Quest 1

Quest 1 Part A

12 March 2013

1.If a and b are the lengths of legs of the right triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 and whose are is 20, what is the value of (a+b)^2 ? a.100 b.120 c. 140 d.180 Solution: a^2 + b^2 = hypotenous^2 a^2 + b^2 = 100 ; are of triangle = ab = 20 ; Thus ab = 40

Now, (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab = 100 + 80 = 180

2.In 1950 Roberto was four times as old as Juan. In 1955, Roberto was three times as old as Juan. How did was Roberto when Juan was born? a.5 b.10 c. 20 d.30 Solution: in 1950, R = 4J , in 1955 = R+5 = 3(J+5) , means we can replace value of R by 4J Thus = 4J+5 = 3(J+5) = J = 10 , so R = 40 When J was born , 10 years back R = 30

3. Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G & H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second? a. R b. G c. K d. J Solution: RGKHJ

4. Find the next term in the series: 1, 5, 13, 25,?

a.40

Quest 1
b.41 c. 50 d.49 Solution: increase by 4

12 March 2013

5. Find the odd man out: 2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64 a.10 b.37 c. 64 d.50 Solution: (1*1)+1 , (2*2)+1 , (3*3)+1 , (4*4)+1 , (5*5)+1 , (6*6)+1 , (7*7)+1 , (8*8)+1 ; But, 64 is out of pattern.

6. Gavaskar's average in his first 50 innings was 50. After the 51st innings, his average was 51. How many runs did he
score in his 51st innings. (supposing that he lost his wicket in his 51st innings) a. 100 b. 101 c. 50 d. 51 Solution: Total score after 50 innings = 50*50 = 2500 Total score after 51 innings = 51*51 = 2601 So, runs made in the 51st innings = 2601-2500 = 101 If he had not lost his wicket in his 51st innings, he would have scored an unbeaten 50 in his 51st innings. 7. A rectangular plate with length 8 inches, breadth 11 inches and thickness 2 inches is available. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to the volume of the rectangular plate? a. 3.5 inch b. 4.5 inch c. 2.5 inch d. 5 inch Solution: Volume of the circular rod (cylinder) = Volume of the rectangular plate (22/7)*4*4*h = 8*11*2 h = 7/2 = 3.5 8. Diophantus passed one sixth of his life in childhood, one twelfth in youth, and one seventh more as a bachelor; five years after his marriage a son was born who died four years before his father at half his final age. How old is Diophantus? a. 48 years b. 84 years c. 98yeats d. 54 years Solution: x/6 + x/12 + x/7 + 5 + x/2 + 4 = x 9. If time at this moment is 9 P.M., what will be the time 23999992 hours later? a.1 AM b.1 PM c. 9 PM d.9 AM

Quest 1
10. The following information is available about a group of young men in a colony. A. All handsome, fair skinned, muscular, lean, employed, and rich men are tall. B. All handsome men are fair skinned. C. Some muscular men are handsome. D. Some muscular men are not fair skinned. E. All lean men are muscular. F. No lean man is handsome. G. No fair skinned man who is not handsome is rich. H. All tall men who are neither fair skinned nor muscular are employed. Pramod is not fair skinned. Which of the following must be true? a. Pramod is employed. b. if Pramod is muscular, he is neither handsome nor lean. c. if Pramod is tall, he is employed or muscular. d. if Pramod is not employed, he is muscular.

12 March 2013

Solution: 24 billion hours later, it would be 9 P.M. and 8 hours before that it would be 1 P.M

Solution:

11. Ajit was driving down the country side when he saw a farmer tending his pigs and ducks in his yard. Ajit asked the
farmer how many of each he had. The farmer replied that there were 60 eyes and 86 feet between them. How many ducks and how many pigs were there? a. Pig 13, Duck 17 b. Pig 3, Duck 17 c. Pig 13, Duck 7 d. Pig 23, Duck 27 Solution: Let ducks be D and pigs be P. No. of eyes = 60 => 2D+2P=60 =>D + P=30.(1) No. of feet = 86 => 2D+4P=86 =>D +2P=43.(2) Kumaraguru College, Coimbatore On solving (1) & (2), we get : P=13, D=17 12. If you were to dial any 7 digits on a telephone in random order, what is the probability that you will dial your own phone number? a. 1 in 10,000,000 b. 1 in 7000 c. 1 in 49 d. 1 in 999 Solution: There are 10 digits i.e. 0-9. First digit can be dialed in 10 ways. Second digit can be dialed in 10 ways. Third digit can be dialed in 10 ways. And so on..... Thus, 7-digit can be dialed in 10*10*10*10*10*10*10 (=10,000,000) ways. And, you have just one telephone number. Hence, the possibility that you will dial your own number is 1 in 10,000,000. Note that 0123456 may not be a valid 7-digit telephone number. But while dialing in random order, that is one of the possible 7-digit number which you may dial. 13. Silu and Meenu were walking on the road. Silu said, "I weigh 51 Kgs. How much do you weigh?" Meenu replied that she wouldn't reveal her weight directly as she is overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 Kgs plus half of my weight." How much does Meenu weigh?

Quest 1
a. b. c. d.

12 March 2013

38 kg 59 kg 58 kg 41 kg Solution: Meenu weighs 58 Kgs. It is given that Meenu weighs 29 Kgs plus half of her own weight. It means that 29 Kgs is the other half. So she weighs 58 Kgs. Solving mathematically, let's assume that her weight is X Kgs. X = 29 + X/2 2*X = 58 + X X = 58 Kgs

14. Radius of the earth is 6400 Km. If you starting from your place at Biotecnika and go around the globe in a straight line
and returning back to your place , How much distance you will have travelled? a. Approx 40000 Km b. Approx 400000 Km c. Approx 4000 Km d. Approx 20000 Km Solution: radius = 6400; we will have to find out the circumference = 2 pi r = 2 x 3.142 x 6400 = 40,000 km 15. Customer needs 30% discount. But shopkeeper give 20% and 10% successively. Then Whether customer a. got less profit than what he needed. b. got more profit c. no loss d. none Solution: 30% discount = getting 70/20% and 10% = first 20% deduction in the price, so price became 80/- , later on that 10% discount, Hence 10% of 80/- = 8/So total price = 72/-, Hence customer gets less than expected. Part B 15. After a meal, blood glucose enters cells and is stored as glycogen, particularly in the liver. Which of the following is the donor of new glucose molecules in glycogen? a.UDP-glucose-1-phosphate b.UDP-glucose c. UDP-glucose-6-phosphate d.glucose-1-phosphate Solution: Blood glucose is rapidly converted to glucose-6-phosphate upon entering cells by hexokinase or, in the case of the liver, by glucokinase. Glucose-6-phosphate is in equilibrium with glucose-1phosphate via the action of phosphoglucomutase. Glucose-1phosphate is activated by UTP to form UDPglucose, which is added to glycogen by an a-1,4 linkage in the presence of glycogen synthase 16. Glycogen synthetase, the enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of glycogen, may a. Be activated by the phosphorylation of a specific serine b. Be activated by increased calcium levels c. Synthesize glycogen without a polymer primer d. Be more specifically defined as UDP-glucose-glycogen glucosyl transferase Solution: Glycogen synthetase is an enzyme that transfers glucosyl moieties from UDP-glucose to a glycogen polymer primer. The enzyme exists in two forms: an active, dephosphorylated form and an inactive, phosphorylated form. It is inactivated by phosphorylation of a specific serine residue. Glycogen breakdown, not synthesis, is positively affected by increased calcium levels 17. Which one of the following activities is simultaneously stimulated by epinephrine in muscle and inhibited by epinephrine in the liver? a.Glycogenolysis b.Glycolysis c. Cyclic AMP synthesis d.Activation of phosphorylase

Quest 1

12 March 2013

Solution: Epinephrine stimulates both muscle and liver adenylate cyclase to produce cyclic AMP. In the liver, the increased cyclic AMP levels activate a phosphatase that dephosphorylates fructose2,6bisphosphate (F-2,6-BP) while deactivating a kinase that produces F-2,6-BP. Thus, F-2,6-BP levels are decreased and phosphofructokinase activity is decreased. In liver and muscle, F-2,6-BP is the major allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase. In skeletal muscle, however, the kinase responsible for the synthesis of F-2,6-BP is activated, not inhibited, by cyclic AMP. Thus, muscle sees an increase in glycolysis following epinephrine stimulation, while the liver experiences a decrease in glycolytic activity. In both tissues, glycogen phosphorylase is activated and glycogenolysis occurs. Under these conditions, glucose is utilized in muscle for ATP Production relative to contractile activity, while the liver produces glucose for export to the blood. 18. Which one of the following compounds is common to both the oxidative branch and the nonoxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway? a.Xylulose-5-phosphate b.Glucose-6-phosphate c. Fructose-6-phosphate d.Ribulose-5-phosphate Solution: The pentose phosphate pathway generates reducing power in the form of NADPH in the oxidative branch of the pathway and synthesizes five-carbon sugars in the nonoxidative branch of the pathway. The final sugar product of the oxidative branch of the pathway is ribulose-5-phosphate. The first step of the nonoxidative branch of the pathway is the conversion of ribulose-5phosphate to ribose-5phosphate or xylulose-5-phosphate in the presence of the enzymes phosphopentose isomerase and phosphopentose epimerase, respectively. Thus ribulose-5-phosphate is a key intermediate. That is common to both the oxidative and nonoxidative branches of the pentose phosphate pathway 19. Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis? a.Glucagon b.Epinephrine c. Insulin d.Glucocorticoids Solution: The balance and integration of the metabolism of fats and carbohydrates are mediated by the hormones insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. All of these hormones exercise acute effects upon metabolism. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis and blocks glycolysis. When blood sugar levels get low, the a cells of the pancreas release glucagon. The main targets of glucagon are the liver and adipose tissue. In the liver, glucagon stimulates the cyclic AMPmediated cascade that causes phosphorylation of phosphorylase and glycogen synthesis. This effectively turns off glycogen synthase and turns on glycogen phosphorylase, thereby causing a breakdown of glycogen and a production of glucose in liver, which ultimately raises blood glucose levels.

20. Chronic alcoholics require more ethanol than do nondrinkers to become intoxicated because of a higher level of
specific enzyme. How evening dependent of specific enzyme levels, the availability of what other substance is ratelimiting in the clearance of ethanol? a.NADH b.NAD+ c. FAD+ d.NADPH Solution: In humans, ethanol is cleared from the body by oxidation catalyzed by two NAD+-linked enzymes: alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. These enzymes act mainly in the liver to convert alcohol to acetaldehyde and acetate, respectively. In hronic alcoholics, alcohol dehydrogenase may be elevated somewhat. The ADH level is significantly increased in the liver during oxidation of alcohol, wing to the consumption of NAD+. This leads to a swamping of the ormal means of regenerating NAD+. Thus, NAD+ becomes the ratelimiting factor in oxidation of excess alcohol

22. Forty microliters of a stock solution of RNA is diluted with water to give a final volume of 1mL.The diluted sample has
an absorbance at 260nm of 0.142.What is the concentration of the RNA stock solution in g/mL? a.122.5gRNA/mL

Quest 1
b.132.5gRNA/mL c. 142.5gRNA/mL d.152.5gRNA/mL Solution: Ratios are set up that read "x g RNA/mL is to 0.142 OD as 40 g RNA/mL is to 1.0 OD."

12 March 2013

This value represents the concentration of the diluted sample. To obtain the concentration of the RNA stock solution, it must be multiplied by the dilution factor:

Therefore, the RNA stock solution has a concentration of 142.5 g RNA/mL.

23. A single molecule of DNA is amplified by PCR for 25 cycles. Theoretically, how many molecules of amplicon will be
produced? a.13554432 b.23554432 c. 33554432 d.43554432 Solution: Using the relationship of overall amplification as equal to 2n, where n is, in this case, 25, gives the following result: overall amplification = 225 = 33,554,432. Therefore, over 33 million amplicons will be produced. 24. nptII gene imparts resistance to a.Ampicillin b.Hygromycin c. Kanamycin d.Chloramphenicol Solution: npt II gene that imparts resistance to amyloglucoside antibiotics, routinely with selection for successful transformation events possible by culturing tissues on medium containing kanamycin 25. ....is used as a bacteriostat in the Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation experiments. a.Kanamycin b.Hygromycin c. Cefotaxime d.Ampicillin Solution: Following co-culture and T-DNA delivery, the plant cells are often treated with cefotaxime, a bacteriostat used to control gram negative bacteria.

26. Sph I and Bbu I are isoschizomers. A circular DNA has two Sph I and one Bbu I sites. How many fragments will be
generated by digestion with Bbu I? a.1 b.2 c. 3

Quest 1
d.4 Solution:
BbuI Restrictiondigestion using Bbu I

12 March 2013

27. The restriction site for an enzyme called Pvul is the following sequence: Staggered cuts are made between the T and C on each strand. What types of bonds are being cleaved? 5'-C G A T C G-3' 3'-G C T A G C -5' a.The nitrogen bonds of the DNA strands b.Cleaves bond in deoxyribose c. The hydrogen-phosphate bonds of the DNA strands d.The covalent sugar-phosphate bonds of the DNA strands Solution: All restriction enzymes catalyze the hydrolysis of DNA phosphodiester bonds, leaving a phosphoryl group attached to the 5 end.

28. Probes are short, single-stranded DNA or RNA segments that are used to identify DNA fragments with a particular
sequence. Before the probe can identify a specific restriction fragment, what must be done? a.The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis. b.The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix. c. The probe must be hybridized with the fragment. d.All of the above Solution: The probe to identify the target site, the DNA fragment should be separated by electrophoresis and treated to convert into single stranded and then probe will be used hybridize to the target sequence 29. The viruses of influenza, measles and mumps are known for their ability to a. Multiply within bacteria b. Clump red blood cells c. Form Negri bodies in brain cells d. Exist without any nucleic acid Solution: Influenza, measles and mumps have haemagglutinin. 30. Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true? a. Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells b. Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide bonds c. Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and chocolate, is a sphingolipid d. Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure Solution: Glyceophospholipids are found in all types of membranes. In them, fatty acids are linked to glycerol through ester bonds. Phosphatidylcholine is a glycerophospholipid and not sphingophospholipid. Cerebrosides and gangliosides are sphingolipids with oligosaccharide in their structure 31. Research has generated several drugs that interrupt the viral replication cycle. One such drug reacts with the attachment to host cells by influenza viruses. This drug is a. Isotin-B-semithiocarbazone b. Amantadine c. Iodo-deoxyuridine d. Interferon Solution: Amantidine, rimantidine are class of drugs which inhibit adsorption and penetration of viruses 32. Amino acids are taken up by animal cells using a symport in the plasma membrane. What is the most likely ion whose electrochemical gradient drives the import? a.Na+

Quest 1
b.K+ c. Ca2+ d.H+

12 March 2013

Solution: Glucose and amino acids are taken by cells using a Na-Glucose or Na-aminoacid symporter system. 33. During transmission of action potential, when the cell becomes permeable to sodium, then ______. This is called ______. a. The intracellular charge reverses from negative to positive; hyperpolarisation b. The intracellular charge reverses from positive to negative; depolarisation c. The intracellular charge reverses from negative to positive; depolarisation d. The intracellular charge reverses from positive to negative; repolarisation Solution: Normal charge distribution is negative inside and positive outside. When Na channels open, inside becomes positive. This is called depolarization. When K+ channels open, it is repolarization. When outside becomes more positive because of excess flow of K+ out it is hyperpolarization. 34. Methylation of CpG sites in mammals is associated with a. Expression of genes b. Silencing of genes c. Conversion of constitutive heterochromatin to facultative heterochromatin d. Conversion of facultative heterochromatin to euchromatin Solution: Methylation of CpG islands on DNA recruits MeCP2, which in turn recruits HDAC, this deacetylates Histones and suppresses the expression of genes. 35. If SINE element like Alu is present in an exon of one gene and intron of another gene, then the protein produced will be a.With extraneous amino acids and normal respectively b.Normal or dysfunctional respectively c. Dysfunctional or truncated respectively d.With extraneous amino acids and truncated respectively Solution: If the transposon is present in exon of 1 gene, it will be expressed with the exon and the protein will have extra amino acids. If the transposon is present in intron of 1 gene, the inrons are removed during the process of splicing and the protein produced will be normal

36. Would you expect Nitrous acid to induce a higher frequency of Tyr Ser or Tyr Cys substitutions? a. Tyr Sr b. Tyr Cys
c. Both in same frequency d.Depends on the gene on which it is acting. Solution: Tyr Cys is done by transition, likely to be done by Nitrous acid. Conversion of Tyr Ser requires Trasversion, which is not likely to be done by Nitrous acid

37. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a rare, autosomal, dominantly inherited disease of the teeth which occurs about one in 8000. The teeth are somewhat brown in color and the crowns wear down rapidly. Assume that a male with dentinogenesis imperfecta (assume he is heterozygous), marries a woman with normal teeth. What is the probability that their first child will have dentinogenesis imperfecta? a.1.0

Quest 1
b.0.5 c. 0.25 d.0.125

12 March 2013

Solution: Male: Dd and female normal : dd, Hence possible children: Dd and dd; thus 50% chance to get disease

38. What is the probability of obtaining progeny with AaBBCCDdEeFF genotype from Parents with AAbbccddEEfF and aaBbccDDEeFf genotype? a.1/64 b.1/16 c. 1/32 d.0 Solution: There is no such progeny possible as, parents have bb and Bb condition. We cannot get BB child

39. How many Barr bodies would one expect to see in cells of Turner syndrome females (karyotypically 45,X0) and Klinefelter syndrome males (karyotypically47,XXY)? a.0,0 b.0,1 c. 0.2 d.1,0 Solution: In first case, only 1 X , hence no barr body and in second case, 2 X so 1 barr body

40. A condition in which one gene can mask the expression of a different gene is called a.Epistatic b.Hypostatic c. Epistasis d.Co dominance Solution: Epistasis, do not confuse with Epistatic gene, 41. The molecular weight of an mRNA that codes for a protein of molecular weight 75000 is closest to ( Avg. weight of Nucleic acid = 330amu ; amino acid = 110amu) a.6000 b.60000

Quest 1
c. 600000 d.600

12 March 2013

Solution: Protein weighs 75000, Thus 75000/110 = 681 amino aicds in protein molecule. 1 amino acids is coded by 3 bases in mRNA , thus we need 681 x 3 = 2045 bases. 1 base = 330amu So 2045 bases weigh = close to 600000

42. A reaction; A + B C + D; Keq = 2 x 10-5, the entropy of the reaction has not changed, and the reaction is just a
isomerization step. What is the enthalpy/ bond energy of the isomerization step? ( R = 8.314 J/mol.K ; T = 25C ) a.24 KJ/mol b.50Kj/mol c. 24 J /mol d.0.24 kj/mol Solution: The KLeq is given, and entropy has not changed, thus G = H Use formula G = 2.303RTlog Keq

43. I set up a cross between two genetically identical parents heterozygous for a recessive mutation that causes the progeny to die as embryos. Which of the following is false? a.A quarter of the embryos show the mutant phenotype. b. Three quarters of the adult progeny show no phenotype. c. A third of the adults do not pass on the mutation to the next generation. d.All of the adults are phenotypically indistinguishable. Solution: The embryo dies when it gets recessive homozygous state. Hence only 3 out of 4 possible embryos will survive. Thus option B is the false one and rest all fit the explanation. 44. In accidental exposure of a mouse embryo to the UV light results in a green pigment patch in the skin. However, none of the F1 and F2 progeny exhibit green patches in the skin. The most probable explanation for this phenomenon is: a.The mutation is repaired in the germ cells b.This is a somatic mutation and does not get transmitted to the next generation c. The mutant gene is imprinted and hence is not expressed in the progeny d.All of the above Solution: Its a somatic mutation hence not passed on.

45. Human height is an example of

a. Qualitative trait
b.Pleotropy c. Continous trait d.Discontinous trait

10

Quest 1

12 March 2013

Solution: Human height, coded by multiple genes and has all possible values from 2 ft to 7 ft. and hence its an continuous character

46. In an ordered neurospora crossing, 52 gametes were found to be different from parental one. What is the
recombination frequency, if total 152 gametes were studied? a.0.34 b.0.17 c. 0.56 d.0.89 Solution: Its an ordered cross: Cross over number / total xx 100 = 0.34. Remember we need to half the value in ordered tetrad of Neurospora, Hence answer = 0.17

47. Which of the following statements are TRUE for the transposable elements?
P. Barbara McClintock discovered the autonomous and non-autonomous transposable elements in Maize Q. Variations in flower pigmentation in Antirhinum are due to the presence of transposable elements Ac and Ds R. The Ac transposable element is 4563 bp long and has an 11 bp inverted repeats S. Ds produces the transposase and mobilize the Ac elements

a. Q, S
b. P, Q c. P, R d. R, S Solution: Ac and Ds transposable elements were discovered by Barbara McClintock in Maize kernel color variegation. Ac is autonomous (can produce transposase) and Ds is nonautonomous (cannot produce transposase).

48. The relationship between genes and enzymes was first suggested by the discovery of a. in-born errors of metabolism in human b. sexual phenotype in insects c. metabolic pathways in fungi d. gene regulation in bacteria
Solution: in born errors of metabolism, alkaptonurea, the first disease studied in genetics, lead to the hypothesis, one gene one metabolic pathway concept, by Gerrad.

49. A human DNA molecule has 40% GC content. What is the no. of hydrogen bonds present between the bases, if 1000
bases are considered in a strand? ? a. 1200 b. 2400 c. 3600 d. 3800 Solution: 40% GC, thus in 1000bp, 400 GC, between them 3 hydrogen bond, thus total bonds = 1200 Rest 60% AT, in 1000bp, 600 AT bps hence bond between them = 600x 2 = 1200 Total hydrogen bon = 2400 50. Equal volumes of 2 buffers of pH 4 and pH 6 of identical ionic strength are mixed. The resultant pH is a. Close to 4 b. Close to 5 c. Close to 6

11

Quest 1

12 March 2013

d. Exactly 5 Solution: The H+ ion concentration in a solution of pH is 0.0001. Similarly the H+ ion concentration in pH 6 is 0.000001. When you add these two solutions of identical ionic strength, the sum is equal to the ( 0.0001 + 0.000001 = 0.000101) is closer to 0.0001 and hence pH is closer to 4. Part C 51. A newborn begins vomiting after feeding, becomes severely jaundiced, and has liver disease. Treatment for possible sepsis is initiated, and the urine is found to have reducing substances. A blood screen for galactosemia is positive, and lactose-containing substances are removed from the diet. Lactose is toxic in this case because a. Excess glucose accumulates in the blood b. Galactose is converted to toxic substance galactitol c. Galactose itself is toxic in small amounts d. Glucose metabolism is shut down by excess galactose Solution: Lactose in breast milk and infant ormula is converted by intestinal lactase to glucose and galactose that are fficiently absorbed. In galactosemia (230400), deficiency of galactose-1phosphate ridyl transferase prevents he conversion of galactose into lucose-6-phosphate y the liver or erythrocytes. Lactose in breast milk and infant ormula is converted by intestinal lactase to glucose and alactose that are fficiently absorbed. In galactosemia (230400), deficiency of galactose-1phosphate ridyl transferase prevents he conversion of galactose into lucose-6-phosphate y the liver or erythrocytes. High levels of galactitol cause cataracts, the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate ontributes to liver isease, and the accumulation of galactose metabolites in urine can be easured as reducing substances by the Clinitest method. In normal children, galactose is first phosphorylated by TP to produce galactose-1-phosphate in the presence of galactokinase. ext, galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase transfers UDP from UDPglucose o form UDP-galactose and glucose-1-phosphate. Under the,action of UDP-galactose-4epimerase, UDP-galactose is epimerized to UDP-glucose. Finally, glucose-1-phosphate is isomerized to glucose-6phosphate by phosphoglucomutase. Infants with suspected galactosemia (230400) must be withdrawn from breast-feeding. 52. In lung diseases such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, there is chronic hypoxia that is particularly obvious in vascular tissues such as the lips or nail beds (cyanosis). Poorly perfused areas exposed to chronic hypoxia have decreased metabolic energy for tissue maintenance and repair. An important reason for this is a.Increased hexokinase activity owing to increased oxidative phosphorylation b.Increased ethanol formation from pyruvate on changing from anaerobic to aerobic metabolism c. Increased glucose utilization via the pentose phosphate pathway on changing from anaerobic to aerobic respiration d.Decreased ATP generation and increased glucose utilization on changing from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism Solution: The exposure of tissues to chronic hypoxia makes them rely more on anaerobic metabolism for the generation of energy as ATP and the other high-energy phosphates. Most tissues except for the red blood cells can metabolize glucose under anaerobic or aerobic condition (red blood cells do not have mitochondria for electron transport and must rely on other tissues to generate glucose back from lactate)in most tissues a switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism greatly increases glucose utilization and decreases energy cproduction. Under aerobic conditions, the cell can produce a net in mole of ATP formed per mole of glucose utilized that can be as high as 18 times that produced under anaerobic condition. Thus the cell generates more energy and requires less glucose under anaerobic conditions. Such increased ATP concentration together with the release of citrate from the citric acid cycle under aerobic conditions, allosterically inhibit the key regulatory enzyme of the glycolytic pathway, phosphofructokinase. Decreased phosphofructokinase activity decreases metabolism of glucose by glycolysis 53. A child develops chronic diarrhea and liver inflammation in early infancy when the mother begins using formula that includes corn syrup. Evaluation of the child demonstrates sensitivity to fructose in the diet. Which of the following glycosides contains fructose and therefore should be avoided when feeding or treating this infant? a.Sucrose b.Oaubain c. Lactose d.Maltose

12

Quest 1

12 March 2013

Solution: lycosides are formed by condensation of the aldehyde or ketone group of a carbohydrate with a hydroxyl group of another compound. Other linked groups(aglycones) include steroids with hydroxyl groups. (e.g. cardiac glycosides Such as digitalis or ouabain) or other chemical (antibiotics). Sucrose upon hydrolysi by sucrase gives rise to fructose and glucose molecule. Fructose is a ketone sugar. The ketone group is at C2 position and the OH group is at the C1 position which allows ketal formation to produce pyranose and furanose rings as with glucose. Sucrose is cleaved into equimolar amounts of glucose and fructose in the small intestine by the action of the pancreatic enzyme sucrase. Deficiency of sucrase can cause chronic diarrhea

54. i) A researcher has isolated a restriction endonuclease that cleaves at only one particular 8-base-pair site. Would this
enzyme be useful in protecting cells from viral infections, given that a typical viral genome is 3 x 109 base pairs long. ii) Suppose that one species of bacteria obtained one gene encoding a restriction endonuclease by horizontal gene transfer. Would you expect this acquisition to be beneficial? a.i. Yes ii. Yes b.i. Yes ii. No c. i. No ii Yes d.i. No ii No Solution: i. Yes. The 8-base-pair site sequence will present in approximately 1 in 65536. Because a typical viral genome has 3 x 109, the target sequence would be likely to be present. ii. No. The bacteria receiving the enzyme would have its own DNA destroyed because it lacked the appropriate protective methylase 55. The diagram is a restriction map of a circular plasmid DNA showing the recognition sites for the restriction endonucleases BamHI and EcoRI. Which of the 5 lanes (A, B, C, D, or E) in the agarose gel show the DNA the fragments expected following a restriction digest of the plasmid using enzyme EcoRI ONLY? a.A b.B c. C d.D Solution: By restricting the above plasmid with EcoRI will produce 1.5 kb and 3.5kb fragment

56. If you were a doctor who wanted to use Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) cells to treat a patient with severe type 1
diabetes, what new technique would have to be developed? a.A technique would have to be worked out for turning a human iPS cell into a pancreatic cell. b.A technique would have to be worked out for turning a human iPS cell into a embryonic stem cell c. A technique would have to be worked out for turning a human iPS cell into a liver cell d.A technique would have to be worked out for turning a human iPS cell into a pluripotent stem cell Solution: To treat a patient with severe type 1 diabetes, iPS can be converted into pancreatic cell

57. You are studying the binding of proteins to the cytoplasmic face of cultured liver cells and have found a method that
gives a good yield of inside-out vesicles from the plasma membrane. Unfortunately, your preparations are contaminated with variable amounts of right-side-out vesicles. Nothing you have tried avoids this contamination. Somebody suggests that you pass the vesicles over an affinity column made of lectin coupled to Sepharose beads. What is the rational of this suggestion? a. Right-side-out-vesicles will be lysed by lectin coupled to Sepharose beads. b. Right-side-out-vesicles will simply bind to the lectin coupled Sepharose beads. c. Lectin will bind to the carbohydrate residues present only on the inside out vesicles. d. Lectin will bind to only glycoproteins and glycolipids present on the inside-out vesicles. Solution: Right side out vesicles have oligosaccharides of glycoproteins facing the extracellular side. Inside out vesicles have oligosaccharides of glycoproteins facing the intracellular side. If a mixture of right-side out and inside out vesicles are passed over lectin, right side out vesicles will bind.

13

Quest 1

12 March 2013

58. After a restaurant inspection, you determine that a food preparation has 2 million (2 * 106) Staphylococcus aureus
cells in it. You estimate that the food preparer did not wash his hands and probably inoculated the cream with 500 Staphylococcus aureus. He also forgot to refrigerate it. If the food was made 6 hours ago, how many generations have occurred? How long is each generation? a)11, 45 minutes b)11, 60 minutes c)12, 30 minutes d)12, 60 minutes Solution: No = 500, Nt = 2* 10^6, so 2^n = 4000 So, n = 12 (approximately) In 6 hrs, 12 generations have passed, so generation time = 6 hours/12 = hr = 30 mins 59. Consider the following statements in relation to role of H1 histones in chromatin structure. A. H1 provides partial nuclease protection to chromatin B. H1 brings entering and exiting linker DNA segments closer together C. Nucleosomes depleted in H1 do not readily form 30-nm fibers D. H1 histones are rich in phenylalanine and tyrosine The correct combination of statements is a. A and B only b. A and C only c. A, B and C only d. B, C and D only Solution: All statements are correct except D. Histones are rich in lys and arg, not phe and tyr.

60. A signalling pathway I have identified has three proteins A, B, C that work to allow function X, When A is absent, X
does not happen. The absence of C or B individually does not substantially affect function X. When C and B are both defective function X fails but can be restored if excess A is provided. Which of the following statements is false? a.Protein A functions after proteins C and B. b. Protein A requires proteins C and B. c. Protein A requires protein C or B to function. d.Proteins C and B do not influence each others function. Solution: The Protein A can restore the action of X even thought B and C are removed completely, and Protein A action is not hindered much, when either B or C is removed. Hence A required B or C, and not both. Thus the statement B is the false statement.

61. What kind of interaction is shown in the figure? a.Autosomal dominant b.Autosomal recessive c. Sex linked recessive d.Sex linked dominance Solution: The disease occurs to both sex in equal number, hence it must be Autosomal. The disease is occurring in offsprings, even though the parents do not show the disease, the classical case of recessive. Hence Autosomal recessive

62. Datura stramonium (the Jimsonweed) expresses flower colors of purple and white and pod textures of smooth and
spiny. The results of two crosses in which the parents were not necessarily true breeding were observed as shown in table. Which gene is dominant? white spiny x white spiny 3/ 4 white spiny: 1/ 4 white a. White color and Spiny smooth b. Purple color and spiny purple smooth x purple 3/ 4 purple smooth: 1/ 4 c. White color and smooth smooth white smooth d. Purple and smooth

14

Quest 1

12 March 2013

Solution: The first cross clearly says 3/4th spiny and th smooth, this in possible only when the spiny is dominant in nature and smooth being recessive. Similarly in second cross, the purple occurs in th case and 1/4th case is white. Hence the white has to be recessive and purple dominant. Or else we will not get this 1/4th ratio.

63. Two mutations that affect plaque morphology in phages (a and b) have been isolated. Phages carrying both mutations
(a b) are mixed with wild-type phages (a+ b+) and added to a culture of bacterial cells. Subsequent to infection and lysis, samples of the phage lysate are collected and cultured on bacterial cells. The following numbers of plaques are observed: What is the frequency of recombination between the a and b genes? a. 12% b. 14% c. 18%

d. 4%

Solution: The a+b+ and ab are the parental types. Hence we find them in highest number. The rest are recombinants. So frequency of recombination is = Recombinant types / Total plaque x 100 = 14%

64. The figure below is a schematic of a linear double stranded DNA containing the indicated restriction sites.
The DNA was completely digested with PvuII and EcoRI. The products were purified and added to an appropriately 32 buffered reaction mixture containing dNTP mix, - P dATP, and Klenow fragment of E. coli DNA polymerase I. The Klenow reaction products were analyzed by gel electrophoresis and autoradiography. Which of the following products depicts the expected result?

Ans: A

Solution: PvuII will produce blunt end whereas EcoRI will produce stick end. So when all the mixtures are added, the sticky ends will be filled. So in the autoradiogram, 3 kb and 1 kb can be seen.

65. A geneticist discovers an obese mouse in his laboratory colony. He breeds this obese mouse with a normal mouse. All
the F1 mice from this cross are all normal in size. When he interbreeds two F 1 mice, eight of the F2 mice are normal in size and two are obese. The geneticist then intercrosses two of his obese mice, and he finds that all of the progeny from this cross are obese. These results lead the geneticist to conclude that obesity in mice results from a recessive

15

Quest 1

12 March 2013

allele(aa). A second geneticist at a different university also discovers an obese mouse in her laboratory colony. She carries out the same crosses as the first geneticist did and obtains the same results. She also concludes that obesity in mice results from a recessive allele(bb). One day the two geneticists meet at a genetics conference, learn of each others experiments, and decide to exchange mice. They both find that when they cross two obese mice from the different laboratories, all the offspring are normal, but when they cross two obese mice from the same laboratory, all the offspring are obese. What can be the possible explanation for the above observation?

The mice of both labs have homozygous recessive alleles at all loci The mice of both labs have heterozygous for both alleles The mice of both labs have got homozygous dominant state for both genes The mice of both labs have got homozygous dominant state for one of the gene and homozygous recessive for other gene

Solution: The mice from both strains have one of the gene in recessive state, aaBB and AAbb. Hence when they mate all progeny will hve AaBb combination restoring the phenotype back. Thus answer is d.

66. Four Hfr strains of E.coli were generated from the same F+ strain. The Hfr strains donated markers in the following orders Strain 1: DQWMT ; Strain 2: AXPTM ; Strain 3: BNCAX ; Strain 4 : BDQWM The order of the markers in the original F+ strain is a. DQWMTPXACNB b. AXPTMDQWBNC c. BNCAXPTMDQW d. BDQWMNCAXPT Solution: Order: Go by fixing all strains together.. 67. A genetic experiment was perfomed to map the gene9s0 for eye color in a newly discovered moth species. Sex determination in this month species XY-male and XX-female. When blue-eyed males were mated to green-eyed females, all of both male and female progeny had green eyes. When these progeny were mated among themselves, about the half of the males of the resulting second generation had blue eyes; however, all females were green eyed. Which of the following is consistent with the above data? a. Multiple genes control eye color in this moth species b. Gene(s) for eye color is located on the X chromosome c. Gene(s) for eye color is located on the Y chromosome d. Gene(s) for eye color may not b X linked Solution: As the genes shows to be on X chromosome, as half males show the colour and all girls 68. RNA is considered as the first genetic material to have evolved on earth. Which one of the following properties of RNA is critical for its functioning as the genetic material in the absence of DNA and protein? a. The presence of Uracil as a base in place of thymine b. The RNA is less stable than DNA; therefore RNA has higher probability to evolve as genetic material as compared to DNA c. The single stranded RNA has a genotype as well as phenotype d. RNA exists in 3 forms while DNA has only one form Solution: RNA behaves both as genetic material and as enzyme, so it can function in absence of proteins and DNA 69. In a cross between plants with purple and white colored flowers, the following results were obtained in the F1

16

Quest 1

12 March 2013

generation (assume that both varieties are true breeding) 100 plants with white flower; 150 straw yellow; 245 greenish yellow; 500 green; 440 light blue; 400 blue; 300 indigo; 253 purple and 100 dark purple. These data support which one of the following conclusion? A. Flower color in this species does not follow Mendelian inheritance B. Law of incomplete dominance C. Colors are co-dominant in this species D. Flower color in this species is determined by multiple genes Solution: The observation of all varieties of colours in possible when genes are under control of multiple genes.

70. Who among the following are definite Heterozygotes for the disease? Assume that all coming from outside family are
homozygous dominant. a. I-1; II-1; II-2; II-5; II-6; III-2; III-3 b. II-1; II-2; II-5; II-6; III-2; III-3 c. II-1; II-3; II-5; III-7; III-3; III-2; III-8; d. II-2; II-3; II-5; III-7; III-3; III-2; III-8

Solution: You will have to pick up the definite carriers. Person from outside family is homozygous dominant. Hence II-1 cannot be the one. Hence option b and c ruled out. The I-1, it can be a carrier, but we are nto sure of it. The person can be from our family or from outside. Hence this rules out option a, and option d remains thats the right one. II-2, II-3 and all shown are definite carriers.

17