Sie sind auf Seite 1von 12

Exam 5, 60 questions, time allowed 90 minutes 1. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. VHF radio VOR VOR/DME None

A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is: (a) (b) (c) (d) A 30 Hz polar diagram Omni-directional A bi-Iobal pattern A beam rotating at 30 Hz

3.

What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF: (a) (b) (c) (d) BFO on Select the loop position Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal Select the ANT position

4.

When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level: (a) (b) (c) (d) beacon beacon beacon beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast inland, at 90 to the coast close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast close to the coast at 90 to the coast

5.

What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5? (a) (b) (c) (d) 120 nm 109 nm 60 nm 54 nm

6.

On a VOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30. The VOR radial is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 210 030 330 150

Bristol Groundschool

7.

The maximum range an aircraft at FL 270 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 275nm 200nm 240 nm 220 nm

8.

Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR: (a) (b) (c) (d) 107.75 109.90 118.35 112.20

9.

Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in: (a) (b) (c) (d) Loss of signal due to line of sight limitations interference from other VORs operating on the same frequency skywave contamination of the VCR signal scalloping errors

10.

When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a constant track great circle track rhumb line track constant heading

11.

When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30 seconds: (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 identifications in the same tone 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then this shows that both are serviceable

12.

For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 would be achieved by flying: (a) (b) (c) (d) West North East South

13.

Which of the following provides distance information? (a) (b) (c) (d) DME VOR ADF VDF

Bristol Groundschool

14.

A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ..... aircraft are using the transponder. (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 50 100 200

15.

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL 210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of 210 nm. The reason for this is: (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the beacon is saturated aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME aircraft is beyond line of sight range aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response

16.

What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users? (a) (b) (c) (d) magnetic bearing DME Nothing DME and magnetic bearing

17.

The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 13.5 nm 16.5 nm 15 nm 17.6 nm

18.

A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200. When the aircraft is lined upon the centreline of the ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) left of the centre centred right of the centre centred with the fail flag showing

19.

The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localiser centreline is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 to 8 nm 10 to 25 nm 8 to 10 nm 35 to 17 nm

20.

The ILS localiser is normally positioned: (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 300 300 200 m m m m from the downwind end of the runway from the threshold from the upwind end of the runway abeam the threshold

Bristol Groundschool

21.

An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) unreliable in azimuth and elevation reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation no indications will be shown reliable in azimuth and elevation

22.

The coverage MLS is ......either side of the centreline to a distance of .....: (a) (b) (c) (d) 40 40 20 20 40 20 20 40 nm nm nm nm

23.

Distance on MLS is measured by: (a) (b) (c) (d) measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to traveI from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams co-located DME

24.

The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulse radar is: (a) (b) (c) (d) more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy removes the minimum range restriction smaller more compact equipment permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

25.

To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 4 8 16

26.

ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 200 300 400 nm nm nm nm

Bristol Groundschool

27.

The minimum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 pps 600 pps 1620 pps 3280 pps

28.

What does pulse recurrence rate refer to: (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the number of cycles per second number of pulses per second ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period delay known as flyback or dead time

29.

Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges: (a) (b) (c) (d) Millimetric pulse continuous wave primary centimetric pulse continuous wave secondary

30.

The use of the AWR on the ground is: (a) (b) (c) (d) not permitted permitted provided reduced power is reduced permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

31.

The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the.......... mode: (a) (b) (c) (d) WEA CONT MAP MAN

32.

The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are: (a) (b) (c) (d) the size-of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

33.

In an AWR with a colour CRT areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by: (a) (b) (c) (d) iso-echo areas coloured black large areas of flashing red iso-echo areas with no colour most rapid change of color

Bristol Groundschool

34.

The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to: (a) (b) (c) (d) QNH unless QFE is in use 1013.25 HPa QNH WGS 84 datum

35.

The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode: (a) (b) (c) (d) A C S All

36.

The principle of operation of LORAN C is: (a) (b) (c) (d) differential range by phase comparison differential range by pulse technique range by pulse technique range by phase comparison

37.

In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to: (a) (b) (c) (d) reduce ionospheric and tropospberic errors determine satellite range eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors remove receiver clock error

38.

The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/GPS is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 12.5 minutes 12 hours 30 seconds 15 minutes

39.

The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is: (a) (b) (c) (d) above mean sea level above ground level above the WGSS4 ellipsoid pressure altitude

40.

The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment: (a) (b) (c) (d) provides data to calculate X, Y & Z co-ordinates and monitors the accuracy of the satellite data provides data to calculate X. Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time provides geographic position and UTC

Bristol Groundschool

41.

Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct: (a) (b) (c) (d) the inclination of the orbits is 55 with an orbital period of 12 hours the inclination of the orbits is 55 with an orbital period of 24hours the orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage the orbits are inclined at 65 with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes

42.

The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are: (a) (b) (c) (d) space, space, space, space, control, user control, ground control, air ground, air

43.

The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is (a) (b) (c) (d) multiplex multi-channel sequential fast multiplex

44.

The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver: (a) (b) (c) (d) is done prior to each fix is done when the receiver position is in error involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites are in view is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data

45.

An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued: (a) (b) (c) (d) using using using using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output alternative navigation systems alternative radio navigation systems only inertial reference systems only

46.

When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used: (a) (b) (c) (d) barometric GPS height radio altitude average of barometric and GPS

Bristol Groundschool

47.

Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe: (a) (b) (c) (d) NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS COSPAS/SARSAT TNSS transit

48.

Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is: (a) (b) (c) (d) barometric GNSS Radio radio of GNSS

49.

The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAlM is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 5 6 3

50.

RAIM is achieved: (a) (b) (c) (d) by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which alt relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using pseudolites within the receiver any of the above

51.

In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display in EXP ILS mode, a one dot deviation from track would represent: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm 0.5 nm 5 0.5

52.

When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate: (a) (b) (c) (d) TOD TOC just after take-off: on final approach.

53.

For position fixing the FMC uses: (a) (b) (c) (d) DME/DME VOR/DME DME/DME or VOR/DME Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF

Bristol Groundschool

54.

The FMC position is: (a) (b) (c) (d) the average of the IRS positions the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions computer generated from the radio navigation positions

55.

The JAR OPS recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is: (a) (b) (c) (d) white green magenta cyan

56.

The JAR OPS recommendation for the colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is: (a) (b) (c) (d) white green magenta cyan

57.

When midway between two waypoints how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft: (a) (b) (c) (d) by by by by using using using using the the the the ATD at the previous waypoint computed ETA for the next waypoint ATA at the previous waypoint ETA at the destination

58.

The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include: (a) (b) (c) (d) ETD, aircraft position, and planned route Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway Navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome Departure runway, planned route and ETD.

59.

The JAR OPS recommended colour for an active waypoint is: (a) (b) (c) (d) white magenta green cyan

60.

The JAR OPS recommended colour for an active route in the PLAN mode is: (a) (b) (c) (d) white magenta green cyan

Bristol Groundschool

61.

In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 nm 2 5 nm 5

62.

The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for engaged AFCS modes is: (a) (b) (c) (d) green magenta cyan white

63.

The erratic change in received radio signals known as fading can be caused by: (a) (b) (c) (d) Increasing distance from the transmitter The suns's rays heating the ionosphere during the day Mixed skywave and ground wave reception Fluctuations in the ionosphere causing frequency shift

64.

The frequency band chosen for NDB's is: (a) (b) (c) (d) upper MF and lower LF VLF upper LF and lower MF LF

65.

To maintain the 314 QDR inbound to a NDB with 7 starboard drift, the heading in M and relative bearing will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 321 127 141 307 173 007 353 183

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 5, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

Bristol Groundschool

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a b c a b b c d b b b c a c c b a b c c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

a b d b d c c b b c c c d b d b b a c b

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

a a b b b a a a a c d a c c a d b b b b

61 62 63 64 65

a a c c b

Bristol Groundschool