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COPY FOR: Yolindo S Ypon SALFC BOARD EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGIST REVIEWER

1. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and concerned with application of knowledge regarding crime to social programs of crime prevention and control. a. b. c. d. Etiology Criminology Criminalist Criminal Process

1. The process which explain human behavior, the experiences which help determine the nature of a persons as a mechanism that factors or experiences in connection thereto impinges differentially upon different personalities producing conflict which is the aspect of crime. a. b. c. d. Criminogenic process Etiology of crime Criminal Psychodynamics Critenism

2. The study of mental processes of criminal in action; the study of the genesis, development and motivation of human behavior that conflicts with accepted norms and standards of society, this study concentrates on the study of individuals as opposed to general studies of mass populations with respect to their general criminal behavior. a. b. c. d. Criminal Psychodynamics Criminogenic Process Cultural Conflict Cretinism

3. A disease associated with prenatal thyroid deficiency and subsequent thyroid inactivity, marked by physical deformities, arrested development goiter, and various forms of mental retardation, including imbecility. a. b. c. d. Cretinism criminogenic process cultural conflict crime statistics

4. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification. a. b. c. d. crime statistics crime index cultural conflict contumacy

5. A clash between societies because of contrary, beliefs or substantial variances in their respecting customs. Language, institutions, habits, learning, traditions, etc. a. b. c. d. cultural conflict crime index contumacy custom

6. A collective term of mental disorders that begin at or shortly after puberty and usually lead to general failure of the mental facilities, with the corresponding physiological impairment. a. b. c. d. delirium dementia praecox demophobia delusion

7. In medical jurisprudence, a false belief about the self, caused by morbidity, present in paranoia and dementia praecox. a. b. c. d. dementia praecox delusion delirium episodic criminal

8. A noncriminal person who commits a crime when under extreme emotional stress; a person who breaks down and commits a crime as a single incident during the regular course of natural and normal events. a. b. c. d. delusion episodic criminal erotomania euthanasia

9. a morbid propensity to love or make love; incontrollable sexual desire, or excessive sexual craving by members of either sex. a. b. c. d. euthanasia erotomania episodic criminal exhibitionist

10. as reposed to introvert, a person highly adapted to living in and deriving satisfaction from external world; he is interested in people and things than ideas, values and theories. He likes people being around them and being liked by them. a. b. c. d. self-centered individual extrovert exhibitionist euthanasia

11. It signifies the release from life given a sufferer from an incurable and painful disease. a. b. c. d. euthanasia extrovert suicide self-destruction

12. In medical jurisprudence; an apparent perception without any corresponding external object especially in psychiatry, any of the numerous sensations, auditory visual or tactile, experienced without external stimulus, and cause by mental derangement, intoxication or fever, hence maybe a sign of approaching insanity. a. delusion b. hallucination

c. delirium d. dementia praecox 13. It may be a transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits; tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. In genetics, the tendency manifested by an organism to develop in the likeness of an progenitor due to the transmission of genes on the reproductive process. a. b. c. d. heredity inheritance environment hallucination

14. Have been believed to share about equally in determining disposition, that is whether a person is cheerful or gloomy, his temperament, and his nervous stability. a. b. c. d. heredity heredity and environment environment introvert

15. an individual with strongly self-centered patterns of emotion fantasy, and thought. a. b. c. d. extrovert hallucination introvert delusion

16. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal, or pathological stealing. The symptoms of this disease usually consist of peculiar motives for stealing and hoarding. a. b. c. d. kleptomania phobic legal insanity manila a potu

17. A morbid mainly characterized by a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling. a. b. c. d. mana delusion manila fanatics legal insanity

18. A condition of sexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from being cruelly treated. a. sadism b. masochism c. megalomania d. melancholia 19. a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of spirits. Typical manic-depressive psychosis, accompanied with delusions and hallucinations. a. b. melancholia megalomania

c. d.

masochism methomonia

20. a mental disorder in which the subject thinks himself great or exalted. a. b. c. d. melancholia megalomania masochism methomonia

21. morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies. It is also a form of perversion where sexual gratification is achieved either through sexual intercourse with or mutilation of dead body. a. b. c. d. sex maniac neurophism masochism oikei mania

22. this is a term applied to a specialist in a study of mental disorders; sometimes interchangeably used with psychiatrist. a. b. c. d. anthropology alienist autophobia biometry

23. It is a science devoted to the study of mankind and its development in relationship to its physical, mental and culture history. a. b. c. d. anthropology alienist autophobia biometry

24. it is a morbid fear of ones self or of being alone. a. b. c. d. autophobia (monophobia) biometry anthropology biosocial behavior

25. In criminology, a measuring or calculating of the probable duration of human life; the attempt to correlate the frequency of crime between parents and children or brothers and sisters (siblings). a. b. c. d. biosocial behavior biometry Charles Goring Dr. Cesare Lombroso

26. A persons biological heritage, plus his environment and social heritage, influence his social activity. It is through the reciprocal actions of his biological and social heritage that a persons personality is developed. a. b. c. d. biosocial behavior biometry Charles Goring Dr. Cesare Lombroso

27. An English statistician, who studies the case histories of 2,000 convicts. He found that heredity is more influential as a determiner of criminal behavior than environment. a. b. c. d. Charles Darwin Charles Goring Dr. Cesare Lombroso Alphonse Bertillon

28. A person who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements. Because human skeleton is unchangeable after the twentieth year and because no two individuals are alike in all dimensions; this method of identification received prominence in 1880s. a. b. c. d. Alphonse Bertillon Dr. Cesare Lombroso Charles Darwin Charles Goring

29. The worlds famous criminologists who advocated the Positivist Theory, that crime is essentially a social and moral phenomenon and it cannot be treated and checked by the imposition of punishment. Hence, a criminal is just any other person who is sick, that should be treated in hospital for his possible rehabilitation and reformation. a. b. c. d. Dr. Cesare Lombroso Charles Darwin Alphonse Bertillon Dr. Mark Angel

30. A sexual desire of an adult for children. This adult may obtain sexual gratification from various forms of sexual intimacies and with the young. a. b. c. d. sex maniac pedophilia masochism homosexual

31. it has been considered as the cradle of human personality for in it the child forms the fundamental attitudes and habits that endure throughout his life. a. b. c. d. school home religion police agency

32. It is a strategic position to prevent crime and delinquency. It receives hum when he is young, observes, supervise and teaches him for many hours each week during some of his most impressionable years. a. b. c. d. discriminalization abolish legislative body logomachy all of the above

33. A statement that we would have no crime if we had no criminal laws and that we could eliminate all crime merely by abolishing all criminal law. a. b. discriminalization abolish legislative body

c. d.

logomachy all of the above

34. any record of crimes, such as crimes known to the police, arrests, convictions, or commitments to prison. a. b. c. d. crime statistics crime index police blotter police record

35. Place and period between and when the classical school of criminology and of criminal law development, based on hedonistic psychology. a. b. c. d. England, during the last half of the 19th century USA, during the last half of the 19th century Italy, during the last half of the 19th century China, during the last half of the 19th century

36. An American authority in Criminology who in his book of principles of Criminology, considers criminology present as not a science, but it has hopes of becoming a science. a. b. c. d. William Mckorkle Edwin H Sutherland Cesare Baccaru George L. Wilker

37. A Criminologist, who in his book The Scienctific Adequaty of Criminology Concept argued that criminology cannot possibly become a science. Accordingly, general propositions of universal validity are the essence of science; such proposition can be made only regarding stable and homogenous unit but varies from one time to another; therefore universal proposition cannot be made regarding crime, and scientific studies of criminal behavior are impossible. a. b. c. d. Edwin H. Sutherland George L. Wilker William Mckorkle Cesare Baccaru

38. Who, in his book An Essay of Crimes and Punishments, (Lonton Almond, 1967), advocated and applied the doctrine of penology; that is to make punishment less arbitrary and severe than it had been; that all persons who violated a specific law should receive identical punishment regardless of age, sanity, wealth, positions, or circumstances. a. b. c. d. William Mckorkle Edwin H. Sutherland Cesare Baccaria R. Garofalo

39. Another Italian Criminologist who developed a concept of the natural crime and defined it as a violation of the prevalent sentiments of pity and probity. a. b. c. d. W.A Bonger R. Garofalo Cesar Baccaru Dr Cesare Lombroso

40. Another international criminologist who classified crimes by the motives of the offenders as economic crimes, sexual crimes, political crimes, and miscellaneous crimes-with vengeance as the principal motive. a. b. c. d. W.A Bonger R. Garofalo Cesare Baccaru Dr Cesare Lombroso

41. A law of a foreign country which prohibited mothers and nurses from talking children under two years of age into their beds. a. b. c. d. Prussian Law of 1784 Russian Law of 1784 Chinese Law of 1784 Italian Law of 1784

42. An author in criminology, who advocated the theory that feeblemindedness inherited as Mendelian unit, cause crime for the reason that feebleminded person is unable to appreciate the meaning of law. a. b. c. d. Walter Bromberg H.H Godard Richard Dugdale W.F Ogburn

43. One school of criminology based on writings of Marx and Angels, began in 1850 and emphasized economic determinism, that crime is only a by product; variations in crime rates in association with variations in economic conditions. a. b. c. d. Socialist School of Criminology Sociological School Social Psychological School All of them

44. School of criminology which interpreted crime as function of social environment emphasizing importance of imitation in crime causation. a. b. c. d. Socialist School of Criminology Sociological School Social Psychological School M Naghten Rule

46. Generaly insanity is used to describe legally harmful behavior perpetrated under circumstances in which the actor did not know the nature or quality of his act or did not know right from wrong. This explanation was formulated in England in 1843. __A) Social psychological __B) Sociological school __C) M Naghten rule __D) Socialist school of criminology 47. It is perhaps the most significant social condition accompanying the industrial and democratic revolutions; because of this, condition of anonymity was created and the agencies by which control had been secured in almost all earlier societies were greatly weakened.

__A) Migrants __B) Mobility

__C) Culture conflict __D) Economic and political individualism

48. Family trees have been used extensively by certain scholars in the effort to prove that criminality is inherited. Perhaps the most famous of these family trees is the study by Dugdale and Estabrook,who reported that of about 1,200 members of this family, 140 were criminals; seven were convicted of murder 60 of theft, and 50 of prostitution. __A) Kalikaks family __B) Jukes family __C) Zeros family __D) Jonathan Edwards family

49. One family tree that contradicted the theory that criminality is inherited; a famous preacher in the colonial period; none of his descendants were found to be criminals, while many were presidents of the United States, governor of states members of the supreme court and of other high courts, an famous writers, preachers and teachers. That his ancestors did have criminal records, his maternal grandmother was divorced on the ground of adultery, his grand uncle murdered his own sister. __A) Jonathan Edwards family __B) Zeros family __C) Jukes family __D) Kalikaks family

50. One school of criminology advocated by John Dewey, George Mead, Charles Cooley, and W.I thomas. That the development of criminal behavior is considered as involving the same learning process as does the development of the behavior of a banker, doctor, that the content of learning, not the process itself, is considered as the significant element determining whether one becomes a criminal or non-cri minal. __A) Social psychological __B) Socialist __C) Sociological __D) Physical & Environment 51. Crime rates not only vary from one relation to another but also generally among the several sections of each nation. Such that the rate of convictions for homicides per million population varies widely in different regions in the whole of the Philppines. __A) Cultural conflict __B) Regionalism __C) Rural-Urban distribution __D) Neighborhood

52. According to Marshall B. Olinard, this kind of criminality is explained by the persons identification with delinquents and his conception of himself as reckless and mobile, an explanation which is consistent with differential association. __A) Gang __B)Cultural conflict __C) Rural criminality __D) Neighborhood

53. It is means of disseminating techniques of delinquencies, of training in delinquency, of protecting its members engaged in delinquency, and of maintaining continuity in delinquency. __A) Gang __B) Family __C) Rural criminality __D) Neighborhood

54. It is the first agency to affect the direction which a particular child will take, and that no child is so constituted at birth that it must inevitably become a delinquent or that it must inevitably be lawabiding. __A) Gang __B) Family __C) Rural criminality __D) Broken home

55. One of the most obvious elements in the delinquency of some children is the criminalistic behavior of other members of the childs family. __A) Gang __B) Family __C) Rural criminality __D) Broken home

56. The modification of home conditions by death, divorce or desertion has generally been believed to be an important reason for delinquency of the children. __A) Broken home __B) Criminality in the home __C) Home discipline __D) Gang

57. It is considered as four times as important as poverty in the home in relation to delinquency; that it falls most frequently because of indifference and neglect. __A) Criminality in the home __B) Home discipline __C) Broken home __D) Government

58. It is the organized authority than can influence social control through its branches, particularly in the making of laws. __A) Church __B) Police agency __C) Government __D) All of them

59. It includes assessment of those forces resulting from mans collective survival effort with emphasis upon his institutions, economic, financial, educational, political, religion as we as recreational. __A) Economic approach __B) Ecological __C) Sociological and cultural approach __D) All of them 60. The unjust utilization of economic resources sometimes create resentment among individuals which often lead them to frustration and develop a feeling of hatred and provocated criminal conduct will result. __A) Economic approach __B) Ecological

__C) Sociological and cultural approach __D) All of them 61. It emphasizes of morals and lifes highest spiritual values, the work and dignity of an individual, and respect for the person and property of others, general powerful forces. __A) The school __B) Religion __C) The government __D) The police agency

62. The general explanation of one topic in relation to criminal behavior is that causes of crime lie primarily in the area of personal interaction, and that personal interaction is confined almost entirely to local communities and neighborhood. __A) Social institutions and crime __B) Culture areas and crime __C) Crime and social process __D) The home and family in relation to crime 63. A process which appears in the life history of persisting criminals. This process describes the develop ment of criminality, with reference first to the general attitudes toward criminality, and second, to the techniques used in criminal behavior. __A) Segregation __B) Maturation __C) Progressive conflict __D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection against crime 64. This may be observed in the interaction between criminals and the public. Thus, a person with criminal record may ostracized in one community but may become a political leader in other communities. __A)Segregation __B) Maturation __C) Progressive conflict __D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection against crime 65. This process begins with arrest, which is interpreted as defining a person as enemy of society, and which calls forth hostile reactions from representative of society prior to and regardless of proof of guilt that each side tends to drive the other side to greater violence unless it becomes stabilized, on a recog nized level. __A) Segregation __B) Maturation __C) Progressive conflict __D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection against crime 66. Both sides may appropriate the inventions of modern science so far as they useful to them. When the police develop and invention for the detection or identification of criminals, the criminals utilize a

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device to protect themselves. __A) Competitive development of techniques of crime and of the protection __B) Progressive conflict __C) Maturation __D) Segregation 67. certain types of crimes have disappeared almost entirely, thus the general situation may change and cause the disappearance of crime. Now in Metro Manila, armored bank robbery by a group of heavily armed men seems to become the craze century. __A) Organizations of criminals B) Fashions in crime 68. This may be developed thru the interaction of criminals. This may be formal association with recognized leadership, understanding, agreements, and division of labor, or it may be a formal similarity and reprocity of interest and attitudes. __A) Organizations of criminals __B) Fashions in crime __C) Professionalization __D) Gang __D) Gang _C) Professionalization

69. When applied to a criminal refers to the following things: the pursuit of crime as a regular dayby-day occupation, the development of skilled techniques and careful planning in the occupation, and status among criminals. __A) Organizations of criminals __B) Fashions in crime __C) Professionalization __D) Underground world

70. Progress in the explanation of disease is being made principally by the studies of specific diseases, similarly, it is desirable to concentrate research work in criminology on specific crimes and on specific sociological units within the broad area of crime and within the legal definition of specific types of of crime such kidnapping and robbery. __A) Behavior systems in crime __B) Under world __C) Professional crimes __D) Organization of criminals

71. The behavior system in crime may be described by its three principal characteristic, except.. __A) it is an integrated unit or essence of spirit de corp. __B) The behavior which occurs in a behavior system is not unique to any particular individual. __C) While commons and joint participation in the system is the essential characteristic of a behavior system, it can frequently be defined by the feeling of identification of those who participate if __D) It is not merely an aggregation of individuals criminal acts 72. An American authority in police, matters who, in his book The Big Con(Indianapolis: BobbsMerril, 1940) once said, The dominant culture could control the predatory cultures without difficulty and

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what is more, it could exterminate them, for no criminal subculture can operate continuously and professionaly without the connivance of the law. __A) David W. Maurer __B) Orlando Wilson __C) John Edgar Hoover __D) August Vollmer

73. This school of Penology, which Beccaria made of the first significant contributions and to which Roesseau, Montsequieu, and Voltaire belonged, maintained the doctrine of psychological hedonism, that the individual calculates pressures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by the results of his calculations. That since punishment must be one that can be calculated, it must be same for all individuals, regardless of age, mentality, social status, or other conditions. __A) Classical school __B) Neo-classical school __C) Positive school __D) Punitive reaction to crime

74. This school arose at the time of the French Revolution and the period Immediately following, maintained that while the classical school was correct in general, it should be modified in certain details; since children and lunatics cannot calculate pleasures and pains, they should not be regarded as criminals or to be punished. __A) Classical school __B) Neo-classical school __C) Positive school __D) Punitive reaction to crime

75. This school denied individual responsibility and reflected and essentially non-punitive reaction to crime and criminality. The adherents of this school maintained that a crime, as any other act, is a natural phenomenon, just like a tornado, a flood, typhoon, or a stroke of lightning. __A) Classical __B) Neo-classical __C) Positive __D) Justifying or exemping circumstances 76. During the history of mankind four principal methods of implementing the punitive policy have been used. One of the following, however, was not of the four methods, and that is.. __A) By becoming a slave of the offended party __B) Removal from the group by death; by exile, or by imprisonment __C) Physical torture __D) Social degradation __E) Financial loss 77. In the matter of death penalty, two techniques of death penalty were practiced in Switzerland until about 1400, and death by drowning until about 1600. These two techniques of inflicting death in Switzerland were __A) Burning and boiling in oil __B) Impaling and immuring __C) Breaking at the wheel & iron coffin __D) Drowning and choking

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78. The country where the last burning at the stake was made until 1786. __A) Prussia __B) Berlin __C) China __D) Italy

79. One of the World Leaders, who, as late as 1817, tried in vain to substitute simple hanging for treason in place of the existing penalty of hanging, cutting down alive, disemboweling, cutting off the head, and quartering the body. __A) Romily __B) Alexander the Great __C) Hitler __D) Montagu

80. In 1786, after the Americans gain their independence from England, the prisoners of England were transported to another colony until1867. What is the name of this country today, then a colony of England? __A) Romily __B) Australia __C) Argentina __D) Brazil

81.What nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment? __A) Ancient Rome __B) China __C) England __D) Spain

82. What nation who pioneered the modern legalization of transportation in 1597, and concerned rogues, vagabonds, and study beggars? __A) Ancient Rome __B) China __C) England __D) Spain

83. It is a kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or moved from one place to another for the purpose of cheap labor. __A) Transportation __B) Scary __C) Penal colony __D) Banishment

84. In 1241, same Jews were convicted of what crime and were ordered either to pay twenty thousand mark or else be kept perpetual prisoners? __A) Killing a Christian child __B) crammcising a Christian child __C) Marrying a Christian women __D) Killing a sheep 85. in what pennon when the First House of Correction appeared in England, on the petition of Bishop Ridley of London for help in dealing with the sturdy vagabonds in the city, of the lewd and idle, and a place for the employment of the unemployed and the training of children? __A) Middle of the 16th century __B) First half of the 16th century __C) First half of the 15th century

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__D) Middle of the 17 century 86. a private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at his own expenses because he had observed that thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead of better by the pillory, and he hoped that they might be imperviously by work and religious instruction in the work house. __A) August Vollmer __C) Bishop Riddley __B) Peter Rentzel __D) Garofalo

87. The great prison reformer, who wrote The State of Prisons in England in 1777, after personal investigation of practically all the prison in England. __A) John Howard __C) August Vollmer florreti __B) Peter Rentzel __D) Garofalo, seconded by ferri and

88. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution methods that if the offender is solvent his property should be attached crime proceedings are stated, so that he can be compelled by ordered the court to make restitution. __A) Bonneville de Marsangy __B) Garofalo, seconded by ferri and fioretti __C) john howard __D) Orlando Wilson

89. A code after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle an eye for an eye and a tooth in the imposition of punishment, in about 1875 B.C. __A) Code of Kalantiao __B) Code of Maragtas __C) Hammarabis Code __D) Dewey Code

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551 (56 Questions)


An Act Providing For the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police and for Other Purpose, Amending Certain Provisions of RA No. 6975, Entitled An Act Establishing the PNP under A Reorganize Department of the Interior and Local Government, and for Other Purposes, dated February 25, 1998

90. It is hereby declared the policy of the state to establish a highly efficient and competent police force which is national in scope and civilian in character administered and controlled by a national police commission. __A) R.A No. 6975 __B) R.A No. 8551 __C) R.A No. 4864 __D) R.A No. 7160

91. It is hereby declared the policy of the state to promote peace and order, ensure public safety and further

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strengthen local government capability aimed towards the effective delivery of basic services to the citizenry through the establishment of a highly efficient and competent police force that is national in scope and civilian in character. Towards this end, the state shall bolster a system of coordination and cooperation among the citizenry, local executives and the integrated law enforcement and public safety agencies created under the Act. __A) R.A No. 6975 __B) R.A No. 8551 __C) R.A No. 4864 __D) R.A No. 7160

92. It is hereby declared the policy and purpose of this Act to achieve and attain a higher degree of efficiency in the organization, administration and operation of local police agencies with the end in view that peace and order may be maintained more effectively and the laws enforced with more impartiality. It is also the object of this Act to place the local police service on a professional level. __A) RA No. 6975 __B) RA No. 8551 __C) RA No. 4864 __D) RA No. 7160

93. It shall be a community and service oriented agency responsible for the maintenance of peace and order and public safety. As such it shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in police exercise of discretion as well as to achieve efficiency and effectiveness of its numbers and units in the performance of their functions. __A) PNP __B) NBI __C) All Law Enforcement Agencies __D) All Bureau of Fire Protection and Jail Management and penology

94. As a civilian in character, it is a non-military organization, nor any position the roof shall be occupied by any active member of the armed forces of the Philippines, whose administration is governed by the Department of the inspector and Local Government through the Office of the NAPOLCOM, and its Personel qualification and security of tenure is governed by the Civil Service Law. __A) PNP __B) NBI __C) Personnel of the NAPOLCOM __D) Government Employees

95. It is law which governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials and employees of the Government-National or Local. __A) R.A No. 6713 __B) R.A No. 7160 __C) R.A No. 6975 __D) R.A No.8551

96. The role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to national security. __A) After twenty-four(24) months from the effectivity of its Act, the PNP of DILG shall automatically take over from the AFP the primary role of preserving internal security-suppression of insurgency.

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__B) The DILG or PNP is already relieved of the primary responsibility on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to national security. __C) All of the Above __D) None of the first Two Above mentioned. 97. It is an agency attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination. It is composed of a Chairperson, four(4) Regular Commissioners and the chief of the PNP as ex Officeo member. Three(3) Of the Regular Commissioner shall come from the civilian sector who are neither active nor former members of the Police or Military, one(1) of whom shall be designated as Vice Chairperson by the President. The fourth regular commissioner shall come from the law enforcement sector either active or retired. That an active member of a law enforcement agency shall be considered resigned from said agency once appointed to the commission provided, further, that at least one(1) of the Commission shall be woman. The secretary of the department shall be the ex officio Chairperson of the commission, while the Vice Chairperson shall act as the Executive Officer of the Commission. __A) NAPOLCOM __B) Commission on Human Rights (CMR) __C) Commission of Adult (COA) __D) Sandigang Bayan 98. As the inherent Powers of the government, it may be defined as the power vested in the legislative by the constitution to make, ordain and establish all manner of wholesome and reasonable laws, statutes and ordinances, either with penalties or without, not repugnant to the commission,as they shall sudge to be for the good and welfare of the state and the subjects of the same. __A) Statutory Police Power __B) Police Power __C) Power of Eminent Domain __D) Power of Taxation __E) All of the Above 99. It is that power vested in the police by the legislative Body of the land to enforce the laws of the land in order to maintain peace and order, protect lives and properties, effect arrest of criminal offenders, bring to justice and assist the public prosecutors in the prosecution of criminal offenders. __A) Statutory Police Power __B) Police Power __C) Power of Eminent Domain __D) Power of Taxation __E) All of the Above 100. A law otherwise known as an Act Defining Certain Rights of Persons Arrested, Detained or Under Custodial Investigation as well as the duties of the arresting detaining and investigating officers, and

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Providing penalties for violations thereof. __A) R.A No.7160 __B) R.A No. 7438 __C) R.A No. 8505 __D) R.A No. 6713

101. The first of the thirty(30) enumerated duties a policeman on day. __A) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his superior officers or higher authority. __B) He shall enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of law that may come to his attention. __C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention. He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrolmen, except as may otherwise directed. __D) All of the Above 102. The first of the nine(9) enumerated duties a policeman assigned to traffic on duty. __A) He shall be enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of law that may come to his attention. __B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his superior officers or higher authority. __C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention. He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrolmen, except as may otherwise directed. __D) All of the Above 103. The first of the six(6) enumerated duties of a policeman assigned to a police car for patrol duty. __A) He shall be enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of law that may come to his attention. __B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his superior officers or higher authority. __C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention. He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrolmen, except as may otherwise directed. __D) All of the Above 104. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in accordance with.. __A) A police-to-population ratio of One(1) Policeman for every Five Hundred (500) persons. __B) The authorized ratio of ranks in a police force

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__C) The maximum police-to-population ratio shall not be more than one(1) Policeman for every One Thousand (1,000) Persons. __D) All of the Above 105. As the term relatively applied to paragraph (g) Section 14 of RA No. 8551, amending Section 30 of RA No. 6975, it may mean an act of baseness, vileness or morally evil oftentimes offensive to senses Of sensibility or highly disagreeable sins where one is convicted by final judgment of the offense or Crime committed is deprived of his parental authority, guardianship over the ward, marital authority, And the right to manage his property and to dispose of the same by an act interviews(during his life Time). __A) Moral Turpitude __B) Violation of Anti-Graft and corrupt practices __C) Morality __D) All of the Above 106. Of the four(4) general qualifications for appointment to police service where a waiver may be made, one of the following is not included: __A) Age __C) Weight E) Related talent __B) Height __D) Educational requirements 107. A policemans nature of appointment under a Waiver Program. __A) Conditional appointment __B) Temporary appointment __C) Permanent appointment __D) All of the Above 108. This is one requirement for Permanent Appointment to the PNP. __A) To undergo a field training Program for 12 months involving actual experience and assignment in Patrol, Traffic and investigation __B) A holder of relevant Masters degree in Criminology, Law Enforcement, National Security or Law __C) A member of any Cultural Minority __D) All of the Above 109. Under section 21 of RA No. 8551, amending section 32 of RA No. 6975 one of the following has now the authority to conduct examinations for Policemen. __A) Civil Service Commission __B) National Police Commission __C) Professional Regulation Commission __D) DILG 110. Any civilian who is either a member of the bar with at least 5 years of law practice, Licensed Criminologist or graduate of the PNPA and who possesses the general qualifications for initial appointment

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to the PNP shall be qualified for appointment chief of a city of Municipal the staion, provided that in both cases, the appointees has the required Field Training Program and has complied with other requirements as may be established by the NAPOLCOM. __A) True __B) False __C) Somewhat true __D) Somewhat False __E) None of the Above

111. In the police service, it may mean the loss in the personnel of its organization in the normal course of events due to attainment of maximum tenure in position, relief for just cause, demotion in position or rank, non-promotion or separation from the service or retirement. __A) Attrition __B) Banishment Above __C) Absent Without Official Leave (AWOL) __D) Missing in Action(MIA) __E) All of the

112. A kind of attrition of PNP Members holding key position in the PNP. __A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position __B) Attrition by Relief __C) Attrition by Non-promotion __D) Attrition on the bases of retirement and separation 113. An Attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel for just caused and has not been given an assignment within in two (2) years after, shall be retired o separated. __A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position __B) Attrition by Relief __C) Attrition by Non-promotion __D) Attrition on the bases of retirement and separation 114. An attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel who has been nailed or has never been moved from one rank or position to another for a continuous period of ten(10) years, shall be retired or separated. __A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position __B) Attrition by Relief __C) Attrition by Non-promotion __D) Attrition on the bases of retirement and separation 115. On the basis of promotion for PNP uniformed personnel, one of the following is not included; __A) Merits __B) Availability of vacant positions in the PNP staffing __C) Clearance from the PLEB and the office of the Ombudsman of any complaint preferred against him or her, if any __D) Approval by the commission on Appointment 116. It is an act or instance of elevating a personnel from a lower rank to higher rank or position, either by regular or special process. __A) Promotion __B) Performance Evaluation

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__C) Lateral Promotion __D) All of them 117. It shall be administered in such way as to foster the improvement of individual efficiency and behavioral discipline as well as the promotions of organizational effectiveness and respect for the constitutional and human rights of citizens, democratic principles and ideals and the supremacy of civilian authority over the military. __A) Promotion __B) Performance Evaluation __C) Lateral Promotion __D) Monthly Retirement Benefits 118. It shall be paid by 50% of the above pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of 20 years of active service, increasing by 21/2% for every year of active service rendered beyond 20 years to a maximum of 90% for 36 years of active service and over. Provided, That, the Uniformed personnel shall have the option to receive in advance and in jump sum his retirement ray for the first 5 years, which shall be made within 6 months from the effectivity date of retirement and/or completion, and that the retirement pay of the officers/non-officers of the PNP shall be subject to adjustments based on the prevailing scale of base pay of police personnel in the active service. __A) Monthly Requirement Benefits __B) Monthly Salary __C) Increase Monthly Salary __D) Permanent Physical disability 119. A kind of benefit when an officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally disabled as a results of injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the performance of his duty as duly certified by the National Police Commission, upon find log and certification by the appropriate medical officer, that the extent of the disability or sickness renders such member unit or unable to further perform the duties of his position, shall be entitled to one years salary and the lifetime pension equivalent to 80% of his last salary, in addition to other benefits as provided under existing laws. __A) Monthly Requirement Benefits __B) Early Retirement Program __C) Increase Monthly Salary __D) Permanent Physical disability 120. However, should such member who has been retired under permanent total disability under section 35 of RA No. 8551 due within 5 years from his retirement, his surviving legal spouse or there be none, the surviving dependent legitimate children shall be entitled to the pension for. __A) the remainder of the 5 years guaranteed period __B) Lifetime pension benefit of the surviving biers __C) the remainder of the 10 years guaranteed __D) All of the Above

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121. It is a kind of retirement, where an officer or non-officer shall be upon attainment of age 56, provided in case of any officer with the rank of chief superintendent, director or deputy director general, the Commission may allow his attention in the service for an un extendible period of 1 year. __A) Optional Retirement __B) Compulsory Retirement __C) Permanent Total Disability __D) Separation 122. It is a kind of retirement which may be availed of upon accumulation of at least 20 years of satisfactory active service, an officer or non-officer, at his own request and with the approval of the commission, shall be retired from the service and entitled to receive benefits provide for by law. __A) Optional Retirement __B) Compulsory Retirement __C) Permanent Total Disability __D) Separation 123. It is an office which is independent of the PNP, which is composed of the National, Regional and Provincial offices, headed by Inspector General, Directors and Superintendents, respectively. It head is Civilian who shall meet the qualification requirements provided therein. __A) CIDG __B) Internal Affairs Service(IAS) __C) Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) __D) Ombudsman __E) Sandigang Bayan 124. As the term used in Disciplinary Machinery, Minor Offense shall refer to any act or commission not involving moral turpitude, but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP, and shall include, but not limited to the following with the exception of one, that is.. __A) Simple misconduct or negligence; insubordination __B) Frequent absences and tardiness __C) Habitual Drunkenness and Gambling prohibited by law __D) Homosexual or Lesbian 125. It may mean wrongful, improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated by premeditated, obstinate, or intentional purpose. It usually refers to transgression of some established and definite rule of action, where no direction is left except what necessity may demand. It does not necessarily imply corruption or criminal intention but implies wrongful intention and not more error of judgment. __A) Simple Misconduct on Malfeasance __B) Neglect of Duty or Negligence or Non-feasance __C) Insurbordination __D) All of the Above 126. It may mean a filing of a complaint, either criminal or administrative involving the same cause of

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action filed in two or more different courts of law or quasi-judicial bodies. __A) Venue and Jurisdiction __B) Forum Shopping or Multiple Filing of a Complaint __C) Disciplinary Machinery __D) Peoples Law Enforcement Board(PLEB) 127. Is that power of the NAPOLCOM, Chief of the PNP and PNP regional Directors, who after due notice and summary hearings, may immediately remove or dismiss any respondent PNP member in any of the cases enumerated under RA No. 6975, as amended. __A) Summary Dismissal Powers __B) Authority __C) Statutory Police Power __D) All of the Above 128. The required number of days when a PNP or officer may be considered as Absent Without Leave(AWOL), and who shall be dismissed immediately from the service. __A) Continuous period of 15 days or more __B) Continuous period of 30 days or more __C) Continuous period of 45 days or more __D) All of the Above 129. An instance or instances when the court order a PNP Member or officer to be suspended or be put under preventive suspension. __A) Upon the filing of a complaint or information sufficient in form and substance against a member of the PNP for grave felonies where the penalty imposed by law is 6 years and 1 day or more, whose suspension period shall not exceed 90 days from arraignment. __B) If it can be shown by evidence that the accused is harassing the complainant and/or witnesses, the court may order for preventive suspension of the accused PNP member even if the change is punishable by a penalty lower than 6 years and 1 days. Such preventive suspension shall not exceed more than 90 days except if the delay in the disposition of the case is due to fault, negligence or positions of the respondent. __C) Letter A only __D) Letter B only __E) All of the Above 130. When such order of suspension or preventive suspension may sooner be lifted by the court. __A) In the exigency of the service and upon the recommendation of the PNP Director General. In such a case, it shall be subject to continuous trial and shall be terminated wi thin 90 days from arraignment of the accused. __B) When the complainant executed an Affidavit of desistance __C) When said PNP accused member is transferred to another PNP Office or Station __D) All of the Above

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131. When may a PNP member be entitled to legal assistance by the Government? __A) When said PNP member is indigent litigant __B) When said PNP members is facing before a prosecutors office the court of competent body, a charge or charges arising from any incident which is related to the performance of his official duty. __C) When said PNP member is permanently totally disabled __D) All of the Above 132. It is an office in every police station throughout the country that is to administer and attend to cases involving crimes against chastity, sexual harassment, abuses committed against women and children and other similar offenses. __A) Womens Desk __B) Unisex Desk __C) Womens Lib Office __D) All of the Above 133. Which means to include but not limited to the establishment of equal opportunities for women in the PNP, the prevention of sexual harassment in the workplace, and the prohibition of discrimination on The basis of gender of sexual orientation. __A) Bill Rights of women in the PNP __B) Gender sensitivity Program for policewomen __C) PNP Womens League __D) All of the Above 134. The effect or legal consequence of the established rules and regulations regarding Gender Sensitivity and Gender Equality is violated. __A) The offender or violation will be suspended without pay for not less than 30 days and shall undergo Gender Sensitivity Seminar __B) The offender or violation will be transferred to Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao(ARMM) __C) The offender or violation is demoted __D) All of the Above 135. They are deputized as representative of the NAPOLCOM in their respective Territorial jurisdictions. __A) Governor and Mayors __B) Governor and Congressman __C) Mayors and Barangay Chairman __D) All of the Above 136. When the operational supervision and control of the Mayors over their Police Station and its members may be suspended. __A) During the 30 day period immediately preceding and the 30 days following any national,local or barangay elections. __B) During the period of suspension of the Mayor

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__C) During the election period where the incumbent Mayor files his candidacy for re-election and/or other elective office __D) During the period when the Mayor is in vacation 137. It shall mean the power to direct, superintendent, an oversee the day-to-day functions police investigation in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the NAPOLCOM. __A) Employment __B) Operational supervision and control __C) Deployment __D) All of the Above 138. The term refers to the utilization of units or element is of the PNP for purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and bring the offenders to justice, and ensuring public safety, particularly in the suppression of disorders, riots, lawlessness, violence, rebellions, and seditions conspiracy, insurgency, subversion or other related activities. __A) Employment __B) Operational supervision and control __C) Deployment __D) All of the Above 139. It shall mean the orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP within the province, city or municipality for purpose of employment. __A) Employment __B) Operational supervision and control __C) Deployment __D) All of the Above 140. One of the following is not within the other powers or authority of the city or municipal mayors over the PNP units in their respective jurisdiction. __A) The authority to choose the chief of police from a list of 5 eligibles recommended by the Provincial Police Directors. __B) The authority to recommend to the Provincial Police Director the transfer, reassignment or detail of PNP members outside of their respective city or town residence. __C) The authority to recommend from a list of eligibles previously screened by the Peace and Order Council the appointment of new members to be assigned to their respective cities or municipalities without which no such appointments shall be attested. __D) To choose his own close-in body guard any where he goes. 141. Who are the local Government Officials to be officially Deputized Representative of the NAPOLCOM? __A) Governors and congressmen, upon having been elected and having qualified as such. As a Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM, he or she can inspect police force an unit, conduct audit and exercise other function as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM.

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__B) Governors and congressmen, upon having been elected and having qualified as such. As a Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM, local Government Executives can inspect police forces And units, conduct audit and exercise other function as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM. __C) Mayors and Barangay Chairmen only upon having been elected and having qualified as such. As Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM said Mayors and Barangay Chairmen can inspect police force and units, conduct audit and exercise other function as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM. __D) All of the Above 142. Of the 4 grounds when the deputation be suspended in withdrawn, one of the following is not included: __A) Gambler an or having a mistress or another man other than her own husband __B) Frequent unauthorized absences __C) A base of authority __D) Providing material supports to criminal elements, or __E) Engaging in acts inimical to national security or which negate the effectiveness of the peace and order campaign 143. It is the central receiving entity for any citizens complaint against the officers and ,members of the PNP. __A) Peoples Law Enforcement Board(PLEB) __B) Internal Affairs Service(IAS) __C) National Police Commission __D) Ombudsman __E) All of the Above 144. A kind of liability of any Police Superior Officer who fails to act on any request for suspension of any PNP Member without any valid grounds. __A) Severally and jointly criminally liable __B) Administratively liable for serious neglect of duty __C) Criminally Liable __D) Civilly Liable __E) All of the Above 145. Of the following instances when the PLEB may request for preventive suspensions against a subordinate police officer, one of them is not included, and that is.. __A) When the PLEB has receive a report that the respondent subordinate PNP member is or has an illicit relation with any relatives of the PLEB members __B) When the respondent refuses to heed the PLEBs summon or subpoena __C) When the PNP members has been charged with offences involving bodily ham or grave threats __D) When the respondents in a position to tamper with the evidence __E) When the respondent is in a position to unduly influence the witness

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION (58 QUESTIONS)

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146. No officer of any correction institution shall, in his relation to the inmates use force except in.. __A) Self-defense __B) In case of attempted escape to hold prisoners __C) Active or passive physical resistance to a lawful order __D) All of them 147. All members of the custodial force of any correctional institution shall bear in mind about prisoners, that the purpose of confinement is not much for restriction but for reformation and rehabilitation. __A) Prisoners are sick people and need treatment __B) Prisoners are enemies of society __C) Prisoners are human being too. __D) All of them 148. The only one instance when a prisoner may be given passes or leaves from jails or places of confinement, as may be allowed by law or regulation, upon approval of the appropriate authority, or the court, if already committed by court order and upon the recommendation of the warden. __A) When he puts bail for his temporary liberty __B) Very meritorious cases __C) On recognizance __D) All of the Above 149. A prisoner/inmate may be taken out of jail only upon __A) Bail for his temporary liberty __B) Very meritorious cases __C) Orders of competent court or authority and provided with armed escorts __D) All of them 150. As far as practicability is concerned, only those police personnel who can be assigned to duty in city or municipal jails are the ones.. __A) Who have the aptitude for custodial and security work or hose who have undergone the appropriate jail training __B) Police officers assigned to jail duty as a form of punishment or disciplinary action __C) Transferred police officers __D) All of them 151. Corporal punishment, confinement in a dark cell or sweat boxes, or any cruel, unusual, inhuman or degrading punishment is __A) Somewhat prohibited __B) Absolutely prohibited __C) Fairly prohibited __D) All of them

152. They may perform such other labor as may be necessary for hygienic and sanitary reasons. __A) Women prisoners __B) Prisoners over 60 years of age __C) Detention prisoners __D) All of them 153. May be excused from hard work and place on less strenuous details or works.

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__A) Prisoners over 60 years of age __B) Women prisoners

__C) Detention prisoners __D) All of them

154. The general rule is that, no prisoner shall be allowed to exercise authority over another, Who are prisoners who may assist in the vocation and general instructions of prisoners? __A) Detention prisoners __B) Technically skilled prisoners __C) Trustee prisoners __D) All of them 155. Such above-named prisoners may assist in the vocation and general instruction of other prisoners, provided that this relationship shall not carry with it.. __A) A salary and other kinds of compensation __B) Delegated Authority __C) Disciplinary Authority __D) All of the Above 156. Prisoner work-groups shall perform essential community services charge of quarters, kitchen maintenance of equipment and facilities, library administration, or personal services, normally in rotation basis. 157. One of the important phases of jail management is __A) Punishment __ B) Custody and control of prisoners __C) Imprisonment __D) All of the Above

158. Which of the following is the ultimate goal of imprisonment and can be attained if the necessary structure, personnel, and methods which provide for security are present. __A) Punishment __B) Control __C) Rehabilitation __D) All of the Above

159. In prison, it is commonly thought of as a procedure to prevent escapes, riots and disorders, and the punishment of those involved. __A) Control __B) Discipline __C) Punishment __D) Morale

160. Is that kind of prisoners discipline applied after an offense has been committed, in the since that may cases, punishment does not deter. __A) Positive discipline __B) Negative discipline __C) Strict discipline __D) Leniency

161. It is one which will relieve inmates feeling of insecurity about his situation; it is likewise essential in effecting new changes which affect the masses on inmate population. __A) Food and reaction __B) Conjugal Leave __C) Good communication __D) Religion

162. Involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly movement to and from the

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dormitories, place of work, church, hospitals recreational facilities, etc.. __A) Discipline __B) Security __C) Control __D) All of them

163. A well-founded correctional program having for its aim the rehabilitation of prisoner must be correlated with and into the system of __A) Custody __B) Security __C) Control __D) All of them

164. Prisoner discipline should not only be applied after a beach of laws, rule or regulations having been committed; more effective perhaps in the application of discipline at is. __A) Preventive stage __B) Punitive stage __C) Non-punitive measure __D) Punishment

165. is a form of executive clemency which is exercised by the Chief Executive; it is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right. __A) Pardon __B) Amnesty __C) Communication __D) Reprieve

166. It is in the nature of contact, so that it must first be accepted by the recipient before it takes effect; that the guarantee is under obligation to comply strictly with the conditions imposed therein. __A) Absolute pardon __B) Conditional pardon __C) Amnesty __D) Reprieve

167. It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the guarantee without any condition attach to it. __A) Absolute pardon __B) Conditional pardon __C) Commutation __D) Amnesty

168. It is a general pardon extended to a group of persons and generally exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of the congress. __A) Communication __B) Amnesty __C) Retrieve __D) Good-Conduct-Time allowance

169. It is an act of clemency by which an executive act changes sentence to a lesser or less serious one, or a long term to a shorter term. __A) Amnesty __B) Reprieve __C) Communication __D) Good-Conduct-Time allowance

170. It is a temporary stay of the execution of the sentence. __A) Reprieve __B) Communication __C) Good-Conduct-Time allowance __D) Probation

171. It is the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence the prisoner serves because good behavior while in prison.

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__A) Deduction for loyalty __B) Good-Conduct-Time allowance

__C) Probation __D) Parole

172. It is a disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and the supervision of an appropriate authority. __A) Good-Conduct-time allowance __B) Probation __C) Parole __D) PD 603

173. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis of individual response and progress within the correctional institutions and a service by which they are provided with necessary controls and guidance as they serve the remainder of their sentence within the free community. __A) Parole __B) Probation __C) PD 603 __D) Indeterminate sentence law

174. Popularly known as probation for young offender, who is committed to the custody or care of the Department of Social Welfare, or to any training institution operated by the Government. __A) PD. 968 __B) PD. 603 __C) Indeterminate sentence law __D) Revised Family Code

175. Its purpose is to uplift and redeem valuable human material and prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty and economic usefulness. __A) PD 603 __B) Indeterminate sentence law __C) PD 968 __D) Revised Family Code

176. More than any other imperialistic countries in Europe, this country made extensive use of transportation of her prisoners. It first began in 1718, by sending her convicted prisoners to the American colonies until the American Revolution. __A) England __B) Spain __C) Portugal __D) Italy __E) All of the Above 177. The year that the first Fleet transported 564 male and 162 female prisoners on the eightmonth voyage to the present site of Sydney, Australia. __A) 1561 __B) 1787 __C) 1800 __D) 1900

178. In the pre-Spanish Philippines, the penal system of his country was jurisdictionally local and tribal. It is consisted mostly of native mores and customs administered by Regional Chieftains. The most extensive among the Code was.. __A) Maragtas Code of Dam Sumakwel __B) Code OF Sikatuna __C) Code of Kalantiao __D) Hammurabis Code 179. A code ( of about 2300 BC) after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle: As Eye, and a Tooth in the imposition of punishment.

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__A) Code of Kalantiao __B) Hammurabis Code __C) Maragtas Code __D) Code of Sikatuna 180. Under the development of penology in line with the modern approach, the term correction or the institution of penology is often used today to indicate the chief concerned is.. __A) To punish criminals __B) To pay for the crime committed __C) To correct anti-social behavior __D) All of the Above 181. It is the main goal of the protection program in correctional administration. __A) Rehabilitation the prisoner mainly by changing his attitude __B) To protect the society from convicted offenders __C) To protect the convicted offenders from the society __D) All of the Above 182. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it affords the society or individual who was wronged the opportunity of imposing upon the offender such suitable punishment as might be enforced. __A) Retribution __B) Expiation __C) Deterrence __D) Reformation __E) Protection of the society 183. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it rests on the belief that a wrong done must be atoned for by a punishment which compensates for the crime committed, that is balancing the skill of justice to the degree of severity of the crime. __A) Retribution __B) Expiation __C) Deterrence __D) Reformation __E) Protection of the society 184. It is based on the principle that the punishment received by convicted offenders prevent others form performing similar actions for fear that they will receive similar punishment. __A) Retribution __B) Expiration __C) Deterrence __D) Reformation __E) Protection of the society 185. That the essential purpose of punishment is to bring about the moral transformation of the wrong doers that once release from the prison walls he will become once again a law abiding citizen and useful member of the society. __A) Retribution __B) Expiration __C) Deterrence __D) Reformation __E) Protection of the society

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186. The theory that the basic purpose of punishment is to isolate the convicted offenders from doing more or another harm against the society. __A) Retribution __B) Expiration __C) Deterrence __D) Reformation __E) Protection of the society 187. It is written order of the court or any other competent authority consigning an offender to a jail or prison for confinement. __A) Commitment Order __B) Warrant of arrest __C) Writ of execution __D) Mittimus __E) All of them 188. A warrant issued by a court bearing is seal and the signature of the judge, directing the jail or prison authorities to receive inmates for custody or service of sentence imposed therein. __A) Commitment Order __B) Warrant of arrest __C) Writ of execution __D) Mittimus __E) All of them 189. A person who is convicted by final judgment, and classified either as insular, provincial, city or municipal inmate. __A) Prisoner __B) Detention Inmate __C) Under custody __D) Rehabilitation 190. It is a device, contrivance, tool or instrument used to hold back, keep in, check or control an inmate. __A) Contraband __B) Instrument of Restraint __C) Lock up __D) Jail van 191. It is temporary custody of a person of his own protection, safety or care and/or his security from harm, injury or danger fort he liability he has committed. __A) Commitment Order __B) Mittimus __C) Safekeeping __D) Inmate 192. It is a program of activity directed to restore an inmates self-respect there by making him a law-abiding citizen after serving his sentence. __A) Safekeeping __B) Protection of the society __C) Penology __D) Rehabilitation

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193. It refers to assigning or grouping of inmates according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal records etc.. __A) Classification of prisoners __B) Control of prisoners __C) Discipline of prisoners __D) Rehabilitation of prisoners 194. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the classification of detainees? __A) Undergoing Investigation __B) Awaiting or undergoing trial __C) Awaiting final judgment __D) Safekeeping 195. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the classification or inmates? __A) Political prisoner __B) Insular prisoner __C) Provincial prisoner __D) City prisoner __E) Municipal prisoner 196. The year when the first Bilibid Prison was constructed and because the central place of confinement for Filipino prisoners by venue of the Royal Decree of the Spanish Crown. __A) 1521 __B)1900 __C) 1847 __D) 1900

197. The very place where the first bilibid prison was constructed. __A) Muntinlupa __B) May Haligue Estate __C) For Santiago __D) For Bonifacio

198. It was restablished in Zamboaga for the confinement of political prisoners and was named after its founder of the Spanish Royal Amy. __A) San Ramon Prison and Penal farm __B) Iwahig Penal colony __C) May Haligue __D) Fort Del Pilar 199. A penal colony which was envisioned by Governor Forbes was and still is the renown World over as the first Open Penal Institution, where the colonist have their families with them with an assigned piece of Land, and are encouraged to cultivate, raise poultry and livestock for their personal use. The products are sold to the Colony Post Exchange. __A) San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm __B) Iwahig Penal colony __C) Davao penal colony __D) Sabayan Penal Colony and Farm 200. This was established in 1931 on an 18-hectare piece of land in Mandaluyong by authority of Act No.3579, which was passed on November 27, 1929. __A) The Correctional Institution for Women __B) Sablayan Penal Colony __C) Davao Penal Colony __D) Sampaguita Correctional Institution

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201. The first ever-Philippine Probation Law. __A) Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended __ B) Act No. 4221 __C) Act No. 1 __D) Act No. 623 202. A shoemaker in Boston, USA where the first probation was originated, who interceded with the courts to suspend the sentence of his charge. __A) John Augustus __B) Father Cook __C) John Peterson __D) John Phillip Law 203. A Philippine Jurisprudence or a case decided by the Philippine Supreme Court when the first Probation of 1936 was declared unconstitutional because it was considered a class legislation. __A) People vs. William __B) People vs. Vera 37 OG 164 __C) People vs. Calalang __D) US vs. Miranda CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION (37 Question) 204. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings. __A) Criminal investigation __B) Interview and interrogation __C) Confession and Admission __D) Criminal Action 205. Criminal investigation is not a science; it is not governed by rigid rules or laws, but most often, it is governed by __A) Institution __B) Felicity of inspiration __C) To a minor extent by chance __D) All of them 206. As an initial step on criminal investigation whereby the investigator should strictly observe one of the nine (9) golden rules upon arrival at the crime scene. __A) Arrest the suspect and prosecute him __B) Do not touch or move any object __C) Save the life of the victim, and at the same time be able to identify the suspect, if any __D) Apply immediately the mechanics of search and cordon the crime scene 207. Articles and materials which are found in connection with investigation and which aides in establishing the identify of the penetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal. __A) Corpus delicti __B) Fruits of the crime __C) Physical evidence __D) Chain of custody of physical evidence

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208. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect of the crime scene or offense. Examples; Fingerprints and shoe impression. __A) Associate evidence __B) Physical evidence __C) Tracing evidence __D) Chain of custody

209. It involves a number of persons who might have handle evidence between the time of commission of the alleged offense and the ultimate disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum. Each transfer of evidence should be receipted. __A) Chain of custody __B) Tracing evidence __C) Interview __D) Interrogation

210. May be used to mean the simple questioning of a person who is cooperating with the investigation. __A) Interrogation __B) Interview __C) Circumstantial evidence __D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation 211. It may be used to describe the vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information. __A) ) Interrogation __B) Interview __C) Use of 3rd degree __D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation 212. The following are the 3 tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal action. __A) Criminalistics, confession & admission __B) Information, interrogation, & instrumentation __C) Movie, intent and circumstantial evidence __D) Investigation, criminalistic, & prosecution 213. Its identification establish indirectly proving other facts or circumstances from which, either alone or in connection with other facts, the identity of the offender can be inferred. __A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence __B) Physical evidence __C) Circumstantial evidence __D) Testimony of a witness 214. It may be defined as that body of the crime or fact of a specific loss or injury sustained. __A) Corpus delicti __B) Motive __C) Intent __D) Modus operandi

215. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction. __A) Motive __B) Intent __C) Modus operandi __D) Background interview

216. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved where it is an element of the offense charged. __A) Motive __B) Intent __C) Modus operandi __D) Background interview

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217. Means the method of operations; it will enable the investigator to recognize a pattern of criminal behavior; to associate a group crimes with a single perpetrator, to enable them to predict approximately the next target of the criminal and to assist complains; eyewitness and investigators to recognize the perpetrators by means of the recorded information concerning the characteristics of his or their criminal activities. __A) Modus operandi __B) Background interview __C) Reconstruction of the crime __D) Admission 218. It may be the simpliest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation. __A) Reconstruction of the crime __B) Background interview __C) Admission __D) Confessions 219. After the completion of the search, effort must be made to determine from the appearance of the place and objects what actually occurred and what the circumstances of the crime are. __A) Reconstruction of the crime __B) Background interview __C) Admission __D) Confessions 220. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledge of guilt. __A) Admission __B) Confession __C) Disposition __D) Infornmant

221. It may be a direct acknowledgment of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself. __A) Admission __B) Confession __C) Disposition __D) Infornmant

222. It may be defined as the testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or affirmation, before a person empowered to administer an oath in answer to interrogation and cross interrogations submitted by the party desiring it. __A) Tracing __B) Deposition __C) Sources of information __D) Informant

223. he may be one who gives the necessary information to the investigator, he may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous. __A) Informant __B) Tracing __C) Sources of information __D) Surveillance

224. It is the application of all procedures for the search missing persons. __A) Rogues gallery __B) Tracing __C) Information __D) Sources of information

225. It is designated or secret observation of places, persons and Vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities of activities of the object.

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__A) Information __B) Surveillance

__C) Shadowing or tailing __D) Surveillance of place

226. The crimes which require this type or surveillance are : gambling, prostitutions, illegal sales of drugs, alcohol, dishonesty among employees or infedelry of a spouse. __A) Survaillance of place __B) Shadowing or tailing __C) One-man shadow __D) Two-man shadow

227. it is a kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed: __A) One-man shadow __B) Shadowing or tailing __C) Convoy __D) Two-man shadow

228. From among the kinds of surveillance, one is the most common because it involves the use of the least number of manpower. __A) One-man shadow __B) Two-man shadow __C) Convoy __D) Undercover assignment

229. In the process of surveillance, sometimes the subject or suspect is being guarded against and he usually stays at the rear of the subject. __A) Two-man shadow __B) Convoy __C) Convoy __D) To protect life

230. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity in order to obtain information. __A) Convoy __B) One-man shadow __C) Undercover assignment __D) Disguise

231. Of the following 3 constitutional rights accorded to every arrested person under custodial investigation, one of them is not included. __A) Right to bail bond __B) Right to remain silent __C) Right to have a legal counsel __D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation 232. Sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing if found to be abnormal to a subject/suspect, may mean __A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt __B) Physiological symptoms of guilt __C) Circumstantial evidence of guilt __D) All of them 233. Voluntariness of a confession may be shown by one of the following except. __A) Presence of the physiological symptoms of guilt __B) The statement obtained by urging or request was a spontaneous or selfinduced utterance of the accused __C) The statement was obtained during the official investigation after the accused was informed of the cause and nature of the offense charged, of the fact the evidence can be used against him at the trial. 234. Of the five (5) good friends of a criminal investigator, one is not included.

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__A) HOW it was committed __B) HOW much is involved __C) by WHOM it was committed __D) WHY was it committed 235. A mechanic of search where the searcher (A, B & C) proceed slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of rectangle at the end of the rectangle, the researcher turns the proceed back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement. __A) Spiral method __B) Step method __C) Zone method __D) Wheel method

236. The searchers follow each owner in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point. __A) Strip method __B) Spiral method __C) Zone method __D) Wheel method

237. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant. __A) Strip method __B) Spiral method __C) Zone method __D) Wheel method

238. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radius or spokes. __A) Wheel method __B) Spiral method 239. Criminals may be identified by.. __A) Confession __B) Eyewitness testimony __C) Circumstantial evidence __D) Associative evidence __E) All of them 240. Of the following different techniques in the interrogation, one is not of them. __A) Financial assistance __B)Emotional appeal __C) Sympathetic approach __D) Friendliness FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION (54 QUESTION) 241. In essence, it is chemical reaction in which a substance combines with oxygen, heat is released and the form of substance is destroyed. __A) Fire __B) Fuel __C) Oxygen __D) Ignition __C) Zone method __D) Strip method

242. Of the three things essential before a fire can occur which one of the following is not included. __A) Fuel __B) Wind __C) Oxygen __D) Initial source of heat

243. In fire statistic, the initial source of heat is generally termed as..

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__A) Determinant __B) Convection

__C) Primer __D) Ignition

244. the term describes the transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts. __A) Conduction __B) Convection __C) Radiation __D) Fire

245. The term describes a mass movement in a fluid (i.e,a liquid or a gas ) where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of through surrounding fluid at a different temperature and density, mixing with it and gradually exchanging heat with it until it is all the same temperature. __A) Conduction __B) Convection __C) Radiation __D) Fire

246. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to light. __A) Conduction __B) Convection __C) Radiation __D) Fire

247. It is a measurement use in fire of the rate at which heat produced. __A) intensity of combustion __B) Density __C) Velocity __D) Temperature

248. It is a term of the start of combustion. Its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportions of different flammable vapours evolved vary from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion begin. __A) Combustion __B) Ignition __C) Propellant __D) Starter

249. Wood, and its products, such as hardboard and fireboard, are the principal combustible materials present in the construction of a building. __A) Combustible Contents __B) Combustible structure __C) Solids __D) Dusts

250. Articles inside a building will normally include many combustible materials which may be present in considerable quantity and represent a total caloric value many times greater than that of the combustible materials used in the construction of the building. __A) Combustible Contents __B) Combustible structure __C) Solids __D) Dusts

251. This will burn very readily if the surface area is large in proportion to the weight of materials. __A) Combustible Contents __B) Combustible structure __C) Solids __D) Dusts

252. They are a special case of combustible solids when they are present in a building, and the capable of spreading fire very rapidly, for instance along roof beams or lodges. __A) Combustible Contents __B) Combustible structure __C) Solids __D) Dusts

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253. This is a term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire when, for example, most of all of the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time. __A) Ignition __B) Flash-over __C) Starter __D) Intensity

254. It is a term used when taking into account possible causes of fire and relating them to the local hazard of the construction and contents of a building. __A) Risks __B) Negligence __C) Intentional __D) Peril

255. This term is used to describe the fire-resisting property of structural element and may be used to described the behavior of a building material in a fire; it is used to predict how long it will resist the effects of a fire before it fuls. __A) Fire proof __B) Fire resistance __C) Building resistance __D) Fire duration

256. It consist of small carbonaceous particles, suspended in the atmosphere, which may of such color, size and quality that they can obscure the pamage of light, thus preventing exists and exit signs from being seen. It may also contribute to panic because of its effects on eyes, nose and throat. __A) Smoke __B) Fire __C) Carbonmonoxide __D) Toxic

257. It is poisonous and is a normal product of combustion, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted. __A) Carbon dioxide __B) Carbon monoxide __C) Smoke __D) Gas

258. It is the main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportions of oxygen available for breathing. __A) Carbon dioxide __B) Carbon monoxide 259. The first action after discovery of a fire. __A) Run for you life __B) To raise the alarm __C) Pack up personal belongings __D) Call an ambulance 260. Considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire, which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling. __A) Automatic Sprinkler System __B) Fire Hydrant __C) Water soaked blanket __D) Extinguishers 261. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a complete building but also the various specialists engineers who may be concerned with the structure, the electrical installation, the heating and ventilation system and so on. __A) Building Contractors __C) Smoke __D) Gas

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__B) Designers __C) Office of Building Permit __D) Building Planners 262. The primary purpose of status requirements for fire protection is __A) To see to it that buildings are insured __B) To safeguard life __C) To see to it that buildings are fire hazard free __D) To generate income for the government 263. The most important reason for providing good access for the fire brigade is.. __A) To enable firemen to rescue people who may be trapped or injured by fire __B) To enable firemen to rescue goods of commercial value __C) To minimize fire damage __D) To avoid traffic accident during the outbreak of fire 264. Are contacts between the insured and the insurer under which insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by clearly defined events in respect of clearly defined buildings and contents under specified conditions. __A) Business contracts __B) Insurance Policies __C) Building Permit Contracts __D) Life Insurance Policies 265. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information determine the origin and cause of fire. __A) Interviewing witness __B) Surveillance __C) Undercover work assignment __D) To invest gate the insurance company and the owner of insurance policy 266. What do you think is the significant data for an arson investigator to gather from the fire scene? __A) Odor __B) Color of smokes & color of flames __C) Rapidly of fire __D) All of them 267. It is a thing which will help an arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire founds on combustible while propagating itself, this thing will indicate generally be deepest from where the fire originated. __A) Charring __B) Allegator Pattern __C) Smoke __D) Flame

268. It is in this area that physical evidence of criminal designed most likely so be observed, by following the path of the burning to its source, will trace a path according to the intensity of the fire. __A) Charring __B) Allegator Pattern __C) Smoke __D) Flame

269. The fire and arson investigators success depends on his ability to determine correctly.. __A) The exact cause of the fire __B) The point of origin of fire

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__C) The insurable interest of the owner __D) The modus operandi 270. Whether it be liquid, solid or gas, is the minimum temperature that the substance must be heated in order to sustain combustion. __A) Temperature __B) Ignition Temperature __C) Flash point __D) Burning point

271. It is a term used for any preparation to set a fire. It is designed to feed the fire as rapidly as possible when ignition device is lighted. __A) Plant __C) Setting on Fire __C) Intention __D) Arson

272. It probably enjoys the most widespread usage of any type of Molotov Cocktail manufactured. __A) Rag Cocktail __B) Soap cocktail __C) Improvised Cocktail __D) All of them

273. It enjoys widespread use throughout combat troops in the world. Here, the breakable container is employed. __A) Rag Cocktail __B) Soap cocktail 274. Arsonist may be classified into.. __A) Arson for profit firesetters __B) Solitary firesetters __C) Group firesetters __D) All of them __C) Improvised Cocktail __D) All of them

275. It is probably the most rapidly increasing from fire-setting. This is a rational act and therefore, the elimination of the potential profit should prevent and attempt. __A) Arson for profit __B) Solitary firesetters __C) Group firesetters __D) None of the above

276. Most malicious fires are set by individuals in secret; its either set for revenge or spite, selfaggrandizing; or set by pyromaniacs, or set by psychotic firesetter, or set by sexual deviate for sexual gratification. __A) Arson for profit __B) Solitary firesetters __C) Group firesetters __D) None of the above

277. This kind of firesetter may be classified either vandalism fires, riot fires and political fires. Nevertheless, the presence of peers encourages this particular behavior in contrast to most circumstances where the presence of others inhibits the fire setting. __A) Arson for profit __B) Solitary firesetters __C) Group firesetters __D) None of the above

278. In planning the arson investigation two principal points should be considered into by fire and arson investigator. Of these two principal points one of the following is not included, and that is. __A) Establish the fire incendiary origin and a willful act burning __B) Identify the suspect, or suspects and connect them with the willful origin of the fire beyond reasonable doubt the degree of proof required by law __C) Establish the cause of the fire and reason for setting the fire __D) None of the above

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279. The first and most necessary step before making any attempt to put in motion any plans for investigation, is.. __A) To view the situs of the crime involved __B) To Prepared and gather assistance available __C) To interview the witness __D) All of them 280. It means to keep the site of the fire or crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator. __A) To view the situs of the crime involved __B) Preserving the fire or crime scene __C) To interview the witness __D) Do not touch or move any object 281. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire or crime scene is to __A) To protect and prevent the removal and destruction evidence present at the scene of fire or crime __B) To view the citus of the crime involved __C) To interview the witness __D) Identify and locate the suspect 282. After the fire or crime scene has been firmly secured, the next step for the fire/arson investigator to do is. __A) Call an ambulance __B) Search for physical evidence __C) Photograph the fire scene __D) Identify the perpetrator and owner of the building or property on fire 283. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the perso found guilty of arson? __A) The kind of building or property that was burned __B) The location of the building __C) The extent of the damage due to fire __D) whether the building is inhibited or not __E) All of the above 284. Burning ones house is punishable with the penalty of arresto mayor in its maximum period to prison correctional in its maximum period, if the arson was committed for any of the following except.. __A) If the burning was used only for the purpose of destroying his own property and without prejudice to another __B) To defraud or cause damage to another __C) In the absence of such fraud or damage to another, damaged actually resulted, burned is an inhabited place __D) All of them 285. Corpus delicti is established in arson by proving two elements, except __A) Burning of the house or other things __B) Criminal agency in causing it __C) The value of the insurable property being burned

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__D) None of them 286. In which of the following are elements of arson of property of small value? __A) Burning of any uninhabited hut, storehouse, barn, sheet, or any other property __B) Under circumstances clearly excluding all danger of fire spreading __C) Value of the property dies not exceed P25.00 __D) All of the above 288. It is an important activity of any installation, and this consists of the elimination of fire hazards, the provision of fire-safety education, and the training of fireguards, fire watchers and fire brigade fighters. __A) Fire Prevention Program __B) Fire Fighting Course __C) Fire Technology and Investigation __D) All of the above 289. One of the most effective means of fire protection in a building is the.. __A) Stand Pipes __B) Automatic Sprinkling System __C) Fire Hydrants __D) Portable Hand Extinguishers 290. Located inside a building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of fire. __A) Fire Hydrants __B) Automatic Sprinkling System __C) Stand pipes __D) Portable Hand Extinguishers 291. This type of the results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this type is by quenching and cooling. __A) Class A Fire __B) Class B Fire __C) Class C Fire __D) Class D Fire 292. Fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, benzene, oil products, alcohol and other hydrocarbon derivations. __A) Class A Fire __B) Class B Fire __C) Class C Fire __D) Class D Fire 293. Those which start in live electrical waves, equipment, motors, electrical appliances and telephone switchboards. __A) Class A Fire __B) Class B Fire __C) Class C Fire __D) Class D Fire 294. This fire is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms-magnesium, potassium, zinc,etc.

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__A) Class A Fire __B) Class B Fire __C) Class C Fire __D) Class D Fire POLICE ORGANIZATION (95 Questions) 295. All except one of the following is basic police activities. The exception is __A) Prevention of criminality __B) Repression of Crime __C) Apprehension of Offenders __D) Recovery of Stolen Property __E) Prosecution of Criminals 296. In the pre-spanish Philippines, the function of what is new properly known as the police was devolved on the __A) Agurang __B) Guardrilleros __C) Sultan __D) Headman __E) Guardia civil

297. This was a body of rural police organized in each town and established by the Royal decree on January 8, 1836. __A) Katipunan __B) Guardia civil __C) Guardilleros __D) Policia __E) Barangay police

298. An ACT providing for the Organization and Government of Insular Constabulary. __A) RA 4864, Sept. 8 1966 __B) ACT 255 of Oct 3, 1901 __C) RA 6975, Dec. 13, 1990 __D) RA 5487, Jun 13, 1969 __E) PD 765, Aug. 8 1975

299. This was created by a Royal Decree issued by the Crown on Feb. 12, 1852, to partially relieve the Spanish Peninsular Troops of their work in policing towns. __A) Katipunan __B) Guardia civil __C) Guardilleros __D) Policia __E) Barangay police

300. One of the police activities; that a constructive approach to the crime problem must get to its very roots-to the factors of the community life which create criminal tendencies and lead the individual to indulge is anti-social behavior. __A) Prevention of Criminality __B) Repression of Crime __C) Apprehension of Offenders __D) Recovery of Stolen Property __E) Prosecution of Criminals 301. Adequate patrol plus continuous effort toward eliminating or reducing hazards is stressed as a means of reducing the opportunities for criminal activity. __A) Prevention of Criminality __B) Repression of Crime __C) Apprehension of Offenders __D) Recovery of Stolen Property

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__E) Prosecution of Criminals 310. The unit which does most to coordinate and bird together all other functional divisions of a police department __A) Record Division __B) Traffic Division __E) Finance Division __C) Criminalistics Division __D) Warrant Division

311. The combined use of inspection, periodic reports of activities, follow up procedures, etc __A) Coordination __B) Control __E) Command __C) Discipline __D) Deployment

312. Is that power that is vested on those who are in the authority to enforce and chomped the observance of laws, rules, regulations and ordinances, with or without invoking criminal processes. __A) Police Power __B) Statutory Power of the Police __C) Arrest __D) Law enforcement __E) All of the Above 313. The principle that each individual in an organization should be under the immediate control of only one person is known as.. __A) Unit of Command __B) Span of Control __C) Command Responsibility __D) Functional Organization __E) All of them 314. In the opinion of many authorities, the foremost task of management is __A) The technique of Executive Control __B) The management of Men __C) Planning for the future of the organization __D) The Management Of Fiscal Affairs __E) All of the Above 315. The synchronization of all line and staff activity. __A) Coordination __B) Command __C) Control __D) Planning __E) Unity of Command 316. In which of the following types of police work is routine and fairly frequent rotations or transfer of personnel considered most desirable. __A) Patrol Division __B) Criminalistics __C) Records __D) Vice __E) Juvenile 317. A supervisors span of control is usually in terms of the number of

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__A) Subordinates reporting directly to him __B) Superiors from whom he takes orders __C) Superiors to whom he reports __D) Functions for which he has final responsibility __E) All of the Above 318. Under which of the following broad management function is fusion most properly classified. __A) Planning __B) Controlling __C) Organizing __D) Coordinating __E) Directing

319. The significant weakness of the simple organization pyramid as used in organization for police work is that __A) It is too simple to provide for the complex organization __B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary __C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary __D) Eliminate latitude in the performance to assigned duties __E) Give maximum scope to each individuals efforts 320. The basic purpose of organization is to channel the efforts of its members in such manner as to.. __A) Facilitate the attainment of objectives __B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary __C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary __D) Eliminate latitude in the performance to assigned duties __E) Give maximum scope to each individuals efforts 321. Those tools of the administrators by which he can be assured that his direction of the department is effective are known as __A) Planning Devices __B) Coordinating Devices __C) Control Devices __D) Organization Devices __E) Discipline

322. To say that control is implemented by inspection is to imply that the main function of inspector is to.. __A) Acquire information __B) Maintain Discipline __C) Insure Uniformity __D) Audit Supervision __E) None of the Above

323. Territorial decentralization is most likely to be appropriate in connection with of the following police functions? __A) Patrol __B) Traffic __C) Records __D) Criminalistic __E) None of the Above

324. The one of the following situations which best illustrate unity of command in a police organization is that __A) Only one subordinate is directly commanded or supervised by each superior __B) Only one superior officer is in complete commandos each situation __C) Only one superior officer is responsible for the job performance of subordinate officers __D) All of them 325. Means having authority, in the interest of employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, layoff, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline, other employees, or responsibility to direct them,

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or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action with the foregoing exercise of such authority is not merely routine or clerical nature but requires the use on independent judgment. __A) Supervisor __B) Leader __C) Executive __D) Administrator __E) Manager

326. As unit head you are reassigned to head a different organization unit, and you find your ideas of organizational methods and procedures differ radically from those of the previous unit head. Under the best practice, first you should. __A) Sit tight and see if some of the subordinates also recognized a need for change __B) Immediately start the machinery necessary to initial your propose changes __C) Look for reasons for the existing practice __D) Conduct a suggestion contest __E) Assume existing practice is best and do nothing about it 327. Which of the following methods of approach has least value to the officer change with responsibility for police activities? __A) Experimental control __B) Statistical approach __C) Historical approach __D) Clinical study __E) Case history method 328. Ordinarily the best approach to the problem of simplification of procedures is to __A) Prepare and analyze a functional organization chart __B) Prepare and analyze a work flow chart __C) Analyze the job classification scheme __D) Do a job analysis by point rating methods __E) Prepare and analyze a work progress chart 329. With respect to the allocation of authority in a public agency, integration means nearly __A) Delegating the responsibility for each integral department to a department head __B) Placing responsibility for final decision in the hands of an advisory council __C) Appoint an advisory committee to integrate activities __D) Gathering into the hands of an administrator for all the administrative authority for the agency __E) Providing for the administrator to refer all decisions to the chief executive for approval 330. The effectiveness of each unit or division of a police department is best measure in.. __A) Terms of the accomplishment of its primary purpose __B) Its interrelationship with other closely related units of the department __C) Its interrelationship with all units of the department __D) Its Interrelationship with the community __E) All of them 331. Of the following, the one which is the chief barrier to the development of professionalization for police officers and members throughout the country. __A) Relatively how salaries paid law enforcement officers despite the hazards that confront them. __B) Relatively low entrance requirements for entry into the police field __C) Failure by police administrators make effective use of the probationary period to eliminate the unfit

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__D) The desire of the police to receive general public support even if it involves the failure to enforce unpopular laws __E) All of the Above 332. Planning must be continuous at every level and in every unit of the police department even though the general planning job may be the primary concern of one person or bureau. The one of the following which is not implied by this statement is that sum planning. __A) Is necessary when there is a lack of attention to it at the higher echelons of the department. __B) Should permeate the entire organization even though it is the first responsibility of the planning officer __C) Should consider the possibility of intral-derpartmental conflicts arising and the need to eliminate them at lower levels before they develop __D) May stimulate the acceptance of responsibility for effective job performance at all levels in the organization 333. Objective indexes of police performance, such as crime and accident rates, provide a most exact comparison when comparing __A) Variations in efficiency resulting from changes of procedure within a given police department when the comparison is between two successive years and the accurary of the basic data has been learly established __B) Variations in efficiency resulting from changes of procedure within a given police department when the change is made in only one procedure and the influence of other factors remains nearly constant __C) Different police agencies which have similar administrative structures and problems __D) Different police agencies which operate in communities which have similar crime problems and are in the same population group 334. Preparing functional chart is likely to be least valuable in discovering __A) Failure to place definite responsibility for satisfactory performance of certain activities on any one person or group of persons __B) Failure to develop efficient methods and procedure __C) Failure to delegate authority sufficiently __D) Overlapping authority __E) All of the above 335. Which of the following steps performed by a supervisor in setting up his work should immediately precede the assignment of the particular tasks and the authority to perform the task? __A) Make plans so the desired goals may be attained __B) Make remedial plans if necessary __C) Know what is going on (supervision in progress) __D) Picture the entire project __E) All of the Above 336. Command is synonymous with initiative and self-reliance in meeting and accepting responsibility. It follows from the statement that on attaining officer rant, a man will be expected to consider that he should __A) Perform his duties without relying on his subordinates at all __B) Stand on his own fact and assume full responsibility for his conduct __C) Know what is going on (supervision in progress) __D) Picture the entire project __E) All of the Above 337. The one of the following basis of organizational division work which is least often used in police department is

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__A) Clientele __B) Purpose __C) Area

__D) time __E) Process

338. A specialist or expert rather than an all around man is placed in changed I which one of the following types of organization? __A) Line __B) Functional __Life staff __d) Geographic __e) staff

339. While it is desirable in one sense to minimize the police executives span of control, this reduction may tend to block the vertical flow of information which is vital to the exercise of proper executive control. One answer to this problem is for the police executive to retain control of certain key activities. In this context key activities includes all of the following except. __A) General patrol __B) Internal discipline __C) Vice control __D) Public Relations __E) Planning and research

340. Staff is ___________________ of the Commander. __A) Alter ego __B) Extension __C) Reserve force __D) Administrative Bodyguard __E) Check and Balances

341. The most important distinction between the operating and service functions of an administration organization is that. __A) Service activities involve public relations to a greater extent than operating activities __B) Service activities are functional while operating activities are often termed housekeeping __C) Operating activities are an end in themselves; service activities are a means to an end __D) Operating activities may be thought of as institutional, while service activities are of primary importance __E) All of the above 342. A functional basis or assumption in the justification of an independent police administrative vice squad, reporting directly to the Chief of Police, is that __A) Vice control is one of the most trouble some of police functions __B) Vice activities are always controlled by a central element __C) Personal loyalty to a superior is one of the strongest of human motives __D) In the case of District Commanders, aertness decrease as geographic or administrative distance increase __E) Until professional salaries are paid police officers, some amount of graft is inevitable 343. Probably the most effective way in which a police chief can eliminate friction or misunderstanding due to the problems arising from functional supervision by staff officers is to __A) Hold regular staff meetings to discuss the problems of supervisors and plan future work __B) Designate either the line or staff organization the final authority __C) Draw up organization charts showing line-staff relationships __D) Set a heavy penalty on the supervisors who get into conflict __E) Transfer personnel among the several discussion until those are found who can cooperate in the jobs. 344. The existence of specialized operating units in a police organization is most justified when such a unit.

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__A) Assist the patrol force by its use of specialized knowledge and methods __B) Assumes complete and sole responsibility for police performance in a specialized area of gravity __C) Devotes an equal amount of time and effort to the duties and responsibilities of the unspecialized patrol force __D) In relived of any responsibility for the regular duties of the unspecialized patrol force __E) All of them 345. A good executive is least likely to delegate responsibility for assignment or review of work, his own work will be increasingly likely to. __A) Become simplified and less demanding __B) Emphasize coordinating activities __C) Become more complex and detailed __D) Diminish in scope __E) Require closer contact with actual work in process 346. A high degree of specialization, or division of work, is most likely to create problem of __A) Coordinating __B) Controlling __C) Staffing __D) Directing __E) Planning

347. As a supervisor delegates to others his responsibility for assignment or review of work, his own work will be increasingly likely to __A) Become simplified and less demanding __B) Emphasize coordinating activities __C) Become more complex and detailed __D) Diminish in scope __E) Require closer contact with actual work in process 348. How often should personnel be transferred into new assignments? Is the public interest best served by long term familiarity with one task or district, or by a work perspective born of varied police experience? Front the police administrators standpoint, this problem is best solved by __A) Frequent transfer of newer officers, letting them fit into places as they gain experience __B) Frequent transfer among desirable assignment but long term assignments to undesirable posts 349. The one of the following factors which is the most important determinant of the degree to which the patrolman resists the ever-present temptation to corruption is the __A) Amount of participation in the activities of national professional police organization __B) Quality of leadership exerted by superior officers, especially those in the immediate contact with the patrolman __C) Thoroughness of training in department procedures given to new members of the department __D) Salary, hours of work, promotion opportunities, and types of crime involved __E) All of the Above 350. A police officer is doing very satisfactory work on a rather simple and repetitive assignement. Test show him to be above average in intelligence. A position to which he could properly be assigned, requiring exercise of some judgment and initiative, is vacant. When told of the vacancy, he shows no particularly desire or enthusiasm for the change. In the interest of good management, it would be best to __A) Give him a trial on the vacancy __B) Look for someone else to fill the vacancy __C) Give him some instruction and see how he responds

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__D) Talk to his wife or family __E) Recognize the work so no vacancy exists 351. Good personnel practice indicates that large public or organizations should have some sort of a program for systematically dealing with suggestions made by employees. Such program is usually of most value to an organization in terms of __A) Giving an objective basis for employees evaluation and rating __B) Fostering a sense of participation in individual employees __C) Keeping lower level of supervision on their toes __D) Developing a competitive spirit between employees and employee groups __E) Effecting long range monetary savings to the organization 352. The supervisor of division B. who receives work from division A and passes it on to division C, decides that the total flow of work could be speeded up by the addition of a cover sheet indicating status of the item of work at all times.Whenever practicable, the best first step for supervisor B to take would be to __A) Discuss the change informally with supervision A and C __B) Discuss the change thoroughly with the staff of his division __C) Examine the operations of division A and C in detail to determine how the change will affect them __D) Develop a description of the revised procedures and forward it to his superior indicating the savings that will result if it is adopted __E) Report his idea to the planning or coordinating official with a draft of the suggested form 353. Incoming telephone calls at police headquarters should be __A) Channeled in order of importance __B) Given immediate importance __C) Given low priority __D) Answered only after regular business is completed __E) All of the above 354. The development and use of an effective communications system theoretically gives greatest impetus to which of the following organizational principles? __A) Span of control __B) Line of command __C) Unity of command __D) Delegation of authority __E) All of the above

355. For good administrator, matters requiring a supervisors written approval before final action may be taken should __A) Be reduced to a minimum __B) Include practically all matters of more than momentary importance __C) Not be definitely specified 356. Authorities in the field recommend locating the communications outer in the records division under the or not of the records officer primarily because. __A) The training for records and communications is similar __B) Control of the line division heads concerned with prompt dispatch and motilization of men is more effective __C) The communications center usually prepares the original records of complaints received __D) Communications control should like in an operating division __E) The records officer usually has more rank than the communication officer 357. Police radio primarily is important because it increases the speed of police action and observed it

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__A) Provides a sense of security to patrolling officer __B) Attracts better men to the police service __C) Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force __D) Aids the department in containing public acceptance of its crime __E) All of the Above 358. Effective communication within an organization the interchange of thoughts, ideas and opinions requires that the lines of communication be essentially __A) Upward, downward and across __B) Upward __C) Downward __D) Across __E) Upward and downward with communication across the organization actively discouraged 359. On special occasion, members of the Police Department may be directed to report directly to their place of assignment in uniform. The most likely reason for this special arrangement is to __A) Eliminate the roll call __B) Save traveling time __C) Insure complete coverage __D) Make it easier for the men to get there __E) All of the above 360. What unit of the Police Department is best suited and primarily responsible for taking direct action when a crime has been committed? __A) Patrol __B) Criminalistics Division __C) Inspection __D) Criminal investigation __E) Medico-legal officer 361. In establishing shift hours, the greatest degree of efficiency is provided when there is the __A) Largest load fluctuation between shifts __B) Largest load fluctuation within a given shift __C) Smallest load fluctuation between shifts __D) Smallest load fluctuation within a given shift 362. The most important consideration in locating a police station is __A) Near working center of police activities __B) Center of civilization __C) Zonning restricting __D) Convenience to public __E) All of the Above 363. In a division in which straight eight-hour shifts are used, which of the following provides the best basis for determining the breaking point for the watches? __A) Watchers should be so broken that maximum manpower is available at the time of greatest need __B) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services tends to be equal for all watches __C) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services is at a minimum at the breaking times __D) Watches should be so broken that in each watch the load is greater in the first half of the watch than in the second half of the watch

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__E) All of the above 364. The division of a given area into patrol district can be most validly made in such a way that requirements of each district tend to be equal. These requirements are best determined considering __A) The area to be covered in each district __B) Both the area and the number of occurrences __C) The number of people residing and working in the area at any given time in each district __D) The number of occurrences in each district which require police attention __E) Both the population density and the frequency of occurrences, that is crimes per capita per unit area 365. Deployment of patrol forces is ordinarily made according to some measure of the nedd for police service. Which of the following is the least valid factor which might be used as, or included in a measure of such need. __A) Property loss in pesos __B) Number of complaints __C) Amount of inspection and routine patrol required __D) Number of arrest __E) Number of crimes committed 366. In deployment as well as in other matters. It is frequently said that the patrol force is the backbone of the police department. The best reason for this is that __A) The patrol function is largely preventive in nature __B) The patrol function is very wide in scope __C) Community welfare is more directly served by patrol than by the more specialized services __D) Patrol is the only service which carries out the basic police function; other divisions are basically regulatory or administrative __E) The patrol force is of service to a greater number of people that are the specialized services 367. The need for patrol services may be defined in terms of the man-hours required for the various duties which a patrolman performs or may be called open to perform. The main disadvantage of using such man-hour requirements as a basis for assignment and deployment of a patrol force is that.. __A) Time standards cannot be actually established for many patrol duties __B) A few non-standard or irregular occurrences can unbalance the entire deployment program __C) While time standards can be determined with reasonable accuracy, the man-hour requirement for any one watch cannot __D) The morale of the patrol division will be reduced because the patrolmen will infer a speed-up from such standards __E) With the exception of very large patrol divisions, application of such standards results in split shifts and variable reporting times. 368. The concept of performance budgeting is generally contrasted with budgeting by __A) Source of Revenue __B) Object of Expenditure __C) Time and/or distance __D) Economy __E) All of the Above

369. Closed specification for the purchase of equipment are considered to be conirary to good public policy specifically in that they are likely to result __A) Collusion between suppliers and public officials

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__B) Equipment with inferior materials and/or workmanship __C) Equipment with far exceeds public service requirements __D) Difficulty in securing replacement parts __E) All of the above 370. Of the following, the chief advantage of central purchasing is the saving that is made possible through.. __A) A better balance of supplies and more prompt delivery services __B) Lower unit costs and better discount terms on larger quantities __C) The improvement of uniforms standards and specifications __D) The lessened expense of buying and maintaining supplies __E) A more efficient routine for processing purchases 371. In order to make sure that necessary supplies will be on hand when wanted, the supply officer should __A) Take inventory once a month to see what supplies need to be reordered __B) Decide on reserve minimum for each kind of supplies and reorder when that minimum is reached __C) When a new supply of an article comes in decide how long it should last and order more immediately __D) Secure an estimate of needed supplies from those people who use the article. __E) Order the years supply on the record of last years consumption 372. Budgeting in a police department is primarily a phase of __A) Planning __B) Commanding __C) Coordinating __D) Staffing __E) All of the above

373. It is the sum total of the police with the people it serves and whose good will and cooperation it craves for the greatest possible efficiency in public service. __A) Public Relations __B) Police Community Relations __C) Police Public Relations __D) Human Relations __E) Rapport 374. The fact of bringing about better understanding, confidence and acceptance for an individual or an organization. __A) Public Relations __B) Police Community Relations __C) Police Public Relations __D) Human Relations __E) All of the above 375. The continuing process by which endeavors are made to obtain the good will and cooperation of the public for the effective enforcement of the law and the accomplishment of the police purpose. __A) Police Community Relations __B) Police Public Relations __C) Public relations __D) Human Relations 376. Consists of those fundamental precepts, both moral and legal, which govern the relationship of man in all aspects of life.

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__A) Human Relations __B) Public relations __C) Police Public Relations __D) Police Community Relations 377. The best public relations between the police and the public exist when the public attitude is one of __A) Confidence, respect and approval __B) Tacit Acceptance __C) Indifference __D) Resignation to exercised authority 378. Favorable public opinions are desirable today because __A) It will make possible great expansion of the organization __B) Our living patterns are interwoven with those of our neighbors __C) It will cut competition to a minimum __D) Of the extreme rapidity and ease which they can change, reversed or started on an entirely new approach 379. The best measured of public opinion of the police department may be obtained by __A) Degree to which the community voluntarily cooperates with the police department in the performance of their duties __B) Noting the opinion expressed in an adequate sample of news-paper articles __C) Keeping a check on the number of complaints and commendations of police which come in __D) The daily contacts of uniform police officers with the public __E) All of the above 380. In determining public attitudes between the police and the public the most important medium is the __A) Print Mass Media __B) Radio and Television __C) Individual Policeman __D) P.R.O __E) All of the above 381. While the wise police administrator does not attempt to conceal polite news from the press, he may occasionally find it necessary to designate a case or activity as being Offthe Record. If the above statement is applicable to field of a police functions more than to any other, that field would most probably be __A) Vice __B) Intelligence __C) Internal discipline __D) Investigation __E) All of the above

382. From a police officers viewpoint, public relations is primarily __A) A method of winning the confidence of the public __B) A means of improving contacts with the public __C) Something which effects them but for which they have very personal concern __D) His attitude toward the public while on duty __E) All of the Above 383. The best criterion of a patrolmans performance of his duties is.. __A) The fact that he is never absent

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__B) The publics attitude toward him __C) The number of summonses he issues daily __D) His record and seniority rating __E) All of the above 384. A newspaper reporter learns of a case in which a police office alleged in have been implicated in a criminal complaint. He tells the said police officer that he wants to expand his information to a feature story. The police officer should __A) Supply all necessary details so that article will be accurate __B) Refer him to his division head even thought the division head is not familiar with the details __C) Give the details on the conduct at he represent the department in a sympathetic light __D) Given him the details on the that he allow him to read the copy before printing __E) None of the Above 385. Individual policemen are the most important factor in determining public attitudes toward the police. It concluded that efforts policemen to improve public attitudes should be largely directed toward __A) The creation of as many favors public contacts is possible __B) Tolerant enforcement of minor reculatory statutes and ordinances __C) Insuring that the policeman in exemplary cozen __D) All of the above 386. Immediately after a newsworthy arrest has been made an accredited newspaper reporter enters the police headquarters ad raidest certain information about the arrest which he desk officer is should not be divulged because the ends of justice defeated of the following the best answer the desk officer should give the reporter in this situation is __A) I an sorry but you must know that I am unable to give you the information you seek. __B) I am sorry but the police department rules and regulations prevent me from giving you the information __C) Such information involves in that matters which cannot be disclosed. __D) Please wait until the story is released by the proper police authorities through the department channels. __E) All of the above 387. Of the following steps in the planning of a Community Relations Program. One of the following should be undertaken first is to __A) Study the public with which the police department deals __B) Contact editors of local news __C) Develop procedures for dealing with the public __D) Establish civilian complaint procedures __E) Train personnel in public contacts 388. In his contact with the public a patrolman should pay most attention to the __A) Character of the police he talks to __B) Time when the contacts are made __C) Impression he creates __D) Attitude of the public toward time __E) All of the above 389. Of the following, the best argument for publicizing both the plans involved in an efficient road blockade and the police activity involved in actually applying them is that. __A) The public, being forewarned, could not validly complain of any inconvenience to which it might be subjected

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__B) All plans which affect the public should be given full publicity __C) Publicity would probably be instrumental in reducing the number of criminals who escape such blockade __D) Adequate publicity would insure constructive criticism __E) The potential criminal would hesitate to break the law, hence his activities would be hampered CODE OF ETHICHS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT (57 QUESTION) 390. Is that branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer owes to the public and community. __A) Police Ethics __B) Police Profession __C) Courtesy __D) Loyalty __E) All of the above

391. The Basic idea of government in the Philippines is that of a _______. The officers being mere against and not rulers of the people, one where no one man or set of men has propriety or contractual right to an office, but where every officer accepts office pursuant to the provisions of law and holds the office as a trust for the people whom he represents. The word or phrase which the best fills the blank in the above paragraph is __A) Representative Government __B) A public office is a public trust __C) Democratic Ideal __D) Autocratic 392. It is the essence of good manners; it is a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and culture. __A) Morale __D) Loyalty __B) Discipline __E) All of the above 393. Is everyones duty and obligation, regardless of his intelligence, degree of instruction, education social standing, religion, sect, or color, and etc __A) Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution __B) Loyalty and Love of Country __C) Public office is a Public trust __D) Code of Ethics __E) All of the above 394. Public officers and employees shall serve with the highest degree of responsibility, integrity, loyalty and efficiency and shall remain accountable to the people. __A) Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution __B) Loyalty and Love of Country __C) Public office is a Public trust __D) Code of Ethics __E) All of the above 395. A police officer on the witness stand is not called upon to express his view about the case, nor to tell what he heard others say about it, nor to make a speech. Of the following the most accurate statement of his situation is that __A) Be courteous __B) Do not volunteer __C) Nothing but the truth __D) All of the Above

396. To tell the facts as they are in the sole function of a police officer on the witness stand

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__A) Be courteous __B) Do not volunteer

__C) Nothing but the truth __D) All of the Above

397. Police officer shall treat official business as such, and shall not impart the same to anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior officer, or as required by law. __A) Criminal Investigation __B) Confidential Information __C) Confession __D) All of the above

398. A person making a complaint to an officer which seems unreasonable and of little importance. Of the following the best action for the officer to take is __A) Listen to the person making the complaint and tell him that the matter will be investigated __B) Criticize the person making the complaint for taking up valuable time __C) Tell the person that any one responsible for his grievance will be prosecuted __D) Tell the person to make a formal written complaint and make it broadcast over radio station __E) All of the above 399. The importance of public support in law enforcement cannot be over-emphasized. This is true primarily because __A) Substantial public support increases the morals of police __B) The police cannot be adequately perform their functions unless reinforced by the cooperation of the public __C) The public is the sole determinant of the quality of police performance __D) The public is the best source of moonlighting __E) All of the above 400. It is an accepted fact that a police officer has no private life as long as he remains in the police department, whether on or off duty. Such that he is subject to unrelenting scrutiny and critical analysis of the public he serves. Of the following, the most supportable deduction for a police officer to make from this statement is that __A) PNP members should recognize it, accept it and govern their activities, on or off duty, accordingly __B) It indicates the need for more rigid self-regulation by the PNP members than now exists. __C) It is unfair, since it establishes a higher code of conduct for one type of public employment __D) PNP rules should be liberally interpreted in favor of police personnel to offset the higher standard demanded __E) PNP members are expected to be robocops 401. Means more than reporting to work on time it involves as well every detail of the policemans daily activity. __A) Protection of the underdog. __B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty,etc __C) Maltreatment of prisoners __D) Due process of law __E) All of the Above 402. In all contractual property or other relations, when the parties is at a disadvantage on account of his moral dependence, ignorance, mental, weakness, tender age or other handicap, the police must be vigilant for the protection of his party. __A) Protection of the underdog. __B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty,etc __C) Maltreatment of prisoners

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__D) Due process of law __E) All of the Above 403. May be committed by a police officer who shall overdo himself if in the correction or handling of a prisoner or detention prisoner under his charged, by the imposition of punishment not authorized by the regulation, or by inflicting such punishment in a cruel and humiliating manner. __A) Maltreatment of prisoner __B) Due process __C) Protection of the underdog __D) All of the above 404. If a statute is unpopular, it is the police office who must bear the brunt of public resentment when it is enforced. In view of this situation, the one of the following policies most likely to assist in the over all attainment of law enforcement objective is.. __A) Selective enforcement procedures should be used __B) Specific public relations techniques should be used __C) Specially trained groups should enforce such laws in an attempt to allay popular resentment __D) The police should not make a sincere enforcement effort despite the unpopularity of the law __E) None of the above 405. During the period immediately following his appointment, the assignment of a new appointee may be charged from one type of work to another every few weeks. The chief advantage of rotation of new appointee in this manner is that it __A) Gives the new appointee an understanding of his department as a whole __B) Allows the new appointee to devote all of his time to a single type of work __C) Keeps the new appointee continually under the same supervising officer __D) Eliminates the need for additional training __E) None of the above 406. A proper thing to do for police officer who leaves the police service, either by retirement, resignation, suspension or dismissal from the service thereof, losses/terminates himself from being a member of the PNP. __A) Usurpation of authority __B) Surrender of Property __C) Illegal use of Uniform or insignia __D) None of the above 407. it is just as much the duty of a policeman to ascertain or see that a person suspected of any criminal offenses are not deprived of their statutory or constitutional rights as it is to convict them of crimes of which they may be suspected. __A) Civil liberties __B) Due process __C) Under custodial investigation __D) Democratic ideal __E) All of the above 408. As a rule, police officer is not allowed permitted to engage any other business or calling. __A) Moonlighting __B) Bribery __C) Immorality __D) On or Off duty __E) All of the above

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409. Is the omission or refuraly without sufficient excuse, to be form in act or duty, which it is the on legal obligation to perform. __A) Bribery __B) Neglect of duty or non-feasance __C) Misconduct of malfeasance __D) Incompetence 410. doing either through ignorance, instruction or , of that which the police officer had no legal right to at all as where he acts without authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers. __A) Misconduct or malfeasance __B) Neglect of duty of non-feasance __C) Incompetence __D) Dishonesty 411. In the manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance of official duties by reason of the officers vice or hours duties. __A) Neglect of duty of non-feasance __B) Incompetence __C) Dishonesty __D) Disloyalty 412. Is the concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fart relevant to ones office, or connected with the performance of his duties. __A) Incompetence __B) Dishonesty __C) Disloyalty __D) All of the above

413. Consist of abandonment or renunciation of ones loyalty in the government of the Philippines, or advocating the overthrow of the government. __A) Dishonesty __B) Disloyalty __C) Treason __D) All of the above

414. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle conversation while on duty. Specifically this prohibition refers to __A) Gossip and Idle Talk __B) Vexing of humiliating another __C) Communication outside organization __D) All of the above 415. Failure of a police officer to discover a condition requiring police attention, within a reasonable time after arriving on his post. In affect a police officer must be __A) Attitude toward profession __B) Constantly on alert in any eventuality __C) Malingering __D) All of the above 416. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or bundle unless it is needed in the performance of his duty. The likelihood the said officer will be misinterpreted to __A) Have accepted favors __B) A trim appearance while in uniform is important __C) Be a comprador for his wife

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__D) All of the above 417. When a police officer arrives at his assigned post, the first thing he should do is __A) Answer the call of nature __B) Secure a folding bed and sleep __C) Inspect the post __D) Call and inform his wife of his whereabouts 418. A police officer must wear his uniform securely buttoned at all times because. __A) A complete uniform attracts chicks __B) A neat appearance commands respect __C) Loose clothing is likely to catch obstruction __D) All of the above 419. The main responsibility of a supervising police officer is to __A) See that required work is done properly __B) Insure an atmosphere of mutual trust between his men and himself __C) Make certain that all his men are treated equally as to assigned duties __D) Create a receptive attitude toward the objective of the department __E) All of the above 420. The police supervisors should realize that the performance of unpleasant duties is generally __A) Unavoidable; it is a part of his responsibility as a leader __B) Undesirable; they should be avoided whenever possible __C) Predictable; mistakes follow an established pattern __D) All of the above 421. In order to assure effective supervision, which one of the following is the most important for a newly supervisor to know when he begins his job? __A) History and progress of the department __B) Progress of other department doing related work __C) Nature and scope of authority in each field in which he functions __D) The public relations activities of the department 422. In the motivation of employees, financial incentives are best regarded as __A) Necessary but not alone sufficient __B) The essence __C) Desirable, but of now fundamental importance __D) Unrelated to the problem of motivation __E) Completely unnecessary if supervisors is adequate 423. Intelligent supervision on the part of superior officers will.. __A) Eliminate personal animosity among subordinates __B) Improve the efficiency of the force as a whole __C) Ease his promotion to the next higher rank __D) All of the above 424. All of the following, except one are factors of successful supervision. __A) Set a good example by the proper use of the command function __B) Feel that people are individual and consider their experience, training and personality __C) Remember that a command will get employees to produce more work than with a suggestion or request

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__D) Recognize the continued importance of personal contacts with members of his command 433. Minor offense, if repeatedly committed may eventually constitute __A) Serious offense of habitual dereliction __B) Summary dismissal from the service __C) Discipline __D) Punitive Punishment __E) None of the above 434. The citizens complaints may be brought before, where the offence is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period not exceeding fifteen (15) days. __A) City or Municipal Mayor __B) Chief of Police __C) Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) __D) All of the above 435. Where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen (16) days but not exceeding thirty(30) days, the citizens complaints shall be brought before. __A) City or Municipal Mayor __B) Chief of Police __C) Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) __D) Lupong Tagapayapa __E) All of the above 436. Where the offense is punishable by withholding or privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof for a period exceeding thirty (30) days; dismissal. __A) Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) __B) Chief of Police __C) City or Municipal Mayor __D) Lupong Tagapayapa __E) All of the above 437. Discipline must be strict but not devoid of personal sympathy or understanding. In effect, this statement is best illustrated by the superior officer who. __A) Treats his subordinates equally regardless of personal sympathy __B) Manifest command that are clear and understanding __C) Investigates the reason of a subordinates infractions or violations __D) All of the Above 438. A superior officer who encourages or permits his subordinates to come directly to him with any question or grievance. __A) Creates an intolerable situation for his unit commanders __B) Is a man of principle __C) Is self disciplinarian __D) Is serving to better integrate his organization __E) None of the above 439. Usually the most important controlling factor in disciplining or reprimanding a subordinate by a superior police officer should be to.

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__A) Maintain discipline __B) Improve the effectives and morale of the men __C) Uphold department rules and regulations __D) Conduct outright investigation __E) All of the above 440. From among the many procedures, the first obligation of a supervisor in any matter requiring disciplinary action is to. __A) Learn all the facts of the matter __B) Transfer the subordinates concerned to other work __C) Said him out on __D) him to avail tick leave __E) All of the above 441. A subordinate police supervisor was called avory from an assignment he was . He left his subordinate in charge. When he returned he found that the assignment was not properly completed. Upon being reprimarided by his Superior Officer for the mistake the subordinate supervisor shoul. __A) his subordinate left in charge __B) responsibility for error __C) the entire working on the assignment __D) and pass a memo to his superior officer not surprises to be blames is all.

among other things that he is

442. What disciplinary measure to you think will most likely to produced discontentment and grievance. __A) Unusual strictness __B) sistent administration __C) Severity of punishment __D) Impersonal attitude __E) Standardized punishment 443. As a to of effective supervisor, discipline is __A) Control __B) Punishment __C) Authority __D) Training draw his except for. regarded as a from of.

444. The general rule is that a member of the PNP __A) Necessary apprehension of criminals __B) Necessary inspector or lawful use __C) Necessary target practice __D) All of the above

445. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not should avoid unpleasant habits which affect not only himself as An individual member, but also the whole organization where he belongs. __A) Sleeping and Loafing on duty __B) Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs __C) Partisan political activities __D) Absolute morality CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST (9 QUESTION)

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447. This statement that : Every person admitted to the practiced of criminology as a Registered Criminologist shall accept as a sacred obligation and responsibility as citizen to support the Constitution of the Philippines and as Registered Criminologist to defend the principles of liberty as defined the constitution and law. Refers to what primary responsibility of a responsibility of a Registered Criminologist? __A) Be loyal to his profession __B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines __C) Conduct towards the public __D) Private conduct 448. A Registered Criminologist shall strive to improve his effectiveness by diligent study and sincere attention to improvement and welcome the opportunity and useful information relating to matters according in the benefit of public safety and welfare. This statement refers to __A) Be loyal to his profession __B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines __C) Conduct towards the public __D) Private conduct 449. Which one of the following does not or is not included from among the first duty of a criminologist as upholder of the law? __A) to know its upon him __B) Be aware of and prescription __C) To recognize the system of government that gives to no man, group or institution absolute power __D) He must ensure that he is a prime defender of that system and as such must Pervert its character __E) He must not refuse a consultancy profession to anyone, including the bad elements of the society 450. That a Registered Criminologist shall recognize the limitation of his authority and at use the power of his profession for personal advantage. As such , in the performance of his duty be __A) Just __B) Imperial and reasonable __C) Never according anyone more preferential treatment than another __D) All of the above 451. That in the private conduct a Registered Criminologist must. __A) Be mindful of his special identification by the public as an upholder of the law __B) Never be tax in the conduct or manner in private life, express disrespect for the law, nor weak to gain special privilege that would be reflective upon the profession __C) So conduct his private life that the public will regard his as an example of stability, fidelity and morality __D) All of the Above 452. That in the Private Conduct, a registered Criminologist must.. __A) Strive to elevate the standing of the profession in the public mind __B) Strengthen public confidence in law enforcement __C) Develop and maintain comp lose support and cooperation of public __D) Insure the effectiveness by encouraging complete cooperation of members of their mutual benefit __E) All of the above

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453. This one Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologist necessarily requires a criminologist to remind at times that dignity, fairness and genuine willingness top help are essential to his public image and his ability to do a good job; to me mindful of his responsibility to the whole community, deal with individuals of the community in a manner calculated to instill respect for its law and his profession; shall be habitually courteous and accept his responsibility by being punctual and expeditions in his engagement and duties; and shall regard his profession as a public trust and in the discharge of his duty, bear constantly in mind is obligations to serve the public efficiency and effectively. __A) Conduct towards the public __B) Private conduct __C) Attitude towards profession __D) Limitation of authority 454. Which on of the following does not or is not included in the Criminologists Attitude towards Profession? __A) Shall strive to make this best application of science to the solution of crime. By diligent study and sincere attention to self-improvement, and in the fields of human relationships, some for effective leadership and public influence in matters affecting public __B) Shall the importance and responsibility of his profession as an honorable are rendering valuable service to his community and country. Shall strive to attain certain technical and professional conclusions capable of the most examination particularly from criminologist and __C) Shall avoid influence from over and over clients and his findings shall be based absolutely and entirely on logical and scientific deduction derived from him and impartial examination personally performed by him __D) To improve his/her financial and social standing in what ever means and source after three(3) years from the date he/she secured his/her license as Criminologist 456. When we speak of attitude towards fellow criminologist refer to __A) The criminologist shall strive constantly to improve professional standing of criminology through association with others in the profession and abreast with the fast moving world of science and technology through consist research and development __B) He shall cooperate fully with fellow criminologist regardless of personal prejudices. He should however, be assumed that which action is proper and in accordance with law and the use of his office or person, knowingly or unknowingly in any improper or illegal action. He must always bear in mind at all times that it not sufficient to be proficient in ones work. Be also have a high sense of justice, a belief in dignity and work of all men and a proper motivation and attitude. He must posses a sense of dedication to his profession and a sense of duty and obligation to his fellowmen. __C) He shall cooperate with fellow criminologist and public officials to the end that safety and general welfare of the public will be assured, never permitting jealousies or personal indifference to influence their professional duties and obligations __D) All of the above POLICE SUPERVISION (24 question)

456. A superior officer can best obtain good supervisory relationship with his subordinates by. __A) Being lenient at all times __B) Being mildly friendly with them __C) Extending financial loan to them __D) Acting distant and aloof __E) All of the Above

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457. A patrolman assigned to your division does better than average work but constantly complains about his work to other man, thereby adversely affecting their morale. What do you think is the most advisable for you to do as a superior officers? __A) Have a confidential talk with him and try to secure his cooperation but otherwise refuse to show him any special consideration. __B) Request his transfer since your primary obligation is to faster the morale of your command as a whole __C) Give him additional work to do so he will have less time to complain __D) All of the Above 458. From among the following what do you think is the best justification for a newly appointed superiors officer to learn as much as possible about the men under his new supervision from their previous supervisor? __A) Best results in handling men are usually obtained by treating them equally without favor __B) Effective handling of men is often based upon knowledge of individual personality differences __C) Some subordinates often function more effectively under one supervisor than under another supervisor __D) Confidence of the men in their supervisor is increased when they know he is interested in impartial and fair supervision 459. Let us assume that you have two (2) subordinate officers under your command. One is constantly referring problems to your decision. While the other seems to never have problems requiring referral. Of the first subordinate officer, what appropriate situation can you say of him? __A) Has not been delegated sufficient authority __B) Has not fully assumed authority given him __C) Has more difficult problems than the other subordinate officer __D) Enjoys better relations with you personally than the other subordinate officer 460. If your subordinate officer seems to crave your commands approval for everything that he does it would be most logical for you to conclude that subordinate officer is __A) Trying to impress you with his desire to please __B) Lacking in self-confidence __C) Trying to cover up for some deficiency __D) Lacking in ability to do the work 461. A member of the PNP comes to his supervisor asking for ten (10) minutes of his time to discuss personal problem. According to most writers on supervision, usually in a situation like this the supervisor should. __A) Try to help said PNP member think through the problem an arrive at his own solution without direct advise for supervisor __B) Listen sympathetically and given whatever advice he can __C) Refer the PNP member to the personnel officer of Department __D) Decline to discuss such matters during working hours but that said PNP member meet with the supervisor after work discuss his problem 462. Which of the following is generally regarded by authorities on supervisor at the most frequent cause of employee dissatisfaction? __A) Failure to reprimand while matter is still hot __B) Failure to prepare the employees for changes in policies and procedures __C) and literal interpretation and application of office rules and regulations __D) Failure to introduce more up-to-date methods as rapidly and possible

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463. A police officer informs his supervisor that he believes that a certain police sergeant is to strict in supervising all his subordinates, especially when compared with the supervision carried out by other sergeant in the same command. What do you think is the best advice said supervisor can give? __A) Tell the police officer that you will conduct your own investigation of the situation __B) Tell the police officer that acceptance of the supervision is part of his job __C) Remind the police officer that his supervisor is often subject to severe supervision __D) Tell the police officer to request for his transfer to some other unit 464. A good attitude for police supervisor to obtain the confidence of his is to. __A) Fraternize with all his subordinates __B) Be a friendly-like attitude __C) Make no promises unless they can be fulfilled __D) All of the above 465. One of the of interest in the job on the part of subordinates is that fact that they ask question. Such question are of value chiefly because they. __A) Indicates the efficiency of the men involved __B) Can be utilized as part of the training process __C) Provide an excellent guide to the reassignment of subordinates __D) Serve to entrance the status of the supervisor when he answers him __E) All of the above 466. In cases involving infraction of rules and regulations by newly recruited policemen, the superior officer should. __A) Temper discipline with understanding __B) Tolerate infraction for a short time __C) Be particularly strict to impress them with a sense of duty __D) Treat every infraction alike regardless of the violation 467. If a subordinate police officer is emotionally upset when he comes to the supervisor with a problem, the supervisor should in all likelihood. __A) Help the subordinate police officer to become calm before attempting to discuss the problem __B) Allow the employee to take his day off __C) Give an immediate decision satisfactory to the employee __D) Inquire into the subordinate policemans personal problems for the cause of the emotional disturbance 468. The main purpose of letting the employee know about the personnel policy of an organization is an __A) Get them to accept the policies __B) Maintain morale and efficiency __C) Work hard for promotion __D) Induce loyalty 469. Which of the following is the best way to handle a patrolmans grievance request which you know cannot be granted? __A) Explain why his request cannot be granted __B) Show him so unreasonable his request is __C) Deny the request without explanation __D) Tell him to take it or leave it

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470. In dealing with a new policemen, a good supervisor. __A) Praises work which is above standard and constructively criticizes work below standard __B) Praises the new policeman even if he does not come up to what he should __C) Asks an older policeman to tell the new policeman the supervisor thinks his work is satisfactory __D) Comments nothing 471. One of the maxims of supervisory leadership is Know your men. If a newly appointed supervisor, with no previous knowledge of the group he is to take charge of, was to undertake to do this, what would ordinarily be the best thing to do first? __A) Conduct a short, informal interview with each man __B) Get personnel records including personal background __C) Get informal, unwritten opinions of several previous supervisors of each man __D) Organized a program, and let them introduce to you individually 472. Which one of the following is the best way of beginning a constructive criticism of the report your subordinate had prepared for you? __A) You will never learn how to write better if you keep this up __B) You know you can do better work than this __C) This is the pretty food, but Ill tell you how you can make it better __D) This is partly right, now take it back and fix it up __E) It is not the way I would have written it myself, but Ill sign if anyway 473. In his individual relationship the best of the following ways for a officer to secure cooperation from his subordinates and to increase their work output is. __A) Ask for their suggestions and act on good ones __B) Lead them around by the hand, so to speak __C) Agree enthusiastically with them in all manners __D) Utilize the tricks of the trade to get around them and get them to do what you want them to 474. A kind of supervisor who promptly conducts a complete and formal hearing as soon as a despite among his subordinates comes to his attention. __A) Misguided __B) Paternalistic __C) Tyrannical __D) democratic __E) One-fried

475. From among the following, what do you think is the most thing to do when your superior officer complains to you concerning serious error on the part of your subordinates? __A) Tell your superior that you sincerely hope that not happen again __B) Assure him that you will check on it to present a similar mistake the future __C) Accept the complaint and report the subordinate for disciplinary action __D) Hate that you cannot do more than the work of our subordinates __E) Advice him that such mistakes are when emergencies and men are under pressure 476. A certain subordinate always goes by the book and justifies his every action by reference to the police manual. Your best course of action is. __A) Ignore the matter as hopeless __B) Hold the subordinates responsible for an intelligent observance of the police Manual __C) Advice the subordinate to use his own judgment regardless of the Manual __D) Assign and transfer him to research division

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477. From among the following which one is the important justification for a periodic rotation of the subordinate members of the PNP from one assignment to another? __A) Encourage alertness on their part? __B) Discourage requests for transfers from one type of assignment to another __C) Make each member equally efficient in all phases of the work __D) Develop traits initiative and independence 478. Which of the following duties and responsibilities of a superior officers may best be delegated to one of his subordinates under his supervision? __A) Keeping records and making reports __B) Cooperation with other supervision and units __C) Planning and scheduling __D) Assignment of personnel 479. Which of the following responsibilities that a superior officer should never delegates to any of his subordinates under his supervision? __A) Representation of management to the men and the men to the management __B) Write-up of necessary reports __C) Supervision over a function for which he is responsible __D) Development of now procedures which will affect all the men in his command CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING (21 question ) 480. While relating traffic at an intersection, you saw a boy fall from a truck just half a block away. The boy is apparently injured. Now, what should you do? __A) Remain on your traffic post but request a passerby to call an ambulance __B) Call an ambulance, administer first aid if necessary and make a report. __C) Call your office, requesting that an ambulance be called and a patrolman sent to take charge and make a report __D) Arrest immediately the driver of the truck and order said driver to bring the boy to the nearest hospital for immediate medical attention 481. While regulating the traffic at a school crossing during school lunch hour, you are notified of a homicide about a block away. What do you think is the most appropriate action for you to do? __A) Go to the scene of the crime after notifying the principal of the school and your office of your absence __B) Advise your informant to call the police department and remain on your post __C) Notify the nearest police precinct and return to the traffic post immediately __D) Call an ambulance and request that the police department send an officer to take charge and report 482. Assume a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the only police officer around, you have been called upon by a passerby to proceed in the scene. Upon arriving at the scene, several onlookers are gathered. As a rule, it is essential that a police officer should refrain from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause of death because. __A) The killer may overhear your conclusion __B) You do not know the cause of death __C) No useful purpose will be served __D) Your opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case 483. A person rushes excitedly up to you and stammers that there is a dead man on the street. What would be your first action assuming you were the police officer concerned?

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__A) Verify the statement __B) Ask another police officer to notify the police department __C) Obtain the informers name and address __D) Keep on lookers back and see that nothing is disturbed 484. If a police officer hears a gasping cry of murder coming from a residence in which there has been no unusual disturbance, he should take which one of the following actions? __A) Summon other police officers and when they arrive rush in with them in a body __B) Go at once himself to the building, enter it cautiously and investigate __C) Report what he has heard to headquarters __D) Summon men from the streets and adjoining buildings and with them rush in a body 485. A police officer stops a physician, who is hurrying to treat an emergency case, for a misdemeanor traffic violation. He believes that the physician should be prosecuted but not arrested. The police officer should. __A) Take the physicians and the patients names and addresses and let the physician continue __B) Complete a citation by normal procedure, then the physician continue __C) Forget the citation as it should not be given under the circumstances __D) Follow the physician to the scene of the emergency case and issue the situation here __E) Call the persons who summoned the physician and the tell him there will be a delay 486. A mentally dangerous man has barricaded himself in a house with a number of small children inside. Which one of the following methods of approach by the officers outside the house would be best under the circumstances? __A) To be cases and agreeable in talking to the man in order to calm him __B) To rush the house with weapons ready in order to surprise the man __C) To throw near gas grenades into the house in order to drive cut the man __D) To anger the man with insults so that he will get things of his chest __E) To reason with the man and tell him how wrong he is 487. The police officer reported that he discovered the fire at 2 a.m or the second floor of a fourstory building. The in the stairway was very , so he procedure immediately to the and opened the sky light over the stairway. The police officers action this situation was. __A) Wise chiefly because hot gases and smoke were allowed to escape from the burning before they could do additional damage __B) Wise chiefly because fresh oxygen flowing through the skyline probably subsequent use of the stairway for rescue operation __C) Unwise chiefly because the fresh oxygen might have caused the flames to mushroom quickly through apartment doors __D) Unwise chiefly because the police officer should have confined his action to rescue work prior to the arrival of the firemen 488. It general, a member of the PNP will render most efficient service if he. __A) Observe unusual things __B) Stands in places __C) Is neatly attired __D) Makes detailed entries in his memorandum notebook 489. The administrator should know that in managing his division he should avoid. __A) Delegating necessary authority wherever responsibility has been assigned __B) Making subordinate responsible to more than one supervisor __C) Assigning definite responsibilities to his immediate subordinates __D) Keeping his employees currently informed about actions taken; now development, and other matters affecting their works

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490. If a superior officer of the police department cannot readily check all the work done in his office he should. __A) Delegate part of his work to a qualified subordinate __B) Refuse to take additional work __C) Work overtime until he can personally finish it all __D) Ask his wife to do some work for him 491. One of the following tasks of superior officer which can be most successfully delegated is.. __A) Handling discipline __B) Checking completed work __C) Reporting to the division chief __D) Responsibility for accomplishing the visions mission 492. The delegation of responsibility and authority to subordinate by their superior generally does not. __A) Involve a transfer of ultimate responsibility from superior to subordinate __B) Facilitate a division of labor or the development of specialization __C) Permit the superior to carry out programs of work that exceed his immediate personal limit of physical energy and knowledge __D) Result in a downward transfer of work both mental and manual 493. As division chief you find that one of your new unit heads is constantly legged down with detail work. This was not the case with his predecessors. The work load of the unit has remained the same. Of the following the most likely reason that this new unit head is so overloaded with his work is that. __A) Your division has too many will supervisors __B) He has failed to delegate some of the work to other members of his command __C) This unit has too much detail work assigned to it __D) He assigns to much important work to his subordinates 494. In a police administration functional allocation involves __A) The distribution of a number of subsidiary responsibilities among all levels of the police department __B) Decentralization of administrative responsibilities __C) Integration and the assignment of administrative power __D) The assignment of a single power to a single administrative power 495. Of the following what do you think is the most helpful action which may be taken immediately to eliminate frictions between your two subordinates officials who are in constant conflict in respect to the authority of one of the unit head to consult certain records in the office of the other? __A) Call both concerned parties into a conference and explain the necessity for cooperation __B) Define the authority of each unit head __C) Reprimand both unit heads __D) Transfer one of them to another office 496. Of the following a recognized procedure for avoiding conflicts in the delegation of authority is to. __A) Use the linear method of assignment __B) Assign all related work to the same control __C) Provide a workable span of control __D) Review all assignments periodically

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497. A principle which must be recognized by officers of superior rank is that the most constructive aspect of leadership are those which are exercised face-to-face. The superior officer who recognizes this principle will. __A) Place major responsibility for the execution of duties on immediate superior of the men involved __B) Make certain that members in his command realize that orders are made upon his authorization __C) Avoid situations which require direct control of the actions of subordinates several ranks below him __D) Insist that communications from his office to members in his command be as short and direct as possible __E) All of the Above 498. A recently developed practice in administration favors reducing the number of levels of authority in an organization, increasing the authority delegated to the subordinates. This practice would most likely result in. __A) An increase in detailed information that flows to a superior from each subordinates __B) An increase in the span of control exercised by superiors __C) A decrease in the number of functions performed by the organization __D) A decrease in the responsibility exercised by the subordinates 499. To delegate work is one of the main functions of the superior. In delegating work, the superior should remember that even though and assignment is delegated to a subordinate, the superior ultimately is reasonable for seeing that the work is done. The most valid implication of the mutation for a superior is that he should. __A) Check the progress of delegated assignment periodically to make certain that the work is being done properly __B) Delegate as few difficult tasks as possible so as to minimize the consequence of inadequate performance by his subordinates __C) Delegate to his subordinates those tasks which be considers difficult or time consuming __D) Assign work to a subordinate without holding him directly accountable for carrying it out POLICE ADMINISTRATION (48 Question) 500. A personal conference is generally a more desirable procedure for a reprimanding a policeman that a public reprimand, chiefly because a. __A) Public reprimand may impair the moral of the individual __B) Public reprimand is more suitable for a group of two or three than for a single individual. __C) Private reprimand makes a better impression on the individual __D) Private reprimand can be accomplished more quickly and saves of time both the officer and his subordinates 501. The justification for encouraging a police officer to ask a questions about the paper performance of his duties is that __A) Learning by doing is an effective training principle __B) Confusion on even minor points may have serious consequences __C) The question and answer method is especially efficient when a large number of policemen must be trained __D) The policeman who asks questions demonstrate a lack of general orientation to the job 502. Assume that, as an officer, you are giving a subordinate under your supervision instructions to perform a rather complex assignment. Of the following, the best procedure to following in order to insure that he understands the instructions adequately is to.

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__A) Question him briefly concerning the chiefs aspects of the assignments __B) Have repeat the instructions word for word __C) Invite him to ask questions if he has any doubt __D) Be certain to check his performance as soon as he has completed the job 503. Which one of the following trait or ability most essential to a police officer __A) Very high intelligence __B) A high standard of personal honesty __C) Physical stamina and bearing __D) Absence of physical fear 504. Suppose that, as an officer, you observe that a newly appointed policeman under your supervision appears to be performing a specific assignment improperly. Which one of the following is the best reason for asking him to repeat the instruction he received? __A) It is often easier to review instructions that to repeat them __B) Instructions are sometimes misunderstood even by competent subordinates __C) Inefficiency on the part of the uniformed force may have serious consequences __D) The policeman obviously deserves a reprimand 505. Of the following which one is the most desirable procedure for a police officer to follow in order to keep policeman on their toes. __A) Test their knowledge and alertness frequently __B) Encourage initiative by delegating responsibility to the best policeman __C) Apply disciplinary measures for the violation of department rules and regulation impartially __D) To employ your private eye and ear. 506. A competent officer will be friendly with the man under his supervision that will avoid close familiarity. Of the following the best justification for this statement is that __A) Familiarity with the man may reveal lack of competence on the part of the officer __B) Familiarity between an officer and a policeman creates an appearance of special privilege __C) An officer can deal more competently with his man when he is not aware of their personal problems __D) A friendly attitude on the part of the officer towards his man is likely to create suspension on the part of the other subordinates 507.) From among the following, one is the chief justification why the competent superior officer will attempt to develop respect from, rather than fear on the part of the man under his supervision. __A) Man who respect a supervisor are likely to give more than the minimum required performance __B) Respect is base on the individual and fear is base on the organization as a whole __C) Respect of superiors is a general incentives whereas fear is a specific incentive __D) Experience has demonstrated that negative incentives are more effective than positive incentives 508. Suppose that your subordinate disagrees with the procedure we have prepared in outline for him to follow is carrying act a certain assignment. Of the following, what is the most desirable for you to tell this subordinate? __ A) That in police organization, like in military, orders must b\e carried out or discipline will be impaired __B) You will evaluate his objections to the procedure you have prepared and outlined __C) Said outlined has been used successfully for many years in the past __D) You merely carrying out the orders of your own superior 509. One of the following would probably contribute most to obtaining the maximum cooperation of subordinates in carrying out a change in a long established procedure

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__A) Hold staff conference to explain and discuss the changed procedure prior to its adoption __B) Make provision for abandoning the new procedure if it is not accepted by the majority of the staff __C) Give several weeks advance notice of the proposed change in procedure __D) Refrain from enforcing absolute compliance with the new procedure at the very beginning 510. When Subordinates never make complaints to their superior officer, this means that the letter is probably not. __A) Devoting sufficient time to checking up to the men __B) Fault finder __C) Sufficiently approachable by the men __D) Pushing the men sufficiently to achieve maximum work output 511. Your superior officer, discussing regulation with his subordinates, commented that, ought to recognize that our enters are mutual and that by working together, we can achieve our common objectives. This approach is. __A) Good; it recognized the status of the individual and avoid favoritism __B) Good; this attitude will promote cooperation between members in officer __C) Poor; on a feeling this way to men, the officer is inviting to much familiarity __D) Poor; such an approach invites excessive criticism and bickering 512. Based on experience, an officer who demonstrate most serious lack of leadership is the one who __A) Rarely delegates authority to his subordinates __B) Rarely as others to do what he himself is unwilling to do __C) Frequently praises subordinate in the presence of others __D) Consciously cries to set an example for the men __E) Allow the men to hold group meetings to discuss their work 513. One of the following is the best justification for having the limits of authority and responsibility in an organization like the police department. __A) Responsibility is the most properly mutual and interrelated __B) Overlapping authority will probably lead to conflicts __C) Some officers maybe more competent than others __D) Every organization will probably benefit by exchange of view points at parallel levels of authority 514. From among the following procedures, one is the most likely to lead to accomplishing aim for a superior officer to make certain that all required work is completed on time __A) Schedule the work in keep track of its progress __B) Required every subordinate to submit a daily work report __C) Hold each subordinate responsible for the work assigned to him __D) Impress your subordinates with the importance of getting work than on time 515. As an officer what is important for you to do regard to your relations with the men in your command? __A) Delegate your responsibility to them who will ultimately perform the work __B) Recognize that you have your own likes and dislikes and to compensate for them, that is, you must not allow your likes and dislikes to influence your actions __C) Avoid having likes and dislikes __D) Restrict your relations with the men to official business 516. As a senior officer who wants to have an effective leader of those men in your command, you must. __A) Delegate to each personal under u and equal amount of responsibility __B) Outline repeatedly and ingrate detail the work to be perform by each member of the command __C) Develop the asset of your man and encourage them to work for the good of the organization as a whole.

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__D) Utilize whatever motives for work you are able to discern in the men working under your command 517. Command responsibility means. __A) Each subordinates is held responsible for his own act __B) The chief executive alone his not responsible for all the act of his subordinate __C) Each superior officer is held responsible for the act of his subordinate __D) Discretionary authority should not be 518. Primary aim of discipline is to. __A) Prevent the occurrence of more serious offence __B) Help train the men involve __C) Punish the offender __D) Carry out the rules of the department 519. Responsibility for developing plans for specific areas should in general be left to the local officers in the area who will be called upon to in the emergency in the event it occurs rather than the officers in the central office. In effect such planning policy is. __A) Less effective; plans developed will not benefit from the experience of the whole department __B) More effective; there will be fewer misinterpretations execution and there will be a greater will to succeed __C) More effective; the officer in the local area are better equipped technically to setup valid plans then any central agency __D) Less effective; a central office can obtain the outstanding men in the department to plan each operation 520. Data and events relating to the detailed operations to the different units in the Police Department should be collated and periodically summarized and analyzed. The primary reason for this from the view point of the Department Chief. Is to. __A) Locate those operations which are unusually efficient or inefficient __B) Determine how much work the Department as a whole is doing __C) Compare the amount of word done by different kinds of units __D) Point out which men are most efficient 521. The morale of policemen is probably most closely dependent on the. __A) Situation existing at emergencies __B) Day-to-day working conditions and personal relations __C) Abilities of the superior officers __D) Tightness of discipline in the Department 522. A police officer may find that it is sometimes more efficiency to warm a subordinate than to institute action for more severe punishment. The most valid reason for this is that. __A) The warning may procedure a more cooperative attitude __B) The punishment is often inappropriate __C) Warnings always create a greater impression than punishment __D) Punishment is never a deterrent 523. Although human relations have large significance in the job of the police officer in the Police Department, it is not necessarily true that the. __A) Officer is part of the management of the Police Department __B) Ability to get along is the sole stock in trade of the Officer __C) Officer must be a leader in order to do his job well __D) Officer must be able to tell his men how to do their jobs in the right way

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524. Subordinates do not object to strict regulations if they. __A) Are enforced without basis and favor __B) Apply only to minor phases of the work __C) Result in improved department procedures __D) Believe the officer approves the regulation 525. A person attempts to conceal his inadequacies in certain activities by over indulging in some other activity because __A) He is compensating for his inadequacies __B) He has a delusion that he is inadequate in some activities __C) He is projecting the pleasure he finds in the former activities to the latter __D) He is trying to develop skills in the former activities by indulging in the latter 526. Assume that you are the Police Officer who learns that one of your best men wishes to transfer to another kind of work. Of the following what is the most appropriate action for you to take. __A) Discuss with the man the advantages of the kind of work he interested in __B) Find out if any personal problems have arisen that make a transfer desirable __C) Help the man locate another job with another unit of the Department __D) Ask the other man in your unit if anything is wrong with the present working conditions 527. These tasks of management which are directed towards the effective accomplishment of both the operations or primary functions, and the auxiliary or service functions. Otherwise stated, it is the policy making body of any organization. __A) Management __B) Administration __C) Auxiliary Services __D) Chain of Command

528. It is otherwise the implementing are of the administration of any organization. __A) Management __B) Administration __C) Auxiliary Services __D) Chain of Command

529. It aid the operating or line officers in the performance of their duties in any organization. __A) Management __B) Administration __C) Auxiliary Services __D) Chain of Command

530. This supports the principle of unity of command and keeps all intermediate superior officers informed, but it is time consuming, sometimes disastrously so in large organization. __A) Chain of Command __B) Auxiliary Services __C) Channel of Control __D) Channel of Contract

531. The channels of authority are established from top to the bottom of the chain. Through this chain, communications are transmitted, either starting or ending at the top executive. __A) Channel of Control __B) Channel of Contract __C) Chain of Command __D) Charts of Accomplishment

532. This is much simpler and quicker to go directly from one channel to another without having to clear through the top of the pyramid. __A) Channel of Control __B) Chain of Command __C) Charts of Accomplishment __D) Chronological Distribution

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533. It is a graphic picture showing the workings and accomplishments of the department as a whole organization. __A) Chronological Distribution __B) Charts of Accomplishment __C) Color of authority __D) Communicating (Basic Methods) 534. A supervisor needs to choose that method which will best accomplish his purposes, best meet the need of employees and the objectives of the organization. He must be realistic and practical. __A) Communicating ( Basic Methods) __B) Communication (Downward) __C) Color of Authority __D) Communication (Internal) 535. It is an apparent prima facie right authority. The presumption of authority which justifies the actions of an officer which derived from a badge, certificate, or writ, which is apparently legal. __A) Color of Authority __B) De Facao Authority __C) Delegated Authority __D) Deputized Authority

536. A form of communication keeping employees informed. A man cannot do his work unless he knows why he is doing it. __A) Communication (Internal) __B) Communication (Downward) __C) Color of Authority __D) Communication (Upward) 537. It is one whereby all members of a police organization are informed as to the primary police objectives and the understanding of the day-today problems and accomplishments. __A) Communication(Internal) __B) Communication (Upward) __C) Complaint Desk __D) Complaint Records 538. The needs of management to drawn up to it ideas, suggestions and knowledge of subordinates through the organization. And it may be accomplished through personal discussion, conferences, committees, memoranda, employee suggestions plans, etc. __A) Communication(Internal) __B) Communication (Upward) __C) Control Methods __D) Complaint Desk 539. The central or local point of a police department as which complaints are stated and recorded. __A) Complaint Records __B) Complaint Sheet __C) Complaint Desk __D) Communication (Upward)

540. It is a form with spaces for recording an incident and action taken by the department. It is otherwise, the basic record of offenses. __A) Complaint Records __B) Control Methods __C) Complaint Sheet __D) Crime Index

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541. It is one where cases reported to the police are classified by the nature of the complaint or case. So long as the nature of the complaint is recorded, it is relatively easy matter to locate a case even if the name and date have been their forgotten or misplaced. __A) Complaint Sheet __B) Police Blotter __C) Crime Index __D) Crime Statistics

542. A reported insurance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification. The field agent is the patrolman, detective or investigator or civilian who makes a report of the crime. __A) Crime Index __B) Complaint Sheet __C) Crime Statistics __D) Police Blotter

543. Which means the distribution of authority and responsibility from top management to lower intermediate officer or levels. __A) Delegation of Authority __B) Desired level of achievement __C) Decentralization __D) Centralization of Command

544. It is one where there is the appointment of a person to act for another or others. It is done in a form of downward authority; whereas, the responsibility flows upward, __A) Delegation of Authority __C) De Facto Authority __B) Decentralization __D) De jury Authority 545. This most be done is proportion to the frequency and seriousness of the police hazards incidents or conditions which are conductive to crime traffic accidents, etc. __A) Distribution of Patrol Force __B) Division of Work __C) Duty Manual __D) Enforcement Index 546. The work of an organization must be divided in such a way that similar functions will be grouped together and dissimilar functions separated. __A) Division of Work __B) Division of Function __C) Duty Manual __D) Enforcement Index 547. An authoritative guide to the departments organization, which describes produces and duties of officers assigned to particular tasks. __A) Division of Work __B) Division of Function __C) Enforcement Index __D) Duty Manual POLICE INTELLIGENCE (17 Questions) 548. A Chinese Philosopher who one said: if you know your enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles. If you know yourself but not the enemy, for every victory, you will suffer a defeat. If your know neither yourself nor the enemy, you are fool who will meet defeat in every battle. __A) Confucius __B) Sun Tzu __C) Chiang Kai-shek __D) Chu In Lai

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549. May be defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas. __A) Interrogation __B) Intelligence __C) Information __D) Investigation

550. It is defined as an evaluated and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major police problems. __A) Military Intelligence __B) Police Intelligence __C) Military Information __D) Police Investigation

551. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of either a monopoly, or virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a continuing financial profit. __A) Organized Crime __B) Criminal World __C) Criminal Syndicate __D) Mafia

552. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the hobo to the moneyed gangster or racketeers. __A) Criminal World __B) Organized Crime __C) Mafia __D) Criminal Syndicate

553. It is a stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome competitors. __A) Mafia __B) Criminal Syndicate __C) Criminal World __D) Organized Crime

554. A form intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential information that filter into the possession of the police, and the techniques employed in developing these lines of information. __A) Counter Intelligence __B) Undercover Intelligence __C) Departmental Intelligence __D) Strategic Intelligence 555. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable took of management it is derived from organized information available in the police records division which is concerned with the nature, size and distribution of the police problems of crime, wise, and traffic. __A) Strategic Intelligence __B) Departmental Intelligence __C) Counter Intelligence __D) Undercover Intelligence 556. Intelligence which is primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate practical value. __A) Departmental Intelligence __B) Strategic Intelligence __C) Undercover Intelligence __D) Counter Intelligence 557. The type of intelligence activity which deals with defending of the organization against its criminal enemies. __A) Counter Intelligence __B) Military Intelligence __C) Strategic Intelligence __D) Military Intelligence

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558. It is an evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible enemy or theater of operations, including weather and terrain together with the conclusions drawn therefrom. __A) Line Intelligence __B) Military Intelligence __B) Strategic Intelligence __D) Convert Operation

559. The type of intelligence which is of immediate nature and necessary for more effective police planning and operations. __A) Line Intelligence __B) Military Intelligence __C) Police Intelligence __D) Overt Operation

560. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which is it being gathered. __A) Overt Operation __B) Covert Operation __C) Evaluation __D) Interpretation

561. If the information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information of documents may be used, or if the method of procurement is done not in an open manner. __A) Overt Operation __B) Covert Operation __C) Evaluation __D) Interpretation

562. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation which includes determining the pertinence of information. The reliability of the source and agency though which the information was derived and its accuracy. __A) Interpretation __B) Evaluation __C) Tasks __D) Operations

563. Determines the significance of the information with respect to what is already known, and it draws conclusions as to the probable meaning of the evaluated information; it is the result of critical judgment involving analysis, integration and forming of conclusions. __A) Evaluation __B) Interpretation __C) Tasks __D) Operations

564. Is the proper, economical, and most productive use of personnel, resources and equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the collection of information, processing of information and dissemination intelligence. __A) Cardinal Principle of Intelligence __B) Economic Intelligence __C) Assets and Liability Intelligence __D) Income and Expenditure Intelligence PLANS AND OPERATIONS (35 Questions) 565. In a very simple sense, his deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action. __A) Operations __B) Planning __C) Management __D) Administration

566. Shall be planned to guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations in accordance with some procedures.

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__A) Operational Plans __B) Standard Operating Procedure __C) Special Operating Procedures __D) Characteristics of Plans 567. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field. __A) Headquarters Procedures __B) Field Procedures __C) Special Operating Procedures __D) Characteristics of Plans 568. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is decided it these procedures are the duties and dispatcher, joker, matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual. __A) Headquarters Procedures __B) Field Procedures __C) Special Operating Procedures __D) Characteristics of Plans 569. Of the following, standard operating procedures, one which is included are the operations of the special unit charged with the searching and preservation of physical evidence at the crime scenes and accidents, the control of licenses, dissemination of information about wanted persons, and like. __A) Special Operating Procedures __B) Headquarters Procedures __C) Field Procedures __D) Operational Plans 570. Of the following type of plans, one is considers, as plans for the operations of special divisions like patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency sum mol. 571. Of he following types of plans, one is as those procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations, such plans for dealing with an attack against buildings with alarm systems and an attack against Headquarters of the PNP. __A) Tactical Plans __B) Extra-Office Plans __C) Management Plans __D) Operational Plans

572. Of the following types of plans, one which deals with the active participation of individual citizens is so vital to the success of the Philippine National Police; to continue to motivate, promote and maintain an active concern in its affairs. __A) Management Plans __B) Extra Office Plans __C) Operational Plans __D) Characteristics of Plans

573. Of the following types of plans, one which includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization, management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money, etc. __A) Management Plans __B) Extra Office Plans __C) Operational Plans __D) Characteristics of Plans

574. Of the following steps in planning, one is based on a careful view of the matters relating to the situation for which plans are being developed; such as ideas or opinions of persons who may speak witjh authority o0n

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the subject, and views of the superior office, other government officials, and other professionals shall be considered. __A) Frame of Reference __B) Clarifying the Problems __C) Collecting all Pertinent Facts __D) Analyzing the Facts 575. Of the following steps in planning, one calls for identification of the problem, understanding both records and its possible solution; a situation most exist for which something must and can be done __A) Collecting all pertinent facts __B) Clarifying the problems __C) Analyzing the facts __D) Developing alternative plans 576. Of the following steps in planning, one which states that no attempts shall be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it have being gathered. __A) Collecting all pertinent facts __B) Analyzing the facts __C) Developing alternative plans __D) Selecting the most appropriate alternative 577. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved. __A) Developing alternative plans __B) Analyzing the facts __C) Selecting the most appropriate alternative __D) Selling the Plan 578. Of the steps in planning, in which the initial phases of plan development, several alternative measures shall appear to be logically comparable to the needs of a situation. __A) Developing alternative plans __B) Analyzing the facts __C) Selling the most appropriate alternative __D) Selecting the most appropriate alternative 579. One of the steps in planning, which a careful consideration of all facts usually leads to the selection of a best alternative proposals. __A) Analyzing the facts __B) Selecting the most appropriate alternative __C) Selling the Plan __D) Arranging for the execution of the plan 580. One step in planning, which a plan to be effectively carried out, must be accepted by a persons concerned at the appropriate level of the plans development. __A) Selecting the most appropriate alternative __B) Selling the Plan __C) Arranging for the execution of the plan __D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan 581. One step in planning, that such that the execution of a plan requires the issuance of orders and directives to units and personnel concerned, the establishment of a schedule, and the provision of manpower and equipment for carrying out the plan.

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__A) Selling the Plan __B) Arranging for the execution of the plan __C) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan __D) Selecting the most appropriate alternative 582. One step in planning, that such is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was chose, whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was implemented, and whether additional planning may be necessary. __A) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan __B) Arranging for the execution of the plan __C) Selecting the most appropriate alternative __D) Selling the Plan 583. This activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National Police and its unit subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other low enforcement agencies of the government. __A) Police Executive Training __B) Coordinates and Cooperation __C) Business-like Activity __D) Socialization 584. Shall accomplish the primary, responsibility of safeguarding the community through protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections. __A) Traffic Division __B) Patrol Force __C) Theft and Robbery Division __D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division 585. In its basis function is to investigate certain designated crimes against property and clear them by recovery of stolen property and arrest and conviction of the offenders. __A) Theft and Robbery Division __B) Patrol Force __C) Traffic Division __D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division 586. It shall facilitate the safe and rapid movement of vehicles and pedestrian; to this end, the inconvenience, dangers and economic losses that arise from this movement, congestion, delays, stopping and parking of vehicles must be lessened. __A) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division __B) Traffic Division __C) Vice Control Division __D) Theft and Robbery Division 587. Its operation shall be based on law rather than on moral concepts, constant raids of known vice dens shall be undertaken, and it shall do to any violation, exert all efforts to eliminate them. __A) Vice Control Division __B) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division __C) Theft and Robbery Division __D) Traffic Division 588. The nature of its task shall be determined by the field activity given the greatest emphasis, and this influenced by the needs of the community; effective crime control necessitates preventing the development of individuals as criminals.

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__A) Vice Control Division __B) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division __C) Theft and Robbery Division __D) Traffic Division 589. Police operation is a continuing activity, and therefore, it must be based on valid and practical plans that are constantly made current. Every operation completed shall be followed by a critique and rendition of an after-operation report shall be. __A) Coordinated __B) Properly evaluated __C) Analyzed __D) Reviewed

590. The police officer must inform the person to be arrested of his authority and the cause of his arrest except when the. __A) Officer is in uniform so that he is authorized __B) Person is arrested in the actual commission of crime __C) Person arrested is a habitual offender __D) All of the Above 591. When frisking a suspect it is considered most important that the police officer keep his eyes on the. __A) Suspects head __B) Suspects accomplices __C) Suspects hands __D) Peoples handing nearby 592. It is recommended police procedure that for safest results, a lone police officer should never attempt to frisk more than. __A) Four individuals __B) Two individuals __C) Three individuals __D) One individual

593. You positively recognize a man on a busy street as one wanted for falsification of a public documents. Which one of the following is the most appropriate for you to take? __A) Approach, then arrest the man __B) Follow the man and summon a civilian to assist you in arresting said man __C) Follow the man until he stops long enough for you so summon assistance from the headquarters __D) Follow the man until a place is reached where there are few people, then take out his gun, if any, and arrest him 594. Whenever an arrest is made upon a court want, the arrested person must be immediately. __A) Inform his three constitutional rights __B) Bring him to the appropriate court who issued the warrant __C) Interrogate him for the purpose of gathering information about his criminal associates __D) Bring him to surety company to secure and file a bond 595. A Police Officer may arrest without warrant if. __A) A crime is committed in his presence __B) A woman complains of a crime committed against her chastity __C) A mans wife complains of womanizing of her husband __D) A man to be arrested is the Mayors political enemy 596. In most cases, a policeman who arrest a female will cause her to be searched by a policewoman. An exception to this, when the policeman may search the female by himself, is when the arrested.

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__A) Is a prostitute __B) Is believed to have armed with a weapon __C) Is a T-bird __D) Is married 597. If a police officer feels sympathetic toward a violator, it should not deter an arrest because. __A) Criminal should received no consideration __B) Arrest goals must be maintained __C) The police officer must be objective in his work __D) Police officers are expected to be devoid of personal feeling 598. A policewoman on plainclothes duty in a downtown department store observes a young woman taking some merchandise and hide it in her underwear garments. Probably the best procedure for the policewoman to follow would be to. __A) Arrest the young woman on the spot __B) Ask other costumer to act as witnesses to the activity __C) Follow her out of the department store and question her __D) Call the attention of the house directives 599. When officers of the a two-man Patrol Car stop another vehicle for a route field interrogation, one officer approached the dinner to talk to him. In other officer should. __A) Walk slowly about the other can looking for evidence of law violations __B) Take position at the right rear of he other vehicle __C) Remain in the Patrol Car to listen for radio calls for his unit __D) Accompany his partner to the other car, but remain about two feet in the back of him LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME (18 QUESTIONS) 600. The must effective method of a crime prevention is believed by authorities in the field generally to be.. __A) Eradication of the cases of crime __B) More severe punishment of offenders __C) Decriminalization __D) Peoples moral regeneration 601. Law enforcement and Public Safety Officials attribute the recent high crime rate to __A) Laxity in the administration of criminal justice system __B) Lack of adequately trained policemen __C) Decline in mortal stamire on a national scale __D) Existence of Law of the Jungle 602. The one of the following characteristics most susceptible to modification by a change of social environment is.. __A) Intelligence __B) Taste in music __C) Climatic condition __D) Mental deficiency

603. From the police point of view probably the best argument against the abolition of death penalty is that. __A) Police tasks are becoming burdensome __B) Criminal offenders are encouraged to commit serious offenses __C) More criminals are being feed by the government __D) Religious organizations are interfering with the police task

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604. Lumbrosians theory holds that __A) All criminals are mentally defective at the commission of crime __B) Few criminals have a demonstrable abnormality __C) Criminals constitute a district physical stigmata __D) None criminals are handsome 605. A person that derives pleasure from self-punishment or torture by a person of the opposite sex is usually referred to as a __A) Masochist __D) Hedonist __B) Macho __E) Exhibitionist __C) Sadist 606. In a family of two children, one become delinquent and the other does not. The delinquent child most likely was the one who.. __A) Was given discipline __B) Had greater emotional tensions __C) Had higher intelligence __D) Was the first born child 607. Girls and women habitually guilty of sexual immorality are most likely to be __A) Mentally inferior __B) Sexually Attractive __C) Mentally Normal __D) Mentally Superior

608. Of the following types of criminal the one most like to work in a gang is __A) Vagrant __B) Pickpocket __C) Robber __D) Swindler

609. From the viewpoint of a crime prevention the must vulnerable children among those exposed to crime are those __A) Whose parents have low standards of living and morality __B) Whose parents are both working __C) Who are habitual truants from school __D) Whose parents are liberally minded 610. From the viewpoint of law enforcement and public safety, the repression of crime is chiefly dependent upon the continuous and intensive maintenance of __A) Socialization with community leaders __B) Patrols __C) More arrest __D) Correctional institutions 611. The most difficulty to solve if the following types of forgery cases is __A) Forgery of endorsement on lost or stolen checks __B) The signing of the name of some living persons with intent to defraud __C) Forgery of fictitious name on stolen bank blank checks of an established concern __D) Writing a personal check on bank with the knowledge that no account is there 612. In crime prevention work, the most effective long range method of combating harmful influence in a community is to.. __A) Educate the public __B) Police socialization with community leaders

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__C) More police budget __D) Enlarge the police form 613. Other factors being equal, the best available means at present of determining the general effectiveness of the police in dealing with crime is.. __A) The accident rate __B) The crime rate __C) Modus Operandi File __D) Crime statistics

614. The most effective institution for control of juvenile delinquency is __A) The church __B) The Home __C) Juvenile Delinquency Control of the Police __D) The Church 615. The relationship between social mires and laws is best expressed by which

623. Within the human element which is a fault in a large majority of vehicular accidents the most important defect is generally attributed to.. __A) Attitudinal __B) Intellectual __C) Perceptual __D) Decision

624. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by __A) A reduction of traffic accidents and delays __B) An increase in traffic enforcement actions __C) A decrease in the ration of convictions to enforcement actions __D) Smooth flow of the traffic 625. An officer has stopped a traffic offender. As an initial remark the officer says, Do you know why I stopped you? This remark is undesirable; under these conditions mainly because __A) It could be used as evidence in a false arrest action __B) It invites a denial and subsequent loss of face by the offender __C) It is a leading question __D) It is a password for corruption 626. Where two or more emergency vehicles, operating as such, approach the same intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict. An officer directing traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right way. Of then following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given preference over any of the others is the. __A) Ambulance __B) Police car __C) Fire Truck __D) Wrecker

627. A unit is assigned to traffic patrol and is given no special instructions as to manner of patrol. During a period when traffic is heavy, the unit when not engaged in taking action against a specific violator is expected to. __A) Park in a position readily visible to the motorists __B) Maintain visible patrol continuously __C) Use its own discretion as to what manner of patrol will yield best results under the circumstances __D) Keep off the most contested routes but in a position where it can observe violations effectively 628. In testing a suspected intoxicating driver, which one of the following tests should be given last?

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__A.) Handwriting __B) Balance

___C.) Pupils of the eyes __D) Walking and turning

629. Which one of the following approved in issuing a citation to a traffic violator, where the violator remains seated at the drivers wheel of his vehicle throughout the entire process? __A) Stand on the curb alongside the police vehicle when actually writing the citation __B) Place foot or hand on the vehicles as means of reducing an awkward differential in height between officer and violator __C) Ask the violator if he realizes why he was stopped __D) Immediately after stating the violation, explain the accident hazard involves in it 630. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other in the area. The police unit assigned to the area should. __A) Park near the intersection, in play view, and wait for violators __B) Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection __C) Park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view __D) Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorists 631. A traffic police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress an ambulance driver on a emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the rout while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should. __A) Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street __B) Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at least ten minutes to run __C) Hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superiors order __D) Ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contacts his superior and obtains a decision 632. A general principle of traffic accident investigation is to. __A) Look for the key event that cause the accident and investigator any two car collision as if it were two accidents, each with its own-causes __B) Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the accident, as a cause __C) Consider violations as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes __D) Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes 633. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is. __A) Selection of geographic areas for strict enforcement __B) Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest traffic danger __C) Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours __D) A Warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive for future violation 634. It would be most correct to state that a very thorough investigation of traffic accidents, which would probably include technical measurements and procedures, should be undertaken.. __A) Principally for the purpose of obtaining evidence for court presentation __B) For all traffic accidents regardless of the extent of personnel of property damage __C) Only when a person is killed in an accident or dies as a result of injuries received in the accident __D) All of the above 635. The responsibility for developing a traffic program rest primarily with. __A) Headquarters of the Police Department __B) The top level of Police Traffic Management __C) City Mayors Office __D) All of the foregoing

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636. The most effective way to reduce to number of traffic accident is to.. __A) Arrest and prosecute traffic violators __B) Increase the premium of insurance and decrease for car insurance liability to a minimum __C) Frequent checks on all cars for mechanics defects __D) All of the foregoing 637. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be guided foremost by the consideration that __A) The aim is to discourage violations __B) Violations must be punished __C) Some traffic violations are caused by negligence __D) Some traffic violations are intended 638. From among the following measures, one is the most effective in police campaign directed at a new parking regulations. __A) Written warning __B) Spectrograph __C) Verbal warning __D) Electron microscope

657. In comparison with other methods of analysis used in a police laboratory, the unique advantage of the spectrograph is that __A) Minute traces of substances can be analyzed __B) It is relatively inexpensive to acquire and operate __C) The sample is not destroyed in the analytical process __D) It produces a permanent record of the analysis 658. In investigation of a rape case, use of ultra-violet light is a useful method.. __A) Only to establish whether certain stains are semen stains, after they have been located by some other method __B) To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains __C) Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen stains __D) Neither for finding stains nor for determining their nature 659. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elm gated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of blood indicates __A) Direction of movement __B) Route __C) Fresh blood __D) Dried stain

660. The direction from which a blunt object has broken a piece of glass may be determined by examination of the fractured mess-sectional surfaces of the glass. In this case, the direction of the blow is indicated by __A) The pattern of curved lines, bevel angle of the fracture, and the position of flaking or chipping on the cross section __B) Convexity or concavity of the fractured surface __C) The position of crystal structure deformations __D) All of the foregoing 661. A simple test for distinguishing a blood stain from their substances is the.. __A) Benzedrine Test __B) Alphanapthylamine Test __C) Diphenylamine Test

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__D) Hydrochloric Acid Test 662. Is extremely used in reproducing evidence such as footprints and tire marks in dirt or mud __A) Moulage __B) Casting __C) Cementing __D) Pickling

663. Is the technique of reproducing facsimile or physical evidence by the plaster moulds and the impression of which is made through the successive formation of a negative mould and positive cast __A) Moulage __B) Casting __C) Cementing __D) Pickling

664. A characteristic post-marten symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a __A) Marked protuberance of the eyeballs __B) Pinkish livicity of all or part of the body __C) Waxy texture and appearance of the skin __D) Grotesque or contorted position of the body 665. The most commonly used for determining intoxication of a motor vehicle driver is the __A) Blood Test __B) Urine Test __C) Breath Test __D) Spinal Fluid Test

666. Investigators occasionally encounter amnesia in persons they wish to interview or interrogate. Retrograde amnesia is a loss of memory that __A) Covers a period of time immediately preceding severe shock __B) Is a form of hysteria in which the memory gradually returns as the victim calms down __C) Is feigned __D) Begins to affect the mind only after a considerable lapse of time following a severe shock 667. Identifying marks which are placed on physical evidence of the scene of a crime may consist of __A) Letter of the alphabet only __B) Any distinctive marks which is difficult to duplicate __C) Numbers only __D) Numbers and Letters only 668. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is best applicable to.. __A) Chain of Custody of Evidence __B) Three tools in criminal investigation __C) Cardinal rules in criminal investigation __D) To establish the guilt of the accused 669. Evidences which change quickly, such skid marks, the wounds and bruises will heal and disappear before the case comes to trial. Such evidence can be preserved by __A) Pickling method and introduced in court as evidence __B) Photography and introduced in court as evidence __C) Casting and mould and introduce in court as evidence __D) All of the foregoing 670. The detection and identification of poisons is called

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__A) Chemistry __B) Bacteriology __C) Toxicology __D) Carbon Monoxide FINGERPRINTING AND PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION: 671. Are means of personal identification; they aid the investigator in identifying persons in custody; when found at a crime some they lead the investigator to the perpetrator. __A) Fingerprints __B) Circumstantial evidence __C) Petrology __D) Motive and intent

672. The technique of fingerprinting is called __A) Dactytoscopy __B) Poroscopy __C) Palmistry __D) Latent print

673. Practically all fingerprint experts believe that fingerprint patterns are. __A) Inherited as Mendelian characteristics __B) Never inherited __C) Always inherited __D) Sometimes inherited 674. In taking fingerprints, the subject should be instructed to __A) Relax the fingers __B) Stiffen the fingers __C) Exert a little pressure on the linking surface __D) Wash his both hands before taking prints 675. In the development of impressions, the fingerprint powder should be applied as soon as the ridges become visible __A) In the interspaces __B) In the direction of the ridge trend __C) Across the ridge __D) Uniformly cover the center of the print 676. The following are the types of fingerprint registration __A) The 10-print or principal registration and the single price registration __B) Whole print with classification __C) Impression of the 10 fingers __D) All of the foregoing 677. It has long been a rule that is required for minimum identical and characteristic details must be found to justify the conclusion of identity between two points __A) Nine (9) __B) Twelve (12) __C) Fifteen (15) __D) Eighteen (18)

678. It is a triangular shaped detail of the pattern formed by the bifurcation or forking of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern, and it determines the other boundary of the pattern as it flows around the pattern __A) Delta __B) Core __C) Ridge __D) Latent prints

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679. Are those fingerprints left at the crime scene; and it is either imprints or impressions __A) Pattern __B) Latent print __C) Loop __D) Lunar

680. Is that center of the fingerprint pattern; it may be a ridge resembling loop, a rod, or a spiral in the very center of the pattern __A) Core __B) Delta __C) Ridge __D) Whorl

681. Is a kind of fingerprint in which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, pass cut or terminate on the same side as the ridge or ridges entered __A) Loop __B) Lunar loop __C) Radial loop __D) Tented Arch

682. Of the following fingerprint patterns, one in which the downward than of the ridge or ridges is from the thumb toward the little finger or lunar bone __A) Loop __B) Lunar loop __C) Radial loop __D) Tented Arch

683. A fingerprint pattern in which the down ward slant or ridge or ridges from the little finger toward the thumb or radius bone __A) Radial Loop __C) Loop __C) Radial Loop __D) Tented Arch

684. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to the other without recurving, usually having a slight upward curve in the center giving the appearance of an arch __A) Plain loop __B) Loop __C) Radial Loop __D) Tented Arch

685. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one side to the other without recurving but differ from plain arches, as the ridges rise in the center giving the pattern the appearance of the tent __A) Whorl __B) Tented arch __C) Plain Loop __D) Radial Loop

686. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a series of circles or spirals around the core axes __A) Tented Arch __B) Whorl __C) Central Pocket Loop __D) Double Loop 687. Are those patterns in which most of the ridges represent the pattern known as loop, out when one or more ridges within such loop or those surrounding the core recurve down through its axis, thereby forming the second delta __A) Central Pocket Loop __B) Whorl __C) Double Loop __D) Accidental

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688. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two separate loop formation, with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders and two deltas __A) Accidental __B) Double Loop __C) Central Pocket Loop __D) Whorl 689. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in which two of the different types of patterns are represented except the plain loop __A) Double Loop __B) Accidental __C) Central Pocket Loop __D) Whorl 690. A German criminologist who had thoroughly studied the history of fingerprints in the Far East and found that fingerprinting were already commonly used for identification purposes during the Tang Dynasty from 618 to 906 AD. __A) Robert Heindle __B) Henry Faulds __C) Prof. Johannes James Herschel __D) Dr. Nehemiah Greu 691. A British Scientist and a cousin of Scientist Charles Darwin, who devoted himself to the study of fingerprints, and who established his own system in England. __A) Alphonse Bertillon __B) Sir Francis Galton __C) Samuel Clements __D) Robert Heindle

692. An American who used his own fingerprint on commissary orders in New Mexico in order to prevent forgery and was the first authenticated record of official use of fingerprints in the United States. __A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson __B) Samuel Clemens __C) Alphonse Bertillon __D) Robert Heindle

693. Known for his anthropometric measurement, and who was the first to propose his system in the year 1879, and was the first Chief of the identification Bureau of the Paris, France, Criminal Police __A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson __B) Alphonse Bertillon __C) Samuel Clemens __D) Sir Francis Galton

694. Known as the Father of Fingerprint who was herschels successor in India who develop a fingerprint classification was adopted in Scotland Yard, London __A) Alphonse Bertillon __B) Sir Edward Richard Henry __C) Juan Vucetich __D) Dr. Henry P. de Forest 695. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine Jurisprudence on the science of fingerprinting. __A) PP vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 22 __B) PP vs. Pacana, 47 Phil 48 __C) US vs. Asensi, 34 Phil 50 __D) PP vs. Fonterada, et a 54 Phil. 68 696. The first Filipino authority of fingerprinting, and who topped the first examination in fingerprints in 1937 which was given by Capt. Thomas Dugon of New York Police Department

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__A) Col. Jose Lukban __B) Atty. Agustin Patricio

__C) Atty. Lorenzo Sunico __D) Gen. Rafael Crame

697. The easiest way to discover latent impressions is to view the area __A) Directly __B) At a distance of about one-half inch __C) Obliquely __D) All of the Foregoing 698. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has been stolen and abandon is on the __A) Steering Wheel __B) Rear view mirror __C) Dashboard __D) Door handles

699. To aid in identifying the subject when seeking information from the Immigration Commission regarding an alien, it is must important to provide that agency with data regarding the __A) Port of entry of the alien __B) Residence of the alien __C) Occupation of the alien __D) Educational background of the alien 700. In a wanted case, the miscellaneous information concerning the suspect which would probably be most useful to a police on duty would be __A) His occupation __B) Where the hangs out __C) How he dresses __D) His companions

701. In identification of a person by a photograph, it is best form an officer making an investigation to __A) Show the witness several photographs inserting that of the suspect and ask him to pick out the person in question __B) Use photograph for identification purposes only when the witness is also to give a complete description of the suspect __C) Ask the witness for a description of suspect and attempt to make the identification himself __D) Show witness photograph of the suspect and ask him of the suspect and ask him to pick out the person in question 702. The first two digits on an individuals Social Security Number are best taken as indication of __A) The region in which the individual originally registered __B) The month in which the individual originally registered __C) The income group in which the individual belonged at the time of original registration __D) The occupation of the individual at the time of his registration 703. Aside from the Central Banks warnings and other published warnings, the best means of detecting counterfeit paper money is by __A) The sharpness of the engraving __B) The spacing of the colored threads in the paper __C) The quality of the ink and paper used __D) The odor of the money 704. The body of a man is found in a river. The body is fully clothed but badly mutilated, water clogged and swollen. The clothing containing in identifying papers. One of the following means of identification of that is least reliance is

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__A) Scars of the body __B) Measurements of the body __C) Tattoo marks on the body __D) Fingerprints 705. The biggest disadvantage of Portrait Parle as an identification system is its __A) Intricacy and Complexity __B) Impermanence __C) Lack of communicability __D) Lack of specificity 706. Which of the following would be the most important to have in undertaking a search for a person who was been reported as missing? __A) Personal habits __B) Physical description __C) Mental condition and attitude at the time of disappearance __D) The previous criminal and critical history of the person 707. The most easily used and positive means of personal identification of criminal is __A) The Portrait Parle __B) The fingerprints system __C) Physical Stigma __D) Anatomical description 708. The name that is commonly associated with a personal identification system, the basis for which is that no two individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that the human skeleton does not change appreciably after 20th year, is.. __A) Bertillon __B) Darwin QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS; 709. Is concerned with the examination of forged, altered, or suspected papers to see if they are genuine, or if they have been changed in any way __A) Falsification of document __B) Questioned Document Examination __C) Forgery __D) Estafa 710. May be committed in two ways; 1) by giving to a treasury or bank notes or any instrument payable to bearer or two order, and the appearance of a genuine document; and 2) by erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures, letters, words, or signs contained therein. __A) Falsification of document __B) Forgery __C) Questioned Document Examination __D) Estafa 711. May be committed by the following means; 1) counterfeiting or imitating any handwriting, signature or rubrie; 2) causing it to appear that persons have participated in any act or proceeding when they did not in fact so participated; 3) etcnevertheless it applies to documents whether private, public, official or commercial documents. __A) Falsification of document __B) Forgery __C) Galton __D) Mendel

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__C) Questioned Document Examination __D) Estafa 712. In addition to its use in developing secret writing, iodine fumes can be used to __A) Determine if erasures have been made on a document __B) Determine the kind of papers used in writing __C) Determine the kind of ink used in mixing __D) Determine the personal character of the author 713. Of the following, the most reliable single, criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money is the __A) Color of the seal __B) Quality of the engraving __C) Wet strength of the paper __D) Arrangement of the red and blue threads in the paper 714. In connection with the analysis of questioned documents, which of the following is least likely to be successful? __A) Establishment of the age of ink __B) Determination of make and age of typewriter __C) Restitution of erased or eradicated writing __D) Identifying the peculiarity of an individual 715. What system of handwriting classification based on the following factors; forms, skill combination, shading movement, slant, terminals and embellishment; has proved useful to police departments in large cities __A) Sir Edward Richard Henry __B) Rolando Wilson __C) Lee and Abbey __D) Landsteiner and Levine 716. Handwriting samples of the same writer may some what according to the conditions under which the writing was done. In which of the following classes of writers are such variations in genuine writing likely to occur? __A) Men writers __B) Practiced writers __C) Women writers __D) Semi-illiterate or unpracticed writers 717. In which of the following respects is aged handwriting most likely to differ from the genuine writing which the forgery attempts to imitate? __A) Over-all flow or running quality __B) Average height and breadth of letters __C) Starting finishing tails or extraneous flourishes __D) Width of pen or pencil lines 718. A conditions of coin when it is made of metal, whether of inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin and is given the appearance of one of legal tender __A) Mutilated Coin __B) False or Counteract Coint __C) Priceless Coin __D) All of the foregoing

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719. It is the act of diminishing, by ingenicas means, the metal in the coin to take advantage if the metal abstracted; he appropriates a part of the metal of the coin, hence the coin diminishes in intrinsic value __A) Mutilation of coins __B) Counterfeit or false coin __C) Priceless coin __D) None of the foregoing 720. In order to sustain a change for an offense under article 168 of the Revised Penal Code, the possession of the false treasury and blank notes must be coupled with __A) The intention to keep it at home __B) The intent to use the same __C) Intent to surrender the same to proper authorities __D) All of the foregoing 721. Is any written statement by which a right established or an obligation extinguished, it is a Dee, instrument or other duty authorized paper by which something is proved, evidenced or set fort __A) Document __B) Tablet __C) Rubric __D) Contract

722. A classification of falsification, that for the act to be punished, it must be shown that some prejudice or damage to a third party must have been caused or intended to be caused. __A) Falsification of a private document __B) Falsification of public document __C) Falsification of official document __D) Falsification of commercial document 723. A classification of falsification in which damage is immaterial for what is important is the violation of public faith and the destruction of the truth, and the change must affect the integrity of the document __A) Falsification of commercial document __B) Falsification of public document __C) Falsification of official document __D) Falsification of a private document 724. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by which some disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth __A) Private document __B) Public document __C) Official document __D) Commercial document

725. A kind of document in which public officials participated. __A) Public document __B) Official document __C) Private document __D) Commercial document

726. A kind of document `which is executed by person in authority a by private parties but notaries by notaries public or by competent officials __A) Public document __B) Official document __C) Private document __D) Commercial document

727. A kind of document which a recognized by the Code of Commerce and other Mercantile Laws. __A) Private document __B) Commercial document __C) Public document __D) Official document

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728. Is an exemplar that has been obtained from an official records, personal letter, or any other document that is known to have been written, suspect when the suspect refuses to write an exemplar, when the suspect is not available, or when the investigation is conducted without the knowledge of the suspect. __A) Collected standard document __B) Questioned document __C) Simulated document __D) All of the foregoing 729. It is an instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned document; its origin is known and can be proven. __A) Stimulated document __B) Standard document __C) Forged document __D) Falsified document

730. This groups includes all papers on which it is alleged that some changes have been made fraudulent by erasure, addition, or substitution, etc __A) Handwriting specimen __B) comer signed __C) Document on which the signature is questioned __D) Document containing alleged fraudulent alteration 731. This group of document includes those papers which the entire writing is in question as spurious, forged or counterfeit in its entirely fall into. __A) Wills and testament __B) Holographic documents questioned or disputed __C) Stroke of handwriting __D) None of the foregoing 732. Fraudulent tampering with a document often involves two kinds of erasures, namely; __A) Mechanical and Chemical Erasures __B) Electronic and Mechanical Erasures __C) Electronic and Chemical Erasures __D) All of the foregoing 733. A kind of erasure through the use of a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument. __A) Chemical erasure __B) Mechanical erasure __C) Electronic erasure __D) All of the foregoing

734. A kind of erasure by using an ink eradicator or blending agent. __A) Chemical erasure __B) Mechanical erasure __C) Electronic erasure __D) All of the foregoing

735. May be accomplished by the insertion of a word, phrase or sentence between two lines of the original writing. __A) Forgery __B) Intercalation on a genuine document __C) Substitution __D) Insertion FORENSIC BALLISTICS: 736. May be defined as the scientific examination of firearms shells, bullets allegedly used in the commission of a crime.

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__A) Forensic Ballistics __B) Interior Ballistics

__C) Exterior Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing

737. May be defined as treats of the motion of projectiles while still in the barrel, namely; studies of combustion of the powder, pressure developed, velocity, etc. __A) Interior Ballistics __B) Exterior Ballistics __C) Forensic Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing

738. Treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving the muzzle of the gun, namely; trajectory, velocity, energy, range, penetration, etc __A) Interior Ballistics __B) Exterior Ballistics __C) Forensic Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing

739. Their existence in firearms is brought about by the failure of a tool in the normal operation through wear, abuse, mutilations, corrosion, erosion, and other fortuitous causes __A) Individual accidental characteristics __B) Factory defect __C) Individual intentional characteristics __D) Precipitate 740. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to __A) Decrease the amount of recoil __B) Prevent the bullet from turning end ever end in the air __C) Increase the damage of the object by the bullet 741. Cameleer are valuable in firearms identification because they help the examiner except determine the. __A) Manufacturer of the bullet __B) Manufacturer of the weapon __C) Identify the weapon that fired a particular bullet __D) Type of gun that fired a particular bullet 742. For all intents and purposes, a barrel of any firearm is considered as. __A) Part of a weapon __B) Complete firearm __C) Nomenclature __D) All of the foregoing

743. When a revolver is fired a small portion of burned and unburned gunpowder is forced under great pressure from the opening between the forward and the rear of the barrel. Such is frequently deposited on the index finger of the back of the hand in which the gun is fired. __A) Precipitate __B) Residue __C) Dirt __D) Powder burn

744. A very accurate test by which an expert can determine the distance from a bullet at which the gun was fired is called the. __A) Abhamopthylamine Test __B) Diphenylamine Test __C) Photo-micrograph Test __D) Strangulation process 745. The inch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol or rifle barrel is called. __A) Drive __C) Land

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__B) Lead

__D) Groove

746. Of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the identification of unknown firearm by means of ballistics is that. __A) Pistols with the same number of lands can be different by the direction of the lead __B) Most pistols which have left lead have at least eight lands __C) The width of the groove in a pistol can be determined by the angle of lead __D) The angle of the lead is the angle which the land forms with the groove 747. A homicide has been committed with a shotgun. All parts of the exploded shell have been recovered by a police officer who investigated the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that fired at the laboratory should be given. __A) The wadding __B) The cap and the pellets __C) The cap and the wads __D) The cap, the wads and the pellets 748. The term Double Action with reference to a revolver, means most nearly that. __A) The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection __B) Pulling the trigger cocks the hammer and presents a fresh cartridges for firing __C) The shell of a fired shot is ejected and a fresh cartridges is pushed from the magazine at the same time. __D) The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action 749. That part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge is called. __A) Extractor __B) Ejector __C) Striker __D) Cylinder

750. A pistol that is to be tested and used in evidence should be picked up by. __A) Grasping the barrel with a handkerchief __B) Grasping the handle with a handkerchief __C) Placing a pencil through the trigger guard __D) Inserting a pencil in the barrel 751. When booking a fired bullet, it should be identified by a mark on. __A) Its side __B) Its base __C) Its nose __D) Its side and base

752. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a criminal. __A) The shell in most cases will be found at the scene of the crime __B) The empty shell remains within the chamber __C) The shell is rarely if ever found at the scene of the crime __D) The shell is usually disposed of by the criminal 753. The identification of a shell with the recover from which it has been fired may be recognized from the. __A) Mark of the firing pin hole __B) Mark of the firing pin hole and mark of the breechblock __C) All of the a foremen timed __D) None of the aforementioned 754. Of the following three most important problems that may arise in the investigations of crimes involving the use of firearms, one is not included, and that is,

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__A) Motive, intent and opportunity _ _B) Whether or not a person has fired a gun with his bare hands, within a pertinent period of time __C) The means of determining the probable gunshot range, that is the distance the firearm was held from the body of the victim at the time of discharge. __D) When the firing of the gun becomes an issue 755. Is A kind of wound that is inflicted when the muzzle of the gum is held against the body of the victim at the time of discharge.. __A) Contact wound __B) Fatal wound __C) Physical injury __D) All of the foregoing

756. Is produced when the gun is held from about two inches to a maximum of eight inches. __A) Tattooing __B) Smudging __C) Contact wound __D) Fatal wound

757. The area of blackening around the perforation will be found to diminish in size at the muzzle of the gun is held further and at a distance of eight inches all the blackening around the hole will completely disappear. __A) Smudging __B) Power tattooing __C) Residue __D) Fatal wound

758. In the identification of firearms, in most cases it is necessary to supplement the serial number with. __A) Frame number __B) Make and model number C) Barrel length __D) Caliber

759. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by the. __A) Extractor __B) Ejector __C) Hammer __D) Firing pin

POLYGRAPHY OR LIE DETECTION 760. It is an essential requirement for the administration of criminal justice. __A) Evidence __B) Knowledge of the truth __C) Proof __D) Firing Corpus Delicti

761. It is a scientific police method in the detection of crime, therefore, not a part of criminalities, but rather a kind of instrumentation in the detection of crime. __A) Photography __C) Chemistry __B) Polygraph or lie detection __D) Deoxyribonucleic Acid 762. One who is capable of being able to detect deception or verify truth of statement through instrumentation or the use of mechanical device. __A) Polygraph examiner __B) Interrogator __C) Detective __D) Medico-legal officer

763. Which one of the following is not included in the limitations of the Polygraph? __A) It is admissible evidence in the court of justice __B) It is an invaluable investigative aid, but never a substitute for an investigation __C) It is not a lie detector, it is a scientific diagnostic instrument __D) It does not determine fact, it records responses to that which the subject knows to be true, and

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__E) It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent 764. Of the three (3) devices which second the psycho-physiological response, one of the following is not included. __A) Use of polygraph or a lie detector machine __B) Use of the Word Association Test (WAT) __C) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator(PSE) __D) Use of the Water Therapy 765. Which one of the following is not included in the four(4) phases in the conduct of a Polygraph or lie detector test? __A) Psychological threat upon the subject or person to be examined __B) Initial interview with the investigator or person requesting the examination __C) Pre-test with the person to be examined __D) Conduct of the instrumental test with the asking of a prepared list of questions previously reviewed with subject __E) Post-test interview with the person examined 766. Which one of the following is not a required qualification and quality expected of a polygraph examiner? __A) A graduate of Bachelor of Laws (LL.B). Criminology or Psychology __B) Technical Know How (TKH) __C) Moral and honesty __D) None of the above 767. It is one where before the actual testing is done, the examiner must first make an informal interview of the subject which may last form 20 to 30 minutes. __A) Pre-test interview __B) Actual interrogation and interview and recording of the proceedings __C) Post-test interrogation __D) All of the above 768. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation. __A) Control __B) Irrelevant __C) Relevant __D) Supplementary

769. These are questions per mining to the issue under investigation. __A) Control __B) Irrelevant __C) Relevant __D) Supplementary

770. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation. __A) Control __B) Irrelevant __C) Relevant __D) Supplementary

771. A kind of test that may be performed and incorporated as a part of the standard tests described above, depending upon the result of the standard test in order to draw a better conclusion. __A) Control __B) Irrelevant __C) Relevant __D) Supplementary

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772. This test may be given if the subject is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which be is being interrogated by the investigator, or by other persons or from other sources like print media. __A) Silent answer __B) Peak-of-tension __C) Guilt complex __D) Narrative

773. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are similar in degree and consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not. __A) Silent answer __B) Peak-of-tension __C) Guilt complex __D) Narrative

774. This test is conducted in the same manner as relevant, irrelevant and control questions are asked, but the subject is instructed to answer the questions silently, to himself, without making any verbal response. __A) Silent answer __B) Peak-of-tension __C) Guilt complex __D) Narrative

775. In this kind of test a list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible. The answer to the questions may be yes or no. this test is not concerned was the answer. It is yes or no. the important is the time of response in relation to delay the answer. __A) Use of the Word Association Test(WAT) __B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluation (PSE) __C) Use of a serum __D) Use of a Water Therapy __E) Confession 776. This kind of test detects, measures and graphically displays the voice modulation that we cannot hear. Such as when a person is relaxed and responding honesty to the questions, those in iodine frequencies are registered clearly on the instrument. But when a person is under stress as when he is lying these frequencies tend to disappear. __A) Use of the Word Association Test(WAT) __B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluation (PSE) __C) Use of a serum __D) Use of a Water Therapy __E) Confession 777. In this kind of test the hyoscire hydrobomite drug is given polemically in repeated doses until a state of delirium is induced. When the proper point is reached, the questioning begins and the subject feels a compulsion to answer the questions truthfully. __A) Hypnotism __B) Administration of Truth Serum __C) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis __D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage 778. In this kind of test psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered to the subject. When the effects appear, questioning of the mechanism of the brain and the subject induces to talk freely. __A) Administration of Truth Serum __B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis __C) Hypnotism __D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage 779. This test which has the apparent stimulations, is really the result of the control mechanism of the brain. The ability of this kind of test to reveal the real person behind the mask which all of us are said to wear mask of sanity, is reflected in the age-old maxim. in Vino Veltas which means. In Wine There is Truth

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__A) Administration of Truth Serum __B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis __C) Hypnotism __D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage 780. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened of suggestibility while awareness is maintained. __A) Administration of Truth Serum __B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis __C) Hypnotism __D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage 781. This Chart Interpretation changes the individual norm which may be considered indicative of deception. __A) Galvanograph Tracing __B) Pneumograph __C) Cardiosphygmograph __D) All of the above 782. This is normally located at the center portion of the Chart, when properly balanced, it takes the form of slightly wavering line across the middle portion of the Chart with a minor response to spoken stimulu. __A) Galvanograph Tracing __B) Pneumograph __C) Cardiosphygmograph __D) All of the above 783. This takes the form of specific responses indicative of deception, such as, increase or decrease of blood pressure, increase or decrease of pulse beat, etc.. __A) Galvanograph Tracing __B) Pneumograph __C) Cardiosphygmograph __D) All of the above LEGAL MEDICINE (116 question) 784. It is a branch of medicine, which deals with the application of medical knowledge to the purpose of law in the administration of justice. __A) Legal Medicine __B) Forensic Medicine __C) Medical Jurisprudence __D) All of the above

785. It concerns with the application of medical science to elucidate legal problems. __A) Legal Medicine __B) Forensic Medicine __C) Medical Jurisprudence __D) All of the above

786. It denotes knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine. __A) Legal Medicine __B) Forensic Medicine _C) Medical Jurisprudence __D) All of the above

787. They are synonymous and in common practice are used interchangeably.

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__A) Legal Medicine __B) Forensic Medicine

__C) Medical Jurisprudence __D) All of the above

788. The nature of the study or knowledge of legal medicine means; __A) The ability to acquire facts __B) The power to arrange those facts in their logical order __C) The draw a conclusion from the facts which may be useful in the administration of justice __D) All of the above 789. A physician who specified or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties is known as medical Jurist , or __A) Medical Examiner __B) Medico-Legal Expert __C) Medico-Legal Office __D) All of the above

790. He was the earliest recorded medico-legal expert, the chief physician, the architect of King Zoser of the Third Dynasty in Egypt and the builder of the first pyramid. __A) Imhotep (2980 BC) __C) San Juan De Bautista __B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) __D) Antistius 791. The first ever known police surgeon or forensic pathologist, who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar (100-44 BC). Who was murdered and whose body was exposed in the forum. He found out that Julius Caesar suffered from 23 wounds and only one penetrated the chest cavity through the space between the first and second ribs. __A) Imhotep (2980 BC) __C) San Juan De Bautista __B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) __D) Antistius 792. A Papal Physician, who was regarded as the father of forensic medicine. He published a book on Questions Medico-Legales which death with the legal aspects of wounds and the first two-chapter death with the detection of secret medicine. __A) Imhotep (2980 BC) __C) San Juan De Bautista __B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) D) Antistius 793. The first chief of the medico-legal section when Commonwealth Act. No. 181 was enacted on December 10, 1937, creating the Division of Investigation under the Department of Justice. __A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin __B) Dr. Sixto de los Angles __C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis __D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos

794. The first chief of the Medico-legal division when republic act no. 157 was enacted, creating the Bureau of Investigation on June 28,1945. __A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin __B) Dr. Sixto de los Angles __C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis __D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos

795. Which means that the greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct. __A) Conclusion Evidence __C) Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification __B) Prima Facie __D) Real Evidence 796. This refers to a verbal, accurate and picturesque description of the person identified, that is, when the investigator does not have a picture of the wanted or missing person.

105

__A) Rogues Gallery __B) Portrait Parle

__C) Tracing Evidence __D) Identification Card

797. A Presidential Decree of President Ferdinand E. Marcos requiring practitioners of Dentistry to keep records of their parents as one necessary means or factor in solving crimes and settling disputes over claims of damages, insurance and inheritance. __A) Presidential Decree No. 1612, March 1979 __B) Presidential Decree No. 1575, June 11, 1978 __C) Presidential Decree No. 968, August 1975 __D) Presidential Decree No. 1866, June 29,1983 798. A study which resorted to after all the external identification of a dead body, and soft tissues have already disappeared. __A) Personal Identification __B) Study of Bones or Identification of skeleton __C) Study of Dead Body __D) All of the Above 799. This test is to determine whether the blood is of human origin or not. __A) Benzidine Test __B) Precipitin Test __C) Luecomalachite Test __D) All of the above 800. Differential characteristics of blood from different sources,in effect, Arterial Blood has: __A) Bright scarlet in color __B) Leaves the blood vessel with the pressure __C) High oxygen contents __D) All of the above 801. Venous Blood has: __A) Dark red color __C) Low oxygen content __B) Does not spill far from the wound __D) All of the above 802. When blood is exposed to the atmosphere or some other influence, its hemoglobin is converted into meth-hemoglobin or hematin. Thus, the color changes from: __A) Red to reddish-brown __B) Red to clay color __C) Red to chocolate color __D) All of the above 803. Menstrual Blood __A) Has acidic reaction owing to mixture with vaginal amorous __B) Does not clot __C) On microscopic examination there are vaginal epithelial cells __D) Contains large number of deodorleins bacillus __E) All of the above 804. This means that the bulb of the hair is irregular in form due to rupture of the health and shows an undulating surface, together with excrescencies of different shapes and sizes. __A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly

106

__B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth surface, and most probably show signs of atrophic or fatty degeneration, especially in an orderly person __C) Conditions of hair of a dead person __D) All of the above 805. A naturally shed bulb hair means __A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly __B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth surface, and most probably show signs of atrophic or fatty degeneration, especially in an orderly person __C) Conditions of hair of a dead person __D) All of the above 806. Hairs on body surface are __A) Very thick __B) Fine __C) Tapering gradually to fine point __D) All of the above 807. Hairs from the beard, mustache and scalp are. __A) Very thick __B) Fine 808. Humans hair grows __A) One (1) inch a month __B) 0.4 millimeter a day __C) 2.5 centimeters a month __D) All of the above 809. Humans beard hair grows __A) One (1) inch a month __B) 0.4 millimeter a day __C) 2.5 centimeters a month __D) All of the above 810. It is a complete cessation of all the vital function without the possibility of resuscitation; it is an irreversible loss of the properties of living matter. __A) Death __B) Coma __C) Suspended animation __D) All of the above 811. It could be mistaken for death following administration of excessive doses of modern sedatives and hypnotic it clinically appears to have eliminated breathing and heart action, chill the body and makes reflexes wear or totally non-existent. __A) Death __B) Coma __C) Suspended animation __D) All of the above 812. Previously complete and persistent cessation and respiration (cardio-respiratory) is the standard criteria in the determination of death. __A) True __C) Tapering gradually to fine point __D) All of the above

107

__B) Somewhat true __C) False __D) Somewhat false 813. A person will be considered medically and legally dead if __A) In the opinion of a physician, based on ordinary standards of medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous respiratory and cardiac function and, because of the disease or condition which caused, directly or indirectly, these functions to 814. It is to be announced before artificial means of supporting respiratory and circulatory function are terminated and before any vital organ is removed for purposes of transplantation. __A) Coma __B) Death __C) Suspended animation __D) All of the above 815. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital functions of the body on account of diseases, external stimulus or other forms of influence. It may arise especially in hysteria, uremia, catalepsy and electrical shock. __A) Coma __B) Death __C) Suspended animation __D) Algor Mortis 816. This means that after death, the metabolic process inside the body cases. No more heat is produced but the body loses slowly its temperature by evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding atmosphere. __A) Coma __B) Death __C) Suspended animation __D) Algor Mortis 817. It is the rise temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or scene internal changes; it is usually observed in the first two hours after death. __A) Post-mortem Caloricity __B) Algor Mortis __C) Rigor Mortis __D) Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor 818. This is principally due to the fact the last voluntary contraction of muscle during life does not stop after death but is continuous with the set of such rigidity __A) Rigor Mortis __B) Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor __C) Putrefaction __D) All of the above 819. In warm countries like the Philippines, rigor mortis sets in how many hours? __A) 3 to 6 hours __B) 5 to 8 hours __C) 6 to 8 hours __D) Average time is 24 to 48 hours 821. In the Philippine like other tropical countries, decomposition is early and the acerage time is

108

__A) 6 to 8 hours after death __B) 8 to 12 hours after death __C) 24 to 48 hours after death __D) All of the above after death 822. Their presence in the cadaver are useful to proximate the time of the death; that the usual time for their eggs to be hatched into larva is 24 hours, so that by the mere fact that there are maggots in the cadaver, one can conclude that the death has occurred more than 24 hours. __A) Butterflies __B) Files __C) Earthworms __D) Bees __E) All of the above 823. This comprehensive study of a dead body, performed by a trained physician employing recognized dissection procedure and techniques. __A) Embalming __B) Autopsy __C) Medical operation __D) Post mortem examination 824. This refers to an external examination of a dead body fluids may be collected for examination. __A) Embalming __B) Autopsy __C) Medical operation __D) Post mortem examination 825. This is done on a human body with the consent of the deceased persons __A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy __B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy __C) Embalming __D) All of the above 826. The above mentioned kind of autopsy is done for purposes of __A) Determining the cause of death; __B) Providing correlation clinical diagnosis and clinical symptoms; __C) Determining the defectiveness of therapy; __D) Studying the natural course of disease process; and educating students and Physicians __E) All of the above 827. This is an examination performed on a dead body for purposes of determining the cause, manner (mode), and time of death; recovering identifying, and preserving evidentiary material; providing interpretation and correlation of facts and circumstances related to death; providing a factual, objective medical report for law enforcement prosecution and defense agencies; and separating death due to disease from death due to external cause for protection on the innocent. __A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy __B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy __C) Embalming __D) All of the Above 828. In the injury, disease or the combination of both injury and disease responsible for initiating the trend or physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal termination.

109

829. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kills quickly that there is no opportunity for squealed or complications to develop. An example is extensive brain laceration. __A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death __B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of Death __C) The Mechanism of death __D) Cardio respiratory arrest __E) Manner of death 830. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged interval, which permitted the development of serious squealed, which actually caused the death. An example is the stab wound in the abdomen late, cause generalized peritonitis. __A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death __B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of death __C) The Mechanism of death __D) Cardio-respiratory arrest __E) Manner of death 831. It is the physiologic derangement or bio-chemical disturbance incompatible with life which is initiated by the cause of death. Examples are hemorrhage shock, metabolic disturbance, etc. __A) Cardio-respiratory arrest __B) The Mechanism of death __C) Manner of death __D) Use of the term probably __E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND) 832. It is a terminal mechanism of most causes of death and can never stand independently as a reasonable explanation for the fatality. Examples are hemorrhage, skull fracture, etc. __A) Cardio-respiratory arrest __B) The Mechanism of death __C) Manner of death __D) Use of the term probably __E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND) 833. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into being or how the cause of death arose. __A) Manner of death __B) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND) __C) Use of the term probably __D) Medico-Legal Masquerade __E) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death) 834. It is a term when violent deaths may be accompanied by minimal or no external evidence of injury or natural death where signs of violence may be present. Such that in case of homicide, the medical findings may tend to favor suicide or accidental death, and vice versa. __A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death) __B) Medico-Legal Masquerade __C) Use of the term probably __D) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND) __E) Euthanasia 835. Such a term must be discouraged as a qualification to a cause of death, in as much as it is not definite. __B) Medico-Legal Masquerade

110

__C) Use of the term probably __D) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND) __E) Euthanasia 836. This is the unexpected death or infants, usually under six months of age while in apparently good health. __A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death) __B) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death(SUND) __C) Euthanasia __D) Automatism __E) Starvation or inanition 837. It is the dehydration of the whole body, which results in the shivering, and preservation of the body; it is observed in warm countries where evaporation of body fluid takes place earlier and faster than decomposition. __A) Starvation or inanition __B) Mummification __C) Euthanasia __D) Automatism __E) Within 48 hours after death 838. It is the deprivation of a regular and constant supply of food and water which is necessary to normal health of a person. __A) Starvation or inanition __B) Mummification __C) Automatism __D) Within 48 hours after death __E) Embalming 839. It is the artificial way of preserving the body after death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic solution or formalin, per chloride of mercury or arsenic, which is carried into the common chloride and the femoral arteries. __A) Within 48 hours after death __B) Within 24 hours after death __C) Embalming __D) When the person died of communicable disease __E) Starvation or inanition 840. Within how many hours under Section 1092, of the Revised Administrative Code, when a dead body of a person be buried? __A) Within 48 hours after death __B) Within 24 hours after death __C) Within 72 hours after death __D) Within 3 days after death __E) Any of the above 841. Exception or exceptions provided for by said law when a dead body may not be buried within the prescribed hours to be buried. __A) When it stills a subject matter of legal investigation __B) When it is specifically authorized by the local health authorities that the body may be buried more than the hours prescribed __C) Impliedly when the body is embalmed __D) Any of the above 842. If the person died of communicable disease, the body must be buried

111

__A) Within 12 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise __B) Within 6 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise __C) Within 3 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise __D) Within 48 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise __E) None of the above 843. The depth of the grave prescribed under Section 1106. registered administrative Code, as amended by Presidential Decree No. 856 Section 91. code of sanitation is: __A) At least 1- meters deep and filled well and firmly __B) At least 2 meters deep __C) At least 2-1/2 meters deep filled well and firmly __D) All of the above __E) None of the above 844. Is the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of heat. __A) Cremation __B) Burning to ground __C) Pounding __D) Charred __E) Exhumation 845. This means that the diseased buried may be missed or disinterred upon the lawful order of the proper authorities. The order may come from the provincial or city fiscal, from the courts, and from any entity vested with authority to investigate. __A) Cremation __B) Burning to ground __C) Pounding __D) Charred __E) Exhumation 846. It is based on the mass and velocity factors and that the velocity is squared, the velocity component is the important factor. This explains why an M-16 bullet that has a speed of 3,200 feet per second will do more damage than a 0.38 Caliber bullet, which is heavier but has a much slower velocity. __A) Area of Transfer __B) Kinetic Energy __C) Vital reaction __D) Time 847. This means that the shutter the period of time needed for the transfer of energy, the greater the likelihood of producing damage. Thus, if a person is hit on the body and the body moves towards the direction of the force applied, the injury is less as when the body is stationary. __A) Time __B) Area of transfer __C) Kinetic energy __D) Vital reaction 848. This means that the larger the areas of contact between the force applied on the body, the lesser is the damage to the body. By applying an equal force, the damage cause by stabbing is greater compared to a blunt instrument. __A) Vital reaction __B) Area of transfer __C) Kinetic energy

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__D) Time 849. A wound which is the result of a persons instinctive reaction of self-protection, or injuries suffered by a person to avoid or repel potential injury contemplated by the aggression. __A) Self-inflicted Wound __B) Defense Wound __C) Patterned Wound __D) Mutilation 850. Wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which refers the object or instrument causing it. __A) Self-inflicted Wound __B) Defense Wound __C) Patterned Wound __D) Mutilation 851. It is a wound produced on oneself, who has no intention to end his life. __A) Self-inflicted Wound __B) Defense Wound __C) Patterned Wound __D) Mutilation 852. A kind of wound when there is no breach continuity of the skin or mucus or membrane. __A) Open Wound __B) Close Wound __C) Confusion __D) Hematoma __E) All of the above 853. This is a circumscribed extravasations of blood in the subcutaneous tissue or underneath the mucus membrane. __A) Close Wound __B) Open Wound __C) Contusion __D) Hematoma 854. It is the effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin on account of the rupture of the blood vessels as a result of the application of blunt force or violence. __A) Hematoma __B) Contusion __C) Abrasion __D) Incised Wound 855. It is the extravasations or effusion of blood in a newly formed cavity underneath the skin. __A) Hematoma __B) Abrasion __C) Incised wound __D) Stab wound 856. It is an injury characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin caused by a rub or friction against a hard rough surface. __A) Stab Wound

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__B) Incised wound __C) Abrasion __D) Punctured wound 857. This is produced by a sharp-edged or sharp-linear edge of the instrument, a knife, razor, bolo, edge of oyster shell, metal sheet,glass,etc. __A) Stab wound __B) Incised wound __C) Punctured wound __D) Laceration wound 858. This wound is produced by the penetration of a sharp-pointed and sharp edge instrument, like knife, saber, dagger, and scissors. __A) Laceration wound __B) Punctured wound __C) Stab wound __D) Shock 859. This wound is the result of a thrust of a sharp pointed instrument. __A) Punctured wound __B) Shock __C) Stab wound __D) Laceration wound 860. This wound is a tear of the skin and the underlying tissues due to forcible contact with a blunt instrument. __A) Laceration wound __B) Stab wound __C) Shock __D) Hemorrhage 861. It is the extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation brought about wounds in cardiovascular system. __A) Hemorrhage __B) Shock __C) Infection __D) Embolism 862. It is the disturbance of fluid balance resulting to peripheral deficiency which is manifested by the decreased volume of blood, reduced volume of flow, hem concentration, and renal deficiency. __A) Shock __B) Hemorrhage __C) Infection __D) Embolism

863. It is the appearance, growth and development of micro-organism at the of injury. __A) Infection __B) Embolism __C) Hemorrhage __D) All of the above

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864. This a condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream causing block to the blood from in the finer arthritics and capillaries. __A) Embolism __B) Infection __C) Hemorrhage __D) All of the above 865. This kind of explosion occurs when the pressure inside a container exceeds its structurural strength. Examples are explosion of air pressure, water pressure tacks, kerosene burrier,etc. __A) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion __B) Atomic explosion __C) Chemical explosion __D) Electrical explosion 866. This explosion occurs when a chemical reaction producers heat and gas at a rate faster than the surrounding can dissipate. __A) Chemical explosion __B) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion __C) Electrical explosion __D) Nuclear explosion 867. The release of a significant amount of energy by fusion or fission and consequently with a significant increase of destructiveness. __A) Nuclear explosion __B) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion __C) Chemical explosion __D) Electrical explosion 868. In sadistic, the wounding power of a bullet, which, therefore, play a very important role is due to. __A) Bullet efficiency __B) Mass (weight)and its velocity __C) Ballistics coefficient __D) Flame 869. Which means that the cartridge powder can be burned in approximately 0.0001 second; that the conversion rate by combustion of the gunpowder to bullet energy is about 30 to 32 percent. __A) Bullet efficiency __B) Mass (weight)and its velocity __C) Ballistics coefficient __D) Flame 870. This describes the ability of a bullet to maintain its velocity against air resistance. __A) Flame __B) Ballistics coefficient __C) Bullet efficiency __D) Obscuration __E) Mass (weight)and its velocity 871. This is the sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after explosion from escaping so as to maintain pressure in the firing chamber thereby increasing the propulsive powder on the bullet. ___ A) Mass (weight) and its Velocity ___B) Obturation

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___C) Bullet Efficiency ___D) Ballistic Coefficient ___E) Flame

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ANSWER KEY A. CRIMINOLOGY 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. B B. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6975 48. A 49. A 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. C 66. A 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. A 71. D 72. A 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. B 85. A 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. C

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90. B 91. A 92. D 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. C 104. A 105. A 106. E 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. C 115. D 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. D 120. A 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. D 125. D 126. B 127. A 128. B 129. E 130. A 131. B 132. A 133. B 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. B 138. A C. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION 146. 147. * *

139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145.

C D B A A B A

148. 149. 150.

* * *

118

151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178.

* * * * * * * C B B C C D A A B A B C A B B A B B A B C

179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203.

B C A A B C D E A D A B C D A D A C B A B A B A B

D. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

224. 204. * 225. 205. * 226. 206. * 227. 207. * 228. 208. * 229. 209. * 230. 210. * 231. 211. * 232. 212. B 233. 213. C 234. 214. A 235. 215. A 236. 216. B 237. 217. A 238. 218. B 239. 219. A 240. 220. A 221. B 222. B 223. A E. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION 243. 241. A 244. 242. B 245.

B B A B A B C A B A B A A C A E A

B A B

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246. 247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270.

C A B B A * D B A B A B A B A B B A B A D A B A B

271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294.

A B A D A B C C A B A B E A C D D A B C A B C D

F. POLICE ORGANIZATION 295. 296. 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. 304. 305. 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314. 315. 316. 317. 318. 319. 320. 321. E D C B B A B C B B C C A B B A B B C B A D A D D A C 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334. 335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349. A A B C C A B D A B A B B A B A B A B C A A A B A B B B

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350. 351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371.

A B A B C A C C A B A D A C B A B A B A B B

372. 373. 374. 375. 376. 377. 378. 379. 380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389.

A B A B A A B A C B A B B A B A C A

G. CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT 419. 390. A 420. 391. A 421. 392. C 422. 393. B 423. 394. C 424. 395. B 425. 396. C 426. 397. B 427. 398. A 428. 399. B 429. 400. A 430. 401. B 431. 402. B 432. 403. A 433. 404. B 434. 405. A 435. 406. B 436. 407. B 437. 408. A 438. 409. B 439. 410. A 440. 411. A 441. 412. B 442. 413. B 443. 414. A 444. 415. B 445. 416. A 446. 417. C 418. B

A C C A B C A B A A C C A A A B A A A A A A B B C B A B

121

H. CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. 452. 453. 454. 455. I. B A E D C B A B D

POLICE SUPERVISION * * * * * A B A C B A A 468. 469. 470. 471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477. 478. B A A B C A B B B A A

456. 457. 458. 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 465. 466. 467. J.

CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECION MAKING 490. 479. * 491. 480. * 492. 481. * 493. 482. * 494. 483. * 495. 484. B 496. 485. A 497. 486. A 498. 487. A 499. 488. A 489. B K. POLICE ADMINISTRATION 508. 509. 510. 511. 512. 513. 514. 515. 516. 517. 518.

A B A B A A B A B A

500. 501. 502. 503. 504. 505. 506. 507.

* * * * * * * *

* * C B A B A B C C B

122

519. 520. 521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526. 527. 528. 529. 530. 531. 532. 533. 534.

B A B A B A A B B A D A A A B A

535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543. 544. 545. 546. 547.

A B A B C C C C D A A A D

L. POLICE INTELLIGENCE 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. * * * * * * * * B

557. 558. 559. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564.

A B A A B B B A

M. PLANS AND OPERATION 565. 566. 567. 568. 569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576. 577. 578. 579. 580. 581. 582. B A B A A B A B A B A B A B B B B A

583. 584. 585. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590. 591. 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599.

B B A B A B B B A B A C A B C C B

N. LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME 600. 601. 602. A C B 603. 604. 605. 606. B C A B

123

607. 608. 609. 610. 611. 612.

A B A B A A

613. 614. 615. 616. 617.

B B B B A

O. TRAFFIC AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION 618. 619. 620. 621. 622. 623. 624. 625. 626. 627. 628. 629. 630. 631. 632. 633. 634. B A B C B A A B C B B A B A A B A

635. 636. 637. 638. 639. 640. 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. 646. 647. 648. 649. 650.

B A A B C B B C A B B A B B A B

P. CRIMINALISTICS a. Forensic Chemistry 651. 652. 653. 654. 655. 656. 657. 658. 659. 660. B C B B B B A B A A b. Personal Identification 671. 672. 673. 674. 675. 676. A B * * * * 677. 678. 679. 680. 681. 682. * * * * * * 661. 662. 663. 664. 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670. A B A B C A * * * *

124

683. 684. 685. 686. 687. 688. 689. 690. 691. 692. 693. 694. 695.

* * * * A B B A B A B B A c. Questioned Documents

696. 697. 698. 699. 700. 701. 702. 703. 704. 705. 706. 707. 708.

B C B A B A A A B A B B A

709. 710. 711. 712. 713. 714. 715. 716. 717. 718. 719. 720. 721. 722. 723. 724. 725. 726. 727. 728. 729. 730. 731. 732. 733. 734. 735.

B B A A B A C B A B A B A A B A B A B A B C B A B A B d. Forensic Ballistics

736. 737. 738. 739. 740. 741. 742. 743. 744.

A A B A B A B B A

125

745. 746. 747. 748. 749. 750. 751. 752. 753. 754. 755. 756. 757. 758. 759. 760.

B A A B A C B A C B A B B B C C

760.

126