Sie sind auf Seite 1von 100

Navneet Kaur PD 1 AP Psychology

Prologue: The story of Psychology

HW#1
Due date: 9/4/08
Rd. Pg.1-Pg.8

Q1. How do we elaborate on behavior and mental processes regarding the


definition of psychology?

Q2. Explain John’s Locke’s argument that the mind at birth is a blank
slate, and how did that contradict some of the earlier philosophers
such as Plato and Renee Descartes.

Q3. Describe Willliam Wundt’s first experiment and why is it considered


the first experiment in psychology?

Q4. Explain how the two early schools of psychology, structuralism and
functionalism differed from each other, and which psychologists
pioneered these schools of psychology?

Q5. What were the contributions to psychology by the first two American
women psychologists, Mary Calkins, and Margaret Floy Wasburn?

Q6. Why were the pioneering psychologists called “Magellans of the


mind” as Morton Hunt called them?

Q7. Which American school of psychology and psychologists, led the way
from the 1920s to the 1960s, and what were the particular criticisms?

Q8. Why was Humanistic psychology considered a softer response to


Freudian psychology, and to behaviorism?

Q9. Describe the “Cognitive Revolution”

Q10. How do you think psychology might change as more people from non-
Western countries contribute their ideas to the field?

Navneet Kaur PD 1 AP Psychology


HW#2
Due Date: 9/5/08
Rd. Pg 8-Pg.14

Q1. Provide facts on how psychology is growing and globalizing

Q2. Describe the ancient roots of the nature-nurture debate

Q3. What questions have contemporary psychologists ask concerning the


nature-nurture debate?

Q4. How does the biopsychosocial approach incorporate various levels of


analysis?

Q5. List how psychologists from 5 current perspectives view anger?

Q6. Provide example that promote the diversity of psychology’s


subfields.

Q7. How do psychologists conduct basic research that builds


psychology’s base?

Q8. Compare and contrast clinical psychology and psychiatry

Q9. Provide five examples of how psychology influences modern culture

Q10. When you signed up for this course, what did you think psychology
would be all about?

;olpNavneet Kaur PD 1 AP
Psychology

Chapter 1: Thinking critically with psychological science


HW#3 Due Date 9/9
Rd.Pg.19-Pg.26

Q1. Based on the readings, should we trust our intuition, and why?

Q2. Provide examples of hindsight bias, and why is it known as the


“I knew-it all-along phenomenon”?

Q3. Provide and explain your true/false answers on the eight issues in
table 1.1

Q4. Describe the research done by Robert Vallone on how people are at
predicting human behavior?

Q5. What were the results of Ohio State psychologists Phillip Tetlock’s
experiment when he collected expert’s predictions of
political,economic, and military situations.

Q6. How did Magician James Randi disprove aura-seers, and what was his
objective in doing so?

Q7. Explain the quote “the rat is always right”

Q8. Provide four examples of ho psychology’s critical inquiry proved


surprising findings, and provide four examples of critical inquiry
debunked popular presumptions.

Q9. Apply the scientific method to self-esteem and depression

Q10. What standards are required to make a theory useful?

Q11. How might the scientific method help us understand the roots of
terrorism?
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#11: Due 9/26


Rd. Pg.67- Pg.69
Q1. Describe, “When we are thinking about our brain, we are thinking
with our brain”? It is the brain that self reflectively analyzes the
brain by firing countless millions of synapses and releasing billions
of neurotransmitter molecules.

Q2.What was the significance of observing the effects of specific brain


diseases and injuries?
Conduct lesion (destroy) tiny clusters of normal or defective brain
cells, leaving their surroundings unharmed. Record results of damage to
specific brain areas.
Q3. How do an EEG and its modern microelectrodes detect brain waves?
By presenting a stimulus repeatedly and having a computer filter out
brain activity unrelated to the stimulus, one can identify the
electrical wave evoked by the stimulus.

Q4. What do PET scan “hot spots” show? Brain areas are most active as
the person performs mathematical calculations, listens to music, or
daydreams.

Q5. How does an MRI musical aptitude and Schizophrenia?


MRI scans reveal a larger than average neural areas in the left brain
of musicians who display perfect pitch. MRI scans can also reveal
enlarged fluid filled brain areas in some patients who have
schizophrenia, a disabling psychological disorder.

Q6. How does the fMRI reveal the brain’s functioning as well as its
structure? Where the brain is especially active, blood goes. fMRI
machine detects blood rushing to the back of the brain, which processes
visual information.

Q7. How did fMRI locate increased brain activity with lying?

Snapshots of the brain’s changing activity provide new insights into


how the brain divides its labor.
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#12: Due 9/29


Rd. Pg.70-Pg.74

Q1. What are a brain’s functions of primitive vertebrate such as shark?


The brain primarily regulates basic survival functions: breathing,
resting and feeding.

Q2. Describe the role of the reticular formation within the brainstem?
Inside the brainstem, between your ears, lies a the reticular
information, a finger-shaped network of neurons that extends from the
spinal cord right up to the thalamus. As the spinal cord’s sensory
input travels up to the thalamus, some of it travels through the
reticular formation, which filters incoming stimuli and relays
important to other areas of the brain.

Q3.How is the thalamus like a “hub through which traffic passes en


route to various destinations”?
Receives information from all the senses except smell and routes it to
the brain regions that deal with seeing, hearing, tasting and touching.
Also receives some of the higher brain’s replies, which it then directs
to the medulla and to the cerebellum.

Q4. How does David Beckham’s cerebellum aid him in becoming a great
soccer player? If you injured your cerebellum, you would have
difficulty walking, keeping your balance, or shaking hands. Your
movements would be jerky and exaggerated.

Q5. What do the cerebellum, thalamus, and brainstem have in relation


with each other, regarding brain function?
Whether we are asleep or awake, our brainstem manages its life-
sustaining functions, freeing our newer brain regions to dream, think
,talk or savor a memory.

Q6. How did some experiments confirm the amygdala’s role in rage and
fear? Given that amygdala lesions can transform violent monkeys into
mellow ones, might such lesions do the same in violent humans? The
brain is not neatly organized into structures that correspond to our
categories of behavior.

Q7. Describe the positive and negative consequences of “psychosurgery”?


In a few cases involving patients who suffered brain abnormalities, it
reducxed fits of rage, through sometimes with devastating side effects
on the patient’s everyday functioning. For ethical reasons, and because
of the uncertainties involved, drastic psychosurgery is rarely used.

Q8. Describe the importance of the experiment on rats conducted by


neurophysiologists James olds and Peter Milner?
Similar reward centers in or near the hypothalamus were later
discovered. New ways of using limbic stimulation to control animals
actions.

Q9. How are reward centers critical in controlling animals’ actions?

Animal research has revealed both a general reward system that triggers
the release of the neurotransmitter dopamine and specific centers
associated with the pleasures of eating, drinking and sex. Animals, it
seems, come equipped with built-in systems that reward activities
essential to survival.
Q10. Define reward deficiency syndrome?
A genetically disposed deficiency in the natural brain systems for
pleasure and well-being that leads people to crave whatever provides
that missing pleasure or relives negative feelings.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#53: Due 1/12 Rd. Pg.481-Pg. 487

Q1. Describe the contributions of Albert Kinsey relevant to sexual


Motivation.

Q2. Explain each phase of the sexual response cycle described by


Masters and Johnson

Q3. What did neuroscientist Holstege and his colleagues discover about
men and women describing orgasm

Q4. List some sexual disorders and some therapeutic methods to correct
them

Q5. What are the two effects of sex hormones?

Q6. Describe the effect of abnormal estrogen and testosterone levels on


males and females

Q7. How does castration affect men?

Q8. Describe the correct analogy between sex hormones and fuel in a car

Q9. Describe the effects of erotica on males and females, and how
habituation occurs

Q10. Do sexual explicit material has adverse effects?

Q11. Why do people who do not have genital sensation, still feel sexual
desire?

Q12. Describe some facts of fantasies concerning men and women?

Q13. What are the rates of premarital sex amongst American adolescents
compared to adolescents from other nations?

Q14. Describe the five reasons of why American adolescents have lower
rates of contraceptive us, and higher rates of teen pregnancy

Q15. Why is there a rapid spread of sexual transmission infections?

Q16. Describe the five predictors of abstinence

Q17. What are the trends of abstinence amongst American adolescents


Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#14 Due 10/3


Rd. Pg. 79-pg.83

Q1. Why is this one the most widespread falsehoods that “we use 10
percent of our brain”? Implies that if we could activate our whole
brain, we would be far smarter than those who drudge along on 10
percent brain power.

Q2. Describe Phineas Gage’s classic case of frontal lobe damage and
personality? Frontal lobe damage also can alter personality, removing
a person’s inhibitions. A spark ignited the gunpowder, shooting the rod
up through his left cheek and out the top of his skull, leaving his
frontal lobes massively damaged. Gage was immediately able to sit up
and speak, and after the wound healed he returned to work. His mental
abilities and memories were intact, his personality was not.

Q3. What dilemma occurs if the underside of the right temporal lobe was
damaged due to stroke? Still be able to describe facial features and to
recognize someone’s gender and approximate age, yet be strangely unable
to identify the person.

Q4. How do the 4 clues on Pg.81 describe an explanation of how we use


language? Be specific with the steps. When you read aloud, the words
register in the visual area, are relayed to a second brain area, the
angular gyrus, which transforms the words into an auditory code that is
received and understood in the nearby Wernicke’s area and sent to
Broca’s area, which controls the motor cortex as it creates the
pronounced word. Depending on which link in the chain is damaged, a
different form of aphasia occurs.

Q5. Describe these two principles involving the brain’s functioning-


specialization and integration? Moving your hand; recognizing faces;
even perceiving color, motion, and depth-all depend on specific neural
networks. Yet complex functions such as listening, learning, and loving
involve the coordination of many brain areas.

Q6. Why does neural tissues reorganize in response to damage?


It happens within all of us, as the brain repairs itself after little
mishaps. Plasticity is especially evident after serious damage. Lose a
finger and the sensory cortex that received its input will begin to
receive input from the adjacent fingers, which then become more
sensitive.

Q7. How is the brain’s plasticity good news for those blind or deaf?
If a blind person uses one finger to read Braille, the brain area
dedicated to that finger expands as the sense of touch invades the
visual cortex that normally helps people see. In deaf people whose
native language is sign, the temporal lobe area normally dedicated to
auditory information waits in vain for stimulation.

Q8. Describe vs. Ramachan-dran’s discovery of a mystery phenomenon


connected to “phantom fingers”. When stroking the face of someone whose
hand had been amputated, V.S. Ramachandran found the person felt the
sensations not only on his face but also on his nonexistent (phantom)
fingers.

Q9. How may the regeneration of brain cells impact the success of
biotech companies? Today’s biotech companies work hard on such
possibilities regarding generate new brain cells.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#15: Due 10/6


Rd. Pg.83-Pg.92

Q1. Describe Sperry’s and Gazzinga’s studies of split-brain people?

Experiments revealed that this broad band of more than 200 million
nerve fibers, capable of transferring more than a billion bits of
information per second between the hemispheres, has a more significant
purpose. Their studies of split-brain people-“the most fascinating
people on Earth”-provided a key to understanding the two hemispheres
complementary functions.

Q2. How could a split-brain patient identify a hidden spoon with the
left hand, but not identify a picture of a spoon verbally?
Visual wiring enabled the researchers to send information to the
patient’s left or right brain-by having the patient stare at a spot and
then flashing a stimulus to its right or left. When a picture of a
spoon was flashed to their right hemisphere, the patients could not say
what they had viewed. But when asked to identify what they had viewed
by feeling an assortment of hidden objects with their left hand, they
readily selected the spoon.

Q3. What conclusions are drawn about the relationship of the left
hemisphere and right hemisphere? The experiments demonstrate that the
left hemisphere is more active when a person deliberates over
decisions. The right hemisphere understands simple requests, easily
perceives objects, and is more engaged when quick, intuitive responses
are needed.

Q4. How has hemispheric specialization been demonstrated in individuals


with undivided hemispheres? Hemispheric specialization (lateralization)
has been dramatically shown by using magnetic stimulation to
temporarily disrupt left- or right-brain activity, or by briefly
sedating an entire hemisphere.

Q5. What would happen to a deaf person’s ability to read a sign if


there is a stroke in the left hemisphere? A stroke in left hemisphere
disrupt a deaf person’s signing, much as it would disrupt a hearing
person’s speaking.

Q6. Describe some facts about right-handed individuals vs. left-handed


individuals. Right handedness prevails in all human cultures. Moreover,
it appears prior to culture’s impact, unique to us. Left handedness is
also more common among musicians, mathematicians, professional baseball
and cricket players, architects, and artists. Although left-handers
must tolerate elbow jostling at dinner parties, right handed desks, and
awkward scissors, the pros and cons of being a lefty seem roughly equal.

Q7. Describe the correlation between left-handed individuals (southpaws


and age). The percentage of left handers decreases sharply in samples
of older people.

Q8. What are some hypotheses that are accepted and rejected in
according to this correlation? Perhaps, Coren and Halpern first
thought, childhood coercion causes natural leftie to become right
handed as they age. Today parents and teachers are accepting more young
left-handers. And they think that left handed die younger. More health
risks, more likely to have experienced birth stress, headaches and more
accidents.

Q9. Describe Sperry’s mind as a “holistic system” instead of actions of


atoms, or activity of cells in the brain? In Roger Sperry’s view, the
brain creates and controls the emergent mind, which in turn influences
the brain.

Q10. How was the lecture taught by psychologist Doreen Kimura


exaggerated regarding musical ability controlled by the right side of
the brain (Pg.87)?The NEW YORK TIMES reported Kimura found musical
ability is controlled by the right side of the brain and Time story
reported that Dr.Doreen claims musicians are right brained.

Q11. How might you feel with two separate brain hemispheres, both of
which controlled your thought and action but one of which dominated
your consciousness and speech? How might that affect your sense of
self, as one indivisible person? I think each hemisphere will not make
unique contributions to the integrated functioning of the brain.
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW #19: Due Date 10/21


Pg.119-Pg.126
Q1. How do humans differ and compare with each other across cultures?

Q2. Describe norms of some cultural groups

Q3. What were the greatest culture shocks to the U.S. Peace Corps
volunteers in adjusting to their host countries?

Q4. What were some negative cultural changes to the United States since
1960?

Q5. Describe five characteristics of individualism and collectivism

Q6. How do collectivists in eastern cultures contrast from


individualists in western cultures?

Q7. Compare child-rearing practices between collectivists and


individualists

Q8. As members of different ethnic and cultural groups, how are humans
similar?
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW #20: Due Date 10/22


Pg.126-Pg.137
Q1. Describe some differences between males and females?
Males and females differ biologically in body fat, muscle, height, age of onset of puberty and life
expectancy. They also differ psychologically, for example, in their vulnerability to certain disorders: More
women are diagnosed with depression, more men antisocial personality disorder.

Q2. Describe the relevance of gender and aggression, and gender and social Power.
In surveys, men admit to more aggression than do women, and experiments confirm that men tend to
behave more aggressively, such as administering what they believe are more painful electric shocks. The
aggression gender gap appears in many cultures and at various ages, especially for physical aggression.
In most societies, men are socially dominant and are perceived as such. Men tend to occupy more
leadership positions, and their leadership style is more directive than women’s.

Q3. How does Gilligan believe females differ from males I viewing themselves as separate individuals?

Gilligan believes females differ from males both in being less concerned with viewing themselves as
separate individuals and in being more concerned with making connections.

Q4. How do males biologically differentiate from females during development in pregnancy? From your
father, you received the one chromosome out of 46 that is not unisex. This was either an X chromosome,
making you a girl, or a Y chromosome making you a boy. The Y chromosome includes a single gene that
throws a master switch triggering the testes to develop and produce the principle male hormone,
testosterone, which about the seventh week starts the development of external male sex organs.
Q5. What happens when glandular malfunction or hormone injections expose a female embryo to excess
tester one? These genetically female infants are born with masculine-appearing genitals, which can be
corrected surgically. Until puberty, such females tend to act in more aggressive tomboyish ways than do
most girls, and they dress and play in ways more typical of boys than girls.

Q6. Provide examples how gender roles vary over time?

As we began the last century, only one country-New Zealand- granted women the right to vote. As we
ended it, only one democracy-Kuwait-did not.
With the flick of an apron, the number of U.S. college women hoping to be fulltime homemakers plunged
during the late 1960’s and early 1970s. In 1960, one in 30 entering U.S. law students were women; by the
early 21 century, half were.
Over decades women’s assertiveness has increased and decreased with their social status.

Q7. How are young children like “gender detectives” ?

Once they grasp that two sorts of people exist and they are of one sort they search for cues about gender.
Girls they may decide are the ones with long hair.

Q8. Compare social learning theory and gender schema theory


Social learning theory is that we learn social behavior by observing and imitating and by being rewarded
or punished. Gender schema theory the theory that children learn from their cultures a concept of what it
means to be male and female and that they adjust their behavior accordingly. Through language, dress,
toys, and songs, social learning shapes gender schemas. Children then compare themselves with their
concept of gender and adjust their behavior accordingly.

Q9. Describe the biopsychosocial approach to development (Figure 3.10)


Our biology established through natural selection as members of the human species or through our unique
genetic combination at the time of our conception-provides us with certain abilities and places limits on
others. The people and customs in our social environment direct us toward specific roles and reward us for
conforming to cultural expectations. Our individual biological and psychological characteristics also evoke
reactions from those around us, which then influence our behavior.

Q10. Do our experiences form us?

Yes experiences form us by our hopes, goals and expectations influence our future and make decisions in
the future and enable cultures to vary and to change so quickly.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW #21: Due 10/27


Rd. Pg.139-146
Q1. How is fertilization like “space voyagers approaching a huge
planet”? The union of one of the man’s sperm can penetrate the outer
coating of the woman’s egg before the egg’s surface blocks out all
others.

Q2. How and when do cells differentiate?


Beginning as one cell, each of us became 2 cells, then 4 each cell
just like the first one. Within the first week, when this cell division
had produced a zygote (fewer than half of all fertilized eggs.) of some
100 cells, the cells began to differentiate to specialize in structure
and function. About 10 days after conception, the increasingly diverse
cells attach to the mother’s uterine wall, beginning approximately 37
weeks of the closest human relationship.

Q3. Describe some teratogens that affect the fetus?


The placental screen can admit teratogens-harmful agents such as
certain viruses and drugs. If the mother is a heroin addict, her baby
will be born a heroin addict. If she carries the AIDS virus, her baby
may also. A pregnant woman never smokes alone; she and her fetus both
experience reduced blood oxygen and a shot of nicotine.

Q4. What are some effects of fetal alcohol syndrome on a fetus?


The effects are visible as fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) marked by a
small, misproportioned head and lifelong brain abnormalities. FAS is
now the leading cause of mental retardation.

Q5. Describe how stress affects a fetus


Stress does lead to offspring with delayed motor development, increased
emotionality, learning deficits, and alterations in neurotransmitter
systems associated with human psychological disorders such as
depression.

Q6. What are some of the sensations perceived by an infant?


Infants are born with a number of automatic responses (reflexes) that
aid survival, including the rooting reflex that helps them locate food.
Newborn’s rapidly developing senses of sight and hearing seem tuned to
social events, such as a caretaker’s face or voice.

Q7. How do our perceptual abilities develop continuously during the


first months of life? Our perceptual abilities develop continuously
during the first months of life. Within days after birth, our brain’s
neural networks were stamped with the smell of our mother’s body.

Q8. Describe the novel procedure by Spencer, Quinn, and their


colleagues regarding habituation and infants

Researchers can discover some of what preverbal infants sense and think
by observing how they react to novel stimuli (such as colors, shapes,
and forms) and grow bored with (habituate to) familiar stimuli. To
recognize a new stimulus as different, an infant must remember the old
stimulus, which indicates a simple form of learning.

Q9. Describe brain development of a fetus in the mother’s womb


The developing brain cortex actually over produces neurons with the
number peaking at 28 weeks and then subsiding to a stable 23 billion or
so at birth.

Q10. Describe the brain’s neural network from ages 3 to 6


After birth, the neural networks that eventually enabled you to
walk, talk, and remember had a wild growth spurt. From ages 3 to 6, the
brain’s neural network is sprouting most rapidly in the frontal lobes,
which enable rational planning (and which continue developing into
adolescence and beyond.

Q11. What are some of the individual differences in the motor


development sequence? There are, however, individual differences in the
timing of this sequence. In the United States, for example, 25 percent
of all babies walk by age 11 months, 50 percent within a week after
their first birthday, and 90 percent by age 15 months.

Q12. Why is biological maturation necessary for successful toilet


training? Biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in
behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience.

Q13. Why do our earliest memories seldom predate our third birthdays?
An infantile amnesia-an inability to consciously recall events that
happened before age 3-results from a change in the way the brain
organizes memories at about that age. As the cortex matures, long-term
storage increases; in addition, young children’s preverbal memories are
not easily transformed into language.

Q14. Explain, “What the conscious mind does not know and cannot express
in words, the nervous system somehow remembers”?
Yet their physiological responses (measured as skin perspiration) are
greater to their former classmates, whether or not they consciously
recognize them.
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#22: Due 10/28


Rd. Pg.147- Pg.154

Q1. Describe, “Children are active thinkers, constantly trying to


construct more advanced understandings of the world”

To this end, the maturing brain builds concepts, which Piaget called
schemas. Schemas are mental molds into which we pour our experiences.
By adulthood we have built countless schemas, ranging from cats and
dogs to our concept of love.

Q2. To understand how we use and adjust our schema, Piaget proposed
which two processes?
First, we assimilate new experiences-we interpret them in terms of our
current understandings(schemas). Having a simple schema for dog, for
example, a toddler may call all four legged animals doggies. But we
also adjust, or accommodate, our schemas to fit the particulars and new
experiences.

Q3. Does object permanence blossom at 8 months?


Today’s researchers see development as more continuous than piaget
did and they now view object permanence as unfolding gradually.

Q4. Describe one experiment that demonstrated baby logic


Babies also have a head for numbers. Karen Wynn showed 5 month olds one
two or objects. Then she hid the objects behind a screen, and then
visibly removed or added one. When she lifted the screen, the infants
sometimes did a double take, staring longer when shown a wrong number
of objects. Later experiments showed that babie’s number sense extends
to large numbers and such things as drumbeats and motions.

Q5. TV watching preschoolers who block your view of the television


assume that you see what they see. What concept does this demonstrate,
and at what stage of Piaget’s development?

When relating to a young child, remember that such behaviors reflect a


cognitive limitation: The egocentric preschoolers are not intentionally
selfish or inconsiderate.
Q6. How does a preschooler’s theory of mind enable them to infer other
feelings? They simply have not developed the ability to take another’s
viewpoint. We never, however fully outgrow our early childhood
egocentrism. Even as adults, we often overestimate the extent to which
others share our opinions and perspective, as when we assume that
something will be clear to others if it is clear to us.

Q7. How is autism marked by an impaired theory of mind?


As their ability to infer others mental states develops, children
will seek to understand what made a playmate angry, when a sibling will
share, and what might make a parent buy a toy. The preschooler’s
growing ability to tease, empathize, and persuade stems from this
growing ability to taker another’s perspective. Between about 31/2 and
41/2 for example, children worldwide come to realize that others may
hold false beliefs.

Q8. How do children by age 7 become increasingly capable of thinking in


words and of using words to work out solutions to problems?

By no longer thinking aloud. Instead they internalize their culture’s


language and rely on inner speech. Whether out loud or inaudible,
talking to themselves helps children control their behavior and
emotions and master new skills And when parents give children words,
they provide, Vygotsky’s words, a scaffold upon which children can step
to higher levels of thinking.

Q9. During the concrete operational stage, which mental ability do the
children comprehend. They comprehend to mathematical transformations
and conservation.
Q10. At age 12, how does our reasoning expand?
Our reasoning expands from the purely concrete (involving actual
experience) to encompass abstract thinking (involving imagined
realities and symbols).

Q11. What are the implications of Piaget’s cognitive milestones for


parents and teachers?

Piaget contended that children construct their understandings from


their interactions with the world. This implies that children are not
passive receptacles waiting to be filled with a teacher’s knowledge.
Teachers would do better to build on what children already know,
engaging them in concrete demonstrations and stimulating them to think
for them selves. Future parents and teachers remember young children
are incapable of adult logic.
Navneet Kaur PD8 AP Psychology

Chapter 3: Nature, Nurture and Human diversity

HW #16: Due Date 10/14


Rd: Pg.95-Pg.101
Q1. Describe the similarities between evolutionary psychology, and the
environment (parents, peers, and culture)
Q2. What is the role of a behavior geneticist?
Q3. How is “every human close to being your identical twin”?
Q4. How are geneticists and psychologists interested in DNA?
Q5. Describe gene complexes
Q6. How are fraternal twins genetically different from identical twins,
and
describe the implications
Q7. What is the significance of Jim Lewis and his brother?
Q8. What were Thomas Bouchard’s critics argument concerning twin
similarity?
Q9. Describe the stunning finding from studies of hundreds of adoptive
families comparing adopted children to their adopted parents and
biological
parents?

HW #17: Due Date 10/16


Rd. Pg.102-107
Q1. Describe the four findings concerning temperament
Q2. How do identical twins have a more similar temperament?
Q3. Is heritability higher in dramatically different environments or
very
similar environments?
Q4. How does heritable individual differences imply heritable group
differences?
Q5. How are genes self-regulating?
Q6. Give an example of how environment triggers gene activity, and how
our
genetically influenced traits evoke significant responses in others?
Q7. Which psychological disorders are genetically influenced, and how
do
molecular geneticists seek out the implicated genes?
Q8. How does prenatal screening poses ethical dilemmas?
Q9. How is progress a two-edged sword as imagined in Brave New World?
Q10. Would you want genetic tests on your unborn offspring? In the
uterus?
What would you do if your child would be destined for hemophilia? A
learning
disability? Would society benefit or lose if such embryos were aborted?

HW #18: Due Date 10/17


Pg.107-Pg.118
Q1. What did Belyaev and Trut demonstrate about certain traits when
selected?
Q2. How does our behavioral and biological similarities arise from our
shared human genome? Give examples
Q3. Give an example of how we are predisposed to behave in ways that
promoted our ancestor’s surviving and reproducing?
Q4. Elaborate on the three examples of gender differences in sexuality
Q5. How does natural selection explain women’s more relational and
men’s
more recreational approaches to sex?
Q6. What do heterosexual men and women find attractive in the other
sex?
Q7. What are some of the social consequences of evolutionary
psychology?
Q8. Describe the differences between same-placenta identical twins and
separate placenta identical twins?
Q9. Why was Mark Rosenweig discovered by his experiment?
Q10. Describe the process of pruning?
Q11. Does our neural tissues change throughout life and how?
Q12. How is parental nurture like nutrition
Q13. Provide a specific example of peer influence on children

HW #19: Due Date 10/21


Pg.119-Pg.126
Q1. How do humans differ and compare with each other across cultures?
Q2. Describe norms of some cultural groups
Q3. What were the greatest culture shocks to the U.S. Peace Corps
volunteers
in adjusting to their host countries?
Q4. What were some negative cultural changes to the United States since
1960?
Q5. Describe five characteristics of individualism and collectivism
Q6. How do collectivists in eastern cultures contrast from
individualists
in western cultures?
Q7. Compare child-rearing practices between collectivists and
individualists
Q8. As members of different ethnic and cultural groups, how are humans
similar?

HW #20: Due Date 10/22


Pg.126-Pg.137
Q1. Describe some differences between males and females?
Q2. Describe the relevance of gender and aggression, and gender and
social
power
Q3. How does Gilligan believe females differ from males I viewing
themselves
as separate individuals?
Q4. How do males biologically differentiate from females during
development
in pregnancy?
Q5. What happens when glandular malfunction or hormone injections
expose a
female embryo to excess tester one?
Q6. Provide examples how gender roles vary over time?
Q7. How are young children like “gender detectives” ?
Q8. Compare social learning theory and gender schema theory
Q9. Describe the biopsychosocial approach to development (Figure 3.10)
Q10. Do our experiences form us?

Chapter 4: Developing Through The Life Span

HW #21: Due 10/27


Rd. Pg.139-146
Q1. How is fertilization like “space voyagers approaching a huge
planet”?
Q2. How and when do cells differentiate?
Q3. Describe some teratogens that affect the fetus?
Q4. What are some effects of fetal alcohol syndrome on a fetus?
Q5. Describe how stress affects a fetus
Q6. What are some of the sensations perceived by an infant?
Q7. How do our perceptual abilities develop continuously during the
first
months of life
Q8. Describe the novel procedure by Spencer, Quinn, and their
colleagues
regarding habituation and infants
Q9. Describe brain development of a fetus in the mother’s womb
Q10. Describe the brain’s neural network from ages 3 to 6
Q11. What are some of the individual differences in the motor
development
sequence?
Q12. Why is biological maturation necessary for successful toilet
training?
Q13. Why do our earliest memories seldom predate our third birthdays?
Q14. Explain, “What the conscious mind does not know and cannot express
in
words, the nervous system somehow remembers”?

HW#22: Due 10/28


Rd. Pg.147- Pg.154
Q1. Describe, “Children are active thinkers, constantly trying to
construct
more advanced understandings of the world”
Q2. To understand how we use and adjust our schema, Piaget proposed
which
two processes?
Q3. Does object permanence blossom at 8 months?
Q4. Describe one experiment that demonstrated baby logic
Q5. TV watching preschoolers who block your view of the television
assume
that you see what they see. What concept does this demonstrate, and at
what
stage of Piaget’s development
Q6. How does a preschooler’s theory of mind enable them to infer other
feelings?
Q7. How is autism marked by an impaired theory of mind?
Q8. How do children by age 7 become increasingly capable of thinking in
words and of using words to work out solutions to problems?
Q9. During the concrete operational stage, which mental ability do the
children comprehend
Q10. At age 12, how does our reasoning expand?
Q11. What are the implications of Piaget’s cognitive milestones for
parents
and teachers?

Navneet Kaur PD8 AP Psychology

HW#23: Due 10/29


Rd. Pg.154- Pg.161

Q1. How do babies develop stranger anxiety?


Stranger anxiety is the fear of strangers that infants begin to
display at about 8 months of age. Children of this age have formed
schemas for familiar faces, and they become distressed when faces do
not match their schemas.

Q2. Describe the experiment conducted on monkeys by University of


Wisconsin psychologist Harry Harlow and Margaret Harlow.
To equalize the infant monkey’s experiences and to isolate any disease,
they separated them from their mother’s shortly after birth and raised
them in sanitary individual cages, which included a cheesecloth baby
blanket. Surprisingly, the infants became intensely attached to their
blankets: When the blankets were taken to be laundered, the monkeys
became distressed

Q3. How did Konrad Lorenz establish the concept of imprinting in


animals? Every where that Konrad went, the ducks were sure to go.
Further test revealed that although baby birds imprint best to their
own species. They also will imprint to a variety of moving objects-an
animal of another species, a box on wheels, a bouncing ball.
Q4. Contrast secure and insecure attachment
Secure attachment is that infants in their mother’s presence they
play comfortably, happily exploring their new environment. When she
leaves, they are distressed; when she returns, they seek contact with
their. Insecure attachment is they are less likely to explore their
surroundings; they may even cling to their mother. When she leaves,
they either cry loudly and remain upset or seem indifferent to their
mother’s going and returning.

Q5. Describe the evidence that indicates that fathers are more than
just mobile sperm banks
But evidence increasingly indicates that fathers are more than just
mobile sperm banks. Across nearly 100 studies worldwide, a father’s
love and acceptance have been comparable to a mother’s love in
predicting offspring’s health and well being. In one mammoth British
study following 7259 children from birth to adulthood, those whose
fathers were most involved in parenting tended to achieve more in
school, even after controlling for many other factors such as parental
education and family wealth.

Q6. How did Erik Erikson describe how securely attached children
approach life? Erikson said that securely attached children approach
life with a sense of basic trust-a sense that the world is predictable
and reliable. He attributed trust to early parenting.
He theorized that infants blessed with sensitive, loving caregivers
form a lifelong attitude of trust rather than fear.

Q7. Is today’s victim predictably tomorrow’s victimizer?


No, though most abusers were indeed abused, most abused children do not
later become violent criminals or abusive parents.

Q8. Describe the association of serotonin, and abused children


A similarily sluggish serotonin response has been found in abused
children who become aggressive tens and adults. “ Stress can set off a
ripple of hormonal changes that permanently wire a child’s brain to
cope with a malevolent world”.

Q9. What happens to an infant when attachment is disrupted?


Separated from their families, both monkey and human infants become
upset and, before long, withdrawn and even despairing.

Q10. Describe four specific research findings regarding children and


daycare
Toddler’s stress hormone levels tend to rise during days spent in day
care and to diminish during days spent at home. When mothers transition
from welfare to work, their preschool children do not suffer negative
outcomes.
Although working mothers spend less total time with their infants, they
tend to partially compensate by sacrificing other activities during
their off hours, including weekends. As a result they spend more time
during those hours playing with, talking to and holding their infants
than do their nonworking counterparts.

Q11. Describe cultural variations in attachment patterns

Children’s ability to thrive under varied types of responsive


caregiving should not surprise us, given cultural variations in
attachment patterns. Westernized attachment features one or two
caregivers and their offspring. In other cultures, such as the Efe of
Zaire, multiple caregivers are the norm. Even before the mother holds
her newborn, the baby is passed among several women.
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#24: Due 10/30


Rd. Pg. 161- Pg.174

Q1. Describe the research that helped determine self-recognition


Beginning with this simple self-recognition, the child’s self
concept gradually strengthens. By school age, children start to
describe themselves in terms of their gender, group memberships, and
psychological traits, and they compare themselves with other children.

Q2. How do children’ views of themselves affect their actions


Children’s views of themselves affect their actions. Children who form
a positive self-concept are more confident, independent, optimistic,
assertive and sociable.

Q3. Describe three parenting styles

Authoritarian parents impose rules and expect obedience: “ Don’t


interrupt”. “Do keep your room clean.” “Don’t stay out late or you’ll
be grounded.” “ Why? Because I said so”. Permissive parents submit to
their children’s desires, make few demands, and use little punishment.
Authoritative parents are both demanding and responsive. They exert
control not only by setting rules and enforcing them but also by
explaining the reasons and especially with older children, encouraging
open discussion and allowing exceptions when making the rules.

Q4. Describe other possible explanations that reveal other correlations


between certain parenting styles and certain childhood outcomes

Perhaps children’s traits


influence parenting more than vice versa. Parental warmth and control
vary somewhat from child to child even in the same family. So perhaps
socially mature, agreeable, easygoing children evoke greater trust and
warmth from their parents, and less competent and less cooperative
children elicit less.
Perhaps there may be some underlying third factor. Maybe, for example,
competent parents and their competent children share genes that
predispose social competence.

Q5. What is Carl Jung’ perspective about raising a child?


Remind young adults of their mortality and they will express
increased desire for children.

Q6. How did G. Stanley Hall describe adolescence?


One of the first psychologists to describe adolescence, the tension
between biological maturity and social dependence created a period of
“storm and stress.”

Q7. How does early onset of puberty have psychological consequences on


boys and girls? Puberty follows a surge if hormones, which may
intensify moods and which trigger a two year period of rapid physical
development, usually beginning at age 11 in girls and at about age 13
in boys. About the time of puberty, boy’s growth propels them to
greater height than their female counterparts.
Q8. Describe the behavioral effects of frontal lobe and limbic system
development during adolescence
Frontal lobe development during adolescence also includes the growth
of myelin, the fatty tissue around axons that speeds neurotransmission.
This frontal lobe maturation lags the emotional limbic system. The
pubertal hormonal surge and limbic system development helps explain
teens occasional impulsiveness, risky behaviors, emotional storms.

Q9. Why are there increased debates between adolescents and their
parents? Adolescents may think their private experiences are unique.
They assume their parents just can’t understand what it feels like to
be dating or to hate school. Adolescent’s ability to reason
hypothetically and deduce consequences also enables them to detect
inconsistencies in other’s reasoning and to spot hypocrisy and never to
lose sight of their own ideals.
Q10. How is Lawrence Kohl berg’s development of moral reasoning like a
moral ladder? Kohlberg’s claim was that these levels form a moral
ladder from the bottom rung of a young child’s immature,
preconventional morality, to the top rung of an adult’s self –defined
ethical principles, which only some attain. As our thinking matures,
our behavior also becomes less selfish and more caring.
Q11. Explain the social intuitionist approach of morality
Social intuitionist account of morality, moral feelings precede moral
reasoning. Moral reasoning is our mind’s press secretary-aims to
convince others of what we intuitively feel. The social intuitionist
explanation of morality finds support from a study of moral paradoxes.

Q12. How does delayed gratification promote moral action?


Those who do learn to delay gratification become more socially
responsible, academically successful and productive.

Q13. How does identity incorporate a more positive self-concept, and


become more personalized?
Their identity typically incorporates an increasingly positive self
concept. In several nationwide studies, researchers have given young
Americans tests of self esteem. A small number unthinkingly adopt the
identity of their parents or rejecting the values of parents and
society, take on the identity of peers. Self esteem increases with
identity achievement. Erikson believed that having a clear and
comfortable identity is a precondition for forming close relationships.

Q14. Relate the term intimacy to Aristotle’s statement


that humans “social animals”.

Intimacy is ability to form emotionally close relationships and we


recognize we humans are social animals.

Q15. How does positive relations with parents support positive peer
relations?

High school girls who have most affectionate relationships with their
mothers tend also to enjoy the most intimate friendships with
girlfriends. And teens who feel close to their parents tend to be
healthy and happy and to do well in school.

Q16. Describe the time form age 18 to the mid-twenties known as


emerging adulthood

When many young people in Western cultures are no longer adolescents


but have not yet achieved full independence as adults. During this
time, many young people, attend college or work but continue to live in
their parents home.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#26: Due 11/3


Rd. Pg.185-Pg.194

Q1. What are the reasons skeptics question age-linked stages such as
the “mid-life crisis”? The social clock, cultural prescription of “the
right time” to leave home, get a job, marry, have children, and retire-
varies from culture to culture and era to era.

Q2. Give examples of how chance events affect us down the road? Even
chance events can have lasting significance because they often deflect
us down one road rather than another. Romantic attraction, for example,
is often influenced by chance encounters. Albert Bandura recalls the
ironic true story of a book editor who came to one of his lectures on
the psychology of chance encounters and life paths and ended up
marrying the woman who happened to sit next to him.

Q3. How does cohabitation affect divorce rates and why?


In reality, studies in Europe, Canada, and the United States have
repeatedly found that those who cohabited before marriage actually had
higher rates of divorce and marital dysfunction than those who did not.
Cohabiters tend to be initially less committed to the ideal of enduring
marriage, and they become even less marriage-supporting while
cohabiting.

Q4. Why is marriage considered an enduring and positive institution?


Stable marriages provide five times more instances of smiling,
touching, complimenting, and laughing. The most enduring of life
changes, having a child is a happy event. However, when children begin
to absorb time, money, and emotional energy, satisfaction with the
marriage itself may decline.
Q5. Describe a “post launch honeymoon”
They maintain close relationships with their children.

Q6. How does work define happiness?


In the end, happiness is about having work that fits your interests and
provides you with a sense of competence and accomplishment.

Q7. Why do positive feelings grow after mid-life and negative feelings
subside? Older adults increasingly use words that convey positive
emotions. They attend less and less to negative information. For
example, they are slower than younger adults to perceive negative
faces. Their amygdale, a neural processing center for emotions, shows
diminishing activity in response to negative events while maintaining
its responsiveness to positive events.

Q8. How does life become less an emotional roller coaster, and more
like paddling a canoe? Adult moods are less extreme but more enduring.
For most people, old age offers less intense joy but greater
contentment and increased spirituality, especially for those who remain
socially engaged. As we age, life becomes less an emotional roller
coaster, more like paddling a canoe.

Q9. When is grief especially severe for the death of a loved one?
Grief is especially severe when the death of a loved one comes
suddenly and before its expected time on the social clock. The
accidental death of a child or the sudden illness that claims a 45 year
old partner may trigger a year or more of mourning flooded with
memories, eventually subsiding to a mild depression that sometimes
continues for several years.
Q10. Give three examples of a range of reactions to a loved one’s
death. Those who express the strongest grief immediately do not purge
their grief more quickly. For most people, bereavement therapy and
self-help groups do little to enhance the healing power of time and
supportive friends. Grieving spouses who talk often with others or who
receive grief counseling adjust no better than those who grieve more
privately. Some people grieve hard and long, others more lightly and
briefly.

Q11. How does the concept of stage still remain useful?


Reasearch casts doubt on idea that life proceeds through neatly
defined, age-linked stages, the concept of stage remains useful. The
human brain does experience growth spurts during childhood and puberty
that correspond roughly to Piaget’s stages. And stage theories
contribute a developmental perspective on the whole life span, by
suggesting how people of one age think and act differently when they
arrive at a later age.

Q12. Give examples of 3 points that researchers agree on concerning


Development.

As people grow older, however, personality does gradually stabilize.


Some characteristics, such as temperament, are more stable than others,
such as social attitudes. For most people, life goals, such as whether
one seeks status, pleasure, or close relationships, also are quite
stable. In some ways we all change with age. Life requires both
stability and change. As we age, we may change relative to our earlier
selves while sustaining our characteristic traits in comparison to our
age mates.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW #27: Due 11/12


Rd. Pg.197-203

Q1. How do we construct perceptions?


We construct perceptions drawing both on sensations coming bottom-up
to the brain and on our experience and expectations, while
psychologists call top-downing process.

Q2. Describe prosopagnosia


After losing a temporal lobe area essential to recognizing faces,
patient E.H. suffers from a condition. She has complete sensation but
incomplete perception. She can sense visual information-indeed may
accurately report the features of a face-yet she is unable to recognize
it.

Q3. Provide an example of how animals detect the world that lies beyond
human experience

Birds use their magnetic compass. Bats and dolphins locate prey with
sonar (bouncing echoing sound off objects).

Q4. Describe stimuli that we are extremely sensitive to?


We could feel the wing of a bee falling on our cheek.

Q5. How does a hearing specialist test your absolute threshold?


Would expose each of your ears to varying sound levels. For each
tone, the test would define where half the time you correctly detect
the sound and half the time you do not.

Q6. Provide examples of circumstances in relation to signal detection


theory.
Exhausted parents of a newborn will notice the faintest whimper from
the cradle while failing to notice louder, unimportant sounds.
Responsiveness also increases in a horror-filled wartime situation,
where failure to detect an intruder may mean death.

Q7. Can we sense stimuli below our absolute thresholds?


At or slightly below this threshold we will detect the stimulus
some of the time. Sometimes we know more than we think we do.

Q8. Describe a subliminal priming phenomenon


Sometimes we feel what we do not know and cannot describe. An
imperceptibly brief stimulus evidently triggers a weak response that
can be detected by brain scanning. That small brain response may evoke
a feeling, though not a conscious awareness of the stimulus.

Q9. Can advertisers really manipulate is with “hidden persuasion”? Why


or why not? No, the subliminal tape hucksters claim something different
a powerful, enduring effect on behavior.

Q10. Describe the experiment that led Greenwald to his


conclusion “Subliminal procedures offer little or nothing of value to
the marketing practitioner”?
Conducted 16 double-blind experiments evaluate subliminal self-help
tapes. His results were uniform and no one had any therapeutic
effect.The tapes had no effects, yet the students perceived themselves
receiving the benefits they expected.
Q11. Provide examples of the difference threshold
A wine taster must detect the slight flavor difference between
two vintage wines. Parents must detect the sound of their own child’s
voice amid other children’s voice.

Q12. How does Weber’s law work well for non extreme sensory stimuli,
and parallel some of our life expectancies?

Our thresholds for detecting differences are a roughly constant


proportion of the size of the original stimulus.

Q13. How does sensory adaptation offer an important benefit to us?


We benefit from this phenomenon because it focuses our attention on
informative changes in stimulation, rather than on unchanging elements
in our environment.

Q14. How does our sensitivity to changing stimulation help explain


television’s attention-getting power?

Cuts, edits, zooms, pans, and sudden noises demand attention. Even
television researchers marvel at the attention-grabbing power of TV.
During interesting conservations, notes media researcher that he cannot
stop watching the T.V
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#28: 11/13
Rd. Pg. 204-08
Q1. Describe the electromagnetic spectrum and how it strikes our eyes
The electromagnetic spectrum ranges from imperceptibly short
waves of gamma rays, to the narrow band that we see as visible light,
to the long waves of radio transmission.

Q2. Explain two physical characteristics of light that help determine


our sensory experience
Light’s wavelength the distance from one wave peak to the next
determines its hue (color we experience). Intensity the amount of
energy in light waves (determined by a wave’s amplitude or height),
influences brightness.

Q3. Describe the process of an incoming ray of light from a candle lit
as it reaches the eye’s receptor cells (Detail each step)
Light enters the eye through the cornea, a protective covering that
bends the light ray. The iris, a ring of muscle, controls the size of
the pupil, through which light enters. The lens changes shape to focus
light rays on the retina, the inner surface of the eye, where receptor
cells convert the light energy into neural impulses.

Q4. If the retina receives an upside-down image, how can we see the
world right side up? Psychologists discovered that the retina doesn’t
read the image as a whole. Rather its millions of receptor cells
convert light energy into neural impulses. These impulses are sent to
the brain and constructed there into a perceived, a upright seeming
image.

Q5. Why do children with farsightedness do not need glasses until they
reach middle age? People only mildly farsighted often do not discover
their condition until middle age, as the lens becomes less flexible and
loses its ability to change shape rapidly and they need glasses,
especially for reading and seeing other nearby objects.

Q6. How do neural signals carry information to the brain?


Light energy striking the rods and cones produces chemical changes
that generate neural signals. These signals activate the neighboring
bipolar cells, which in turn activate the neighboring ganglion cells.
The axons from the network of ganglion cells converge like the strands
of a rope to form an optic nerve that carries information to your
brain(where thalamus receives and distributes the information).
Q7. How does a blind spot occur?
Where the optic nerve leaves the eye there are no receptor cells
creating a blind spot.
Q8. Describe five differences between rods and cones
Cones cluster around fovea, retina’s area of central focus. In
fact, the fovea contains only cones, no rods. Many cones have their own
hotline to the brain-bipolar cells that help relay the cone’s
individual message to the visual cortex, which devotes a large area to
input from the fovea. These direct connections preserve the cones
precise information, making them better able to detect fine detail.
Rods have no such hotline; they bipolar cells with other rods, so their
individual messages get combined. Cones and rods each provide a special
sensitivity-cones to detail and color, and rods to faint light.

Q9. Describe adaptation in a dark theater


When you enter a darkened theater or turn off the light at night, your
pupils dilate to allow more light to reach the rods in the retina’s
periphery. It typically takes 20 minutes or more before your eyes fully
adapt. You can demonstrate dark adaptation by closing or covering one
eye for up to 20 minutes. This period of dark adaptation is yet another
instance of the remarkable flexibility of our sensory systems, for it
parallels the average natural twilight transition between the sun’s
setting and darkness.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#29: 11/14
Rd. Pg. 208-214

Q1. How do retinal cell fire messages?


Any given retinal area relays it information to a corresponding
location in the occipital lobe-the visual cortex in the back of your
brain. The same sensitivity that enables retinal cells to fire messages
can lead them to misfire as well.
Q2. Describe Hubel and Wiesel’s discovery regarding feature detectors
They demonstrated that the visual cortex has feature detector
neurons that receive this information and respond to a scene’s specific
features to particular edges, lines, angles, movements.
Q3. Explain “vast visual encyclopedia”
Reported that for biologically important objects and events,
monkey brains (and surely ours as well) have a vast visual encyclopedia
distributed as cells that respond to one stimulus but not to others.
Perret identified nerve cells that specialize in responding to a
specific gaze, head angle, posture, or body movement.
Q4. What is the effect of the Necker cube?
As you stare at this Necker cube, providing fairly constant stimulation
to your retina, your perception-and accompanying neural activity in
your brain-will change every couple of seconds.
Q5. Using parallel processing, how does the brain recognize a face?
To recognize a face, for example, the brain integrates information
that the retina projects to several visual cortex areas, compares it to
stored information, and enables you to recognize the image as, say,
your grandmother.
Q6. What were the effects of stroke damage on “Mrs. M”
Having suffered stroke damage near the rear of both sides of her brain,
she can no longer perceive moment.
Q7. Describe the phenomenon known as blindsight
Others who have lost a portion of their brain’s visual cortex to
stroke or surgery have experienced blindness in part of their field of
vision.
Q8. Provide a simplified summary of visual information processing
The visual information is transduced and sent to your brain as
millions of neural impulses, then constructed into its component
features and finally in some as yet mysterious way composed into a
meaningful perceived image, which you compare with previously stored
images and recognize.
Q9. “If no one sees a tomato, is it red?”
No, first the tomato is everything but red, because it
rejects(reflects) the long wavelengths of red. Second, tomato’s colour
is our mental construction. Color, like all aspects of vision, resides
not in the object but in the theater of our brains.
Q10. How low is our difference threshold for colors?
Our difference threshold for colors is low that we can discriminate
some 7 million different color variations.
Q11. How does Young and Von Helmholtz describe additive color mixing
vs. subtractive color mixing? Mixing paints is subtractive color
mixing because it subtracts wavelengths can be reflected light. The
more colored paints you add to the mix, the fewer wavelengths can be
reflected back. But mixing lights is additive color mixing, because the
process adds wavelengths and thus increases light-combining red, blue,
and green lights makes white lights.

Q12. Describe how people are “color-blind”?


They simply lack functioning red- or green sensitive cones, or
sometimes both. Their vision perhaps unknown to them, because their
life long vision seems normal is monochromatic or dichromatic instead
of trichromatic.

Chapter 5: Sensation

HW #27: Due 11/12


Rd. Pg.197-203
Q1. How do we construct perceptions?
Q2. Describe prosopagnosia
Q3. Provide an example of how animals detect the world that lies beyond
human experience
Q4. Describe stimuli that we are extremely sensitive to?
Q5. How does a hearing specialist test your absolute threshold?
Q6. Provide examples of circumstances in relation to signal detection
theory
Q7. Can we sense stimuli below our absolute thresholds?
Q8. Describe a subliminal priming phenomenon
Q9. Can advertisers really manipulate is with “hidden persuasion”? Why
or
why not?
Q10. Describe the experiment that led Greenwald to his
conclusion “Subliminal procedures offer little or nothing of value to
the
marketing practitioner”?
Q11. Provide examples of the difference threshold
Q12. How does Weber’s law work well for non extreme sensory stimuli,
and
parallel some of our life expectancies?
Q13. How does sensory adaptation offer an important benefit to us?
Q14. How does our sensitivity to changing stimulation help explain
television’s attention-getting power?

HW#28: 11/13
Rd. Pg. 204-08
Q1. Describe the electromagnetic spectrum and how it strikes our eyes
Q2. Explain two physical characteristics of light that help determine
our
sensory experience
Q3. Describe the process of an incoming ray of light from a candle lit
as it
reaches the eye’s receptor cells (Detail each step)
Q4. If the retina receives an upside-down image, how can we see the
world
right side up?
Q5. Why do children with farsightedness do not need glasses until they
reach
middle age?
Q6. How do neural signals carry information to the brain?
Q7. How does a blind spot occur?
Q8. Describe five differences between rods and cones
Q9. Describe adaptation in a dark theater

HW#29: 11/114
Rd. Pg. 208-214
Q1. How do retinal cell fire messages?
Q2. Describe Hubel and Wiesel’s discovery regarding feature detectors
Q3. Explain “vast visual encyclopedia”
Q4. What is the effect of the Necker cube?
Q5. Using parallel processing, how does the brain recognize a face?
Q6. What were the effects of stroke damage on “Mrs. M”
Q7. Describe the phenomenon known as blindsight
Q8. Provide a simplified summary of visual information processing
Q9. “If no one sees a tomato, is it red?”
Q10. How low is our difference threshold for colors?
Q11. How does Young and Von Helmholtz describe additive color mixing
vs.
subtractive color mixing?
Q12. Describe how people are “color-blind”?

Q13. How is it that those blind to red and green can often still see
yellow,
and why does yellow appear to b ea pure color, and not a mixture of red
and
green?
Q14. Provide an example of color constancy?
Q15. In a context that does not vary, we maintain color constancy, but
what
if the context changes?
Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#30: 11/17
Rd. Pg. 215-223
Q1. How are sound waves like a shove being transmitted through a
concert’s hall crowded exit tunnel?

Q2. Provide examples particular sounds and their decibel levels

Q3, How do we transform sound waves into nerve impulses that our brain
interests?

Q4. How are hair cells like “quivering bundles that let us hear”?

Q5. How do hair cells detect loudness?


Q6. Describe the psychological effects of noise

Q7. Describe the two theories that explain how we hear high pitched
sounds and low pitched sounds

Q8. Describe the volley principle

Q9. Provide two reasons why two ears are better than one ear
Q10. How well do we locate sound that is equidistant from our two ears,
such
as those that come from directly ahead, behind, overhead, or beneath
us?
Q11. Contrast the two types of hearing loss
Q12. How do hearing aids function?
Q13. Explain the debate concerning the use of cochlear implants
Q14. Explain this statement by Helen Keller “found deafness to be a
much
greater handicap than blindness”
Q15. Provide example of how deafness is like “visual enhancement”
Q16. If you were afflicted with aphasia, what abilities would you be
more
proficient at?

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP psychology

HW#31: 11/18
Rd. Pg-224-.234

Q1.What are the consequences if infant rats are deprived of their


mothers’ grooming touch? Produce less growth hormone anfd have a lower
metabolic rate-a good way to keep alive until the mother returns, but a
reaction that stunts growth if prolonged.
Q2, Provide examples of the four skin senses. Pressure, warmth, cold,
and pain. Stroking adjacent pressure spots creates a tickle. Repeated
gentle stroking of a pain spot that creates an itching sensation.
Touching adjacent cold and pressure spots triggers a sense of wetness,
which you can experience by touching dry, cold metal. Stimulating
nearby cold and warmth spots produces the sensation of hot.

Q3. What are the consequences of being born without pain?


May experience severe injury without ever being alerted by
pain’s danger signals and usually they die by early adulthood.

Q4. Describe Carrie Armel and Vilanaynur Ramachandranâ’s experiment on


pain. Illustrate this point when they bent a finger slightly backwards
on the unseen hands of 16 volunteers, while simultaneously hurting
(severely bending) a finger on a fake rubber hand. The volunteers felt
as if their real finger was being twisted and they responded with
increases skin perspiration that (the brain also feels.)

Q5. Describe phantom limb sensations, phantom sounds, and phantom


tastes. Phantom limb sensations indicate that with pain, as with sights
and sounds the brain can misinterpret the spontaneous central nervous
system activity that occurs in the absence of normal sensory input.
Phantom sounds- a ringing in the ears sensation known as tinnitus.
Nerve damage in the taste system can similarily produce taste phantoms,
such as ice water seeming sickeningly sweet.

Q6. How do individuals afflicted by Arthritis stimulate the “gate-


closing”? One way to treat chronic pain is to stimulate ( by massage,
by electric stimulation, or by acupuncture) gate closing activity in
large neural fibers.
activity?

Q7. How did Ohio State university player Jay Burns on play a basketball
game with a broken neck? People who carry a gene that boosts the
availability of the body’s natural painkillers the endorphins, are less
bothered by pain, and their brains are less responsive to it.

Q8. Describe the experiment of patients undergoing colon exams


Lengthening the discomfort by a minute, but lessening its
intensity. Although this extended milder discomfort added to the net
pain experience, patients experiencing this taper-down treatment later
recalled the exam as less painful than those whose pain ended abruptly.

Q9. Provide three examples of pain control


Distract people with pleasant images, drawing their attention
away from the painful stimulation. Chatting with them and asking them
to look away when inserting needle.
Q10. List the five taste sensations
Sweet,sour, salty, biiter, meaty taste of umammi.

Q11. Provide four fascinating facts about taste


Our emotional responses to taste are hard wired.
People without tongues can still taste through receptors in the back
and on the roof of the mouth. If you lose taste sensation from one side
of your tongue, you probably won’t notice. Although the middle of the
tongue has few taste receptors we perceive taste as coming from the
whole tongue. We can neither taste or nor smell the most nutrients.

Q12. Why is it no fun to eat when you have bad cold? We normally
breathe the aroma through our nose , people may think lose sense of
smell and also taste.
Q13. Describe the phenomenon synasthesia. One sort of sensation (such
as hearing sound) produces another (such as seeing color). Thus hearing
music or seeing a specific number may activate color-sensitive cortex
regions and triggers a sensation of color.
Q14. How do olfactory receptors recognize odors individually? Odor
cannot be separated into more elemental odors.
Q15. How do odors have the power to evoke memories and feelings? A
hotline runs between the brain area that gets information from the
nose and the brain’s ancient limbic centers associated with memory and
emotion.
Q16. Describe what happened to Ian Waterman of Hampshire, England. He
contracted a rare viral infection that destroyed the nerves that
enabled his sense of light touch and of body position and movement.
Q17. How do we sense our body position and maintain balance
This movement stimulates hairlike receptors, which send messages to the
cerebellum at the back of the brain, thus enabling you to sense your body position and to
maintain your balance.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP PSYCHOLOGY

HW#33: Due 11/20


Rd. Pg. 242-Pg.254

Q1. How do sensation and perception blend into one continuous process?
Processing, progressing upward from specialized detector cells
and downyard from our assumptions.
Q2. Describe the fundamental truth that gestalt psychologists
illustrate? Our brains do more than merely register information about
the world. Perception is not just opening a shutter and letting a
picture print itself on the brain. WE CONSTANTLY FILTER SENSORY
INFORMATION AND INFER PERCEPTION IN WAYS THAT MAKE SENSE TO OUS, MIND
MATTERS.
Q3. Describe reversible figure and ground illustrations?
Reversible figure and ground illustrations demonstrate again
that the same stimulus can trigger more than perception.
Q4. Describe the 5 rules identified by Gestalt psychologists for
grouping stimuli together. Proximity- group nearby figures together.
Similarity- we group together figures that are similar to each other.
Continuity- we perceive smooth, continuous patterns rather than
discontinuous ones. Connectedness-b/c they are uniform and linked.
Closure- we fill in gaps to create a complete, the whole object.
Q5. Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk devised the visual cliff to provide
what principles about infants? To determine whether crawling infants
and newborn animals can perceive depth.
Q6. How do the creators of three-dimensional movies stimulate retinal
disparity? The process begins with depth cues, some that depend on the
use of two eyes, and others that are available to each eye separately.
Q7. Describe the 8 monocular cues and examples. Relative size,
interposition, relative clarity, texture gradient, relative height,
relative motion (motion parallax), linear perspective, light and shadow.
Q8. Using motion perception, how does a softball player catch a fly
ball? They want to achieve a collision. By keeping the ball at a
constant angle of gaze, a fielder will run through the point of its
return vas it arrives.

Q9. Describe stroboscopic phenomenon


The brain will also perceive continuous movement in a rapid
series of slightly varying images.

Q10. How do our expectations about perceived size and distance


contribute to some visual illusions? Given an object’s perceived
distance and size of its image on our retinas, we instantly and
unconsciously infer the object’s size.
Q11. Describe the moon illusion
One reason is that cues to object’s distances at the horizon make the
Moon behind them seem farther away than the Moon high in the night sky.
Q12. How does the Muller-Lyer illusion reflect cultural experience?
Africans have lived in a carpentered world of rectangular
shapes. The phenomenon reflects culture experience. Africans who live
in cities are more vulnerable to the illusion than are their rural
counterparts in uncarpentered environments.
Q13. Explain the terms brightness constancy, lightness constancy, and
relative luminance. Lightness constancy also called brightness
constancy, we perceive an object as having a constant lightness even
while its illumination varies. Perceived lightness depends on relative
luminance-the amount of light an object reflects relative to its
surroundings.
Q14. Reading this word “THEDOGATEMEAT” involves what processes

Process involves not only organization but interpretation-discerning


meaning in what we perceive.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#34: Due 11/21

Rd. Pg.254-Pg.263

Q1. Describe William Molyneux’s hypothetical case “A man born blind,


and now adults, taught, by his touch to distinguish between a cube and
sphere, could”. Test few dozen adults which were blind from birth have
gained sight. Most were born with cataracts and they were surgically
removed, the patients could distinguish figure from ground and could
sense colors suggesting that these aspects of perception are innate.
Q2. What occurred to people deprived of visual experience during
infancy? People derived of visual experience, during infancy surpass
the rest of us at recognizing that the top halves are the same, because
they didn’t leran to process faces as a whole. Could associate people
with distinct features but could not instantly recognize a face.

Q3. Describe Molyneux’s imaginary experiment concerning infant kittens


and monkeys? In one experiment, they outfitted them with goggles
through which the animals could see only diffuse, unpatterned light.
After infancy, when their goggles were removed, these animals exhibited
perceptual limitations much like those of humans born with cataracts.
They could distinguish color and brightness, but not the form of a
circle.
Q4. When human infants were given corrective surgery on their eyes, and
cochlear implants for their ear, describe the consequences?
Congenitally deaf kittens and infants given cochlear implants
exhibit a similar awakening of the pertinent brain area. Experiments on
perceptual limitations and advantages produced by early sensory
deprivation provide a partial answer to our question about experience.

Q5. Describe the result of George Stratton’s experiment when he


invented and wore upside down goggles for eight day.
Flipped left to right and up to down, making the first person to
experience at right side up retinal image while standing upright.

Q6. Provide everyday examples of perceptual sets

British newspaper published genuine, unretouched photographs of


a “monster” in Scotland’s Loch Ness” the most amazing pictures ever
taken”, stated the paper. If this information creates in you the same
perceptual set it did in most of the paper’s readers, you, too, will
see the monster in the photo reproduced in. Glancing first at one of
the two unambiguous versions of the picture is likely to influence your
interpretation.

Q7. How do children’s drawings give us a way to glimpse their


developing perceptual schema? Children’s drawings reflect their schemas
of reality, as well as their abilities to represent what they see, also
human characteristics. To 3-4 yrs old a face is a more important human
feature than a body. From 3-8 ages children’s schemas for bodies become
more elaborate, and so do their drawings.

Q8. What faces did the University of Australia students accurately


recognize more often, and why? Students more recognized more accurately
recognized the caricatured faces than actual ones. A caricatured Arnold
Schwarzenegger is more recognizably Schwarzenegger than Schwarzenegger
himself.
Q9. Provide three examples of contextual effects.
Context creates expectations that guide our perceptions. Emotional
context can color our interpretation of other people’s behaviors and
our own. Perceptual set and context effects interact to help us
construct our perceptions.

Q10. How do emotional contexts color our social perceptions?


Spouses feel loved and appreciated perceive less threat in
stressful marital events. If told a soccer team has a history of
aggressive behavior, professional referees will assign more penalty
cards after watching videotaped fouls.

Q11. “Is perception innate or learned?”


Both, perception is fed by sensation and cognition and that we
need multiple levels of analysis. Simple perceptions are the brains
creative products.
Q12. What is the role of a human factors psychologist?
Help design appliances, machines, and work settings that fit our
natural perceptions.

Q13. Describe the “curse of knowledge” suffered by technology


developers? Which leads them to mistakenly assume that others share
their expertise that what’s clear to them will similarly be clear to
others.
Q14. What observations did Conrad Kraft note on the landing accidents
with Boeing 727? All accidents took place at night, and all involved
landing short of the runway after crossing a dark sketch of water or
unilluminated ground. Pilots deceived into thinking they were flying
higher than their actual altitudes.
Q15. Describe the available “assistive listening” technologies in
various auditoriums, places of worship, and theaters. One technology
requires people with hearing loss to use a head set attached to a
pocket sized receiver that detects infrared or FM signals from the
room’s soundsystem.

Navneet Kaur PD1 AP Psychology

HW#35: Due 11/24


Rd Pg.264-Pg.269

Q1. Describe the three varities of ESP? telepathy, or mind to mind


communication-one person sending thoughts to another or perceiving
another’s thoughts. Clairvoyance or perceiving remote events, such as
sensing that a friend’s house is on fire. Precognition, or perceiving
future events, such as a political leader’s death or a sporting event’s
outcome.
Q2. Explain “Will all those who believe in psycho kinesis please raise
my hand?” closely linked with these are claims of psychokinesis, or
mind over matter, such as levitating a table or influencing the roll
of die.
Q3. How accurate are the analyses of psychic visions, and why? The
analyses of psychic visions are no more accurate than guesses made by
others. Psychics working with the police do however generate hundreds
of predictions.
Q4. What were the findings of two Harvard psychologists in testing the
prophetic power of dreams after aviator Charles Lindbergh’s son was
kidnapped, and murdered in 1932, but before the body was discovered?
Five percent envisioned child dead, only 4 out of 1300 correctly
anticipated the body’s location buried among trees.

Q5. List some of the stunning coincidences that occur, after events
imagined? Six months after comic writer john byrne’s spider man story
about a NewYork blackout appeared, New York suffered its massive
blackout.
Q6. Seeking reproducible phenomenon, how might we test ESP claims in a
controlled experiment? Experimenter controls what psychic sees and
hears. One controlled procedure has invited senders to telepathically
transmit one of four visual images to receivers deprived of sensation
in nearby chambers.
Q7. Why has magician Randi’s offered one million dollars to prove what
claim? To refute those who say there is no ESP, one need only produce a
single person who can demonstrate a single, reproducible ESP phenomenon.
Q8. Why are so many people predisposed to believe that ESP exists?
In part, such beliefs may stem from understandable
misperceptions, misinterpretations, and selective call. Having lost
their religious faith, began searching for a scientific basis for
believing in the meaning of life and in life after death.

Q9. Describe Wiseman’s “mind machine” and it’s results?


He created a mind machine to see if people can influence or predict a
coin toss. When experiment concluded in January 2000, nearly 28,000
people had predicted 110,972 tosses with 49.8 percent correct.

Navneet Kaur

HW#38 due 12/4


Rd. Pg. 285-Pg.290
Q1. Describe “hallucinations of the sleeping mind”
REM dreams that are vivid, emotional, and bizarre. They tend to
involve the familiar details of our lives-perhaps imagining an
alternative approach to something we have to do, or picturing
ourselves explaining to an instructor why a paper will be late, or
replaying in our minds personal encounters that we relish or regret.

Q2. How do blind people dream?

Using their nonvisual senses – hearing, touching, smelling, tasting.

Q3. Describe some facts some specific details about the content of
dreams? People commonly dream of repeatedly failing in an attempt to do
something; of being attacked, pursued, or rejected; or of experiencing
misfortune. When awakened during REM sleep, people report dreams with
sexual imagery less often than you might think. More commonly, we dream
of events in our daily lives, a meeting at work, taking an exam, or
relating to a family member or friend. Across the world, people of all
ages show an unexplainable gender difference in dream content.

Q4.Why do we forget dreams when waking in the morning?


Anything that happens during the 5 minutes just before we fall
asleep is typically lost from memory.

Q5. According to Freud, how is a dream’s manifest a symbolic version of


it’s latent content? Consists of unconsciousness drives and wishes that
would be threatening if expressed directly.
Q6. Why do some researchers denounce Freud’s wish fulfillment of
dreams? Researchers who see dreams as information processing believe
that dreams may help sift, sort, and fix the day’s experiences in our
memory.

Q7. How are dreams like information processing? In experiments, people


have heard unusual phrases or learned to find hidden visual images
before bedtime. If awakened every time they began REM sleep, they
remembered less the next morning than if awakened during other sleep
stages.
Q8. How do we experience REM sleep, in part, to remember? The brain
regions that buzz as people learn to perform a visual discrimination
task, buzz later again during REM sleep. Deep, slow-wave sleep, it
seems, helps stabilize our memories of experiences. AND REM sleep helps
convert memories into long-term learning.
Q9. Describe the effects of students suffering from sleep bulimia,
binge sleeping on the weekends. If you don’t get good sleep and enough
sleep after you learn new stuff, you won’t integrate it effectively
into your memories.. That may explain why high achieving secondary
students with high grades average 25 minutes more sleep a night and go
to bed 40 minutes earlier than their lower achieving classmates.
Q10. Describe the activation-synthesis theory
This neural activity is random, and dreams are the brains’s
attempt to make sense of it.

Q11. Describe the limbic system roles in dreams relating to Freud’s


dream theories. As freud might have expected
Q12. Describe how cognitive researchers view our dreams part of brain
maturation and cognitive development
Q13. What is the on thing that all dream researchers agree on?
Q14. What does it suggest that REM sleep occurs only in mammals?
Q15. What do advocates of dream reflection suggest?

Navneet Kaur

HW#39 due 12/5


Rd. Pg. 290-Pg.296

Q1. How did Anton Mesmer discover hypnosis?


Q2. What abilities those under hypnosis do posses?

Q3. Describe hypnotic “susceptibility”?

Q4. Describe age-regression

Q5. How do “hypnotically refreshed memories” combine fact with fiction?

Q6. Describe the dangerous act researchers Martin Orne and Fredrick
Evans demonstrated that hypnotized people could be induced to perform
and why?

Q7. Provide example of post hypnotic suggestions in helping patients


harnessing the own healing powers?

Q8. Describe the two theories of hypnotic pain relief such as when
hypnotized people put their arms in an ice bath for 25 minutes and feel
no pain?

Q9. What do PET scans reveal about hypnosis and pain stimuli?

Q10. How do people begin to feel and behave in ways appropriate the
role of the “good hypnotic subject”?

Q11. How did Ernest Hilgard view hypnotic dissociation?


Q12. What do researchers mean when they refer to a “hypnotic state”?
Q13. Describe Khilstorn's and McConkey’s “unified account of hypnosis”

Navneet Kaur

HW#41 due 12/9


Rd. Pg.304-Pg.308

Q1. Describe the three examples of the marijuana-related trends


Impaired learning and memory, increased risk of psychological
disorders, lung damage from smoke.

Q2. Describe the alcohol-related trend


Depression, memory loss, organ damage, impaired reactions.

Q3. Describe six warning signs of alcoholism


Drinking binges, regretting things done or said when drunk,
feeling low or guilty after drinking, failing to honor a resolve to
drink less, drinking to alleviate depression or anxiety, avoiding
family or friends when drinking.
Q3. Describe six examples of evidence that heredity influences some
aspects of alcohol abuse problems.
If one or both parents have history of alcoholism
Having identical rather then fraternal twins with alcoholism puts one
at increased risk for alcohol problems. Boys who at age 6 excitable,
impulsive, and fearless are more likely as teens to amoke, drink, and
use other drugs.
Mice engineered to overproduce NPY are very sensitive to alcohols
sedating effect and drink little.
Genes that are more common among people and animals predisposed to
alcoholism.

Q4. Describe the dopamine reward circuit


Biological basis for addioctrion is a brain pleasure pathway.addictive
chemicals cocaine , heroine, alcohol commandeer reward circuit and
boost its activiuty.

Q5. What psychological factor did Newcomb and Harlow discover


concerning influences of drugs? Feeling life is meaning less
directionless, school drop no job skills.
Q6. How is peer influence a major social influence on drug use?
Throw parties and provide drugs.
Q7. What are the three possible channels of influence for drug
prevention and treatment? Peers, sovial; network changes,
Education about long term costs of tewmpoorary dpleasures. Boost self
esteem and purpose in life, refusal skills.
Q8. How has the media influence alcohol usage? Feel good themselvea nd
direction they taking.

Navneet Kaur

HW # 43: due 12/11


Rd. Pg.549-Pg.561
Q1. How would psychologists describe health, and how is health
psychology related to behavioral medicine? For health is more than
merely the slowest possible rate at which one can die. Our behaviors ,
such as smoking, regular exercise, nutrition, and exposure to prolonged
stress, can affect our susceptibility to heart disease, cancer,
stroke,and chronic lung diseases as well as making us more vulnerable
to high blood pressure, skin rashes, and other illnesses. The field of
behavioral medicine is based on the understanding that mind and body
interact. Within that field, health psychology studies the ways our
attitudes, emotions, behaviors, and personality influence our health,
well-being, and risk of disease.

Q2. List the four leading deaths in the United States in 1900, and in
the year 2000? 1900- tuberculosis, pneumonia, diarrhea/ enteritis,
heart disease. 2000- heart disease, cancer, strokes, chronic lung
disease.

Q3. Provide an example of negative stress appraisal and positive stress


appraisal and how we respond and the appraised responses to the
stressor. One person alone in a house, dismisses its creaking
sounds and experiences no stress. Some else suspects an intruder and
becomes alarmed.

Q4. Describe Walter Cannon’s explanation of stress response as unified


mind body system. He observed that extreme cold, lack of oxygen,
and emotion-arousing incidents all trigger an outpouring of the stress
hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal glands.

Q5. Describe the second stress response system in addition to Walter


Cannon’s stress response system?on orders from the cerebral cortex (via
hypothalamus and pituitary gland), the outer part of the adrenal glands
secrete glucocorticoid stress hormones such as cortisol.

Q6. Describe the three phases of Hans Selye’s general adaptation


syndrome. 1. you experience an alarm reaction due to the sudden
activation of your sympathetic N.S. (mobilize resources)
2. Resistance (cope with stressor). 3. Exhaustion (reserves depleted)

Q7. What do studies of MRI brain scans of people who have experienced a
prolonged flood of stress hormones show? Due to sustained child abuse,
combat, or an endocrine disease. MOST HAVE SHRUNKEN HIPPOCAMPUS, THE
inner brain structure vital to laying down explicit memories.

Q8. List the evidence how 9/11 affected Americans and New Yorkers in
terms of stress. They had trouble concentrating and sleeping. Sleeping
pill prescriptions rose by a reported 28 percent in the NEW York area.

Q9. List significant life changes that leave individuals more


susceptible to disease. Leaving home, death of a loved one, the loss of
a job, a marriage, a divorce.

Q10. How did daily stressors take a toll on African Americans?


Hypertension among residents of urban ghettos, where stress that
accompany poverty, unemployment, overcrowding, solo parenting may
compounded by racism. Drive up high bp for many African Americans.

Q11. Describe the classic 9 -year study conducted by Friedman and


Rosenman, and differences between type-A personalities versus type B
personality. Type A is impatient, anger, verbally aggressive and type b
is relaxed people and easy7going.
Q12. Describe the four examples of how stress depresses the immune
system of humans. Immune system’s B lymphocytes (formed in bone marrow)
release antibodies that fight bacterial infections. The T lymphocytes
(formed in the thymus and lymphatic tissue) fight cancer cells,
viruses, foreign substances. stress does not directly cause disease but
when energy is diverted away from immune system activities and
redirected toward stress response system, we become vulnerable to
infections and disease.

Q13. Could stress exacerbate the course of AIDS?


Stress and negative emotions do correlate with progression from
HIV infection to AIDS speed decline in those infected. HIV infected
men with stressful circumtances.

Q14. What is the current view on the relationship between stress and
cancer? Cancer rate progress. Immune system weakened by stress, tumors
developed soone ad grew larger. Increase risk of cancer.

Q15. Describe the statement “Mind and body interact; everything


psychological is simultaneously physiological” and it’s relevance to
stress
psychological states are physiological events that influence other
parts of physiological system.

Navneet Kaur

HW #47: Due 12/18


Rd: Pg. 395-Pg.409
1. Describe a life without concepts?
We would need a different name for every object and idea. We
could not ask a child to “throw the ball” because there would be no
concept of ball ( or throw). Instead of saying,“they were angry”, we
would have to describe facial expressions, vocal intensities, gestures,
and words. Such concepts as ball and angry provide us withy much
information without much cognitive effort.

2. Provide an example of a category hierarchy.


To simplify things further, we organize concepts into category
hierachies. Cab drivers organize their cities into geographical
sectors, which subdivide into neighborhoods and again into blocks.

3. Describe the experiment concerning memory shifts conducted by


Olivier Corneille.
Oliver Corneille and his colleagues found memory shifts after
showing Belgian students ethnically mixed faces. For example, when show
a face that was a blend of 17 percent of the features of a Caucasian
person and 30 percent of an Asian person, people categorized the face
as Caucasian and later recalled having seen a more prototypically
Caucasian person. They were more likely to recall an 80 percent
Caucasian face..

4. Why is heuristics a better strategy then step-by-step algorithm in


finding another word in SPLOYOCHYG? Step-by step algorithms can be
laborious ( well –suited to computers), we often solve problems with
simple strategies called heuristics. By using heuristics to reduce the
number of options, and then applying trial and error, you may hit upon
the answer.

5. How did psychologists Mark-Jung-Beeman, John Kounios, and Edward


Bowden identify brain associations with flashes of insight?

They gave people sets of three words such as pine, crab, sauce, and
asked them to think of another word that could form a compound word or
phrase with each. When solutions occurred with sudden insight, both
methods showed a burst of activity in the right temporal lobe, just
above the ear.

6. How is insight critical in understanding a punch-line to a joke?

7. Provide an example of mental set and functional fixedness


Our mental set from past experience with match sticks predisposes our
arranging them into 2 dimensions. A person may ransack the house for a
screwdriver when a dime would have turned the screw.

8. Provide an example of the representativeness heuristic and


availability heuristic. Rep heuristic- A stranger tells you about a
person who is short, slim, and likes to read poetry, and then asks you
to guess whether this person is more likely to be a professor of
classics at an Ivy League university or a truck driver. Ava-Heuristic-
The faster people can remember an instance of some event( a broken
promise) the more they expect it to recur.

9. How does the availability heuristic affect our social judgment, as


Ruth Hamil demonstrated? They represented people with a single, vivid
case of welfare abuse, in which a long-term welfare recipient had
several unruly children. Most people who received welfare did so for
four years or less. Yet when the statistical reality was pitted against
the single vivid case, the memorable case had greater influence on
people’s options about welfare recipients.

10. How did Kaheman and Tversky demonstrate overconfidence?


Asked people to answer obscure factual questions with a wide
enough range to surely include the actual answer. Nearly one third of
the time, people’s estimates, made with 98 percent confidence, failed
to include the correct answer.

11. Describe the advantage and disadvantage of being overconfident?


The main drawback of our tendencies to seek confirmation of our
hypotheses and to use quick and easy heuristics can blind us to our
vulnerability to error- a fault that can be tragic if we are in a
position of responsibility. On personal level, confident people tend to
live happier lives, make difficult decisions more easily, and seem more
credible.

12. Describe the four influences on our intuitions about risk, and how
does it affect us irrationally fear 9/11?

We w fear what our ancestral history has prepared us to fear,


what we cannot control, what is immediate, what is most readily
available in memory.

13. How does the framing effect influence economic and business
decisions? Merchants mark up their regular prices to appear to offer
huge savings on sale prices.

14. Describe two invalid conclusions proving the belief bias?


Chickens are not robins, chickens do not have feathers.

15. Why is it so difficult to dismiss the belief perseverance


phenomenon? Once beliefs form and get justified, it takes more
compelling evidence to change them than it did to create them.

16. How is intuition adaptive in solving a problem?


Experienced nurses, art critics, car mechanics and you for any thing in
which you develop expertise, learn to size up many a situation in an
eye blink.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #49: Due 12/23


Rd.418-422

1. Provide evidence for Word’s linguistic determinism theory?


But to those who speak two dissimilar languages, such as English
and Japanese, it seems obvious that a person thinks differently in
different languages.

2. Describe the experiment conducted by Michael Ross, Elaine Xum, and


Anne Wilson regarding China-born bilingual students in Canada?
Invited china born bilingual university waterloo students to
describe themselves in English or Chinese. When describing themselves
in English, their self descriptions were typically Canadian: They
expressed mostly positive self-statements and moods. When responding in
Chinese, they were typically Chinese. They reported more agreement with
Chinese values and roughly equal positive and negative self-statements
and moods. Their language use seemed to shape how they thought
themselves.

3. Provide evidence that language determining the way we think is too


strong. Our words do influence what we think and people also use their
language when classifying and remembering colors. The perceived
difference grows when we assign different names to colors.

4. Describe language and perception


To expand language is to expand the ability to think. In young
children, thinking develops hand in hand with language. Indeed, it is
very difficult to think about or conceptualize certain abstract ideas
without language.

5. Why does it pay to increase word power.


That’s why most textbooks, including this one, introduce new
words-to teach new ideas and new ways of thinking.

6. What is the bilingual advantage, and how did Wallace lambert apply
this concept with Canadian children? Bilingual children, who learn to
inhibit one language while using their other language, are also better
able to inhibit their attention to irrelevant information. Helped
devise a Canadian program that immerses English speaking children in
French.

7. What are the arguments of “English-only” education vs. bilingual


education? English only education argue that bilingual programs are
expensive, ineffective, and detrimental to non English speaking
children’s assimilation into their English-based cultures.

8. Provide three examples of thinking in images as beneficial.


Mentally practicing upcoming events and can actually increase
our skills.

9. How does mental rehearsal help achieve an academic goal?


Visualize themselves effectively studying, feeling proud.

10. What previous evidence supports thinking without language?


Processing outside of consciousness, inside the ever-active
brain, many streams of activity flow in parallel functioning
automatically

11. How do we conclusively know that thinking affects language?


Language does influence thinking. And new words and new
combinations of old words express new ideas. It then affects our
thought.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #50: Due 1/5


Rd. Pg.423-Pg.428

1. How does the great ape display capacities for thinking?

2. How did Wolfgang Kohler observe apparent insight while observing


chimpanzees?

3. Provide additional example of Chimpanzee inventiveness

4. What conclusions do Thomas Suddendorf and Andrew Whitten estimate


about great ape’s capacity to for reasoning, self-recognition, empathy,
and imitation?

5. What is amazing about Rico, the border collie that demonstrates


language?

6. Describe the case study of Washoe, the chimpanzee

7. Why is gesturing critical in human communication?

8. Illustrate the five examples cited by skeptics that apes do not


acquire language

9. How did the relationship between Washoe and the foster infant
Louilis, quiet skeptics?

10. Describe the claim made by Sue Savage-Rumbaugh that pygmy


chimpanzee can learn to comprehend language

11. What did Descartes and other philosophers argue about animals?

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #51: Due 1/8 Rd. Pg. 470-Pg.473

Q1. Describe the four perspectives psychologists have used in their attempt to understand
motivated behaviors.
These include instinct theory(now replaced by the evolutionary perspective), drive
reduction theory ( emphasizing the interaction between inner pushes and external pulls), and
arousal theory (emphasizing the urge for an optimum level of stimulation). The fourth
perspective, Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, describes how some motives are, if
unsatisfied, more basic and compelling than others.

Q2. Describe two human instinctive behaviors.


Simple fixed patterns such as an infant’s rooting and sucking, behavior and unlearned skills.

Q3. Describe an example of homeostasis.


Body’s temperature-regulation system, which works like a thermostat.

Q4. “The food-deprived person who smells baking bread feels a strong human drive”. What
is the incentive in this statement, and why? The baking bread becomes a compelling
incentive because the person smell the bread and feel a stronger hunger drive.
Q5. List two examples of how curiosity drives organisms.
Curiosity drives monkeys to monkey around trying to figure out how to unlock a
latch that opens nothing or how to open a window that allows them to see outside their
room.

Q6. A lack of stimulation will increase arousal to some optimal level. What will occur if there
is too much of stimulation? Comes stress and then we look for a way to decrease arousal.

Q7. Describe the stages from the base to the apex, of Abraham Maslow’s
hierarchy of needs. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs proposes a pyramid-shaped sequence in
which lower-level needs, such as hunger and thirst, are more compelling than high-level
needs, such as the need to love, to belong, or to be respected. Although critics note that
Maslow’s sequence of needs is not universal, his hierarchy provides a framework for thinking
about motivated behaviors.

Q8. What are the differences in the priority of needs between poor nations and wealthy
nations. In poorer nations that lack easy access to money and the food and shelter it buys,
financial satisfaction more strongly predicts subjective wellbeing. In wealthy nations, where
most are able to meet basic needs, home-life satisfaction is a better predictor.

Q9. Why does self-esteem matter most in individualistic nations?


Self esteem matters most in individualist nations, whose citizens tend to focus
more on personal achievements than on family and community identity.

Q10. Describe critic’s argument about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?


Maslow’s hierarchy is the order of such needs is not universally fixed. People have starved
themselves to make a political statement. Nevertheless, the simple idea that some motives
are more compelling than others provides a framework for thinking about motivation, and
life-satisfaction surveys in 39 nations support this basic idea.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#52: Due 1/9 Rd. Pg.473- Pg.480

Q1. Describe how the experiment conducted by Ancel Keys proved the needs hierarchy for
food. Fed 36 male volunteers-all conscientious objectors to the war enough to maintain their
initial weight. Then for six months they cut this food level in half. Men began conserving
energy, body weights dropped rapidly, stabilizing at about 25 percent below their start
weight. Consistent with Maslow’s idea of a needs hierarchy, the men became obsessed with
food. They became preoccupied with their unfulfilled basic need. Lose interest in sex and
social activities.

Q2. How did Washburn’s experiment prove there is a physiological source of hunger?
Washburn swallows balloon, which measures stomach contractions. Washburn
presses key each time he feels hungry.

Q3. How do the levels of blood glucose affect hunger?


Your body is normally adept at maintaining its blood glucose level. But if that level
drops, your hunger increases.

Q4. Describe the role of the lateral hypothalamus in controlling hunger.


The activity along the sides of hypothalamus ( the lateral hypothalamus) brings on
hunger.

Q5. Describe the consequences if the ventrome hypothalamus is destroyed


It depresses hunger but if destroyed it and the animal’s stomach and intestines will
process food more rapidly, causing it to become extremely fat.
Q6. Describe the role of the hormones ghrelin and leptin.
Ghrelin: hormone secreted by empty stomach ; sends “I’m hungry” signals to the
brain. Leptin: Protein secreted by fat cells: when abundant, causes brain to increase
metabolism and decrease hunger.

Q7. Why did some volunteers in Key’s reverse experiment in which they were
Over fed 1000 calories a day for 8 days gain less weight then the other volunteers.
They tend to spend extra caloric energy by fidgeting more. Under normal circumstances,
those who fidget most (and burn more calories) weigh less than more inactive obese people.

Q8. Why do some researchers argue that there is not a true set point, but
instead a settling point? They prefer the term settling point to indicate the level at which
a person’s weight settles in response to caloric intake and expenditure (which is influenced
environment as well as biology).

Q9. What did Paul Rozin’s experiment conclude about memory and appetite?
This suggests that part of knowing when to eat is our memory of our last meal. As
time accumulates since we last ate, we anticipate eating again and start feeling hungry.

Q10. Why do we crave carbohydrates when feeling tense or depressed?


Carbohydrates help boost levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin, which has
calming effects.
Q11. Describe neophobia
With repeated exposure, their appreciation for the new taste typically increases;
moreover, exposure to one set of novel foods increases our willingness to try another. This
neophobia surely was adaptive for our ancestors, protecting them from potentially toxic
substances.

Q12. How does food aversion protect the fetus during pregnancy?
Food aversions stemming from this nausea peak about the tenth week, when the
developing embryo is most vulnerable to toxins.

Q13. Describe the characteristics of families of anorexics, and bulimia patients


The families of bulimia patients have a higher-than-usual incidence of childhood
obesity and negative self-evaluation. Anorexia patients also tend to have low self-evaluation
and often come from families that are competitive, high-achieving, and protective.

Q14. Who are the most vulnerable to eating disorder, and why?
Those who most idealize thinness and have the greatest body dissatisfaction.

Q15. Describe the results of an experiment by Barbara Fredickson describing


gender differences and self-image.
For the women wearing swimming suit triggered self-consciousness and shame that
disrupted their math performance and wanted to have perfect body rather than have a
mate with a perfect body. Women feel shame, depressed and dissatisfied with their own
bodies-the very attitudes that predispose eating disorders.

Q16. How did Eric Stice and heather Shaw demonstrate the “thin-ideal”
exemplified in fashion magazines, advertisements and even in some toys?
Women feel shame, depressed and dissatisfied with their own bodies-the very
attitudes that predispose eating disorders.
Q17. Describe the consequences of the statement “fat is bad” on women’s
motivation concerning dieting?
Motivates millions of women to be always dieting, and that encourages eating
binges by pressuring women to live in a constant state of semistarvation. As compelling as
our biological motives are, eating behavior is clearly also affected by psychological and
social-cultural factors.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#53: Due 1/12 Rd. Pg.481-Pg. 487

Q1. Describe the contributions of Albert Kinsey relevant to sexual


motivation
Kinsey had statistics-laden volumes became bestsellers, learned surprising news
that most of men and nearly half the women reported having had premarital sexual
intercourse and that most women and virtually all men reported having masturbated.
Kinsey’s book also revealed enormously varied sexual behavior, some men and women saying
they had never had an orgasm and others reporting they had four or more a day. Kinsey’s
nonrandom sample-and other more reliable finding’s show wide variations in normal sexual
behavior around the world-are reassuring.

Q2. Explain each phase of the sexual response cycle described by Masters and Johnson
Excitement phase- genital areas become engorged with blood, a women’s vagina
expands and secretes lubricant, and her breasts and nipples may enlarge. Plateau phase-
excitement peaks as breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates continue to increase.
Orgasms- muscle contractions all over the body- these were accompanied by further
increases in breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates. Resolution phase- the male enters a
refractory period, lasting from a few minutes to a day or more, during which he is incapable
of another orgasm.

Q3. What did neuroscientist Holstege and his colleagues discover about men and women
describing orgasm.
They discovered that when men and women undergo PET Scans while having
orgasms, the same subcortical brain regions glow. And when people who are passionately in
love undergo fMRI scans while viewing photos of their beloved or of a stranger, men’s and
women’s brain responses to their partner are pretty similar.
Q4. List some sexual disorders and some therapeutic methods to correct them
Some involve sexual motivation, especially lack of sexual energy and arousability.
Others include, for men, premature ejaculation and erectile disorder (inability to have or
maintain an erection),and, for women, orgasmic disorder (infrequently or never experiencing
orgasm). Men or women with sexual disorders can often be helped by receiving behaviorally
oriented therapy where, for example, men may learn ways to control their urge to ejaculate,
and women are trained to bring themselves to orgasm.

Q5. What are the two effects of sex hormones?


They direct the physical development of male and female sex characteristics. And
(especially in nonhuman animals) they activate sexual behavior.

Q6. Describe the effect of abnormal estrogen and testosterone levels on males and
females.
If a woman’s natural testosterone level drops, as happens with removal of the
ovaries or adrenal glands, her sexual interest may wane. But testosterone-replacement
therapy can often restore diminished sexual appetite, as it did for 549 naturally menopausal
women who found that a testosterone-replacement patch restored sexual activity, arousal,
and pleasure more than did a placebo. In men, normal fluctuations in testosterone levels,
from man to man and hour to hour, have little effect on sexual drive.

Q8. Describe the correct analogy between sex hormones and fuel in a car
The analogy correctly suggests that biology is necessary but not sufficient
explanation of human sexual behavior. The hormonal fuel is essential, but so are the
psychological stimuli that turn on the engine, keep it running, and shift it into high gear.

Q9. Describe the effects of erotica on males and females, and how habituation occurs.
Many studies confirm that men become aroused when they see, hear, or read
erotic material. Surprising to many is that most women-at least the less inhibited women
who volunteer to participate in such studies-report or exhibit nearly as much arousal to the
same stimuli. Those who find it disturbing often limit their exposure to such materials, just
as those wishing to control hunger limit their exposure to tempting cues. With repeated
exposure, the emotional response to any erotic stimulus often habituates (lessens).

Q10. Do sexual explicit material has adverse effects?


Yes it does because depictions of women being sexually coerced-and enjoying it-
tend to increase viewer’s acceptance of the false idea that women enjoy rape and tend to
increase male viewer’s willingness to hurt women.
Q11. Why do people who do not have genital sensation, still feel sexual
desire? Brain is our most significant sex organ. The stimuli inside our heads-our
imagination-can influence sexual arousal and desire, dreams sometimes do contain sexual
imagery.

Q12. Describe some facts of fantasies concerning men and women?


About 95 percent of both men and women say they have had sexual fantasies. But
men (whether gay or straight) fantasize about sex more often, more physically, and less
romantically-and prefer less personal and faster-paced sex content in books and videos.

Q13. What are the rates of premarital sex amongst American adolescents
compared to adolescents from other nations? Among American women born before 1900, a
mere 3 percent had experienced premarital sex by age 18. In United States today, ½ ninth
to 12th graders report having sexual intercourse, as do 42 percent of Canadian 16 years
olds. Teen intercourses lower in Arab and Asian countries and higher in Western Europe.
Only 2.5 percent of 4688 unmarried Chinese students in Hong Kong’s six Universities
reported having had sexual intercourse.
Q14. Describe the five reasons of why American adolescents have lower rates of
contraceptive use, and higher rates of teen pregnancy.
Ignorance, guilt related to sexual activity. Minimal communication about birth
control, alcohol use, mass media norms of unprotected promiscuity.

Q15. Why is there a rapid spread of sexual transmission infections?


Unprotected sex, people under age of 25 account for 2/3 of such infections, and
teen girls seem especially vulnerable because of their less mature bodies and lower levels of
protective antibodies.
Q16. Describe the five predictors of abstinence
High intelligence, religiosity, Father presence, participation in service learning
programs, sex-education.

Q17. What are the trends of abstinence amongst American adolescents .


Declining teen birth rates since 1991, and virgins (54 percent 2002) now
outnumbering nonvirgins (46 percent) among U.S. 15-19 years olds.

Chapter 6: Perception

Natural Element: Seeing Red


Getting to know the most alarming shade in the rainbow.

By: Rachel Mahan

Everyone has a favorite color, but no color affects us as strongly as red. Here's how to make the hue work
for you.

Play Better

Putting on a red jersey could give you a competitive edge at the gym or in a pickup basketball game.
According to a study from Durham University in England, Olympians wearing red uniforms perform better
than those wearing blue uniforms in combat sports. Be careful, though: You may be adversely affected by
the guy next to you on the treadmill if he has a red shirt. Wearing red may not make you play better as much
as seeing red may make your opponent play worse, says lead study author and anthropologist Russell Hill.

Work Better

The X's your grade school teacher scrawled in red pen might have left indelible marks on your brain.
German and American study participants who viewed a flash of red had more difficulty solving anagrams
and completing analogies compared with those who saw green or neutral colors like black. We probably
associate red with mistakes or danger, says lead study author Andrew Elliot, a psychologist at the University
of Rochester. (Consider blood and fire engines.) Similarly, subjects working on difficult tasks in a red room
performed worse than those in a blue room, according to a study by Nancy Stone, a psychologist at Missouri
University of Science and Technology. Think twice about that scarlet lamp shade on your desk.
Stand Out

Wearing red can get you noticed, and not just because it's a vivid color. When you see bright red, it may
actually speed up your heart rate, says Barbara Drescher, a researcher at the University of California, Santa
Barbara. Bright green can do the same, even though green is seen as the most pleasant hue while red is
rated least pleasant. People may pay attention to you with these colors, but Drescher isn't sure how long the
arousal lasts. "We adapt very, very quickly," she says.

Psychology Today Magazine, Sep/Oct 2008


Last Reviewed 3 Nov 2008
Article ID: 4683

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#54: Due 1/13 Rd. 487-Pg. 494


Q1. When do homosexual people report becoming aware of themselves as
gay or lesbian? But most homosexual people report not becoming aware of
same sex attraction until during or shortly after puberty and not
thinking of themselves as gay or lesbian until around age 20.

Q2. Describe the results of a Dutch study concerning homosexuality, and


the percentage of homosexuality in the United States.
12 out of 7076 dutch adults reported being actively bisexual. In
a Dutch study, a larger number of adults reported having had occasional
homosexual fantasy.

Q3. Describe the common struggles that homosexual people have to face
on today's society, and how do psychologists view sexual orientation.
They may at first try to ignore or deny their desires, hoping
they will go away, but they don’t. Psychologists view it as neither
willfully chosen nor willfully chosen.

Q4. Describe the gender difference in erotic plasticity


Women, more than men, for example, prefer to alternate periods
of high sexual activity with periods of almost none, and are somewhat
more likely than men to feel bisexual attractions.

Q5. How does the APA view homosexuality compared to 3 decades ago?
Most people, whether straight or gay, accept their orientation,
enter into a commited long term love relationship often made by
lesbians and gays,
Q6. Describe the cause of homosexuality regarding the four questions
presented at the bottom of page 488. Homosexuals were no more likely
than heterosexuals to have been smothered by maternal love, neglected
by their father, or sexually abuse.
Q7. Describe the rate of homosexuality in certain populations, and the
reason behind the phenomenon the fraternal birth-order effect.
Biographies of 1004 eminent people found homosexual and bisexual
people overpresented (11 percent of the sample), poets 24 percent,
fiction writer (21 percent), and artists and musicians (15 percent).
Unclear and Blanchard suspects defensive material immune response to
foreign substances produced by male fetuses.

Q8. Does homosexual behavior predict homosexual orientation?


It does not always indicate a homosexual orientation.

Q9. Among rams, for example, some 6 to 10 percent to sheep breeding


ranchers, the duds-display same sex attraction by shunning ewes and
seeking to mount males.

Q10. Describe Simon Levay's research concerning the brain and sexual
Orientation.
He did the study blind, without knowing which donors were gay.
For nine months be peered through his microscope at a cell cluster he
thought might be important. The cell cluster was reliably larger in
heterosexual men than in women and homosexual men.

Q11. Describe the research conducted by Swedish researchers regarding


brain responses to hormone-derived sexual scents.
Swedish researchers reported that when straight women are given
a whiff of a scent derived from m en’s sweat, their hypothalamus lights
up ina n area governing sexual arousal.

Q12. What were Laura Allen's and Roger Gorski's discovery on brain
anatomy influencing sexual orientation? Section of anterior commissure
is 1/3 larger in homosexual men than heterosexual men.

Q13. Describe the evidence that there is a genetic influence on sexual


orientation researched by Brian Mutanski and Michael Bailey.

Q14. What does a recent Italian study suggest about "gay genes"?

Q15. Describe prenatal hormonal influences on sexual orientation

Q16. Describe some specific traits that differ in homosexuality

Q17. How do temperaments affect sexual orientation?

Q18. What are some attitudes that support a more accepting view of
homosexuality?

Q19. What are the consequences of fetal testing in the possible


identifying
sexual orientation?

Q20. Describe the problem of scientific research on sexual motivation


concerning values of sex
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

H.W#56: due 1/15


Rd. pg. 500-pg. 510

Q1. How did Mihaly Csikzentmihayli formulate the flow concept.


He formulate the flow concept after studying artists who spent
hour after hour painting or sculpting with enormous concentration. It’s
exhilarating to flow with an activity that fully engages our skills.

Q2. How does flow affect us in a positive way?


Flow experiences boost our sense of self-esteem, competence, and
well-being.
Q3. Describe psychological contract?
The subjective sense of mutual obligations between workers and
employers-become more or less trusting and securing.

Q4. How did Mary Tenopyr select which hires were ill-matched to the
demands of their new job? Personnel selection aims to match people’s
strengths with work that enables them and their organizations to
flourish. Marry the strengths of people with tasks of organizations and
the result is often prosperity and profit.

Q5. What items are the best at selecting job performance?


Naturally curious, persuasive, charming, persistent, competitive,
organized, empathic.
Q6. What four factors describe the interview illusion?
Interviews disclose the interviewee’s good intentions, which are
less revealing than habitual behaviors. Interviewers more often follow
the successful careers of those they have hired than the successful
careers of those they have rejected and lost track of. Interviewers
presume that people are what they seem to be in the interview
situation. Interviewer’s preconceptions and moods color how they
perceive interviewee’s responses.
Q7. What are the benefits of a structured interview vs. an unstructured
interview? Structured interviews is the interview process that asks
the same job-revelant questions of all applicants, each of whom is
rated on established scales. Unstructured interviews are not asked the
person the same questions and rate each applicant on established
applicants but it is how organized you are, get along people and handle
stress.

Q8. Describe some appraisal performance methods?


Checklist-describe worker behavior, graphic rating scales-check
extent to which a worker is dependable, productive and so forth.
Behavior rating scales- checks behaviors that best describe a worker’s
performance. If rating the extent to which a worker follow procedures,
the supervisor might mark the employee somewhere between often takes
shortcuts and always follows established procedures.

Q9. Describe Halo errors, leniency and severity errors, and recency
errors.
Halo errors occur when one’s overall evaluation of an employee,
or of a trait such as their friendliness, reliability. Leniency and
severity errors reflect evaluator’s tendencies to be either too easy or
too harsh on everyone. Recency errors occur when raters focus only on
easily remembered recent behavior.
Q10. Describe the study on the 1528 California children whose
intelligence scores were in the top 1 percent? 40 years later,
researchers compared those who were most and least successful
professionally, they found motivational difference. Those most
successful were more ambitious, energetic, and persistent. As children
more active hobbies and as adults, they participated in more groups and
favored being a sports participant to being a spectator.

Q11. Does employment satisfaction also contribute to successful


organizations? Posiotive moods at work do contribute to creativity,
persistence and helpfulness.

Q12. Describe Robert Owen’s great experiment


Owen purchased mill after his marriage and became a manager
while observed producing unhappy and inefficient workers and tis led to
commercial success and believed society can exist without crime, povery
and misery.

Q13. What are four characteristics of great managers?


Start by helping people identify and measure their talents,
match tasks to talents and then give people freedom to do what they do
best, care how their people feel about their work, reinforce positive
behaviors through recognition and reward.
Q14. What are the benefits of implementation techniques?
Action plans that specify when, where, and how they will march
toward achieving those goals-they become more focused in their work and
on-time competition becomes more likely.
Q15. Describe differences between task leadership and social leadership?
Task leadership-setting standards,organizing work, and focusing
attention on goals. Social leadership-mediating conflicts and building
high-achieving teams.

Q16. Describe voice effect

If given a chance to voice their opinion during a decision-making


process, people will respond more positively to the decision.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW: 57 Due 1/19


Rd Pg. 513- Pg.523

Q1. Describe the two controversies, over the interplay of our


physiology, expressions, and experience in emotions.

Q2. Imagine that your brain could not sense your heart pounding on your
stomach churning. According to the James-Lange theory, and the Cannon-
Bard theory, how would this affect your experienced emotions?

Q3. How is Schachter and Singer?s two factor theory similar and
different to the two previous theories on emotions?

Q4. How do the sympathetic division and parasympathetic division of the


autonomic nervous system control our arousal?

Q5. How does prolonged physical arousal, and too little arousal affect
particular tasks?

Q6. How does the amygdala affect emotion?

Q7. Provide example of how emotions affect different areas of the brain
cortex?

Q8. Describe the importance of the nucleus accumbens regarding to


emotion

Q9. What evidence did psychologist George Hohmann provide supporting


the James-Lange theory?
Q10. What evidence supports the Cannon-Bard theory?

Q11. How did Schachter and Singer prove the spillover effect?

Q12. How does a lie detector or polygraph work, and what are the two
problems that make it a flawed test?

Q13. Provide evidence how we experience emotion unconsciously before


cognition?

Q14. How did Paul Whalen and his colleagues describe the role of the
amygdala?

Q15. How does Richard Lazarus explain cognition plays a role in


emotional responses without conscious awareness?

Q16. Describe the two routes of emotions, demonstrated by Zajonc and


LeDoux compared to Lazarus, Schachter, and Singer

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW: 57
Rd Pg. 513- Pg.523

Q1. Describe the two controversies, over the interplay of our physiology, expressions, and
experience in emotions.
The first, a chicken-and egg debate, is old: Does your physiological arousal
precede or follow your emotional experience?(Did I first notice my heart racing and my
faster step, and then feel anxious dread about losing Peter? Or did my sense of fear come
first, stirring my heart and legs to respond?) The second controversy concerns the
interaction between thinking and feeling: Does cognition always precede emotion? (Was I
required to make a Conscious appraisal of the kidnapping threat before I could react
emotionally?).
Q2. Imagine that your brain could not sense your heart pounding on your
stomach churning. According to the James-Lange theory, and the Cannon-Bard theory, how
would this affect your experienced emotions?
Cannon and Bard would have expected you to experience emotions normally,
because they believed emotions occur separately from (though simultaneously with) the
body’s arousal. James and Lange would have expected greatly diminished emotions because
they believed that to experience emotion you must first perceive your body’s arousal.
Q3. How is Schachter and Singer?s two factor theory similar and different to the two
previous theories on emotions?
In their two-factor theory, emotions therefore have two ingredients: physical
arousal and a cognitive label. Like James and Lange, Schachter and Singer presumed that
our experience of emotion grows from our awareness of our body’s arousal. Yet like Cannon
and Bard, Schachter and Singer also believed that emotions are physiologically similar. Thus,
in their view, an emotional experience requires a conscious interpretation of the arousal.
Q4. How do the sympathetic division and parasympathetic division of the
autonomic nervous system control our arousal?
The autonomic nervous system controls arousal. Its sympathetic division mobilizes
us for action by directing adrenals to release stress hormones, which in turn increase heart
rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels, and by triggering other defensive physical
reactions. The parasympathetic division calms us after a crisis has passed, though arousal
diminishes gradually.

Q5. How does prolonged physical arousal, and too little arousal affect
particular tasks? Very high or very low arousal can be disruptive. We perform best when
arousal is moderate, though this varies with the difficulty of the task. For easy or well-
learned tasks, best performance is linked to high arousal. For difficult tasks, performance
peaks at lower levels.

Q6. How does the amygdala affect emotion?


Brain scans also showed increased activity in the amygdala during fear.

Q7. Provide example of how emotions affect different areas of the brain
cortex? Negative emotions(disgust, for example) trigger more activity in the right
prefrontal cortex, whereas positive moods(enthusiasm, for example) register in the left
frontal lobe, which has a rich supply of dopamine receptors.

Q8. Describe the importance of the nucleus accumbens regarding to emotion. A neural
pathway that increases dopamine levels runs from the frontal lobes to a nearby cluster of
neurons, the nucleus accumbens. This small region lights up when people experience natural
or drug induced pleasures.

Q9. What evidence did psychologist George Hohmann provide supporting the James-Lange
theory? Hohmann interviewed 25 soldiers who suffered such injuries in World War II. He
asked them to recall emotion-arousing incidents that occurred before and after their spinal
injuries. Those with lower-spine injuries, who had lost sensation only in their legs, reported
little change in their emotions. Those who could feel nothing below the neck reported a
considerable decrease in emotional intensity. But emotions expressed mostly in body areas
above the neck are felt more intensely by those with high increases in weeping, lumps in the
throat, and getting choked up when saying good-bye, worshipping, or watching a touching
movie.
Q10. What evidence supports the Cannon-Bard theory?
Our experienced emotions also involve cognition, there is more to the experience
of emotion than reading our body’s responses.
Q11. How did Schachter and Singer prove the spillover effect?
They aroused college men with injections of the hormone epinephrine. Picture
yourself as one of their participants: After receiving the injection, you go to a waiting room,
where you find yourself with another person who is acting either euphoric or irritated.
Schachter’s and singer’s volunteers felt little emotion-because they attributed their arousal
to the drug. This discovery-that a stirred-up state can be experienced as one emotion or
another very different one, depending on how we interpret and label it-has been replicated
in dozens of experiments.
Q12. How does a lie detector or polygraph work, and what are the two
problems that make it a flawed test? Lie detectors measure several physical responses
that accompany emotion, such as changes in breathing, cardiovascular activity, and
perspiration. First problem is as you have seen, our physiological arousal is much the same
from one emotion to another-anxiety, irritation, and guilt all prompt similar physiological
reactivity. Second, these tests err about one-third of the time, especially when innocent
people respond with heightened tension to the accusations implied by the relevant questions.
Good advice, then, would be never to take a lie detector test if you are innocent.
Q13. Provide evidence how we experience emotion unconsciously before
cognition? A subliminally flashed smiling or angry face can also prime us to feel better or
worse about a follow-up stimulus. Like speedy reflexes that operate apart from the brain’s
thinking cortex, some emotions take the low road, via neural pathways that bypass the
cortex (which offers the alternative high road pathway). One low road pathway runs from
the eye or ear via the thalamus to the amygdala, an emotional control center. This amygdala
shortcut, bypassing the cortex, enables our greased-lightning emotional response before our
intellect intervenes. So speedy is the amygdala response that we may be unaware of what’s
transpired.
Q14. How did Paul Whalen and his colleagues describe the role of the
amygdala? In one fascinating experiment, Paul Whalen and his colleagues used fMRI scans
to observe the amygdala’s response to subliminally presented fearful eyes. Compared with a
control condition that presented the whites of happy eyes, the fearful eyes triggered
increased amygdala activity (despite no one’s being aware of seeing them).
Q15. How does Richard Lazarus explain cognition plays a role in emotional responses without
conscious awareness?
Concede that our brains process and react to vast amounts of information without
our conscious awareness, and he willingly granted that some emotional responses do not
require conscious thinking. The appraisal may be effortless and we may not be conscious of
it, but it is still a mental function.

Q16. Describe the two routes of emotions, demonstrated by Zajonc and LeDoux compared
to Lazarus, Schachter, and Singer.
Zajonc and LeDoux emphasize that some emotional responses are immediate,
before any conscious appraisal. Lazarus, Schachter, and Singer emphasized that our
appraisal and labeling of events also determines our emotional responses.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW# 58: Due 1/20


Rd. Pg. 524- Pg. 531

Q1. Describe the research study conducted by Joan Kellerman, James Lewis, and James
Laird.
They wondered if intimate gazes would stir such feelings between strangers. To
find out, they asked unacquainted male-female pairs tro gaze intently for two minutes
either at one another’s hands or into one another’s eyes. After separating, the eye-gazers
reported feeling a tingle of attraction and affection.

Q2. How did Robet Kesterbaum, explain how we read nonverbal cues?
By exposing different parts of emotion-laden faces, Kestenbaum discovered that
we read fear and anger mostly from the eyes, and happiness from the mouth.Fleeying
changes in expression also help us read a face.
Q3. How does experience sensitize us to particular emotions?
Experience can sensitize us to particular emotions. Shown a series of faces that
morphed from sadness or fear to anger, physically abused children are much quicker than
other children to see anger.Shown a face that is 60 percent fear and 40 percent anger,
they are as likely to perceive anger as fear. Their perceptions become sensitively attuned to
glimmers of danger signals that nonabused children miss.

Q4. How did womans intuition apply to Jackie Larsen?s encounter with
Chrisotpher Bono? Larsen felt that something was wrong with Bono and need to have talk as
a mother, call police and check his license plates, but this mother was found dead in bathtub
and Bono was charged with first degree murder.

Q5. Describe specific gender differences in nonverbal sensitivity, empathy, and


expressiveness.
Women generally are better than men at reading people’s emotional cues, including
those displayed during deception. Women also give more detailed descriptions of their
emotional reactions, more readily describe themselves as emotional, and express empathy
more often, in words and in their facial expressions. Women surpass men in conveying
happiness, but men communicate anger better.

Q6. How did Paul Ekman and Maureen O? Sullivan explain the difficulty to detect deceiving
smiles? University students,U.S. secret service agents, CIA agents, psychiatrists , court
judges and others watched for tell-tale signs of lying. With experience-trained intuition-
people can often catch the liar’s leaking microexpressions of guilt, despair, and fear.

Q7. Provide examples of nonverbal body language, and subtle expressions in revealing
feelings of individuals towards others.
Popular guidebooks and articles offer advice on how to interpret nonverbal signals
when negotiating a business deal, selling product, or flirting. It pays to be able to read
feelings that leak through via subtle facial expressions, body movements, and postures.
Fidgeting, for example may reveal anxiety or boredom. Such gestures, facial expressions,
and tones of voices are all absent in Computer-based communication. But e-mail letters and
internet discussions otherwise lack nonverbal cues to status, personality, and age and judge
solely on words.

Q8. How did Justin Kruger and his colleagues explain that communication via email is
ambiguous regarding emotions? It’s easy to misread e-mailed communications, where
the absence of expressive e-motion can make for ambiguous emotion. So can the absence of
those vocal nuances by which we signal that a statement is serious, kidding, or sarcastic.
Communicators often think they are kidding which is clear, whether e-mailed or spoken.

Q9. Provide examples of how gestures vary with culture


In Chinese literature people clapped their hands to express worry or
disappointment, laughed a great “HO-HO” to express anger, and stuck out their tongues to
show surprise. North American “thumbs up” and “A-OK” signs would be insults in certain
other cultures.

Q10. Explain how facial expressions also have different meanings


Facial expressions, such as those of happiness and fear are found all over the
world (and among children blind from birth), Indicating that these expressions are culturally
universal aspects of emotion.

Q11. How did Charles Darwin explain how people share universal facial
explanations? He speculated that in prehistoric times, before our ancestors communicated
in words, their ability to convey threats, greetings, and submission with facial expressions
helped them survive. That shared heritage, he believed, is why all humans express the basic
emotions with similar facial expressions.

Q12. Provide examples of how cultures differ in how much emotions they
Express. In Western Europe, Australia, New Zealand, and North America, people focus on
their own goals and attitudes and express themselves accordingly. Japanese viewers hide
their emotions when in the presence of others.

Q13. Describe the research findings relevant to the facial feedback effect.
If manipulated into furrowing their brows people feel sadder while looking at sad
photos. Saying the phonemes which activates smiling muscles and activates muscles
associated with negative emotions. Activate one of the smiling muscles but raised cheeks
that crinkle the eyes enhances positive feelings even more when you are reacting to
something pleasant or funny.

Q14. How did Sara Snodgrass demonstrate the behavior feedback phenomenon while
walking? If we move our body as we would when experiencing some emotion (shuffling along
with downcast eyes, as when sad),we are likely to feel that emotion to some degree.

Q15. How did Kathleen Burns Vaugn and John Lanzetta, provide evidence that there is a
neural basis for empathy?
Asked some students but not others to make a pained expression when ever an
electric shock was apparently delivered to someone they were watching. Just seeing a loved
one wince at a light electrical shock also activates a pain related brain region. This suggests
a neural basis for empathy-for literally feeling the other’s pain.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#59: Due 1/21


Rd. Pg.532-Pg.537

Q1. How many distinct emotions Carroll Izard isolated 10 such basic emotions?
Carroll Izard (1977) isolated 10 such basic emotions (joy, interest-excitement,
surprise, sadness, anger, disgust, contempt, fear, shame, and guilt), most of which are
present in infancy.
Q2. Describe and provide examples of arousal and valence as two dimensions of emotion.
Emotions can be placed along two basic dimensions: arousal (high versus low) and
valence (pleasant, or positive, versus unpleasant, or negative).Successful Olympic gymnasts
and high-performing students taking exams label arousal as energizing, as giving them an
edge. For them arousal has positive valence, while for those suffering stage fright it has
negative valence. On the valence and arousal dimensions, terrified is more frightened (more
unpleasant and aroused) than afraid, enraged is angrier than angry, delighted is happier than
happy.
Q3. Provide examples of how fear is harmful and adaptive
Fear is harmful, can be poisonous, it can torment us, rob us of sleep, and
preoccupy our thinking. Fire broke out in Chicago Iroquois Theater and the comedian on
stage, Eddie Foy, reassured the crowd by calling out, “Don’t get excited. There’s no danger.
Take it easy!” but it resulted more than 500 people perished and most of the bodies were
piled 7 or 8 feet deep in the stairways, and many of the faces bore heal marks.
Q4, How did Susan Mineka explain why nearly all monkeys reared in the wild fear snakes,yet
lab-reared monkeys do not? Mineka experimented with 6 monkeys reared in the wild (all
strongly fearful of snakes) and their lab-reared offspring (virtually none of which feared
snakes). After repeatedly observing their parents or peers refusing to reach for food in
the presence of a snake, the younger monkeys developed a similar strong fear of snakes.
When retested 3 months later, their learned fear persisted, suggesting that our fears may
reflect not only our own past traumas but also the fears we learn from our parents and
friends.

Q5. How did children in the New York City school system become more fearful after
observing the trauma of 9/11? Within New York City, a school system study found tens of
thousands of children experiencing nightmares and fears of public places.

Q6. How does the amygdala play a key role in associating fear, certain situations?
The amygdala receives input from regions such as the anterior cingulated cortex,
a higher-level center for processing emotion. And it sends output to all the parts of the
brain that produce the bodily symptoms of extreme fear, such as diarrhea and shortness of
breath. If rats have their amygdala deactivated by a drug that blocks the strengthening of
neural connections, they, too, show no fear learning.

Q7. Describe an individuals response to fear if there is damage to the amygdala and
hippocampus?If they have suffered damage to the nearby hippocampus, they still show the
emotional reaction but won’t be able to remember why. If they have suffered amygdala
damage, they will remember the conditioning but will show no emotional effect of it.

Q8. Describe individuals who have a short version of a gene that influences the amygdala's
response to frightening situations. People with a short version of this gene have less of a
protein that speeds the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin. With more serotonin
available to activate their amygdala neurons, people with this short gene exhibit a revved-up
amygdala response to frightening pictures.

Q9. How do adolescents deal with anger according to their gender?


In a Gallup survey of teens, boy more than girls reported walking away from the
situation or working it off with exercise; girls more often reported talking with a friend,
listening to music, or writing.

Q10. Describe how anger is maladaptive to us, and yet beneficial. When anger fuels
physically or verbally aggressive acts we later regret, it becomes maladaptive. And anger
can harm us-chronic hostility is linked to heart disease. But controlled expressions of anger
are more adaptive than either hostile outbursts or pent-up angry feelings.

Q11. Describe the short-term advantages and long-term disadvantages of venting our anger.
Venting rage may calm us temporarily, but in the long run it does not reduce anger
and may actually amplify it. Anger is better handled by waiting until the level of physical
arousal diminishes, calming oneself, and expressing grievances in ways that promote
reconciliation rather than retaliation. When reconciliation fails, forgiveness can reduce
one’s anger and its physical symptoms.

Q12. Describe the two suggestions in the text to handle our anger.
First, wait. You can bring down the level of physiological arousal of anger by
waiting. “It is true of the body as of arrows,” noted Carol Tavris(1982), “what goes up must
come down. Any emotional arousal will simmer down if you just wait long enough.” Second,
deal with anger in a way that involves neither being chronically angry over every little
annoyance nor passively sulking, merely rehearsing your reasons for your anger.
Q13. How does anger communicate strength and competence?
It can benefit a relationship when it expresses a grievance in ways that promote
reconciliation rather than retaliation. Civility means not only keeping silent about trivial
irritations but also communicating important ones clearly and assertively.

Q14. Describe Charlotte Witviletâ'ss research on the bodily effects of forgiveness?


She and her co researchers invited college students to recall an incident where
someone had hurt them. As the students mentally rehearsed forgiveness, their negative
feelings- and their perspiration, blood pressure, heart rate, and facial tension-all were lower
than when they rehearsed their grudges.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #60: Due 1/22


Rd Pg.537-Pg.545

Q1. Provide facts of how negative emotions have been the focus of psychology throughout
its history.
There is a good reason to focus and negative emotions, they can make our lives
miserable and drive us to seek help. But researchers are becoming increasingly interested
in Subjective well-being, self perceived happiness or satisfaction with life.

Q2. Provide evidence of how our ups and downs tend to balance according to David Watson
and Daniel Kaheman and his colleagues.
Apart from prolonged grief over the loss of a loved one or lingering anxiety after
a trauma (such as child abuse, rape, or the terrors of war), even tragedy is not permanently
depressing. Kidney dialysis patients recognize that their health is relatively poor, yet in
their moment-to-moment experiences they report being just as happy as healthy
nonpatients.

Q3. How did the reports of Daniel Gilbert and colleagues prove the statement that we
overestimate the duration of emotions and underestimate our capacity to adapt.
In less life-threatening contexts, the pattern continues. Faculty members up for
tenure expect their lives would be deflated by a negative decision. Actually, 5 to 10 years
later, those denied are not noticeably less happy than those who were awarded tenure,
report Daniel Gilbert and colleagues. The same is true of breakups, which feel devastating.

Q4. What are the research findings that substantiate people’s view that they would be
more happier if they had more money? Within most affluent countries, people with lots of
money are somewhat happier than those who struggle to afford life’s basic needs. People in
rich countries are also somewhat happier than those in poor countries. Those who have
experienced a recent windfall from a lottery, an inheritance, or a surging economy typically
feel some elation.
Q5. Describe how wealth is like health,and the effects of growing up rich.
Its utter absence can breed misery, yet having it is no guarantee of happiness.
Growing up poor puts one at risk for certain problems, but so does growing up rich. Children
of affluence are at greater than normal risk for substance abuse, anxiety, and depression.

Q6. Explain why those of us who enjoy the abundance of the affluent Western world not
happier, and how has it influenced the wealthier but no happier phenomenon in China?
Regarding the doubled divorce and teen suicide, depression and Americans seem to
be more often miserable. Economic growth in affluent countries has provided no apparent
boost to morale or social well-being. This dramatic growth in income and consumption,
nationwide Gallup surveys revealed that the proportion of Chinese expressing satisfaction
with their lives simultaneously declined. Moreover, the better-off urban Chinese were more
likely to feel dissatisfaction than were the poorer rural Chinese.

Q7. Based on research studies of Richard Ryan, Tim Kasser, and H.W . Perkins, what
predicts a higher life satisfaction? Those who instead strive for intimacy, personal
growth, and contribution to the community experience a higher quality of life. Among college
and university students worldwide, those who report high life satisfaction give priority to
love over money.

Q8. According to the adaptation-level phenomenon, why could we never create


a permanent social paradise, and how does this phenomenon explain why material wants can
be insatiable? When you woke up tomorrow you would feel euphoric for a time but then you
would gradually recalibrate your adaptation level. Before long you would again sometimes
feel gratified (when achievements surpass expectations), sometimes feel deprived(when
they fall below), and sometimes feel neutral. Seeking happiness through material
achievement requires an ever increasing abundance of things.

Q9. Provide examples of how relative deprivation leads to the effect of comparison.
Despite a relatively rapid promotion rate for the group, many soldiers were
frustrated about their own promotion rates. Apparently, seeing so many others being
promoted inflated the soldier’s expectations. And when expectations soar above
attainments, the result is disappointment.

Q10. Describe the five predictors of happiness, and five factors that are not related to
happiness. Having high self-esteem, be optimistic, outgoing, and agreeable, have close
friendships or a satisfying marriage, have work and leisure that engage their skills, have a
meaningful religious faith, sleep well and exercise. Factors not related to happiness are age,
gender, education levels, parenthood, physical attractiveness.

Q11. Describe the “happiness set point”.


Depending on our outlook and recent experiences, our happiness seems to
fluctuate around our happiness set point. Satisfaction with life is not fixed and may rise or
fall and happiness can be influenced by factors that are under our control.

Q12. What do studies of happiness remind us about emotions, and what do


fear, anger, and happiness have in common?
Remind us that emotions combine physiological activation (left hemisphere
especially), expressive behaviors (huge smile), and conscious experience, including thoughts
(I was so ready for that test) and feelings (pride, satisfaction). They are biopsychosocial
phenomena. Our genetic predispositions, brain activity, outlooks, experiences, relationships,
and cultures jointly form us. bv

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #61: Due 2/5


Pg. 313-Pg.320

Q1. Describe how the sea snail and seal exhibit associative learning?
The sea snail associates the squirt with impending shock; the seals associate
slapping and barking with receiving a herring. In both cases, animals learned something
important to their survival: to predict the immediate future.

Q2. Describe the two types of associative learning involving the Japanese rancher and the
cattle.
A clever Japanese rancher reportedly herds cattle by outfitting them with
electronic pages, which he calls from his cell phone. After a week of training, the animals
learn to associate two stimuli-the beep on their pager and the arrival of food (classical
conditioning). But they also learn to associate their hustling to the food trough with the
pleasure of eating (operant conditioning).

Q3. What aspects of psychology did Pavlov and Watson has a disdain for, and why? Both
shared a disdain for mentalistic concepts such as consciousness and a belief that the basic
laws of learning were the same for all animals-whether dogs or humans.
Q4. Describe Pavlov’s experiments regarding a dog and a neutral stimulus? Pavlov presented
a neutral stimulus(a tone) just before an unconditioned stimulus (food in mouth). The neutral
stimulus then became a conditioned stimulus, producing a conditioned response.

Q5. Why is salivation in the dog called the conditional reflex?


Salivation is response to the tone was conditional upon the dog’s learning the
association between the tone and the food. One translation of Pavlov therefore calls the
salivation the conditional reflex.

Q6. Provide an original example, and describe the US, UR, CS, CR?
US (unconditioned stimulus)-in classical conditioning, a stimulus that
unconditionally-naturally and automatically-triggers a response. UR(Unconditioned
response)- in classical conditioning, the unlearned, naturally occurring response to
the unconditioned stimulus, such as salivation when food is in the mouth. CS (conditioned
stimulus)- in classical conditioning, an originally irrevelant stimulus that, after association
with an US, comes to trigger a conditioned response. CR(in classical conditioning, the
learned response to a previously neutral (but now conditioned) stimulus (CS).

Q7. Describe the five major conditioning processes.


Acquisition
extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, and discrimination.

Q8. Describe how Michael Domjan showed how the CS signals an important
biological event by conditioning the sexual arousal of male Japanese quail. Researchers
turned on red light and it caused male quail to become excited and to copulate with her
more quickly when she arrived. Exposure to sexually conditioned stimuli also caused them to
release more semen and sperm. This illustrates the larger lesson that conditioning serves a
function: it helps an animal survive and reproduce-by responding to cues that help it gain
food, avoid dangers, defeat rivals, locate mates, and produce offspring.

Q9. In Michael Tirrell’s example of acquisition, what is the US, UR, CS, CR? US-
passionate kiss, UR- sexual arousal, CS- onion breath, CR- sexual arousal.

Q10. After conditioning, what happens if the CS occurs repeatedly without the US? Will the
CS continue to elicit the CR? Onion breath does not usually produce sexual arousal. But when
repeatedly paired with a passionate kiss, it can become a CS and do just that.

Q11. Provide examples how generalization is adaptive?


When toddlers taught to fear moving cars in the street respond
similarily to trucks and motorcycles. Desirable foods, such as fudge, are unappealing when
presented in a disgusting form, as when shaped to resemble dog feces.

Q12. Provide an example of discrimination?


Confronted by a pit bull, your heart may race; confronted by a golden retriever, it
probably will not.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #62 Due 2/6


Pg.321-Pg. 326

Q1. Why do classical conditioning treatments that ignore cognition often have limited
success? In classical conditioning, humans and other animals learn when to expect a US, and
their awareness of the link between stimuli and responses can weaken associations.

Q2. Describe the findings of Garcia and Koelling regarding the rat’s aversion to drinking
water from the plastic bottles in the radiation chambers. Was classical conditioning the
reason?
The sickened rats developed aversions to tastes but not to sights or sounds. This
contradicted the behaviorist’s idea that any perceivable stimulus could serve as a CS. But it
made adaptive sense, because for rats the easiest way to identify tainted food is to taste
it. If sickened after sampling a new food, they thereafter avoid the food-which makes it
difficult to eradict a population of “bait-shy- rats by poisoning.

Q3. Explain why human taste aversion is more biologically predisposed than classically
conditioned.
Nature prepares the members of each species to learn those things crucial to
their survival. Someone who readily learns a taste aversion is unlikely to eat the same toxic
food again and is more likely to survive and leave descendants. Indeed, all sorts of bad
feelings, from nausea to anxiety to pain, serve good purposes. Biology prepares us to learn
taste aversions to toxic foods.

Q4. Provide an example of how learning enables animals to adapt to their environment.
Adaptation shows us why animals would be responsive to stimuli that announce
significant events, such as food or pain.

Q5. How does chemotherapy trigger nausea conditioning in cancer patient?


When chemotherapy triggers nausea and vomiting more than an hour following
treatment, cancer patients often develop classically conditioned nausea to stimuli associated
with taking the drug.

Q6. Provide three applications of classical conditioning?


• Former crack cocaine users often feel a craving when they again encounter cues
(people, places) associated with previous highs. Thus, drug counselors advise
addicts to steer clear of settings and paraphernalia associated with the euphoria
of previous drug use.
• Counselors sometimes provide people who abuse alcohol with aversive experiences
that may partly reverse their positive associations with alcohol.
• Classical conditioning even works on the body’s disease-fighting immune system.
When a particular taste accompanies a drug that influences immune responses, the
taste by itself may come to produce an immune response.

Q7. How did Watson and Rayner show how specific fears might be conditioned?
Watson and Rayner presented 11 month old Albert with a white rat and as he
reached to touch it, struck a hammer against a steel bar just behind his head. After 7
repetitions of seeing the rat and then hearing the frightening noise, Albert burst into tears
at the mere sight of the rat (an ethically troublesome study by today’s standards). 5 days
later Albert showed generalization of his conditioned response by reacting to the fear to a
rabbit, a dog, and a seal skin coat, but not to dissimiliar objects such as toys.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#63: Due 2/9


Rd. Pg.326-Pg.333

Q1. Define the difference between classical conditioning and operant


conditioning?
In classical conditioning, the organism forms associations between behaviors it does not
control; this form of conditioning involves respondent behavior (automatic responses to
some stimulus). In operant conditioning, the organism learns associations between its own
behavior and resulting events; this form of conditioning involves operant behavior (behavior
that operates on the environment, producing consequences).

Q2. What was the impact of Skinner’s behavioral technology, and explain the Skinner box?
Using Thorndike’s law of effect as a starting point, Skinner developed a
“behavioral technology” that revealed principles of behavior control. These principles also
enabled him to teach pigeons such unpigeonlike behaviors as walking, playing Ping-Pong, and
keeping a missile on course by pecking at a target on a screen. Skinner designed an operant
chamber, popularly known as a Skinner box. The box has a bar or key that an animal presses
or pecks to release a reward of food or water, and a device that records these responses.
Q3. Describe the method of successive approximation
You reward responses that are ever closer to the final desired behavior, and you
ignore all other responses. By making rewards contingent on desired behaviors, researchers
and animal trainers gradually shape complex behaviors.

Q4. What the discriminative stimulus is in the pigeon pecking experiment and why is
considered shaping?
A face is a discriminative stimulus it signals that a response will be reinforced. It
is considered shaping because after seeing a human face but not after seeing other images,
the pigeon will learn to recognize human faces.

Q5.Provide an example of negative reinforcement and positive reinforcement.

Food is a positive reinforcer for hungry animals. Negative reinforcement is taking


aspirin may relieve a headache.

Q6. Provide and example of a primary reinforcer and secondary reinforcer.


Primary reinforcer getting food when hungry. Secondary reinforcer is our lives
filled with money, good grades, a pleasant tone of voice, a word of praise.

Q7. What are the consequences of delayed reinforcers?


Indeed to function effectively we must learn to postpone immediate rewards for
greater long-term rewards. The paycheck at the end of the week, the good grade at the end
of the semester, the trophy at the end of the season.

Q8. Describe the role of acquisition, extinction, generalization, and


discrimination in operant conditioning.
In operant conditioning, acquisition is the strengthening of a reinforced response.
Extinction occurs when a response is no longer reinforced. Generalization occurs when an
organism’s response to similar stimuli is reinforced. Discrimination occurs when an organism
learns that certain responses, but not others, will be rewarded.

Q9. Provide three examples of partial reinforcement.


• NYC computer’s controlled traffic lights made most of the city’s 3250 pedestrian
traffic signal buttons at intersections obsolete. Yet occasionally, usually
coincidentally, pedestrians are reinforced with a walk light soon after pressing the
button.
• Slot machines reward gamblers occasionally and unpredictably.
• There is also a valuable lesson here for parents. Occasionally giving in to children’s
demanding tantrums for the sake of peace and quiet intermittently reinforces the
tantrums. That is the very best procedure for making a behavior persist.

Q10. Give a specific example of each type of partial reinforcement schedule.


Fixed-ratio schedules- reinforce behavior after a set number responses. Variable-
ratio schedule- a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable
number of responses. Fixed-interval schedule- reinforcement schedule that reinforces a
response only after a specified time has elapsed. Variable-interval schedule- reinforcement
schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals.

Q11. Describe the finding that Robert Larzelere noted with human punishment studies.
Often find that spanked children are at increased risk for aggression, depression,
and low self-esteem. Just as people who have received radiation treatments are more likely
to die of cancer, and people who have undergone psychotherapy are more likely to suffer
depression-because they had preexisting problems that triggered the treatments. Physical
punishment is followed by bad behavior.

Q12. Explain the drawbacks of physical punishment.


Punished behavior is not forgotten; it is suppressed. This temporary suppression
may (negatively) reinforce the parents punishing behavior. The child swears, the parents
swats, the parents hears no more swearing from the child, and the parents feel the
punishment was successful in stopping the behavior.

Q13. Why is punishment combined with reinforcement more effective than


punishment alone?
If the punishment is avoidable, the punished behavior may reappear in safe
settings. The child may simply learn discrimination: it’s not okay to swear around the house,
but it is okay to swear elsewhere.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#64: Due 2/10


Rd. Pg. 334-Pg.339

Q1. Provide evidence of latent learning in rats.


When an experimenter then places a reward in the maze’s goal box, the rats very
quickly perform as well as rats that have been reinforced with food for running the maze.
During their explorations, the rats seemingly experience latent learning-learning that
becomes apparent only when there is some incentive to demonstrate it.

Q2. Provide a personal example applying the differences of intrinsic and extrinsic
motivation.
Eager for rewards that depend on your doing well.

Q3. How did Keller Breland and Marian Breland observe biological
predispositions while using operant conditioning? While using Operant procedures to train
animals for circuses, TV shows and movies. The Brelands originally assumed that operant
principles would work on almost any response that any animal could make. They concluded
biological predispositions were more important than they supposed.
Q4. Describe the criticism of Skinner’s view on human behavior
Skinner underestimating importance of cognition and a biological constraints on
learning. They also engaged in a vigorous intellectual debate with him over the nature of
human freedom and the strategies and ethics of managing people.

Q5. How did Skinner believe operant conditioning could be used effectively in the
classroom? The use of teaching machines and textbooks that would shape learning in small
steps and provide immediate reinforcement for correct responses. Such machines and
texts, they said, would revolutionize education and free teachers to concentrate on their
student’s special needs.

Q6. How did Thomas Simek and Richard O’Brien demonstrate that reinforcement principles
be used in teaching golf and baseball?
They started with easily reinforced responses. Compared with children taught by
conventional methods, those trained by this behavioral method show,in both testing and
game situations, faster improvement in their skill.

Q7. How do reinforcers influence productivity in the workplace? Provide an example. When
worker’s productivity boosts rewards for everyone, their motivation, morale, and
cooperative spirit often increase. Reinforcement for a job well done is especially effective
in boosting productivity when the desired performance is well defined and achievable.

Q8. Provide three examples to that disrupt a destructive parent-child


Relationship. Target a specific behavior, reward it and watch it increase; ignore whining;
when children misbehave or are defiant, do not yell at or hit them.

Q9. What are the four steps in reinforcing our most desired behaviors and extinguishing
those undesired behaviors? State your goal, Monitor, Reinforce, Reduce the incentives.

Q10. Describe the four comparisons between classical conditioning and


operant conditioning.
Response, acquisition, extinction, cognitive processes, biological predispositions.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#65: Due 2/11


Rd. Pg. 341-Pg.346

Q1. Provide an example of modeled learning in monkeys.


Shortly after a fight, stumptail macaque monkeys often reconcile with one
another by approaching their opponent and making friendly contact.

Q2. What did mean when phrasing humans as the supreme memes machines?
Our catch-phrases, hem lengths, ceremonies, foods, traditions, vices, and fads all
spread by one person copying other.

Q3. Describe the role of mirror neurons in human observational learning


Human mirror neurons help children learn by observation how to mime lip and
tongue movements when forming new words. Mirror neuron also help give rise to children’s
empathy and to their ability to infer another’s mental state.
Q4. How does the imitation of models shape very young children in terms of reading? To
encourage children to read, read to them and surround them with books and people who
read.

Q5. Explain the findings of bobo doll experiment conducted by Albert


Bandura. Compared with children not exposed to the adult model, those who observed the
mode’s aggressive outburst were much more likely to lash out at the doll. Apparently,
observing the adult model beating up the doll lowered their inhibition. But something more
than lowered inhibitions was at work, for the children also imitated the very acts they had
observed and used the very words they had heard.

Q6. Describe three examples of prosocial models and their prosocial effects.
People who exemplify nonviolent, helpful behavior can prompt similar behavior in
others. India’s Mahatma Gandhi and America’s Martin Luther King,JR., both drew on the
power of modeling, making nonviolent action a powerful force for social change in both
countries. Parents are also powerful model and U.S. civil rights activists.

Q7. How commonplace is television watching in Australia and the United


States? IN Australia, 99.2 percent of households have television and 56 percent have
multiple sets. IN US, where 9 in 10 teens watch TV daily, someone who lives to 75 will have
spent 9 years staring at the tube.

Q8. Using statistics provided in the text, how violent is television


Programming. More than 3000 network and cable programs aired during 1996/1997 revealed
that nearly 6 in 10 featured violence, that 74 percent of the violence went unpunished, that
58 did not show victim’s pain, nearly half incidents involved justified violence and nearly half
involved an attractive perpetrator.

Q9. Describe the four correlation studies that link television violence
viewing with violent behavior.
The more hours elementary school children spend engaged with media violence the more
often they get in fights when restudied 2 to 6 months later. The more hours children spend
watching violent programs, the more at risk they also are for aggression and crime as teens
and adults. The heavy viewer group committed 5 times as many aggressive acts.

Q10. Why do these correlation studies not prove viewing violence causes
aggression? Correlation does not imply causation. Maybe aggressive children prefer violent
programs or children neglectful or abusive parents are both more aggressive and more often
left in front of the T.V.

Q11. How does prolonged exposure to violence desensitize viewers?


They become more indifferent to it when later viewing a brawl, whether on TV or
in real life.
Q12. What was Donnerstein’s viewpoint on violence desensitization?
Imagine a better way to make people indifferent to brutality than to expose
them to a graded series of scenes, from fights to killings to the mutilations in slasher
movies. Watching cruelty fosters indifference.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#66: Due 2/24


Rd Pg.349- Pg.353

Q1. Describe the memory feat of Russian journalist Shereshevski.


S’s memory not only allowed him merely to listen while other reporters were
scribbling notes, it also earned him a place in virtually every modern book on memory.

Q2. Provide three examples of flashbulb memories from the text.


9/11 attack, Nazi invasion of Denmark, Princess Diana’s death, car accident.

Q3. Describe President’s Bush episode of false flashbulb memory.


Chief of staff, Andrew Card told President Bush of second plane crash in world
trade center. President recalled that he saw it on the TV the airplane hit the tower and
thought the pilot was terrible and he maybe suffering false recall.

Q4. How is building a memory like information processing in creating a text book?
Include countless items of information, 100,000 journal article titles. Most of it
is temporary storage in my briefcase for more detailed processing later, most items
discard. Articles and news items get organized and filed for long term storage. Important
current events jump into long term mental storage and draw fresh examples of psychology
in everyday life.

Q5. How does a computer encodes, stores, and retrieves information?


First it translates input (keystrokes) into an electronic language, much as the brain encodes
sensory information into a neural language. The computer permanently stores vast amounts
of information on a disk, from which it can later be retrieved.

Q6. Describe the three stage processing model of memory proposed by Richard Atkinson
and Richard Shiffrin.
Sensory memory from which it is processed into short term memory bin, where we
encode it through rehearsal for long term memory and later retrieval.

Q7. What process explains why we can speak while driving?


The central executive processor separate the mental subsystems allow us to
process images and words simultaneously.

Q8. Why is it so difficult to try to remember the melody for one song while we are listening
to another?
Working memory’s limited capacity.

Q9. What do brain scans show concerning working memory?


Brain scans show that the frontal lobes are active when the central executive
focuses on complex thinking, and that the parietal and temporal lobes areas that help us
process auditory and visual information also are active when such information is in our
working memory.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#67: Due 2/25


Rd. Pg. 353-Pg.356
Q1. Provide examples of automatically processing information about space,
time and frequency.
Space-While reading your textbook you often encode the place on a page where certain
material appears; later, when struggling to recall the information, you may visualize its
location
Time-While going about your day, you unintentionally note the sequence of the day’s events.
Later, when you realize that you left your coat somewhere, you recreate the sequence of
what you did that day and retrace your steps.
Frequency-you effortlessly keep track of how many times things happen, thus enabling you
to realize”this is the third time I’ve run into her today”.

Q2. How does learning to read become automatic processing


You at first sounded out individual letters to figure out what words they made.
With effort, you plodded slowly through a mere 20 to 50 words on a page. Now, however,
after years of practice, you can read quickly and effortlessly.
Q3. Describe Ebbinghuas’s retention curve.
Ebbinghuas found that the more times he practiced a list of nonsense syllables on day 1, the
fewer repetitions he required to relearn it on day 2. Said simply, the more time we spend
learning novel information, the more we retain.
Q4. Describe the next-in-line effect
When people go around a circle saying words or their names, and attempting to
remember what was said by the others, their poorest memories are for what was said by
the person just before them. When we are next in line, we focus on our own performance
and often fail to process the last person’s words.
Q5. What happens to information processed seconds before sleep?
It is remembered.
Q6. How does “sleep learning” not occur?
Without opportunity for rehearsal, sleep learning doesn’t occur(not remembered).
We also retain information better when our rehearsal is distributed over time, a
phenomenon called the spacing effect.

Q7. What was the discovery made by Harry Bahrick regarding foreign language
word translations?
The longer the space between practice sessions, the better their retention up to
5 years later. Restudying the material will enhance lifelong retention. Spreading out learning
over a semester or a year should also help.

Q8.How does the serial positioning effect interfere with you rehearsing all
your classmates names.
As you meet each one, you repeat (rehearse) all their names, starting from the
beginning. By the time you meet the last person, you will have spent more time rehearsing
the earlier names than the later ones; thus, the next day you will probably more easily recall
the earlier names. Also, learning the first few names may interfere with your learning the
later ones.

Q9. How are our minds like theater directors who, given a raw script,
imagine a finished stage production?
Our memory system processes information by encoding its significant features.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#69: Due 2/27


Rd. Pg. 361-Pg.366

Q1. How did George Sperling demonstrate the initial recording of


sensory information in the memory system?

Q2. How did Lloyd Peterson and Margaret Peterson show how quickly
short-term memory will disappear

Q3. Describe “Magical Number Seven plus or minus two”


Q4. Why are our brains not like attics, contrary to Sherlock Holmes
belief?

Q5. Provide examples of three world memory championship records

Q6. How did Ralph Gerad test the memory trace, using hamsters?

Q7. Describe the findings based on the observed changes by Eric Kandel
and James Schwartz in the sending neurons of a simple animal, Aplysia.

Q8. How does increased synaptic efficiency make for more efficient
neural circuits?

Q9. What are the benefits of boosting CREB protein production?

Q10. What can a blow to the head, and ECT therapy do people’s recent
memory?

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#72: Due 3/4


Rd. Pg.376-Pg.381

Q1. Detail memory researcher Danny Schacter’s seven sins of memory.

Q2. How does age affect encoding efficiency?

Q3. Provide an example of encoding failure from the text


Q4. Describe Ebbinghuas’s famous forgetting curve

Q5. How do we explain forgetting curves, and what example did Harry Bahrick
demonstrate?

Q6. If two people give you their numbers, why will each successive number be more difficult
to recall? How did this phenomenon affect Ebbinghaus.

Q7. How is retroactive interference minimized?

Q8. Describe the phenomenon called positive transfer

Q9. How did Michael Ross and his colleagues find that people unknowingly
revise their own histories?

Q10. Provide an example of a reported case describing Freud’s concept of repression


Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#73: Due 3/5


Rd. Pg.382-Pg.392

Q1. Describe the classic experiment demonstrating eyewitness accounts of


memory reconstruction conducted by Elizabeth Loftus, and John Palmer.
When people who had seen the film of a car accident were later asked a leading question.
They recalled a more serious accident than they had witnessed.

Q2. How do we discriminate between memories of real and suggested events?


As we recount an experience, we fill in memory gaps with plausible guesses and
assumptions. After more retellings, we often recall the guessed details, which have now
been absorbed into our memories, as if we had actually observed them. Other’s vivid
retelling of an event may also implant false memories.
Q3. How do repeatedly imagining nonexistent actions and events create false
memories? Imagination inflation occurs partly because visualizing something and actually
perceiving it activate similar brain areas. Thus the more vividly people can imagine things,
the more likely they are to inflate their imaginations into memories.

Q4. Describe the research conducted by Richard Wiseman regarding


misinformation? 34 percent of the participants recalled having actually seen the table
levitate when it did not.

Q5. How did Debra Poole and Stephen Lindsay replicate Piaget’s source
amnesia? Preschoolers interact with Mr. Science who engaged them in demonstrations
such as blowing up a balloon with baking soda and vinegar. Three months later, their parents
on 3 successive days read them a story about themselves and Mr. Science. Stories
described things they had experienced and had not experienced.4 in 10 children
spontaneously recalled Mr. Science doing things that were only in the story.

Q6. How do our assumptions alter our perceptual memories?


Researchers showed people faces with computer-blended expressions, such as the
angry/ happy face in (a), then asked them to explain why the person was either angry or
happy. Those asked to explain an “angry” expression later (when sliding a bar on a morphing
movie to identify the earlier-seen face) remembered an angrier face, such as the one shown
in.(b).

Q7. Why do “hypnotically refreshed” memories of crimes so easily incorporate


errors? (Memory construction) It explains why dating partners who fall in love
overestimate their first impressions of one another (it was love at first sight) while those
who break up underestimate their earlier liking.

Q8. Describe the incident concerning Australian psychologist Donald Thompson


and how it impacted his work concerning memory distortion?
Thompson being interviewed on live television before the rape occurred. The victim had
experienced source amnesia, confusing her memories of Thompson with those of the rapist.
To activate retrieval cues, the detective first asks witnesses to visualize the scene and
witness tells in detail with out interruption, every point recalled.

Q9. What were the “memory wars” in the decade of the 1990’s
Concerned claims of repressed and recovered memories of childhood sexual abuse.
More credible accusations of sexual abuse by some priests.
Q10. Describe the seven problems children’s witness accounts
Injustice happens, incest and other sexual abuse happen, forgetting happens,
recovered memories are commonplace, memories ”recovered” under hypnosis or the
influence of drugs are especially unreliable, memories of things happening before age 3 are
also unreliable, memories, whether real or false, can be emotionally upsetting.

Q11. Describe the results of implanted false memories by Elizabeth Loftus


and her colleagues. Her uncle tells Loftus that she had found her mother’s drowned body
and had repressed memory but then her brother called and said that Aunt pearl had found
the body and knows first hand reality rape at age of 6.

Q12. Does the repression of threatening memories ever occur?


The most common response to a traumatic experience (witnessing a parent’s murder,
experiencing the horrors of a Nazi death camp, being terrorized by a hijacker or a rapist,
escaping the collapsing World Trade Center Towers, surviving the Asian tsunami) is not
banishment of the experience into the unconscious. Rather, such experiences are typically
etched on the mind as vivid, persistent, haunting memories.

Q13. Describe the eight effective study techniques in improving memory


The psychology of memory suggests concrete strategies for improving memory.
These include scheduling spaced study times; actively rehearsing information to be learned;
aiding encoding by making well-organized, vivid, and personally meaningful associations; using
mnemonic techniques;returning to contexts ad moods that are rich with associations
recording memories before misinformation can corrupt them; minimizing interference; and
self testing to rehearse information and find gaps in your memory.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#74: Due 3/12


Rd. Pg.595-Pg. 600

Q1. Describe Sigmund Freud’s early history as a psychologist and Physiologist.

Q2. How did Freud explain the loss of feeling in one’s hand if there is no physiological
explanation?
Observing patients led Freud to his discovery of the unconscious. He decided that the
peculiar loss of feeling in one’s hand might be caused by a fear of touching one’s genitals;
that unexplained blindness or deafness might be caused by not wanting to see or hear
something that aroused intense anxiety.

Q3. Describe Freud’s belief that an iceberg is like unconsciousness?


The mind is like an iceberg-mostly hidden. Our conscious awareness is the part of
the iceberg that floats above the surface. Below the surface is the much larger,
unconscious region containing thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories, of which we are
unaware.

Q4. How did Freud believe he could glimpse into the unconscious mind?
He believed he could glimpse the unconscious seeping not only into people’s free
associations, beliefs, habits, and symptoms but also into slips of the tongue and pen.

Q5. How did Sigmund Freud view jokes and dreams?


Freud viewed jokes as expressions of repressed sexual and aggressive tendencies,
and dreams as the royal road to the unconscious. In his analysis of dreams, Freud searched
for the nature of patient’s inner conflicts and their release from inner tensions.

Q6. Describe the pleasure principle in the id


The id operates on the pleasure principle: If not constrained by reality, it seeks
immediate gratification. To envision an iddominated person, think of newborn infants, crying
out satisfaction the moment they feel a need, caring nothing for the outside world’s
conditions and demands. Or think of people with a present rather than future time
perspective- those who often use tobacco, alcohol, and other drugs, and would sooner party
now than sacrifice today’s pleasure for future success and happiness.

Q7. Describe the reality principle in the ego


Seeks to gratify the id’s impulses in realistic ways that will bring long term
pleasure rather than pain or destruction.(Imagine what would happen if, lacking an ego, we
expressed our restrained sexual or aggressive impulses whenever we felt them.)

Q8. How does the superego relate to the ego and id?
Because the superego’s demands often oppose the id’s, the ego struggles to
reconcile the two. It is the personality “executive”, mediating the impulsive demands of the
id, the restraining demands of the superego, and the real-life demands of the external
world.

Q9. Describe Freud’s 5 psychosexual stages.


Oral (0-18 months)-Pleasures centers on the mouth-sucking, biting, chewing. Anal
(18-36 months)-Pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination; coping with demands for
control. Phallic-Pleasure zone is the genitals; coping with incestuous sexual feelings.
Latency (6 to puberty) Dormant sexual feelings. Genital (puberty on)-Maturation of sexual
interests.

Q10. Compare the Electra complex to the Oedipus complex.


Opedius according to Freud, a boy’s sexual desires toward his mother and feelings
of jealousy and hatred for the rival father. Some psychonalysts in Freud’s own thinking
seemed to vary on this issue.

Q11. Describe gender identity


Freud believed that identification with the same-sex parent provides what
psychologists now call our gender identity-our sense of being male or female. This
illustrates what both Freud and today’s object relations theorists have presumed: that our
early childhood relations with parents, caregivers, and everything else influences our
developing identity, personality, and frailties.
Q12. How would Freud describe an individual who is orally overindulged or deprived?
A person who had been either orally overindulged or deprived (perhaps by abrupt,
early weaning) might fixate at the oral stage. The person might continue to seek oral
gratification by smoking and eating excessively. In such ways, Freud suggested, the twig of
personality is bent at an early age.

Q13. Provide an example of repression, regression, reaction formation,


projection, rationalization, and displacement.
Repression-banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts and feelings from consciousness. According
to Freud, repression underlies all the other defense mechanisms, each of which disguises
threatening impulses and keeps them from reaching consciousness.
Regression- allows us to retreat to an earlier, more infantile stage of development. Juvenile
monkeys, when anxious, retreat to infantile clinging to their mothers or to one another.
Reaction formation- ego consciously makes unacceptable impulses look like their opposites.
En route to consciousness, the unacceptable proposition “I hate him” becomes “I love him”.
Timidity becomes daring. Feelings of inadequacy become bravado.
Projection- disguises threatening impulses by attributing them to others. Thus ‘he doesn’t
trust me’ may be a projection of the actual feeling.
Rationalization- occurs when we unconsciously generate self-justifying explanations to hide
from ourselves the real reasons for our actions.
Displacement- diverts sexual or aggressive impulses toward an object or person that is
psychologically more acceptable than the one that aroused the feelings. Children who fear
expressing anger against their parents may displace it by kicking the family pet.

Q14. How do these defense mechanisms function indirectly and unconsciously?


They reduce anxiety by disguising our threatening impulses. Just as the body
unconsciously defends itself against disease, so also, believed Freud, does the ego
unconsciously defend itself against anxiety.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#76: Due 3/16


Rd.Pg: 604-609

Q1. Describe the accolades and criticism of the Rosarch test?


The most cherished and the most reviled of all psychological assessment tools.
Some offer judges Rorschach-based assessments of criminal’s violence potential. Other
clinicians view it a as a diagnostic tool, a source of suggestive leads, or an ice breaker and a
revealing interview technique.

Q2. How has modern evidence contradicted Freud’s theories on gender identity, parental
influence, and childhood sexuality?

Some think that Freud overestimated parental influence and underestimated peer influence
(and abuse). They also doubt that conscience and gender identity form as the child resolves
the Oedipus complex at age 5 or 6. We gain our gender identity earlier and become strongly
masculine or feminine even without a same-sex parent present. And they note that Freud’s
ideas about childhood sexuality arose from his rejection of stories of childhood sexual
abuse told by his female patients-stories that some scholars believe he suggested, coerced,
or later misremembered and then attributed to their own childhood sexual wishes and
conflicts. Today, we understand how Freud’s questioning might have created false memories,
and we also know that childhood sexual abuse does happen.

Q3. Describe the evidence that the human mind does not repress bad thoughts?
A study of sixteen 5-to 10 year old children who had this horrific experience
found that not one repressed the memory. Survivors of Nazi death camps remember all too
well-although many do benefit from disclosing and talking through their experiences. In one
neurological unit in a British hospital, 35 percent of military patients arrived with amnesia
after severe combat during World War II. But such cases often appear to be either
concussion-related or a false amnesia tactic for escaping intolerable situations.

Q4. Describe Lewickiâ’s experimental results on nonconcious learning on anticipating


patterns.
Discovered that people’s nonconscious learning can anticipate patterns “too
complex and too confusing to be consciously noticed”. In one study, some students watched
(others did not) as the numeral 6 jumped around a computer screen from quadrant to
quadrant. Although the movement seemed to be in random order-no one consciously
detected any rule-it was based on a complex, hidden pattern. And those who had seen the
earlier presentations were quicker to find the next 6 when it was hidden among a screen full
of numbers. Without knowing how they did it, their ability to track the number from one
quadrant to another was improving. When the number’s movement became truly random,
their performance declined.

Q5. Describe the 7 pieces of evidence from the text that the modern researchers view
compared to Sigmund Freud’s view of the unconscious.
The unconscious also involves the schemas that automatically control our perceptions and
interpretations. The priming by stimuli to which we have not consciously attended. The
right-hemisphere activity that enables the split-brain patient’s left hand to carry out an
instruction the patient cannot verbalize. The parallel processing of different aspects of
vision and thinking. The implicit memories that operate without conscious recall, even among
those with amnesia. The emotions that activate instantly, before conscious analysis. The
self-concept and stereotypes that automatically and unconsciously influence how we process
information about ourselves and others.

Q6. Based on the terror management theory, how would people act facing a
threatening world?
Faced with a threatening world, people act not only to enhance their self-esteem
but also to adhere more strongly to worldviews that answer questions about life’s meaning.
Moreover, they cleave close relationships. The events of 9/11- a striking experience of the
terror of death-led trapped World Trade Center occupants to spend their last moments
calling loved ones, and led most Americans to reach out to family and friends.

Q7. How do researchers compare the false consensus effect, to projection?


People tend to see their foibles (fault) and attitudes in others, a phenomenon that
Freud called projection and that today’s researchers call the false consensus effect, the
tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs and behaviors.

Q8. What do critics find do be most serious with Freud’s problems?


It offers after the fact explanations of any characteristic (of one person’s smoking,
another’s fear of horses, another’s sexual orientation) yet fails to predict such behaviors
and traits. If you feel angry at your mother’s death, you illustrate his theory because “your
unresolved childhood dependency needs are threatened.”

Q9. Which of Freud’s ideas are still considered to be enduring?


Freud’s supporters also note that some of his ideas are enduring. It was Freud who
drew our attention to the unconscious and the irrational, to our self-protective defenses to
the importance of human sexuality and to the tension between our biological impulses and
our social well-being. It was Freud who challenged our self-righteousness, punctured our
pretensions, and reminded us of our potential for evil.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#77: Due 3/17


Rd. Pg.609-Pg.612

Q1. How did Abraham Maslow develop his idea for self-actualization?
Maslow developed his ideas by studying healthy, creative people rather than
troubled clinical cases. Her based his description of self-actualization on a study of those
who seemed notable for their rich and productive lives-among them, Abraham Lincoln,
Thomas Jefferson, and Eleanor Roosevelt.

Q2. What did Abraham Lincoln, Thomas Jefferson, and Eleanor Roosevelt share
as common characteristics that allowed them to achieve self-actualization?
They were self-aware and self-accepting, open and spontaneous, loving and caring
and not paralyzed by other’s opinions. Secure in their sense of who they were, their
interests were problem-centered rather than self-centered. They focused their energies on
a particular task, one they often regarded as their mission in life. Most enjoyed a few deep
relationships rather than many superficial ones. Many had been moved by spiritual or
personal peak experiences that surpassed ordinary consciousness.

Q3. What did Maslow’s work with college students lead him to speculate about
self-actualization?
That those likely to become self-actualizing adults were likeable, caring, “privately
affectionate to those of their elders who deserve it”, and “ secretly uneasy about the
cruelty, meanness, and mob spirit so often found in young people.”

Q4. Carl Rogers believed that a growth-promoting climate required which


three conditions?
Genuineness- by being open with their own feelings, dropping their facades, and being
transparent and self-disclosing. Acceptance-This is an attitude of grace, an attitude that
values us even knowing our failings. It is a profound relief to drop our pretenses, confess
our worst feelings, and discover that we are still accepted. Empathic-by sharing and
mirroring our feelings and reflecting our meanings.

Q5. Rogers believed that these three conditions could be nurtured in which
relationships between people?
Relationship between therapist and client, between parent and child, leader and
group, teacher and student, administrator and staff member-in fact, between any two
human beings.

Q6. How would a self-concept be regarded as positive?


If our self-concept is positive, we tend to act and perceive the world positively.
When the ideal and the actual self are nearly alike, said Rogers, the self concept is positive.

Q7. What is the changed item on the MMPI that humanistic psychologists can
take satisfaction in?

Q8. What are the criticisms of humanistic psychology?

Q9. Why did critics object to the statement made by Carl Rogers “Am I living

in a way which is deeply satisfying to me, and which truly expresses me?”
Q10. How does humanistic psychology fail to appreciate the reality of our
human capacity for evil?

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#78: Due 3/18


Rd. pg. 612-P.g 615

Q1. How did Gordon Allport come to define personality?


Allport define personality in terms of identifiable behavior
patterns. He was concerned less with explaining individual traits than
describing them.

Q2. Describe the Myers-Briggs Type indicator


The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, which has been taken by 2.5
million Americans a year and used by 89 of the 100 largest
corporations, is quite simple. It offers choices, such as “Do you
usually value sentiment more than logic, or value logic more than
sentiment?” Then it counts the test-taker’s preferences, labels them as
indicating, say, a feeling or thinking type, and feeds them back to the
person in complimentary terms.
Q3. What does the National Research Council note about the Myers-Briggs
personality test despite its popularity?
That despite the test’s popularity in business and career
counseling, its initial use outran research on its value as a predictor
of job performance, and the popularity of this instrument in the
absence of proven scientific worth is troublesome.

Q4. How did British psychologists Hans Eysenck and Sybil Eysenk believe
that we can reduce many of our normal individual variations to two or
three dimensions?
(extraversion-introversion and emotional stability-instability).
People in 35 countries around the world, from China to Uganda to
Russia, have taken the Eysenck Personality Questionnaire, and when
their answers are analyzed, extraversion (temperament and typical
behaviors) and emotionality factors inevitably emerged as basic
personality dimensions. The Eysencks believed that these factors are
genetically influenced and recent research support this belief. Varying
combinations define other, more specific traits.

Q5. Describe the brain-activity scans of extraverts


Brain activity scans of extraverts add to the growing list of
traits and mental states that have been explored with brain-imaging
procedures. Extraverts seeks stimulation because their normal brain
arousal is relatively low. For example, PET scans show that a frontal
lobe area involved in behavior inhibition is less active in extraverts
than in introverts.

Q6. How did Jerome Kagen exemplify temperament?


Attributes differences in children’s shyness and inhibition to
their automatic nervous system, we respond to stress with greater
anxiety and inhibition. Given a reactive autonomic nervous system, we
respond to stress with greater anxiety and inhibition.

Q7. Do animals have personalities, and provide examples from the text?
Yes, personality differences among dogs (in energy,
affection, reactivity, and curious intelligence) are as evident, and as
consistently judged, as personality differences among humans. Even
birds have stable personalities Even birds have stable personalities.
Among a European relative of the chickadee, bold birds more quickly
inspect new objects and explore trees.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

Hw#79: Due 3/19


Rd. Pg. 615- Pg.622

Q1. Based on the reading passage on Pg.616-pg.617, could we discern people’s


traits from the alignments of the stars and planets at the time of our birth? From their
handwriting, from lines on their palms?
Q2. Describe the attributes of the most extensively researched personality
inventory is the Minnesota Multi-phasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

Q3. Describe the criticisms of the MMPI

Q4. List the five traits dimensions of the big five personality factors

Q5. Describe the 4 research questions referring to the big 5 personality


factors

Q6. Explain the person-situation controversy

Q7. Why does inconsistency in behavior make personality test scores weak
predictors of behaviors?

Q8. Provide evidence discussing personality stability with age

Q9. Describe the three studies reported by Sammuel Gossling and his
colleague demonstrating how our traits are socially significant

Q10. Describe the studies of Nalini Ambady and Robert Rosenthal in video
taping 13 Harvard University graduate students teaching undergraduate courses

Q11. Describe the study regarding physician malpractice suits

Q12. What were the conclusions derived from Bella DePaulo and her colleagues
concerning people’s voluntary controls over their expressiveness

Q13. Based on the experiments conducted by Maurice Levesque and David Kenny,
and Peter Brorkena and his coworkers, could we size up how outgoing someone
within seconds and why?

Q14. Do personality traits stay stable across different situations, and


provide an example of why you might agree or disagree?

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#81: Due 3/23


Rd. Pg.631 Pg.636

Q1. How does Hazel Markus and her colleagues describe the concept of the possible selves?
Your possible selves include your visions of the self your dream of becoming-the
rich self, the successful self, the loved and admired self. They also include the self you fear
becoming-the unemployed self, the lonely self, the academically failed self. Such possible
selves motivate us by laying out specific goals and calling forth the energy to work toward
them.

Q2. How does the spotlight effect attribute of people’s fear of public speaking?
Spotlight effect helps public speakers to understand that their natural
nervousness is not so apparent to their audience and their speaking performance improves.

Q3. Describe the self-reference phenomenon?


We remember information better if we encode it in terms of ourselves. Higgins
and Bargh demonstrated this self-reference phenomenon by asking people to consider
whether some specific words such as friendly described them, and whether the words
described someone else. The participants better recalled words they had considered in
relation to themselves.

Q4. Describe some correlations between self-esteem and personal problems?


Psychologists have proposed an alternative explanation of the link between low
self-esteem and personal problems-that self-esteem, low or high, reflects reality, that it is
a side effect of one’s success or failure in meeting challenges and surmounting difficulties.
In this view, the best boost to self esteem would be helping children meet challenges, not
rewarding them despite their failures.

Q5. Describe the results of the experiments that reveal an effect of low self-esteem
Those who are negative about themselves also tend to be thin-skinned and
judgmental. Those made to feel insecure often become excessively critical, as if to impress
others with their own brilliance. Accept yourself and you’ll find it easier to except others,
said more simply, people who are down on themselves tend to be down on other things and
people.

Q6. How do members of stigmatized groups that have faced discrimination and lower
status, maintain self-esteem?
They value the things at which they excel, they attribute problems to prejudice,
they do as everyone does-they compare themselves to those in their own group.

Q7. Describe the numerous findings in the text regarding our self-serving bias
People accept more responsibility for good deeds than for bad, and for successes
than for failures, most people see themselves are better than average,
.
Q8. Describe Bushman’s and Baumeister’s experiment with the dark-side of self-esteem
They had 540 undergraduate volunteers write a paragraph in response to which
another supposed student gave them either praise (great essay or one of the worst essay I
have read). Baumeister concludes , conceited, self important individuals turn nasty toward
those who punctured their bubbles of self love. Despite the demonstrated perils of pride,
many people reject the idea of self-serving bias, insisting it overlooks those who feel
worthless and unlovable and seem to despise themselves.

Q9. Describe defensive self-esteem and secure self-esteem


Defensive self-esteem is fragile and takes the form of egotism focused on
sustaining itself at any cost. It correlates with aggressive and antisocial behavior. Secure
self-esteem is less fragile and less dependent on external evaluations. To feel accepted for
who we are, and not for our looks wealth, or acclaim, relieves pressures to succeed and
enables us to focus beyond ourselves.
Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #82 Due 3/26


Rd. Pg.639- Pg.649

Q1. Provide an example of how standards of deviance vary with time


From 1952 through December 9, 1973, homosexuality was classified as an illness.
By day’s end on December 10, it was not. The American Psychiatric Association had dropped
homosexuality as a disorder because more it’s members no longer viewed being gay as a
psychological problem. Stigma and stresses associated with being gay do, however, increases
the risk of mental health problems.

Q2. Provide contrasting viewpoints on ADHD being a genuine disorder or a Distressful


behavior.
ADHD plagues some 4 percent of children who display one or more of its three
key symptoms which were inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity influences the disorder
caused by a single genetic variation: a Y chromosome. ADHD is diagnosed two or three times
more often in boys than girls, toddlers, at age 7 kids. Psychological therapies, such as those
focused on shaping behaviors in the classroom and at home, have also helped address the
distress of ADHD.

Q3. How is dysfunctional behavior considered disordered?


Deviant and distressful behaviors are more likely to be considered
disordered when also judged dysfunctional. For example, Marc’s distracting obsessive
behaviors interfered with his work and leisure.

Q4. How did Philipe Pinel reform the perceptions of understanding psychological disorders?
For Pinel and other reformers, moral treatment included boosting patient’s morale
by unchaining them and talking with them, and by replacing brutality with gentleness,
isolation with activity, and filth with clean air and sunshine.

Q5. Describe disorders that are culture bound


Different cultures have different sources of stress, and they produce different
ways of coping. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia, for example, are eating disorders that occur
mostly in Western cultures. Susto, marked by severe anxiety, restlessness, and a fear of
black magic is found in Latin America. Such disorders may share an underlying dynamic (such
as anxiety) while differing in the symptoms (an eating problem or a type of fear) manifested
in a particular culture.

Q6. Describe the factors involved in the biopsychosocial approach to psychological


disorders.
We need to use the biopsychosocial approach, which recognizes that mind and
body are inseperable. Negative emotions contribute to physical illness, and physical
abnormalities contribute to emotional malaise. We are mind embodied.

Q7. Describe the purpose of diagnostic classification in psychiatry and psychology.


Aims not only to describe disorder but also to predict its future course, imply
appropriate treatment, and stimulate research into its causes. Indeed, to study a disorder
we must first name and describe it.

Q8. Describe the accolades and criticisms of the DSM-IV as a diagnostic


Process.

Q9. How has the movement of positive psychology help identify positive aspects of human
strengths and virtues, and list the six clusters?
A manual that orders and defines harmful dysfunctions has been helpful., these
researchers note. Like DSM-IV, The Values in action Classification of strengths draws
insights from many researchers in proposing common vocabulary that lends itself to cross
cultural understanding and budding science of strengths. The strength manual offers
assessment strategies and questionnaires that help researchers, six clusters are Wisdom
and Knowledge, Courage (overcoming opposition), love, Justice, Temperance, Transcendence.
Q10. Describe the experiment in which David Rosehan demonstrated the biasing power of
diagnostic labels?
David Rosenhan and seven others went to mental hospital admissions offices,
complaining of hearing voices that were saying empty, hollow, and thud. Apart from this
complaint and giving false names and occupations, they answered questions truthfully. All
eight were diagnosed as mentally ill. That these normal people were misdiagnosed.

Q11. Should criminals driven by insanity or have a history of mental illness be jailed or
hospitalized for their crimes? Who is held responsible, the people who commit the crimes,
or the ?madness? that clouds their vision?
All of these people were sent to jails not hospitals, following their arrests. For
example in 2002 when Andrea Yates after being taken off her antipsychotic medication was
tried in Texas for drowning her 5 children. From generosity to vandalism-society would still
wish to hold people responsible for actions.

Q12. How did a female associate of Stewart Page demonstrate the stigmatizing powers of
labels? Called 180 people in Toronto who were advertising furnished rooms for rent. When
she merely asked if the room was still available, the answer was nearly always yes. When
instead said she was about to be released from a mental hospital, the answer 3times out of
four was no.

Q13. How do stereotypes of mentally individuals stigmatize them? How violent are people
with psychological disorders?

Movies sometimes offer reasonably accurate and sympathetic portrayals of disorders, as in


the portrayal of mathematician John Nash’s schizophrenia in A Beautiful Mind. But too
often they stereotype mental health patients as homocidals or as freaks. People with
schizophrenia are more likely than others to commit violent crime, especially if they abuse
alcohol. However at least 9 in 10 people with disorders are not dangerous; instead, they are
anxious, depressed or withdrawn. In fact people with psychological disorders are more likely
to be victims of violence, rather than perpetrators.

Q14. How do labels serve as self-fulfilling prophecies?


Someone who was led to think you are nasty may treat you coldly, leading you to
respond as a mean-spirited person would.

Q15. What are the benefits of diagnostic labels?


Mental health professionals use labels to communicate about their cases, to
comprehend the underlying causes, and to discern effective treatment programs.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#83 Due 3/31


Rd. Pg. 649-658

Q1. Describe the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder


The symptoms of this disorder are commonplace; their persistence is not.
People with this condition(2/3 are women), are continually tense and jittery, worried about
various bad things that might happen, and plagued by muscular tension, agitation, and
sleeplessness.

Q2. Describe the symptoms of a panic disorder and how it escalates into a panic attack
Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder marked by a minutes long episode of intense
fear that something horrible is about to happen. Heart palpitations, shortness of breath,
choking sensations, trembling, or dizziness typically accompany the panic, which may be
misperceived as a heart attack or other serious physical ailment.

Q3. How did Charles Darwin develop Agoraphobia?


After spending 5 years sailing the world, Charles Darwin began suffering panic
disorder at age 28. Because of the attacks, he moved to the country, avoided social
gatherings, and traveled only in his wife’s company. But the relative seclusion did free him
to focus on developing his evolutionary theory. Even ill health, he reflected, has saved me
from the distraction of society and its amusements.

Q4. Describe how phobias could become incapacitating and provide an example of a specific
phobia.
Some specific phobias can lead to incapacitating efforts to avoid the feared
situation. Marilyn, a 28 year old homemaker is otherwise healthy and happy, but she so fears
thunderstorms that she feels anxious as soon as a weather forecaster mentions possible
storms later in the week. If her husband is away and a storm is forecast, she may stay with
a close relative. During a storm, she hides from windows and buries her head to avoid seeing
the lightning. Potentially embarrassing social situations are difficult for those with a social
phobia, an intense fear of being scrutinized by others. The anxious person may avoid
speaking up, eating out, or going to parties-or will sweat, tremble, or have diarrhea when
doing so.

Q5. How did obsessive-compulsive disorder apply to Howard Hughes?

Hughes compulsively dictated the same phrases over and over again. Under stress, he
developed a phobic fear of germs which led to compulsive behaviors. Hughes became
reclusive and insisted his assistants carryout elaborate hand-washing rituals and wear white
gloves when handling any document he would later touch.

Q6. Describe the symptoms of post-traumatic-stress disorder, and its impact amongst
Vietnam veterans.
Symptoms including haunting memories and nightmares, a numbed social
withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and insominia.The more frequent and severe the assault
experiences are, the more adverse the longterm outcomes tend to be. The U.S. centers for
disease control compared 7000 Vietnam Combat veterans with 7000 noncombat veterans
who served during the same years. Combat stress more than doubled a veteran’s risk of
alcohol abuse, depression, or anxiety.. On average, 15 percent of all Vietnam Veteran’s
reported PTSD symptoms, but this rate was halved among those who had never seen combat
and tripled among those who had experienced heavy combat. And among soldiers held
captive in Vietnam, the more torture they suffered, the greater its psychological toll.

Q7. Describe the stress-dose-response relationship


The greater one’s emotional distress during a trauma, the higher the risk for
post-traumatic symptoms.

Q8. Provide an example of survivor resiliency


About half of adults experience at least one traumatic event in their life time, but
only about 1 in 10 women and 1 in 20 men develop PTSD. Similarily, most combat-stressed
veterans and most political dissidents who survive dozens of episodes of torture do not
later exhibit PTSD.

Q9. Describe the benefits of post-traumatic growth


Tedeschi and Calhoun have found that the struggle with challenging crises often
leads people later to report an increased appreciation for life, more meaningful
relationships, increased personal strength, changed priorities, and a richer spiritual life.
Q10. Provide a detailed example of how fear conditioning, stimulus generalization, and
reinforcement play a role in developing anxiety.

Q11. How does natural selection play a role in developing phobias?


Most of our phobias focus on such objects; spiders, snakes, and other animals;
closed spaces and heights;storms and darkness.(those fearless about these occasional
threats were less likely to survive and leave descendants). Our phobias focus on dangers
faced by our ancestors, our compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that contributed
to our specie’s survival.

Q12. How do genes indicate predisposition to phobias and anxiety in humans?


Some people more than others seem genetically predisposed to particular fears
and high anxiety. Vulnerability to anxiety disorder rises when the afflicted relative is an
identical twin. Identical twins often develop similar phobias, in some cases even when raised
separately.
Q13. Explain the findings of fMRI scan on the brains with those who have OCD?
The fMRI scans showed elevated activity in the anterior cingulated cortex of
those with OCD.It shows the anterior cingulated cortex, a brain region that monitors our
actions and checks for our errors, seems especially likely to be hyperactive in those with
OCD. When the disordered brain detects that something is amiss, it seems to generate a
mental hiccup of repeating thoughts or actions.

Q14. How do Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde explain dissociative identity disorder, and describe
the criticisms that this disorder is manufactured, and a valid disorder?

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#84: Due 4/1


Rd. Pg.658-669

Q1. How is depression like the "common cold" of psychological disorders.


An expression that effectively describes its pervasiveness but not its
seriousness. Although phobias are more common, depression is the number one reason people
seek mental health services.

Q2. How is depression protective for our psyche.


Depression is like a signal that warns us to stop and take protective measures.
Depression is a sort psychic hibernation: it slows us down, defuses aggression , and
restraints risk taking. To grind temporarily to a halt and ruminate, as depressed people do,
is to reassess one’s life when feeling threatened, and to redirect energy in more promising
ways.

Q3. Describe dysthmyic disorder and the symptoms of major depressive disorder
People with dysthmic disorder tend to experience chronic low energy and self
esteem, have difficulty concentrating or making decisions, and sleep and eat too much or
little. Symptoms of major depressive disorder aresigns of depression (including lethargy,
feelings of worthlessness, or loss of interest in family, friends, and activities) last two
weeks or more and are not caused by drugs or a medical condition.

Q4. List maladaptive symptoms of bipolar disorder and it’s many example of creative bipolar
people.
One of mania’s maladaptive symptoms is grandiose optimism and self-esteem,
which may lead to reckless investments, spending sprees, and unsafe sex. Although people in
a manic state find advice irritating, they need protection from their own poor judgment.

Q5. Describe the six facts that Peter Lewinsohn and his colleagues summarized about
depression.
Many behavioral and cognitive changes accompany depression. Depression is
widespread, compared with men, women are nearly twice as vulnerable to major depression.
Most major depressive episodes of self-terminate, stressful events related to work,
marriage, and close relationships often precede depression, with each new generation, the
rate of depression is increasing, and the disorder is striking earlier (now often in the late
teens).

Q6. Summarize five facts about suicide


National differences-The suicide rates of England, Italy, and Spain are little more
than half those of Canada, Australia, and the United States; Austria and Finnish suicide
rates are about double. Racial differences- White Americans are nearly twice as likely as
black Americans to kill themselves. Gender differences- Women are much more likely than
men to attempt suicide. The more lethal a suicide attempt, the more depressed the frontal
lobe’s serotonin-based activity often is. Age differences and trends- the suicide rates
surges among older men. Other group differences-Suicide rates are much higher among the
rich, the nonreligious, and those who are single, widowed, or divorced.
Worldwide suicide rates are higher among males than among females. The highest rates of
all are found among older men.

Q7. What variables triggers suicide?


Depression, alcohol, few who talk of suicide or think of suicidal thoughts, TV
programs featuring suicide,

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW#85: Due 4/2


Rd. Pg. 663-669

Q1. What are the chances of depression amongst fraternal and identical twins?
If one identical twin is diagnosed with major depressive disorder, the chances are
about 1 in 2 that at sometime the other twin will be, too. If one identical twin has bipolar
disorder, the chances are 7 in 10 that the other twin will at point be diagnosed similarily.
Among fraternal twins, the corresponding odds are just under 2 in 10. The greater similarity
of identical twins depressive tendencies also occurs among twins reared apart.

Q2. Describe linkage analysis and association studies in the search for genes of depression.
To tease out which genes are implicated, researchers use linkage analysis. First,
they find families that have had the disorder across several generations. Then they draw
blood from both affected and unaffected family members and examine their DNA, looking
for differences. Linkage analysis points us to a chromosome neighborhood. Association
studies search for correlations between more specific DNA variation and a population trait.
The anticipated outcome of linkage and association studies in research on depression is a
complex picture; Many genes have small effects that can combine with one another and with
nongenetic factors to put some people at greater risk.

Q3. Describe the role of serotonin and norepinephrine relevant to depression


Nonrepinephrine, a neurotransmitter that increases arousal and boosts mood, is
scarce during depression and overabundant during mania. A second neurotransmitter,
serotonin, is also scarce during depression. Drugs that relieve depression tend to increase
norepinephrine or serotonin supplies by blocking either their reuptake or their chemical
breakdown. Repetitive physical exercise, such as jogging, reduces depression as it increases
serotonin.

Q4. How do anatomical structures of the brain change with depression?


In many recent studies, the brain shows less activity during periods of depression,
indicating a slowed-down state, and more activity during periods of mania. The left frontal
lobe, which is active during positive emotions, is likely to be inactive during depressed
states. In one study of people with severe depression, MRI scans found their frontal lobes
7 percent smaller than normal. The hippocampus, a memory-processing center linked with
the brain’s emotional circuitry, is vulnerable to stress-related damage. By boosting
serotonin, which stimulates hippocampus neuron growth, antidepressant drugs may promote
recovery from depression.

Q5. Describe the pessimistic explanatory style and depression

Q6. Why did Martin Seligman argue depression is common amongst young Westerners?
Because of epidemic hopelessness stemming from the rise of individualism and the
decline of commitment to religion and family. When facing failure or rejection, contends
Segliman, the self-focused individual takes on personality responsibility for problems and
has nothing to fall back on for hope.

Q7. How is depression a vicious cycle?


Depression, as we have seen, is often brought on by stressful experiences-losing a
job, getting divorced or rejected, suffering physical trauma-anything that disrupts your
sense of who you are and why you are a worthy human being. But depression-prone people
respond to bad events in a especially self-focused, self-blaming way. Their self esteem
fluctuates more rapidly up with boosts and down with threats. When down, their brooding
amplifies their negative feelings, which in turn trigger depression’s other cognitive and
behavioral symptoms.

8. Why do women have a doubled risk of depression compared to men?


When trouble strikes, men tend to act, women tend to think-and often overthink
describes their rumination. Women often have vivid recall for both wonderful and horrid
experiences ;men more vaguely recall such experiences. This gender difference in emotional
memory may feed women’s greater rumination over negative events and explain why fewer
men than women reported being “frequently overwhelmed on entering college”.

Q9. How does depression elicit rejection?


Negative stressful events interpreted through a ruminating, pessimistic explanatory
style create a hopeless, depressed state that hampers the way the person thinks and acts.
This, in turn, fuels negative experiences such as rejection. (genetic environmental
interaction). People genetically disposed to depression more often experience depressing
events.

Navneet Kaur AP Psychology

HW #86: Due 4/3


Rd. Pg.669-Pg.677

Q1. Why is chronic schizophrenia the cancer of psychological disorders?


Nearly 1 in 100 people will develop schizophrenia, joining the estimated 24 million
across the world who suffer one of humanity’s most dreaded disorders. It typically strikes
as young people are maturing into adulthood, it knows no national boundaries, and it affects
both males and females-though men tend to be struck earlier, more severely, and slightly
more often.
Q2. How does a lack of selective attention affect schizophrenics?
An irrelevant stimulus or an extraneous part of the preceding thought easily
distracts them. Minute, stimuli, such as the grooves on a brick or the inflections of a voice,
may distract their attention from the whole scene or from the speaker’s meaning.

Q3. Describe how delusions, hallucinations, the flat effect, and catatonia affect
schizophrenics.
The thinking of a person with schizophrenia is fragmented, bizarre, and distorted
by false beliefs, called delusions. Jumping from one idea to another may occur even within
sentences, creating a sort of a word salad.

Q4. List and explain the four subtypes of schizophrenia


Paranoid- preoccupation with delusions or hallucinations, often with themes of
persecution or grandiosity.
Disorganized- disorganized speech or behavior, or flat or inappropriate emotion.
Catatonic- immobility (or excessive, purposeless movement), extreme negativism, and / or
parrotlike repeating of another’s speech or movement.
Undifferentiated-many and varied symptoms
Residual- Withdrawal, after hallucinations and delusions have disappeared.

Q5. How do neurotransmitters dopamine, and glutamate affect the biochemistry of


schizophrenic brains?
They speculate that such a high level may intensify brain signals in schizophrenia,
creating positive symptoms such as hallucinations and paranoia. As we might therefore
expect, drugs that block dopamine receptors often lessen these symptoms; drugs that
increase dopamine levels, such as amphetamines and cocaine, sometimes intensify them.
Dopamine overactivity may underlie patients overreactions to irrevelant external and
internal stimuli. Glutamate, directs neurons to pass along an impulse. Impaired glutamate
activity appears to be another source of schizophrenia symptoms. Drugs that interfere with
glutamate receptors can produce schizophrenialike negative symptoms.

Q6. What are some explanations for schizophrenics and their shrinking brains?
Many studies have found enlarged, fluid-filled areas and a corresponding
shrinkage of cerebral tissue in people with schizophrenia. The greater the shrinkage, the
more severe the thought disorder. One smaller than normal area is the cortex. Another is
the thalamus, which may explain why people with schizophrenia have difficulty filtering
sensory input and focusing attention. Schizophrenia involves not one isolated brain
abnormality but problems with several brain regions and their interconnections.

Q7. List the facts that support schizophrenia as a virus affecting women during
midpregnancy.
Midpregnancy viral infection that impairs fetal brain development. Mothers who
report being sick with influenza during pregnancy more likely to bear children who develop
schizophrenia during second trimester. Blood drawn from pregnant women whose offspring
develop schizophrenia show higher than normal levels of antibodies that suggest a viral
infection.

Q8. Is there enough of evidence to prove that genetics influence the development of
schziophrenia, and support your argument?
It remains true, as Nicol and Gottesman noted more than two decades ago, that
“no environmental causes have been discovered that will invariably, or even with moderate
probability, produce schizophrenia in persons who are not related to” a person with
schizophrenia.