis;6. Cryptococcus neoformans

2804

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1403:5 Dimorphic Fungi

2805

Microbiology Flash Facts

Can Also Have Both Shapes;1. Cocciodes;2. Aspergillus;3. Histoplasma;4. Blastomyces;5. Sporothrix

2806

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1404:Spore forming bacteria

2807

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bacillus;Clostridium

2808

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1405:Have IgA proteases

2809

Microbiology Flash Facts

SHiN;Strep pneumo;H. influenza;Neisseria

2810

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1406:Wayson's stain

2811

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia

2812

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1407:Invasins

2813

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia Pseudotuberculosis

2814

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1408:2 Obligate Aerobes

2815

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas;Mycobacterium

2816

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1409:3 obligate Anaerobes

2817

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium;Actinomyces;Bacteroides

2818

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1410:A protein;Catalase +;Coagulase +

2819

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. aureus

2820

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1411:2 Non-motile Gram + rods

2821

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. diphtheria;Nocardia

2822

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1412:Lancet shaped diplococci

2823

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pneumo

2824

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1413:Gull's wings; comma shaped

2825

Microbiology Flash Facts

Campylobacter

2826

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1414:Club shaped non-motile gram + rod

2827

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. diphtheria

2828

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1415:Safety pin shaped bacteria

2829

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia

2830

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1416:Intranuclear Cowdry body inclusions

2831

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV

2832

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1417:Guarnieri intracytoplasmic and acidophilic inclusions

2833

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pox virus

2834

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1418:2 Coagulase + microbes

2835

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. aureus;Yersinia pestis

2836

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1419:3 Obligate Intracellular microbes

2837

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chlamydia;Rickettsia;M. leprae

2838

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1420:Fried egg colonies on Eaton Agar

2839

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumonia

2840

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1421:Spaghetti and Meat ball appearance

2841

Microbiology Flash Facts

Malassazia furfur

2842

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1422:Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

2843

Microbiology Flash Facts

Measles

2844

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1423:Non-motile Bacilli and Clostridium

2845

Microbiology Flash Facts

B. anthracis;C. perfringens

2846

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1424:Indian ink

2847

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cryptococcus neoformans

2848

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1425:4 microbes that need Cysteine for growth

2849

Microbiology Flash Facts

Francisella;Brucella;Legionella;Pastuerella

2850

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1426:Ecthyema Gangrenosum microbe

2851

Microbiology Flash Facts

P. aeruginosa

2852

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1427:alpha hemolysis;Optochin Sensitive

2853

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep pneumo

2854

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1428:alpha hemolysis;Optochin Resistant

2855

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep. viridans

2856

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1429:Novobiocin resistant

2857

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph Saprophyticus

2858

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1430:Novobiocin sensitive

2859

Microbiology Flash Facts

Staph Epidermidis

2860

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1431:Beta hemolysis;Bacitracin Sensitive

2861

Microbiology Flash Facts

Strep. pyogenes

2862

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1432:Beta hemolysis;Bacitracin resistant

2863

Microbiology Flash Facts

S. Agalactiae

2864

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1433:Lecithinase

2865

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clostridium Perfringens

2866

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1434:Gas Gangrene

2867

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. perfringens

2868

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1435:2 C. difficile toxins

2869

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterotoxin;Cytotoxin

2870

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1436:Microbe whose toxin inhibits ACh release and causes Flaccid paralysis

2871

Microbiology Flash Facts

C. botulinum

2872

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1437:Floppy baby Syndrome due to toxin in honey

2873

Microbiology Flash Facts

Infant Botulinum

2874

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1438:Thayer Martin Agar

2875

Microbiology Flash Facts

Neisseria

2876

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1439:DOC for N. gonorrhoeae

2877

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ceftriazone

2878

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1440:Alcoholics;Aspiration pneumonia;Abscesses in lungs

2879

Microbiology Flash Facts

Klebsiella

2880

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1441:Rice water diarrhea

2881

Microbiology Flash Facts

V. cholera

2882

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1442:Cat bites

2883

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pasteurella multocida

2884

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1443:Bordet Gengou agar

2885

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bordetella pertussis = whooping cough

2886

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1444:Lowenstein-Jensen medium

2887

Microbiology Flash Facts

M. tuberculosis

2888

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1445:Bacteria that has the only protein capsule

2889

Microbiology Flash Facts

B. anthracis

2890

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1446:2 bacteria that have + Weil Felix reactions

2891

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rickettsia;Proteus

2892

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1447:Tx for Staph aureus

2893

Microbiology Flash Facts

Methicillin

2894

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1448:Tx for Clostridium difficile

2895

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

2896

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1449:Tx for Nocardia

2897

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides

2898

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1450:Tx for Actinomyces isrealli

2899

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin

2900

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1451:Tx for H. influenza meningitis

2901

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ceftriaxone

2902

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1452:Tx for Legionella pneumophila

2903

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythromycin

2904

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1453:Tx for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

2905

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (piperacillin; ticarcillin)

2906

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1454:Tx for H. pylori

2907

Microbiology Flash Facts

Triple therapy- (1)Bismuth; metronidazole & either tetracycline or amoxicillin;(2)Metronidazole; omeprazole; clarithromycin

2908

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1455:Tx for Gardnerella vaginalis

2909

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

2910

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1456:Tx for Leprosy

2911

Microbiology Flash Facts

Long-term oral dapsone;Alternate tx's include rifampin & combo of clofazimine & dapsone

2912

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1457:Tx for Rickettsiae

2913

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline

2914

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1458:Tx for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

2915

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline or erythromycin

2916

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1459:Tx for Chlamydiae

2917

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythromycin or tetracycline

2918

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1460:Tx for Borrelia burgdorferi

2919

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline

2920

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1461:Tx for Treponema pallidum

2921

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin G

2922

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1462:Tx for Candida albicans

2923

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nystatin for superficial infection; amphotericin B for serious systemic infection

2924

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1463:Tx for Coccidioidomycosis

2925

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic infection: amphotericin B

2926

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1464:Tx for Histoplasmosis

2927

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic infection: amphotericin B

2928

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1465:Tx for Paracoccidioidomycosis

2929

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic infection: amphotericin B

2930

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1466:Tx for Blastomycosis

2931

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic infection: amphotericin B

2932

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1467:Tx for Pneumocystis carinii

2933

Microbiology Flash Facts

TMP-SMX

2934

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1468:Tx for Sporothrix schenckii

2935

Microbiology Flash Facts

Itraconazole or Potassium iodidie

2936

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1469:Tx for E. histolytica

2937

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole & iodoquinol

2938

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1470:Tx for Giardia

2939

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

2940

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1471:Tx for Babesia

2941

Microbiology Flash Facts

Quinine; clindamycin

2942

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1472:Tx for Toxoplasma

2943

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sulfadiazine & Pyrimethamine

2944

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1473:Tx for Plasmodium

2945

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chloroquine; sulfadoxine & pyrimethamine; mefloquine; quinine

2946

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1474:Tx for Trichomonas vaginalis

2947

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

2948

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1475:Tx for Trypanosoma cruzi

2949

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nifurtimox

2950

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1476:Tx for Leishmania donovani

2951

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sodium stibogluconate

2952

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1477:Tx for Corynebacterium diphtheriae

2953

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythromycin & antitoxin

2954

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1478:Tx for Fusobacterium nucleatum

2955

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin G

2956

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1479:Tx for Strep pneumoniae

2957

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin

2958

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1480:Tx for Bordetella pertussis

2959

Microbiology Flash Facts

Erythromycin

2960

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1481:Tx for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

2961

Microbiology Flash Facts

Isoniazid; rifampin; pyrazinimide; ethambutoll

2962

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1482:Tx for Salmonella

2963

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chloramphenicol(for enteric fever); can also use ampicillin

2964

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1483:Tx for Shigella

2965

Microbiology Flash Facts

Only tx s. dysenteriae

2966

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1484:Tx for E. coli

2967

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ciprofloxacin & penicillin

2968

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1485:Tx for Vibrio cholerae

2969

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fluid replacement plus tetracycline to keep from spread of organism

2970

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1486:Tx for Bacteroides fragilis

2971

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

2972

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1487:Tx for Proteus mirabilis

2973

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ampicillin; cephalosporin

2974

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1488:Tx for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

2975

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ceftriaxone & tetracycline;Silver nitrate to prevent infant eye infection

2976

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1489:Tx for Strep agalactiae

2977

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin G

2978

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1490:Tx for Neisseria meningitidis

2979

Microbiology Flash Facts

High dose IV Penicillin;Prevention w/ rifampin or ciprofloxacin

2980

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1491:Tx for Clostridium tetani

2981

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin & antitoxin

2982

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1492:Tx for Strep viridans

2983

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin w/ addition of aminoglycoside if resistant

2984

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1493:Tx for Clostridium perfringens

2985

Microbiology Flash Facts

Penicillin & antitoxin

2986

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1494:Tx for Listeria monocytogenes

2987

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ampicillin

2988

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1495:Tx for Yersinia pestis

2989

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptomycin

2990

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1496:Tx for Ehrlichia

2991

Microbiology Flash Facts

Doxycycline

2992

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1497:Tx for Coxiella burnetii

2993

Microbiology Flash Facts

Doxycycline

2994

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1498:Tx for Francisella tularensis

2995

Microbiology Flash Facts

Streptomycin

2996

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1499:Tx for Brucella

2997

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tetracycline & streptomycin

2998

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1500:Tx for Bacillus anthracis

2999

Microbiology Flash Facts

IV Penicillin

3000

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1501:Which DNA viruses are double stranded?

3001

Microbiology Flash Facts

All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae;Mnemonic: All are dsDNA like ours; except "Part-of-a-virus" which is ss.

3002

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1502:Which DNA viruses are single stranded?

3003

Microbiology Flash Facts

Parvoviridae

3004

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1503:Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?

3005

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular

3006

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1504:Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

3007

Microbiology Flash Facts

papova virus and hepadna which are circular

3008

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1505:Which RNA viruses are single stranded?

3009

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours; except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.

3010

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1506:Which RNA viruses are double stranded?

3011

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours; except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.

3012

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1507:Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

3013

Microbiology Flash Facts

Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)

3014

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1508:Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids?

3015

Microbiology Flash Facts

poxvirus and HBV

3016

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1509:Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

3017

Microbiology Flash Facts

#NAME?

3018

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1510:Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic acids?

3019

Microbiology Flash Facts

- strand ssRNA;Mnemonic: Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication;1. Arena;2. Bunya;3. Paramyxo;4. Orthomyxo;5. Filo;6. Rhabdo

3020

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1511:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?

3021

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)

3022

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1512:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?

3023

Microbiology Flash Facts

Only herpesviruses

3024

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1513:Which viruses are haploid?

3025

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except retroviruses (diploid)

3026

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1514:Which viruses are diploid?

3027

Microbiology Flash Facts

Retroviruses

3028

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1515:Where do DNA viruses replicate?

3029

Microbiology Flash Facts

In the nucleus (except pox)

3030

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1516:Where do RNA viruses replicate?

3031

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

3032

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1517:DNA virus families

3033

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: DNA viruses are HHAPPPy;1. Hepadna;2. Herpesviruses;3. Adenovirus;4. Parvovirus;5. Papovavirus;6. Poxvirus

3034

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1518:Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?

3035

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except pox (complex)

3036

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1519:Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

3037

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases)

3038

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1520:Which DNA viruses are naked?

3039

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnem: Get naked for your PAP;1. Parvo;2. Adeno;3. Papova

3040

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1521:Which DNA viruses are enveloped?

3041

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPH;1. Hepadna;2. Pox;3. Herpes

3042

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1522:Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated vaccines

3043

Microbiology Flash Facts

Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence)

3044

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1523:Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines

3045

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humoral immunity (stable)

3046

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1524:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine

3047

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu; mmR; Yellow fever)

3048

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1525:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine

3049

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated

3050

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1526:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine

3051

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated

3052

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1527:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine

3053

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu; mmR; Yellow fever)

3054

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1528:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine

3055

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated

3056

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1529:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine

3057

Microbiology Flash Facts

Live attenuated

3058

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1530:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine

3059

Microbiology Flash Facts

Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio; hAv)

3060

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1531:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine

3061

Microbiology Flash Facts

Killed; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu; mmR; Yellow fever);Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio; hAv)

3062

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1532:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine

3063

Microbiology Flash Facts

Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio; hAv)

3064

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1533:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine

3065

Microbiology Flash Facts

Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio; hAv)

3066

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1534:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HBV vaccine

3067

Microbiology Flash Facts

Recombinant (antigen is recombinant HBsAg)

3068

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1535:Definition: Viral recombination

3069

Microbiology Flash Facts

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

3070

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1536:What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

3071

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viral recombination

3072

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1537:Definition: Viral Reassortment

3073

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

3074

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1538:What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.

3075

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viral Reassortment;Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

3076

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1539:Definition: Viral Complementation

3077

Microbiology Flash Facts

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus "complements" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.

3078

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1540:What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.

3079

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viral Complementation

3080

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1541:Definition: Viral Phenotypic Mixing

3081

Microbiology Flash Facts

Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

3082

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1542:What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.

3083

Microbiology Flash Facts

Viral Phenotypic Mixing;Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

3084

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1543:What does it mean for a virus to be naked?

3085

Microbiology Flash Facts

It has only a nucleocapsid; and no envelope.

3086

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1544:Which RNA viruses are enveloped?

3087

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Measles;2. Mumps;3. Rubella;4. RSV;5. Rabies;6. HTLV;7. HIV;8. Influenza;9. Parainfluenza;Mnem: MMRRHHflu

3088

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1545:Which RNA viruses are naked?

3089

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Naked CPR;1. Calicivirus;2. Picornavirus [Enteroviruses (polio; coxsackie; echo; HAV); Rhino];3. Reovirus

3090

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1546:What does it mean for viruses to be negative stranded?

3091

Microbiology Flash Facts

Must transcribe negative strand to positive; using RNA polymerase.

3092

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1547:Negative stranded viruses

3093

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnem: Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication;1. Arenaviruses;2. Bunyaviruses;3. Paramyxoviruses;4. Orthomyxoviruses;5. Filoviruses;6. Rhabdoviruses

3094

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1548:Segmented viruses

3095

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnem: BOAR;1. Bunyaviruses;2. Orthomyxoviruses (flu);3. Arenaviruses;4. Reovirus

3096

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1549:How many segments in influenza?

3097

Microbiology Flash Facts

3098

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1550:Which RNA viruses are linear?

3099

Microbiology Flash Facts

All except the BAD seeds (Bunyavirus; Arenavirus; Deltavirus)

3100

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1551:Which RNA viruses are circular?

3101

Microbiology Flash Facts

the BAD seeds;1. Bunya;2. Arena;3. Delta

3102

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1552:Which RNA viruses are icosahedral?

3103

Microbiology Flash Facts

Naked (CPR) FaRT;1.Calici;2.Picorna;3.Reo;4.Flavi;5.Retro;6.Toga

3104

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1553:Which RNA viruses are helical?

3105

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: The COP BARFeD up a helix;1. Corona;2. Orthomyxo;3. Paramyxo;4. Bunya;5. Arena;6. Rhabdo;7. Filo;8. Delta

3106

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1554:Which viruses have reverse transcriptase?

3107

Microbiology Flash Facts

Retro and HBV

3108

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1555:Medical importance of HSV-1

3109

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Oral (and some genital) lesions (Gingivostomatitis);2. Keratoconjunctivitis;3. Temporal lobe encephalitis

3110

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1556:Medical importance of HSV-2

3111

Microbiology Flash Facts

Genital (and some oral) lesions

3112

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1557:Medical importance of VZV

3113

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Chickenpox;2. Shingles;3. Encephalitis;4. Pneumonia

3114

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1558:Medical importance of EBV

3115

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Mononucleosis;2. Burkitt's lymphoma

3116

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1559:Medical importance of CMV

3117

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Infection in immunosuppressed (especially transplant);2. Congenital defects;3. Mononucleosis (negativie Monospot);4. Pneumonia

3118

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1560:Medical importance of HHV-6

3119

Microbiology Flash Facts

Roseola (exanthem subitum);1. High fever lasting 3 to 5 days which resolves and is followed by a;2. Rash: mostly on trunk; lasting a day or two

3120

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1561:Medical importance of HHV-8

3121

Microbiology Flash Facts

Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus

3122

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1562:List of important Herpesviruses

3123

Microbiology Flash Facts

HSV 1 and 2; VZV; EBV; CMV; HHV 6 and 8

3124

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1563:Medical importance of Adenovirus

3125

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Febrile pharyngitis (sore throat);2. Pneumonia;3. Conjunctivitis (pink eye)

3126

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1564:Medical importance of Parvovirus

3127

Microbiology Flash Facts

B19 virus causes;1. Aplastic crises in sickle cell disease;2. "slapped cheeks" rash---erythema infectiosum (fifth disease);3. Hydrops fetalis

3128

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1565:List of Papova viruses

3129

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. PApilloma;2. POlyoma (human BK and JC);3. Simian VAcuolating virus (does not affect humans)

3130

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1566:Medical importance of Papilloma virus

3131

Microbiology Flash Facts

causes warts and cervical cancer; including CIN (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)

3132

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1567:Medical importance of JC virus

3133

Microbiology Flash Facts

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV

3134

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1568:List of Pox viruses

3135

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Smallpox;2. Vaccinia (cowpox "milkmaid's blisters");3. Molluscum contagiosum

3136

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1569:List of Picornaviruses

3137

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: PERCH on a "peak";1. Poliovirus;2. Echovirus;3. Rhinovirus;4. Coxsackievirus;5. HAV

3138

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1570:Medical importance of Poliovirus

3139

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fecal-oral transmission

3140

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1571:What is IPV?

3141

Microbiology Flash Facts

Inactivated polio vaccine (Salk)

3142

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1572:What is OPV?

3143

Microbiology Flash Facts

Oral Polio vaccine (Sabin)

3144

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1573:Medical importance of Echovirus

3145

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aseptic meningitis

3146

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1574:Medical importance of Rhinovirus

3147

Microbiology Flash Facts

"common cold"

3148

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1575:Medical importance of Coxsackie virus

3149

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Aseptic meningitis;2. herpangina-febrile pharyngitis;3. hand; foot; and mouth disease;4. myocarditis

3150

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1576:List of Caliciviruses

3151

Microbiology Flash Facts

HEV; Norwalk virus

3152

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1577:Medical importance of Norwalk virus

3153

Microbiology Flash Facts

viral gastroenteritis

3154

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1578:List of Reoviruses

3155

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reovirus; Rotavirus

3156

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1579:Medical importance of Reovirus sp.

3157

Microbiology Flash Facts

Colorado tick fever

3158

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1580:Medical importance of Rotavirus

3159

Microbiology Flash Facts

#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children

3160

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1581:Medical importance of Flavivirus

3161

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. HCV;2. Yellow fever;3. Dengue;4. St. Louis encephalitis;5. West Nile virus

3162

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1582:List of Arboviruses

3163

Microbiology Flash Facts

Arboviruses are ARthropod BOrne viruses;1. Togaviridae;2. Flaviviridae;3. Bunyaviridae

3164

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1583:Medical importance of Togaviruses

3165

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Rubella (German measles);2. Eastern equine encephalitis;3. Western equine encephalitis

3166

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1584:List of Retroviruses

3167

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. HIV;2. HTLV

3168

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1585:Medical importance of Coronavirus

3169

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. common cold;2. SARS

3170

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1586:Medical importance of Orthomyxovirus

3171

Microbiology Flash Facts

Influenza

3172

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1587:List of Paramyxoviruses

3173

Microbiology Flash Facts

PaRaMyxovirus;1. Parainfluenza;2. RSV;3. Measles;4. Mumps

3174

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1588:Medical importance of Parainfluenza

3175

Microbiology Flash Facts

croup

3176

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1589:Medical importance of RSV

3177

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bronchiolitis in babies. Treat with Ribavirin.

3178

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1590:Medical importance of Rhabdoviruses

3179

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rabies

3180

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1591:Medical importance of Filoviruses

3181

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ebola or Marburg hemorrhagic fever; both are often fatal

3182

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1592:Medical importance of Arenaviruses

3183

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. LCV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis);2. Meningitis (spread by mice)

3184

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1593:Medical importance of LCV

3185

Microbiology Flash Facts

lymphocytic choriomeningitis

3186

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1594:Medical importance of Hantavirus

3187

Microbiology Flash Facts

hemorrhagic fever; pneumonia

3188

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1595:Medical importance of Bunyaviruses

3189

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. California encephalitis;2. Sandfly/Rift Valley fevers;3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever;4. Hantavirus

3190

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1596:Characterize Picornaviruses

3191

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into functional viral proteins;2. All except Rhino and HAV can cause aseptic meningitis

3192

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1597:How many serotypes of Rhinovirus?

3193

Microbiology Flash Facts

100

3194

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1598:Mechanism of rotavirus diarrhea

3195

Microbiology Flash Facts

Villous destruction with atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na and water

3196

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1599:How many serotypes of Paramyxovirus?

3197

Microbiology Flash Facts

all viruses have 1 except parainfluenza which has 4

3198

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1600:Signs and symptoms of mumps

3199

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mnemonic: Mumps make your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms;1. Parotitis;2. Orchitis (inflammation of testes; can cause sterility especially after puberty);3. Meningitis

3200

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1601:Signs and symptoms of measles

3201

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa) diagnostic;2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (child; many years after measles infection; slowly progressing);3. Encephalitis;4. Giant cell pneumonia (in immunosuppressed);5. 3 Cs: (Cough; coryza; conjunctivitis);6. Head to toe rash lasting 6 days (slowly dripping bucket of paint)
3202

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1602:Antigens in influenza virus

3203

Microbiology Flash Facts

Hemaglutinin and Neuraminidase

3204

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1603:Difference between genetic drift and shift

3205

Microbiology Flash Facts

Drift: Minor changes based on random mutation;Shift: Reassortment of viral genome (such as when flu A virus recombines with swine flu A virus);Sudden Shift is more deadly than graDual Drift

3206

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1604:Treatment for influenza

3207

Microbiology Flash Facts

A only: Amantadine and rimantadine;A and B: Zanamivir and Oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors) for both influenza A and B

3208

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1605:What are negri bodies?

3209

Microbiology Flash Facts

Characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies virus.

3210

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1606:What shape is the rabies capsid?

3211

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bullet shaped.

3212

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1607:Mechanism of rabies disease

3213

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Animal bite;2. Virus travels to CNS in retrograde fashion up nerve axons;3. Incubates for weeks to 3 months

3214

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1608:What does rabies cause?

3215

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fatal enchephalitis with seizures and hydrophobia

3216

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1609:How is rabies acquired?

3217

Microbiology Flash Facts

US: Skunk; raccoon and bat bites;Abroad: Dog bites

3218

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1610:What is dengue fever?

3219

Microbiology Flash Facts

break-bone fever; caused by flaviviruses. A variant in Southeast Asia is hemorrhagic shock syndrome.

3220

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1611:How is yellow fever transmitted?

3221

Microbiology Flash Facts

Arbovirus; by Aedes mosquitos; from monkey or human reservoir

3222

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1612:Signs and symptoms of yellow fever

3223

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. High fever;2. Black vomitus;3. Jaundice;4. Councilman bodies in liver (nonspecific)

3224

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1613:How is HSV-1 transmitted?

3225

Microbiology Flash Facts

Respiratory secretions and saliva

3226

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1614:How is HSV-2 transmitted?

3227

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sexual contact and perinatally

3228

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1615:How is VZV transmitted?

3229

Microbiology Flash Facts

Respiratory secretions

3230

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1616:How is EBV transmitted?

3231

Microbiology Flash Facts

Respiratory secretions; saliva

3232

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1617:How is CMV transmitted?

3233

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Congenital;2. Transfusion;3. Sexual contact;4. Saliva;5. Urine;6. Transplant

3234

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1618:How is HHV-8 transmitted?

3235

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sexual contact

3236

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1619:Treatment for CMV

3237

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ganciclovir or Foscarnet

3238

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1620:What kind of cell does Epstein Barr virus infect?

3239

Microbiology Flash Facts

B cells

3240

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1621:How does mononucleosis present?

3241

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Fever;2. Hepatosplenomegaly;3. Pharyngitis;4. Lymphadenopathy (especially posterior auricular nodes)

3242

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1622:Peak incidence of mononucleosis

3243

Microbiology Flash Facts

15-20 years old (peak kissing years)

3244

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1623:Laboratory diagnosis of mononucleosis

3245

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Monospot test: Heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs. In EBV; positive. In CMV; negative;2. Abnormal circulating CD8 cells.

3246

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1624:Tzanck test

3247

Microbiology Flash Facts

Smear of opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells. Used to assay for HSV-1; HSV-2; VZV;Mnem: Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes. (helps if you do it in an eastern european accent)

3248

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1625:HAV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers

3249

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus family: ssRNA picornavirus;Envelope: no;Incubation period: Short (3 weeks);Transmission: Fecal-oral;Carriers: No

3250

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1626:HBV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers

3251

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus family: dsDNA hepadna virus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Long (3 months);Transmission: Parenteral; sexual; in utero;Carriers: Yes

3252

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1627:HCV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers

3253

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus family: ssRNA flavivirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 5 months);Transmission: Blood;Carriers: Yes

3254

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1628:HDV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers

3255

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus family: ssRNA deltavirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission: Parenteral; sexual; in utero;Carriers: Yes

3256

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1629:HEV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers

3257

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus family: ssRNA calicivirus;Envelope: no;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission: Fecaloral;Carriers: No

3258

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1630:Characterize Hepatitis A

3259

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Asymptomatic (usually);2. Acute;3. Alone (no carriers; naked ssRNA)

3260

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1631:Characterize Hepatitis B

3261

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blood borne

3262

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1632:Characterize Hepatitis C

3263

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Chronic;2. Cirrhosis;3. Carcinoma;4. Carriers

3264

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1633:Characterize Hepatitis D

3265

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Defective;2. Dependent on HBV

3266

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1634:Characterize Hepatitis E

3267

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Enteric;2. Expectant mothers (high mortality rate);3. Epidemics

3268

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1635:What does IgM HAVAb measure?

3269

Microbiology Flash Facts

IgM antibody to HAV. Best test to detect active Hepatitis A.

3270

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1636:What does HBsAg measure?

3271

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBV surface antigen. Continued presence indicates carrier state.

3272

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1637:What does HBsAb measure?

3273

Microbiology Flash Facts

Antibody to HBsAg. Provides immunity to hepatitis B.

3274

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1638:What does HBcAg measure?

3275

Microbiology Flash Facts

Antigen associated with core of HBV; doesn't seem to be measured.

3276

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1639:What does HBcAb measure?

3277

Microbiology Flash Facts

Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of recent disease.

3278

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1640:What does HBeAg measure?

3279

Microbiology Flash Facts

A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!)

3280

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1641:What does HBeAb measure?

3281

Microbiology Flash Facts

Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility.

3282

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1642:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is positive;HBsAb is negative;HBcAb is positive;

3283

Microbiology Flash Facts

Acute disease. (HBcAb is IgM in acute stage; and IgG in chronic or recovered stage.)

3284

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1643:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is negative;HBsAb is negative;HBcAb is positive;

3285

Microbiology Flash Facts

Window phase; follows acute infection.

3286

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1644:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is negative;HBsAb is positive;HBcAb is positive;

3287

Microbiology Flash Facts

Complete recovery.

3288

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1645:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is positive;HBsAb is negative;HBcAb is positive;

3289

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chronic carrier. (Surface antibody is present; but bound to surface antigen.)

3290

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1646:What is gag?

3291

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gene that encodes for p24 capsid; the nucleocapsid in HIV

3292

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1647:What is env?

3293

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins; the envelope proteins in HIV.

3294

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1648:What is p17?

3295

Microbiology Flash Facts

Interior envelope protein in HIV

3296

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1649:What is p24?

3297

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nucleocapsid protein in HIV; coded for by gag gene.

3298

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1650:What is gp41?

3299

Microbiology Flash Facts

Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom stalk; then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env.

3300

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1651:What is gp120?

3301

Microbiology Flash Facts

Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk. Both coded for by env.

3302

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1652:What is pol?

3303

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gene which codes for HIV reverse transcriptase

3304

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1653:HIV diagnostic tests

3305

Microbiology Flash Facts

Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA (sensitive; high false-positive rate; and low threshhold);Confirmation: Western blot assay (specific; high false-negative rate; and high threshold);PCR viral load used to monitor drug therapy on viral load

3306

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1654:Timeframe for HIV diagnosis

3307

Microbiology Flash Facts

ELISA/Western blot often;Falsely negative in first 1-2 months of HIV infection;Falsely positive initially in babies born to infected mothers (anti-gp120 crosses placenta)

3308

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1655:AIDS diagnosis

3309

Microbiology Flash Facts

One of the following;1. less than 200 CD4 cells;2. HIV positive with AIDS indicator condition (eg pneumocystis infection);3. CD4/CD8 ratio less than 1.5

3310

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1656:CCR5 mutation: What does it mean?

3311

Microbiology Flash Facts

HIV susceptibility;Homozygous means immunity; heterozygous means slower course (long-term non production)

3312

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1657:CXCR1 mutation

3313

Microbiology Flash Facts

HIV susceptibility. Rapid progression to AIDS.

3314

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1658:What is the likelihood of CCR5 mutation?

3315

Microbiology Flash Facts

% of US caucasians;Homozygous: 1;Heterozygous: 20

3316

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1659:Relative HIV-related levels aproximately 1.5 months after infection

3317

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (initial trough);2. Virus p24 antigen (initial peak);3. Anti-p24 Ab;4. Anti-gp120 Abs;Highest period of acute symptoms

3318

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1660:Relative HIV-related levels aproximately 2 months after infection

3319

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (rise from initial trough back to near pre-infection levels before leveling out [the mark of end of acute symptoms]);2. Anti-p24 Ab (Reaching peak [not reached until approximately 3 years]);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (Reaching peak [not reached until approximately 3 years]);4. Virus p24 antigen (very low levels)
3320

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1661:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Early phase

3321

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (begins linear descent);2. Anti-p24 Ab (descent begins at faster rate than CD4);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent begins);4. Virus p24 antigen (slow rise)

3322

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1662:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: First middle phase

3323

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);3. Antip24 Ab (having dropped below Anti-gp120; descent continues at slower rate);4. Virus p24 antigen (fast rise begins)

3324

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1663:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Second middle phase

3325

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent);AND;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp-120 Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);3. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3 amount of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)

3326

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1664:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Third middle phase

3327

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp120 Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);2. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent; about to drop below anti-g120 Abs);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);4. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3 to 1/4 amount of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)
3328

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1665:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Late phase

3329

Microbiology Flash Facts

In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (leveled out at nearly 20x anti-p24 antibody);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (little less than half p24 antigen);3. Anti-p24 Ab (1/20 amount of p24 antigen);AND;3. CD4 lymphocytes

3330

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1666:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the brain

3331

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Cryptococcal meningitis;2. Toxoplasmosis;3. CMV encephalopathy;4. AIDS dementia;5. PML (JC virus)

3332

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1667:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the eyes

3333

Microbiology Flash Facts

CMV retinitis

3334

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1668:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the mouth and throat

3335

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Thrush (Candida albicans);2. HSV;3. CMV;4. Oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV)

3336

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1669:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the lungs

3337

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP);2. TB;3. Histoplasmosis

3338

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1670:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the GI tract

3339

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Cryptosporidiosis;2. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex;3. CMV colitis;4. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (EBV)

3340

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1671:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the skin

3341

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Shingles (VZV);2. Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)

3342

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1672:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the genitals

3343

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Genital herpes;2. Genital warts;3. Cervical cancer (HPV)

3344

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1673:When does HIV encephalitis occur?

3345

Microbiology Flash Facts

Late in the course of HIV infection

3346

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1674:Mechanism of HIV encephalitis

3347

Microbiology Flash Facts

Virus gains CNS access via infected macrophages

3348

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1675:Pathologic presentation of HIV encephalitis

3349

Microbiology Flash Facts

Microglial nodules with multinucleated giant cells

3350

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1676:What are prions?

3351

Microbiology Flash Facts

Infectious agents that do not contain RNA or DNA; only proteins; that are encoded by cellular genes.

3352

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1677:Diseases caused by prions

3353

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease;2. Kuru;3. Scrapie (in sheep);4. Mad cow disease (association with human spongiform encephalopathy);5. Fatal familial insomnia

3354

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1678:What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

3355

Microbiology Flash Facts

Prion caused disease with rapid progressive dementia

3356

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1679:Mechanism of prion pathology

3357

Microbiology Flash Facts

Normal proteins (alpha-helices) become pathologic (betapleated sheets)

3358

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1680:DNA viruses

3359

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHAPPPy viruses!;Herpes;Hepadna;Adeno;Papova;Parvo;Pox

3360

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1681:adenovirus basics

3361

Microbiology Flash Facts

linear dsDNA;naked

3362

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1682:adenovirus transmission

3363

Microbiology Flash Facts

resp; ocular secretions

3364

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1683:adenovirus sx

3365

Microbiology Flash Facts

acute resp dz (ARD);conjunctivitis;gastroenteritis

3366

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1684:adenovirus vaccine

3367

Microbiology Flash Facts

live nonattentuated;oral;used in military

3368

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1685:papovaviruses include

3369

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV;BK;JC;PA/PO/VAviruses are all abbreviated!

3370

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1686:JC virus causes

3371

Microbiology Flash Facts

PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy);esp in AIDS pts

3372

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1687:herpesvirus basics

3373

Microbiology Flash Facts

large dsDNA virus;enveloped

3374

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1688:VZV transmission

3375

Microbiology Flash Facts

resp secretions

3376

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1689:chickenpox incubation

3377

Microbiology Flash Facts

2 wks

3378

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1690:varicella vaccine

3379

Microbiology Flash Facts

live attenuated

3380

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1691:EBV transmission

3381

Microbiology Flash Facts

saliva; resp secretions

3382

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1692:EBV associations

3383

Microbiology Flash Facts

burkitt lymphoma;nasopharyngeal carcinoma;hairy oral leukoplakia (immunocompromised)

3384

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1693:oncogene in burkitt lymphoma

3385

Microbiology Flash Facts

c-myc

3386

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1694:EBV cells on peripheral smear

3387

Microbiology Flash Facts

atypical lymphocytes = activated T cells;foamy cytoplasm (Downy cells)

3388

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1695:Paul-Bunnell test

3389

Microbiology Flash Facts

monospot

3390

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1696:blueberry muffin baby

3391

Microbiology Flash Facts

deaf baby with hemorrhagic cutaneous lesions;*congenital CMV*

3392

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1697:HHV-6

3393

Microbiology Flash Facts

causes "sixth disease" = roseola = exanthema subitum

3394

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1698:HHV-8

3395

Microbiology Flash Facts

cofactor in Kaposi sarcoma

3396

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1699:poxviruses include

3397

Microbiology Flash Facts

variola (smallpox);molluscum contagiosum;cowpox

3398

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1700:umbilicated wart-like lesions

3399

Microbiology Flash Facts

molluscum

3400

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1701:hepadnaviruses include

3401

Microbiology Flash Facts

hepatitis B virus

3402

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1702:parvovirus (B19) basics

3403

Microbiology Flash Facts

small ssDNA virus

3404

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1703:parvovirus causes

3405

Microbiology Flash Facts

erythema infectiosum (fifth dz);aplastic crisis;hydrops fetalis

3406

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1704:picornavirus basics

3407

Microbiology Flash Facts

(+)ssRNA;naked

3408

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1705:picornaviruses include

3409

Microbiology Flash Facts

PERCH on a "peak" (pico);Polio;ECHO;Rhino;Coxsackie;Hepatitis

3410

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1706:poliovirus vaccine(s)

3411

Microbiology Flash Facts

live attenuated (oral);killed

3412

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1707:ECHO viruses

3413

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan;infect GI tract; esp. in summer;aseptic meningitis; fever; rash; enteritis; common cold; hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

3414

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1708:coxsackie season

3415

Microbiology Flash Facts

summer + fall

3416

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1709:coxsackie transmission

3417

Microbiology Flash Facts

nasopharyngeal secretions;also fecal-oral

3418

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1710:hepatitis A caused by

3419

Microbiology Flash Facts

enterovirus 72 (picornavirus)

3420

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1711:herpangina

3421

Microbiology Flash Facts

coxsackie A

3422

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1712:hand-foot-and-mouth dz

3423

Microbiology Flash Facts

coxsackie A

3424

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1713:Conjunctivitis; paryngitis;Dense basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies;Diarrhea in infant;Infectious genome;Poorly chlorinated swimming pools

3425

Microbiology Flash Facts

Double-stranded Naked DNA Adenovirus

3426

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1714:Culex mosquito;Arbovirus;Woods;La Crosse virus;Encephalitis;Meningitis

3427

Microbiology Flash Facts

Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome California encephalitis viruses (Bunyviruses)

3428

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1715:Hemorrhagic;Petechiae;Ecchymosis;Bleeding tissues;Rodent feces and urine

3429

Microbiology Flash Facts

Single-stranded (-) RNA Enveloped Hantavirus (Bunyaviruses)

3430

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1716:Rodents;Flu-like symptoms;Slums;Ribavirin

3431

Microbiology Flash Facts

Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (Arenaviruses)

3432

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1717:Hemorrhagic;Rodents

3433

Microbiology Flash Facts

Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome Lhassa fever

3434

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1718:Common cold;SARS;Fecal-oral and respiratory spread

3435

Microbiology Flash Facts

Single-stranded RNA (+) enveloped Coronaviruses

3436

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1719:Cowdry type A inclusion bodies;Neurotropic;Zanck smear;Multinucleated giant cells Stress-induced recurrance Encephalitis;Temporal lobe destruction;Blindness;Neonatal infection

3437

Microbiology Flash Facts

Double stranded DNA enveloped Herpes simplex virus

3438

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1720:only ssDNA virus

3439

Microbiology Flash Facts

parvovirus (par one)

3440

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1721:only dsRNA virus

3441

Microbiology Flash Facts

reovirus (REpeatOvirus)

3442

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1722:Naked RNA viruses

3443

Microbiology Flash Facts

NAKED CPR;Calicivirus; Picornavirus; Reovirus

3444

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1723:Which virus acquires its envelop from nuclear membrane

3445

Microbiology Flash Facts

Herpesvirus

3446

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1724:which virus is diploid

3447

Microbiology Flash Facts

retrovirus has 2 identical copies of ssRNA

3448

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1725:1. Where do DNA viruses replication;2. Exception

3449

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. nucleus;2. poxvirus (carries its own DNA-dependent RNA pol)

3450

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1726:1. Where do RNA viruses replication;2. exception

3451

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. cytoplasm;2. influenza; retrovirus

3452

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1727:DNA viruses

3453

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHAPPPy;Hepadna; Herpes;Adeno;Pox; Pavo; Papova

3454

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1728:All DNA viruses are linear except...

3455

Microbiology Flash Facts

Papovavirus (circular; supercoiled);Hepadena (circular; incomplete)

3456

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1729:All DNA viruses are ichosahedra except...

3457

Microbiology Flash Facts

POX IN A BOX

3458

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1730:Naked DNA viruses

3459

Microbiology Flash Facts

You need to be naked for a PAP;Papova;Adeno;Parvo

3460

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1731:Enveloped DNA

3461

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPH;Hepadna;Pox;Herpes

3462

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1732:1. What type of immunity do live attenuated vaccines confer?;2. Why can't they be given to immunocompromised patients

3463

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humoral and cell-mediated;may revert to virulence

3464

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1733:Immunity conferred by killed vaccines

3465

Microbiology Flash Facts

humoral

3466

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1734:Which vaccines are live attenuated?

3467

Microbiology Flash Facts

MMR;Sabin ;VZV;yellow fever;smallpox;adeno

3468

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1735:Which vaccines are killed?

3469

Microbiology Flash Facts

RIP Always: Rabies; Infulenza; salk Polio; HAV;SalK = Killed

3470

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1736:Egg-based

3471

Microbiology Flash Facts

FRY an egg: Flu; MMR; Yellow fever

3472

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1737:Recombinant vaccine

3473

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBV

3474

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1738:Negative stranded viruses

3475

Microbiology Flash Facts

Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication;Arenavirus;Bunyavirus;Paramyxovirus;Orthomys ovirus;Filovirus;Rhabdovirus

3476

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1739:Segmented Viruses

3477

Microbiology Flash Facts

BOAR;Bunya;Orthomyo;arena;reo

3478

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1740:Picornavirus

3479

Microbiology Flash Facts

PERCH on a "peak";Polio;Echo;Rhino;Coxsachie;HAV

3480

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1741:MCC infantile gastroenteritis

3481

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rota

3482

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1742:MCC common cold

3483

Microbiology Flash Facts

rhino

3484

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1743:Name the 4 paramyxoviruses

3485

Microbiology Flash Facts

PaRaMyxovirus;Parainfluenza - croup;RSV - bronchiolitis in babies;Measles;Mumps

3486

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1744:Mumps: Virus; symptoms

3487

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. paramyovirus w/ 1 serotype;2. Parotitis; orchitis; aspetic Meningitis

3488

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1745:Koplik spots

3489

Microbiology Flash Facts

measles

3490

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1746:Measles symptoms

3491

Microbiology Flash Facts

3C's: cough; coryza; conjunctivitis

3492

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1747:Measles describe rash

3493

Microbiology Flash Facts

head to toe spread

3494

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1748:Measles complications

3495

Microbiology Flash Facts

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis SSPE;encephalitis;giant cell pneumonia

3496

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1749:Influenza prophylaxis and tx

3497

Microbiology Flash Facts

Influenza A prophylaxis: Amantadine and rimantadine;A and B: Zanamivir and osteltamivir

3498

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1750:negri bodies

3499

Microbiology Flash Facts

rabies

3500

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1751:bullet-shaped capsid

3501

Microbiology Flash Facts

rabies

3502

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1752:HSV-1: diseases

3503

Microbiology Flash Facts

Gingivostomatitis;Keratoconjunctivitis;oral (and some gential) lesions;temporal lobe encephalitis

3504

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1753:heterophilic + mono

3505

Microbiology Flash Facts

EBV

3506

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1754:roseola (exanthem subitum)

3507

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHV-6

3508

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1755:adenovirus: diseases

3509

Microbiology Flash Facts

pharyngitis & pneumonia;ARD;PCF;Keratoconjunctivitis;GU infections;enteric infections

3510

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1756:fifth disease

3511

Microbiology Flash Facts

B19 parvovirus

3512

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1757:parvovirus: diseases

3513

Microbiology Flash Facts

fifth disease - erythema infectiosum;hydrops fetalis;aplastic crises in sickle cell disease

3514

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1758:HHV8

3515

Microbiology Flash Facts

kaposi sarcoma

3516

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1759:papova: diseases

3517

Microbiology Flash Facts

HPV;JC - progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy;BK

3518

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1760:Pox: diseases

3519

Microbiology Flash Facts

small pox;vaccinia - cowpox;molluscum contagiosum

3520

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1761:coxsackie: diseases

3521

Microbiology Flash Facts

aspeptic meningitis;herpangina;hand/foot/mouth disease;myocarditis

3522

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1762:calicivirus: diseases

3523

Microbiology Flash Facts

HEV;norwalk - gastroenteritis

3524

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1763:Reo: diseases

3525

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reo - colorado tick fever;rota

3526

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1764:#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children

3527

Microbiology Flash Facts

rotavirus (reovirus)

3528

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1765:Flavi: diseases

3529

Microbiology Flash Facts

HCV;Yellow fever;dengue;st. louis encephalitis;west nile

3530

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1766:Togavirus: diseases

3531

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rubella (germal measles);WEE;EEE

3532

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1767:Retro: diseases

3533

Microbiology Flash Facts

HIV - AIDS;HTLV - T cell leukemia

3534

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1768:Cornonavirus: diseases

3535

Microbiology Flash Facts

corona;SARS

3536

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1769:Paramyxovirus: diseases

3537

Microbiology Flash Facts

Parainfluenza - croup;RSV - bronchioliltis in babies;Measles;Mumps

3538

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1770:Filo: diseases

3539

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ebola/marburg hemorrhagic fever

3540

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1771:arena: diseases

3541

Microbiology Flash Facts

LCV - lymphocytic choriomeningitis;Meningitis - spread by mice

3542

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1772:Bunyavirus: diseases

3543

Microbiology Flash Facts

California encephalitis;sandfly/rift valley fever;crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever;hantavirus - hemorrhagic fever; pneumonia

3544

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1773:mechanism of antigenic shift and drift

3545

Microbiology Flash Facts

shift - genetic reassortment;drift - mutations;Sudden Shift is more deadly than a graDual Drift

3546

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1774:Arbovirusus

3547

Microbiology Flash Facts

Borne virus: flavi; toga; bunyavirus;transmitted by arthropods

3548

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1775:high fever; black vomitus; jaundice; councilman bodies (acidophilic inclusions)

3549

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yellow fever (flavi)

3550

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1776:Atypical lymphocytes

3551

Microbiology Flash Facts

mono caused by EBV

3552

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1777:Diagnosis of HSV

3553

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tzanck test - look for multinucleated giant cells;Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes

3554

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1778:Hepatitis serologic markers: best test to detect active HAV

3555

Microbiology Flash Facts

IgM HAV Ab

3556

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1779:Hepatitis serologic markers: continued presence indicates carrier state

3557

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBsAg

3558

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1780:Hepatitis serologic markers: immunity to HBV

3559

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBsAb

3560

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1781:Hepatitis serologic markers: core of HBV

3561

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBcAg

3562

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1782:Hepatitis serologic markers: Ab + during window phase

3563

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBc Ab;IgM is an indicator of recent disease

3564

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1783:Hepatitis serologic markers: indicator of transmissibility

3565

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBeAg

3566

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1784:Hepatitis serologic markers: low transmissibility

3567

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBeAb

3568

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1785:Hepatitis serologic markers: + during Acute Disease

3569

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBsAg;HBcAB (IgM = acute; IgG = chronic)

3570

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1786:Hepatitis serologic markers: + during complete recovery

3571

Microbiology Flash Facts

HBsAb;HBcAb

3572

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1787:Where are gp41 and gp120 found

3573

Microbiology Flash Facts

envelop proteins of HIV

3574

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1788:DOC for Onchocerciasis

3575

Microbiology Flash Facts

rIVER blindness is treated with IVERmectin

3576

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1789:Pink eye

3577

Microbiology Flash Facts

Adenovirus type B

3578

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1790:Fifth disease = Erythema Infectiosum

3579

Microbiology Flash Facts

Parvovirus B19

3580

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1791:IFN mode of action

3581

Microbiology Flash Facts

inhibits viral replication

3582

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1792:Infection by Tsetse fly

3583

Microbiology Flash Facts

T. brucei = African sleeping sickness

3584

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1793:Infection by Sandfly

3585

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leishmaniasis

3586

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1794:Roseola infection = Exanthema Subitum

3587

Microbiology Flash Facts

HHV-6

3588

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1795:only ssDNA virus

3589

Microbiology Flash Facts

Parvovirus

3590

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1796:only dsRNA virus

3591

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reovirus = repeatOvirus

3592

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1797:3 Naked RNA viruses

3593

Microbiology Flash Facts

Naked for CPR;;Calcivirus;Picornavirus;Reovirus

3594

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1798:2 circular DNA viruses

3595

Microbiology Flash Facts

Papovavirus;Hepadnavirus

3596

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1799:Hepatitis virus families: ABCDE

3597

Microbiology Flash Facts

A = Picorna;B = Hepadna;C = Flavi;D = Delta;E = Calici

3598

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1800:Only Rickettsia not intracellular

3599

Microbiology Flash Facts

Quintana

3600

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1801:Arthroconidia

3601

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coddiodes

3602

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1802:Obligate parasite;Kills type I pneumocytes;Groung glass appearance

3603

Microbiology Flash Facts

PCP

3604

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1803:Cytokine that stimulates proliferation of B; T; and NK cells

3605

Microbiology Flash Facts

IL-2

3606

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1804:Only DNA virus to replicate in Cytoplasm

3607

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pox

3608

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1805:Only RNA virus to replicate in Nucleus

3609

Microbiology Flash Facts

Influenza

3610

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1806:Sexuality of fungal spores

3611

Microbiology Flash Facts

Asexual (mostly)

3612

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1807:Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores?

3613

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Coccidioidomycosis;2. Histoplasmosis

3614

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1808:What are conidia?

3615

Microbiology Flash Facts

Asexual fungal spores

3616

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1809:What disease states does Candida albicans cause?

3617

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Thrush esophagitis in immunocompromised patients (neonates; steroids; diabetes; AIDS);2. endocarditis in IV drug users;3. vaginitis post-antibiotic use;4. diaper rash;5. Disseminated candidiasis to any organ;6. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

3618

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1810:Treatment for Candida Albicans infection

3619

Microbiology Flash Facts

Superficial: Nystatin;Serious systemic: Amphotericin B

3620

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1811:Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans

3621

Microbiology Flash Facts

Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius;Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius

3622

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1812:Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised

3623

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans

3624

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1813:Which fungus causes vulvovaginitis?

3625

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans (high pH; diabetes; use of antibiotics)

3626

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1814:Which fungus is endemic to Southwestern US?

3627

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioidomycosis

3628

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1815:Which fungus is endemic to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys

3629

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3630

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1816:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Ohio

3631

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3632

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1817:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Illinois

3633

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3634

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1818:What fungus is this area known for: Missouri

3635

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3636

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1819:What fungus is this area known for: Kentucky

3637

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3638

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1820:What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee

3639

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3640

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1821:What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas

3641

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3642

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1822:What fungus is this area known for: Southern California

3643

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidiomycosis

3644

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1823:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Arizona

3645

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidiomycosis

3646

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1824:What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river valley

3647

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

3648

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1825:What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley

3649

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

3650

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1826:What fungus is this area known for: Southwestern US

3651

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidiomycosis

3652

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1827:What fungus is this area known for: Rural Latin America

3653

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paracoccidioidomycosis

3654

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1828:What fungus is this area known for: Wisconsin

3655

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomycosis

3656

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1829:What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota

3657

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomycosis

3658

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1830:Characterize histoplasmosis histologically

3659

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tiny yeast inside macrophages. Thin cell wall with no true capsule.

3660

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1831:What is the vector for histoplasmosis?

3661

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bird or bat droppings

3662

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1832:What do bird and bat droppings carry?

3663

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

3664

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1833:What characterizes dimorphic fungi?

3665

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body temperature);Mnemonic: Cold is mold; heat is yeast

3666

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1834:List the dimorphic fungi

3667

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis; Blastomycosis; and Paracoccidioidomycosis (but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue)

3668

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1835:Treatment for coccidiomycosis

3669

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin B

3670

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1836:Treatment for paracoccidiomycosis

3671

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin B

3672

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1837:Treatment for Histoplasmosis

3673

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin B

3674

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1838:Treatment for Blastomycosis

3675

Microbiology Flash Facts

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin B

3676

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1839:What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar?

3677

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi)

3678

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1840:What disease state does Malassezia furfur cause?

3679

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in hot humid weather.

3680

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1841:Treatment for Tinea versicolor

3681

Microbiology Flash Facts

Topical miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)

3682

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1842:What resembles spaghetti and meatballs histologically?

3683

Microbiology Flash Facts

combination of mycelium strands and numerous spores of Malassezia furfur in KOH prep

3684

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1843:What disease state does Cladosporium werneckii cause?

3685

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tinea nigra: Infection of keratinized layer of skin. Appears as brownish spot.

3686

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1844:What causes Tinea versicolor?

3687

Microbiology Flash Facts

Malassezia furfur

3688

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1845:What causes Tinea nigra?

3689

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cladosporium werneckii

3690

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1846:Treatment for Tinea nigra

3691

Microbiology Flash Facts

topical salicylic acid

3692

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1847:What are the common dermatophytes and what do they cause?

3693

Microbiology Flash Facts

Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton;cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra

3694

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1848:What causes Tinea corporis?

3695

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3696

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1849:What causes Tinea cruris?

3697

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3698

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1850:What causes Tinea pedis?

3699

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3700

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1851:What causes Tinea capitis?

3701

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3702

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1852:What causes Tinea unguium?

3703

Microbiology Flash Facts

AKA Tinea onychomycosis;Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3704

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1853:What causes Tinea onychomycosis?

3705

Microbiology Flash Facts

AKA Tinea unguium;Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)

3706

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1854:How does Tinea corporis present?

3707

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ring shape with a red raised border

3708

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1855:How does Tinea cruris present?

3709

Microbiology Flash Facts

AKA jock itch;Itchy red patches on groin and scrotum

3710

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1856:How does Tinea capitis present?

3711

Microbiology Flash Facts

AKA athlete's foot;Begins between toes and causes cracking and peeling of the skin.

3712

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1857:How does Tinea unguium/onychomycosis present?

3713

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nails are thickened discolored and brittle

3714

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1858:Lab diagnosis of dermatophyte infection

3715

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Dissolve skin scrapings in KOH; which digests the keratin. Microscopic examination reveals branched hyphae;2. Direct examination of skin with Wood's light (UV light at 365 nm wavelength) will fuoresce green if Microsporum.

3716

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1859:Treatment for dermatophyte infection

3717

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Topical imidazoles;2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and tinea unguium)

3718

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1860:What causes a fungus ball?

3719

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus

3720

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1861:What disease states does Aspergillus cause?

3721

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis;2. Lung cavity aspergilloma;3. Invasive aspergillosis

3722

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1862:Histologic appearance of aspergillus

3723

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies.

3724

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1863:What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans cause?

3725

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Cryptococcal meningitis;2. Cryptococcosis

3726

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1864:Histologic appearance of cryptococcus neoformans

3727

Microbiology Flash Facts

5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal budding.

3728

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1865:How is cryptococcus neoformans stained?

3729

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. India ink;2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide capsular antigen

3730

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1866:Where is cryptococcus neoformans found?

3731

Microbiology Flash Facts

Soil and pigeon droppings.

3732

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1867:What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?

3733

Microbiology Flash Facts

Just like Rhizopus;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking; nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

3734

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1868:What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?

3735

Microbiology Flash Facts

Just like Mucor;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking; nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

3736

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1869:Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?

3737

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Ketoacidotic diabetics;2. Leukemics

3738

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1870:Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?

3739

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Walls of blood vessels; causing infarction of distal tissue;2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses

3740

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1871:What is pneumocystis jirovecii?

3741

Microbiology Flash Facts

Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan)

3742

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1872:What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?

3743

Microbiology Flash Facts

Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease.

3744

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1873:How is pneumocystis diagnosed?

3745

Microbiology Flash Facts

Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

3746

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1874:Treatment for pneumocystis

3747

Microbiology Flash Facts

Combination of TMP-SMX; Pentamidine; and Dapsone.

3748

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1875:Characterization of sporotrix schenckii

3749

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.

3750

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1876:Presentation of sporotrichosis

3751

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn;2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis);3. Little systemic illness

3752

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1877:What is rose gardener's disease?

3753

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sporotrichosis

3754

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1878:Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii

3755

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding

3756

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1879:Treatment for sporotrichosis

3757

Microbiology Flash Facts

Itraconazole or potassium iodide

3758

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1880:What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

3759

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Amebiasis;2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery);3. liver abscess;4. RUQ pain

3760

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1881:What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?

3761

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Giardiasis;2. Bloating;3. Flatulence;4. Foul-smelling diarrhea

3762

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1882:What diseases are found in campers and hikers?

3763

Microbiology Flash Facts

Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia

3764

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1883:What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?

3765

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diarrhea;1. AIDS: Severe;2. Non-HIV: Mild watery

3766

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1884:What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?

3767

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. HIV: Brain abscess;2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)

3768

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1885:What disease states does Plasmodium cause?

3769

Microbiology Flash Facts

Malaria;1. Cyclic fever;2. Headache;3. Anemia;4. Splenomegaly;5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum)

3770

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1886:What disease states does Trichomonas cause?

3771

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge; strawberry-colored mucosa; and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.

3772

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1887:What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?

3773

Microbiology Flash Facts

Chagas' disease;1. Dilated cardiomyopathy;2. Megacolon;3. Megaesophagus

3774

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1888:What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense cause?

3775

Microbiology Flash Facts

African sleeping sickness

3776

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1889:What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense cause?

3777

Microbiology Flash Facts

African sleeping sickness

3778

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1890:What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?

3779

Microbiology Flash Facts

Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever);fever; weight loss; anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen

3780

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1891:What disease states does Naegleria cause?

3781

Microbiology Flash Facts

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

3782

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1892:What disease states does Babesia cause?

3783

Microbiology Flash Facts

Babesiosis: Fever and anemia

3784

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1893:Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?

3785

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Entamoeba histolytica;2. Giardia lamblia;3. Cryptosporidium;4. Toxoplasma;All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)

3786

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1894:Which protozoa are transmitted by insect?

3787

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes);2. Trypanosoma cruzi (Reduviid bug);3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly);4. Leishmania (Sandfly);5. Babesia (Ixodes tick)

3788

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1895:Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?

3789

Microbiology Flash Facts

Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)

3790

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1896:Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?

3791

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trichomonas vaginalis

3792

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1897:Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?

3793

Microbiology Flash Facts

Plasmodium

3794

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1898:Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?

3795

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses; cruzii by reduviid))

3796

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1899:Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?

3797

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses; cruzii by reduviid))

3798

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1900:Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?

3799

Microbiology Flash Facts

Leishmania

3800

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1901:Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?

3801

Microbiology Flash Facts

Babesia

3802

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1902:How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia

3803

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)

3804

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1903:How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica

3805

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool;AND/OR;2. Serology

3806

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1904:How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium

3807

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cysts on acid-fast stain

3808

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1905:How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma

3809

Microbiology Flash Facts

Serology; biopsy

3810

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1906:How do you diagnose: Plasmodium

3811

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blood smear

3812

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1907:How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma

3813

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blood smear

3814

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1908:How do you diagnose: Babesia

3815

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blood smear; no RBC pigment; appears as "maltese cross"

3816

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1909:How do you diagnose: Leishmania

3817

Microbiology Flash Facts

Macrophages containing amastigotes

3818

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1910:How do you diagnose: Naegleria

3819

Microbiology Flash Facts

Amebas in spinal fluid

3820

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1911:Treatment for: Entameba histolytica

3821

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

3822

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1912:Treatment for: Giardia lamblia

3823

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

3824

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1913:Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis

3825

Microbiology Flash Facts

Metronidazole

3826

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1914:Treatment for: Plasmodium

3827

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Choloroquine;2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P. ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage);3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine;4. Mefloquine;5. Quinine

3828

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1915:Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi

3829

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nifurtimox

3830

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1916:Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense

3831

Microbiology Flash Facts

If blood-borne; suramin;If CNS penetration; melarsoprol.

3832

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1917:Treatment for: Leishmania

3833

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sodium stibogluconate

3834

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1918:Treatment for: Babesia

3835

Microbiology Flash Facts

Qunine; clindamycin

3836

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1919:Treatment for: Toxoplasma

3837

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

3838

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1920:Type of bug: Candida albicans

3839

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus; cutaneous OR systemic infection

3840

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1921:Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis

3841

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; systemic infection

3842

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1922:Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum

3843

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection

3844

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1923:Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis

3845

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection

3846

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1924:Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

3847

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection

3848

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1925:Type of bug: Malassezia furfur

3849

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; superficial infection

3850

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1926:Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii

3851

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; superficial infection

3852

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1927:Type of bug: Microsporum

3853

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection

3854

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1928:Type of bug: Trichophyton

3855

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection

3856

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1929:Type of bug: Epidermophyton

3857

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection

3858

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1930:Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus

3859

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection

3860

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1931:Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans

3861

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection

3862

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1932:Type of bug: Mucor

3863

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection

3864

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1933:Type of bug: Rhizopus

3865

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection

3866

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1934:Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii

3867

Microbiology Flash Facts

Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection

3868

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1935:Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii

3869

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dimorphic fungus; subcutaneous infection with some lymphatic spread

3870

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1936:Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica

3871

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3872

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1937:Type of bug: Giardia lamblia

3873

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3874

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1938:Type of bug: Naegleria

3875

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3876

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1939:Type of bug: Plasmodium

3877

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3878

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1940:Type of bug: Cryptosporidium

3879

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3880

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1941:Type of bug: Toxoplasma

3881

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3882

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1942:Type of bug: Trichomonas

3883

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3884

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1943:Type of bug: Trypanosoma

3885

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3886

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1944:Type of bug: Leishmania

3887

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3888

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1945:Type of bug: Babesia

3889

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoan

3890

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1946:Type of bug: Taenia solium

3891

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

3892

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1947:Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus

3893

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

3894

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1948:Type of bug: Schistosoma

3895

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

3896

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1949:Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis

3897

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

3898

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1950:Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani

3899

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

3900

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1951:Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale

3901

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3902

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1952:Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides

3903

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3904

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1953:Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis

3905

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3906

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1954:Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris

3907

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3908

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1955:Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis

3909

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3910

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1956:Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis

3911

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3912

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1957:Type of bug: Loa loa

3913

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3914

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1958:Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus

3915

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3916

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1959:Type of bug: Toxocara canis

3917

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3918

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1960:Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti

3919

Microbiology Flash Facts

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

3920

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1961:Type of bug: Treponema

3921

Microbiology Flash Facts

Spirochete

3922

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1962:Which worm: Undercooked pork

3923

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Taenia solium (tapeworm);2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm)

3924

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1963:Which worm: Brain cysts

3925

Microbiology Flash Facts

Taenia solium (tapeworm)

3926

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1964:Which worm: Liver cysts

3927

Microbiology Flash Facts

Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

3928

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1965:Important points about echinococcus granulosus

3929

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tapeworm (Cestode);1. Ingested eggs from dog feces;2. Liver cysts;3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis

3930

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1966:Taenia solium: Treatment

3931

Microbiology Flash Facts

Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis

3932

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1967:Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment

3933

Microbiology Flash Facts

Albendazole

3934

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1968:Characterization of Schistosoma

3935

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fluke (Trematode);1. Hosted by snails;2. Penetrate skin of humans

3936

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1969:Presentation of Schistosoma

3937

Microbiology Flash Facts

Spleen and liver;1. Granulomas;2. Fibrosis;3. Inflammation

3938

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1970:Schistosoma: Treatment

3939

Microbiology Flash Facts

Praziquantel

3940

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1971:Which worm: Portal hypertension

3941

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma mansoni

3942

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1972:Which worm: Hematuria

3943

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium

3944

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1973:Which worm: Bladder cancer

3945

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium

3946

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1974:Important points about Clonorchis sinensis

3947

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fluke (trematode);1. Undercooked fish;2. Inflammation of biliary tract

3948

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1975:Which worm: Undercooked fish

3949

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clonorchis sinensis

3950

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1976:Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment

3951

Microbiology Flash Facts

Praziquantel

3952

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1977:Which worm: B12 deficiency

3953

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)

3954

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1978:Which worm: Undercooked crab meat

3955

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

3956

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1979:Important points about Pargonimus westermani

3957

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trematode (fluke);1. Undercooked crabmeat;2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung;3. Hemoptysis

3958

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1980:Which worm: Hemoptysis

3959

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

3960

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1981:Paragonimus westermani: Treatment

3961

Microbiology Flash Facts

Praziquantel

3962

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1982:Which worm: Microcytic anemia

3963

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)

3964

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1983:Which worm: Perianal pruritus

3965

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm; a roundworm)

3966

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1984:Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale

3967

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka hookworm;2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet;3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia

3968

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1985:Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment

3969

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

3970

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1986:Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides

3971

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!);2. Eggs are visible in feces;3. Intestinal infection

3972

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1987:Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment

3973

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

3974

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1988:Important points about Enterobius vermicularis

3975

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka pinworm;2. Food contaminated with eggs;3. Intestinal infection;4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test)

3976

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1989:Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment

3977

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

3978

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1990:Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis

3979

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin;2. Intestinal infection

3980

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1991:Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment

3981

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

3982

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1992:Important points about Trichinella spiralis

3983

Microbiology Flash Facts

Roundworm (nematode);1. Undercooked meat; usually pork;2. Inflammation of muscle;3. Periorbital edema

3984

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1993:Trichinella spiralis: Treatment

3985

Microbiology Flash Facts

Thiabendazole

3986

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1994:Important points about Dracunculus medinensis

3987

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. In drinking water;2. Skin inflammation and ulceration

3988

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1995:Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment

3989

Microbiology Flash Facts

Niridazole

3990

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1996:Important points about Loa loa

3991

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Transmitted by deer fly;2. Causes swelling in skin;3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva

3992

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1997:Loa loa: Treatment

3993

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diethylcarbamazine

3994

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1998:Important points about Onchocerca volvulus

3995

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Transmitted by female blackflies;2. Causes river blindness

3996

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q1999:Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment

3997

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ivermectin

3998

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2000:Important points about Toxocara canis

3999

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Food contaminated with eggs;2. Causes granulomas (if in retina; blindness);3. Visceral larva migrans

4000

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2001:Toxocara canis: Treatment

4001

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diethylcarbamazine

4002

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2002:Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti

4003

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nematode (roundworm);1. Female mosquito;2. Causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)

4004

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2003:Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment

4005

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diethylcarbamazine

4006

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2004:Cellular organization of protozoa vs helminths

4007

Microbiology Flash Facts

Protozoa -- unicellular;Helminths -- multicellular

4008

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2005:Adult "shape" of trematodes;What are they also known as?

4009

Microbiology Flash Facts

Flat; NON-segmented; leaf-shaped;Flukes

4010

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2006:Adult "shape" of cestodes;What are they also known as?

4011

Microbiology Flash Facts

Flat; segmented;Tapeworms

4012

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2007:Adult "shape" of nematodes;What are they also known as?

4013

Microbiology Flash Facts

Round;Roundworms

4014

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2008:General treatment for trematodes

4015

Microbiology Flash Facts

Praziquantel

4016

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2009:General treatments for Cestodes

4017

Microbiology Flash Facts

Albendazole;Praziquantel

4018

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2010:General treatment for Intestinal Nematodes

4019

Microbiology Flash Facts

Albendazole

4020

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2011:General treatments for Systemic Nematodes

4021

Microbiology Flash Facts

Albendazole;Diethylcarbamazine

4022

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2012:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of U.S. incidence

4023

Microbiology Flash Facts

1 -- Trichomonas;2 -- Giardia;3 -- Cryptosporidium;4 -Toxoplasma

4024

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2013:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of worldwide deaths

4025

Microbiology Flash Facts

1 -- Malaria;2 -- Dairrhea (crypto; giardia; amoeba);3 -Trypanosomiasis;4 -- Leishmania

4026

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2014:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of worldwide prevalence

4027

Microbiology Flash Facts

1 -- Ascaris;2 -- Hookworm;3 -- Schistosoma;4 -- Filaria

4028

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2015:Ranking of contribution to worldwide DALY score;(injuries vs cancer vs CV dz vs infection vs psych)

4029

Microbiology Flash Facts

Infection >> psych > CV dz > injuries > cancer

4030

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2016:Malaria transmits between what?;(? and ?)

4031

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humans and mosquitoes

4032

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2017:Filaria transmits between what?;(? and ?)

4033

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humans and mosquitoes

4034

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2018:Schistosoma transmits between what?;(? and ?)

4035

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humans and snails

4036

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2019:Taenia solium transmits between what?;(? and ?)

4037

Microbiology Flash Facts

Humans and pigs

4038

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2020:What is the definition of definitive host?

4039

Microbiology Flash Facts

Host in which parasite reaches sexual maturity

4040

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2021:Human only parasites (4)

4041

Microbiology Flash Facts

ASHE;A -- ascaris;S -- stronglyoides;H -- hookworm;E -entamoeba

4042

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2022:Significant animal/bug for toxoplasma gondii?

4043

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cat

4044

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2023:Significant animal/bug for plasmodium?

4045

Microbiology Flash Facts

Mosquito

4046

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2024:Significant animal/bug for trypanosoma cruzi?

4047

Microbiology Flash Facts

Reduviid bug

4048

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2025:Significant animal/bug for Leishmania?

4049

Microbiology Flash Facts

Sandfly

4050

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2026:Significant animal/bug for trypanosoma brucei?

4051

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tsetse fly

4052

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2027:Significant animal/bug for paragonimus westermani?

4053

Microbiology Flash Facts

Crabs

4054

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2028:Significant animal/bug for taenia saginata?

4055

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cattle

4056

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2029:Significant animal/bug for taenia solium?

4057

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pig

4058

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2030:Significant animal/bug for trichinella spiralis?

4059

Microbiology Flash Facts

Carnivores

4060

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2031:Significant animal/bug for ancylostoma?

4061

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dogs & cats

4062

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2032:Significant animal/bug for onchocerca medinensis?

4063

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blackfly

4064

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2033:Significant animal/bug for loa loa?

4065

Microbiology Flash Facts

Redfly

4066

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2034:Significant animal/bug for angiostrongylus?

4067

Microbiology Flash Facts

Snail

4068

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2035:brain cysts; seizures

4069

Microbiology Flash Facts

taenia solium (cysticercosis; Tx: albendazole)

4070

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2036:liver cysts

4071

Microbiology Flash Facts

Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm; hydatid liver; tx: albendazole)

4072

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2037:B12 deficiency

4073

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm/cestode; no hooks on scolex; operculated egg; Tx: praziquantel)

4074

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2038:biliary tract dz

4075

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clonorshi sinensis (trematode; operculated eggs; tx: praziquantel)

4076

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2039:hemoptysis

4077

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani (trematode; raw crab meat; secondary bacterial infxn; Tx: praziquantel)

4078

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2040:portal hypertension

4079

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma mansoni (trematode; cercariae penetrate skin; lateral spine; tx: praziquantel)

4080

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2041:hematuria; bladder cancer

4081

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium (trematode; cercariae penetrate skin; terminal spine; tx: praziquantel)

4082

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2042:microcytic anemia

4083

Microbiology Flash Facts

ancylostoma and nectar (hookworms; larvae penetrate skin; tx: mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)

4084

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2043:perianal pruritus

4085

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius (nematode; eggs NOT in stool; scotch tape test; tx: mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)

4086

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2044:which nematodes are treated with diethylcarbamazine

4087

Microbiology Flash Facts

wucheria bancrofti (elephantiasis); Toxocara canis (blindness; visceral larval migrans); Loa loa (deer fly; worms in conjunctiva)

4088

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2045:which helminths treated by niridazole

4089

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm; swallowed crustaceans; skin ulceration to release larvae)

4090

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2046:which helminths treated with praziquantel

4091

Microbiology Flash Facts

trematodes (schistosomas; Clonorchis sinensis; Paragonimus westermani); praziquantel/niclosamide for Taenia solium (unless cysticercosis--albendazole)

4092

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2047:2 diseases transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores

4093

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioidomycosis ;histoplasmosis

4094

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2048:Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20C; germ tube formation at 37

4095

Microbiology Flash Facts

Candida albicans

4096

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2049:Diseases caused by candida albicans

4097

Microbiology Flash Facts

Thrush;endocarditis in IV drug users;vaginitis post antibiotic;diaper rash

4098

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2050:DOC candida albicans

4099

Microbiology Flash Facts

Nystatin-superficial infection;Amphotericin B-systemic

4100

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2051:Southern US; Cali; San Joaguin Valley

4101

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioidomycosis

4102

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2052:Mississippi and Ohio river valleys

4103

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

4104

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2053:spherule filled with endospores

4105

Microbiology Flash Facts

Coccidioidomycosis

4106

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2054:Bird or bat droppings; intracellular; "Captain's wheel" appearance

4107

Microbiology Flash Facts

Histoplasmosis

4108

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2055:Rural Latin America

4109

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paracoccidiodomycosis

4110

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2056:States east of Mississippi River and Central America

4111

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastmycosis

4112

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2057:Big; Broad-Based Budding

4113

Microbiology Flash Facts

Blastomycosis

4114

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2058:5 dimorphic fungi

4115

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. Candida albicans;2. Coccidiodomycosis;3. Histoplasmosis;4. Paracoccidioidomycosis;5. Blastomycosis

4116

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2059:What shape are dimorphic fungi ;in soil?;in tissue?;exception?

4117

Microbiology Flash Facts

Cold=Mold;Heat=Yeast;coccidioidomycosis is a spherule in tissue

4118

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2060:DOC for systemic mycoses

4119

Microbiology Flash Facts

Fluconazole or ketoconazole -local;amphotericin B - systemic

4120

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2061:Disease caused by Malassezia furfur

4121

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tinea versicolor

4122

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2062:DOC tinea versicolor

4123

Microbiology Flash Facts

topical miconazole; selenium sulfide (selsun)

4124

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2063:Hypopigmented skin lesions; occurs in hot;humid weather

4125

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tinea versicolor

4126

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2064:Disease caused by cladosporium werneckii

4127

Microbiology Flash Facts

Tinea nigra

4128

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2065:DOC tinea nigra

4129

Microbiology Flash Facts

salicyclic acid

4130

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2066:What organisms cause tinea pedis; tinea cruris; tinea corporis; tinea capitis

4131

Microbiology Flash Facts

Dermatophytes (microsporum; trichophyton; epidermophyton)

4132

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2067:Diagnosis of tinea pedis

4133

Microbiology Flash Facts

mold hyphae in KOH prep; not dimorphic

4134

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2068:pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring

4135

Microbiology Flash Facts

tinea pedis; cruris; corporis; capitis

4136

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2069:india ink

4137

Microbiology Flash Facts

cryptococcus neoformans

4138

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2070:Opportunistic funal infections (4)

4139

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. candida;2. aspergillus fumigatus;3. c. neoformans;4. mucor and rhizopus

4140

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2071:yeast that causes diffuse interstitial pneumonia; id by methenamine silver stain

4141

Microbiology Flash Facts

Pneumocystis

4142

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2072:Mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles. Causes rhinocerebral; frontal lobe absesses

4143

Microbiology Flash Facts

Murcormycosis

4144

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2073:diseases caused by aspergillus fumigatus

4145

Microbiology Flash Facts

1. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis;2. aspergilloma (lung);3. invasive aspergillosis

4146

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2074:mold with septate hyphate that branch at a v-shaped angle. Causes lung disease

4147

Microbiology Flash Facts

Aspergillus fumigatus

4148

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2075:rose gardeners disease

4149

Microbiology Flash Facts

sporothrix schenckii

4150

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2076:Brain cysts; seizures

4151

Microbiology Flash Facts

Taenia solium

4152

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2077:liver cysts;

4153

Microbiology Flash Facts

echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

4154

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2078:B12 deficicency

4155

Microbiology Flash Facts

Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)

4156

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2079:Biliary tract disease

4157

Microbiology Flash Facts

Clonorchis sinensis (fluke)

4158

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2080:Hemoptysis

4159

Microbiology Flash Facts

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

4160

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2081:Portal HTN

4161

Microbiology Flash Facts

schistosoma mansoni (fluke)

4162

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2082:Hematuria; bladder cancer

4163

Microbiology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium (fluke)

4164

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2083:Microcytic anemia

4165

Microbiology Flash Facts

Ancylostoma (hookworm); Necator

4166

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2084:Perianal pruritis

4167

Microbiology Flash Facts

Enterobius (pinworm)

4168

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2085:Organism causing Chagas; African sleeping sickness

4169

Microbiology Flash Facts

Trypanosma

4170

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2086:Organism causing syphilis

4171

Microbiology Flash Facts

Treponema pallidum

4172

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2087:parasitic causes of diarrhea

4173

Microbiology Flash Facts

Bloody - entamoeba histolytica + giardia;non-bloody: cyclospora; cryptosporidium

4174

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2088:diarrhea in an AIDS pt

4175

Microbiology Flash Facts

cryptosporidium

4176

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2089:worm wanders across eye; calabar swellings

4177

Microbiology Flash Facts

loa loa

4178

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2090:deerly transmission

4179

Microbiology Flash Facts

loa loa

4180

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2091:DOC loa loa and W.bancrofti

4181

Microbiology Flash Facts

DEC

4182

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2092:flying saucer fungus

4183

Microbiology Flash Facts

pneumocystis

4184

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2093:DOC PCP

4185

Microbiology Flash Facts

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole;pentamidine

4186

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2094:sandfly

4187

Microbiology Flash Facts

leishmania

4188

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2095:african trypansome

4189

Microbiology Flash Facts

tsete fly;african sleeping skickness

4190

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2096:ascaris lumbricoides

4191

Microbiology Flash Facts

roundworm;long; white;oral-fecal

4192

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2097:High Eosinophilia

4193

Microbiology Flash Facts

strongyloides stercoralis

4194

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2098:Anemia; pneumonia; eosinophilia

4195

Microbiology Flash Facts

Hookworm: ancylostoma duodenale; necator americanus

4196

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2099:raw pork

4197

Microbiology Flash Facts

trichinella spiralis

4198

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2100:periorbital edema; fever; myosities; rash

4199

Microbiology Flash Facts

trichinella spiralis (raw pork)

4200

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2101:urticaria on butt and thighs

4201

Microbiology Flash Facts

strongyloides stercoralis

4202

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2102:trichuris trichiura

4203

Microbiology Flash Facts

whipworm;eggs hatch in SI and localize in lower intestine

4204

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2103:river blindness

4205

Microbiology Flash Facts

onchocerca volvulus

4206

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2104:elephantiasis

4207

Microbiology Flash Facts

Wuchereria bancrofti

4208

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2105:taenia solium

4209

Microbiology Flash Facts

pork tapeworm --> cysticercosis

4210

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2106:leading cause of seizures in Mexico

4211

Microbiology Flash Facts

taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

4212

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2107:taenia saginata

4213

Microbiology Flash Facts

beef tapeworm

4214

Microbiology Flash Facts

Q2108:echinococcus

4215

Microbiology Flash Facts

sheep; anaphylaxis

4216

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