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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 930


In This Issue
Regulars
Editorial 933
October 2009 Science and Technology 934
Year—12 Issue—140 Latest General Knowledge 937
Inspiring Young Talents—
(i) Topper : Uttarakhand, PMT 2009 (3rd Position)
—Pavitra Saxena 941
(ii) Topper : U.P. CPMT 2009 (Rank-13)—Satyendra Singh 943
Science Tips 945

Physics
Editor
MAHENDRA JAIN Sound-II : Interference and Beats 947
Nuclear Physics-II : Structure of Nucleus 953
Typical Model Paper 957
Typical Model Paper 962

Chemistry
Alcohols 967
Typical Model Paper 978
Typical Model Paper 984

Zoology
Editor/Publisher is not responsible for Communicable Diseases and Control of Microbes 989
views, data, figures etc. expressed in the Anatomy of Liver and its Disorders 995
articles by the authors.
—Editor Human Population 999
Typical Model Paper 1002
Typical Model Paper 1004
No part of this publication can be
reproduced or transmitted in any form Typical Model Paper 1007
without the prior written permission from
the publishers. Botany
Funaria : A Terrestrial Moss 1010
Reproduction and Development in Angiosperms 1014
Typical Model Paper 1024
Edited, printed and published by Mahendra Typical Model Paper 1026
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C.S.V. / October/ 2009 / 931 / 1A


To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
It gives us great pleasure and satisfaction in presenting to you the October
Issue of your favourite and frontline magazine ‘Competition Science Vision’. Our
readers generally agree that each issue of the magazine is unique in itself. The
present issue is improved in extent and quality of subject matter to make it more
useful and examination-oriented. The ever changing pattern of PMT examinations
has found our special attention.
CSV gives all that you want to be successful in any such competition. The vast
majority of our readers claim it second to none. It fully covers all medical entrance
tests held throughout the country at present.
It is hardwork under proper guidance that makes one successful in these tests.
In giving you the best subject matter and guidance CSV has no parallel. Hence, we
advise you to make CSV as the base of your preparations.
Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master
your career and shape your destiny.
With best wishes for your all-round success and a bright future.
Sincerely yours,
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(Editor)

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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 932


Dr. R. Ravindran, Director of
NCAOR, said, ‘‘Bharti will enable us to
take up rare research on marine
ecology of polar region. Antarctica is
a continent spread across 13 million
sq km and we should not confine
ourselves in just one area.’’ Bharti,
like Maitri, will also conduct research
on seismic activities, climate change
and medicine.
The station will be a compact
structure of 30 × 50 metre, accom-
treated. The small portion of brain modating 25 scientists. While living in
also revealed, for the first time, the
changes in rock and mineral com- tissue at the focus (about the size of Antarctica, where temperatures rang-
position.’’ the rice grain) absorbs the energy and ing from – 89 degree celsius in winter
converts it to heat; the temperature in to – 25 degree celsius in summer, can
Researchers say the presence of
this area rises to about 130 degree be tough and constructing a perma-
magnesium, calcium, iron and silicon Fahrenheit, killing the cells. The entire nent structure is a huge challenge.
in lunar rocks could help to confirm system is integrated with a magnetic The station will use wind power and
whether the Moon was covered with resonance scanner, which allows solar power as sources of energy and
molten magma ocean early in its neurosurgeons to make sure they
leave minimum carbon footprint, while
history. target the correct piece of brain tissue.
ensuring optimum heating and other
Brain Surgery with Ultrasound could also potentially facilities for scientists.
Ultrasound be used to treat other brain disorders,
Experiments in extreme cold
such as parkinson disease.
climates, as in the polar region, have
Neurosurgeons might soon be
able to say goodbye to the scalpel. A
India’s Third Base in contributed immensely to scientific
Antarctica developments.
new technique uses ultrasound waves
to remove parts of the brain. High- India was admitted to the Scienti-
intensity ultrasound—a different type India’s first permanent research fic Committee on Antarctic Research
than what is used in prenatal screen- station, Dakshin Gangotri, in South (SCAR), an international body that
ing—heats up parts of the brain, Polar region set up in 1984, was
coordinates scientific activities in the
thereby killing sections of tissues that buried in ice and had to be abandoned
region. On October 1, 1984 India held
are damaged. in 1990, a year after India set up
Maitri, the second polar station. the Vice-Chairman’s post in the
Focussed ultrasound surgery has Twenty-five years after India esta- Committee. Russia, U.S.A., U.K.,
now been performed successfully on blished Dakshin Gangotri in South France, China, Chile, France,
nine human patients, according to a Polar region, it is all set to build the Australia and Argentina have multiple
preliminary study done. The ground third such centre in Antartica to take stations in Antarctica
breaking finding here is that you can cutting-edge research in various
make lesions deep in the brain— fields. The new station, tentatively ‘Copernicium (CP)’—A
through the intact skull and skin—with named Bharti, is scheduled to be
extreme precision, accuracy and New Element in Periodic
operational in 2012, making India a
safety. member of an elite group of nine Table
The traditional treatment involves nations that have multiple stations in
destroying a small part of the the region. Discovered 13 years ago, and
thalamus, a structure that relays mes- Maitri station in Antarctica officially added to the periodic table
sages between different brain areas. recently, element 112 finally has a
In the past, this has been accom- name. It will be called ‘Copernicium’,
plished with radio frequency ablation, with the symbol ‘CP ’, in honour of the
in which a probe is inserted into the
astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus. The
skull or with radio surgery which
team of scientists who discovered the
focuses radiation on the area. The National Centre for Antarctic
Surgeons believe that the new tech- element chose the name to honour
and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa,
nique will be faster—acting and more the man who changed our view. The
will set up the new station on
precise than the current methods. Larsmann Hill, 3000 km from International Union of Pure and
In this procedure ultrasound Schirmacher Oasis, where Maitri Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) will
beams are focussed on a specific stands. While Maitri is more than 100 officially endorse the new element’s
point in the brain; the exact location km from Antaractic Sea, Bharti will name.
depends on the condition being be on promontory by the sea. ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 935 / 2


Gallantry Awards—On the and a senior leader of BJP. Now he is
AWARDS/HONOURS
occasion of Independence Day, Presi- expelled from BJP. In this book,
dent Pratibha Patil approved 148 Jaswant Singh has highly appreciated
Miss Universe 2009 Mohammad Ali Jinnah and bitterly
gallantry medals, including 2 Ashok
Eighteen-year-old Stefania Fer- Chakra, 4 Kirti Chakra, 26 Shaurya criticised great Indian leaders like
nandez of Venezuela was crowned Chakra, 2 Bar to Sena Medals, 100 Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and others.
Miss Universe 2009 on August 24, Sena Medals, 4 Nao Sena Medals, 5 The book is controversial).
2009 in Los Angeles by incumbent Vayu Sena Medals and 3 Tatrakshak Midnight Diaspora—Ed. Daniel
crown holder compatriot Dayana Medals. Ashok Chakra is the country’s Herwitz and Ashutosh Varshney
Mendoza. She is the sixth Miss highest peace time gallantry award. (Various reading of Pakistan as a
Universe from a South American Major Mohit Sharma (posthumously) country in the light of its portrayal in
country, known for its obsession with from 1 Para Special Force and Major Rushdie’s novels).
beauty. D. Shree Ram Kumar from 30 Assam Why People Protest—Subhash
Rifles were awarded Ashok Chakra. Sharma (In this book, the author
Kirti Chakra Awardees are— analyses the theory and practice of
Major Amit Oskar Fernandes of 7 ecological movements in general. It
Maratha Light Infantry. presents a study of six such move-
Major Deepak Tiwari of Electro- ments in the third world from an
nics and Mechanical Engineering ecological and socio-economic stand
Corps. point).
Shabir Ahmed Malik (posthu-
mously) of para Brigade. Naik DAYS
Rishikesh Gujjar of 10 Rashtriya Rifles
(Rajput). September 2—Coconut Day
Nooyi, Sonia, Kochhar and September 5—Teachers’ Day,
Mazumdar Shaw in Forbes List— Sanskrit Day
Stefania Fernandez PepsiCo Chief Executive Indira Nooyi, September 8—International
The first runner-up title is shared Congress President Sonia Gandhi, Literacy Day (UNESCO)
by Miss Australia Rachael Finch and ICICI Bank Chief Chanda Kochhar September 14—Hindi Divas
Miss Puerto Rico Mayra Matos Perez and Kiran Majumdar Shaw, Chair- September 15—Engineers’ Day
with the title of second runner-up going person of Biocon have been listed September 16—World Ozone
to Miss Kosovo Gona Dragusha. among the world’s 100 most powerful Day
women by Forbes magazine. Nooyi September 21—Alzheimer’s Day,
Magsaysay Awards 2009
has been ranked third, Sonia Gandhi Day for Peace and Non-violence
Names of the winners of Mag- 13th, Kochhar 20th and Mazumdar (U.N.O.)
saysay Awards 2009 were announced 91th. September 22—Rose Day (Wel-
in Manila on August 3, 2009. India’s Reliance names Yusuf Pathan fare of Cancer Patients)
social activist, Deep Joshi, who has and Jadeja as Brand Ambas- September 26—Day of the Deaf
done pioneering work for develop- sadors—Two prominent cricketers
ment of rural communities, was September 27—World Tourism
Yusuf Pathan and Ravindra Jadeja Day
named for Ramon Magsaysay Award. are picked up by the Reliance
Ms. Ka Hsaw Wa of Myanmar, Industries Ltd. (RIL) as its Brand
cofounder of Earth Rights Inter- Ambassadors on a long term contract.
national, was chosen for the Award Their main job will be to identify bud- Gayatri Devi—Former Queen
for dauntlessly pursuin non-violent yet ding sportspersons, particularly in the Mother of the erstwhile Jaipur State
effective channels for redress, expo- field of cricket, which may ultimately and once ranked among the ten most
sure and education for the defence of lead to the RIL forming its own team. beautiful women in the world. Maha-
human rights, environment and demo- rani Gayatri Devi, passed away in
cracy. BOOKS Jaipur after brief illness. She was 90
Other winners are—Yu Xiaogang and is survived by her grand children
and Ma Jun of China, Antonio Oposa Jinnah : India Partition Inde- and step sons, who include the
Jr. of Philippines and Ms. Krisana pendence—Jaswant Singh (The former Maharaja of Jaipur, Bhawani
Kraisintu of Thailand. author is the former Union Minister Singh.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 937


She was the former princess of passed away on August 3, 2009 in Ahmad Tariq Karim (New High
Cooch Bihar in West Bengal. She Kolkata. He was very popular in West Commissioner of Bangladesh )—A
studied in Shantiniketan. She was the Bengal. former career diplomat, Mr. Ahmad
third wife of the former ruler of Jaipur, Beithullah Mehsud—Pakistan’s Tariq Karim, presented his credentials
Man Singh-II. Her husband passed most wanted man, Beithullah Mehsud, to the President, Pratibha Patil, as the
away in 1970. Among the first royals was killed in a United States missile new High Commissioner of Bangla-
to join the democratic process of strike on August 7, 2009 in South desh to India. During 1980s, Mr.
elections, Ms. Gayatri Devi won the Waziristan tribal area. The 35-year old Karim had served as the Deputy High
Lok Sabha elections in 1962, 1967 Mehsud was the face of the Pakistani Commissioner in New Delhi. Mr.
and 1971 contesting on Swatantra Taliban and he was involved in Karim will head Bangladesh mission
Party ticket. During emergency, she several dreadful terrorist attacks. here at a time when both the countries
underwent a jail term in Tihar. Earlier this year, Govt. of Pakistan are attempting to forge a new
announced a 50 million bounty for relationship based on consultation
him. Before that, the U.S. Govt. had and trust.
announced a $ 5 million head money
for him.

Jaswant Singh—The Bhartiya


Janata Party on August 19, 2009
Nandita Das (New Chief, CFSI ) expelled Jaswant Singh its veteran
—Film actress Nandita Das took over leader and the M.P. A meeting of the
as the Chairperson of Children’s Film Parliamentary Board in Shimla
Society of India (CFSI). She will have
unanimously decided to remove the
a tenure of three years. The actress,
who created waves with her roles in
films like ‘Fire’ and ‘Earth’ has bagged
several national and international
awards.
Her predecessor, Nafisa Ali, had
resigned.
Jagannath Pahadia (New
She was given a State honour Governor, Haryana)—Former Chief
and her step son Bhawani Singh lit Minister of Rajasthan, Jagannath
the pyre. Just after departure of Pahadia, took over as the new
Rajmata, royal battle for property has Governor of Haryana. He succeeded Jaswant Singh
erupted. A. R. Kidwai. Mr. Pahadia (77) was
Leela Naidu—Hindi actress former Union Minister from the primary
born in Bhusawar village in Bharatpur
Leela Naidu passed away in Mumbai membership. The decision is being
district of Rajasthan. He served Union
after prolonged illness. She was 69. read in the party as a stern message
Ministry as Deputy Minister for several
She made her debut in 1960 with of zero tolerance to ideological devia-
years and Chief Minister of Rajasthan
Balraj Sahni in Hrishikesh Mukherjee’s tion and indiscipline. In the meeting,
since June 6, 1980 till July 14, 1981.
‘Anuradha ’. However, she achieved the tempers were high among the
He had also been the Governor of
fame only after starring with in a non- senior leaders. They viewed his praise
Bihar.
orthodox role with Sunil Dutt in ‘‘Yeh of Pakistan’s founder Mohammad Ali
Margaret Alva (New Governor,
Raste Hain Pyar Ke’’ (1963). She Jinnah, and his adverse comments
Uttarakhand)—Senior Congress
married Bikki Oberoi, owner of Oberoi on India’s first Deputy Prime Minister,
leader, Margaret Alva took over as
chain of hotels with whom she had twin Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, as ideologi-
the Governor of Uttarakhand. She is
daughters. She divorced Oberoi and cal heresy. Mr. Singh did his comment
the first woman Governor of this hill
married a poet and journalist and got in his recently launched book, Jinnah :
state.
settled in Hong Kong. India-Pakistan-Independence (Rupa &
Justice J. Bhalla (New CJ, Co. New Delhi, 2009, 669 pages).
Devendra Nath Dwivedi— Rajasthan )—Justice Jagdish Bhalla
Constitutional expert Devendra Nath was sworn in on August 8, 2009 as Mr. Jaswant Singh’s Jinnah is an
Dwivedi, who was recently appointed the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High impressive, personally attractive,
Governor of Gujarat, passed away in Court. He has been transferred to intellectually brilliant freedom-loving,
New Delhi due to liver problem, even Rajasthan from Himachal Pradesh. politically iron-willed, tactically unstop-
before he could take up his assign- Born on November 1, 1948, Justice pable figure.
ment. He was 74. Bhalla started legal practice in Deep Joshi (Magsaysay Award
Subhash Chakraborty—Senior Allahabad High Court in 1971. He Winner 2009)—Joshi (60) has been
leader of Communist Party of India was elevated as Judge of Allahabad honoured with Ramon Magsaysay
(Marxist) and West Bengal’s Minister High Court in 1995 and Chief Justice Award 2009 for his extraordinary
for Transport, Sports and Youth of Himachal Pradesh High Court in achievement in seeking to transform
Services, Subhash Chakraborty February 2008. the lives of 68,000 families in several

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 938


backward states, mainly the naxal- The squads (for Sri Lankan tri- over last year’s performance of 5
affected belt Jharkhand and Bankura series and the Champions Trophy) gold, 5 silver and 8 bronze, out of 30
and Purlia in West Bengal. He is —M.S. Dhoni (Captain), Yuvraj Singh medals.
recognised for bringing professiona- (Vice Captain), Sachin Tendulkar, Medalists—1. Guliskhan (Kaza-
lism to the NGD movement in India. Gautam Gambhir, Rahul Dravid, khstan), 2. Krithika, 3. Bhakti.
Suresh Raina, Yusuf Pathan,
Medals tally (read as country,
Harbhajan Singh, Aashish Nehra, R.P.
gold, silver, bronze, total).
Singh, Ishant Sharma, Dinesh Karthik,
Praveen Kumar, Amit Mishra and India 8-7-23; Vietnam 2-1-1-4;
Abhishek Nayar. Iran 1-1-2-4, UAE 1-0-0-1; Kaza-
khstan 1-0-0-1; Uzbekistan 0-2-1-3.
Sri Lanka-Pakistan ODI Series
—Sri Lanka clinched the ODI series Asian Zonal Chess Champion-
3-2 against Pakistan. On August 9, ship—International Master Shriram
2009 in Colombo, Pakistan beat Sri Jha emerged as the men’s champion
Making an Impact : Joshi Lanka by 132 runs in the fifth and the with 10 points out of a possible 12 in
Mr. Joshi took his B. Tech. degree final match. Sri Lanka won first three the Asian Zonal Chess Championship
from NIT Allahabad and M. Tech. and matches of the series while Pakistan on August 17, 2009 at the Airports
MBA degrees from Massachusetts clinched the last two matches. Thilan Authority of India Club in New Delhi.
Institute of Technology, U.S.A. He Tushara of Sri Lanka was adjusted He beat Asharaf Ahmed of Maldives
also worked as a Ford Foundation the Man of the Series. in the 13th and final round.
Programme Officer. Sri Lanka had already clinched
In 1983, he co-founded the non- the Test Series 2-0 against Pakistan.
profit organization : ‘‘Professional
Assistance for Development Action Wrestling Drought in 177 Districts—
(PRADAN)’’ that recruits college South-West monsoon has proved to
World Wrestling Champion- be unpredictable, variable and uncer-
graduates to do community works. In
ship : Indian Squad—Seventeen tain this year—with the official
2006 Joshi had received Harmony
wrestlers have been selected to announcement that 177 districts suffer
Silver Award for his contributions to
represent India in the World Wrestling from either drought or drought-like
society.
Championship to be held in Herning conditions indicating the magnitude of
(Denmark) since September 20 till 27. the crisis.
SPORTS Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awardee
Little or no rain, late rain and
and Olympic bronze medalist, Sushil
heavy rain have all been features of
Cricket Kumar will lead the India squad.
monsoon behaviour so far in different
Indian Team for Champions The squad : Men (Freestyle)— parts of India. Officially, the monsoon
Trophy and Tri-Series—Rahul Dravid Balaraj Singh (55 kg), Hardeep Singh ends on September 30, 2009 and it is
is a prominent member of the India’s (60 kg), Sushil Kumar (66 kg), possible that September will witness
ODI squad for the tri-series in Sri Ramesh Kumar (74 kg), Anil Mann heavy rain at some places, leading to
Lanka and the ICC Championship (96 kg) and Joginder Kumar (120 kg). floods and damage to crops. For
Trophy. The National Selection Panel Greco-Roman—Rajender Kumar agriculture, what matters is not total
which met in Chennai on August 16, (55 kg), Ravinder Singh (60 kg), Sunil rainfall, but its distribution.
2009, picked the same 15 for both the Kumar (66 kg), Anil Kumar (96 kg) It is crucial for the Union and
tournaments. Dravid’s return will add and Dharmender Dalal (120 kg). State governments to formulate plans
the quality to the Indian top-order. The Women—Nirmal Devi (48 kg), on the understanding that drought-
key batsman Virender Sehwag, Babita (51 kg), Alka Tomar (59 kg), like crises hit the poor, especially agri-
recovering from a shoulder surgery, Suman Kundu (63 kg), Geetika Jakhar cultural labourers and land-poor
has not been considered by the selec- (67 kg) and Gursharanpreet Kaur (72 peasants, the socially underprivileged
tion panel headed by Krishnamachari kg). sections and women the hardest.
Srikanth. Women are badly affected, because
In the pace bowling section, Chess they do not have equal access to non-
Praveen Kumar, with his swing Asian Youth Meet—Asian Youth farm employment opportunities and
change of pace and yorkers has been concluded on August 8, 2009 in New are forced to take up jobs involving
preferred over Munaf Patel. Praveen’s Delhi. Living up to the expectations high drudgery but low wages.
ability to swing the new ball and Indians came up with a strong finish The first priority for the ‘National
reverse the old could have clinched in the most sections to reassert their Crisis Management Committee ’,
the argument in his favour. supremacy in the Asian Youth Chess chaired by Finance Minister Pranab
The tri-series in Sri Lanka, since Championship at the Tivoli Garden Mukherjee, will be to ensure that the
September 8 till 14, involves the host, Resort in New Delhi. India won 23 out drought relief and rehabilitation pro-
India and New Zealand. The Cham- of 36 medals at stake and its haul grammes are pro-poor, pro-socially
pions Trophy will be held in South included 8 gold, 7 silver and 8 bronze underprivileged and pro-women.
Africa since September 22 till Oct. 5. medals. This was an improvement ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 939


⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Hardwork, a strong will to succeed, encouragement of my parents and
teachers and above all blessings of the Almighty are the main elements
of my success.’’
—Pavitra Saxena
Topper—Uttarakhand, PMT 2009 (3rd Position)

[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Miss Pavitra Saxena who has the
credit of securing a high position on the list of successful candidates of Uttarakhand PMT, 2009. In addition,
she has also cleared other pre-medical tests with equivalent ranks viz., AFMC, CBSE 09, AIPVT and UPTU.
For her brilliant success she deserves all praise and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview
is presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your Pavitra—In my views having
brilliant success. command in Biology is like covering
Pavitra—I am very thankful to half of the exam paper which can
you. make a path of success. Secondly,
commanding Chemistry and Physics
CSV—Before knowing your result
is the most important.
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ? Bio-Data
Pavitra—I thought that they were Name—Pavitra Saxena
apart from the general mass like that Father’s Name—Mr. Pravin Kumar
of us. Saxena
CSV—Achieving top position has Mother’s Name—Mrs. Neeta
come as surprise to you or were you — It is a very helpful maga- Saxena
confident of achieving it ? zine containing conceptual and Educational Qualifications—
important questions related to H.S./Std. X—86% (St. Francis Sec.
Pavitra—Actually I did my papers
various pre-medical tests. This School, Agra), 2005.
well, but I never thought that I would
magazine has been highly useful Inter/Std. XII—84% (St. Patrick’s
attain such a meritable position in Junior College, Agra), 2007.
such a renowned examination. to me in grasping these examina-
Special Ahievements—
tions so easily.
CSV—What do you think is the ● Stood 3rd in UPMT-09
secret of your success ? —Pavitra Saxena ● Obtained position in merit list of
AFMC-09
Pavitra—First of all I would like Pavitra—From my father who is
● Selected in CBSE (Mains)-09
to thank the Almighty, my parents, my Chief Pharmacist in S. N. Medical
● Selected in AIPVT (120 rank)
teachers for my success. Actually it is College, Agra.
● 17th position in UPTU
the hardwork and the will of a person CSV—From when did you start
which can make him lead the world. the preparation for it ? CSV—Did you make complete
The same is with me. study of all topics or of some selective
Pavitra—After 12th examination.
CSV—In how many attempts did topics ?
CSV—What planning did you
you get this success ? Pavitra—Initially I made thorough
make for preparation ? Please tell
Pavitra—Frankly speaking in two study of each and every chapter of
something in detail.
years I was able to grasp the exam. each subject but finally around the
Pavitra—I actually planned very time of exam. I made selective topics
CSV—What were the shortcom- little for that. My schedule was not so to study.
ings in your preparation for earlier much arranged whenever I thought to
CSV—How did you give final
attempts ? How did you make up for study a subject I picked it up.
touches to your preparation ?
them this time ? CSV—How much time did you Pavitra—By solving those ques-
Pavitra—Earlier I never bothered devote daily and regularly for Physics, tions which were of utmost impor-
about the theory of Chemistry and Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ? tance and were conceptual and by
Physics. But now with the help of my Pavitra—Frankly, I didn’t plan reading the underlined parts of my
teachers and with my more efforts, time individually for these subjects notes.
paying more attention on class but roughly around 2-21/ 2 hours. I CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
lectures I was able to cope up with used to give separately for Physics, Pavitra—Yes, actually notes
my shortcomings. Chemistry, Zoology and Botany. should be like that in which each and
CSV—From where did you get CSV—Out of the above four every important thing can be summed
the inspiration of choosing a medical subjects, to which subject did you give up and these notes can help to give a
career ? more weightage and why ? final touch to our preparation.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 941


CSV—What was your attitude for CSV—What help do the science CSV—Please suggest in what
solving numerical questions ? What magazines render in the preparations way CSV can be made more useful
weightage did you give them ? for this examination ? for medical aspirants.
Pavitra—I used to solve the Pavitra—Science magazines Pavitra—Although it contains a
questions myself whether I was able number of useful facts but more and
give a child new and foremost infor-
or not then only used to see its more new informations could be
mations which are very helpful in
answer and solution and then used to added to it which can make a child to
repeat the way of solving the same competing these competitive exami-
lead the world.
question. They are of utmost impor- nations.
tance counting a lot in exam. CSV—What will be your criterion Personal Qualities
CSV—How much time is suffi- for selecting a magazine for these Hobbies—Seeing T.V., hearing
cient for preparing for this examina- examination ? music, playing
tion ? Strong Point—My family
Pavitra—About two years time is Pavitra—A magazine containing
new and important informations which Weak Point—My attitude towards
sufficient for the preparation of these theoretical studies
examinations. could help in competing these exams
CSV—From what level of educa- would be most preferred. CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion should an aspirant begin pre- CSV—What is your opinion about tion in the merit list as well as the
paring for it ? our ‘Competition Science Vision’ ? marks obtained in different subjects.
Pavitra—From 11th a student
How much helpful and useful do you What was your aggregate percentage
should start preparing for it and should
find it ? of marks ?
pay attention both to his medical
target and his school studies along- Pavitra— It is a very helpful Pavitra—In UPMT-09, I secured
with his/her recreation time. magazine which a student can opt 3rd rank and obtained 163 marks with
CSV—What was your order of containing the conceptual and 42 in Physics, 40-40 in Botany and
preference for various branches for important questions related to
Zoology, 41 Chemistry. Also came in
which this test is held ? competitive examinations. I am
merit list of AFMC, selected in CBSE
Pavitra—First of all I prefer very thankful to this because this
magazine helped me to grasp the (mains), UPTU and AIPVT.
MBBS. Secondly, it is BDS and
nothing other than these. exam easily. (Continued on Page 944 )

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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 942


⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Regular daily study, confidence in my study, hardwork and faith in
God’s grace are the secrets of my success.’’
—Satyendra Singh
Topper—U.P. CPMT 2009 (Rank-13)

[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Mr. Satyendra Singh who has the
credit of being successful in U.P. CPMT–2009 with high rank. For his brilliant success he deserves all praise
and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview is presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your Satyendra—Physics was my Satyendra—By revising my
brilliant success. weak point at the time of preparation. topics frequently and solving a lot of
Satyendra—Thank you, sir. So firstly, I decided to do hardwork in MCQs.
CSV—Before knowing your result Physics. I solved MCQs of GRB CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
what did you think about those who objective and before 2 months from Satyendra—Yes, I prepared my
achieve top positions ? exam I had started complete revision. own notes. These helped me during
Satyendra—I thought that those revision at the time of exam.
are extra brilliant persons, but now I CSV—What was your attitude for
realised regularity and hardwork is solving numerical questions ? What
the key of success. weightage did you give them ?
CSV—Achieving top position has
Bio-Data
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ? Name—Satyendra Singh Yadav
Father’s Name—Shri Bhoop
Satyendra—I was confident of Narayan Singh
good rank but not such a top rank. Mother’s Name—Smt. Madhu
CSV—What do you think is the Yadav
secret of your success ? Educational Qualifications—
Satyendra—As above regularity —‘Competition Science Vision’ H.S./Std. X—65% (Subhash Smark
is a unique magazine for pre- Inter College, Kanpur), 2003.
and hardwork is the key of success.
medical competitions. It gives Inter/Std. XII—68% (Subhash
CSV—In how many attempts did Smark Inter College, Kanpur), 2005.
full study material in all the four
you get this success ? Special Achievements—
subjects. Its good quality ques-
Satyendra—I had tried for four tions and facts sharpen the brain ● 13th rank in U.P. CPMT 2009
years. (OBC-7)
and thinking power of the
● 9th rank in AIPVT 2009
CSV—What were the shortcom- readers.
ings in your preparation for earlier —Satyendra Singh Satyendra—I always tried to
attempts ? How did you make up for clear the concepts of Physics for
them this time ? CSV—How much time did you
question solving and did to proper
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Satyendra—In earlier attempts, I revision of Biology and Chemistry.
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
could not be able to revise the whole CSV—How much time is suffi-
syllabus in last month, but this time I Satyendra—Daily I devoted 7-8 cient for preparing for this examina-
had started revision before 2 months. hours for study, but I focussed mainly tion ?
on Physics and it took 3-4 hours.
CSV—From where did you get Satyendra—If anyone studies
the inspiration of choosing a medical CSV—Out of the above four 7-8 hours regularly in a day then
career ? subjects, to which subject did you give 2 years are sufficient for preparing for
more weightage and why ? this examination.
Satyendra—My father is a doctor
and many poor people come to him Satyendra—I gave more atten- CSV—From what level of educa-
for treatment. To see the happiness tion on my Physics because I thought tion should an aspirant begin prepar-
on the faces of these patients, I chose it requires more and more practice. ing for it ?
a medical career. CSV—Did you make complete Satyendra—According to me
CSV—From when did you start study of all topics or of some selective student should start preparation for it
the preparation for it ? topics ? after 10th standard.
Satyendra—I had started pre- Satyendra—I studied all the CSV—What was your order of
parations since 2005. topics completely and before exam. I preference for various branches for
CSV—What planning did you revised my syllabus. which this test is held ?
make for preparation ? Please tell CSV—How did you give final Satyendra—MBBS, BDS, BAMS,
something in detail. touches to your preparation ? BHMS.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 943 / 3


CSV—Please mention various What was your aggregate percentage CSV—Please tell us something
books in each subject and magazines or marks ? about your family.
on which you based your preparation. Satyendra—13th position in Pavitra—Actually mine is a joint
Satyendra—CSV objective for CPMT–2009 family. I have an elder brother
Physics, Ramesh Gupta’s Modern Physics—43/50 Pavneet Saxena obtaining engineer-
Zoology, R. K. Pillai for Zoology, Chemistry—47/50 ing education, my father Pravin Kumar
Modern Botany of M.P. Kaushik and Saxena, mother Neeta Saxena.
Zoology—47/50
O.P. Tandon for Chemistry. I used CSV—What in your frank opinion
CSV for all subjects. Botany—49/50
has been the biggest mistake in your
CSV—Did you take coaching in Total—186/200 = 93%.
preparation for this test ?
your preparation ? CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G.K. Pavitra—Frankly speaking I
Satyendra—Yes, I had taken never paid more attention on theory
coaching in New Light Institute, preparations ?
of Chemistry and Physics which was
Kanpur and this year I also joined Satyendra—I had read only
a mess.
New Tech Education for Physics. newspaper (Dainik Jagaran). In CPMT
exam. G.K. is not asked. CSV—What message would you
Personal Qualities CSV—Whom would you like to like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Hobbies—Listening to music, see- give the credit for your success ? Pavitra—Never loose confidence,
ing films. Satyendra—I would like to give always try to do better than what you
Ideal Person—My mother and my the credit of my success to God, my have done earlier. Always pay atten-
elder brother. parents and my elder brother. They tion and think on each and every
were always with me during my pre- question which you read.
Strong Point—Hardwork .
paration. I also thankful to my
Weak Point—Silly mistakes during respected teachers. ●●●
solving MCQs. CSV—Please tell us something
about your family. A Unique Book on Personality
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparations
Satyendra—My father is a Development
Doctor. My mother is a housewife. I
for this examination ? have one brother and two sisters. UPKAR’S
Satyendra—I used science They are all elder to me. My brother
magazines CSV for solving MCQs is doing M. Tech. from I.I.T., Kanpur, HOW TO ADD NEW
and Learning Science Tips. my one sister is doing BPT from
Kanpur University and the other is
DIMENSIONS TO
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
doing B.Ed. YOUR PERSONALITY
CSV—What in your frank opinion By : (Prof.) R. P. Chaturvedi
examination ?
has been the biggest mistake in your
Satyendra—I selected a maga- preparation for this test ?
Code No. 1521 Rs. 65/-
zine for revision which contains impor- Satyendra—My biggest mistake UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
tant points and formulae which are was that after giving the test in my
helpful to me during revision in last coaching I lost 2-3 days. I could not
month. studied 4-5 hours continuously.
CSV—What is your opinion about CSV—What message would you
our Competition Science Vision ? How like to give for our readers of CSV ?
much helpful and useful do you find Satyendra—Always maintain
it ? regularity, study 6-7 hours regularly
Satyendra—It helped me to pre- daily. To be confident on your study
pare my own notes. I collected impor- and faith on God. Best wishes to all
tant points, formulae and important readers of CSV. ●●●
MCQs on my notes. These helped (Continued from Page 942 )
me during last month revision.
CSV—What books/magazines/
CSV—Please suggest in what
newspapers did you read for G. K.
way CSV can be made more useful
preparations ?
for medical aspirants.
Satyendra—By adding NCERT Pavitra—Daily reading any news-
based topics. Many new points had paper is my hobby which can give
been added in NCERT. So I think new and new informations. General
CSV should contain a separate knowledge books from Upkar are the
NCERT corner containing extra points best ones.
for revision. CSV—Whom would you like to
CSV—Please mention your posi- give credit for your success ?
tion in the merit list as well as the Pavitra—Firstly, the Almighty, my
marks obtained in different subjects. parents, my relatives and teachers.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 944


18. Thermoelectric power is defined as the
Physics ➠ Rate of change of thermo emf with temperature
19. What is the use of Doppler effect ?
➠ In determining the velocity of an aeroplane in air
1. What is the value of the nuclear radius ?
and of submarine moving under water
➠ 1·3 × 10–15 metre
20. For a system of particles under central force field, the
2. Given vectors are neither perpendicular nor parallel total angular momentum is conserved because
when ➠ Torque on such a system is zero
➠ Neither their dot product nor their cross
product is zero
3. Name some body centred lattices (bcc). Chemistry
➠ Na, K, Rb, Cr, Mo
4. Slope of a time-velocity graph is increasing. It repre-
sents 21. Hydrated carbonate of lead, used in paintmaking is
➠ Motion with increasing acceleration known as
5. What type of semiconductor is the silicon doped with ➠ White lead
boron ? 22. What is the chemical name and formula of war gas,
➠ p-type semiconductor lewisite ?
6. The area under the velocity-time graph gives
➠ β-chlorovinyldichloroarsine, ClCH —
— CH–AsCl2
➠ The distance covered by the particle
1 23. A soluble silicate of sodium or potassium is known as
7. What are the very small stars having diameter th
50 ➠ Water glass
that of sun are called ?
24. What is the blasting gelatin ?
➠ White dwarfs
8. Automobiles are provided with spring system to mini-
➠ Mixture of gun-cotton and nitroglycerine
mise the damage of the automobile by jerks. What 25. The friction of a liquid against its carrier is known as
does the spring do ? ➠ Viscosity
➠ It increases the time of jerk
26. What is the Brinell test used for ?
9. What is the unit of self-inductance ?
➠ A test for hardness of metals
➠ Henry
10. The relation between millibar and Pascal unit of pres- 27. The property by which some compositions become
sure is solid at rest and liquefy again on agitation is known
➠ 1 milli bar = 100 Pa as
11. Which of these two has a greater permeability–soft ➠ Thixotropy
iron or steel ? 28. What is the name of an instrument used for measure-
➠ Soft iron ment of viscosity ?
12. 105 N m– 2 is called ➠ Ostwald viscometer
➠ 1 bar 29. The resolution of a compound into its parts is known
13. What is the order of drift velocity ? as
➠ 10–4 metre/second ➠ Analysis
14. The energy per unit volume of a stretched wire is 30. What is an instrument used for measuring density and
1 expansivity of a liquid, known as ?
➠ 2 (Stress × Strain) ➠ Pyknometer
15. What is the axial chromatic aberration of a lens of 31. A knifelike instrument with flexible blade used for
dispersive power 0·02 and mean focal length 15 cm ? mixing very small amounts of chemicals is known as
➠ 0·3 cm ➠ Spatula
16. From phase considerations the output voltage and the 32. What is a purple pigment, consisting of colloidal gold
input voltage of diode are and tin (IV) acid, known as ?
➠ In phase ➠ Purple of cassius
17. What is the Sabine’s formula for reverberation time ? 33. A material which passes into solution when mixed
KV with a solvent, is known as
➠ T = As ➠ Solute

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 945


34. What are the alloys which emit sparks when scraped 50. Which branch of medicine deals with the study of
or struck, known as ? signs and symptoms ?
➠ Pyrophoric alloys ➠ Semeiology
35. Potassium carbonate (K2CO3.H2O) is also known as 51. What kind of receptors are present in lateral line
➠ Salt of tartar system of fishes ?
36. What is the common name of an intensely poisonous ➠ Mechanoreceptors
solution of hydrocyanic acid ? 52. What is called an assemblage of an ecological
➠ Prussic acid community ?
➠ Interacting population
37. A rare metal used for pen-point alloys and for harden-
ing platinum is 53. Where are located the cell bodies of neurons bringing
afferent informations into the spinal cord ?
➠ Ruthenium ➠ Dorsal root ganglia
38. What is a powder of finely divided silver and protein 54. Name the hormones which function both as hormones
known as ? and neurotransmitters ?
➠ Protargol ➠ Epinephrine and norepinephrine
39. A ferric oxide, produced by heating copperas 55. What are called the lymphocytes that inhibit the deve-
(FeSO4), used as a pigment and for polishing glass, lopment and proliferation of T and B cells ?
metal or gems, is known as ➠ Suppressor T cells
➠ Rouge 56. The release of which hormone is inhibited when the
40. What is the absorption of a gas into the bulk of a solid stomach acidity reaches 2 pH ?
is known as ? ➠ Occlusion ➠ Gastrin
57. How a camel is able to tolerate the heat of a desert ?
➠ By allowing its body temperature to drop at night
Zoology 58. Which enzyme is involved in light production in certain
insects ?
➠ Luciferase
41. What is the effect of interspecific competition on
niches ? 59. Which part of the body acts as ‘thermostat’ in a
mammal ?
➠ Make niches smaller
➠ Hypothalamus
42. By which kind of control system our body temperature
60. What acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia
is controlled ?
and femur ?
➠ Negative feedback ➠ Cartilage
43. How old is the human embryo when it becomes
foetus ?
➠ 2 months
Botany
44. Which cell organelles in human beings produce lyso-
somes ? 61. Which enzyme catalyses the joining of the ends of
➠ Golgi apparatus two chains ?
45. Which ion must be present for binding of the cross ➠ DNA ligase
bridges which connect two molecules of a fibril dur- 62. Who noticed a colour substance, chromatin, while
ing muscle contraction ? studying salamander cells ?
➠ Calcium ions ➠ Walter Flemming
46. Which male reproductive paired glands open into the 63. During which pathway electrons more from water
urethra at the base of the penis and release a buffer- through photosystem-II to photosystem-I and then to
ing and lubricating fluid ? NADP+ ?
➠ Bulbourethral glands ➠ Non-cyclic electron pathway
47. What acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia 64. What are the two important classes of higher fungi ?
and femur ? ➠ Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
➠ Cartilage 65. What is called alcoholic distillate obtained from fer-
48. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a new strand mented sugar ?
for a DNA molecule, by linking nucleotides to the ➠ Rum
developing strand ? 66. What type of gland is found in Utricularia plant ?
➠ DNA polymerase ➠ Digestive gland
49. Which fat derivative synthesizes all the hormones of 67. What is the central theme of evolution ?
adrenal cortex ? ➠ Descent with modification
➠ Cholesterol (Continued on Page 988 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 946


Principle of Superposition = (A1 + A2 cos φ)2 + A22 sin2 φ
Two or more progressive waves can travel simul- = A12 + A22 + 2A1 A 2 cos φ
taneously in a medium without affecting the motion of one
another. In such a situation the displacement of each or A = A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos φ
particle of medium at any instant is equal to the vector Thus for maximum A i. e., constructive interference,
sum of the displacements each wave would produce in cos φ = 1 or φ = 2n π
absence of the other wave or waves.
or in terms of path difference
P
Interference δ = nλ
Interference is the characteristic property of all wave where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, … S1 -•-
-
motion. Since sound is wave motion, it exhibits the - -- - - ----- O
phenomenon of interference. Thus when two waves Thus for constructive inter- S2 •δ Q
travelling in the same direction in the medium, it should be ference
possible under suitable conditions to have minimum and δ = 0, λ, 2λ, 3λ… nλ
maximum intensities at definite points of the medium and 2λ 4λ 6λ λ
the resultant intensities in the region of superposition is in = 0, , , … 2n
2 2 2 2
general different from the sum of intensities due to
λ
individual waves acting separately. This modification in i.e . the path difference should be even multiples of
2
the distribution of intensity due to the superposition
of waves is called interference. and for minimum A i.e., destructive interference,
If the resultant intensity exceeds the sum of cos φ = –1
intensities due to individual waves, the phenomenon is or φ = (2n + 1)π
called constructive interference and if the resultant or in terms of path difference for destructive interference
intensity is less than this sum, the phenomenon is called λ
destructive interference. If the resultant intensity is zero, δ = (2n + 1)
2
the phenomenon is termed completely destructive
λ , 3λ , 5λ , … λ
interference. = (2n + 1)
2 2 2 2
Analytical Treatment of Interference i.e ., for destructive interference the path difference
Let the amplitudes of the two waves be A 1 and A2 λ
should be odd multiples of .
and the two waves differ in phase by an angle φ. So 2
y 1 = A1 sin(kx – ωt ) Condition for Interference
and y 2 = A2 sin(kx – ω t + φ) For sustained interference between two sound waves,
The resultant wave is given by the following conditions must be fulfilled—
y = y1 + y 2
(1) The phase difference between the waves must
= A1 sin(kx – ωt ) + A2 sin(kx – ωt + φ) remain constant—If the phase difference between
= A1 sin(kx – ωt ) + A2 sin(kx – ωt ) cos φ interferring waves changes with time, the intensity of
+ A2 cos(kx – ωt) sin φ sound at any point will also change with time and the
= sin(kx – ω t) (A1 + A2 cos φ) interference will not be sustained. Hence for observing the
interference both the waves should originate from the
+ cos(kx – ωt)A2 sin φ same source.
Let A1 + A2 cos φ = A cos ε …(i)
(2) The amplitudes of the waves should be nearly
and A2 sin φ = A sin ε …(ii) equal—If the difference in amplitudes is large, the intensity
∴ y = A[sin(kx – ωt ) cos ε at points of destructive interference will be quite large.
+ cos(kx – ωt) sin ε] Hence, the interference will not be clear. For best inter-
ference the amplitudes of the waves must be exactly
= A sin(kx – ωt + ε)
equal.
Thus, the resultant is indeed a sine wave of
(3) The displacements produced by the two waves
amplitude A with a phase difference ε with the first wave. must be along the same straight line—If it is not so, the
By (i) and (ii), intensity at the point where the waves meet in opposite
A2 cos 2 ε + A2 sin2 ε = A2 (cos2 ε + sin2 ε) = A2 phases will not be zero.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 947


Beats In 1 second the intensity of sound will be (n 1 – n 2 )
times maximum and (n 1 – n 2) times minimum i.e.,
When two sounding bodies of nearly equal frequen-
(n 1 – n 2) beats will be heard in 1 second.
cies are sounded together, the resultant sound comprises
of alternate maxima and minima of sound. The pheno- ∴ No. of beats per sec (beat frequency)
menon of alternate waxing and waning of sound at regular = n1 – n2
intervals is called beats. = Difference of the frequencies of the two
Beat frequency—The number of beats heard per sound sources.
second is called beat frequency. It is equal to the
difference in frequencies of the two sounding bodies. Graphical Representation of Beats
Beats are heard only when the difference in Formation of beats is shown in the figure.
frequencies is not more than ten.
Beat period—The time from each loud sound to the
next loud sound is called one beat-period.
Beat—One loud sound plus the subsequent faint
sound constitute one beat.
Analytical Treatment of Beats
Let there be two waves of slightly differing fre-
quencies n1 and n2. Let a be the amplitude of each wave.
There displacements y 1 and y 2 are given as
y 1 = a cos 2πn1t
y 2 = a cos 2πn2t
If they superimpose, the resultant displacement is
y = y 1 + y 2 = a cos 2πn 1t + a cos 2πn 2t
⎡⎢ 2π(n 1 + n 2)t 2π(n 1 – n 2)t ⎤

= a ⎢⎣ 2 cos 2
· cos
2 ⎥⎦
= 2a cos π(n 1 + n 2)t · cos π(n 1 – n 2)t
= A cos π(n 1 + n 2)t Uses of Beats
where A = 2a cos π(n 1 – n 2)t (i) Determination of unknown frequency—The
A is the amplitude of the resultant wave. tuning fork of unknown frequency N′ is sounded with a
For maximum A, standard tuning fork of known frequency N and the
cos π(n 1 – n 2)t = 1 number of beats per second ‘x ’ is heard. Then N′ is
or π(n 1 – n 2)t = nπ ; n = 0, 1, 2, … (N + x) or (N – x). Now one of the prongs of the tuning fork
n of unknown frequency is loaded with wax. This slightly
or t = decreases its frequency.
(n 1 – n 2)
1 , 2 , 3 Both the tuning forks are again sounded together.
= 0,
(n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) Now if the beat frequency is found to be greater than ‘x ’,
Hence time interval between successive maxima N´ is (N – x); but if the beat frequency is found to be less
1 than ‘x ’ N´ is (N + x).
=
n1 – n2 (ii) Tuning the musical instruments—The tension
or the frequency of beats in the string of the two instruments is altered till beats are
= (n 1 – n 2) heard. Adjusting is continued till beats disappear. The
Similarly for minimum A, instruments get tuned.
cos π(n 1 – n 2)t = 0
(iii) In electronics—Electronic beat frequency
. oscillators are commonly used to generate a beat fre-
1
or π(n 1 – n 2)t = n + π quency which is audible. Also in modern radio receivers,
2
ultrasonic beats are generated and radio reception is
1 obtained.
n+
2 (iv) In mines—The presence of dangerous gases in
t =
(n 1 – n 2) mines may be detected by the use of beats. The
1/2 3/2 5/2 apparatus consists of two identical pipes; one blown with
= , ,
(n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) the air from a reservoir and the other with the air from the
So the time inerval between two successive minima mine. If both the airs are the same, no beats will be heard.
1 But if the air in the mine is polluted, beats will be heard.
= Thus, the method serves as an early warning system to
n1 – n2
safeguard workers against possible dangerous explo-
∴ The frequency of beats = (n 1 – n 2) sions.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 948


SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Two sound sources are vibrating in Solution :


the same phase with a frequency of 100 sec–1 each.
Speed of sound is 340 m/s. For what value of path
difference x one would hear the successive maximum
and minimum sounds ?
Solution :

Example 2. A tuning fork is in unison with another


tuning fork of frequency 260 c.p.s. When waxed, it
produces 4 beats per second. What is its frequency
when waxed ? Example 6. Two waves having intensity in the
Solution : ratio 9 : 1 produce superposition. What is the ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity ?
Solution :
Example 3. A tuning fork that is in unison with
another tuning fork of frequency 400 c.p.s. is filed.
Now it produces 3 beats per second with the same
tuning fork. What is its new frequency after filing ?
Solution :
Example 7. When beats are produced by two
progressive waves of the same amplitude and of
nearly the same frequency, what is the ratio of
maximum loudness to the loudness of one of the
Example 4. A tuning fork of frequency 250 is used waves ?
to tune a piano. As the string of piano is tightened,
the number of beats decreases till it reduces to 4 Solution :
beats per second. What is the new frequency of the
piano string ?
Solution :

Example 8. A fork of unknown frequency produces


4 beats with a fork of 256 Hz frequency. When the fork
of unknown frequency is loaded with wax, it again
produces 4 beats per second with the other fork. What
is unknown frequency of the fork ?
Solution :

Example 5. Calculate the frequency of the beats


heard by stationary observer when a source of sound
of frequency 100 Hz moves directly away from him
with a speed of 10·0 ms –1 towards a vertical wall.
(speed of sound in air = 340 ms–1)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 949


OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following represents (C) Ellipse 12. A man facing a wall holds a
the superposition of two progres- (D) Figure of eight tuning fork of frequency 256
sive waves ? between himself and a vertical
7. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has
(A) y = f (x – vt) wall. He moves the tuning fork
a speed of 360 ms– 1. The
(B) y = ym sin k(x + vt) towards the wall with a velocity
distance between two points 60° 1
(C) y = ym log(x – vt) out of phase will be— of the velocity of sound. The
100
(D) y = f (x 2 – v 2t 2) (A) 72 cm (B) 36 cm number of beats heard per
2. Two waves represented by (C) 12 cm (D) 1·8 cm minute would be nearly—
y 1 = 10 sin (2000 πt ) and 8. A, B and C are three tuning (A) 75 (B) 150
(C) 300 (D) Zero
π. forks. The frequency of A is
y 2 = 10 sin 2000 π t + are 350 sec–1. A and B produce 13. A tuning fork of frequency 256
2
5 beats/sec, while B and C Hz is excited and held at the
superposed at a particular ins- produce 4 beats/sec. When A is mouth of a resonance column of
tant. The resultant amplitude is— loaded with some wax, it frequency 254 Hz. Pick up the
(A) 10 units (B) 20 units produces 2 beats/sec with B, and correct statement—
(C) 14·1 units (D) Zero 6 beats/sec with C. Frequencies (A) 2 beats per second will be
of B and C respectively are— heard
3. An accurate oscillator is used to
standardise a tuning fork marked (A) 345, 347
(B) 4 beats per second will be
as 512 Hz. When the oscillator (B) 341, 345 heard
reading is 514, two beats are (C) 345, 341
(C) 1 beat per second will be
heard per second. When the (D) None of these heard
oscillator reading is 510, the beat 9. When two simple harmonic (D) No beats will be heard
frequency is 6. The frequency of vibrations of the same frequency
the tuning fork is— 14. The displacement of a particle
and amplitude are combined
(A) 506 (B) 510 executing periodic motion is
while acting on a particle at right
given by
(C) 516 (D) 518 angles. The resulting motion of .
.
the particle is circular when the 1
4. An earth satellite has a velocity y = 4 cos 2 t sin (1000 t)
phase difference between them 2
component of 7 km/s towards an
is— This expression may be con-
earth observer. It emits a signal
π sidered to be a result of the
of frequency 100 MHz. This is (A) π (B)
combined with a signal of same 4 superposition of—
frequency produced by a local π (A) Two waves
(C) 2π (D)
oscillator. The approximate beat 2 (B) Three waves
frequency will be— 10. A tuning fork of frequency 480 (C) Four waves
(A) 1200 (B) 2400 Hz produces ten beats per (D) Five waves
(C) 3600 (D) 4800 seconds when sounded with a
15. What is the speed of sound in a
vibrating sonometer. What should
5. 56 tuning forks are so arranged gas in which two waves of
be the frequency of the sono-
in series that each fork gives 4 wavelengths 1·00 m and 1·01 m
meter wire if a slight increase in
beats per second with the produce 3 beats in 10 seconds ?
tension produces less number of
previous one. The frequency of beats ? (A) 303 m/s
the last fork is the octave of the (A) 460 (B) 480 (B) 340 m/s
first. The frequency of the first (C) 320 m/s
(C) 470 (D) 490
fork is—
11. Two sound producing bodies (D) None of these
(A) 220 Hz (B) 224 Hz
produce progressive waves 16. Two waves passing through a
220
(C) Hz (D) 110 Hz given by y 1 = 4 sin 400πt, y 2 = 3 region are represented by
7
sin 404 πt. A person standing y 1 = (1·0 cm) sin[(3·14 cm–1)x
6. When two simple harmonic
nearby will hear— – (157 s –1)t ]
motions of same periods, same
(A) 2 beats per second of inten- y 2 = (1·5 cm) sin[(1·57 cm–1) x
amplitudes, having phase diffe-
sity ratio 4 : 3
3π – (314 s –1)t ]
rence of and at right angles to (B) 2 beats per second of inten-
2 Find the displacement of the
sity ratio 49 : 1
each other are superimposed. particle at x = 4·5 cm at time
(C) 4 beats per second of inten-
The resultant wave form is a— t = 5·0 ms—
sity ratio 7 : 2
(A) Circle (A) 0·5 cm (B) 2·5 cm
(D) 4 beats per second of inten-
(B) Parabola sity ratio 4 : 3 (C) 0·35 cm (D) – 0·35 cm

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 950


17. The equations of the two waves 23. For destructive interference
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
are phase difference between two
π. waves should be (in radians)—
y 1 = 10 sin 3πt + π
3
(A) (B) π
2
and y 2 = 5(sin 3πt + 3 cos 3πt )
π
What is the ratio of the ampli- (C) (D) Zero
4
tudes ?
24. For constructive interference path
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2:1
difference between two waves
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2:3 should be—
18. Following is the resultant wave λ λ
produced by— (A) (B)
4 2
A B 3λ
(C) λ (D)
C D 2
25. For destructive interference, path
difference between two waves
(A) Two sources of slightly diffe- should be—
rent frequencies sounded at
λ λ
the same time (A) (B)
4 2
(B) Two sources of exactly equal
frequencies sounded at the (C) λ (D) Zero
same time 26. Two waves of I1 and I2 intensities
(C) A single sound source interfere. The intensity of the
(D) Two coherent light sources resultant wave will be—
19. In order for two sound waves to (A) I 1 + I2 + 2 I 1I 2 cos φ
produce beats it is most impor-
(B) I 1 + I2 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
2 2
tant that the two waves—
(A) Have the same frequency (C) I 1 + I2 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
(B) Have slightly different ampli-
(D) I 12 + I22 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
tudes
(C) Have slightly different fre- 27. In interference intensity changes—
quencies (A) With time
(D) Have the same number of
(B) With distance
overtones
(C) Both with time and distance
20. When two sound waves of
(D) Neither with time nor with
exactly equal frequencies moving
distance
in same directions superpose,
then— 28. In interference total energy—
(A) Beats are produced (A) Increases
(B) Interference of sound takes (B) Decreases
place (C) Remains constant and is not
(C) Stationary waves are pro- redistributed
duced (D) Remains constant and is
(D) None of the above redistributed
21. Interference of sound can be 29. Can beats be observed by two
demonstrated by— light sources ?
(A) Kundt’s tube (A) Yes (B) Never
(B) Quineke’s tube (C) Seldom (D) Indiscernible
(C) Resonance tube 30. The composition of two S.H.M. of
(D) Hebb’s method equal periods at right angles to
22. For constructive interference, each other and with a phase diffe-
phase difference between two rence of π results in the displace-
waves should be (in radian)— ment of the particles along a—
π (A) Straight cone
(A) (B) π
2 (B) Circle
π (C) Ellipse
(C) (D) 2π
4 (D) Figure of eight

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 951


Important Points to Remember Binding Energy
Nucleus 1. The minimum energy required to keep the neutrons
and protons bound inside the nucleus is defined as
1. The nucleus is very small part which exists at the binding energy.
centre of the atom.
2. The minimum energy required to dissociate the nuc-
2. Nucleus was discovered by Rutherford through his leus into its constituent particles is also equal to its
α-scattering experiments. binding energy.
3. The whole positive charge and almost the whole 3. Binding energy
mass of an atom resides inside the nucleus. ΔE = Δ mc2
4. The charge on the nucleus is (+ Ze). It is due to = [Nmn + Zmp – mZA ] × c2
protons present in the nucleus. 4. Binding energy represents the stability of nucleus.
5. The nucleus is highly dense. Its density is of the order Total binding energy
5. B.E. per nucleon =
of 1014 gm/c.c. No. of nucleons
6. The radius of the nucleus is of the order of 10–15 to ΔE
=
10–14 m. A
[Nmn + Zmp – mZA ] c 2
7. If the nucleus is presumed to be spherical its radius =
A
r = r0 A1/3 where r0 = 1·2 × 10 –15 m and A is atomic
where A is mass number and is equal to the sum of
mass number.
neutrons and protons present in the nucleus.
8. The constituents of nucleus are neutrons and pro- 6. The binding energy per nucleon represents the stabi-
tons. In an atom electrons, equal in number to pro- lity of nucleus. Higher the binding energy per nuc-
tons, revolve round the nucleus. leon, more stable is the nucleus.
9. In lighter nuclei the proton number equals the neutron
number (N = Z) e.g. 7N14, 9Fe 18 etc. Binding Energy Curve

10. In heavier nuclei the number of neutrons is greater A graph of the binding energy per nucleon and the
than the number of protons (N > Z) e.g. 90Th 232 , mass number of nuclei is called the binding energy curve.
238 etc. It is shown in the figure.
92 U
N We have following important informations from the
11. For all stable nuclei = 1 to 1·5. binding energy curve.
Z
12. The neutrons and protons present inside the nucleus 1. The nuclei having mass number A ≈ 60 (e.g. Fe with
taken together are known as nucleons. A = 56) have maximum binding-energy per nucleon
(≈ 8·7 MeV). So these nuclei are most stable.
Formation of Nucleus 9.0
Binding energy per nucleon (MeV)

O16 Fe
56
1. When neutrons and protons combine to form a 8.0 C412 F18
He 14 U238
nucleus, then the mass of the nucleus is some- 7.0 N
what less than the sum of the masses of its 6.0 7
Li
constituent particles.
5.0
2. The decrease in mass in the process of formation of
4.0
nucleus is called mass defect.
3.0
3. The mass defect
2.0
Δ m = Total mass of neutrons + Total mass of H2
1.0
protons – Mass of the nucleus.
0.0
= N × mn + Z × mp – mZA 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
Mass number (A)
where N = number of neutrons present in nucleus.
2. For nuclei having mass number above about 60, the
4. When neutrons and protons combine to form a nuc- binding energy per nucleon gradually decreases. For
leus, then its Δ m mass transforms into energy i.e., example, for uranium (A = 238) it is about 7·6 MeV.
ΔE = Δ m × c2 3. For nuclei having mass number below 56 also, the
where c is the speed of light. binding energy per nucleon decreases and below 20,

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 953


it decreases very rapidly. For example, for heavy (A) i.e. different number of neutrons are called isotopes,
hydrogen (A = 2) it is only 1 MeV. This means that e.g.
nuclei having mass number below 20 are relatively Hydrogen : 1H1, 1H2, 1H3
less stable. Oxygen : 8O16, 8O17, 8O18
4. The special positions for He 4, C1 2 and O16 on the
curve show that these nuclei are more stable than the Special Features
nuclei in their vicinity. Isotopes :
5. The binding energy of every nucleus is positive which 1. All isotopes of an element have same number of protons
represents that there exist attractive forces among ( i.e. same number of electrons). Hence their chemical
the nucleons due to which these remain stable. properties of different isotopes of an element are same.
These forces are known as nuclear forces. Hence they cannot be separated by any chemical
process.
Packing Fraction (P) 2. The mass number (i.e. number of nucleons) of all isotopes
1. Packing fraction is defined as mass defect per of an element are different. Hence their physical proper-
nucleon. Thus ties are not the same to separate them atomic mass
Mass defect M – A dependent physical properties, like gaseous diffusion, are
P = = used.
A A
3. Among isotopes of the same element, some may be
where M is actual mass of the nucleus and A is the
stable and some radioactive. This is due to difference in
mass number. their nuclear structure. For example 6C12 is stable while
2. Packing fraction may be positive or negative. 14 is radioactive similarly N 23 is stable while Na24
6C 11 11
3. P also represents the stability of nucleus. is radioactive.
4. The nuclei having negative value of packing fraction Isobars :
are more stable. 1. Their atomic numbers (Z) are different, hence they occupy
5. In general, the smaller the value of packing fraction, different places in periodic table.
the more stable are the nuclei. 2. They differ in chemical properties.
3. Isobars differ in physical properties also.
Nuclear Forces 4. Nuclei of isobars belong to different elements.
The forces which keep protons and neutrons bound 5. The daughter nucleus remaining after emission of β-
inside the nucleus are known as nuclear forces. They particles is an isobar of the parent nucleus.
have following characteristics : 2. Isobars—The nuclei having same number of
1. They are strongly attractive, otherwise the nucleus nucleons (A) but different number of protons (Z) are called
would be disrupted under electrostatic repulsion bet- isobars. They also have different number of neutrons. For
ween protons. example :
2. They are non-electric. If they were electric, the pro- (a) 1H3 and 2He 3
tons would repel one another. Thus leading to disrup- (b) 6C14 and 7N14
tion rather than to stability.
(c) 8O17 and 9F17
3. They are non-gravitational. The gravitational forces
between the nucleons are found to be about 10–40 are isobars.
times the attractive forces demanded. Thus nuclear 3. Isotones—The nuclei having equal number of
forces cannot be gravitational in nature. neutrons are called isotones. For them both Z and A are
4. They are extremely short range forces. The different but (A – Z) is same. For example :
nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law and (a) 3Li7 and 4Be8, A – Z = 4
are effective for only very short distances ≈ 10–15 m. (b) 1H3 and 2He 4, A – Z = 2
5. They are charge-independent. Nuclear forces do (c) 11Na 23 and 12Mg24, A – Z = 12
not at all depend on charge. Thus the nuclear force
are isotones.
between all nucleons (e.g. between p-p, n-n or n-p)
is the same. Proton
6. They are non-central forces. The force between two 1. Proton is a fundamental particle and was discovered
nucleons does not act along the line joining their by Rutherford in 1919 in artificial nuclear disinte-
centres and is, therefore, called a non-central force. gration.
7. They are exchange forces. According to Yukawa 2. It has a positive charge (+ 1·6 × 10–19 coulomb) and
the nuclear force between two nucleons is the result mass 1·673 × 10–27 kg.
of exchange of π mesons (π0, π+, π–) between them.
3. It is represented by 1H1.
Classification of Nuclei 4. In free state proton is a stable particle.
The nuclei have been classified on the basis of the 5. The number of protons in the nucleus of the atoms of
number of protons (atomic number Z) or the total number an element gives the atomic number (Z) of that
of nucleons (mass number A) in them. element.
1. Isotopes—The atoms of an element having same 6. Elements can be disintegrated artificially by bombar-
number of protons (Z) but different number of nucleons ding them with protons

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 954


Neutron Pair-production
1. Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick. When an energetic γ-ray photon falls on a heavy
2. For this important discovery, Chadwick was honoured substance, it is absorbed by some nucleus of the subs-
by Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935. tance and an electron and a positron are produced. This
3. Neutron is a fundamental particle of matter and it phenomenon is called ‘pair-production’. It may be repre-
resides in the nucleus along with proton. sented as
4. Its mass is 1·675 × 10–27 kg, which is slightly greater
than the mass of proton.
5. It is uncharged particle.
6. It is represented by 0n1 because its atomic number
(charge) is zero and atomic mass number is 1.
7. It is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. hυ = 1β
0 + –1 β
0

8. Being chargeless, it does not ionise gases and does Photon Positron Electron
not produce a track in Wilson Cloud Chamber. Rest-mass energy of each of the electron and the
9. Its penetrating power is very high. It penetrates proton is
through thick sheets of lead. E0 = m0c 2
10. On striking an atom, it easily enters its nucleus = (9·1 × 10–31) × (3·0 × 108)2
because it being chargeless is not deflected by the
= 8·2 × 10–14 joule
positive charge of the nucleus. Hence neutron has
proved most useful for nuclear disintegration and = 0·51 MeV
fission. Hence for pair-production, the energy of γ-photon
11. A free neutron outside the nucleus is unstable and is must be at least 2 × 0·51 = 1·02 MeV.
converted into a proton by emitting β-particle (elec-
tron) and an antineutrino.
Pair-annihilation
It is converse to pair-production. When an electron
0n1 ⎯→ H1 + 1 β0 + –
–1 υ
and a positron come very close to each other they annihi-
Neutron Proton Electron Antineutrino
late each other by combining together and two γ-photons
Positron are produced.
1. Positron is a fundamental particle and was dis-
covered by an American scientist Anderson in 1932.
Anderson was honoured by Nobel Prize in physics in
1936.
2. Positron is a positively charged particle whose mass
and charge are exactly equal to the mass and charge
of electron.
+1β –1 β hυ hυ
0 + 0 = +
3. Positron is anti-particle of electron. Positron Electron γ-photon γ-photon

SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. How many electrons, protons and Example 2. How many α and β particles are emit-
neutrons are there in 14 gram of 6C14 ? Avogadro’s ted when 92U238 changes into 82Pb 206 ?
number N = 6 × 1023. Solution :
Solution :

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 955


Example 3. An electron-positron pair is produced
by the materialisation of a γ -ray photon of 2·26 MeV.
How much kinetic energy is imparted to each of the
charged particle ?
Solution :

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The atoms of an element differ- (C) Neutrino
ing in mass though possessing (D) α-particle
the same chemical properties are
called— 9. When α-particles are bombarded
(A) Isobars (B) Isotopes on 4Be9, then 6 C12 is formed.
The particle emitted is— ●●●
(C) Isotones (D) Isomers
(A) –1 β0 (Continued from Page 952 )
2. The daughter nucleus remaining
after emission of β-particle is an (B) +1 β0
……… of the parent nucleus. (C) 1
1H
(A) Isotope (B) Isobar (D) 0n
1
(C) Isotone (D) Isomer
10. Which particle is X in the
3. The equation following nuclear reaction ?
3Li
6 + 1H2 ⎯→ 4Be7 + ……
2He
4 + 7N14 ⎯→ ZXA + 1H1
will be completed by—
(A) Oxygen with mass 16
(A) α-particle (B) 2β-particles
(B) Nitrogen with mass 17
(C) Neutron (D) None of these
(C) Oxygen with mass 17
4. Isotopes have—
(D) Nitrogen with mass 16
(A) Same number of protons
(B) Same number of neutrons
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Same number of nucleons
(D) None of these
5. Which of the following particles is
unstable ?
(A) Electron (B) Proton
(C) α-particle (D) Neutron

6. An electron and a positron are


formed by a photon of energy
2·62 MeV. The total kinetic
energy of both these particles will
be—
(A) 2·6 MeV (B) 1·6 MeV
(C) 1·0 MeV (D) 3·6 MeV
7. Which of the following is correct ?
Positron is called antiparticle of
electron because—
(A) It has opposite charge
(B) Its mass is equal
(C) It collides with electron
(D) It is destroyed by combining
with electron
8. Which one of the following is not
a fundamental particle ?
(A) Proton
(B) Meson ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 956


V T
and respectively. The new
9 3
pressure will be—
(A) 3P (B) 9P
(C) 27P (D) None of these
11. A body of 5 kg moves on a
1. What is the number of significant are the force for and tension in frictionless horizontal surface
figures in 0·002305 × 10–27 kg ? the string needed to sit at 30° ? with a speed 3 m/s. It com-
(A) 7 (B) 6 (A) 2 newton, 1 newton presses a spring put along its
way and stops. What is the com-
(C) 4 (D) 3 (B) 4 newton, 3 newton
pression in spring ? The force
(C) 3 newton, 3·5 newton constant of spring =10 kg wt per
2. The given figure is a graph of—
(D) 1·2 newton, 2·3 newton metre.
↑ 6. The amplitude and the time (A) 0·68 m (B) 1 m
v period of a simple pendulum are (C) 0·2 m (D) None of these
0·05m and 2 second respectively.
12. The number of degrees of free-
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ The maximum velocity of the
t → pendulum is—
dom for oxygen molecule is—
(A) 3 (B) 5
(A) 0·157 m/s (B) 1·57 m/s
(A) Speed time of a body pro- (C) 6 (D) 7
(C) 3·14 m/s (D) 6·28 m/s
jected under gravity 13. If the change in the value of ‘ g ’
7. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a at a height h above the surface
(B) Acceleration-time graph of a
rough inclined plane making an of the earth is the same as at a
body projected under gravity
angle of 30° with the horizontal. depth x below its, surface then—
(C) Velocity-time graph of a
The coefficient of static friction (Both x and h being much
body projected under gravity
between the block and the plane smaller than the radius of the
(D) None of these is 0·7. The frictional force on the earth)
3. Which of the following curves block is—
(A) x = h (B) x = 2h
does not represent motion in one (A) 9·8 N h
dimension ? (C) x = (D) x = h2
(B) 0·7 × 9·8 × 3N 2
(C) 9·8 × 3 N 14. The liquid surface towards the
upper end of the capillary will be
(D) 0·7 × 9·8 N
concave when—
8. The displacement of a particle (A) The liquid is denser than
dwelling in some wave motion is water
y = 5 sin 2πnt. If the phase (B) The surface tension of the
difference between two particles liquid is zero
4. Two springs A and B are alike be 30° within a time-interval of 4 (C) The liquid moistens the
and W is the work done in second and 6 second, then n capillary
stretching the spring. A is stiffer should be— (D) The nearby medium is air
than B(KA > KB ). If they are 1
(A) 1·2 (B) 15. 5 gm air is heated from 4°C to
elongated through the same dis- 12
1 6°C. If the specific heat of air at
tance, then— (C) (D) 24
24 constant volume be 0·172 cal/
(A) WA > WB (B) WA < WB
gm-°C, the increase in the inter-
(C) WA = WB (D) None of these 9. A man is at rest in the middle of nal energy of air will be—
a pond on perfectly smooth ice.
5. A pendulum bob of weight 2N is (A) 7·2 erg (B) 17·2 joule
He can get himself to the shore
pulled to the right by a horizontal (C) 7·2 calorie (D) 1·72 calorie
by making use of Newton’s—
(A) First law (B) Second law 16. The dispersive power of a prism
depends on—
(C) Third law (D) All the laws
30° (A) Angle of the prism
10. A mass M of a certain gas is (B) Material of the prism
enclosed in a vessel at tempera-
ture T and pressure P. A mass (C) Angle of the prism and
F material of the prism both
2M of the same gas is filled in
force F until the string makes an the same vessel until the final (D) None of the angle of prism
angle of 30° to the vertical. Which volume and temperature become and material of prism

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 957


17. The temperature of the filament 23. The resistance of a wire is 10 Ω. 3 and 2 cm respectively. The
of a lamp is 2100 K and its Its length is increased by 10% by distance between the plates of
surface area is 4 × 10–4 m2. If the stretching. The new resistance an equivalent air condenser is—
emissivity of the filament is 0·453 will now be— (A) 5 cm (B) 3 cm
then the power of lamp is— (A) 12 Ω (B) 1·2 Ω (C) 2 cm (D) 2·5 cm
(A) 100 watt (B) 200 watt (C) 13 Ω (D) 11 Ω 29. A circular disc of area
(C) 400 watt (D) 0 watt ∧ ∧
24. The plane of a tangent galvano- (4 i + 5 j ) × 10–3 m2 is placed in
18. Fluorescence is caused— meter is lying in a plane perpen- a uniform magnetic field of inten-
dicular to the magnetic meridian. ∧ ∧
(A) In all substances due to
A neutral point is obtained at sity (0·2 i + 0·3 j ) tesla. The flux
ultraviolet light
the centre when a current is crossing the disc will be—
(B) In some specific substances passed through the coil. If the (A) 23 weber
by any a kind of light plane of the coil is rotated through (B) 23 × 10–2 weber
(C) In some specific substances 90°, the deflection in the needle
(C) 23 × 10–3 weber
by only a specific light will be—
(D) 23 × 10–4 weber
(D) By only long wavelength (A) 0° (B) 45°
light (C) 60° (D) 30° 30. A galvanometer of 600 Ω is
19. In Meldis experiment the string connected in series with a 300
25. If two bulbs of wattage 25 and
vibrates in 7 segments under Ω resistance and a battery of 18
100 respectively each rated at
tension of 9 gm-wt. If the string is volt. If the galvanometer is shun-
220 volt are connected in series
to be vibrated in 3 segments, the with the supply of 440 volt, then ted with a 200 Ω resistance, the
tension required will be— which of the bulbs will fuse ? potential difference across the
(A) 1·4 gm-wt (B) 49 gm-wt (A) 100 watt bulb galvanometer will be—
(B) 25 watt bulb (A) 4·5 volt (B) 6 volt
(C) 61 gm-wt (D) 13 gm-wt
(C) None of these (C) 9 volt (D) 12 volt
20. The phenomenon of bending of
(D) Both (A) and (B) 31. If applied voltage on a motor is
light at opaque edges is called—
200 volt and back e.m.f. is 160
(A) Refraction (B) Reflection 26. An oil drop floats between the
volt. The efficiency of the motor
parallel plates of a condenser.
(C) Diffraction (D) Interference is—
The plates are horizontal and the
lower plate has got + Q charge. (A) 100% (B) 80%
21. Two small spheres each having
Area of each plate is A and the (C) 50% (D) 25%
the charge + Q are suspended
distance between them is D. 32. Kilowatt hour is the unit of—
by insulating threads of length L
Mass of oil drop is M. Charge on (A) Energy
from a hook. This arrangement is
the drop in CGS units will be— (B) Power
taken in space where there is no
(g is the acceleration due to (C) Electric charge
gravitational effect, then the gravity)
angle between the two suspen- (D) Electric current
sions and the tension in each
thread will be—
(A) ( )( )
A
Q
g
M
(B)
(Mg A)
(4π Q)
33. An electromagnetic radiation has
an energy 14·4 keV. To which

(A) 180°,
1 Q2
4πε0 (2L)
2
(C) – ( ) gA
D
Q (D) –
(Mg A)
4πQ
region of electromagnetic spec-
trum does it belong ?
(A) Infra red region
1 Q2 27. The magnetic flux density
(B) 90°, 2 applied in a cyclotron is 3·5 tesla. (B) Visible region
4πε0 L (C) X-rays region
The frequency of the electric field
1 Q2 that must be applied between the (D) γ -ray region
(C) 180°, 2
4πε0 2L dees in order to accelerate 34. Hot wire ammeter is used to
1 1 Q2 protons, will be— measure—
(D) , · 2
180° 4πε0 L (A) 6·53 × 107 Hz (A) Ionisation currents
(B) 3·55 × 107 Hz (B) Direct current only
22. The wavelength of first line of
(C) 5·34 × 107 Hz (C) Alternating current only
Balmer series in hydrogen spec-
° (D) None of these (D) Direct current and alterna-
trum is 6561 A. What is the wave- ting current both
length of the second line of 28. The distance between the plates
of a parallel plate condenser is 35. The power of lens in the spec-
Balmer series ? tacles of a person is + 2D. The
5 cm. It is filled with two media of
° ° dielectric constants 3 and 2. person suffers from—
(A) 4860 A (B) 5400 A
Media and the plates have equal (A) Hypermetropia
° °
(C) 3600 A (D) 6000 A area. Thickness of the media are (B) Myopia

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 958


(C) Colour blindness (C) A current opposite to the 46. When a tuning fork of frequency
(D) Presbyopia primary current is induced 341 Hz is vibrated with another
(D) None of the above tuning fork of unknown frequency,
36. Voltameter is a device— 6 beats per second are heard.
(A) To measure the potential 41. For a common base transistor if When the tuning fork of unknown
difference between two the values of emitter current and frequency is waxed, the number
points collector current are respectively of beats heard per second
(B) To measure electrochemical 103 μA and 0·96 mA, then the becomes 2. What is the funda-
equivalent by electrolysis value of base current will be— mental frequency of the second
(C) To compute electric power (A) 0·04 mA (B) 4 mA tuning fork ?
(D) Made from voltaic pile of (C) 0·4 mA (D) 0·004 mA (A) 335 Hz (B) 339 Hz
volta (C) 343 Hz (D) 347 Hz
42. The average power consumed
37. Electrons move at right angles to on connecting a 200 volt 50 hertz 47. Two parallel wires are carrying
a magnetic field of 0·03 T and A.C. source on 50 ohm resis- electric currents of equal magni-
enter with a velocity 9 × 107 m/s. tance will be— tude and in the same direction.
e (A) 0 watt (B) 200 watt They exert—
The value of will be—
m (A) An attractive force on each
(C) 400 watt (D) 800 watt
(Given radius of circular other
path = 1·764 cm) 43. To form a p-type semiconductor (B) A repulsive force on each
(A) 1·7 × 1011 C kg–1 the germanium crystal must be other
doped with an impurity of
(B) 2 × 1011 C kg–1 valency—
(C) No force on each other
(C) 2·5 × 1011 C kg–1 (D) A rotational torque on each
(A) 6 (B) 5 other
(D) None of these
(C) 4 (D) 3
38. An electric charge moving with 48. An astronomical telescope has an
uniform speed creates— 44. In state of saturation the dynamic objective of focal length 125 cm
resistance of diode is— and an eyepiece of focal length
(A) Only electric field
(A) Zero 25 cm. The diameter of the
(B) Only magnetic field
objective is 4 cm. Find the dia-
(C) Both the electric and mag- (B) 103 kilo ohm
meter of the image—
netic fields (C) In between 1 kΩ at 10 kΩ
(A) 5 cm (B) 50 cm
(D) No such a field (D) Infinite (C) 20 cm (D) 0·8 cm
39. The activity of sea water is 45. A jocker can throw balls upto a
about— 49. The temperature at and above
maximum height of 20m. He which a ferromagnetic material
(A) 5 Bq per c.c. throws up four balls in succes- becomes paramagnetic is
(B) 7 Bq per m3 sion with the same initial velocity called—
(C) 3 × 1010 Bq of 20 m/s and keeps them in air.
(A) Critical temperature
(D) 11 Bq per litre While one ball is passing through
his hand, find the position of (B) Temperature of inversion
40. When the current flowing through (C) Curie temperature
other three balls from his hand—
a conductor suddenly breaks, (D) Debye temperature
(g = 10 m/s2)
then—
(A) 10 m, 15 m, 20 m 50. What is the angle made by
(A) No current is induced in the
conductor (B) 20 m, 15 m, 10 m vector ^i – k^ with y-axis ?
(B) A current is induced in the (C) 15 m, 15 m, 20 m (A) 30° (B) 45°
direction of primary current (D) 15 m, 20 m, 15 m (C) 60° (D) 90°

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 959 / 4


12. The current amplification of
common base N-P-N transistor is
0·96. What will be the current
gain if it is used as common
emitter amplifier ?
(A) 16 (B) 24
1. The displacement in the n th 6. The vertical escape velocity of a (C) 20 (D) 32
second, of a uniformly accele- body from earth’s surface is 11·2 13. A bottle weighing 200 gm and of
rated motion is given by km/sec. If the body is projected area of cross section 50 cm2 and
a at an angle of 45° from the verti- height 4 cm oscillates on the
s n = u + (2n – 1)
2 cal, its escape velocity will be— surface of water in verticle posi-
This equation is dimensionally— (A) 11·2 × 2 km/s tion. Its frequency of oscillation is
(A) Correct (Hz)—
11·2
(B) km/s (A) 1·5 Hz (B) 2·5 Hz
(B) Not correct 2
(C) 3·5 Hz (D) 4·5 Hz
(C) Can be made correct by (C) 11·2 × 2 km/s
multiplying the right hand 14. Amplification factor of a triode is
(D) 11·2 km/s
side of the equation by n 20 and its plate resistance is 20
(D) Can be made correct by 7. A stone of mass m 1 moving with
kΩ. Its mutual conductance will
dividing the left hand side of a uniform speed v suddenly exp-
be—
the equation by n lodes into two fragments. If the
fragment of mass m 2 is at rest, (A) 2 × 105 mho
2. An inductor L has resistance R. It the speed of the other fragment (B) 2 × 104 mho
is connected to an alternating is—
voltage source of variable frequ- (C) 500 mho
(A) m 1v /(m 1 – m 2)
ency. The current in the circuit— (D) 2 × 10–3 mho
(B) m 2v /(m 1 – m 2)
(A) Decreases with increase of (C) m 1v (m 1 + m 2) 15. A person measure the time period
frequency (D) m 1/ m 2 ·v of simple pendulum inside a
(B) Does not change with stationary lift and finds it to be T.
change in frequency 8. The focal length of a convex lens If the lift starts accelerating up-
is f . When it is divided in two wards with an acceleration 2g
(C) Varies linearly with fre-
parts by a plane parallel to the the time period of pendulum will
quency
principal axis, focal length of be—
(D) It is inversely proportional to each part will be—
the square of the frequency f (A) 3T (B) 3/2 T
(A) f (B)
3. A particle thrown upwards 2 (C) T/ 3 (D) T/3
returns to the earth after 4s. At (C) 2f (D) Zero
16. If p is the pressure of a gas and ρ
t = 3 second it is at a height of— 9. Acceleration due to gravity varies
is its density, then dimension of
(A) 14·7 m (B) 19·6 m with height ( h ) at which g i s
velocity is given by—
(C) 29·4 m (D) 39·2 m measured, as proportional to—
(A) 1/ h (B) 1/ h 2 (A) p1/2 ρ–1/2 (B) p1/2 ρ1/2
4. The moment of inertia of a (C) g · h (D) g /h 2 (C) p–1/2 ρ1/2 (D) p–1/2 ρ–1/2
collapsing star changes to one-
third of its initial value. The ratio 10. The maximum intensity in the 17. By leaving the door of a small
of the new rotational kinetic interference pattern of two equal standard domestic refrigerator
energy to the initial rotational and parallel slits is I. If one of the open it is not possible to cool a
kinetic energy is— slits is closed, the intensity at the room, because it violates the—
same point is I0. Then— (A) First law of thermodynamics
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(A) I = I0 (B) Second law of thermodyna-
(C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 9 (B) I = 2I0 mic
5. Two springs A and B of spring (C) I = 4I0 (C) Law of conservation of mo-
constants k1 and k2 are hanging (D) There is no relation between mentum
from a ceiling in series with a I and I0
(D) Law of conservation of
mass m . The effective spring
11. The semi major axes of the orbits energy
constant of the combined system
of Mercury and Mars are respec-
of two springs described will 18. If the horizontal range of a pro-
tively 0·387 and 1·524 in astro-
be— jectile is equal to the maximum
nomical units. If the period of
(A) k 1 + k2 height reached, then the corres-
Mercury is 0·241 year, what is
(B) k 1 – k2 ponding angle of projection is—
the period of Mars ?
(C) k 2 – k 1 > 1 (A) 1·9 year (B) 9·1 year (A) tan –1 1 (B) tan –1 3
(D) k 1 k2/ k1 + k2 (C) 19 year (D) 91 year (C) tan –1 4 (D) tan –1 12

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 962


19. Speed of sound in mercury at a (C) Perpendicular to the first 32. The figure shows the view
certain temperature is 1450 m/s. refracting surface through the eyepiece of a prism
Given the density of mercury as (D) Perpendicular to the second spectrometer with its slit illumina-
13·6 × 103 kg/m3. Bulk modulus refracting surface ted by a source of light emitting
for mercury is— wavelengths corresponding to
26. Along with β-particle emission yellow (Y), green (G) and an
(A) 2·86 × 1010 N/m2
from a radioactive nucleus one unknown colour (X). The colour
(B) 3·86 × 1010 N/m2 more particle with zero charge is X may be—
(C) 4·86 × 1010 N/m2 emitted to conserve the energy
(D) 5·86 × 1010 N/m2 and momentum. This particle is
called—
20. The acceleration of a particle
(A) Meson (B) Positron
performing S.H.M. is 12 cm/s2 at
a displacement of 3 cm from the (C) Antineutrino (D) Neutron
X G Y
mean position. Its time period 27. On a rainy day, if there is an oil
is— drop on tar road, coloured rings
(A) Red (B) Orange
(A) 6·28 s (B) 3·14 s are seen around this drop. This
(C) 10·0 s (D) 5·0 s is because of— (C) Pink (D) None of these

21. Sound travelling at 340 m/s (A) Interface pattern produced 33. The induced electromagnetic
enters water where the speed of due to thin oil film field in a coil is proportional to—
sound becomes 1480 m/s. Critical (B) Diffraction pattern (A) Magnetic flux through the
angle for total reflection is— (C) Polarization coil
(A) 10·3° (B) 13·3° (D) Total internal reflection of (B) Area of the coil
(C) 86·7° (D) 89·7° light (C) Rate of change of magnetic
28. A doubly ionised lithium atom is flux through the coil
22. An electron of mass 9 × 10–31 kg
hydrogen like with atomic (D) Product of magnetic flux and
revolves in a circle of radius number Z = 3. The wavelength of area of the coil
° around the nucleus of
0·53 A radiation required to excite the
34. SI unit of Stefan’s constant is—
hydrogen atom with a velocity of electron in Li2+ from first to third
2·2 × 106 ms–1. What is the ang- Bohr orbit will be— (A) Nm–2K–4 (B) Jm–1K–4
ular momentum of the electron ? (Ionisation energy of hydrogen (C) Jm–2K–4 (D) Wm–2K–4
h 2h atom is 13·6 eV) 35. The hard ferromagnetic material
(A) (B) ° °
2π 3π (A) 72·53 A (B) 113·74 A is characterised by—
h h (A) Narrow hysterisis loop
(C) (D) ° °
π 2π (C) 212·52 A (D) 17·72 A
(B) Fat hysterisis loop
23. In Doppler effect, if the source 29. Conductivity is the reciprocal (C) High mechanical hardness,
moves towards the observer, the of— all over
spectral line is shifted towards (A) Drift velocity (B) Resistivity (D) Mechanically hard surface
the—
(C) Inductance (D) Permittivity
(A) Violet end of the spectrum 36. The radioactive constant of
(B) Green end of the spectrum 30. A current carrying coil is freely radium is 4·28 × 10–4 per year,
(C) Red end of the spectrum suspended in a uniform magnetic its half period is approximately—
(D) Blue end of the spectrum field. The coil tends to set its
(A) 2000 year (B) 1240 year
plane—
24. According to Rutherford model of (C) 1620 year (D) 2440 year
atom the atom consists of— (A) Parallel to the magnetic field
(A) Positively charged nucleus (B) Perpendicular to the magne- 37. The total energy of the electron in
surrounded by a cloud of tic field the hydrogen atom in the ground
negative charge (C) Inclined to the magnetic field state is –13·6 eV. The kinetic
(B) Electrons orbiting a posi- (D) Continuously rotating energy of this electron is—
tively charged nucleus in 31. The magnetic field due to a very (A) – 13·6 eV (B) 0
definite orbits long wire carrying current varies (C) 6·8 eV (D) 13·6 eV
(C) Same as (B) with electrons according to—
spinning 38. Energy equivalent to 1 kg of
(A) Square of the distance from
(D) A rigid sphere only matter is about—
the wire
25. In minimum deviation conditions (B) Inverse of the distance from (A) 1011 joule (B) 1016 joule
a light ray passing through an wire (C) 1017 joule (D) 1020 joule
equilateral prism travels— (C) Square root of the distance 39. N0 is the number of radioactive
(A) Parallel to the base (non- from wire atoms at any instant and N the
refracting side) of the prism (D) Linearly as the distance from number of the radioactive atoms
(B) Perpendicular to the base wire remaining undecayed after time

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 963


‘t’. The graph drawn with loge N, (C) There is no velocity distribu- (C) Focal length of eyepiece
where e is the base of natural tion in cathode rays should be increased
logarithm along Y-axis and ‘t ’ (D) Parallel fields B and E do (D) Focal length of objective
along the X-axis will be a straight not interact with electrons should be increased and
line with slope— that of eyepiece should be
44. A body is projected vertically
(A) λ (B) –λ decreased
upward from point A, the top of a
(C) 1/λ (D) –1/λ tower. It reaches the ground in t 1 48. The aperture of the objective of a
sec. If it is projected vertically telescope is 0·1 m and wave
40. If the elements with principal ° . The
quantum number n > 4 were not downwards from A with the same length of light is 6000 A
exhisted in nature, the number of velocity, it reaches the ground in resolving limit of the telescope
t 2 sec. If it falls freely from A, it will approximately be—
possible element would be—
(A) 60 (B) 32
would reach the ground in— (A) 6 × 10–5 rad
t1 + t2 t1 – t2 (B) 6 × 10–4 rad
(C) 4 (D) 64 (A) sec (B) sec
2 2 (C) 6 × 10–3 rad
41. Express 1 BeV in joule—
(C) t 1 t 2 sec (D) t 1t 2 sec (D) 6 × 10–6 rad
(A) 1·6 × 1010 J
49. A spot light S rotates in a
(B) 1·6 × 10–9 J 45. The acceleration of a particle
horizontal plane with constant
performing S.H.M. is 12 cm/sec 2
(C) 1·6 × 10–10 J angular velocity of 0·1 rad/sec.
at a distance of 3 cm from the
(D) None of these The spot of light P moves along
mean position. Its time period is—
the wall at a distance of 3 m from
42. An electron moving with uniform (A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec S. The velocity of the spot P,
velocity enters a uniform electric (C) 1·54 sec (D) 3·14 sec where θ = 45° is—
field perpendicular to its direction S

˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
of motion. The path of the elec- 46. Which is the correct relation bet-
tron will be— ween inter-atomic force-constant,
(A) Circular (B) Parabolic Young’s modulus and the normal
(C) Straight line (D) Helical distance a0 between the atoms of P θ A
a wire ?
43. In Thomson’s method of determi- (A) 0·3 m/s (B) 3·0 m/s
ning e / m of cathode rays, mag- (A) Y= k × r 0 (B) k = Y × r0 (C) 0·6 m/s (D) 6·0 m/s
netic field (B) and electric field
(C) k = Y × r02 (D) k = Y × r0 50. A stationary wave y = 2a sin kx
(E) are parallel, a parabola is not
cos ω t in a closed organ pipe is
obtained on the screen. The 47. To decrease the magnifying
power of an astronomical tele- the result of the superposition of
reason is—
scope— y = a sin (ωt – kx) and—
(A) Cathode rays consist of
electrons which carry nega- (A) a sin (ω t + kx)
(A) Focal length of objective
tive charge should be increased (B) – a sin (ωt – kx)
(B) Electron is a very light (B) Focal length of eyepiece (C) – a sin (ωt + kx)
particle should be decreased (D) a sin (ω t + kx)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 964


Introduction 2. Hydration of alkenes—Direct hydration takes
place by adding water in presence of catalyst.
The word alcohol is derived from the Arabic Kuhl
(also Kohl or Kohol). It originally was used to mean a ‘very CH3
fine powder’ but gradually came to cannote ‘essence’. | H⊕
Later the term was applied to wine spirits, which were — CH2 + H2O ⎯⎯→
CH3—C —
referred to as alcool vini, and eventually simply alcohol. 2-methylpropene
⊕ –H⊕
The compounds derived from hydrocarbons by replace- (CH3)3C—OH2 ⎯⎯→ (CH3)3—C—OH
ment of one or more hydrogens by hydroxyl groups are 2-methylpropane-2-ol
known as organic hydroxy compounds. The parent hydro-
carbons may be acyclic aliphatic saturated or unsaturated. ● Indirect hydration is achieved by addition of sulphuric
The hydroxyl compounds which are derived from acyclic acid to alkene followed by hydrolysis of the alkyl
and alicyclic hydrocarbons are called alcohols. Those hydrogen sulphate.
obtained by replacement of nuclear aromatic hydrogens CH2 —— CH2 + H2SO4 ⎯→
are called Phenols. Since phenols differ from alcohols in Ethene
many respects, they are treated separately from alcohols. H O
CH3CH2OSO2OH ⎯⎯→
2
CH3CH2OH
Aryl substituted alcohols (C6H5CH2OH) are also known as Δ
aromatic alcohols. Ethanol
— CH2 + H2SO4 ⎯→
CH3CH —
General Methods of Preparation Propene
H O
1. Hydrolysis of halides—Alkyl halides, when boiled CH3CH(OSO2OH)CH3 ⎯⎯→
2
CH3CH(OH)CH3
Δ
with aqueous solution of an alkali hydroxide, give alcohols 2-propanol
through nucleophilic substitution mechanism.
3. Hydroformylation of alkenes—Lower molecular
R—X + KOH ⎯→ R—OH + KX weight olefins react with carbon monoxide and hydrogen
This general procedure produces primary and secon- in the presence of a catalyst in a reaction called hydro-
dary alcohols. Glycerol can be synthesized from propy- formylation or the oxo reaction.
lene by a series of reactions including the hydrolysis of a
| O
halide as one step in the process. Cobalt
C——C + CO + H 2 ⎯⎯→ CH —C —C
● Unsaturated alcohols can be prepared by high tem- | H
perature chlorination followed by hydrolysis of interme- Alkene Aldehyde
diate halide of an alkene. An example is the production The resulting aldehyde is, subsequently, hydrogenated
of alkyl alcohol from propylene. to form an alcohol.
CH2 —— CHCH3 + Cl2 ⎯⎯→ CH2 — — CHCH2Cl + HCl | O |
Propylene Allyl chloride CH—C —C + H2 ⎯⎯→ CH —C —CH2OH
— CHCH2Cl + NaOH ⎯⎯→
CH2 — | H |
CH2 —
— CHCH2OH + NaCl Alcohol
Allyl alcohol 4. Hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes—Alkenes
Note : There is a serious limitation of this method. when treated with diborane (BH3)2, give alkylboranes,
Elimination is a serious competing reaction R3B. Alkylboranes on oxidation with alkaline hydrogen
specially with sec. and tert-halides. However, if
a weaker nucleophile like silver acetate peroxide give alcohols.
(AgOAc) replaces alkali hydroxide, better (BH3) 2 H2O2/OH–
— CH2 ⎯⎯⎯→
6CH2 — 2(CH3CH2)3B ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
results are obtained even with tert. halides.
For example : Ethene Triethyl borane
(CH3)3CCl + AgOCOCH3 ⎯⎯→ 6 CH3CH2OH
tert-butyl chloride Ethanol
(CH3)3C—O—COCH3 + AgCl (BH3) 2
tert-butyl acetate — CH2 ⎯⎯→ 2(CH3CH2CH2)3B
6CH3CH —
H 2O Propene Tri-n-propylborane
(CH3)3—C—O—COCH3 ⎯⎯→
H2O2/OH–
(CH3)3C—OH + CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯→ 6CH3CH2CH2OH
tert-butyl alcohol 1-propanol
● As alkyl halides themselves are prepared from alco- Note : It is significant to note that this method
hols, this method will be of interest only when alkyl always leads to the anti-Markovnikov’s
halides are readily available and are very cheap. addition of water to alkenes.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 967


5. Grignard synthesis—All the three types of alco- Note : Aldehydes and ketones, in presence of
hols (primary, secondary, tertiary) can be prepared from metals like magnesium undergo bimolecular
the Grignard reagents by interaction with suitable carbonyl reduction to form symmetrical glycols
compounds. (Pinacols). For example :
R' CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
R—MgX + R" C — —O→ | | | |
Mg
Grignard Ketone CH3—C + C—CH3 ⎯→ CH3—C—– C—CH3
reagent || || | |
O O O O
R' R'
H 2O
R C—OMgX ⎯→ R C—OH + Mg(OH)X Propanone Mg
R" H+ R"
CH3 CH3
Alcohol | |
● The reaction of Grignard reagent with formaldehyde H 2O
⎯⎯→ CH3—C—– —C—CH3
leads to primary alcohols, that with aldehydes other | |
than formaldehyde yield secondary alcohols and that OH OH
with ketones give tertiary alcohols. 2, 3-dimethyl butane
2, 3-diol (Pinacol)
● Mechanism of above reaction is illustrated as :
: – + More about the Preparation of Alcohols
(i) R—: MgX → R : + MgX
● Oxymercuration—Demercuration of alkenes leads
| | – + to the formation of alcohols. It involves the reaction of
(ii) R : + C——O → R—C —O MgX alkene with mercuric acetate in presence of tetra-
| | hydrofuran (THF). This step is known as Oxymer-
+ curation as :
+ MgX R R3 R1 R3
| – + | | | | |
Hg(OCOCH 3) 2
(iii) R– C —O—MgX + HOH → R—C—OH + Mg(OH)X R2—C == C —R4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R2—C—– C—R4
| THF-H2O | |
|
OH HgOCOCH3
(iv) Mg(OH)X + H+ → Mg2+ + X– + H2O
This is followed by the reduction of intermediate
6. Reduction of carbonyl compounds—Carbonyl hydroxy mercuryl compounds known as demercura-
compounds i.e., aldehydes and ketones etc. give alcohols tion.
on reduction. This reaction can be effected by :
(i) Catalytic hydrogenation R1 R3 R1 R3
| | | |
NaBH4
(ii) The use of metal-solvent combination such as R2—C—– C—R4 ⎯⎯→ R2—C—– C—R4
sodium or potassium in alcohol. | | | |
(iii) The use of complex metal hydrides. OH HgOCOCH3 OH H
Hydroxy mercuryl Alcohol
For example : compound
O OH Alcohols obtained are those which will be formed by
|| | the Markovnikov’s addition of H 2O to carbon-carbon
PtO2
● CH3—C—CH3 + H2 ⎯⎯→ CH3CH—CH3 double bond.
2-propanone 2-propanol ● Grignard reagents also react with ethylene oxide to
Ni form primary alcohols containing two carbon atoms
● CH3CHO + H2 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2OH
or LiAlH4 more than the Grignard reagent.
Ethanal Ethanol
H2O/H+
CH3MgBr + CH2 —CH2 ⎯⎯→ CH3CH2CH2OH
OH
CH3 | Grignard reagent O Propanol-1
Ni
● — O + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH—CH3
C— Ethylene oxide
CH3 or LiAlH4
Mechanism of this reaction can be illustrated as
Propanone 2-propanol below :
O ·· ⊕
|| Na CH3—MgX ⎯⎯→ CH3 + MgX
● CH3—C—CH2CH2CH3 + H2 ⎯⎯→
EtOH
Pentanone-2 CH2 —CH2
CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3 : CH3 + ⎯⎯→ CH3CH2CH2 O
⎯⎯→

2-pentanol O
H+
Na
● C2H5COOC2H5 + 2H2 ⎯⎯→ C2H5CH2OH
EtOH CH3CH2CH2OH
Ethyl propanoate 1-propanol Propanol-1
+ C2H5OH Note : This reaction sequence is useful in ascending
Ethanol the series of organic compounds.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 968


● Hydroxylation of alkenes leads to the formation of ● Additional hydroxyl groups in an alcohol enhances its
1, 2-glycols. For example : sweetness. For example ethanol is not sweet; pro-
OH OH pylene glycol, C3H6(OH)2 is slightly sweet; glycerol,
| | C3H5(OH)3 is quite sweet; and mannitol C 6H8(OH)6
KMnO 4
CH2—CH2 ←⎯⎯⎯ — CH2
CH2 — is so sweet that it is known as sweet alcohol.
Ethane-1‚ 2-diol Ethene
OH OH Chemical Properties of Alcohols
| | In alcohols –OH group is functional group, therefore,
C H CO OH
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
6 5 2
+
CH2—CH2 the chemical properties of alcohols generally involve the
H2O/H
Ethane-1‚ 2-diol reactions of –OH group. These undergo substitution and
Note : KMnO 4 leads to syn-hydroxylation or cis- elimination reactions. The chemical reactivity of alcohols
hydroxylation and per acids to anti-hydroxy- also depends upon the carbon chain attached to –OH
lation or trans -hydroxylation of alkenes, group. The reactions of alcohols can be classified into
where structure permits. three types :
● All esters, except that of formic acid yield tertiary (i) Reactions involving cleavage of O—H bond
alcohols on reaction with Grignard reagent followed (ii) Reactions involving cleavage of C—OH bond
by acidic hydrolysis. The esters of formic acid give
(iii) Reactions involving both the alkyl and hydroxyl
secondary alcohols.
⎡ ⎤
groups.
O OMgBr
||
CH3 — C—OC2 H5 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
CH 3MgBr ⎢ |
⎥ Reactions Involving Cleavage of O —— H
:


CH3—C—OC2H5
⎥ Bond
:

⎣ ⎦
Ethyl ethanoate |
CH3 (a) Acidic nature of alcohols—Since the oxygen
O attached to hydrogen in alcohols is highly electronegative,
– C2H5OMgBr || CH 3MgBr it facilitates the separation of the relatively positive hydro-
⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C—CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ gen as H+. In other words alcohols behave as acids as is
OMgBr OH evident from the following reactions :
| | Br ● Reactions with metals—When treated with metals like
H2O/H+
CH3—C—CH3 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C—CH3 + Mg Na and K these liberate hydrogen with the formation of
| | OH alkoxides.
CH3 CH3 : –
2CH3CH2O— H + 2Na ⎯→ 2CH3CH2 O Na+ + H2 ↑
General Physical Properties of Alcohols :
Ethanol Sod. ethoxide
The lower members of alcohols are colourless, vola- : –
tile liquids with a characteristic alcoholic smell and burning 2 (CH3)3CO — H + 2K ⎯→ 2 [(CH3)3 CO] K+ + H2 ↑
:
taste, whereas higher alcohols are odourless and taste- tert-butyl alcohol Pot. tert-butoxide
less. Alcohols having 12 or more than 12 carbon atoms :
are solids. Branched chain alcohols with much fewer car- 6 (CH3)2CHO — H + 2Al ⎯→
:
bon atoms are, however, solids. Isopropyl alcohol
Boiling points—Boiling points of alcohols are much –
2[(CH3)2CHO] 3 Al 3+ + 3H2 ↑
higher than those of alkanes, haloalkanes or ethers of
Aluminium isopropoxide
comparable molecular mass. This is due to the inter-
molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols as : ● Reactions with metal hydrides—Formation of
alkoxide with evolution of hydrogen takes place.
R R
: – +
| | R—O — H + MH ⎯→ R—OM + H2 ↑
:
- -O
-- - -O
--- --- - ● Alcohols are very weak acids (K a = 10–16 — 10 –18 )
H- H -- H- ---
- -H
O --
-
--- O-- even feeble than water (Ka = 1·78 × 10 –16 ). They do
| | not turn blue litmus red. Thus alcohols are weaker
R R acids than water but stronger than acetylene as is
● For isomeric alcohols, the boiling points follow the evident from the following reactions :
– + +–
order as : primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > R O Na + H — OH ⎯→ Na OH + RO — H
tertiary alcohol. Stronger Stronger Weaker Weaker
● Lower alcohols are found to form solid derivatives base acid base acid
with CaCl2 and MgCl2. –
HC ≡ C Na+ + ROH ⎯→ RO – Na+ + HC ≡ CH
CaCl2 + 4CH3OH ⎯→ CaCl2·4CH3OH
Stronger Stronger Weaker Weaker
MgCl2 + 6C2H5OH ⎯→ MgCl2·6C2H5OH base acid base acid
It is because of this reason that alcohols cannot be ● Thus the decreasing order of acid strength is
dried with anhydrous CaCl 2 and MgCl2. H2O > ROH > HC ≡ CH
● Alcohols are known to have intoxicating effects. ● The decreasing order of basic strength of the corres-
Methanol is poisonous and is not good for drinking ponding anions is as :
purposes. It causes blindness. Ethanol on the other – – –
hand is used for drinking purposes. HC ≡ C : > RO : > HO:

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 969


● Relative acid strength—Acid strength of substance (d) Reaction with acid halides or acid anhy-
depends on how well the resulting anion can accommo- drides—When treated with acid chloride or acid anhy-
date the negative charge. An alkyl group being electron dride in the presence of bases like pyridine or dimethyl
releasing, intensifies the negative charge on alkoxide aniline (as catalyst) alcohols form esters. This reaction is
ion and consequently the anion is rendered less stable. called acylation.
Thus electron releasing inductive effect of alkyl O O
groups makes alcohols weaker acid than water. || ||
Base
| | – R—C—Cl + H — OR' ⎯→ R—C—OR' + HCl
R →⎯ C — OH R →⎯ C—O + H+ Acid chloride Alcohol Ester
| | O O O
This inductive effect will be greatest for tertiary || || ||
alcohols, less for secondary, still less for primary and least R—C—O—C—R + H—OR' ⎯⎯→ R—C—OR'
for methanol. The decreasing order of acid strength of Acid anhydride Alcohol Ester
alcohols is as : O
CH3OH > Primary > Secondary > Tertiary alcohols. ||
H R R + R—C—OH
| Acid
R →⎯ C →⎯ OH > R →⎯ C→⎯OH > R →⎯ C→⎯ OH :
Reactions Involving Cleavage of C — OH
| | :
H H
R Bond :
Primary Secondary Tertiary (a) Reactions with hydrogen halides—The hydro-
alcohol alcohol alcohol gen halides react with alcohols to form alkyl halides.
(b) Reaction with Grignard reagent—Alcohols Various reactions are summarised below :
react with Grignard reagents to form alkanes. In these HCl/Zn
reactions the alkane is obtained from alkyl part of Grig- ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→R—Cl + H2O
nard reagent.
X 48% HBr
: : R—OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R—Br + H2O
RO— H + CH3— MgX ⎯→ CH4 ↑ + Mg or NaBr + Conc. H2 SO 4
: : OR
Stronger Weaker 58% HI
acid acid ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R—I + H2O
or KI + H3PO 4
● This reaction can be considered as displacement of
weaker acid (R – H) from its salt (Grignard reagent) by ● The order of reactivity of various alcohols is as :
stronger acid alcohol (R – OH). tertiary > secondary > primary alcohols.
● This reaction makes basis of the Zerevitinov method ● The order of reacting hydrogen halides is as :
for the estimation of the number of –OH groups in an HI > HBr > HCl.
unknown compound. The volume of evolved methane
is measured. A Closer Look
(c) Reaction with carboxylic acids—In presence of ● Secondary and tertiary alcohols react with hydrogen halide
an acid (H 2SO4 or HCl gas) ester is formed. This reaction through S N 1 reaction mechanism as :
is known as esterification. ⊕
O O (a) R—OH + HX ROH2 + : X
|| H+ || ⊕ ⊕
: : (b) R—OH2 R + H2O
CH3C — OH + H— OC 2H5 CH3 COC2H5 + H2O
: :
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate ⊕
(c) R +:X → R—X
● Esterification is a reversible reaction. It can be pushed ● In step (a) : The alcohol accepts hydrogen ion to form
forward by using any of the reactants in large excess protonated alcohol which dissociates into carbocation and
or by removing any of the products as soon as it is water in step (b). The carbocation then combines with
formed. halide ion to form alkyl halide. In this sort of mechanism
● This reaction shows considerable steric hindrance. alkyl group of alcohol may undergo rearrangement due to
rearrangement in the intermediate carbocation.
The bulkier the acid or alcohol, the slower the rate of
esterification. For example : CH 3 H CH 3 H
| | HCl | |
CH3OH > CH3CH2OH > (CH3)2 CHOH > (CH3)3C–OH CH 3—C——C——CH 3 ⎯→ CH3—C— C—CH 3
HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2 CHCOOH > (CH3)3– | | | |
CCOOH H OH Cl H
● Isotopic tracer technique shows that the esterification ● Primary alcohols react through SN 2 mechanism as :
involves the cleavage of the O—H bond of alcohol and ⊕
C—OH bond of acid : (a) R—OH + HX R—OH2 + :X
O O
||
R—C —OH + H— OR'
* H+ || *
R—C—OR' + H2O

(b) R—OH2 + :X ⎯→ [ δ– δ+
X - - - R - - - O H2 ]
* ⎯→ X—R + H2O
O is the radio isotope of oxygen.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 970


(b) Reactions with phosphorus halides—Alkyl hali- A Closer Look
des are formed as :
● The mechanism of dehydration of alcohol is as :
R–OH + PCl5 ⎯→ R–Cl + POCl3 + HCl ↑
H H H H
Alcohol Alkyl halide | | | |
Protonation ⊕
C2H5OH + PCl5 ⎯→ C2H5Cl + POCl3 + HCl ↑ (a) H—C—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
+
H—C—C—OH2
Ethanol Chloro ethane | | +H | |
3ROH + PX3 ⎯→ 3RX + H3PO3 H H H H
Oxonium
3C 2H5OH + PCl3 ⎯→ 3C 2H5Cl + H3PO3
H H H H
● PBr3 and PI3 are generally prepared in situ by reaction | | | |
⊕ Loss of H2O
between phosphorus bromine and iodine respectively. (b) H—C—C—OH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C—C⊕ + H2O
(P4 + I2) | | | |
3C 2H5OH + PI3 ⎯⎯⎯→ 3C2H5I + H3PO3. H H H H
(c) Reaction with thionyl chloride (SOCl2)—Alco- H H
hols react with SOCl2 in the presence of pyridine to form | | Loss of H+
chloroalkanes. (c) H—C—C⊕ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C —
— C—H
| | –H+ | |
Pyridine
R–OH + SOCl2 ⎯⎯→ RCl + SO2 ↑ + HCl ↑ H H H H
Pyridine ● The relative ease of dehydration of alcohols—Step (b)
C2H5OH + SOCl2 ⎯⎯→ C2H5Cl + SO2 ↑ + HCl ↑ involving the formation of carbocation is slowest and rate-
Thionyl determining step. The more easily a carbocation is formed,
Ethanol Chloride Chloroethane the more easily that alcohol would dehydrate. Further, the
● The order of reactivity of various alcohols towards this greater the stability of a carbocation, the greater the ease
type of reaction is : with which it would be formed. Since the decreasing order
of stability of carbocations is
tertiary > secondary > primary alcohols. Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
● This can be explained in terms of electron releasing the decreasing order of dehydration of alcohols should be :
inductive effect of alkyl groups. The alkyl groups by Tertiary > Secondary > Primary alcohols.
their electron releasing effect tend to increase the ● Formation of unexpected products—Sometimes the
electron displacement towards oxygen. alkenes containing double bonds at position different from
R R those anticipated from the original position of the –OH
H group are formed in predominating amounts. For example.
|
H+
R→⎯C→⎯OH > R→⎯C→⎯OH > R→⎯C→⎯OH CH 3CH 2CH — — CH 2 ←⎯⎯ CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH
| | –H2O

⎯⎯⎯→
1-butene (20%)
H H (expected)
R
● In other words, the polarity of C—O bond increases H – H2 O
and this makes the breaking of the bond between CH 3CH = CH CH3
carbon and oxygen easier. Therefore, the alcohols with 2-butene (80%)
greater number of alkyl groups attached to carbon will (unexpected)
be more effective. This justifies the above order of Such migration of double bond is in agreement with the
reactivity of alcohols in this type of reactions. mechanism proposed for dehydration of alcohols. The
carbocations always rearrange whenever, possible, to a
Reactions Involving both Alkyl as well as stabler carbocation by 1, 2-hydride or alkyl shifts. The
Hydroxyl Groups : primary, n-butyl cation will, therefore, rearrange to a more
The important reactions of this type are : stable secondary butyl cation in above example and 2-
(a) Acidic Dehydration, (b) Oxidation, (c) Dehydro- butene rather than 1-butene is major product.
genation ⊕
CH3CH2CH—CH2 1‚ 2 hydride ⊕
(a) Acidic dehydration—When heated with concen- ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH 2CHCH 3
trated H2 SO4, phosphoric acid or boric acid, alcohols Shift sec-butyl cation
H (more stable)
undergo dehydration to form alkenes. The reaction with
n-butyl cation
concentrated H 2SO4 is carried out at 443 K, whereas (less stable)
phosphoric acid and boric acid react at higher tempera-
ture. ● Dehydration of ethanol under different experimental
˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙ conditions gives different products.
˙˙˙˙

˙˙˙˙

H OH
˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
| | At 383 K, ethyl hydrogen sulphate is obtained.
conc. H2SO 4 383 K
H—C—C—H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C — — C—H + H2O C2H5OH + H2SO4 ⎯⎯→ C2H5HSO 4 + H2O
| | 443 K | | Distillation under reduced pressure gives diethyl sul-
H H H H phate.
Ethanol Ethene Heat
2C 2H5OH + H2SO4 ⎯⎯→ (C2H5)2SO4 + 2H2O
H ˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
˙˙˙˙

˙˙˙˙

H OH At 413 K, if alcohol is used in excess, the loss of H 2O


| ˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
| |
conc. H2SO 4 molecule takes place from two different molecules of
H—C—C—C—H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—CH —
— CH2 + H2O alcohol and ether is obtained as the product.
| | | 443 K Propene
H H H Conc. H2SO 4
2C 2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C2H5OC2H5 + H2O
1-propanol 413 K

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 971


(b) Oxidation of alcohols—Alcohols undergo oxida- ● A variation of the above oxidation reaction is observed
tion with oxidising agents (in neutral or acidic or alkaline when vapours of an alcohol are passed over reduced
medium) such as chromium trioxide (CrO3), potassium copper at high temperature. The primary, secondary
dichromate (K2Cr2O7), potassium permanganate (KMnO4) and tertiary alcohols give different products.
and nitric acid. ● Primary alcohols—They give aldehydes as :
● Primary alcohols—They are oxidised to carboxylic H H
acids by potassium permanganate. | Cu/575 K |
R—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯ O + H2 ↑
RCH2OH + KMnO4 ⎯→ RCOOK + MnO2 ↓ + KOH
|
RCOOK + H+ ⎯→ RCOOH + K+ H
An acidic solution of potassium dichromate can oxi- ● Secondary alcohols—They give ketones as :
dise them to aldehydes, provided the products are dis- R R
tilled away as soon as they are formed. If the aldehyde | Cu/575 K |
formed continues to be available to the oxidant, carboxylic R—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯ O + H2 ↑
acids are formed ultimately. |
H
H OH ● Tertiary alcohols—They do not undergo this type of
| Cr2O72– |
RCH2OH + Cr2O72– ⎯→ R—C — — O ⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯O reaction due to absence of α-hydrogen. However, it
gets dehydrated to form an alkene.
Thus, primary alcohols are oxidised to aldehydes CH3 CH3
and carboxylic acids containing the same number of | Cu/575 K |
carbon atoms as the original alcohol. CH3—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C ⎯ ⎯ CH2 + H2O
| Isobutylene
● Secondary alcohols—They are oxidised to ketones
CH3
by chromic acid.
tert-butyl alcohol
K2Cr2O7 + H 2SO4 or Cr2O3 + CH3 COOH or CrO3 in Since this oxidation reaction literally involves loss of
(Pyridine) hydrogen from alcohol, it is known as catalytic dehydro-
Cr2O72– genation. On the basis of products of oxidation, the dis-
R2CHOH ⎯⎯→ R2C ⎯
⎯O tinction between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
A secondary Ketone can be made.
alcohol
Ketones resist the further oxidation, but under vigo- More about the Distinction of Primary, Secondary
rous conditions they are oxidised to a mixture of carboxylic and Tertiary Alcohols
acids. For example. ● Lucas test—On treating with Lucas reagent (a mixture of
conc. HCl and ZnCl2), alcohols give cloudy appearance
OH due to formation of alkyl chlorides. A tertiary alcohol
| reacts very fast, a secondary alcohol reacts within five
CH3—CH—CH3 ⎯→ CH3COOH + HCOOH minutes and a primary alcohol does not react appreciably
Isopropyl alcohol Acetic acid Formic acid at ordinary temperature.
Thus, the ketones, the first stage oxidation pro- ● Victor Meyer’s test—The alcohol is subjected to the
reaction sequence given below and the colours obtained
ducts of sec. alcohols, contain same number of car- are noted.
bon atoms as original alcohol, but carboxylic acids
Primary Secondary Tertiary
contain fewer carbon atoms than the parent alcohol.
alcohol alcohol alcohol
● Tertiary alcohols—They are not oxidised under neutral
RCH2OH R2CHOH R3C–OH
or alkaline conditions, but acidic oxidising agents
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

oxidise them, presumably, through the alkene formed P4 + I2 P4 + I2 P4 + I2


under the acidic conditions, to a mixture of aldehydes,
ketones and acids. For example : RCH2I R2CHI R3CI
CH3 CH3
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

| | AgNO2 AgNO2 AgNO2


H+
CH3—C—OH ⎯→ CH3—C —
— CH2
| RCH2NO2 R2CHNO 2 R3C–NO2
CH3
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

2-methylpropane-2-ol 2-methylpropene HONO HONO HONO


⎯⎯→

O R No reaction
R—C—NO2 R C—NO2
⎯→

CH3 O | KOH
| || ||
N–OH NO
CH3—C ⎯
⎯ O + H—C—H
Nitrolic acid Pseudo nitrol
Propanone Methanal
⎯→

⎯→

KOH KOH
⎯→

⎯→

O O
Red colour Blue colour Colourless
CH3COOH + HCOOH HCOOH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 972


Some Important Alcohols filtered off, boiled with calculated amount of caustic potash
(1) Methyl alcohol or methanol, CH3OH—It is manu- and distilled. Pure methyl alcohol distills over at 65°C. It is
factured by following methods : dried over quick lime.
COOH COOCH3 COOK
(i) From water gas— 2KOH
| + 2CH3OH → | ⎯→ | + 2CH3OH
C + H2O (steam) → CO + H2 COOH COOCH3 COOK
14243 Oxalic acid Methyl oxalate
Water gas Uses of methyl alcohol—It has following important
CuO/ZnO/Cr O
CO + 2H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 3
CH3OH uses :
300–400°C/200 atm
(i) Methanol is an important source material for the
The crude methanol is fractionally distilled. This production of formaldehyde. Formaldehyde is a
method gives methanol of excellent purity and in raw material for plastic industry.
excellent yield.
(ii) Important chemicals like methylaniline, dimethyl-
(ii) From natural gas—Controlled air oxidation of aniline, methyl chloride, dimethyl sulphate,
marsh gas by passing its mixture with oxygen (9 : 1) methyl salicylate, terylene, polyvinyl alcohol etc.
through a copper tube at 200°C, under a pressure of are manufactured from methanol.
100 atm. gives methanol.
(iii) Methanol is used for denaturing alcohol rende-
1 Cu tube
CH4 + O 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3OH ring it unfit for drinking.
2 200°C/100 atm
(iv) Methanol finds application in antifreeze composi-
(iii) From pyroligneous acid—This is also referred to tion for automobile and aeroplane radiators.
as destructive distillation of wood.
(v) Methanol finds important place as a solvent in
Wood many industrial processes, in certain adhesive
Destructive Distillation at 400°°C compositions and in wood stains.
(vi) It is also used as component of motor spirit
↓ ↓ blends.

Volatile Gases Non-volatile residue (2) Ethyl alcohol or ethanol, C2H5OH—It is manu-
Passed into condenser (Wood charcoal) factured by following methods :
Fermentation of carbohydrates—Molasses and
↓ ↓ starchy materials are two important raw materials for large
Uncondensed gases Distillate scale preparation of ethyl alcohol. Fermentation is actually
(Wood gases used as fuel) allowed to settle decomposition of organic compounds into simpler com-
(CO, CH 4, C2H4, C2H6, H2 etc.)
pounds through the agency of enzymes, the bio-catalysts.
In commerce the ethyl alcohol is known as spirit of wine
↓ ↓ or grain alcohol.
Upper aqueous layer Lower layer
Pyroligneous acid Wood Tar (a) From molasses—Molasses, the mother liquor left
(Acetic acid, Methanol, Acetone) (A mixture of cresols, after the crystallisation of canesugar from sugarcane juice,
10% 2-4% 0·5% used for preservation of timber is diluted with water to reduce the concentration of sugar
under the name of creosote) to about 10 per cent, sterilised by heating with live steam
The aqueous layer is distilled and the vapour is passed for a short time and acidified with sulphuric acid to pH = 4.
over milk of lime. Acetic acid is retained as calcium This checks the growth of any undesirable bacteria. Suit-
acetate, but methanol, acetone and other volatile com- able quantities of ammonium sulphate and ammonium
pounds pass over as wood spirit. The wood spirit is then phosphate may be added which act as supplementary
fractionally distilled to give a low boiling fraction, a crude food for yeast. The liquid (wort) so obtained, is placed in a
methanol fraction and a higher boiling fraction containing large fermentation tank, maintained at the temperature of
a mixture of alcohols and ketones. The crude methanol about 35°C. In the presence of yeast culture, fermentation
fraction is then carefully refractionated to give pure starts accompanied by the following reactions :
methanol. (i) The enzyme, invertase present in yeast converts
Purification—Methanol obtained from pyroligneous sucrose into glucose and fructose.
acid is treated with anhydrous CaCl 2, when crystalline Invertase
C12H22O11+ H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
derivative, CaCl2·4CH3OH is formed, leaving acetone (Yeast)
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
unaffected. The crystals are filtered and boiled with water
when alcohol is regenerated. This is distilled. To remove (ii) The enzyme Zymase, further converts the glucose
last trace of water, the distillate is dried over quick lime. and fructose into ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide.
In another method, impure methanol is treated with Zymase
C6H12O6 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 ↑
oxalic acid when solid methyl oxalate is obtained. This is (Yeast)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 973


When the alcohol content of fermented liquor rises to (iv) Spent wash—It is the solid mass left after distilla-
about 15%, the yeast cells are killed and the process of tion of various fractions, and is used as a Cattle Feed.
fermentation stops. The liquor thus obtained is subjected Absolute alcohol—Ethyl alcohol forms a constant
to fractional distillation to get following fractions : boiling mixture i.e. , azeotrope, containing 95·87% by
First runnings—These consist of acetaldehyde and weight of alcohol with water. Since this mixture boils at
are used as an important source of acetaldehyde. 78·15°C, a temperature slightly lower than the boiling point
Rectified spirit or Industrial alcohol—This consists of pure ethanol (78·3°C), it is not possible to effect a
of 93 – 95 per cent of ethyl alcohol. complete separation of ethyl alcohol from water by
Final runnings or Fusel oil—This is obtained bet- fractional distillation alone. Alcohol containing only 0·8%
ween temperature range 125 – 140°C and is a mixture of : water (lime alcohol) can be prepared by distilling rectified
n-propyl, n-butyl, isobutyl, n-amyl, isoamyl and active spirit repeatedly over fresh quick lime. The last trace of
amyl alcohols. water is removed by distilling the lime-alcohol over a
requisite amount of metallic sodium or magnesium or
It must be noted that these alcohols are not produced
calcium.
by the fermentation of sugar but are formed by the action
of yeast on certain amino acids obtained from the proteins On large scale the absolute alcohol is prepared by
present in raw materials. the azeotropic distillation of industrial alcohol. In this
method the advantage is taken of the fact that alcohol
(b) From starch—The starchy materials like pota-
forms a ternary constant boiling mixture with water and
toes, maize, barley, rice etc. are used. The production of
benzene.
ethanol from starchy materials can be outlined as follows :
Water = 7·5%
(i) Malting—Barley moistened with water and spread
in a room in layers about five inches thick, is allowed to Alcohol = 18·5%
germinate in the dark at about 15°C. After suitable time Benzene = 74·0% by w/W
the germination is stopped by heating the barley to about This mixture boils at 64·9°C. The industrial alcohol
60°C. This germinated product is known as malt. which contains 4·13% water is mixed with benzene,
(ii) Liberation of starch—The malt is crushed and sufficient enough to form a ternary constant boiling
mixture with almost the entire amount of water present
treated with steam at 140 – 150°C under pressure when
and then distilled. The ternary azeotrope distils at 64·9°C
the starch present in the malt is brought into solution. This
solution is known as mash. carrying entire water present and absolute alcohol is left
behind which is totally free from water and benzene.
(iii) Saccharification—Malt is added to the mash and
Absolute alcohol blended with petrol in the ratio of
is kept at 50°C. The enzyme, diastase present in malt
20%, is used as a motor fuel, hence it is named as power
converts the starch into maltose. alcohol also.
Diastase
(C6H10O5)n + n/2 H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ n/2 C12H22O11 Uses of ethyl alcohol—Following are important uses
(Malt) of ethyl alcohol :
Starch Maltose
In an alternative method, starch may be converted (i) Ethyl alcohol is important component of alcoholic
into glucose by heating with dilute sulphuric acid or Beverages.
hydrochloric acid, and the excess of acid is neutralised by For example :
adding lime. Beer contains 3 – 5% of ethyl alcohol
(C6H10O5)n + n H2O ⎯→ n C6H12O6 Cider contains 2 – 4% of ethyl alcohol
Starch Glucose Gin contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
(iv) Fermentation—The maltose solution, obtained in Brandy contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
step (iii) is cooled to about 30°C and fermented as usual Whisky contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
by yeast for 3 days, when the following reaction occurs : Rum contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
Maltase (ii) Ethanol is used as a solvent for gums, resins,
C12H22O11 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C 6H12O6
(Yeast) paints, varnishes, stains, pharmaceutical products, per-
Maltose Glucose
Zymase fumes, flavourings etc.
C6H12O6 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C 2H5OH + 2CO2 ↑
(Yeast) (iii) Ethyl alcohol is used for the preparation of
Glucose Ethyl alcohol
acetaldehyde, acetic acid, acetic anhydride, esters,
The fermented liquor contains about 10 per cent chloral, chloroform etc.
alcohol and is subjected to fractional distillation to
(iv) Biological specimen are preserved in ethanol.
industrial alcohol.
(v) Ethanol is used as a low freezing and mobile
By-products of alcoholic fermentation—Following
liquid in scientific equipments like thermometers, spirit
are important by-products of alcoholic fermentation :
levels etc.
(i) Acetaldehyde (vi) It is used as a component of fuels (power alcohol)
(ii) Fusel oil for the internal combustion engines in many countries.
(iii) Carbon dioxide—Compressed in iron cylinders (vii) It is also used as ethylating agent in the manu-
used in aerated water industry or as a dry ice. facture of dye intermediates, drugs etc.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 974


Points to Remember
● The strength of an alcohol preparation is expressed in the terms of proof spirit. Proof spirit is the aqueous ethyl alcohol
containing 57·1% by volume of ethyl alcohol. The sample is referred to as over-proof or under-proof according as it is stronger
or weaker than proof-spirit.
A 20° under-proof sample means that 100 volumes of the sample contain as much alcohol as 80 volumes of proof-spirit.
Similarly 20° over-proof sample is one whose 100 volumes contain as much alcohol as 120 volumes of proof-spirit.
● The terms distilled and undistilled are used in describing alcoholic beverages. The undistilled beverages, which have low
alcoholic content, are generally prepared by fermentation of fruit juices. The distilled beverages containing much higher
alcoholic contents are made by distillation of fermented liquors.
● Since ethanol can be used for drinking purposes, it is heavily taxed. But the ethanol used for industrial purposes is duty
free. In order to make industrial alcohol unfit for drinking, it is denatured by mixing poisonous substances like methanol,
acetone, rubber thinner, and pyridine or bone oil. Such a denatured alcohol is known as methylated spirit.
● Mineralised methylated spirit is coloured and is made by adding 0·5 part by volume of crude pyridine and 9·5 parts by volume
of methanol to 90 parts by volume of rectified spirit (95·5% ethanol) and adding to every 100 gallons of resulting mixture not
less than 3/8 of a gallon of mineral naphtha and not less than 1/40 oz. of the dye methyl violet.
● In 1860, the pioneer worker Pasteur suggested that fermentation is purely a physiological process carried out by living micro-
organisms. However, Liebig considered it to be purely a chemical reaction. Buchner (1897) showed that the presence of living
cells is not necessary for this reaction. Thus the truth regarding the nature of fermentation lies between the views of Pasteur
and Liebig.
The fermentation is slow decomposition of complex organic compounds by the activity of non-living complex nitrogenous
substances (enzymes) produced in living organisms.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The number of alcohol isomers (C) 2-methyl propane-2-ol 12. In the reaction sequence
arrived at from molecular formula HBr alc.KOH
(D) None of these X ⎯→ CH3—CH—CH3 ⎯⎯→
C4H10O is— |
7. Denatured spirit is mainly used
(A) 2 (B) 3 Br
as a—
(C) 4 (D) 5 HBr
(A) Medicine Y ⎯⎯⎯→ Z
2. When equimolar quantities of (B) Good fuel Peroxide
ethanol and methanol are mixed X, Y and Z are respectively—
and heated with conc. H2 SO4, (C) Solvent
(D) Component of beverages (A) 2-propanol, Propene,
the product formed is—
1-bromopropane
(A) C2H5OC2H5 8. An organic compound when (B) Propene, 2-bromopropane,
(B) CH3OCH3 passed over heated copper at Propene
(C) C2H5OCH3 575 K, gives an alkene, the com- (C) 2-propanol, Propyne,
(D) All of these pound is— 2-bromopropane
3. The alcohol which reacts fastest (A) Alkane (D) 1-propanol, Propene,
with Luca’s reagent at normal (B) Akyne 1-bromopropene
temperature is— (C) Secondary alcohol 13. An organic compound (A) gives
(A) 2-methyl propane-1-ol (D) Tertiary alcohol positive Lucas test in 5 minutes.
(B) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
9. Which of the following com- When 6·0 gm of (A) is treated
(C) Butane-1-ol
pounds has highest boiling point ? with sodium metal, 1120 ml of
(D) Butane-2-ol
(A) Ethanol hydrogen is evolved at STP. The
4. Which of the following com- (B) Methoxymethane organic compound is—
pounds can be used for the
(C) Chloromethane (A) CH3CH2—CH —CH3
preparation of chloroform ?
(D) Propane |
(A) CH3CH2COC3H7
OH
(B) CH3COC2H5 10. Which of the following bonds of (B) CH3—CH —CH3
(C) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 an alcohol is cleaved when it |
(D) All of these reacts with carboxylic acids ? OH
5. Ethanol when e hated with conc. (A) C—H (B) C—O CH3
H2SO4 may give— (C) O—H (D) All of these |
(A) Diethyl sulphate only (C) CH3—C—OH
11. Which of the following alcohols |
(B) Diethyl ether only cannot be dehydrogenated ? CH3
(C) Ethylene only (A) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CH2OH
(D) All of these OH
| 14. Which of the following alcohols
6. The compound which is not iso-
(B) CH3CH—CH2CH3 can be obtained from HCHO ?
meric with diethyl ether is—
(A) Butane-1-ol (C) (CH3)3COH (A) CH3OH
(B) n-propylmethyl ether (D) (CH3)2CHOH (B) C2H5OH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 975 / 5


(C) CH3CH2CH2OH 23. On industrial scale ethanol is 33. The percentage of ethanol by
(D) All of these manufactured by the fermen- weight in proof spirit is—
tation of— (A) 90 (B) 10
15. Phenol can be distinguished from (A) C6H12O6 (B) CH3COOH (C) 48 (D) 4·5
ethyl alcohol by all reagents
(C) Molasses (D) C12H22O11
except— 34. Fermentation of starch solution
(A) NaOH (B) FeCl3 24. The percentage of ethyl alcohol to ethanol does not require—
(C) Br2/H2O (D) Na in rectified spirit is— (A) Maltase (B) Diastase
(A) 75·00 (B) 85·5
(C) Invertase (D) Zymase
16. Alcohol can be obtained by all (C) 95·6 (D) 100·0
methods except— 35. The correct order of boiling point
25. Which of the following alcohols
(A) Hydroboration–oxidation of alcohols having comparable
will be most acidic ?
(B) Oxymercuration–demercura- molar mass is—
(A) CH3OH (B) R–CH2OH
tion (C) R2CHOH (D) R3COH (A) 1° < 2° < 3°
(C) Reduction of aldehydes with (B) 3° < 2° < 1°
26. Dehydration of ethanol cannot
Zn-Hg/HCl
give— (C) 2° < 1° < 3°
(D) By fermentation of starch (A) C2H5OC2H5 (B) C2H5HSO 4 (D) None is correct
17. Which of the following alcohols is (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
36. The —OH group of CH3OH can
least soluble in water ? 27. An alcohol on oxidation gives not be replaced by the chlorine
(A) n-butyl alcohol CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH, by the action of—
(B) Iso-butyl alcohol the alcohol is— (A) HCl (B) PCl3
(C) Tert-butyl alcohol (A) CH3CH(OH) CH2CH2CH3
(C) PCl5 (D) Cl2
(D) Sec-butyl alcohol (B) CH3(CH2)2CHOH
(C) (CH3)2 C(OH) CH2CH3 37. Which of the following com-
18. Which of the following com- pounds is known as wood spirit ?
(D) CH3CH2CH2OH
pounds is isomeric with 1-pro- (A) Wood tar (B) Methanol
panol ? 28. Which of the following com-
pounds gives a positive iodoform (C) Ethanol (D) 95% ethanol
(A) Ethanol
test ? 38. Cyclohexanol is a—
(B) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(A) 3-pentanol (A) Phenol
(C) 1-butanol
(B) 2-phenyl-ethanol (B) Primary alcohol
(D) Ethyl-methyl ether
(C) 1-phenyl ethanol (C) Secondary alcohol
19. Which of the following com- (D) Pentanal (D) Tertiary alcohol
pounds would yield carboxylic
29. Determination of percentage of 39. During the dehydration of alco-
acid as the product on oxidation
alcohol in wine is called— hols, the ease of formation of
with acidified K2Cr2O7 ?
(A) Iodometry carbocation follows the order—
(A) 1-butanol
(B) Iodimetry (A) 1° > 2° > 3° (B) 3° > 2° > 1°
(B) 1-propanol (C) Alcoholometry (C) 3° > 1° > 2° (D) 2° > 1° > 3°
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Acidometry
40. C2H5OH can be distinguished
(D) None of these
30. Formation of 2-butene as major from CH3OH—
20. Which one of the following can product by dehydration of 2- (A) By the action of HCl
convert 2-propanol to acetone ? butanol is according to—
(B) By the action of NH 3
(A) K2Cr2O7/H+ (A) Saytzeff rule
(B) Peroxide effect (C) By determining the solubility
(B) Cu/575 K in water
(C) Markownikoff’s rule
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) By iodoform test
(D) Anti-Markownikoff’s rule
(D) None of these
31. Primary, secondary and tertiary 41. Which of the following products is
21. The enzyme which converts alcohols are distinguished by— formed when ter-butanol reacts
glucose and fructose into ethyl- (A) Oxidation with C6H5MgBr ?
alcohol is— (A) Methane (B) Methanal
(B) Lucas reagent
(A) Diastase (B) Invertase (C) Victor Meyer method (C) Benzene (D) None of these
(C) Zymase (D) Maltase (D) All of these 42. Propanol-1 and propanol-2 can
22. A solution of ethyl alcohol— 32. Which will respond to iodoform be best distinguished by—
(A) Decolourises the litmus test ? (A) Oxidation with K 2Cr2O7 fol-
paper (A) CH3OH lowed by reaction with CuO
(B) Changes red litmus blue (B) (CH3)3C·CHO (B) Oxidation by heating with Cu
(C) Changes blue litmus red (C) (CH3)2CHOH followed by reaction with
(D) Does not affect litmus paper (D) CH3CH2CH2OH Fehling solution

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 976


(C) Oxidation with KMnO4 fol- 46. Which one of the following is H
used as rubbing alcohol ? (B)
lowed by reaction with OH
Fehling solution (A) CH3OH
OH
(D) Oxidation with conc. H 2SO4 (B) C2H5OH (C)
followed by reaction with OH
(C) CH3CH2OH
copper (D) (CH3)2CHOH (D) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–
43. Cyclohexanol can be converted CH2OH
47. Which of the following is the least
into cyclohexene on reacting 50. Which of the following products is
suitable solvent for dissolving an
with— formed from catalytic hydrogena-
ionic compound ?
(A) conc. HBr (B) conc. H 3PO4 tion of CH3CH== CHCH2CHO ?
(A) H—OH
(C) HCl + ZnCl2 (D) conc. HCl (A) Unsaturated alcohol
(B) CH3—OH
(B) Saturated alcohol
44. When 0·037 gm of an alcohol (C) CH3CH2—OH
(ROH) reacts with excess of (C) Saturated aldehyde
CH3MgBr, 11·2 cm 3 of gas was (D) CH3(CH2)3CH2OH
(D) None of these
evolved at STP. What will be the 48. What is the correct decreasing
molecular weight of alcohol ? order of the boiling point of ANSWERS
(A) 33·00 (B) 74·00 pentanol-1(A), 2-methylbutanol-2
(C) 66·00 (D) 47·00 (B) and 3-methylbutanol-2(C) ?
(A) A > B > C (B) A > C > B
45. What is the correct IUPAC name
H OH (C) B < A < C (D) B > C > A
49. Which of the following products
of ? is expected from the reaction of

(A) Cyclohexanol == O with LiAlH4 ?


(B) Cyclohexenol
(C) Cyclohexenol-3 H
(A)
(D) 3-cyclohexene-1-ol OH ●●●

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DELHI
METRO RAIL CORPORATION
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For–
● Station Controller ● Train Operator
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Engineer ● Junior Station Controller

Including
Previous Years’
Solved Papers

By : Dr. Lal & Jain

Code No. 971

Price : Rs. 299/-


UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 977


15. What is the correct relationship
between the pH of isomolar
solutions of sodium oxide (pH1),
sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium
selenide (pH 3) and sodium tellu-
ride (pH4) ?
(A) pH 1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
1. The mass of carbon anode con- to zero order kinetics. The time
sumed (giving only carbondi- required for completion will be— (B) pH 1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4
oxide) in the production of 270 kg a k0 (C) pH 1 < pH2 < pH3 < pH4
of aluminium metal from bauxite (A) (B)
k0 a (D) pH 1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
by the Hall process is— a
(C) (D) 2k aa 16. The number of atoms in 200 g of
(Atomic mass : Al = 27) 2k 0
an f.c.c. crystal with a density
(A) 270 kg (B) 540 kg 9. Which of the following would have ρ = 10 g cm–3 and cell edge 200
(C) 90 kg (D) 180 kg a permanent dipole moment ? pm is equal to—
(A) SiF4 (B) SF 4
2. If the electron is present in the (A) 3 × 10 (B) 4 × 1025
n = 5 level, how many lines (C) XeF 4 (D) BF 3
(C) 1 × 1025 (D) 2 × 1025
would be observed, in case of 10. For the reaction A + B C + D,
H-atom ? 17. The absolute enthalpy of neutrali-
the initial concentration of A and
(A) 10 (B) 5 sation of the reaction :
B were taken as 0·9 mole dm–3.
(C) 7 (D) 4 At equilibrium the concentration MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq)
of D was found to be 0·6 mole + H2O(l)
3. A nuclide of an alkaline earth dm–3. The value of equilibrium will be—
metal undergoes radioactive constant will be—
decay by emission of the α-parti- (A) – 57·33 kJ mol – 1
(A) 9 (B) 3 (B) Greater than – 57·33 kJ
cles in succession. The group of
(C) 8 (D) 4 mol– 1
the periodic table to which the
resulting daughter element would 11. In face centred cubic lattice, a (C) Less than – 57·33 kJ mol– 1
belong is— unit cell is shared equally by how (D) 57·33 kJ mol– 1
(A) Gr. 4 (B) Gr. 6 many unit cells ?
18. Which of the following electrolyte
(C) Gr. 14 (D) Gr. 16 (A) 2 (B) 4 is least effective in coagulating
(C) 6 (D) 8 ferric hydroxide sol ?
4. Δ = XA – XB = 2. What is the per-
12. Bronsted Lowry acid is— (A) K3Fe(CN)6 (B) K2CrO4
cent ionic character for a cova-
(A) BF 3 (C) KBr (D) K2SO4
lent molecule A – B ?
(A) 46 (B) 50 (B) C2O42– 19. The rate of reaction between two
(C) [N(Me)4] + reactants A and B decreases by a
(C) 20 (D) 30
factor of 4 if the concentration of
5. The correct sequence of increas- —CO reactant B is doubled. The order
(D) NH
ing covalent character is repre- —CO of this reaction with respect to
sented by— reactant B is—
13. The vapour pressure of two (A) 2 (B) – 2
(A) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl 2 liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60
(C) 1 (D) – 1
(B) BeCl 2 < LiCl < NaCl torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by 20. The density of the gas is equal
(C) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl 2
mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of to—
(D) BeCl 2 < NaCl < LiCl (A) P/RT (B) n P
Q would be—
6. Three fold symmetrical axis is (A) 72 torr (B) 140 torr MP
(C) (D) M/V
RT
associated with the molecule— (C) 68 torr (D) 20 torr
(A) NH3 (B) C2H4 21. Which of the following pairs for a
14. One equivalent of Na2CO3 and
chemical reaction is certain to
(C) CO2 (D) SO2 0·5 equivalent of MgCO3 are
result in a spontaneous reaction ?
treated with excess of HCl in two
7. Which one of the following oxides (A) Exothermic and increasing
separate vessels. The volume of
is expected to exhibit paramag- CO2 evolve at STP will be res- disorder
netic behaviour ? pectively— (B) Exothermic and decreasing
(A) CO2 (B) SiO2 disorder
(A) 22·4 lit., 11·2 lit.
(C) Endothermic and increasing
(C) SO2 (D) ClO2 (B) 11.2 lit., 5·6 lit. disorder
8. A substance whose initial con- (C) 11.2 lit., 11·2 lit. (D) Endothermic and decreasing
centration is ‘a’ reacts according (D) 22.4 lit., 22·4 lit. disorder

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 978


22. Solubility of sparingly soluble 30. Which species are present in 36. Different layers of graphite are
salt, S, specific conductance k , acidic and basic media respec- held together by—
and equivalent conductance ° ^ tively ? (A) Ionic bonding
(A) CrO42– in basic and Cr2O72– (B) Metallic bonding
are related as—
in acidic. (C) Covalent bonding
1000 ^ ° (B) Cr2O72– in basic and CrO42–
(A) S = (D) van der Waals forces
k in acidic.
37. Which one of the following com-
(B) S = k ° ^ (C) CrO42– is present in acidic
pounds is most acidic ?
k and basic both. (A) Cl—CH2—CH2—OH
(C) S = (D) Cr2O72– is present in acidic
1000 ^ ° OH
and basic both.
1000 k (B)
(D) S = 31. Which of the following undergoes
°
^ nucleophilic substitution exclusi-
OH
vely by S N1 mechanism ?
23. 4·5 g of aluminium (at mass 27 (A) Ethyl chloride (C)
amu) is deposited at cathode (B) Isopropyl chloride NO2
from Al3+ solution by a certain (C) Chlorobenzene
OH
quantity of electric charge. The (D) Benzyl chloride
volume of hydrogen produced at (D)
32. CsAuCl3 is diamagnetic com-
STP from H+ ions in solution by CH3
pound. It should contain—
the same quantity of electric (A) Au(II) ions 38. HO
charge will be— (B) Au(III) ions
(A) 44·8 L (B) 22·4 L (C) Au(I) ion only
(D) Equal number of Au(I) and
(C) 11·2 L (D) 5·6 L Au(III) atoms
24. The metal which is found in free 33. Which one of the following has the IUPAC name—
and combined state in nature— alkenes will react faster with H 2 (A) 3, 4-dimethyl-1-penten-3-ol
under catalytic hydrogenation (B) Isopropyl-3-methyl vinyl
(A) Na (B) Mn
conditions ? carbinol
(C) Cu (D) Au (R = Alkyl substituent) (C) 2, 3-dimethyl-4-penten-3-ol
25. The mole fraction of the solute in R R (D) None of the above
one molal aqueous solution is— (A)
H H 39. Electrolytic reduction of nitro-
(A) 0·009 (B) 0·018 R R benzene in weakly acidic medium
(C) 0·027 (D) 0·036 (B) gives—
R R (A) N-phenylhydroxylamine
26. The ore associated with ruby, R R
amethyst, sapphire, topaz etc. (B) Nitrosobenzene
(C)
is— R H (C) Aniline
(A) CuFeS2 (B) Na 3AlF6 R R (D) p-hydroxyaniline
(C) Cu 2O (D) Al2O3 (D) 40. Optical active compound is—
H R
27. The surface tension of which of (A) n-butanol
34. The chemical composition of
the following liquid is maximum ? (B) n-propanol
‘Slag’ formed during the smelting
(A) C2H5OH (B) CH3OH process in extraction of copper (C) 2-chlorobutane
(C) H2O (D) C6H6 is— (D) 4-hydroxy heptane
(A) CuO + FeS (B) FeSiO 3
28. Sodium peroxide in contact with 41. In a set of reactions acetic acid
(C) CuFeS2 (D) CuS + FeO
moist air turns white due to the yielded a product D.
35. Aniline in a set of reactions SOCl Benzene
formation of— CH3COOH ⎯⎯→
2
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B
(A) Na 2CO3 (B) NaHCO3 yielded a product D. Anhy. AlCl3
HCN H . OH
(C) NaNO2 (D) NaOH NH2
NaNO2 ⎯⎯→ C ⎯⎯→ D
⎯⎯⎯→ A The structure of D would be—
29. The chirality of the compound HCl
CuCN H2 HNO2 COOH
Br ⎯⎯→ B ⎯→ C ⎯⎯→ D |
| Ni
CH2—C—CH3
C H The structure of the product D (A) |
H3C Cl would be— OH
(A) C6H5NHOH CN
is— (B) C6H5NHCH2CH3 |
C—CH3
(A) R (B) S (C) C6H5CH2NH2 (B) |
(C) E (D) Z (D) C6H5CH2OH OH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 979


OH enthalpy (with negative sign) of (C) Manganese (Z = 25)
| the given atomic species ? (D) Iron (Z = 26)
CH2—C—CH3
(C) (A) S < O < Cl < F
| 48. Which of the following reaction
CN (B) Cl < F < S < O comes within the frame work of
OH (C) F < Cl < O < S elimination ?
|
(D) O < S < F < Cl (A) (CH3)2CHCl + SH
C—COOH
(D) | 46. All the three hydrocarbons X, Y (B) (CH3)3C–Br + Ethanolic KCN
CH3 and Z of molecular formula C5H8
decolourises Br2 in CCl4 solution. (C) CH3CH2CH2Cl + I
42. What is the theoretical yield of (D) (CH3)2 CHBr + aq KOH
All the three are soluble in cold
ethane in the following reaction
conc. H2SO4. In presence of
(in volume) ? 49. Which one of the following is
Cl 2 Na metal catalyst X and Y on hydro- expected to exhibit optical iso-
CH4 ⎯⎯→ CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯→ C2H6 genation yield n-pentane. X gives
ether merism ? (en = ethylenediamine)
white precipitate with ammonia-
(A) 1 lit (B) 2 lit (A) cis-[Pt(NH3)2 Cl2]
cal silver nitrate solution while Y
(C) 1·5 lit (D) 0·5 lit and Z donot. What are X, Y and (B) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
43. The cell membranes are mainly Z respectively ? (C) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] +
composed of— (A) 1-pentyne, 2 pentyne, cyclo- (D) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2] +
(A) Fats pentene 50. Alkaline hydrolysis of C4H8Cl2
(B) Proteins (B) Ethylmethylacetylene, cyclo- gives a compound which on
(C) Phospholipids pentene, 2-pentyne heating with NaOH and I2 pro-
(D) Carbohydrates (C) 3-methyl-1-butyne, 2-pen- duces a yellow precipitate of
tyne, 1-pentyne CHI3. The compound should
44. Secondary gem halide of pro-
pane on heating with zinc (D) 1-pentyne, 2-pentyne, 3- be—
gives— methyl -1-butyne
(A) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(A) Sym. dimethyl ethylene 47. Four successive members of the (B) CH3—CH2— C —CH3
(B) 2-butene first row transition elements are ||
listed below with their atomic O
(C) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene
numbers. Which one of them is (C) CH3—CH— C H — CH2
(D) β-butylene expected to have the highest third | | | |
ionization enthalpy ? OH O H
45. Which one of the following
(D) CH3— C H — CH —CH3
arrangements represents the (A) Vanadium (Z = 23) | | | |
correct order of electron gain (B) Chromium (Z = 24) OH OH

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 980


15. The most efficient packing of
similar spheres is obtained in—
(A) The simple cubic system and
the body centred cubic
system
(B) The simple cubic system and
the hexagonal close packed
1. The increasing order of energy of 8. A liquid boils at that temperature
system
electromagnetic radiation can be at which the pressure of satu-
represented as— rated vapour is— (C) The face centred cubic
system and the hexagonal
(A) Microwave < infrared < visi- (A) More than atmospheric close packed system
ble < X-ray pressure
(D) The body centred cubic sys-
(B) X-ray < visible < infrared < (B) Double to atmospheric pres- tem and the face centred
microwave sure cubic system
(C) Microwave < infrared < visi-
(C) Equal to atmospheric pres- 16. In which compound the number
ble < radiowaves
sure of 3° carbon is maximum ?
(D) X-ray < infrared < visible <
microwave (D) Less than atmospheric pres- (A) 2, 5 dimethyl hexane
sure (B) 2, 3, 4 trimethyl pentane
2. The work function of a metal is
° 9. The depression in the freezing (C) 2, 2, 4, 4 tetramethyl pen-
1eV. If 3300 A wavelength light tane
point of water (ΔT) caused by
is incident, the value of stopping (D) 2, 2, 3 trimethyl pentane
0·5M HCl, 0·5 M glucose and 0·5
voltage is— M MgCl2 are in the order— 17. The chemical composition of
(A) 1V (B) 3·75 V
(A) ΔTglucose > ΔTMgCl2 >ΔTHCl ‘slag’ formed during the smelting
(C) 3·2 V (D) 0·75 V process in the extraction of
3. For a real gas, PV is a constant (B) ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTglucose >ΔTHCl copper is—
over a small range of pressures, (A) Cu 2O + FeS
(C) ΔTHCl > ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTglucose
at— (B) FeSiO 3
(A) Boyle’s temperature (D) ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTHCl > ΔTglucose (C) CuFeS2
(B) Critical temperature (D) Cu 2S + FeO
10. If a proton totally converts into
(C) Inversion temperature 18. Dichlorocarbene is—
energy, the value of energy will
(D) Ordinary temperature be— (A) A neutral diamagnetic
4. A monoatomic ideal gas is (A) 190 MeV (B) 931 MeV (B) A carbonation
compressed to its 1/8 volume (C) A carbanion
(C) 93·1 MeV (D) 931 joule
adiabatically at 17°C. Tempera- (D) A free radical
ture after compression will be— 1
11. The plot of log K versus is linear 19. Na 2CO3 + Fe2O3 → A + CO2 ;
T
(A) None (B) 17°C
with a slope of— A is—
(C) 136°C (D) 887°C (A) NaFeO2 (B) Na 3FeO 3
Ea – Ea
(A) (B)
5. The electronegativities of ele- R R (C) Fe 3O4 (D) Na 2FeO 2
ments P, As, Cl and S decrease Ea – Ea
(C) (D) 20. Which test is not ideal to
in the order— 2·303R 2·303R distinguish 2-butanol and 1-
(A) S > Cl > As > P propanol ?
12. In the following nuclear reaction
(B) As > P > Cl > S (A) Hydrogenation
2He
3 + zXa → z + 1Ya + 2 + Q
(C) P > Cl > As > S (B) Iodoform test
(D) Cl > S > P > As What is Q ?
(C) Lucas test
(A) Neutron (B) Proton
6. Which formula is incorrect for (D) Oxidation test
root mean square velocity ? (C) Positron (D) Electron
21. Thallium shows different oxida-
3RT 3PV 13. The pH of 10 –3 M solution of tion states because—
(A) (B) Ca(OH)2 is—
M M (A) Of its high reactivity
3d 2KE (A) 8·0 (B) 11·3 (B) Of inert pair effect
(C) (D) (C) 10·5 (D) 5·0
P M (C) Of its amphoteric nature
7. The oxidation number of oxygen 14. Work function of photoelectric (D) It is a transition metal
in Cl2O and H2O2 are respecti- metal is 3·13 eV. Threshold
22. The hydrocarbon formed by elec-
vely— frequency is—
trolysis of sodium propionate—
(A) – 2 and + 1 (B) + 2 and + 1 (A) 4 × 1011 Hz (B) 5 × 1011 Hz (A) CH3—CH = CH2
(C) – 2 and – 1 (D) + 2 and – 1 (C) 8 × 1014 Hz (D) 8 × 1010 Hz (B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 984


(C) CH3—CH2—CH3 28. The electronic configuration of 35. Nessler’s reagent is used to
(D) CH3—CH3 Fe 26 is [Ar]— detect the presence of—
(A) 3d 8 4 s 2 (B) 3d 7 4 s 2 (A) CrO42 – (B) PO43 –
23. Dental amalgam is composed
(C) 3d 6 4 s 2 (D) 3d 5 4 s 2
of— (C) MnO4– (D) NH+4
(A) Hg + Ag + Cd + Au + Fe 29. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen
present is estimated as— 36. The compound obtained by the
(B) Cu + Sn + Hg + Ag + Zn
(A) N2 (B) NH3 reaction of acetic anhydride and
(C) Cd + Cu + Ni + Au + Fe
(C) NO2 (D) None of these ammonia is—
(D) Cu + Sn + Au + Hg + CO
(A) CH3COONH4
24. The product of the reaction bet- 30. The element with electronic
(B) CH3CN
ween ethylene and ozone, when configuration 1s 2, 2s 2p 6, 3s 2p 6,
hydrolysed in presence of Zn, the 4s 2 shows same property as— (C) CH3CONHCH3
new product formed is— (A) Mo (B) Rb (D) CH3CONH2
(A) Alcohol (C) Ca (D) Sr 37. The precipitate of CaF2 (Ks p =
(B) Ethylene oxide 31. The following compound is used 1·7 × 10 –10 ) is obtained when
(C) HCHO as— equal volumes of the following
(D) CH2OHCH2OH O are mixed—
|| –4
25. For the molecule PF4Cl3, which of (A) 10 M Ca2 + + 10– 4 M F–
O—C—CH 3
the following structures is the (B) 10– 2 M Ca2 + + 10– 3 M F–
most stable, considering that
(C) 10– 5 M Ca2+ + 10– 3 M F–
CH3— is more electropositive COOH
than F ? (A) An anti-inflammatory com- (D) 10– 3 M Ca2+ + 10– 5 M F–

F pound 38. When aniline reacts with acetic


F | (B) Analgesic anhydride the product formed
(A) P—CH 3 (C) Hypnotic is—
F |
(D) Antiseptic (A) p-aminobenzoic acid
F
32. The formula of acetaldehyde (B) m-aminobenzoic acid
CH 3
F | semicarbazone— (C) Acetanilide
(B) P—F (A) CH3—CH = N NHCONHCH3 (D) o-aminobenzoic acid
F |
(B) CH3—CH = N—OH 39. The cyanide ion, CN– and N2 are
F
CH 3 (C) CH3CH = N—NHCONH2 isoelectronic but in contrast to
F | F (D) CH3—CH = N—NHCONH CN–, N2 is chemically inert, beca-
(C)
P use of—
F F —CONH2
(A) Low bond energy
F 33. Which of the following cannot be
(B) Absence of bond polarity
| diazotised ?
(D) F CH3 (C) Unsymmetrical electron dis-
P NH2
tribution
F F (A)
(D) Presence of more number of
26. The chemical formula of potash electrons in bonding orbitals
alum is K2SO4·Al 2(SO4)3 XH 2O. CH 3
Here X is— (B) 40. The element with highest ioni-
(A) 7 (B) 12 NH2 sation potential is—
(C) 6 (D) 24 (A) N (B) S
CH 3
(C) C (D) Be
27. In the following groups,
(C)
—OAc—OMe—OSO2Me 41. The order of reactivities of the
following alkyl halides for a SN 2
I II III NH 2
reaction is—
—OSO2CF3 (D) C6H5CH2NH2 (A) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
IV 34. Phenol, chloroform and caustic (B) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
the order of leaving group ability potash are heated. The com- (C) RCl > RBr >RF > RI
is— pound formed is—
(D) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(A) I > II > III > IV (A) Salicylic acid
(B) IV > III > I > II (B) p-hydroxybenzaldehyde 42. Maximum melting point is of—
(C) III > II > I > IV (C) m-hydroxybenzaldehyde (A) MgCl2 (B) BaCl 2
(D) II > III > IV > I (D) Salicylaldehyde (C) CaCl2 (D) BeCl 2

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 985


43. The colour of the colloidal parti- (A) –2≤x≤2 48. Mixture used in Holmes’s signal
cles of gold obtained by different (B) 0<x≤1 is—
methods differ because of— (C) x≤1 (A) CaC2 and CaCl2
(A) Variable valency of gold (B) CaCl2 and Ca 3F2
(D) x is always non-negative
(B) Different concentration of
(C) CaC2 and Ca 3N2
gold particles 46. A piece of magnesium ribbon
(C) Different types of impurities (D) CaC2 and Ca 3P2
was heated to redness in an
(D) Different diameters of colloi- atmosphere of nitrogen and on 49. Percentage of gold in 21·6 carat
dal particles cooling water was added. The gold is—
44. The process requiring the absor- gas evolved was— (A) 21·6 (B) 90
ption of energy is— (A) Ammonia (B) Hydrogen (C) 10 (D) 70
(A) F → F– (B) Cl → Cl– (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
50. Chlorine acts as a bleaching
(C) O → O2– (D) H → H–
47. The end product of 4n series is— agent only in the presence of—
45. Which statement, regarding the (A) 82Pb208 (B) 82Pb207 (A) Dry air (B) Sunlight
mole fraction x of a component in
solution is correct ? (C) 82Pb209 (D) 83Pb205 (C) Moisture (D) Pure oxygen

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 986


●●●
(Continued from Page 946 )
68. What are amino acids in a protein called ?
➠ α-amino acids
69. What is the basis of modern classification of plants ?
➠ Phylogeny
70. Who gave the term ‘plasmid’ for the first time ?
➠ Lederberg
71. What are called those blue-green algae which live in
protozoans ? ➠ Cyanellae
72. In what type of solution the plant cells neither lose nor
gain water ? ➠ Isotonic solution
73. What is called the spatial arrangement of atoms in a
protein ? ➠ Conformation
74. How many polypeptides of a protein is/are specified
for each gene ? ➠ One
75. What are the three simple sugars of monosac-
charide ? ➠ Glucose, Fructose, and Galactose
76. What are the two important components of fluid-
mosaic model of plasma membrane ?
➠ Lipids and proteins
77. What is called a group of structural and regulating
genes that functions as a single unit ? ➠ Operon
78. Which is the earliest era in the geological record ?
➠ Precambrian
79. What measures the gel electrophoresis ?
➠ Measures the charge and size of proteins and DNA
fragments
80. What is generally called the lower portion of the meso-
phyll in the leaf cell ? ➠ Spongy parenchyma
●●●
(Continued from Page 983 )

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 988


Communicable diseases are caused by pathogenic tunistic pathogens and produce opportunistic infections.
microbes and readily transmitted from infected to healthy These microbes often infect a host whose health or
persons. Therefore, the diseases transmitted directly or natural defenses have been diminished in some way.
indirectly between hosts are called communicable Pneumocystic pneumonia is an opportunistic infection
diseases. The pathogenic microbe may be bacteria, of lung found in AIDS patients with severely impaired
viruses, protozoa, fungi. Microbes are capable of growing immune defenses.
in human tissues and cause diseases. Even without illness, some beneficial microbes of the
Pathogens vary in the severity of the diseases they normal flora can become opportunistic pathogens if they
cause. Some produce mild to moderate discomfort gain access to a different body location. For example,
(common cold and flu) and are quickly controlled by the when beneficial bacteria in the digestive tract called
body’s defenses, if affected person is healthy. Other Escherichia coli accidently gain access to the urethera
pathogens, such as these causing rabies, cholera, and and bladder, they can cause a urinary tract infection.
plague, overwhelm the body defenses of every healthy
people and may prove fatal. Methods of Pathogens Entry into the Body
Some microbes infect and cause disease only if an Before pathogens can grow and cause disease, they
opportunity arises. They are appropriately called oppor- may first gain access, they must first gain access to

Selected Microbial Diseases, the Scientific Names of Microbes and the Areas of the Body Infected
Disease Microbe Primary Location of Infection
Bacteria
Botulism Clostridium botulinum Neuromuscular junction
Cholera Vibrio cholerae Intestine
Food poisoning Staphylococcus aureus Intestine
Gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens Infected tissues
Gonorrhea Neisseria gonorrhoeae Reproductive tract
Syphilis Treponema pallidum Reproductive tract
Chlamydia Chlamydia trachomatis Reproductive tract
Infantile and traveler’s diarrhea Escherichia coli (E. coli) Intestine
Salmonellosis Salmonella enteritidis Intestine
Tetanus Clostridium tetani Nerves
Tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Lungs
Typhoid Salmonella typhi Intestine
Protozoa
Amoebic dysentery Entamoeba histolytica Intestine
Giardiasis (beaver fever) Giardia lamblia Intestine
Malaria Plasmodium malariae Bloodstream
Fungi
Aspergillosis Aspergillus fumigatus Lungs
Athlete’s foot Trichophyton Skin
Histoplasmosis Histoplasma capsulatum Lungs
Candidiasis (yeast infection) Candida albicans Mouth, intestine, vagina
Viruses
Influenza Influenza virus Upper respiratory tract
Chicken pox Varicella virus Skin
Rabies Rabies virus Brain, spinal cord
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B virus Liver
Hepatitis A Hepatitis A virus Intestine, liver
Fever blisters, genital herpes Herpes simplex Skin
German measles Rubella Skin
Polio Poliovirus Spinal cord (paralytic polio)
AIDS HIV Immune system

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 989


tissues. The sites through which pathogens enter the that binds cells together in a tissue. This permits the
body are called portals of entry. Portals of entry are bacteria to pass between the cells and spread throughout
breaks in the skin or the exposed mucous membranes of the tissue. These bacteria are often introduced by wounds
the eye or the respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and that penetrate deeply and cause extensive tissue
urinary tracts. Some pathogens have specific protals of damage. A variety of other enzymes are secreted by
entry and others do not. For example, cold viruses enter different bacteria for tissue penetration and destruction.
through the mucous membranes of the eyes and upper Some of these enzymes destroy molecules in the plasma
respiratory tract but not the mucous membranes of the membranes of the host cell, causing its membrane to
reproductive and urinary tracts. By contrast, the bacteria burst open and resulting in the host cell’s death. Other
that cause the sexually transmitted disease gonorrhea secreted enzymes destroy white blood cells and allow
can enter through the mucous membranes of the eye, captured bacteria to escape phagocytosis.
upper respiratory tract, reproductive tract and anus.
Tissue Damage by Bacterial Toxins
Transmission of Pathogens Poisonous chemicals that damage host tissue are
Many pathogens are transmitted by passing directly called toxins. There are two categories of bacterial
from an infected host, either human or nonhuman, to an toxins—
uninfected host. Some are transmitted indirectly by (i) Those produced and released by living, growing
contact with contaminated objects. Microbes may not bacteria and
actually grow on these objects but may remain alive long
(ii) Those released from dead, disintegrating bacteria.
enough to be passed to others upon contact. There are
many possible ways in which pathogens are transmitted. The first category consists of toxins produced either
It is important to realize that not all pathogens are trans- by pathogenic bacteria infecting the body (cholera and
mitted in the same way. The viruses for the common cold tetanus) or by bacteria contaminating the food (staph food
and hepatitis can be transmitted after exposure to dry poisoning).
conditions on non-living objects, but this is not the case Cholera bacteria enter the digestive tract with conta-
for other viruses. For example, the virus responsible for minated food and water. As these bacteria grow in the
AIDS (HIV) is easily inactivated by exposure to air, intestines, they release a toxin that irritates the intestinal
dryness, and soap and water. For transmission, it requires lining causing severe diarrhea. Such diarrhea results in
a moist medium—a body fluid such as blood or semen. rapid dehydration and electrolyte loss.
This fact explains why the disease profile for AIDS is very Tetanus bacteria typically enter the body through a
different from the disease profile for the common cold wound. As they grow in the tissues, tetanus bacteria
(Prologue). release a toxin which is transported by the blood and
Actions of Pathogens causes damage elsewhere. The toxins affects the nerves
that stimulate skeletal muscles. As a consequence,
If pathogens are not killed by the host’s initial defen-
muscles do not relax properly and spasms result.
ses, the process of infection begins. During an infection, a
Staph food poisoning, once known as ptomaine
microbe enters a tissue area, multiplies in number, and
poisoning, results from toxins produced by staphyloccus
begins to cause tissue damage. The accumulated tissue
bacteria growing on food. These bacteria can be part of
damage eventually alters body functions and produces
the normal flora of the nasal passages but can also cause
the symptoms characteristic of the disease. Each type of
boils, pimples, and other skin infections. Therefore,
pathogen has particular processes which allow it to
sneezing and coughing on food and preparing food with
invade, multiply, and damage a specific tissue or group of
unprotected hands can lead to the deposition of millions of
tissues.
staph bacteria. If such contaminated food remains at room
Actions of Pathogenic Bacteria temperature for a few hours, the bacteria will have time to
Bacteria damage tissues in many ways. Usually they grow, producing and releasing harmful quantities of toxin.
produce and release enzymes and chemical toxins that When ingested with food, the toxin irritates the gastroin-
help them invade and destroy tissues. As bacteria destroy testinal tract, causing vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea.
cells, nutrients are, liberated which the bacteria use for The second category of toxins are released from the
their growth, making more bacteria. More bacteria lead to disintegrating cell wall of dead bacteria. Such toxins are
more tissue damage. Most types of bacteria proliferate in associated with the bacteria that cause salmonellosis, a
the space outside cells and do their damage from the common contaminant of poultry. When these bacteria are
outside. However, a few bacteria penetrate into cells, ingested, stomach acid and other digestive secretions kill
destroying them. many of them. As the bacteria disintegrate, the toxin is
released. These toxins cause fever, weakness, intestinal
Tissue Damage by Secreted Enzymes bleeding, and even shock.
Enzymes are proteins that speed up specific chemi-
cal reactions. Through the action of enzymes secreted by Actions of Pathogenic Viruses
bacteria, the structure and chemical composition of Viruses reproduce by entering a living host cell. Once
tissues can be changed rapidly to benefit the microbe and they are inside, viral nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) repro-
damage the host. grammes cell operations to serve the goals of viral repli-
The bacteria that cause gas gangrene secrete an cation. The specific symptoms of a viral disease are due
enzyme that allows them to disrupt the molecular ‘glue’ to the type of cell infected, damaged and killed.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 990


Viral infection of a host cell is traditionally divided into reactivate the viruses. Upon reactivation, they leave the
four sequential phases : attachment, penetration, biosyn- nerve cells (without damaging them) and infect epithelial
thesis and assembly, the release of viruses from host cells of the skin, where damage occurs. These active and
cells occur in several different ways, depending on the inactive episodes can be periodically repeated throughout
type of virus. Viruses lacking an envelope are often all a lifetime.
released rapidly as the dead host cell disintegrates.
Chicken pox is another lifelong viral disease. After the
Viruses with an envelope are released slowly over a
usual childhood case of chicken pox, this virus remains
period of time without immediate disintegration of the host
inactive in a person’s nerve cells. If reactivated later in life,
cell. As single viral particles are released, they acquire a
it causes the painful skin condition known as shingles.
little bit of the host’s plasma membrane, and this
constitutes their envelope. Of course, the host cell There is yet another strategy for viral survival, repro-
eventually disintegrates as a result of the accumulated duction, and damage to host cells. After penetrating a cell
damage. some viruses do not immediately follow the sequence of
Envelope
Protein of envelope
Nucleic acid
Capsid

Attachment
Receptor Protein of virus envelope binds to
sites protein receptors on host cell
membrane.

Penetration
Plasma Virus envelope fuses with plasma
Membrane membrane, and virus capsid and
nucleic acid enter host cell. Capsid
disintegrates and nucleic acid is
released.

Copies of m-RNA Biosynthesis


nucleic acid Copies of viral nucleic acid are
replicated. Viral nucleic acid is
New used to synthesize new capsid
proteins by employing organelles
capsid of host cell.
protein

Assembly
Newly synthesized capsid
Newly proteins and viral nucleic acid
assembled molecules are assembled into
new viruses.
virus

Release
Viruses with envelopes acquire
their envelopes as they are relea-
sed from host cell.

Fig. : Stages and associated events of viral multiplication. The virus shown here has an envelope.

In addition to rapid release and slow release, there is events outlined above. Instead, before it produces viru-
a third possibility. In this case, new viruses do not kill the ses, the viral nucleic acid is inserted into and becomes
host cell and are not immediately released. Instead, they part of the host cell’s DNA, a process called viral
become lifelong residents of the host cell. During this integration. The viral nucleic will remain integrated within
residency, their periodic release may cause painful symp- the host cell’s DNA for the life of the cell. Every time the
toms. The herpes simplex virus that causes fever blisters host cell’s DNA is replicated before mitosis, the viral
and genital herpes is an example of this possibility. nucleic acid will also be replicated. When the host cell
divides after mitosis, the viral nucleic acid will be passed
Initially, the herpes virus infects and damages epithe-
with the cellular DNA to the two progeny cells.
lial tissue. It then spreads to nerve cells and becomes
inactive. During the inactive period, the viruses reside in Viral integration may persist for months or years
nerves near the skin. Physical and emotional stress may without damage to the host cells. However, all is not well.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 991


Eventually the viral nucleic acid may become activated by tance in the prevention of infections disease and food
chemicals or other microbial infections. Upon activation, spoilage.
the integrated viral nucleic acid produces nucleic acid and
Physical methods of controlling microbes—To
viral proteins that are assembled into viruses. This pro-
survive and grow, all microbes require certain minimum
cess damages and eventually destroys the host cell. For conditions of moisture, pH, temperature, and O2 or CO2.
good reason, such viruses are getting much attention
These physical conditions vary among bacteria, fungi, and
today. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) that
protozoa and among the microbes in each group. Such
causes Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is
variation means that some microbes are more suscep-
an RNA virus, and its integration into the host’s DNA
tible to physical damage than are others. Methods such
chromosomes requires that its RNA be copied as DNA.
as heating, cooling, drying, and radiation are used to
Actions of Pathogenic Fungi and Protozoa destroy microbes, reduce their numbers, or slow their
Fungi have mechanisms similar to those of bacteria growth.
for invading and killing human tissues. By releasing Chemical methods of controlling microbes— A
enzymes and chemical toxins, pathogenic fungi invade variety of chemical substances either destroy microbes or
and digest the tissues, using the breakdown products as inhibit their growth. Chemicals that do this on nonliving
nutrients for their growth. Pathogenic fungi have two main surfaces such as kitchen equipment and bathroom facili-
portals of entry : the respiratory system and the skin. ties are known as disinfectants. Milder chemicals called
Fungal spores may be inhaled with the air. antiseptics do the same thing on body surfaces without
A common respiratory system disease caused by a causing irritation.
fungus is histoplasmosis. This fungus grows in soils rich Disinfectants and antiseptics act by disrupting plasma
in nutrients from birds congregate are often places where membranes, cell walls, nucleic acid molecules, or pro-
histoplasmosis infections are prevalent. teins, including enzymes. If applied at appropriate concen-
The most common fungal infections of the skin affect trations, chemicals such as alcohols, chlorine, and iodine
its upper layer and associated structures. Ringworm is the are effective in destroying microbes. Chemicals are also
collective name of such fungal skin diseases, which used to purify drinking water. For example, drinking water
include athlete’s foot. These fungi release an enzyme can be purified by adding 2 drops of household bleach
which breaks down the keratin of the skin’s upper layer, (such as chlorox or purex) to a litre of water and waiting
hair, and nails. Yeasts are fungi, and some yeast infec- 30 minutes before drinking.
tions are caused by a pathogenic yeast named Candida.
These fungi can infect the upper skin surface as well as Use of Antibiotics
the mucous membranes of the mouth, the intestinal tract,
Antibiotics are natural chemical substances produces
and the vagina.
by a variety of bacteria and fungi. Antibiotics are effective
Pathogenic protozoa infect a range of organs, includ- against bacteria because they interfere with cellular
ing the intestinal tract, brain, liver, and blood. Intestinal processes and structures unique to bacteria. Protozoa,
tract infections are contracted from food and liquids viruses, fungi, and human cells which lack these struc-
contaminated with the pathogen. Amoebic dysentery tures are not harmed. Antibiotics kill or inhibit bacteria by
and Giardiasis are two common intestinal tract infections inhibiting cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis or by
caused by protozoa. In these two diseases, the active damaging the plasma membrane.
protozoa cells are destroyed by stomach acid before
entering the intestines. However, their cysts are resistant Antibiotics such as penicillin and bacitracin interfere
to stomach acid and they enter the intestinal tract, where with the production of bacterial cell walls. A weakened cell
they develop into active cells. It is these cells that invade wall decreases the bacteria’s ability to withstand the
the intestinal lining, causing violent attacks of diarrhea, osmotic pressure of the surrounding tissue fluid, and the
abdominal cramps and nausea. bacterial cell ruptures and dies.
Malaria is the world’s most widespread disease Other antibiotics, such as tetracycline and erythromy-
caused by protozoa. It is transmitted by between humans cin, inhibit bacterial protein synthesis without affecting
by a mosquito that feeds on human blood. In malaria, the protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. This fortunate distinc-
protozoa enter the bloodstream, mature in the liver and tion occurs because bacterial ribosomes, the site of
then reenter the blood to infect red blood cells (RBCs). protein synthesis, are slightly different from eukaryotic
Over a period of weeks, RBCs are destroyed, leading to ribosomes.
anaemia, capillary obstruction, and general tissue Bacterial plasma membranes have the same general
damage. However, with appropriate care, most patients molecular structure as the plasma membranes of euka-
recover. ryotic cells. However, bacterial membranes are composed
Control of Microbes of different lipids. Antibiotics such as colistin and poly-
Microbes are everywhere in the environment. There myxin B react with these lipids and damage the mem-
are medical and economic situations in which microbes brane. The damaged membrane leaks, and as a result,
must be greatly reduced. Sterilization destroys all the the bacteria die.
microbes present, while various other processes, such In general, antibiotics have been wonder drugs
as pasteurization, greatly reduce their numbers. These against specific pathogenic microbes. Many of us are
processes and methods are of direct personal impor- alive today because of them. New antibiotics that have

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 992


been discovered in nature or synthesized in the laboratory Before antibiotics, TB was difficult to treat, debilitating,
have greatly increased our ability to successfully treat deadly. TB has been in decline for the last four decades.
infections diseases. However, more and more, physicians With antibiotics, patients with TB could be effectively
and scientists are finding pathegenic bacteria that are treated at home without risk to family members, friends,
resistant to antibiotics. and the general population. However, since 1985, the
number of reported TB cases has increased an alarming
Antibiotic Resistance 20 per cent.
Antibiotics kill susceptible cells, but there are always This resurgence of TB has occurred for several
a few cells whose genes make them resistant to reasons. Difficult economic times have reduced the
antibiotics. Before the widespread use of antibiotics, there money available for medical diagnosis, care, and antibio-
were so few resistant cells that they did not present much tics. At greatest risk are the impoverished, the homeless,
of a problem. However, with widespread indiscriminate and drug adicts. A lack of adequate health care among
use of antibiotics over 50 years, these resistant cells have these populations had made it difficult to initiate and
survived and flourished. Today, resistant microbes are a complete antibiotic therapy for TB. To successfully treat
major medical concern. Tuberculosis, gonorrhea, syphilis, TB, antibiotics must be taken continuously for 6 to 9
and pneumonia are examples of bacterial diseases whose months. If treatment is discontinued before completion,
pathogens have developed some degree of antibiotics the surviving tuberculosis bacteria become most resis-
resistance. tant to be killed by antibiotics. As a consequence, anti-
A recent and serious example of antibiotic resistance biotic-resistant forms of the bacteria proliferate and are
is provided by the bacteria that cause tuberculosis (TB). spread to others. Because the TB pathogen is spread
Tuberculosis is a serious infection of the lungs. It is through the air, everyone is potentially susceptible to
transmitted through the air and is extremely contagious. infection.

A Summary of Selected Methods Used to Kill Microbes or Inhibit their Growth


Method of How to Perform Control Method Suggested Uses Action on Microbes
Control
Heat
Incineration Burn by fire or pass material Flammable objects (paper); Destroys living microbes, endospores,
through open flame inflammable objects (knife) and cysts
Dry heat Oven temperatures : 2 hours at Glassware, metals, soil Destroys living microbes, endospores,
160°C (320°F) and cysts
Moist heat Boiling water or steam for 30 Glassware, metal, food Destroys living microbes and cysts; does
minutes not destroy endospores, some viruses
Autoclave or pressure cooker (15 Glassware, metal, food Destroys living microbes, endospores,
minutes at 121°C (250°F) cysts, and viruses
Pasteurization 15 seconds at 72°C Foods such as milk and beer Reduces microbe numbers; destroys
(162°F) pathogens
Cold
Refrigeration Temperature at 4°C (40°F) Foods and other perishables Slows growth of microbes
Freezing Temperature below 0°C (32°F) Foods and other perishables Destroys some microbes; stops growth
of others
Drying
Elimination of water from product Foods Destroys some microbes; stops growth
of others
Radiation
Ultraviolet Surfaces of materials Radiation destroys living microbes,
Gamma rays Surface and interior of materials endospores, cysts and viruses
Chemicals
Isopropyl Apply at 70–90% concentration Minor cuts and abrasions; non- Destroys living microbes ineffective for
alcohol living surface structures endospores, cysts and some viruses
Chlorine Household bleach Nonliving surface structures Destroys living microbes and viruses;
slowly destroys endospores and cysts
(5–10% concentration)
Household bleach Treat questionable drinking water Destroys living microbes but ineffective
for 30 minutes for endospores, cysts, and many viruses
(2 drops per litre)
Iodine Tincture of iodine Minor cuts and abrasions Destroys living microbes, endospores,
cysts, and many viruses
(2% dissolved in alcohol)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 993


Review at a Glance
G Bacteria are prokaryotes. Bacterial shapes are maintained by a rigid cell wall.
G Fungi are eukaryotes and have a cell wall chemically different from that of bacteria. Fungi are either unicellular (yeast) or multi-
cellular filaments (molds).
G Protozoa are eukaryotes and lack a cell wall. Some protozoa develop protective cysts that are resistant to environmental extre-
mes.
G Viruses must infect a host cell to produce new viruses. A virus consists of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a capsid of
protein. Some viruses have an outer envelope surrounding the capsid.
G Pathogens are microbes that cause disease.
G Opportunistic pathogens usually infect only when there is an opportunity for their growth.
G Communicable diseases are transmitted between individuals either directly or indirectly.
G Bacteria produce disease by releasing either enzymes or toxins that damage tissue. Enzymes and many toxins are secreted by
living bacteria, some toxins are released from the cell wall after bacteria die.
G Virus infection of a host cell occurs in four stages : attachment, penetration, synthesis and assembly, and release.
G Viral release can happen in four ways : rapidly killing the host cell; slowly over time without immediately killing the host cell;
periodically without killing the host cell, and slowly after integration into host DNA.
G Fungi and protozoa release enzymes and toxins for invading and destroying tissues.
G Physical methods for controlling or killing microbes include heating, cooling, drying, and radiation.
G Chemical methods for killing or inhibiting microbes include disinfectants for use on nonliving surfaces and antiseptics for use on
body surfaces.
G Antibiotics are natural chemicals produced by certain bacteria and fungi.
G Antibiotics resistance is a worldwide concern.
G Tuberculosis is a disease caused by bacteria that are now resistant to many antibiotics.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The disease commonly called (C) Fungal disease (C) Kwashiorkor
‘Lock Jaw’ is caused by— (D) None of the above (D) Malaria
(A) Bacillus pertusis
7. The toxins produced by tetanus 12. Which of the following set inclu-
(B) Mycobacterium microbes affects— des bacterial diseases ?
(C) Clostridium tetani (A) Voluntary muscles (A) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(D) None of the above (B) Involuntary muscles (B) Tetanus, tuberculosis, mea-
2. Food poisoning is caused by— (C) Both voluntary and involun- sles
(A) Entamoeba coli tary muscles (C) Malaria, mumps, poliomye-
(B) Salmonella (D) None of the above litis
(C) Giardia (D) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
8. Mumps is a viral disease caused
(D) Shigella due to inflammation of— 13. Diarrhea causes—
3. A dreaded viral disease which (A) Submaxillary gland (A) Typhoid
has been almost completely era- (B) Parotid gland (B) Pneumonia
dicated all over the world— (C) Sublingual gland
(A) Chicken pox (C) Dehydration
(D) Infraorbital gland
(B) Polio (D) Whooping cough
9. All the following diseases are
(C) Measles related with respiratory system 14. Viral disease Trachoma is rela-
(D) Small pox except— ted with—
4. Syphilis is a veneral disease (A) Asthma (A) Eyes (B) Skin
which is caused by— (B) Bronchitis (C) Liver (D) Muscles
(A) Treponema pallidum (C) Encephalitis 15. Bacillary dysentery is caused
(B) Neisseria (D) Pneumonia by—
(C) Vibrio (A) Shigella
10. Which of the following disease is
(D) Cornybacterium
caused by protozoa ? (B) Salmonella
5. Which one of the following is not (A) Amoebic dysentery (C) Entamoeba
a communicable disease ? (B) Tuberculosis (D) Proteus
(A) Tuberculosis
(C) Taeniasis
(B) Diphtheria
(D) Typhoid ANSWERS
(C) Cholera
(D) Cancer 11. Which one of the following is a
6. Meningitis is— communicable disease ?
(A) Viral disease (A) Diabetes
(B) Bacterial disease (B) Hypertension ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 994


Anatomy The many intrahepatic bile endothelial or lining cells and Kupffer
passages converge and anastomose, cells. The Kupffer cells are capable of
Liver is largest gland, usually finally leading into the hepatic duct, phagocytosis—the ingestion of other
endodermal in origin and arising as a the excretory channel of the liver. cells and foreign particles. They also
diverticulum of gut. It is situated on This structure receives the cystic have important functions in the
right side beneath the diaphragm; duct, on the end of which is situated production of antibodies. Ligaments
occupies the right hypochondrium, the gall bladder. The union of the and pressures exerted by the mus-
epigastrium and part of left hypo- cystic and the hepatic ducts forms the cles of the abominal wall hold the
common bile duct or the ductus liver in position. The hepatic cells, the
chondrium; level with bottom of
choledochus, which enters the functioning cells that make up about
sternum; undersurface concave;
duodenum at the papilla of vater. A 60 per cent of the liver are polyhedral.
covers stomach, duodenum; hepatic Each cell usually has one nucleus
ring of smooth muscle at the terminal
flexure of colon, right kidney and portion of the choledochus, the and the cells multiply by mitosis.
suprarenal capsule. Liver consists of Sphincter of Oddi, permits the Between the hepatic cells and the
a continuous parenchymal mass passage of bile into the duodenum by walls of the sinusoids there is tissue
arranged to form a system of walls relaxing. The bile leaving the liver fluid, which flows outward into the
through which venous blood emana- enters the gall bladder, where it lymphatic vessels. The lymph chan-
ting from the gut must pass. This stra- undergoes concentration principally nels are located in connective tissue
tegic localization between nutrient- through loss of fluids absorbed by the around the portal vein.
laden capillary beds and the general gall bladder mucosa. When bile is
needed in the small intestine for Liver cells are metabolically very
circulation is associated with hepatic active cells, having abundant
digestive purposes, the gall bladder
regulation of metabolite levels in the organelles, particularly the mitochon-
contracts and the sphincter relaxes,
blood through storage and mobili- dria and also abundant glycogen
thus permitting escape of the viscid
zation mechanisms. gall bladder bile. granules, fat globules and vacuoles
Ligaments supporting filled with enzymes (urease, peroxi-
Diaphragm
liver Usually, within the wall of
dase etc.) and iron—containing com-
Right lobe duodenum the first portion of the
pounds (ferritin, haemosiderin etc.).
small intestine, the common bile duct
Left lobe and the main channel for pancreatic Intracellular Structure
Falciform
juice come together to form the
ligament channel called the ampulla of vater, The hepatic cell, also called the
Ligamentum teres
which then empties into the hepatocyle, has more metabolic
Gall bladder duodenum. The portion of the functions than any other cell of the
common duct within the duodenal
Liver of Man (Anterior view) Bile Intra lobular Inter lobular
wall is encircled by muscle fibres capillary vein vein
The human liver is a massive called the Sphincter of Oddi.
wedge-shaped organ divided into a
Gross Structure
large right lobe and a smaller left
lobe. It is completely covered by a The liver has been described as
tough fibrous sheath, Glisson’s a collection of units called lobules, Bile duct
each of which contains in its centre, a Vein Hepatic cord
capsule, which is thickest at the Artery
transverse fissure. At this point the branch of the hepatic vein and in its
outer areas, a complex known as a Kupffer's
capsule carries blood vessels and cells
Hepatic cells
hepatic duct, which enter the organ at portal tract. The portal tract includes a Sinusoid
Glisson's
the hilus. Strands of connective tissue bile duct, a small branch of the portal capsule
Lymph vessel
originating from the capsule enter the vein and a branch of the hepatic
Kupffer's
liver parenchyma and form the artery. Between the tributary of the cells
supporting network of the organ and hepatic vein and the portal tract are Sinusoid
separate the functional units of the columns of hepatic cells and blood
Hepatic
liver, the hepatic lobules. Structural channels called sinusoids. cells
unit lobule is roughly hexagonal block The walls of the sinusoids are
of cuboidal cells (hepatocytes). made up of two types of cells, Intracellular Structure of Liver

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 995


body and is the producer of bile. In its Key Concepts Gallstones and Cholecystitis
cytoplasm (substance outside the
● Liver is also known as HEPAR. Gallstones are round, oval or
nucleus) the net like structure known faceted concretions formed within the
● Liver is characterised by presence
as the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of Glisson’s capsule. gall bladder from the salts and pigment
is the site at which the bile pigment of bile. Such stones may also be
● Glisson’s capsules are polygonal
bilirubin is metabolized and many and formed by connective tissue. formed in any of the bile ducts within or
enzymes, such as those necessary to ● Liver is largest gland of body. outside the liver but the incidence there
make glucose available to the blood, ● Kupffer’s cells are found in liver. is low compared to the number
are synthesized. The bile, needed in ● Liver is endodermal in origin. originating in the gall bladder.
the digestion of fats, are formed at Gallstone may be composed solely of
● Liver of man is bilobed, right lobe is
this point and drugs are detoxicated. much larger than left lobe. calcium, cholesterol or bilirubin, but the
most common type is the cholesterol—
● Liver of Frog is trilobed.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum containing stone gallstones form when
produces certain proteins, such as ● Liver of Rabbit is 5—lobed : the bile contains more cholesterol than
the albumin and clotting factors of the 1st lobe — Caudate can be kept in solution. The most
blood. The mitochondria have many 2nd lobe — Right central and is frequent complication of gallstones is
largest lobe. cholecystitis.
functions, including the production of
3rd lobe — Left central Cholecystitis is inflammation of
enzymes that play a role in the
4th lobe — Left lateral the gall bladder, a common disease in
synthesis of glycogen and enzymes
5th lobe—Spigelian and is smallest. humans. It is nearly always associated
involved in the metabolism of fats.
● Gall bladder is situated with right with gallstones and is particularly
Other structures of the hepatic lobe. common in obese middle-aged
cell cytoplasm—the network of fine ● Gall bladder is absent in horses. women.
tubes known as the Golgi apparatus ● Bile capillaries unite to form hepatic
and the minute bodies and channels duct. Functions of Liver
known, respectively, as the lysosomes ● Bile duct is also known as The liver receives blood from the
and canaliculi—act as the cells choledochus duct. portal vein and thus in the first organ
● In Rabbit bile duct opens into to receive blood from intestines,
excretory apparatus. The canaliculi
duodenum separately.
and the nearby tissues are especially where the blood has absorbed the
● In man bile duct first opens into
involved in bile excretion. final products of digestion and decom-
Ampulla of vater.
position products. From this blood the
Blood Supply ● Ampulla of vater also receives
liver removes glucose, from which it
pancreatic duct in Man.
Venous blood from the intestine synthesizes glycogen, which it stores.
● Opening of Ampulla of vater is
(carrying digested nutrients), and to a surrounded by Sphinctor of Oddi. It deaminizes amino acids with the
lesser extent from spleen and ● Pancreatic duct is also known as
resultant formation of ammonia, which
stomach, converges upon a short Wirsung duct. is converted into urea. Hippuric acid
broad vessel, called the hepatic portal ● Sinusoids are present between and uric acid are synthesized in the
vein which enters the liver through a hepatic cords. liver. The liver incorporates such
depression in the dorsocaudal surface ● Liver is attached with the wall of proteins as albumin, prothrombin
termed the porta hepatis. There the coelom by septum transversum. component, fibrinogen, transferrin and
hepatic portal vein divides into a short glycoprotein. The liver is important in
right branch and a longer left branch. (absent in horses), which receives the biotransformation (i.e., so called
These vessels then ramify into small dilute bile from the liver, store and detoxification) of such substances as
branches which actually penetrate the concentrates it, discharges it into the indole and skatole, which may be
functional parenchymal mass as the duodenum. Although not a vital absorbed into the blood from the
inner tubes of the portal canals. organ, it is of great importance in intestine.
The hepatic artery (a branch of humans because it stores bile and The liver excretes bile pigments
celiac artery) also enters at the portal regulates binary tract pressures. bilirubin and biliverdin, formed in the
hepatis and ramifies into smaller In humans, evacuation of the gall cells of the reticuloendothelial system
branches, which flank the portal bladder is accomplished by a trigger in various parts of the body from
venules within the portal canals. The mechanism which is set off by the haemoglobin derived from effete
branches of the portal vein and presence of fatty foods, meat and (exhausted and no longer functioning)
hepatic artery then empty into hydragogue cathartics in the duode- red corpuscles. It synthesizes fibrino-
sinusoids, which are major regions of num and upper jejunum. Absorption gen and prothrombin, blood consti-
hepatovascular exchange. They of these substances by the mucous tuents essential for clotting. Liver is
communicate with small branches of membrane results in the release of the source of heparin, an anticoagu-
the hepatic veins and through the cholecystokinin, a hormone which lant and of red blood cells in the
hepatic vein, the blood is returned to rapidly circulates in the bloodstream foetus and is the main site for the
the heart by way of the vena cava. and simultaneously produces con- production of plasma proteins.
traction of the gall bladder and Reticuloendothelial cells (Kupffer
Gall Bladder relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. cells) present in the lining of the
It is a hollow muscular organ pre- The most effective food is egg yolk sinusoids, act to filter out and destroy
sent in humans and most vertebrates which contains certain l -amino acids. bacteria present in the blood stream.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 996


The liver also performs the less urobilinogen. Most of the urobili- The incubation of delta agent hepa-
following functions. It is a storage nogen is either reduced t o sterco- titis is 14 to 70 days.
place for vitamin B12 (the anti- bilinogen or oxidized to urobilin. Hepatitis-A and delta agent
pernicious anaemia factor) and the These two compounds are then con- hepatitis are spread mostly by person
fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K. It verted to stercobilin, which is ex- to person via the faecal-oral route but
plays a role in the regulation of blood creted in the faeces and gives the may occur by water or food contami-
volume and is one of the main stool its brown colour. nated by the virus. Hepatitis-B is
sources of body heat. It is important spread by blood and serum—derived
Pathological Tests
in lipid metabolism. Cholesterol, which fluids.
Gmelin’s Test—A test for bile in urine.
is found in most body cells and is a Hay’s Test—A test for bile acids in
major constituent of bile, is manu- urine. Cirrhosis
factured mainly in the liver. Van den Bergh’s Test—A test to Cirrhosis is a chronic disease of
detect the type of bilirubin.
the liver characterized by formation of
Bile Iodine Test—A test for bile in urine.
dense perilobular connective tissue,
Bile is secretion of liver. It is a degenerative changes in parenchy-
thick, viscous fluid with a bitter taste. Disorders of Liver mal cells, alteration in structure of the
The bile from liver is straw coloured, cords of liver lobules, fatty and
while that from the gall bladder varies Jaundice
cellular infiltration and sometimes
from yellow to brown and green. Liver Jaundice is the yellowness of the
secretes 800 to 1000 ml of bile in 24 development of areas of regeneration.
eyes and skin that comes from In addition to clinical signs and
hrs. The rate of bile secretion is
excess amounts of bile pigment— symptoms inherent in the cause of
greatly increased during digestion.
Bile is slightly alkaline having pH 7·8 bilirubin in the blood, may arise in any the cirrhosis, those due to cirrhosis
to 8·6. The secretion of bile by liver is of a number of ways. (1) The hepatic are the result of loss of functioning
called choleresis. cells may form more bilirubin than liver cells and increased resistance to
usual, because of an abnormally high flow of blood through the liver (portal
Bile Acids level of red blood cell destruction. hypertension). When severe enough,
Bile acid is a steroid acid produ- This type is called haemolytic jaun- this leads to ammonia toxicity. Most
ced in the liver. The bile acids lower dice. (2) Impaired uptake or transport common form is that of nutritional
surface tension and promote emulsi- of bilirubin by the hepatic cells may (also known as alcoholic;
fication of fat to aid in digestion and occur. This congenital disorder is Laennec’s or portal) cirrhosis.
absorption of fats from the intestine. known as Gilbert’s syndrome. (3)
The bile acids have a five-carbon side A defect within the hepatic cell itself Wilson’s Disease
chain and occur in the liver in or an obstruction in the bile duct Copper deposits in the liver and
combination, through peptide linkage, system may prevent the excretion of in other tissues are characteristic of a
with glycine and taurine, forming bilirubin glucuronide into the bile. (4) rare form of cirrhosis known as
glycoholic acid and taurocholic acid A number of these defects may occur Wilson’s disease or hereditary, hepa-
respectively. Other bile acids are at one time. In hepatocellular jaun- tolenticular degeneration. Deposits of
cholic, deoxycholic, lithocholic and dice, for example, there may be copper in the brain may cause tremor
abnormalities in the transport of biliru- and other abnormalities related to the
chenodeoxycholic acid.
bin, in its combining with glucuronic nervous system. A brownish-green
Bile Salts colouration of the cornea of the eye,
acid to form bilirubin glucuronide and
called Kayser—Fleischer rings, is
Bile salts are alkali salts of bile its excretion in the bile. also caused by the copper deposits.
sodium glycocholate and sodium Alcoholism is clearly associated
Hepatitis
taurocholate. with liver cirrhosis. An alcoholic with
It is an inflammation of the liver cirrhosis shows striking improvement
Bile Pigments caused by a number of etiological in condition when he has rested in
Bile pigments are principally bili- agents, including viruses, bacteria bed and stopped consumption of
fungi, parasites, drugs and chemi- alcohol.
rubin and biliverdin. In addition, bile
cals. All types of hepatitis are charac-
contains cholesterol, lecithin, mucin terized by distortion of the normal
and other organic and inorganic subs- Weil’s Disease
hepatic lobular architecture due to
tances. varying degrees of necrosis of liver Weil’s disease is a form of
Bilirubin is the predominant cells, inflammation and Kupffer cell hepatitis caused by infection with
orange pigment of bile. It is the major enlargement and proliferation. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
metabolic break down product of The most common infectious from the urine of infected rats. It
haeme, the prosthetic group of hepatitis is of a viral etiology. The two occurs most often in men engaged in
haemoglobin in red blood cells and well-recognized forms are infectious such pursuits as farm work or coal
other chromoproteins such as myo- hepatitis (hepatitis-A) and Serum mining. The disease results in deep
globin, cytochrome and catalase. In Hepatitis (hepatitis-B). Hepatitis-A is jaundice.
mammalian bile essentially all of the orally acquired, has an incubation Other diseases of liver are
bilirubin is present as a glucuronide period of 15 to 50 days. Hepatitis-B is carcinoma of liver cells, syphilis of
conjugate. Bacterial flora of intestine parenterally transmitted, has an liver, pyrogenic liver abscess and
further reduces the bilirubin to colour- incubation period of 60 to 90 days. tuberculosis of liver.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 997


OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Site of heat production in the (C) Both of the above 19. Bile pigments are—
body is— (D) None of the above (A) Secretory product
(A) Liver (B) Lung (B) Excretory product
11. Bile duct in Man is known as—
(C) Kidney (D) Spleen (C) Digestive product
(A) Whartons’s duct
2. Liver is also excretory organ (D) All of the above
(B) Wirsung duct
because—
(C) Choledochus duct 20. Cholecystitis refers to—
(A) Urea is formed these
(B) Deamination takes place (A) Stone in gall bladder
(D) Cisternae
(C) Eliminates of bile pigments (B) Appendix pain
(D) None of the above 12. Bilirubin is produced from haemo- (C) Stomach pain
globin by—
3. Choleresis is related with— (D) None of the above
(A) Liver
(A) Pancreatic juice secretion 21. Gilbert’s syndrome is related
(B) Bile secretion (B) Reticuloendothelial cells in
with—
bone marrow
(C) Bacterial infection of liver (A) Jaundice
(D) None of the above (C) Gall bladder
(B) Hepatitis
4. Bile pigments are— (D) All of the above
(C) Cirrhosis
(A) Helpful in digestion 13. Biliverdin is formed by— (D) All of the above
(B) Toxic in nature (A) Oxidation of bilirubin 22. Which of the following is trans-
(C) Helpful in emulsification (B) Liver mitted by blood and serum-
(D) None of the above (C) Urea derived fluids ?
5. Cystic duct arises from— (D) None of the above (A) Hepatitis-A
(A) Kidney (B) Hepatitis-B
14. Smallest lobe of liver of Rabbit
(B) Pancreas (C) Both of the above
is—
(C) Gall bladder
(A) Caudate lobe (D) None of the above
(D) Liver
(B) Right central lobe 23. Laennec’s disorder is related
6. Liver is—
(C) Spigelian with—
(A) Ectodermal in origin
(D) None of the above (A) Cirrhosis
(B) Endodermal in origin
(C) Mesodermal in origin (B) Hepatitis
15. In man Ampulla of vater
(D) None of the above (C) Jaundice
receives—
(D) All of the above
7. Liver of frog is— (A) Pancreatic duct
(A) Bilobed (B) Trilobed (B) Bile duct 24. Liver cirrhosis caused by copper
(C) Five-lobed (D) Single-lobed deposition is known as—
(C) Both of the above
8. The site at which bilirubin is (A) Weil’s disease
(D) None of the above
metabolized— (B) Wilson’s disease
(A) Smooth endoplasmic reticu- 16. Bile acids is/are— (C) Laennec’s disorder
lum (A) Glycoholic acid (D) None of the above
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticu- (B) Taurocholic acid
lum 25. Hepatitis caused by Leptospira
(C) Lilhocholic acid icterohaemorrhagiae is known
(C) Both of the above
(D) All of the above as—
(D) None of the above
17. Bile salts are alkali salts of— (A) Weil’s disease
9. In liver, albumin and blood clot-
(A) Sodium glycocholate (B) Wilson’s disease
ting factors are produced by—
(A) Smooth endoplasmic reticu- (B) Sodium taurocholate (C) Both of the above
lum (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticu- (D) None of the above
lum ANSWERS
(C) Both of the above 18. Emulsification of fat is brought
about by—
(D) None of the above
(A) Bile pigments
10. Liver is characterised by the
presence of— (B) Bile salts
(A) Glisson’s capsule (C) Pancreatic juices
(B) Kupffer’s cells (D) HCL ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 998


The ever-growing human population is overexploiting growth is said to be exponential (J-shaped growth curve).
natural ecosystems to satisfy the variety of needs, which When population grows exponentially, utilisation of
reflect the increasingly energy-intensive lifestyle. This resources and generation of wastes also grow exponen-
overexploitation is disturbing the natural balance. tially. However, the exponential growth in resource use
Modern humans appeared around fifty thousand years and waste generation cannot continue indefinitely.
ago. Initially the human population was small. Therefore, Environment and Human Population Pressure
human interference with nature was minimal. Human
The increased levels of environmental degradation
population reached the one billion mark around 1850. It
experienced today arise from the following :
increased to 2 billion by 1930, and reached 6·1 billion by
2000. Firstly, the world population has increased dramati-
cally and secondly, population densities within different
Exponential Growth and Human Population parts of the world are markedly different.
Explosion About half of the 6·1 billion people live in poverty and
In 1700 A.D., human population was around 6·6 at least one-fifth are severly undernourished or malnour-
billion. At the beginning of the twentieth century, it reached ished. It is estimated that it takes 12–20 times as much
to 1·6 billion and by the end of the century, the human resource to raise a child in a developing nation. An impor-
population stood at 6·1 billion. This dramatic increase in tant related fact is that 15 per cent of the world’s popu-
population size over a relatively short period is called lation controls about 85 per cent of the resources.
population explosion. In the 150 years from 1700 A.D., This imbalance is connected to the demographic
human population doubled from 0·6 billion to 1·2 billion. In transition in developed countries. This process has led to
contrast, it increased five-fold during the next 150 years. aggressive natural resource acquisition and colonialisa-
There is a limit to the maximum population size that tion. Developing nations, like India, contain the majority of
can be supported with a given space and resource base. the world’s population. They also have a large rural popu-
The maximum population size that can supported by the lation, which is shifting to thickly populated urban areas in
environment is called the maximum carrying capacity. search of material wealth.
Environment has the following three major compo- Typically, urban areas produce little food, consume
nents : more natural resources and generate more waste products
per capita than rural areas. In most cases, urban wastes
1. The first component consists of productive systems, are hazardous and contaminate the environment with
such as croplands, orchards, etc. and provides food compounds that are foreign to natural ecosystem and are
and fibre. less subject to natural degradation. Increased urbanisation
2. The second component comprises protective sys- also puts pressure on agriculture to produce more food
tems, such as climax forests, oceans etc. It buffers air less land, leading, to increased pollution by intensive
and water cycles, moderates extremes in temperature agriculture practice. Thus, the huge human population
etc. pressurises and degrades the environment physically,
3. The final component has waste assimilative systems, chemically, biologically and even ethically.
such as water ways, wetlands, etc. that assimilate the Development and Environment
wastes produced by human activities.
The extent of resource exploitation is determined by
The first two of these components constitute the life- the size of human population, socio-economic structure
supporting capacity and third makes up the waste- and technological advancement of a country. Techno-
assimilative capacity of the environment. The maximum logical advancement causes an increasing detachment of
carrying capacity of the environment depends on the the society from nature, and interferes with the physio-
above two capacities. It is understandable that the popu- chemical and biological interactions of resources in the
lation size should not exceed the maximum carrying form of excessive deforestation, intensive agriculture,
capacity and the utilisation of resources should be such indiscriminate mining operations and thoughtless use of
that lasting damage to the environment does not occur. fossil fuel, etc., deplete in the environment.
The carrying capacity of the human environment has Rapidly growing population demands more resources
been increased many times by clever application of and is seldom concerned about the consequences of
science and technology, particularly to the productive sys- resource acquisition and use. The issues of development
tems of the environment. As a result, human population versus environment have led to the concept of sustainable
has been able to maintain exponential growth during the development. The most widely quoted definition of sus-
past 100 years. tainable development is the ‘development that meets the
When the population increase is nearly a fixed pro- needs of the present without compromising the ability of
portion of its own size during any period of time, the future generations to meet their own needs.’

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 999


Sustainable development encourages a process of
change in which the exploitation of resources, the direction K
of investments, the orientation of technological develop-
ment and institutional changes are all in harmony. Such
development enhances both present and future potential

No. of individuals
to meet human needs and aspirations. Development
should not endanger the natural systems that support life.

Human Population Growth S-shaped

Human population growth rate is measured as the


annual average growth rate which can be calculated as
follows :
Average annual growth rate (in per cent)
⎡⎢ P2 – P1⎤⎥ Time
= ⎢⎣ P1 × N ⎥⎦ × 100 (b)
Fig. : Population growth forms : (a) J-shaped, (b) S-shaped.
where P1 is the population size in the previous census; P 2 K represents the carrying capacity.
is population size in the present census and N is number stopped abruptly, as environmental resistance becomes
of years between the two census. suddenly effective. Growth is said to be density-
independent since regulation of growth rate is not tied to
Census ascertains the number of individuals present
the population density until the final crash.
in a given region at a given time. The time required for a
population to double itself is called the doubling time. Fertility
Annual average growth rate and doubling time are the two
Fertility is the deteminant of the current growth of
important indicators of the pace of population growth.
population. Birth rate is the number of babies produced
Growth rate depends on several factors such as rates of
per thousand individuals. It is distinct from the population
birth, death and migration and age-sex ratio.
growth rate as it can never be negative, while the latter
Growth Curves can be negative.
Two basic forms of growth curves can be identified, Total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of
the J-shaped growth curve and the S-shaped or sigmoid children that would be born to a woman during her lifetime,
growth curve. assuming the age-specific birth rate of a given year.
Replacement level (RL) is the number of children, a
The S-shaped or sigmoid growth curve describes a couple must produce to replace themselves. Fertility is
situation in which a new environment, the population den- largely controlled by economics and by human aspirations.
sity of an organism increases slowly initially, as it adapts
to new conditions and establishes itself, then increases Mortality
rapidly, approaching an exponential growth rate. It then Mortality is the death rate per thousand individuals. In
shows a declining rate of increase until a zero population most countries, the death rate has dropped almost conti-
growth rate is achieved where rate of reproduction nuously since the industrial revolution, mainly due to
(natality) equals rate of death (mortality). This type of improved personal hygiene, sanitation, and modern medi-
cine. A decrease in death rate would result in increased
population growth is said to be density-dependent since,
population growth rate.
for a given set of resources, growth rate depends on the
Demographers usually employ crude birth rate and
numbers present in the population. The point of stabilisa- crude death rate, which are the numbers of live births and
tion or zero growth rate is the maximum carrying capacity deaths per thousand persons, respectively in the middle of
of the given environment for the organism concerned. a given year, i.e., on July 07. The difference between the
number of births and that of deaths is the rate of natural
increase. If birth and death rates were equal, a zero popu-
lation growth rate would result, which is called demo-
graphic transition.
No. of individuals

Migration
Migration is the movement of individuals into (immi-
J-shaped gration) or out of (emigration) a place or country. Migra-
tion may also occur within a country, from one region to
another. But migration only between country, influences a
nation’s population. Only the net immigration, i.e., immi-
gration minus the emigration, is added to the population
growth by birth. The net immigration may be positive, zero
or even negative.
Time
(a) Age and Sex Structures
The J-shaped growth curve describes a situation in The age structure of a given population refers to the
which, after the initial establishment phase (lag phase), proportion of individuals of different ages within that
population growth continues in an exponential form until population. This aspect is important because many

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1000


functional aspects of the individuals are related to age. males and females in a population influences the popu-
For example, infants below one year of age and the older lation growth. The number of female individuals in active
people have higher mortality rate than individuals of other reproductive age influences the birth rate within a
ages. In addition the proportion of reproductively active population.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following does not (C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Birth
affect the biotic potential ? (D) None of these (C) Emigration
(A) Carrying capacity of environ- 5. Population growth is said to be (D) Both (A) and (B)
ment density-independent when there
(B) Female’s age 9. The main factor for population
is— growth in India is—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) J-shaped growth curve
(D) None of these (A) More birth rate
(B) S-shaped growth curve
(B) Less death rate
2. Carrying capacity of environment (C) Both (A) and (B)
is determined by— (C) Lack of education
(D) None of these
(A) Birth rate (D) All the above
6. Essay of population was pub-
(B) Death rate lished by— 10. Population explosion being wit-
(C) Limiting resources (A) Darwin nessed at present is mainly due
(D) Population growth rate (B) Malthus to—
3. Exponential growth is associated (C) Hugo de Vries (A) Increase in agricultural pro-
with— (D) None of these duction
(A) J-shaped growth curve 7. The physiological capacity to pro- (B) Better job facilities
(B) S-shaped growth curve duce offspring is called—
(A) Population growth (C) Better health care
(C) Sigmoid growth curve
(D) All the above (B) Birth rate (D) None of these
(C) Biotic potential
4. The population is said to be den- ANSWERS
(D) Population explosion
sity-dependent when the growth
has— 8. The number of individuals in
(A) Sigmoid growth curve population are added by—
(B) J-shaped growth curve (A) Immigration ●●●

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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1001


(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
18. Which of the following dissolves
blood clots during fibrinolysis ?
(A) Fibrin
1. Logistic growth occurs when 10. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) (B) Platelet vector VIII
there is— is related with— (C) Plasmin
(A) Asexual reproduction only (A) Gonorrhea (D) Thrombin
(B) Sexual reproduction only (B) Chlamydiosis 19. Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and
(C) No inhibition from crowding (C) Both (A) and (B) haemoglobin in the blood is
(D) A fixed carrying capacity (D) None of the above based upon—
2. Which of these were first formed 11. Antigenic determinant sites bind (A) Oxygen tension
during origin of life ? to which portion of an antibody (B) Carbon dioxide tension
(A) Coaservates (B) Cells molecule ? (C) Carbonate tension
(C) Eobionts (D) Genes (A) Heavy chains
(D) Bicarbonate tension
(B) Light chains
3. Which of the following snake is 20. The genetic material in ‘HIV’ is—
viviparous ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (A) Single-stranded DNA
(A) Krait (B) Viper
(B) Double-stranded DNA
(C) Cobra (D) Hydrophis 12. Recombination nodules are asso-
ciated with— (C) Single-stranded RNA
4. The term anaerobic means—
(A) Axons (D) Double-stranded RNA
(A) Presence of oxygen
(B) Synaptonemal complex 21. Sum of constructive processes in
(B) Without oxygen
(C) Both (A) and (B) body cells is called—
(C) With glucose
(D) Synovial fluid (A) Catabolism
(D) Without glucose
13. Liver cirrhosis caused by copper (B) Anabolism
5. The extra-embryonic membranes (C) BMR
deposition is known as—
of mammalian embryo are
(A) Weil’s disease (D) All the above
derived from—
(A) Formative cells (B) Laennec’s disease 22. The scientific (zoological) name
(C) Wilson’s disease of ‘pork tapeworm’ is—
(B) Trophoblast
(A) Taenia solium
(C) Follicle cells (D) None of the above
(B) Fasciola hepatica
(D) Inner mass cells 14. Each redia larva of Fasciola (C) Rhabditis citaria
hepatica produces—
6. Nucleus pulposus is found in— (D) Hystrichis engenia
(A) 14 to 20 cercaria larvae
(A) Medulla oblongata 23. The reaction in which glucose
(B) 1 to 5 cercaria larvae
(B) Femur and fructose combine to form
(C) 14 to 20 metacercaria larvae sucrose and water is—
(C) Intervertebral disks
(D) 100 cercaria larvae
(D) Testes (A) Exergonic
15. Parasympathetic effect— (B) Endergonic
7. Basic unit of protein is— (A) Lowers blood pressure (C) Spontaneous
(A) Amide (B) Proton (B) Slows heart rate
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Amino acid (D) Peptide (C) Promotes digestion
(D) All the above 24. Which of these are stellate cells ?
8. The primates are—
(A) Astrocytes
(A) Gregarious 16. In earthworm (Pheretima), the
(B) Kupffer’s cells
(B) Plantigrades arrangement of blood vessels is—
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Omnivorous (A) Different in middle 13 seg-
(D) None of the above
(D) All of the above ments
(B) Different in last 15 segments 25. In human embryo and foetus, the
9. Intermediate host of Liver Fluke bypasses which limit the blood
is— (C) Different in first 13 segments
flow to the liver and lungs is—
(A) Pila and Unio (D) Same throughout
(A) Ductus venosus
(B) Pila and Lymnaea 17. Yawning is due to more— (B) Foramen ovale
(C) All the above (A) CO2 concentration in blood (C) Ductus arteriosus
(D) None of these (B) O2 concentration in blood (D) All the above

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1002


26. Which form of Trypanosoma gam- 35. Catabolism takes place in— 44. A working combination of an
biense contains reduced fla- (A) Golgi bodies apoenzyme and a coenzyme is
gellum ? (B) Nucleus termed as—
(A) Leptomonad (C) Mitochondria (A) Enzyme-substrate complex
(B) Crithidial (D) All the above (B) Prosthetic group
(C) Trypanosomid (C) Enzyme-product complex
36. Ligaments join—
(D) Leishmanial (D) Holoenzyme
(A) Muscle to bone
27. Which of the layer of heart-wall 45. Which of the following arthropods
consists cardiac muscles ? (B) Muscle to muscle is a chelicerate ?
(A) Endocardium (C) Bone to bone (A) Horseshoe crab
(B) Myocardium (D) Cartilage to bone (B) Lobster
(C) Epicardium 37. Tumour in blood vessels is (C) Millipede
(D) All the above called— (D) Grasshopper
28. Epithelium that contains fat (A) Arteriosclerosis 46. Pressure filtration is associated
globules is known as— (B) Varicose vein with—
(A) Nepiepithelium (C) Angioma (A) Distal convoluted tubule
(B) Duraepithelium (B) Collecting duct
(D) Phlebitis
(C) Pioepithelium (C) Glomerular capsule
(D) Seismoepithelium 38. Which of the following body parts
(D) None of the above
is the major cholesterol producing
29. Septicemia is—
site in the human ? 47. Meckel’s discs are example of—
(A) Food poisoning
(A) Gall bladder (A) Tangoreceptors
(B) Blood poisoning
(C) Mental disorder (B) Liver (B) Phonoreceptors
(D) None of these (C) Pancreas (C) Algesireceptors
(D) All of the above (D) Proprioreceptors
30. Which of the following animals has
no need of a gallbladder ? 48. A virus that can reproduce
39. Fishes migrating from ocean to
(A) Human (B) Horse without killing its host is called—
fresh water for breeding are
(C) Dog (D) Lion called— (A) Temperate virus
(B) Lytic virus
31. Cardiac output is determined (A) Catadromous
(C) Virion
by— (B) Anadromous
(D) Retroactive virus
(A) Heart rate (C) Amphidromous
49. Angulo-splenial bone is found
(B) Stroke volume (D) Bathydromous
in—
(C) Both (A) and (B) 40. Which of these factors has little (A) Lower jaw of rabbit
(D) None of these effect on blood flow in arteries ? (B) Lower jaw of frog
32. Which of the following is caused (A) Skeletal muscle contraction (C) Pectoral girdle of frog
in human liver by anaerobic bac- (B) Heart beat (D) Pelvic girdle of frog
teria ? (C) Total cross-sectional area of
50. A human population has a higher
(A) Hobnail fever vessels
than usual percentage of indi-
(B) Liver spots (D) Blood pressure viduals are expected to make up
(C) Foamy liver 41. Which of the following animal is a larger proportion of the next
(D) None of the above an example of class mammalia ? generation. The most likely expla-
(A) Planorbis (B) Manis nation is—
33. Which particular fatty acid is not
synthesized in the human body ? (C) Hydrophis (D) Psittacula (A) Genetic drift
(A) Linoleic acid (B) Gene flow
42. Interstitial fluid closely resem-
(B) Glycerol bles— (C) Natural selection
(C) Cholesterol (A) Lake water (B) Rain water (D) None of the above
(D) All the above (C) Sea water (D) Pond water
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
34. Which of the following is called 43. Most appropriate term to describe
living fossil ? the life-cycle of Obelia is—
(A) Latimarice (A) Neoteny
(B) Sphenodon (B) Metagenesis
(C) Heloderma (C) Metamorphosis
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (Continued on Page 1006 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1003


17. Insertion of viral nucleic acid into
DNA of host cell, is called—
(A) Integration
(B) Biosynthesis
(C) Assembly
(D) None of these
1. Czermak's space is found in— 9. Scyphozoan medusae are more
commonly known as— 18. Clisere is related with—
(A) Vertebral column
(A) Sea anemones (B) Hydra (A) Serial community
(B) Tooth
(C) Jellyfish (D) Corals (B) Xerosere community
(C) Sternum
(C) Climax community
(D) Synovial joint 10. Which of the following is called
(D) Pioneer community
tissue membrane ?
2. Capsule of Tenon is associated
(A) Serous membrane 19. In humans, removal parathyroid
with—
(B) Cutaneous membrane gland leads to—
(A) Brain (B) Eyeball (A) Tetany
(C) Mucous membrane
(C) Skin (D) Kidneys (B) Acromegaly
(D) All the above
3. The inherited cystic fibrosis (C) Polyuria
11. Diaderm is composed of—
disease is associated with— (D) Diabetes insipidus
(A) Ectoderm
(A) Exocrine glands 20. Muscles associated with hair-
(B) Endoderm
(B) Apocrine glands roots are responsible for goose-
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) flesh are—
(D) None of these
(D) None of these (A) Smooth muscles
12. Accumulation of free radicals in (B) Antagonistic muscles
4. Which type of brain wave pattern human body, can cause— (C) Striated muscles
is observed in persons solving (A) Cancer
mathematical problems ? (D) None of these
(B) Hardening of the arteries
(A) Beta waves 21. Scotopic vision is—
(C) Cataracts (A) Night vision
(B) Alpha waves
(D) All the above (B) Daytime vision
(C) Theta waves
(D) Delta waves 13. Ginglymus is— (C) Defective vision
(A) Hinge joint (D) None of these
5. Curschmann's spiral are related
with— (B) Fixed joint 22. New systematics based on
(C) Synovial joint genetic inter-relationship is known
(A) Asthma patients
as—
(B) Tuberculosis patients (D) None of these
(A) Cytotaxonomy
(C) Neuritis patients 14. ‘Tree line’ is a biological indicator (B) Numerical taxonomy
(D) Congenital heart patients of environmental conditions. Tree
(C) Experimental taxonomy
line is—
6. Heart murmur produced in (D) Chemotaxonomy
(A) Line of similar trees in a
aneurysm, is called— 23. When a person is alert with eyes
forest
(A) Hemic murmur open, and actively trying to solve
(B) Last line of trees beyond
(B) Bruit complex problems, the EEG
which no trees occur
shows—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) A line of trees of uniform
(A) Alpha waves
(D) None of these height and productivity
(B) Beta waves
7. In which of the following organs (D) Trees growing in shade that
(C) Delta waves
ketone bodies are produced ? survive acid rain
(D) Gamma waves
(A) Kidneys (B) Spleen 15. Which of the following is warm-
blooded animal ? 24. Which tumour is capsulated ?
(C) Liver (D) Brain
(A) Benign
8. The arrangement of numerous (A) Bat (B) Shark
(B) Malignant
setae in a ring in each segment (C) Snake (D) Lizard
of earthworm is known as— (C) Both (A) and (B)
16. Which developmental structure in
(A) Lumbricine (D) None of these
mammalian embryo is regarded
(B) Oligochaetine as phyletic ? 25. Endoneurium is also called—
(C) Otochaetine (A) Gill pouches (B) Lungs (A) Henle's ligament
(D) Perichaetine (C) Heart (D) Kidneys (B) Henle's sheath

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1004


(C) Henle's tubule 34. Which of the following helps (C) Weismann
(D) Henle's layer in consolidation of long-term (D) None of these
memory ?
26. Enzyme that perform condensa- 43. Bells palsy is caused due to
(A) Medulla and pons
tion reactions involving ATP swelling of which cranial nerve ?
cleavage is— (B) Hippocampus
(A) Seventh (B) Tenth
(A) Ligases (B) Isomerases (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (C) Fourth (D) Fifth
(C) Lyases (D) Transferases
35. Osteoarthritis disease is usually 44. Schlemm’s canal is located in—
27. Involuntary discharge of urine in
children below the age of five, is associated with aging and is (A) Eye (B) Cochlea
called— called a— (C) Spinal cord (D) Vertebra
(A) Entrain (B) Enuresis (A) Communicable disease
45. The haploid complement of chro-
(C) Entotic (D) Entropy (B) Degenerative disease
mosomes of an organism cons-
(C) Deficiency disease titute its—
28. Thebesian valve occurs at the
entrance of— (D) Allergy (A) Genome
(A) Coronary sinus into right 36. Septicemia is— (B) Genotype
auricle (A) Food poisoning (C) Phenotype
(B) Left auricle into left ventricle (B) Blood poisoning (D) Genetic system
(C) Sinus venosus into right (C) Mental disorder
auricle 46. Inherited Rh factor gene is found
(D) None of these
(D) None of these in—
37. Which brain wave pattern is (A) Rh + individuals
29. The membranous lining of the common in young children and
spinal canal is— sleeping adults ? (B) Rh – individuals
(A) Endorrhachis (A) Beta waves (C) AB blood group individuals
(B) Endosalpingia (B) Alpha waves (D) O blood group individuals
(C) Endosalpinx (C) Theta waves 47. Which of the following dance is
(D) None of these (D) Delta waves performed by worker honeybee,
30. The reaction in which glucose 38. Which particular fatty acid is not when food is far away ?
and fructose combine to form synthesized in the human body ? (A) Round dance
sucrose and water, is— (A) Linoleic acid
(B) Waggle dance
(A) Exergonic (B) Glycerol
(B) Endergonic (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Cholesterol
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (D) None of these
(D) None of these 48. The prominence in the neck
39. The shock caused by bee and
31. The cartilage forming the lower wasp sting bite is called— region known as Adam’s apple is
jaw of cartilaginous fishes is (A) Anaphylatic shock formed by—
termed— (B) Hyperglycemic shock (A) Cartilage hyaline
(A) Dentary (C) Hypovolemic shock (B) Cartilage semilunar
(B) Mentomeckelian (D) None of these (C) Cartilage yellow
(C) Meckel's cartilage 40. The posterior part of Amoeba is (D) Cartilage thyroid
(D) Angulosplenial called—
(A) Amniton (B) Basal disc 49. The protein which maintains the
32. Which of the following is ‘inborn
muscular storage of oxygen is—
error of metabolism’ ? (C) Uroid (D) None of these
(A) Myosin
(A) Colour blindness 41. Which of the following enzyme is
(B) Haemophilia activated by peptide hormone to (B) Myoglobin
convert ATP to cyclic AMP ? (C) Actomyosin
(C) Hurler syndrome
(A) Pepsin (D) All the above
(D) None of these (B) Adenylate cyclase
33. Sympathetic nerves in humans (C) Trypsin 50. Which type of tissue forms the
arise from— (D) All the above inner lining of a blood vessel ?
(A) Sacral region (A) Connective
42. The phenomenon of fertilization
(B) Cervical region was first perceived by— (B) Epithelial
(C) Thoraco-lumbar region (A) Hertwig (C) Muscular
(D) None of the above (B) Leuwenhoek (D) None of these

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1005


(C) Proprioreceptors
(D) Teloreceptors
17. In protein synthesis, the polyme-
rization of amino acids involves
three steps. Which one of the
following is not involved ?
1. Hemoccult test is done to spot an 10. When the individual’s genotype (A) Elongation
early stage of cancer in— is XXX, the person is affected (B) Transcription
(A) Colon (B) Breast by—
(C) Termination
(C) Blood (D) Skin (A) Metafemale syndrome
(D) Initiation
(B) Turner’s syndrome
2. Hellin’s law is related with— 18. Ring chromosomes can pro-
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(A) Eye defect duce—
(D) Down’s syndrome
(B) Twins (A) Cat-eye syndrome
11. The transgenic animals are those (B) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(C) Helminth infection
which have—
(D) Hearing defect (C) Jacob’s syndrome
(A) Foreign DNA is some of its
cells (D) Edward’s syndrome
3. In mitochondria, cristae act as
sites for— (B) Foreign DNA in all its cells 19. Which of the following evidences
(A) Breakdown of macromolecu- (C) Foreign RNA in all its cells does not favour the Lamarckian
les (D) Both (B) and (C) concept of inheritance of acquired
chracters ?
(B) Protein synthesis 12. Which of the following is a clam-
worm ? (A) Asence of limbs in snakes
(C) Oxidation-reduction reaction
(A) Earthworm (B) Presence of webbed toes in
(D) Phosphorylation of flavopro-
(B) Hook worm aquatic birds
teins
(C) Nereis (C) Lack of pigment in cave-
4. Bowman’s membrane is found (D) Filarial worm dwelling animals
in—
13. The concept that ‘population (D) Melanization in peppered
(A) Lungs (B) Kidneys moth
tends to increase geometrically
(C) Liver (D) Eyes while food supply increases arith- 20. The dark band of a muscle is—
5. A cell-coded protein, that is metically’ was put forward by—
(A) Isotropic band
formed in response to viral infec- (A) Stuart Mill
(B) Anisotropic band
tion, is— (B) Adam Smith
(C) Henson band
(A) Antigen (B) Interferon (C) Thomas Malthus
(D) None of these
(C) Histone (D) Antibody (D) Charles Darwin
21. The heart sound ‘dup’ is produ-
6. An abnormal decrease in total 14. Menstrual cycle in mammals is
ced when—
number of WBCs is termed— influenced by—
(A) Tricuspid valve is opened
(A) Leucocytopenia (A) Estrogen only
(B) Mitral valve is opened
(B) Leucocytopiania (B) FSH, LH and estrogen
(C) Mitral valve is closed
(C) Leucocytosis (C) Progesterone only
(D) Semi-lunar valves at the
(D) None of these (D) FSH and LH only
base of aorta get closed
7. Hassall’s corpuscles are present 15. Although much CO 2 is carried in
blood, yet blood does not become 22. Community health services
in—
acidic, because— involve—
(A) Thymus (B) Thyroid
(A) CO2 combines with water to (A) Control of communicable
(C) Kidney (D) Liver diseases
form H2CO3, which is neutra-
8. Which of these viruses has diffe- lized by NaCO3 (B) School and health education
rent and varied associations in (C) Awareness of clean environ-
(B) CO2 continuously diffuses
different geographical regions ? ment
through the tissues
(A) Kapos’s virus
(C) Buffer system of blood plays (D) All of the above
(B) Epstein-Barr virus
an important role 23. Which of the following cell not
(C) Papova virus
(D) All the above found in connective tissues ?
(D) All the above
16. Sensation of stomach pain would (A) Chondroblasts
..
9. Hurthle cells are present in— be carried by— (B) Osteoblasts
(A) Thyroid gland (B) Liver (A) Exteroreceptors (C) Myoblasts
(C) Spleen (D) Lymph (B) Interoreceptors (D) Fibroblasts

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1007


24. Why cholera patients are pro- (C) Pulmonary vein 41. The most striking example of
vided with saline drips ? (D) None of the above point mutation is found in a
(A) NaCl is important contituent disease, called—
32. The primates are—
of the blood which maintains (A) Thalassemia
the RBCs (A) Plantigrade (B) Night blindness
(B) Na + ions help to retain water (B) Omnivorous (C) Down’s syndrome
in body (C) Gregarious (D) Sickle-cell anaemia

(C) Cl ions help in formation of (D) All the above
HCl 42. African sleeping sickness is
– 33. Which of the following is regarded caused by—
(D) Cl ions are essential com-
ponent of blood plasma as an unit of nervous tissue ? (A) Entamoeba
(A) Axon (B) Dendrite (B) Trypanosoma
25. Epidermal layer consisting of
dividing cells, is— (C) Neuron (D) Myelin sheath (C) Trichomonas
(A) Stratum lucidum (D) Leishmania
34. The presence of gill slits in the
(B) Stratum Malpighii embryos of all vertebrates sup- 43. Pneumatic bones are found in—
(C) Stratum granulosum port the theory of— (A) Pigeon (B) Whale
(D) Stratum corneum (A) Origin of evolution (C) Shark (D) Rana
26. Which of the following controls (B) Recapitulation 44. SARS virus affects—
the peristaltic movements of the
(C) Metamorphosis (A) Heart (B) Brain
gut ?
(A) Brachial plexus (D) Biogenesis (C) Lungs (D) All of these
(B) Auerbach’s plexus 35. In the fertile human female, app- 45. The maximum formation of m -
(C) Saral plexus roximately on which day of the RNA occurs in—
(D) None of these ovulation takes place ? (A) Cytoplasm
27. Which of the following carries pro- (A) 1st day (B) 8th day (B) Nucleolus
tein and lipid to other parts of the (C) 14th day (D) 18th day (C) Ribosome
cell ? (D) Nucleoplasm
36. Earliest fossil form in phylogeny
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticu-
of horse was— 46. Atocia is—
lum
(A) Merychippus (A) Female sterlity
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
lum (B) Eohippus (B) Nulliparity
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Equus
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
(D) Mesohippus
28. A localised tumour covered by 47. In human beings, the eggs are—
37. Typhus disease in humans is (A) Microlecithal
connective tissue is called—
caused by—
(A) Metastasis (B) Macrolecithal
(B) Neoplasm (A) Virus
(C) Mesolecithal
(C) Benign tumour (B) Protozoans (D) Alecithal
(D) Malignant tumour (C) Rickettsiae
48. Auer’s bodies are found in the
29. Carbohydrate is a prosthetic (D) None of the above cytoplasm of—
group in— 38. Enzymes are polymers of— (A) Myeloblasts
(A) Glycoprotein (A) Fatty acids (B) Myelocytes
(B) Chromoprotein (B) Amino acids (C) Monoblasts
(C) Nucleoprotein (D) All the above
(C) Hexose sugar
(D) Lycoprotein
(D) Inorganic phosphate 49. Which cranial nerve has the hig-
30. Graft between isogenic indivi- hest number of branches ?
duals is known as— 39. At high altitude, the RBCs in the
human blood will— (A) Trigeminal
(A) Syngraft
(A) Increase in size (B) Facial nerve
(B) Allograft
(B) Decrease in size (C) Vagus nerve
(C) Xenograft
(D) None of these (C) Increase in number (D) All the above

31. Which of the following carries (D) Decrease in number 50. SARS virus is—
absorbed product from digestive 40. Silk contains a protein, known (A) Corona virus
tract ? as— (B) Picoma virus
(A) Hepatic artery (A) Fibrin (B) Fibroin (C) Retro virus
(B) Hepatic portal vein (C) Casein (D) None of these (D) None of these

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1008


Habit and Habitat Leafy stage starts as a lateral bud on the protonema.
The buds may develop into an erect leafy stem. The latter
Funaria is a terrestrial moss plant of class Bryopsida.
bears numerous rhizoids at its base which anchor it to the
It chiefly grows in dense patches of bright, green colour;
substratum.
usually in moist shady places (damp soil). It may also
found on the walls and trunks of trees. Gametophyte plant is erect and measures about an
inch in height with an erect radial stem and spirally
Funaria comprises more than 117 species including
arranged simple leaves. The leaves are more crowded
15 species reported from Indian soil. Of these, Funaria
near the apex where they appear like a rosette though
hygrometrica is cosmopolitan in distribution. Southern
actually arranged in three rows corresponding to the three
reported that F. hygometrica is the characteristic moss of
cutting faces when young. This arrangement disap-
the initial phase recolonization of burnt areas. Steer
pears in the mature parts. Branches arise on the main
opined that there is an increase in the level of soil nutrients
stem from extra-axillary parts. At its base, the gameto-
due to burning. It results in high concentration of soluble
phytic plant bears a much strong and branched rhizoids
organic matter and inorganic nutrients. For rapid growth of
which become brown and cable like when mature. Because
Funaria , according to Southern, the concentration of
of their apparent leaves, stem and rootlike rhizoids the
calcium, nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus must all be
plant is likely to be mistaken for any small flowering plant
high in the soil.
(phanerogams). These structures, however, are neither
Gametophyte Phase homologous nor structurally similar to the leaves, stem and
roots of a phanerogams. But they perform the same func-
Gametophyte phase of Funaria consists of two growth tion, and are said to be analogous. Koch called stem as
stages—(i) juvenile stage represented by primary pro- canloid and leaves phylloids.
tonema and (ii) the leafy stage represented by leafy
gametophore. Leaf Anatomy
In transverse section (T. S.) the leaf is seen as
Calyptra several layered thick in the midrib but single-layered in
other regions (i.e., lamina is only one cell in thickness).
Capsule Mid rib bears a small central strand of narrow, thin-walled
cells surrounded by a sheath of narrower cells with thicker
Seta walls. The leaf cells are rich in chloroplasts which are
comparatively larger and prominent. The marginal cells are
specialized. They are narrow and thick-walled in contrast
to the rest and afford to the frail moss leaves. The struc-
tures characteristics of the leaves of the vascular plants
are absent in Funaria.
Mid rib

Leaf

Male A
branch Female
Stem branch Wing
Wing
Rhizoids
B

Fig. : Funaria hygrometrica : (A) A female branch of Chloroplast


leafy gametophore with sporophyte, (B) A leafy Mid rib
gametophore with a male branch and a female
branch with young sporophyte. Fig. : Moss : (A) One ‘leaf’, (B) T. S. of ‘leaf’.
Juvenile stage results from the germinating Stem Anatomy
meiospore. When fully grown it consists of a slender, but T. S. of the stem of Funaria reveals a simple internal
green branching system of filaments called the proto- structure. The cells are arranged in three distinct zones—
nema. The protonema stage in Funaria is only vegetative (i) the central cylinder (strand), (ii) the cortex and (iii) the
and transitory. epidermis.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1010


The epidermis usually consists of a single surface Green protonemal filaments may arise from the
layer of cells. The cells are small and contain chloroplasts unspecialized cells of the sporogonium. These protonemal
in the younger portions of the stem. In the mature portions filaments bear lateral buds each of which develops into a
of stem the epidermal cells become thick-walled and leafy gametophyte. The production of leafy gametophyte
without chloroplasts. directly from the vegetative cell of sporogonium without the
The cortex surrounds the central cylinder and is com- intervention of spore is known as apospory.
posed of undifferentiated, large, thin-walled, parenchyma- Bulbils are resting buds found on rhizoids. Under
tous cells. Near the periphery of the cortex may be seen suitable conditions they produce a protonema which bears
small, isolated patches of thin-walled parenchyma cells a crop of gametophores as lateral buds.
constituting the ‘false leaf traces’. Gemmae, which are available in ‘gemma cup’,
The central cylinder, which forms the core of the commonly develop from the cells of protonemal branches.
stem, consists of vertically elongated thin-walled, com- The cells constituting the gemmae are thin walled and
pactly arranged cells without protoplasm. These cells with contain chloroplasts. Gemmae, after detachment, under
non-lignified walls are now commonly known as hydroids. suitable conditions directly develop into new gameto-
The water reaches the base of stem more rapidly by phores.
external capillary channels.
Sexual reproduction : Funaria reproduces sexually
Epidermis
by means of male and female reproductive structures
Cortex known as antheridia and archegonia respectively.
Thick
Male branch (Antheridiophore) expands to form a
walled cortex slightly convex male receptacle with the antheridia closely
Thin packed on it to form a cluster (red spot). The antheridial
walled cortex
cluster with the surrounding perigonial leaves is known as
Conducting strand perigonium. The perigonium surrounds a number of
stalked club-shaped antheridia. Associated with the
A B antheridia in the cluster are green, hairlike filaments called
Fig. : Moss (A) T. S. of young ‘stem’, (B) T. S. of old ‘stem’. paraphyses. Each antheridium emerges from a single
superficial embryonic cell called the antheridial initial.
Reproduction
Antheridia at various stages of development occur in a
The leafy gametophore of Funaria reproduces vege- single male receptacle which is thus capable of releasing
tatively as well as sexually. sperms in succession. The mature antheridium of F.
Vegetative reproduction—Funaria reproduces vege- hygrometrica may be 0·25 mm in length.
tatively by means of multiplication of the protonemal stage, Involucral leaves Paraphyses
secondary protonema, apospory, bulbils and by bud-like Antheridium
structures, the gemmae. Androgonial
mass
The primary protonema breaks into short fragments Capcells
by the death of cells at intervals. Each detached fragment
grows into a new protonema which gives rise to new
Androcyte
individual moss plant.
When surrounded by moist air, filamentous proto-
nema may also be formed from any cell of a detached BODY
injured portion of the leaf, stem and rhizoid. Now, it is Jacket
known as secondary protonema from which arises the
leafy gametophores as lateral buds.
Gametophore

Secondary protonema

Stalk

Bud Stem
A B
Fig. : Moss : (A) L. S. of antheridial head, (B) L. S. of
one antheridium (young stage).
The archegonia are borne in cluster on the archego-
nial shoot (female branch). Perigonium in this case is not
Bulbil differentiated. The archegonia are typically flask-shaped,
Rhizoids
each consisting of two usual parts—venter and neck. The
Fig. : Funaria hygrometrica : Lower part of the gameto- venter consists of a double layer of sterile cells enclosing
phore with some of the rhizoids coming above the
surface of the substratum to form secondary proto-
a cavity known as the venter cavity. In the venter cavity
nema which bears buds. Note also the formation of lies the ventral canal cell (above) and the egg cell (below).
a bulbil (tuber) on the rhizoid. (After Luerssen). The long neck consists of six rows of neck cells. Each

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1011


archegonium develops from a single archegonial initial. absorb water and nutrients for the better development of
The cover cell in Funaria contributes to the formation of sporophyte from the parent plant. The foot is thus similar
the archegonial neck and axial row of neck canal cells. in function to the root of the fern plant.
The archegonial cluster with the perichaetial leaves consti- Seta is a long, reddish brown, stalk-like structure. It is
tutes the perichaetium. differentiated into a central strand of small, thin-walled
Paraphyses cells surrounded by thick-walled cuticularized epidermis
Archegonia Cover cells and cortex. The cortex gives mechanical strength to bear
the weight of capsule. The central strand acts as conduct-
ing strand. Bopp suggested that seta in Funaria plays an
important role in the photosynthesis of sporophyte.
Epidermis Substomatal
Photosynthetic cavity
tissue

Neck

Neck
canal
cells Cortex Conducting
A strand Stoma
Ventral (medulla) B
canal Stomatal
cell aperture
Ring-shaped
guard cell
Stem Oosphere Stoma

D
Venter Sub-stomatal E
C cavity
A B Fig. : (A–E). Funaria hygrometrica : (A) Transverse sec-
Fig. : Moss : (A) L. S. of archegonial head, (B) One tion seta, (B) Transverse section through apophy-
archegonium. sis, (C) A portion of B magnified to show stoma,
substomatal cavity and photosynthetic tissue, (D)
Fertilization Young stoma in surface view, (E) Mature stoma in
surface view.
Fertilization in Funaria occurs when the plants are wet
Capsule is pear-shaped, variously coloured, highly
with rain or dew as in other bryophytes. In the mature
organized structure. Its upper portion is covered by a
archegonium ready for fertilization, the axial row of cells
conical cap, the calyptra. Externally, capsule shows three
(neck canal cells and the ventral canal cells) except the
distinct regions—apophysis, operculum and theca.
egg, degenerates to form a slimy fluid. The overlapping
perigonial bracts surrounding the terminal antheridial Operculum
Peristome
cluster form a shallow, cup-like structure known as splash
cup. The process of fertilization also stimulates cells of the Annulus
venter wall that divide to form a protective covering called
Rim
the calyptra which covers the capsule till maturity.
Calyptra also acts as transpiration shield around the Columella
immature capsule. Muggoch and Walton suggested that Outer wall
the spreading of sperm vesicle in a thin film of water of spore sac
surface in the cup presents an excellent opportunity for Spores
Trabeculae
antherozoid dispersal by rain drop splash which strikes the
Inner wall
archegonial cluster. Reaching the archegonial cluster the of spore sac
sperms swim to the archegonia. Only one sperm unites Hypodermal
layer
with the egg of archegonium to accomplish fertilization Spongy
after which a zygote develops in a sporophyte. layer

Air space
Sporophyte Phase
The diploid sporophyte is formed from the zygote and
is usually called sporogonium. Its sole function includes
the formation of meiospores and their dispersal. The Apophysis
sporogonium of Funaria is differentiated into foot, seta and
capsule.
Conducting
Foot forms the basal portion of the sporogonium. It is strand
embedded in the tissue of the tip of the leafy female Seta
branch. It functions both as anchorage and an absorbing
organ. The wall of foot consists of transfer cells which Fig. : Moss : L. S. of mature capsule.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1012


Apophysis is the solid, somewhat swollen, basal (SMCs) in tetrad. The diploid nucleus of SMC undegoes
green photosynthetic part of the capsule. The lower part meiotic division to form haploid spores. They are the first
the axis of the apophysis shows a central strand of thin- cells of the next (new) gametophyte generation. Under
walled elongated cells connected with the similar tissue of favourable conditions of moisture, light and temperature,
the seta below. On the above side, the axial strand dis- the liberated spores germinate. The first step of germina-
appears into columella. This axis develops from the tion of spores involves imbibition of water. The sequential
endothecium and it is surrounded by a green spongy steps of spore germinations are : → swelling phase →
tissue formed from amphithecium. The green spongy spore wall rupture phase → protrusion phase → spore
tissue is surrounded by a single compact layer of distension phase.
epidermis provided with stomata which are connected Each spore of Funaria consists of four layered walls,
with air spaces. Thus, this green spongy tissue acts as the inner one is termed the intine. Following protrusion of
the site of photosynthesis. aperture region intine, the spore protoplast adjacent to it
The air space within the capsule wall is traversed by follows suit. The protruding protoplast is covered and thus
strands of green, elongated cells which are known as protected by protruded intine of the aperture region. This
trabeculae. The trabeculae connect the innermost layer of tubular outgrowth is known as green germ tube. This
the capsule wall with the outer wall of the spore sac. outgrowth grows in length and undergoes septation to
Between the inner and outer walls of spore sac is a cavity
form filaments of green cells which grow over the suitable
which contains numerous spores. A solid cylinder of pith-
like columella is situated in the centre of theca region. substratum (soil) and branch leafy. The branched, green-
algae like filament thus formed is the primary protonema.
The terminal obliquely placed cap-like portion of the
They are positively phototrophic. Sironwal recognized two
capsule is the lid or operculum. The operculum at first is
distinct growth phases in the development of primary
continuous with the theca region, eventually it becomes
protonema; these are chloronema and caulonema
delimited by the appearance of a narrow, circular constric-
stages. Buds develop on the caulonema give rise to leafy
tion. Below the constriction radially elongated, thick-walled
gametophyte. The caulonema filaments are negatively
cells form a circular rim or diaphragm. The latter consti-
phototrophic.
tutes the upper end of the open theca. Above the rim of
the theca, forming the broadest lower part of the opercu-
lum is the annulus consisting of 4-5 layers of cells. The A
Spore B C D
upper 2 or 3 layers constitute a special ring of modified
cells forming the edge of the detached lid.
Peristome, which lies immediately underneath the
operculum, consists of two sets of long, conical teeth, one E Bud
within the other. There are 16 teeth in each set. The peris-
tome teeth close the opening of the spore sac. At maturity
the distended cell walls of annulus and the loosened oper- Protonema
Rhizoids
culum are shed leaving the peristome teeth exposed. The
F
tips of the peristome teeth are attached to a small circle of
a few cells. This attachment soon disintegrates and the
Fig. : Moss : (A) Spore, (B-C) Germinating spore, (D-E)
outer peristome teeth (exostome), which are hygroscopic, Developing protonema, (F) Mature protonema with
display jerky movements with changes in humidity. This gemma and bud.
condition is favourable for spore dissemination. The Systematic Position
spores, when they are most likely to be carried by the air Division — Bryophyta
currents, are thus liberated in dry weather.
Class — Bryopsida
Formation of New Gametophyte Subclass — Bryidae
The moss spores are haploid reproductive units with Order — Funariales
genetic potential for the production of moss gametophyte. Family — Funariaceae
The spores are formed from the Spore Mother Cells Type — Funaria

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. In Funaria the spores on germi- (B) Columella 4. The leaves on the stem of
nation give rise to— (C) Archesporium Funaria are arranged—
(A) Primary protonema (A) Spirally (B) Alternately
(D) Antheridium
(B) Secondary protonema (C) Irregularly (D) Circinately
(C) Sporophyte 3. The sperms of Funaria move with 5. The leaf-like and root-like struc-
the help of— tures of a moss plant and leaves
(D) All of the above
(A) A single flagellum and roots of a vascular plant
2. In bryophytes the embryonic are—
development of zygote takes (B) Two flagella
(A) Analogous structures
place in— (C) Cilia (B) Homologous structures
(A) Protonema (D) Pseudopodia (Continued on Page 1023 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1013


Reproduction phenomenon is commonly described as vivipary. Since
this term is also used to refer to situation where sexually
All organisms born on this earth show a characteristic formed seeds germinate on the mother plant (as in Mang-
life cycle involving birth, growth maturation, reproduction roves), in the present contest the vegetative vivipary may
and death. Of the processes occurring during such a cycle be used.
reproduction is necessary for continuation of species from
Vegetative vivipary is quite common in grasses
one generation to another. Reproduction is a unique pro-
(Deschampasia , Festuca, Poa) and Allium.
perty of the living beings which can produce young ones
like themselves after having attained maturity, and can, 2. Sexual Reproduction
thus maintain continuity of life. Reproduction are of two
The fundamental steps involved in the sexual repro-
types— (1) Asexual and (2) Sexual.
duction in all the plants are as follows—
1. Asexual Reproduction (a) Formation of spores by meiosis in the sporo-
Asexual reproduction is of following types— phyte
(i) Agamospermy —In these methods the seed is (b) Formation of gametophytes from spores
formed but without gametic union. (c) Production of gametes in the gametophytes
(ii) Vegetative reproduction—In such type of methods (d) Fusion of gametes (fertilization) and the restora-
only the vegetative parts of the body are involved for tion of diploid condition
multiplication. (e) Formation of zygote which may produces embryo,
Agamospermy—It is in the form of vegetative repro- seed and the new plant.
duction by plants in which seeds are formed without fusion Important events and structures involved in the
of gametes. It also includes processes like apogamy and sexual reproduction in angiosperms—
apospory. (i) Flowers are the sex organs in angiosperms.
In agamospermy, the seeds possess an embryo (ii) The androecium and gynoecium are the male
developed not from a diploid zygote but an abnormally and female reproductive structures respectively.
formed diploid egg. In these cases not only the egg but
the entire embryo sac is diploid because it develops (iii) As in the plants the sexual reproduction involves
without meiosis from— the fusion of male and female gametes.
(i) a megaspore mother cell (the phenomenon is (iv) The male gametes are produced in pollen grain
called diplospory) and the female in the ovule.
(ii) any cell of the nucellus (this is called apospory) (v) The fusion of male and female gemetes results
Another type Parthenogenesis (Gr Parthenos = vir- in the formation of zygote.
gin, genesis = origin) may be defined as the development (vi) Zygote develops into embryo within the seed.
of female gamete into a new individual without fertilization. (vii) During germination of seed the embryo grows
It is a type of apomixis in which the megaspore mother into a new plant.
cell undergoes the usual meiotic division to form haploid (viii) The Endosperm developing within the seed
egg and the embryo develops from egg without fertiliza- serve as a food tissue for the developing em-
tion. bryo.
Beside this, embryos are also produced directly from
the cells of the nucellus. This is called Adventive poly Do You Know
embryony. It results into the formation of many embryos
● Rudolph Camerarius (1694) first to describe sexual
in each seed. The commonest example is citrus seed reproduction in plants.
which contains 2–40 embryos. ● Flowers develop on the peduncle in the axil of bracts.
Vegetative reproduction—Vegetative propagation ● The arrangement of flowers on the peduncle is called
includes reproduction by means of bulbs, bulbils, runners, anthotaxy.
suckers and so on. There propagules are formed by the ● N. Grew (1682) was first to point out that flowers are
reproductive organs of plants.
sporophyte only. Gustafsson (1946) has distinguished
● Stylopodium is the swollen base of style.
three types of vegetative reproduction in higher plants.
(i) The propagules are formed outside the floral Parts of flower—A typical flower is made of calyx,
regions, and the plants are sexually sterile. Fritillaria corolla, androecium and gynoecium. Out of these, calyx
unperialis and lilium bulbiferum are typical representative and corolla only help the process of sexual reproduction
of this group. They propagate by means of bulbils and but do not directly take part in this process.
bulblets. Androecium is the male reproductive whorl and it
(ii) The propagules are formed on the floral branches consists of stamens. Each stamen is made of filament
either in addition to the flowers or in place of stem. The and anther.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1014


Androecium developing microspores. Tapetum, therefore, secretes
collection of
stamens
both enzymes and hormones. Tapetum is of two types :
Filament Anther (i) Secretory or glandular—The cells of this type of
long stalk dithecous tapetum remain in contact with the anther wall throughout.
introrse
(ii) Amoeboid or plasmodial tapetum—The cells of this
Stigma type of tapetum separate from the wall and move freely in
bilobed the pollen chamber.
short
2. The pollen chamber—This forms the central cavity

Gynoecium
Corolla
collection of petals, of the anther lobe. The process of microsporogenesis
bright yellow, expanded Style takes place in this region.
above, free or
polypetalous
Ovary Development of Anther
Calyx Bicarpellary, syncarpous,
collection of sepals, bilocular, superior The development of an anther is eusporangiate
green, polysepalous axile placentation (develops from a group of cells). A young anther consists
Receptacle
Base of flower on which
of a homogenous mass of meristematic cells surrounded
Pedicel floral organs are arranged, by an epidermis. As an anther grows, it becomes slightly
stalk of flower also called thalamus four–lobed. In each lobe, commonly a row of hypoder-
Fig. : L. S. of a typical flower mal archesporial cells is differentiated which form the
archesporium of the anther.
Gynoecium is the female reproductive whorl and is Each archesporial initial divides into an outer primary
made of ovary, style and stigma. parietal cell and an inner primary sporogenous cell.
The primary parietal cell divides to form 3–5 wall
Anther, Microsporogenesis and the layers, i.e., endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
Microspore The primary sporogenous cells divide to produce a mass
of sporogenous cells or microsporocytes. The sporoge-
Structure of anther—A mature anther is made of the
nous cells undergo a few mitotic divisions simultaneously
wall and the pollen chamber.
with the growth of anther. These derivatives function as
1. Wall of the anther—The anther wall consists of microspore mother cells.
four layers. These are epidermis, endothecium, middle
Epidermis Wall layers
layers and tapetum. Sporogenous cell
(a) Epidermis—This is the outermost layer. It is only Archesporial
initial
one cell in thickness.
A
(b) Endothecium—This layer is situated just below
the epidermis. It is a single layer of radially elongated
cells. These cells are characterised by fibrous thickenings
which help in the dehiscence of anther. In between these B
cells, a few cells without thickenings are also present.
Primary parietal cell
These thin walled cells collectively form the stomium. D
Primary sporogenous cell
(c) Middle layers—Three to four layers of thin walled C Microspore mother cell
cells situated just below the endothecium are known as
middle layers. In mature anther, these layers generally
disintegrate.
Epidermis
Connective Endothecium
Middle layers Epidermis
Tapetum Endothelium
Middle layers Tapetum
E
Fig. : (A-E) Different stages of development of anther
Microsporogenesis
Stomium The microspore mother cells (MMC) also called as
pollen mother cells (PMC) which undergoes meiosis to
Pollen grains give rise to tetrads of four haploid pollen grains. Wall
formation (Cytokinesis) during microsporogenesis is
successive or simultaneous.
(i) Successive type—Each nuclear division during
Fig. : T. S. of a mature dithecous anther
microsporogenesis is followed by wall formation resulting
(d) Tapetum—This is the innermost layer of the wall. in the formation of isobilateral tetrads as found in mono-
The cells are multinucleate. These provide nutrition to the cotyledons.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1015


(ii) Simultaneous type—Walls are laid down simul- Pollen Kit
taneously after both the division of microspore mother cell It is found on the outer side of the mature pollen
nucleus are over. This results in the formation of tetrahed- grains of many insect pollinated flowers. It mainly consists
ral tetrads commonly found in dicots. In some cases the of lipids and carotinoids, the latter being responsible for
tetrads may be linear, T shaped or decussate type. yellow or orange colour of the pollen.
The pollen kit acts as insect attractant and adherent
s to the insect body. It helps in sporophytic incompatibility
ou
ane and protects the pollen against the damaging effects of
t
ul e
m typ UV-radiations.
Si

Microspore mother cell Microgametogenesis


The haploid pollen grain represents the first stage of
Su male gametophyte. A pollen grain may be referred to as
cc
e
typ ssiv male gametophyte or partially developed male gameto-
e e phyte or male gamete. Study of pollen grains is called a
Palynology.
Fig. : Microsporogenesis and two types of cytokinesis Exine has one or more weak spots known as germ
The microspores soon separate out but in some pores through which intine comes out in the form of wall
cases adhere in tetrads to form the compound pollen of pollen tube.
grains, e.g., in Drinys Drosera etc. The nucleus of the pollen grain divides mitotically to
form a vegetative nucleus (tube nucleus) and a generative
In Asclepiadaceae all microspores (pollen grain) of a nucleus. The latter gets surrounded by cytoplasm to
sporangium cohere in a single mass called pollinium. become generative cell. At this stage, pollen grain is 2-
celled-a large vegetative cell and a small lenticular
generative cell. The pollen grain may be discharged from
the anther at this 2-celled stage.
However, in some plants generative cell divides
further to give rise to two male gametes before the pollen
Tetrahedral Isobilateral Decussate T-Shaped Linear grains are shed. These pollen grains are, thus, 3-celled at
Fig. : Microscopic Tetrads the time of shedding.
Exine Intine Vegetative
cell
Window
● In Aristolochia elegans all the five types of tetrads are
present.
● In some plants e.g., Mimosa, 6–8 pollen grains stick A B
C
together to form compound pollen grains. Vacuole
Nucleus Generative
● In plants e.g., Malva and Althea , 10–14 pollen tubes Cytoplasm cell Male gametes
arise from the same pollen grain, but only one is functio-
nal. Pollen Male Vegetative
tube gametes nucleus
● The pollen grains of many plants including Parthenium
hysterophorus , Amaranthus spinosus, Sorghum vulgare,
Chenopodium and Prosopis juliflora etc. are allergic.
● Pollen of myosotis alpestris are smallest (2·5–3·5 μ) but
that of mirabilisjalapa are largest (250 μ). D
● About 80% pollen are yellow in colour due to the Fig. : Different stages of microgametogenesis
presence of flavonoids and carotenoids. In most of the plants, 3-celled condition is formed after
pollen grain is shed. The liberated pollen grain germinates
Structure of Microspore on the stigma and produces a pollen tube. The generative
The wall of microspore is comprised of outer exine cell divides inside the pollen tube to form two male game-
and inner intine. The exine is made of sporopollenin tes.
while intine is pectocellulosic.
Pollination
Sporopollenin is highly resistant to microbes and che-
mical decomposition. Therefore pollen grains are well Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from
preserved during fossilization. anthers to the stigma (within the same flower or from
one flower to another).
In the exine there are 1-3 germ pores in dicots and
germinal furrows in monocots. Types of Pollination
The wall of pollen grain surrounds an uninucleate (a) Self-Pollination (autogamy)—Transfer of pollen
mass of protoplasm. grains within the same flower.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1016


(b) Cross-Pollination (allogamy)—Transfer of pollen Pollination is essential for fertilization and for fruit and
grains from one flower to another. seed formation.
(i) Xenogamy—Transfer of pollen grains from one Commonly, the pollen tube enters the ovule through
plant to another of the same species. micropyle (Porogamy). Sometimes, it enters through cha-
(ii) Geitonogamy—Transfer of pollen grains from one laza (Chalazogamy). e.g. Causarina; or through base of
flower to another on the same plant. It is also called gene- ovule or through funicle or integuments (mesogamy).
tically self pollination. Irrespective of the place of entry of pollen tube into
(iii) Hybridism—Transfer of pollen grains from one the ovule, the tube invariably enters the embryo sac at
plant to another related allied species. micropylar end in between the egg cell and the syner-
gids. Entry of pollen tube in the embryo sac is chemo-
Advantages of Cross Pollination tropic. Micropyle and synergids secrete some chemicals.

(a) Progeny of offsprings are healthier. Ovule, Megasporogenesis and the


(b) Seeds are more in number and viable (living Megaspore
embryo germinates quickly).
The Ovule— The process of megasporogenesis, i.e.,
(c) Adaptability is better.
the formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell
(d) New varieties may be produced. takes place in ovule. Ovule is considered to be an integu-
Adaptations for Self Pollination mented megasporangium. The ovules are situated inside
the ovary, attached to a special tissue called placenta.
(a) Homogamy—Anthers and stigmas of a flower 1. Structure of ovule—A fully mature ovule consists
mature at the same time. of the stalk and the body. The stalk is called funicle. One
(b) Cleistogamy—Flowers remain closed. They never end of the funicle is attached to placenta and the other
open throughout their life span e.g., groundnut. end to the body of the ovule. The point of attachement of
Cross pollination is always brought about by external funicle with the body is called hilum. Funicle sometimes
agents like insects, wind, water and animals. extends up to the base of ovule (i.e., chalaza). The ridge
thus formed is called raphe.
Entomophily is pollination by insects. The pollen
Chalaza
grains are rough and sticky. Insects are attracted by nec- Raphe
tar / scent / colour. Some common insects which help in
pollination are Bees (commonest), butterflies and moths.
Anemophily—Pollination by wind; Flowers are not Embryo sac

coloured; Pollen grains are produced in large amounts.


Style and stigma are hairy (feathery) e.g., Grasses,
Hilum
wheat, maize, rice, barley and palms.
Hydrophily—Pollination by water currents e.g.,
Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Ceratophyllum. Pollen grains are
sticky.
Zoophily—Pollination by animals. e.g. in Bombax Integuments
(silk cotton) by birds (ornithophily); in Anthocephalous by Micropyle
bats (Cheiropterophily); in Arisaema by Snakes—
(Ophiophily); in Colocasia by snails (Malacophily). Funicle

Adaptations for Cross Pollination Fig. : An Organised Ovule


(a) Dicliny (unisexuality)—e.g. Palms, cucumber, The body of the ovule shows two ends—the basal
pumpkin. end, often called the chalaza and the upper end is called
the micropylar end. The main body of the ovule is cove-
(b) Self Sterility—e.g. Tea, Malva, Orchids.
red with one or two envelope called integuments. These
(c) Dichogamy—Anthers and stigma of a flower leave an opening at the top of the ovule called micropyle.
mature at different times. The integuments enclose a large parenchymatous tissue
(i) Protandry—Anthers mature earlier than the known as nucellus. In the centre of the nucellus is
stigmas of the same flower. e.g. Cotton. situated a female gametophyte known as embryo sac.
(ii) Protogyny—Stigma matures earlier than the Following are some of the conditions seen in ovule in
anthers of the same flowers. e.g. Ficus. relation to integuments—
(a) Unitegmic—Ovule with a single integument; e.g.,
(d) Heterostyly—Stamens, style and stigma are diffe-
sympetalous or gamopetalous dicotyledons.
rent heights.
(b) Bitegmic—Ovule with two integuments as in poly -
Plants are dimorphic. e.g. Oxalis, Primula, Linum, petalous (archichlamydeae) dicotyledons and monocoty-
Oldenlandia. ledons.
(e) Herkogamy—A natural barrier develops between (c) Aril—This is a collar-like outgrowth from the base
anthers and stigma to check self-pollination. e.g. Calot- of the ovule and forms third integument. Aril is found in
ropis. litchi, nutmeg, etc.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1017


In angiosperms ovules are of following types— 1. Tenuinucellate ovule—In this condition, the arc-
Orthrotropous—The micropyle, chalaza and funicle hesporial initial directly behaves as megaspore mother
are in straight line. This is most primitive type, e.g., Pipe- Nucellar epidermis Parietal
raceae. tissue
Megaspore
Anatropous—The ovule turns at 180° angle. It is mother cell
called resupination. Thus, in this type micropyle and
funicle are closer, e.g., 82% of angiospermic families.
Hemianatropous—The ovule turns at 90° angle upon
the funicle, e.g., Ranunculus .
Amphitropous—The body of ovule itself rotates so
that nucellus becomes horse shoe shaped, e.g., Lemna.
Campylotropous—Ovule is bend so micropyle and
chalaza do not lie in one line, e.g., some crucifers, gram, A B
etc.
Circinotropous—Ovule turns at more than 360° Fig. : (A-B) Nucellus and the ovule : (A) Tenuinucellate ovule,
(B) Crassinucellate ovule
angle, e.g., Opuntia .
cell. Hence, in this case primary parietal cell is not formed
and as such there is little or no nucellar tissue between
the megaspore mother cell and nucellar epidermis. These
ovules are called tenuinucellate and are found in gamope-
talous dicotyledons with unitegmic ovules.
2. Crassinucellate ovule—The division of the arche-
sporial initial into primary parietal cell and primary sporo-
genous cell results in the formation of crassinucellate
A ovule. The primary parietal cell, thus formed, divides to
B C
Orthotropous Anatropous
give rise to a large amount of nucellar tissue between
Campylotropous
primary sporogenous cell and nucellar epidermis. Such
ovules occur in polypetalous dicotyledons with bitegmic
ovules.
The megaspore mother cell (megasporocyte) divides
meiotically to form a linear tetrad of four haploid mega-
spores. Occasionally, T-shaped or inverted T-shaped (⊥)
tetrads are also formed. Megaspore is the first cell of
female gametophyte.
Of the linear tetrad, three megaspores towards the
micropyle degenerate. The lowermost, i.e., the chalazal
D E
F megaspore enlarges and remains functional. It later pro-
Hemiantropous Amphitropous
Circinotropous duces an embryo sac.
Fig. : Different types of Ovule Archesporial Primary parietal cell
initial
Primary
● In Asphodelus and Litchi the third integument is present sporogenous
in the form of aril. cell
● In castor ( Riccinus communis) the integument any out-
growth is present at micropylar end called caruncle. It
helps in seed germination and seed dispersal.
● Ategmic ovules are without any integument e.g., loran-
thaceae and santalaceae.
Nucellus
● Chloroplast are present in the cells of the outer integu- A B C
ment in several monocotyledons such as Gladiolus,
Lilium, Amaryllis Moringa. Degenerating
● In Nerine , Nelumbium , Aquilegia, Canna etc. stomata Parietal Megaspore megaspores
tissue mother Functional
have been reported in the outer integument, which megaspore
cell
perhaps helps in exchange of gases.

Megasporogenesis
The process begins with the differentiation of arches-
porial initial in the nucellar hypodermis. Archesporial
initial either acts directly as a megaspore mother cell or
divides periclinally into an outer primary parietal cell and D E
the inner primary sporogenous cell. Accordingly, follow- F
ing two conditions are found— Fig. : (A-F) Different stages of megasporogenesis

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1018


Synergids
Worth to Remember
Egg Beak
● Polygonum type of embryo sac is most simple, most
Polar nuclei
primitive and normal type of embryo sac.
● In an embryo sac, all the cells are haploid except the
secondary nucleus (2n).
● In majority of angiosperms, the chalazal megaspore is
functional. In casuarina, all the four megaspores are
functional.
● Synergids, are also known as helpers.
● In polygonum type of embryo sac three antipodals but in
Zea mays 20, Sasa paniculata 300 antipodals have re-
ported.
● Antipodals are altogether absent in Oenothera type of
embryo sac.

Megagametogenesis and Female


Gametophyte Antipodals
E F
The process of development of female gametophyte
or embryo sac from megaspore is called megagame- Fig. : Development of monosporic embryo sac (female
togenesis. gametophyte) : (A-E) Successive stages of develop-
ment, (F) Organised embryo sac
Development of Female Gametophyte
Out of 4 nuclei at each pole one migrates to the
Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte. center and functions as polar nuclei which fuse together
Female gametophyte may be monosporic, bisporic or just before fertilization to form a secondary nucleus.
tetrasporic depending upon whether respectively one, Three nuclei towards the micropylar end form and egg
two or all the four megaspores formed during megaspo- apparatus (central egg cell and two lateral synergids) and
rogenesis take part in their development. the other three towards the chalazal end form three
Out of the three, the monosporic type of female game- antipodal cells which are vestigial.
tophytes (embryo sacs) are very common and are reported
Mature embryo sac—The embryo sac is 7 celled and
in 70% of the angiosperms. It was studied for the first time
8 nucleated i.e.—
by Strassberger (1879) in a plant called polygonum dive-
ricatum hence it is also called as Polygonum type. (a) 3 cells at micropylar end form egg apparatus.
One is egg cell and two are synergids or coope-
Development of Embryo Sac (Female Gameto- rative cells or potential egg.
phyte) (b) 3 cells at chalazal end form antipodals or vege-
1. Monosporic type—Polygonum is the best example tative cells of gametophyte.
of monosporic type embryo, which develops from the (c) Two nuclei (one from each pole) in the centre
lower most megaspores (chalazal megaspore) of the form central cell. These two nuclei are called
megaspore tetrads formed during megasporogenesis. polar nuclei.
The other three non-functional megaspores degene- Vacuole Filiform apparatus
rate. The nucleus of functional megaspore divides by Beak
three successive mitotic divisions to form eight nuclei of Nucleus
Nucleus
which four are at the micropylar end and the other four at
the chalazal end. Vacuole

Degenerating megaspores Synergid


Egg
Functional
megaspore

A Fig. : Detailed structure of egg apparatus

As the embryo sac matures these polar nuclei get


fused to form a secondary nucleus.
Rarely embryo sac develops haustorium which ab-
sorbs food from nucellus, integument and placental tissue,
e.g., Loranthus. etc.
2. Bisporic embryo sac—In this type two mega-
spore nuclei take part in embryo sac formation.
3. Tetrasporic embryo sac—This embryo sac deve-
B C D lops from four megaspore nuclei.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1019


Fertilization
Pollen tube Pollen grain
The union of male and female gametes during sexual
reproduction is called fertilization. In angiosperms male
gametes are formed in the pollen tube and female gamete Canal
Pollen
is formed in the embryosac. Fertilization is a very lengthy tube
Secretory
process involving many step-wise changes. zone
Papilla Stylar
The Growth of Pollen Tube Stylar
tissue
tissue

Pollen grains germinate to form pollen tubes when Hollow style Solid style
they fall on compatible stigma. Pollen tubes emerge
through the apertures of the sporoderm. Pollen tubes always grow in the direction of the ovary
Exine and according to Strasburger (1887) the path of pollen
tubes is guided by a secretion of the ovule.

Intine Entry of Pollen Tube into the Ovule


The pollen tube carrying the two male gametes
Nucleus
reaches the ovule. It may enter the ovule in any one of the
following three ways—
Fig. : Germination of Pollen Grain (1) Porogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule through
micropyle. It is the commonest type, e.g., Ottelia.
After germination of pollen grains pollen tubes grow
along the surface of the stigmatic papillae or through the
cellulose-peptic layer of their walls. After reaching the
base of the papillae pollen tubes grow through the inter-
cellular spaces of the stigmatic tissues. Pollen tubes then
pass to the style. Styles are of two main types, viz., hollow
and solid.

Pollen grain Micropyle

Stigma Pollen tube

Pollen tube
(2) Chalazogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule
through chalaza, e.g., Casuarina.
Chalazal
end

Style

Ovary

Ovule (3) Mesogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule laterally


through the integuments or through funicle, e.g., Cucurbita .

Fig. : Growth of Pollen Tube in Lantana camara


In case of hollow style the pollen tubes grow along
the surface of the stylar canal. In case of solid style pollen
Integuments
tubes grow through specialised conducting tissues. Cells
lining the stylar canal are secretory in nature.
These cells secrete proteins, carbohydrates and
lipids (Tilton and Horner, 1980).

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1020


The entry of pollen tubes into the ovule is guided by a (ii) Entry of pollen tube in between the walls of the
chemotropic stimulus. The filiform apparatus (these are embryosac and one of the synergids,
finger-like projections of wall in the cytoplasm of syner- (iii) Entry of pollen tube directly into one of the
gids; each projection is provided with packed microfibrils, synergids.
a non-fibrillar sheath and is rich in polysaccharides) is
Electron microscopic studies have conclusively
considered as the source of the secretion. But recent
proved that pollen tubes enter directly into one of the
investigations have revealed the absence of chemotropic
synergids through the filiform apparatus. The penetrated
stimulus. The following points have been raised against
synergid starts disintegration and the other synergid
the suggestion of filiform apparatus as the source of the
remains unaffected.
stimulus—
(i) Pollen tubes may even enter such ovules which The Act of Fertilization
have aborted before the formation of embryosac, There are two fertilizations in the embryosac of
(ii) Pollen tubes may enter such ovules in which angiosperms. These are—
embryo sac has been fertilized, (a) Syngamy or zygotic fertilization—The contents
(iii) Pollen tubes may also enter such ovules in which of the pollen tube are discharged into the penetrated
embryo sac lacks a synergid. synergid. Usually pollen tubes do not grow beyond the
synergids but in some plants (e.g. , Plumbago) pollen
Chao (1972) has carried out a detailed cytological
tube penetrates the egg wall. The pollen tube discharge
investigation of Paspalum orbiculare and demonstrated
contains two sperms, single vegetative nucleus and a fair
that the distal part of the integuments, by dissolution of its
amount of cytoplasm. Due to disorganisation of the
cells secretes a mucilagenous substance into the
penetrated synergid, sperms are released from the
micropyle which provides a way of least resistance for the
synergid. During this period two darkly stained bodies are
pollen tube and guides it towards its ultimate destination.
observed in the embryosac. These are called X-bodies
The mucilagenous secretion is largely a water soluble
and are interpreted as the remains of the synergid
carbohydrate and it aids the pollen tube growth both
nucleus and the vegetative nucleus of the pollen tube
mechanically as well as chemotropically.
(Jensen, 1972; Russell, 1982).
Again a special structure which facilitates the entry of The mode of sperm transfer is a matter of specula-
pollen tube into the ovule is the obturator. Although some tion. According to Jensen (1972), one of the sperms
workers are of the opinion that it may have associated
with the nutrition of pollen tubes. It forms a sort of bridge
for the pollen tube to reach the ovule. There are several
types of obturators. In Acanthaceae, Anacardiaceae and
Lamiaceae obturator is formed by the swelling of funicle.

Obturators

Fig. : Ovule of Tetragonia

In Tetragonia glandular epidermal hairs at the base of the


funicle represent obturator. After fertilization the obturator Fig. : (A–C) The Double Fertilization
shrinks and disappears. comes in contact to the plasma membrane of the egg cell.
In Loranthaceae the proper ovule-like structure is Due to disintegration of the plasma membrane, nucleus of
absent. Here the embryosac undergoes remarkable the sperm enters the egg. The next event is syngamy,
elongation and meets the pollen tube at some point in the i.e. , the union of sperm and egg nuclei. The resulting
stylar canal. diploid nucleus produces the embryo.
Three different types of syngamy are reported in
Entry of Pollen Tube into Embryosac angiosperms. These are as follows—
Pollen tube finally enters the embryosac and it enters Type 1 : Premitotic—The sperm nucleus fuses
only through the micropylar end. The following three immediately on coming in contact with
modes of pollen tube entry are known to occur— the egg nucleus, and the zygote
(i) Entry of pollen tube between the egg and one of nucleus divides subsequently, e.g.,
the synergids, Poaceae, Asteraceae.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1021


Type 2 : Post mitotic—The sperm nucleus and Nawaschin (1898) for the first time reported this
the egg nucleus remain in contact for a phenomenon and it is a characteristic feature of angio-
while and fuse only after both the nuclei sperms.
have entered into divisions, e.g., Lilium.
However, in angiosperms the double fertilization may
Type 3 : Intermediate—The sperm nucleus fuses
sometimes occur in a more specialised way. When an
with the egg nucleus after completing its
embryosac receives two pollen tubes instead of one, the
previous mitosis, e.g., Impatiens.
single sperm nucleus from one tube may fuse with the
(b) Vegetative fertilization—The second male egg nucleus and the polar nucleus may receive sperm
gamete fuses with two haploid polar nuclei or diploid nucleus from another pollen tube. This phenomenon is
secondary nucleus (if two polar nuclei fuse to form termed as heterofertilization.

Schematic Representation of the Process of Fertilization

FIRST MALE GAMETE


(n)

× SYNGAMY ZYGOTE (2n)

Egg (n)

SECOND MALE GAMETE


(n)
PRIMARY ENDOSPERM
× TRIPLE FUSION NUCLEUS (3n)

POLAR NUCLEI (n, n)

secondary nucleus). As a result, a triploid primary endo- The ultimate aim of fertilization in plants is to form
sperm nucleus is produced from which the endosperm seeds which are essential for their survival on mother
is developed. earth. Although in some higher plants the traditional ferti-
Since, there are two fertilizations in the same lization processes are lacking. In these plants the procrea-
embryosac, it is described as double fertilization. S. G. tion takes place through a process called apomixis.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. A plant species that has, on each 4. Anther is typically— (B) A cluster of pollen grains be-
individual plant, flowers with car- (A) Tetrasporangiate longing to a chamber of mi-
pel is— (B) Bisporangiate crosporangium
(A) Perfect (C) Trisporangiate (C) Group of four pollen grains
(B) Imperfect (D) Monosporangiate derived from a single mother
(C) Monoecious 5. Tapetal cells are— cell
(D) Dioecious (A) Uninucleate (D) Two pollen tetrads attached
(B) Binucleate by a small stalk
2. An anther produces—
(C) Multinucleate 8. Abundant occurrence of fossili-
(A) Haploid gametes
(D) Enucleate sed pollen grains is due to resis-
(B) Diploid gametes
6. Compound pollen grains occur tant—
(C) Haploid spores
in— (A) Ligno cellulose
(D) Diploid spores (A) Calotropis or Asclepias
(B) Sporopollenin
3. Author of an introduction to the (B) Orchids
embryology of angiosperm is— (C) Pectocellulose
(C) Juncus or Cryptostegia
(A) P. Maheshwari (D) Brassica (D) Pectolignin
(B) S. R. Kashyap 7. A pollinium consists of— 9. Polar nuclei are located in—
(C) T. S. Sadasivan (A) A bag of pollen grain formed (A) Pollen tube
(D) K. C. Mehta in a microsporangium (B) Embryo sac

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1022


(C) Ovule (C) Stigma receptors 27. Which one of the following acts
(D) Thalamus (D) Meiotic division of the pri- as a passage for a pollen tube to
mary mother cell reach ovary to fertilize the egg ?
10. Ubisch bodies are connected with
19. The transfer of pollen grains from (A) Placenta (B) Ovule
the formation of—
anthers to the stigma is known (C) Style (D) Stigma
(A) Sporopollenin
as pollination; however, when a 28. The obturator is an outgrowth of
(B) Intine and pollen kit
male gamete fuses with a female placenta or funiculus. It helps
(C) Exine gamete the process is termed
(D) Pollen kit and Pollinia in—
as— (A) Formation of ovule
11. Process of fusion between male (A) Cross-pollination (B) Entry of water into seed
and egg nuclei is— (B) Autogamy (C) Pollination
(A) Syngamy (C) Dichogamy (D) Entry of pollen tube into
(B) Double fertilization (D) Fertilization ovule
(C) Conjugation 20. On fertilization secondary nucleus
(D) Triple fusion ANSWERS
forms—
12. Female gamete of angiosperms (A) Endosperm (B) Seed
is represented by— (C) Embryo (D) Cotyledons
(A) Oospore (B) Carpel 21. When the stigma matures before
(C) Egg (D) Pollen grain the anthers, it is known as—
13. A typical embryo sac possesses– (A) Protandry (B) Heterostyly
(A) Egg, synergids and secon- (C) Protogyny (D) Dicliny
●●●
dary cell 22. The sperm nucleus and the egg
(B) Egg, synergid, central cell nucleus remain in contact for a (Continued from Page 1013 )
and polar nuclei while and fuse only after both the (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei nuclei have entered into divi- (D) Vestigial organs
and antipodals sions. This type of syngamy is
termed as— 6. The antheridia in Funaria formed
(D) Egg, synergids and secon-
(A) Premitotic at the apex of male shoot are in—
dary wall
(B) Postmitotic (A) Groups of many
14. Meiosis is best seen in— (B) Groups of two
(C) Intermediate
(A) Gamete (D) None of the above (C) Solitary form
(B) Microsporangium (D) Shaped like open book
23. Secondary nucleus formed by the
(C) Pollen grain 7. The middle sterile part of the
fusion of two polar nuclei is also
(D) Anther wall capsule of Funaria is—
called—
15. Fertilization involving carring of (A) Coenocyte (A) Protocorn
male gametes by pollen tube is— (B) Vegetative nucleus (B) Protonema
(A) Porogamy (C) Tube nucleus (C) Columella
(B) Siphonogamy (D) Definitive nucleus (D) All of the above
(C) Chalazogamy 24. The process of double fertiliza- 8. The antherozoids of Funaria are
(D) Syngonogamy tion was discovered by— usually—
(A) Nawaschin (A) Nonciliated (B) Biciliated
16. Pollen tube was discovered in
(B) Robert Hook (C) Multiciliated (D) Uniciliated
1824 by an Italian mathematician
named— (C) Robert Koch 9. Buds in Funaria give rise to—
(A) Robert Brown (D) Darlington (A) Sporophyte
(B) A. Takhtajan 25. The main embryo develops by the (B) Leafy gametophyte
(C) G. B. Amlci fusion of one of male gametes (C) Spore tetrad
with— (D) All of the above
(D) T. S. Eliot
(A) Egg 10. The first step in germination of
17. Parthenogenesis is defined in the (B) One of the synergids Funaria spore is—
development of— (C) Two polar nuclei of the (A) Protrusion phase
(A) Egg without fertilization embryo sac (B) Spore wall rupture phase
(B) Synergid without fertilization (D) One of the nuclei of the (C) Spore distension phase
(C) Fruit without fertilization secondary nuclei
(D) Swelling phase (Imbibition)
(D) Fruit without pollination
26. The point where the funicle is
18. Anthesis is— attached to the body of the ovule ANSWERS
(A) Development of anther is called—
(B) Period of opening of the flo- (A) Micropyle (B) Chalaza
wer buds (C) Hilum (D) Node ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1023


(C) Four separate enzymes
(D) A heated alkaline solution
17. Bud scales are found in—
(A) Jack fruit
(B) Ficus
(C) Magnolia
1. Chlorophyll-e is found in— 9. Cleavage polyembryony is found
(D) All of the above
(A) All brown algae in—
(A) Cycas 18. The sporangia of a conifer are
(B) Diatoms located on the—
(C) Vaucheria (B) Rhizophora
(A) Tips of the needle
(D) None of the above (C) Pinus
(B) Axils of the branches
(D) All of the above (C) Scales of the cones
2. The stroma of chloroplasts con-
tains— 10. Viral genes are made up of— (D) Bases of the needles
(A) DNA only
(A) DNA 19. The phenomenon of male ( O→)
(B) Ribosomes (B) RNA only
sterility in plants is found to be
(C) Either DNA or RNA
(C) Enzymes controlled—
(D) Either proteins or nucleic
(D) All of the above (A) By plasmagenes only
acids
(B) By nuclear genes only
3. Natural selection is defined as 11. The ‘genic balance’ theory was (C) Either by plasmagenes or by
occurring when the environment proposed by— nuclear genes
causes— (A) Sutton and Boveri (D) None of the above
(A) Differential mortality (B) Bateson and Punnett
20. Chromosomes with median
(B) Assortative mating (C) Watson and Crick
centromere and equal arms are
(C) The bottleneck effect (D) Bridges called—
(D) Rapid gene flow 12. Genes not located within the (A) Metacentric
nucleus are almost always found (B) Telocentric
4. The embryo of Helianthus annuus in the—
bears— (C) Acrocentric
(A) Cell membrane (D) Submetacentric
(A) Many cotyledons (B) Cytoskeleton
21. Pollination by bat is called—
(B) Three cotyledons (C) Cytosol
(A) Ornithophily
(C) Two cotyledons (D) Organelles
(B) Malcophily
(D) One cotyledon 13. The root of the plants— (C) Chiropteriphily
5. The most complex cellular struc- (A) Goes down (D) Entomophily
tures are found in— (B) Forms intricate system in the 22. In all microbial cells the end-
(A) Protozoa (B) Bacteria soil products of biosynthesis is—
(C) Extensive system in the soil (A) Proteins
(C) Fungi (D) Algae
(D) Can perform all of the above (B) Nucleic acids
6. How many bases of nucleotide
triphosphate are joined to form 14. Sucrose, a common table sugar, (C) Both (A) and (B)
DNA polynucleotide chain ? is composed of— (D) None of the above
(A) Fructose + galactose 23. The pollinia are found in—
(A) Three (B) Two
(B) Glucose + fructose (A) Vallisneria, China-rose and
(C) One (D) None of these
(C) Glucose + galactose Guava
7. Which of these types of cells is (D) Fructose + fructose (B) Asclepias
most likely to divide ? (C) Calotropis procera
15. Role of mutation in evolution is—
(A) Epidermis (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Genetic drift
(B) Parenchyma 24. The mean annual temperature for
(B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Xylem tropical rain forest is—
(C) Genetic variation
(D) Meristem (A) 23—27°C (B) 80—90°C
(D) None of the above
8. Which of the following enzymes (C) 0—5°C (D) 5—15°C
16. In recombinant DNA (r DNA) tech-
joins DNA fragments ? 25. The movement of substance
nology, a plasmid vector must be
(A) Topoisomerase cleaved by— within a plant, i.e., from one part
(B) DNA ligase (A) Modified DNA ligase to another, is mainly by—
(C) DNA polymerase (B) The same enzyme that (A) Turgidity
(D) DNA gyrase cleaves the donor gene (B) Plasmolysis

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1024


(C) Diffusion pressure deficit (C) Ulothrix 43. The sporophyta of fern consists
(D) Diffusion (D) Chlamydomonas of—
(A) Leaf (B) Stem
26. Heteropolysaccharide contains— 35. The causal agent of ‘red rot of
sugarcane’ is— (C) Root (D) All of these
(A) Only two monosaccharide
units (A) Xanthomonas citri 44. If a new allele suddenly becomes
(B) No any monosaccharide unit (B) Colletotrichum falcatum very abundant in a population,
(C) Only one monosaccharide (C) Ustilago maydis most likely it is—
unit (A) Flowing with emigrants
(D) All of the above
(D) Two or more different mono- (B) A product of assortative
36. Water acts as excellent solvent mating
saccharide units and helps in the uptake and dis- (C) Mutating rapidly
27. NO2 is converted into NO 3 with tribution of mineral requirements
(D) Strongly selected for
the help of bacteria— and other solutes for—
(A) Nitrobacter (A) Growth 45. Spoilage of oil can be detected by
(B) Development which fatty acid ?
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Oleic acid
(C) Nitrosococcus
(D) None of the above (B) Linoleic acid
(D) All of the above
37. In rainy season, the surface of the (C) Linolenic acid
28. Artocarpus integrifolia belongs to
earth becomes slipping due to (D) Erucic acid
fruit—
growth of— 46. In ecosystem, energy enters
(A) Berry (B) Pome
(A) Fungi (B) Algae through—
(C) Sorosis (D) Syconus
(C) Mosses (D) Bacteria (A) Herbivores
29. Dermatogen is a tissue formed by
38. Most fossils are found in— (B) Carnivores
the apical meristem which deve-
lops into— (A) Granite (C) Omnivores
(A) Endodermis (B) Pericycle (B) Sedimentary rocks (D) None of the above
(C) Epidermis (D) Stele (C) Lava flows
47. What is the another term for
(D) Black soil
30. The term ‘ATP’ was coined by— adaptive evolution ?
(A) F. Lipmann 39. The effect of interspecific com- (A) Biopoiesis
petition on niches is to make (B) Microevolution
(B) F. A. Janssen
them—
(C) H. J. Muller (C) Population
(A) Smaller
(D) J. D. Watson (D) Geographic barrier
(B) Change location
31. Scales leaves are also called— (C) Larger 48. Anemophily, wind-pollination, is
(A) Sporophylls (B) Prophylls found in—
(D) More triangular
(C) Cataphylls (D) Hypsophylls (A) Poplar (B) Willow
40. Each molecule of FADH pro-
(C) Oak (D) All of these
32. If at the end of meiosis, the four duces—
daughter cells have four chromo- (A) Six molecules of ATP 49. Compound capitulum is found
somes, how many chromosomes (B) Four molecules of ATP in—
were in the mother cell ? (A) Echinops echinata
(C) Three molecules of ATP
(A) 8 (B) 16 (B) Cassia
(D) Two molecules of ATP
(C) 2 (D) 32 (C) Pyrus torminalis
41. Plants are killed at low tempera-
33. Which of the following is correct (D) All of the above
ture because—
regarding photosynthesis ? 50. Apospory is found in—
(A) Of cell protein precipitation
(A) It produces oxygen (A) Taraxacum albidum
(B) Desiccation occurs due to
(B) Provides food either directly the withdrawal of water from (B) Eupatorium glandolusum
or indirectly for most living vacuolated protoplasm (C) Both (A) and (B)
things
(C) Cell bursts due to mechani- (D) None of the above
(C) Provided energy to create cal pressure of ice or cold
today’s fossil fuels water
(D) All of the above ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(D) Of all of the above reasons
34. Which of the following genera 42. Which of the following kinds of
exhibits an alternation of genera- plant fixes carbon dioxide by way
tions with haploid and diploid of crassulacean acid meta-
multicellular phases ? bolism ?
(A) Volvox (A) Red alga (B) Cactus
(B) Ulva (C) Oak tree (D) Grass (Continued on Page 1034 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1025


(C) Taxonomists
(D) Embryologists
17. Which of the following disease is
caused in stem by the boron, a
trace element, deficiency ?
(A) Black necrosis of stem
1. RNA processing is— 9. Retting is a process by which
(B) Stem rot of Grapes
(A) The same as transcription bacteria bring about the—
(C) Red rot of stem
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) The rejection of old, wornout (D) All of the above
RNA (B) Separation of fibres of flax
and coconut 18. Which of the following plants
(C) An event that occurs after does not belong to the family
(C) Vitamin B 6 synthesis
RNA is transcribed Papilionaceae ?
(D) None of the above
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct (A) Phaseolus mungo
10. The small size of cells is best
2. The energy storage at consumer (B) Vigna sinensis
correlated with—
level is— (C) Crotolaria juncea
(A) An adequate surface area for
(A) Net productivity exchange of materials (D) Bauhinia variegata
(B) Net primary productivity (B) The fact they are self-repro- 19. The interconnected food chains
(C) Secondary productivity ducing are called—
(D) Gross primary productivity (C) Their prokaryotic versus (A) Food web
eukaryotic nature (B) Epigenesis
3. Floral leaves are also called— (C) Tropic level
(D) All of the above are correct
(A) Sporophylls (B) Prophylls (D) Pyramid of energy
(C) Cataphylls (D) Hypsophylls 11. Reininke described the connec-
tion between fungus and alga 20. The middle sterile part of moss
4. The rate of photosynthesis is as— capsule is called—
more in— (A) Protonema (B) Elaters
(A) Consortium
(A) Orange light (C) Columella (D) Foot
(B) Helotism
(B) Green light 21. Adaxial outgrowth from the base
(C) Red light (C) Symbiosis of the leaf of Selaginella is—
(D) Yellow light (D) Heterothallism (A) Trabecula (B) Velum
12. The sporophytic phase of Riccia (C) Stipule (D) Ligule
5. In Pinus the resin secreting cells
form one or two peripheral layers comprises— 22. Each sorus has a protective
that surround a schizogenously (A) Zygote covering called—
developed canal or duct in the— (B) Embryo (A) Scutellum
(A) Leaves (B) Tonoplast
(C) Sporogonium
(C) Indusium
(B) Stem (D) All of the above (D) Glossopodium
(C) Both (A) and (B)
13. The common name of Funaria, by 23. The transformation from a single
(D) Root which it is generally known, is— cell into an adult individual with
6. The proteins associated with (A) Bog moss (B) Green moss many different kinds of cells is
DNA in eukaryotic chromosomes (C) Peat moss (D) Pond moss called—
are synthesized during— 14. Which of the following is the most (A) Development
(A) S-stage (B) M-stage common monomer of carbo- (B) Adaptation
(C) G2-stage (D) G1-stage hydrate molecules ? (C) Inheritance
(A) Maltose (B) Amino acid (D) Evolution
7. When the stigma matures before
(C) Glucose (D) Phospholipid 24. The type of leaf of Mimosa
the anthers, this condition is
known as— 15. Biciliate antherozoids are found pudica is—
(A) Heterostyly (B) Dicliny in— (A) Decompound
(A) Rhizopus (B) Selaginella (B) Simple pinnate
(C) Protogyny (D) Protandry
(C) Spirogyra (D) Dryopteris (C) Simple palmate
8. Stem climber is found in— (D) Compound bipinnate
16. Biologists who study the
(A) Piper betle sequences of organisms in the 25. The first community to inhabit an
(B) Asparagus fossil record are— area is known as—
(C) Vitis (A) Palaeobiologists (A) Pioneer community
(D) All of the above (B) Systematists (B) Climax stage

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1026


(C) Consumer level 35. The activity of repressor depends 42. When a plant is not reproducing,
(D) Trophic level on whether— most of its cytokinins are repro-
(A) The repressor is positioned duced in its—
26. Allopatric but not sympatric
next to the operon (A) Lateral buds (B) Roots
speciation requires—
(B) There is enough RNA poly- (C) Shoot apex (D) Leaves
(A) Spontaneous differences in
merase present
males and females 43. Which of the following is/are the
(C) The repressor is positioned water pollutant ?
(B) Prior hybridization
next to the promoter (A) Aeroplanes
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) A key substance in the meta- (B) Smoke
(D) Geographic isolation bolic pathway is present (C) 2, 4-D and pesticides
27. Calvin cycle includes— (D) Automobile exhaust
36. Conjoint, collateral, closed and
(A) CO2 fixation scattered vascular bundles with 44. Passage cells are found in—
(B) CO2 reduction sclerenchymatous sheath are
(A) Pricycle
(C) Regeneration of ribulose characteristic of—
biphosphate (B) Exodermis, pith and peri-
(A) Monocot root
cycle
(D) All of the above (B) Monocot stem (C) Endodermis
28. The function of amyloplast is to— (C) Dicot root (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Store fat (D) Dicot stem
(B) Absorb water 45. The botanical name of ‘coral
37. Biologists who study the wood’ is—
(C) Store starch
sequence of organisms in the (A) Adenanthera pavorina
(D) Absorb light
fossil record are— (B) Aegle marmelos
29. Unconnected complex units of (C) Amaranthus spinosus
(A) Systematists
Golgi apparatus occurring in (D) Amaranthus tricolor
eukaryotic plant cells are termed (B) Taxonomists
46. A cell or an organism which
as— (C) Paleobiologists shows the effects of a mutation is
(A) Dictyosome (B) Pyrenoid (D) Radiologists called a—
(C) Microsome (D) Plastid (A) Mutant
38. When two mutations are located
30. Continuity of cytoplasm from cell in the same functional unit or in (B) Disinfectant
to cell is maintained through— different functional units is con- (C) Mutation
(A) Middle lamella firmed by— (D) Transformation
(B) Plasmodesmata
(A) Back cross 47. The antibiotic ‘Erythromycin’ is
(C) Nuclear pore obtained from—
(B) Test cross
(D) Nucleolus (A) Penicillium notatum
(C) Reciprocal cross
31. Wood fibres are sclerenchy- (B) Penicillium chrysogenum
matous fibres found in— (D) Complementation test
(C) Streptomyces griseus
(A) Phloem 39. Each chemical reaction in cellular (D) Streptomyces erytheraaeus
(B) Xylem respiration requires— 48. In older trees, the inner annual
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) A molecule of NAD rings are called—
(D) Cortex (A) Phloem
(B) A molecule of FAD
32. Substances obtained from micro- (C) A molecule of ATP (B) Heartwood
organisms and used to inhibit the (C) Sapwood
growth of other microorganisms (D) A specific enzyme
(D) All of the above
are— 40. Retting is a process by which 49. Mendelian recombinations are
(A) Antibodies (B) Antigens bacteria bring about the— due to—
(C) Antiseptics (D) Antibiotics (A) Nitrogen fixation (A) Mitosis
33. A fruit has got a wall or pericarp (B) Curdling of milk (B) Amitosis
which was the wall of the— (C) Synthesis of Vitamin B6 (C) Meiosis II
(A) Ovary (B) Stigma (D) Crossing-over
(D) Separation of fibres of
(C) Style (D) Stamen coconut, husk and flax 50. The point at which no more CO 2
can be taken up in C 4 plants is —
34. Which of the following is/are 41. Monocot leaves grow by means
timber yielding plant(s) ? of— (A) 450–950 ppm CO2
(A) Dalbergia sissoo (A) Intercalary meristem (B) 40–60 ppm CO2
(B) Desmodium gangetium (B) Apical meristem (C) 30–50 ppm CO2
(C) Vigna sinensis (C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above
(D) Erythrina variegata (D) All of the above (Continued on Page 1030 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1027


15. The condition in which there is
one to many or one to few chro-
mosomes are less than diploid
set is called—
(A) Monoploidy
(B) Aneuploidy
1. Interphase— 8. The ventral canal cell is present (C) Polyploidy
(A) Includes stages G1, S and G2 in— (D) Polytene
(B) Rarely occurs (A) Ginkgo 16. Mutations can be induced by—
(C) Is the same as prophase, (B) Pinus (A) Temperature
metaphase, anaphase and (C) Cycas (B) Radiation
telophase (D) All of the above (C) Chemicals
(D) Requires the use of polar (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is not an
fibres and kinetochore fibres
abiotic factor ? 17. The hypothesis that the early
2. Mitosis is the process by which (A) Water atmosphere, combined with an
eukaryotic cells— energy source, produced organic
(B) Blue-green alga
(A) Expose the genes for protein monomers was tested in 1953
(C) Soil
synthesis by—
(D) Air
(B) Grow (A) Fox and Pauling
(C) Become specialized in struc- 10. Which of the following tissues (B) Oparin and Haldane
ture and function conducts water and minerals up
(C) Curie and Pasteur
from the soil in vascular plants ?
(D) Multiply (D) Miller and Urey
(A) Phloem
3. What are the functions of micro- 18. A group of isodiametric cells with
(B) Xylem
tubules ? intercellular spaces must be—
(C) Both xylem and phloem
(A) Movement of cilia and (A) Collenchyma
flagella (D) None of the above
(B) Parenchyma
(B) Formation of spindle fibres 11. The offspring of better adapted (C) Sclerenchyma
(C) Both (A) and (B) individuals are expected to make (D) Prosenchyma
(D) None of the above a larger portion of the next gene-
19. ‘Emerson’s effect’ is associated
ration. Which of the following
with—
4. Which of the following are processes explains it well ?
archaebacteria ? (A) Green house effect
(A) Microevolution (B) Photosynthesis
(A) Pseudomonads (B) Genetic drift (C) Plant growth hormone
(B) Chlamydias (C) Gene population (D) Tropism
(C) Green sulphur (D) Natural selection 20. The clockwise shell coiling in
(D) Methanogens Limnaea is called—
12. The study of the distribution of
5. Hydrophytes generally lack— plants in the different parts of the (A) Sinistral
world and the factors responsible (B) Kappa
(A) Root caps
for it, is known as— (C) Dextral
(B) Leaves
(A) Climatology (D) Sinistral cleavage
(C) Stem
(B) Taxonomy 21. Phelloderm consists of—
(D) All of the above
(A) Collenchyma cells
6. Which of the following zones (C) Phytogeography
(B) Living parenchyma cells
is/are shown by a root tip ? (D) Morphology
(C) Dead parenchyma cells
(A) Cell division zone 13. Which of the following is not (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Maturation zone included in kingdom-protista ? 22. When the anthers mature before
(C) Elongation zone (A) Water molds (B) Slime molds the stigma, it is said to be—
(D) All of the above (A) Heterostyly (B) Protogyny
(C) Rhizopus (D) Algae
7. Blue-green algae which live in (C) Dicliny (D) Protandry
14. Which of the following groups of
protozoan association are 23. In terms of cells which of the
plants bear flowers ?
referred to as— following factors usually deter-
(A) Cyanellae (A) Thallophyta
mines water potential ?
(B) Phycobionts (B) Bryophyta
(A) Cell wall
(C) Mycobionts (C) Pteridophyta (B) Solute concentration across
(D) Linger groups (D) Spermatophyta a membrane

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1028


(C) Water pressure across a (C) Asparagus 41. Both the palisade and spongy
membrane (D) All of the above mesophylls of a leaf are made
(D) Both (B) and (C) of—
33. When the change from sol into
(A) Sclerenchyma cells
24. Lateral meristems are present gel is reversible, the colloid is
(B) Parenchyma cells
along the lateral sides of— called—
(C) Dermal cells
(A) Stem (A) Reversible colloid
(D) Collenchyma cells
(B) Root (B) Gelation
42. Myrmecophily is a beneficial
(C) Root cap (C) Solation
association between flowering
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) Suspension plants and—
25. The plants requiring longer expo- 34. The transverse section (T.S.) of (A) Ants
sure to light than their critical Boerhaavia stem shows— (B) Fungi
period, are called— (A) More or less circular outline (C) Mycoplasma
(A) Day-neutral plants (B) Uniseriate epidermis having (D) Bacteria and Viruses
(B) Long day plants stomata 43. Which of the following sources of
(C) Short day plants (C) The stele which includes vas- energy is virtually inexhaustible ?
(D) Both (B) and (C) cular bundles in three rings (A) Coal
26. Differentially permeable mem- (D) All of the above (B) Natural gas
branes allow the diffusion of— (C) Nuclear fusion
35. Circular DNA is found in—
(A) Solvent particles (D) Oil
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Solute particles
(B) Bacteria 44. Which of the following plants is
(C) Both solvent and solute
(C) Chloroplasts commonly known as spike moss ?
particles
(A) Equisetum (B) Dryopteris
(D) None of the above (D) All of the above
(C) Funaria (D) Selaginella
27. The trophic structure of an 36. Offset is found in—
45. Which of the following algae is/
ecosystem can be summarized in (A) Mint are not flagellated ?
the form of— (B) Potato (A) Volvax and Spirogyra
(A) Ecological pyramid
(C) Eichhornia (B) Dinoflagellates and Spirogyra
(B) Trophic level
(D) All of the above (C) Chlamydomonas and Volvox
(C) ATP formation
37. Which of the following do not (D) Spirogyra
(D) Sub-trophic level
have double bonds between their 46. A common phycobiont in lichen
28. The conducting elements of the
carbons ? is—
phloem are collectively known
as— (A) Unsaturated fatty acids (A) Microcystis
(A) Sieve cells (B) Saturated fatty acids (B) Trebouxia
(B) Phloem parenchyma (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Cetraria
(C) Sclereids (D) None of these (D) All of the above
(D) Sieve elements 38. In DNA replication, the helix 47. ‘Perforation theory’ for continuity
is unwind by which type of of life was proposed by—
29. The flower part that contains
ovule is the— enzyme ? (A) Swammerdan and Malpighi
(A) Stamen (B) Sepal (A) Helicase (B) Callan and Tomlin
(C) Carpel (D) Petal (C) Beadle and Tatum
(B) Topoisomerase
(D) Zinder and Lederberg
30. Which of the following plants gives (C) Primase
blackwood ? (D) DNA polymerase 48. In terms of cells which of the
(A) Dalbergia following factors usually deter-
39. Transgenic bacteria perform ser- mine water potential ?
(B) Albizia
vices in the field of— (A) Water pressure across a
(C) Acacia
(A) Mineral processing membrane
(D) None of the above
(B) Chemical production (B) Solute concentration across
31. ‘Tricarboxylic acid cycle’ was dis- a membrane
covered by— (C) Bioremediation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Krebs (B) Bent (D) All of the above
(D) Cell wall
(C) Houseleit (D) Blackman 40. Division of centromere occurs in—
49. The taxonomy of lichens is based
32. Phyllode is present in which of (A) Metaphase I mainly upon the character of
the following plants ? (B) Anaphase I the—
(A) Parkinsonia (C) Anaphase II (A) Fungal symbiont
(B) Citrus (D) Telophase I (B) Algal symbiont

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1029


(C) Cyanophycean symbiont
(D) None of the above
50. Environmental resistance—
(A) Helps determine the carrying
capacity
(B) Prevents exponential growth
from occurring
(C) Includes density in depen-
dent effects
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●
(Continued from Page 1027 )

ANSWERS WITH HINTS


●●●

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

By : Dr. Lal, Mishra & Kumar


Code No. 1624 Rs. 250/-
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1030


14. How many amino acids are
converted into α-ketoglutarate ?
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) Five (D) Six
15. Stilt roots are found in—
(A) Rice (B) Sugarcane
1. Centromere separate at which 7. Leaf tip tendrils are present in—
stage of meiosis— (C) Groundnut (D) Gram
(A) Smilax (B) Lathyrus
(A) Anaphase-I (C) Pisum (D) Gloriosa 16. The term synteny refers to—
(B) Anaphase-II (A) Genes that are located on
8. Water is drawn into root cells
the same chromosome,
(C) Metaphase-I because—
whether or not they show
(D) Prophase-I (A) They have the higher water recombination
potential
2. Sandwich model of plasma (B) Genes that are located on
membrane was proposed by— (B) They have the lower water the different chromosome,
potential whether or not they show
(A) Singer and Nicolson
(C) They have both essential recombination
(B) Robertson and beneficial inorganic
(C) Genetic loci that have been
(C) Gorter and Grendel nutrients
shown by recombination
(D) None of the above (D) All of the above studies to be in the same
3. Which one of the following is con- 9. Gyanobasic style is found in— chromosome
cerned with photo respiration ? (A) Labiatae (B) Gramineae (D) All of the above
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Liliaceae (D) Compositae 17. Young sporophyte of fern draws
(B) Dictysomes nourishment from prothallus
10. Plant growth toward or away through its—
(C) Peroxisomes from a directional stimulus is
(A) Foot (B) Haustorium
(D) Glyoxisomes called—
(C) Root (D) Rhizoids
4. Which of these gives a possible (A) Tropism
18. All demographic research begins
sequence of organic chemicals (B) Thigmotropism with a statistical treatment of
prior to the protocell ?
(C) Phototropism quantitative data on the popula-
(A) Inorganic gases, nucleo- tion, this is called—
tides, nucleic acids, genes (D) None of the above
(A) Mortality
(B) Inorganic gases, amino 11. In an embryo sac of a typical (B) Fertility
acids, polypeptide, micro- angiosperm there are— (C) Both (A) and (B)
sphere
(A) Egg, synergids and anti- (D) Demographic analysis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
podals
(D) Water, salts, protein, oxygen 19. DNA elements which can be
(B) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei switch their position are called—
5. Root hairs occur in the— and antipodals (A) Cistrons (B) Exons
(A) Root cap (C) Egg, synergids, central cell (C) Transposons (D) Introns
(B) Region of cell elongation and polar nuclei
20. Which one of the following plants
(C) Apical meristem (D) Egg, synergids and secon-
is called Shepherd’s purse ?
(D) Region of maturation dary wall
(A) Capsella bursa-pastoris
6. Which of these best shows that 12. Which of the following is/are
(B) Selaginella krausiana
fossil fuel ?
plant cells are totipotent ? (C) Hypericum uralum
(A) Oil
(A) Protoplasmic culture for the (D) Neottia
purpose of genetic enginee- (B) Coal
ring of plants (C) Natural gas 21. The chemical linking between
glycolysis and Kreb's cycle is—
(B) Leaf, stem, and root culture (D) All of the above are fossil
for the purpose of cell sus- fuels (A) Pyruvic acid
pension cultures (B) Citric acid
13. The special tissue include—
(C) A shoot culture for the pur- (C) Acetyl coenzyme A
(A) Scleroids
pose of micropropagation (D) Succinic acid
(B) Sclerenchyma
(D) Flower meristem culture for 22. Who among the following dis-
the purpose of somatic em- (C) Secretory tissues covered a simple procedure for
bryos (D) Collenchyma placing bacteria into either a

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1031


gram-negative class or a gram- 31. Sunken stomata are found in the 40. Between the bark and the wood
positive class ? leaves of— in a woody stem, there is a layer
(A) Carl Weigert (A) Nelumbium (B) Neem of meristem called—
(B) Joseph Lister (A) Apical meristem
(C) Maize (D) Nerium
(C) Spallanzani (B) The zone of cell division
32. Which of the following organs (C) Cork cambium
(D) None of the above
function as absorbing and (D) Vascular cambium
23. Which one of the following are attaching organs in bryophytes ?
initiator codons ? 41. The microbial conversion of
(A) Root hairs (B) Columella ammonia to nitrate is called as—
(A) UUU, UUC (B) UAA, UAG (C) Thallus (D) Rhizoids (A) Ammonification
(C) UGA, UAG (D) AUG, GUG (B) Nitrification
33. Which one of the following is
24. Opposite decussate phyllotaxy is (C) Denitrification
obtained from algae ?
found in— (D) Nitrogen fixation
(A) Chocolate (B) Wax
(A) Quisqualis 42. The outermost primary meristem
(C) Carragenin (D) Butter
(B) Calotropis gives rise to—
(C) Mangifera indica 34. Carrageenin is obtained from— (A) Epidermis
(D) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis (A) Red algae (B) Ground meristem
(B) Blue-green algae (C) Procambium
25. Richmond lang effect is shown (D) All of the above
by— (C) Green algae
43. Vascular strands in rhizome of
(A) Auxins (B) Gibberallins (D) Brown algae
Pteridium are—
(C) Kinetin (D) Sugars 35. A specialised multicellular struc- (A) Collateral open
26. In which of the following forms, ture in leaves which excretes (B) Bicollateral open
sugar is transported within the water droplets is— (C) Concentric amphivasal
body of a plant ? (A) Lenticel (D) Concentric amphicribral
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (B) Stomata 44. Available form of nitrogen to
(C) Glucose (D) Maltose (C) Hydathode plants is—
+
27. Which one of the following is a (D) Bordered pit (A) Ammonium (NH4 )

fungicide ? (B) Nitrate (NO3)
36. Caryophyllales include—
(A) 2, 4–D (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Wide variety of dicotyle-
(B) DDT (D) Atmospheric nitrogen
donous plants
(C) BHC (B) Wide variety of monocoty- 45. Petaloid staminode is seen in—
(D) Bordeaux mixture ledonous plants (A) Cassia (B) Solanum
(C) Caesalpinia (D) Canna
28. The element essential for IAA (C) Both (A) and (B)
synthesis is— (D) None of the above 46. Which one of the following is
usually absent in cortical cells ?
(A) Iron (B) Calcium 37. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the (A) Nucleolus
(C) Sodium (D) Zinc salt solution should be— (B) Nucleus
29. The correct definition of bio- (A) Isotonic (C) Nuclear membrane
sphere is— (B) Hypertonic (D) Chloroplast
(A) The earth and its atmos- (C) Hypotonic 47. Which one of the following pro-
phere which inhabit living (D) None of these vide food rich in carbohydrates ?
organism (A) Cruciferae
(B) All the living organism on the 38. Cell division requires that the (B) Leguminosae
earth genetic material be able to—
(C) Graminae
(C) All the plants on earth (A) Undergo rare mutations (D) Palmae
(D) All the animals on earth (B) Be replicated 48. Which one of the following is the
(C) Store information chief reason to consider that the
30. Any substance or mixture of
(D) All of the above protocell was probably a fermen-
substances which prevents,
ter ?
repels, destroys or mitigates any 39. In an ecosystem bacteria are
(A) Fermentation provides the
pest is known as— considered as—
most amount of energy
(A) Attenuation (A) Micro consumers
(B) It did not have any enzyme
(B) Epinasty (B) Macro consumers (C) The atmosphere did not
(C) Pesticide (C) Primary consumers have any oxygen
(D) Growth hormone (D) Secondary consumers (D) All of the above are correct

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1032


49. For each molecule of glucose -
respired, TCA cycle must rotate—
(A) Twice (B) Thrice
-
(C) Four times (D) Five times
50. Green algae occur in the form
of—
(A) Unicellular
(B) Multicellular
(C) Colonial
(D) All of the above
-
ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1033


In each of the following ques- 6. Assertion (A) : In a nuclear 12. Assertion (A) : Acetate ion is
tions, a statement of Assertion (A) reactor graphite is used to cap- more basic than formate ion.
is given and a corresponding state- ture neutrons. Reason (R) : The + I effect of
ment of Reason (R) is given just Reason (R) : Successive colli- methyl group in acetate ion inten-
below it. Of the statements, mark sions of neutrons with the gra- sifies electron density on oxygen
the correct answer as— phite nuclei result in loss of atom.
(A) If both A and R are true energy which slows the neutrons (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
and R is the correct expla- down.
nation of A (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 13. Assertion (A) : All the four
quantum numbers viz. n, l, m l and
(B) If both A and R are true but 7. Assertion (A) : The energy ms are derived from the solution
R is not the correct expla- stored in a coil of 50 mH on
of Schrodinger wave equation
nation of A passing 2A current is 0·2 J.
for hydrogen atom.
(C) If A is true but R is false 1
Reason (R) : E = LI2 Reason (R) : All the four quantum
2
(D) If both A and R are false numbers viz. n , l, m l and ms are
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(E) If A is false but R is true essential to designate each orbital
8. Assertion (A) : Energy levels of in an atom. These four quantum
PHYSICS an atom must have negative numbers also help to designate
values. the electron present in an orbital.
1. Assertion (A) : [M1L – 1T – 1] is Reason (R) : When detached
the dimensional formula of coeffi- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
from atom, an electron is at an
cient of viscosity. energy level of zero. When atta- 14. Assertion (A) : When CO2 gas is
Reason (R) : Coefficient of ched, energy is given off and so passed through a solution of
viscosity is force acting per unit the energy of electron is below Ca(OH)2 in water, the white pre-
area per unit velocity gradient. zero and is, therefore, negative. cipitate, initially formed, dis-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) solves.
9. Assertion (A) : Bulk modulus of Reason (R) : Calcium com-
2. Assertion (A) : Light can form
elasticity (K) represents incom- pounds are always soluble in
interference pattern.
pressibility of the material. basic solution.
Reason (R) : Light is a wave ΔP ,
Reason (R) : K = where (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
motion. ΔV/V
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) symbols have their usual mean- 15. Assertion (A) : The phenome-
ing. non of reverse osmosis is used
3. Assertion (A) : Graph between as a technique for desalination of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
potential energy of a spring ver- sea water.
sus the extension or compression 10. Assertion (A) : Room heaters
Reason (R) : Cellulose acetate is
(x ) of the spring is a straight line. and refrigerators lose most of
permeable to water and imperme-
Reason (R) : This is because their heat by convection.
able to impurities and ions pre-
potential energy is directly pro- Reason (R) : A hot surface heats
sent in sea water.
portional to x . the air next to it. The hot air
rises, to be replaced by cooler air (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
which then heats, and so on. 16. Assertion (A) : Phenoxide ion is
4. Assertion (A) : Red light pro- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) greatly stabilised by resonance
duces fringes of greater separa- as compared to ethoxide ion.
tion in comparison to blue light in CHEMISTRY Reason (R) : Ethoxide is a stron-
Young’s double slit experiment .
ger base than the phenoxide ion.
Reason (R) : Smaller slit separa- 11. Assertion (A) : Poly-hydroxy-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
tion produces greater fringe butyrate-co— β-Hydroxyvalerate
separation. (PHBV) is generally used in con- 17. Assertion (A) : A catalyst speeds
trolled drug release in the stom- up the forward reaction and re-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ach of patient. tards the reverse reaction thereby
5. Assertion (A) : The shape of a Reason (R) : When drug is put in increasing the value of K eq.
liquid drop is spherical. a capsule of PHBV, it is released Reason (R) : A catalyst functions
Reason (R) : The pressure inside only after the polymer is de- by lowering the energy of activa-
the drop is greater than that graded because PHBV is a bio- tion which in turn makes the rate
outside. degradable polymer. constant larger.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1035


18. Assertion (A) : All the C == C 24. Assertion (A) : Restriction 30. Assertion (A) : During protein
bonds in organic molecules are enzymes are necessary for the catabolism, proteins are broken
capable of showing geometrical preparation of recombinant DNA. down to amino acids which lose
isomerism. Reason (R) : Because restriction their amino group.
Reason (R) : The rotation enzymes are not used to cleave Reason (R) : Protein anabolism
around C —— C bond is restricted. plasmid DNA. consists of protein synthesis and
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) the synthesis of non-essential
amino acids.
19. Assertion (A) : Magnesium hy- 25. Assertion (A) : Proteins and RNA
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
droxide, magnesium carbonate, are synthesized in G2 phase.
magnesium trisilicate, aluminium
hydroxide gel, sodium bicarbo-
Reason (R) : Z-DNA has right BOTANY
handed coiling.
nate and aluminium phosphate
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 31. Assertion (A) : Green algae live
are commonly used as antacids.
in the ocean but are more likely
Reason (R) : Acid Gastritis is one 26. Assertion (A) : Morphogenesis found in fresh water.
of the commonest ailments asso- is the change in shape of the
Reason (R) : Green algae are
ciated with digestion and it is embryo.
believed to be closely related to
caused by excess of hydrochloric Reason (R) : Differentiation is the first plants because both of
acid in the gastric juice. the specialization of cell structure these groups have a cell wall that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and function as some genes are contains cellulose.
20. Assertion (A) : The copper rod turned on and others off.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
turns the colourless solution of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
zinc sulphate to light blue. 32. Assertion (A) : A few molecules
27. Assertion (A) : The pitch of the
of enzyme may provide reacting
Reason (R) : Zinc reduces sound is perceived by the position
surface to a large number of subs-
copper(II) ions to metallic copper. of the phonoreceptors in the
trate molecules.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) cochlear duct.
Reason (R) : The size of enzyme
Reason (R) : The loudness of the
ZOOLOGY molecules is far larger than the
sound is encoded in frequency of
substrate molecules.
action potential and the number
21. Assertion (A) : Coenzymes is a of phenoreceptors stimulated. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
non-protein group without which
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 33. Assertion (A) : The evolution of
certain enzymes are incomplete
molecular oxygen is associated
or inactive. 28. Assertion (A) : Temperatures in
with photosystem-II during photo-
Reason (R) : Coenzymes not the scrotum are about 2° to 3° C synthesis.
only provide a point attachment cooler than those in abdomen,
for the chemical group being and this is important for the survi- Reason (R) : Photosystem-I is
transformed but also influences val of the temperature-sensitive not involved in evolution of mole-
properties of the group. sperm. cular oxygen.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : In the wall of scro- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
tum, there is a layer of smooth 34. Assertion (A) : Viruses that
22. Assertion (A) : Organic nutrients
muscle, the dartos muscle, which infect bacteria (bacteriophages)
increase plant growth and lead to
responds to changing tempera- are another type of vector.
eutrophication, has tening con-
tures. In the cold, this muscle
version of wetlands to dry land, Reason (R) : Scientists can
contracts and the testes are
as part of primary succession. manipulate them so that they
drawn closer to the abdomen for
transport genetic material but do
Reason (R) : Inorganic nutrients warmth, while heat causes the
not cause diseases.
increase bacterial activity in muscle to relax and the testes
water, which reduces oxygen descend further for cooling. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
concentration and thus the ability (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 35. Assertion (A) : The venus’s fly-
of water to support other life. trap leaves do not interlock.
29. Assertion (A) : Carotid body is
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : Because sensitive
small neurovascular structure
hairs are not found in this plant.
23. Assertion (A) : DNA code is near branch of internal and exter-
copied in the synthesis of transfer nal carotids and supplied by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
RNA. vagus and glossopharyngeal 36. Assertion (A) : Plasmids are
Reason (R) : Transfer RNA nerves. extrachromosomal single-stran-
moves out of the nucleus and Reason (R) : They are sensitive ded DNA.
after attaching on the ribosomes, to oxygen content of blood and Reason (R) : Only eukaryotic
forms the template. assisting in homeostatic reflex. cells possess plasmids.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1036


37. Assertion (A) : Fermentation Reason (R) : Each species has a 40. Assertion (A) : The two hydro-
differentiates green variety of tea characteristic chromosome num- gen atoms and one oxygen atom
from black variety of tea. bers. of water (H 2O) are held together
Reason (R) : In tea, the tannin is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) by polar covalent bonds.
partly oxidised and the leaf
39. Assertion (A) : A non-over-
changes colour and turns bright Reason (R) : Because the
lapping code means that a base
coppery red. This happens during oxygen attracts the negatively
in an mRNA is not used for
fermentation.
different codons. charged hydrogen electrons
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
38. Assertion (A) : When the chro- Reason (R) : In translating m RNA more strongly than the hydrogen
mosomes are highly coiled and molecules the codons do not nuclei do.
condensed during cell division, it overlap but are read sequentially.
is impossible to count them. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1037


14. No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a
Physics steady current when suspended freely in a uniform
magnetic field.
1. The ratio of maximum acceleration to the maximum —T/F
displacement of a particle performing S.H.M. is equal
15. A thick rope can not be stretched perfectly horizontal.
to angular velocity.
—T/F
—T/F
2. The earth moving around the sun in a circular orbit is
acted upon by a force and hence work must be done
Chemistry
to earth by this force.
16. When pressure (P) and temperature (T) of a gas are
—T/F 1
constant, its volume, V ∝ .
3. Mercury thermometers can be used to measure n
temperatures upto 500°C. (given B.P. of mercury —T/F
= 367°C) 17. In the van der Waals equation, constant ‘a ’ reflects
—T/F actual volume of one mole of gaseous molecules.
—T/F
4. Coefficient of frictional force is expressed in newton.
18. Density of methane gas (CH 4) at 20°C and 6 atm
—T/F
pressure will be equal to 3·99 g/L.
5. The average kinetic energy of 1 gm of all ideal gases
—T/F
at the same temperature is the same.
19. In a given electrical field beta particles (β) are
—T/F
deflected more than alpha (α) particles, though α
6. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a pond.
particles have larger charge.
If the man drinks some water from the pond, the level
of water in the pond decreases. —T/F
—T/F 20. The sum of the formal charges on all atoms of a mole-
cule or ion equals the charge on the species.
7. On a winter night we feel warmer when clouds cover
—T/F
the sky than when the sky is clear.
21. The dependence of electrode potential for an
—T/F
electrode Mn +/M with a concentration under STP is
8. In Young double slit experiment performed with a expressed as
source of white light, only black and white fringes are 0·0591
observed. E = E° + log [Mn+]
n
—T/F —T/F
9. A diver in a lake wants to signal to a person lying on 22. Sulphur dioxide (SO 2) is a polar molecule while car-
the edge of the pool. He should beam his water proof bondioxide (CO 2) is non-polar in nature.
flash light vertically upwards. —T/F
—T/F 23. The addition of water to acetylene is catalysed by
10. The root mean square speeds of the molecules of Ni/H2.
different ideal gases, maintained at the same tem- —T/F
perature, are same. 24. sp 2 hybridized orbitals form stronger bond than sp
—T/F hybridized orbitals.
11. Sun glasses which have a curved surfaces have no —T/F
power. 25. The heat content of reactants is less than the heat
—T/F contents of products in an endothermic reaction.
12. The γ-decay generally occurs after the α or the β —T/F
decay. 26. The pH of 10 ml 5 × 10– 4 M H2SO4 solution changes
—T/F from 3 to 5 when it is diluted to 1 litre.
13. It is possible to eliminate dispersion by combining two —T/F
prisms of same refracting angles and of different 27. The species CH3+ has isoelectronic structure with
materials. H3O+.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1038


28. Amino methane on treatment with sodium nitrile and 44. Nematodes are pseudocoelomates.
HCl produces a diazonium salt at 0°C. —T/F
—T/F 45. Cyclic AMP is a second messenger within cells.
29. The dipole moment corresponding to 100% ionic —T/F
character of KCl will have different value when
compared with value of actual dipole moment of KCl.
—T/F
Botany
30. The product obtained by heating phenol with zinc
dust, when treated with CH3Cl/anhydrous AlCl3, ortho 46. The central core of an axis is called a cambium.
and para hydroxy toluene are formed. —T/F
—T/F 47. Transpiration of a plant increases with its total leaf
surface area.
Zoology —T/F
48. Cynellae is the term used for algae present in proto-
31. Lactose is monosaccharide that contains galactose zoa.
and fructose.
—T/F
—T/F
49. Lesion most commonly induced by ultraviolet
32. Opsonin is a kind of antigen.
radiation is called a spot.
—T/F
—T/F
33. The first menstrual cycle is called menarche and the
end of menstrual cycle is called menopause. 50. Green pigment for capturing of sunlight is located on
the cell wall.
—T/F
—T/F
34. Spontaneous mutations in germ cells alter allele fre-
quencies and reintroduce harmful alleles into popula- 51. Lichens imperfecti is a class of the lichens containing
tion. species with no known method of sexual reproduction.
—T/F —T/F
35. A male human who suffers from sex-linked trait is 52. A plant cell has the potential to develop into entire
homozygous. plant body.
—T/F —T/F
36. The initiating hormones for the menstrual cycle arise 53. The two subunits of 80S ribosomes are 50S and 30S.
in the hypothalamus.
—T/F
—T/F
54. The common form of bacteria occurring in groups but
37. Plasmagene is a gene contained in a self-reflecting not more than two is called Streptobacillus.
cytoplasmic particle and inheritance of the characters
are controlled by such genes is Mendelian. —T/F

—T/F 55. Whittaker suggested a five-kingdom system that has


become widely accepted.
38. Peyer’s patches are aggregation of lymph nodes
found chiefly in the ileum near junction with the colon. —T/F

—T/F 56. Phospholipid is more abundant in cell membrane.

39. Intestinal microorganisms are capable of synthesizing —T/F


considerable amounts of phylloquinone and 57. Ribosomes are large particles composed of proteins
metaquinone vitamins. and carbohydrates but no r RNA.
—T/F —T/F
40. The coxal glands of scorpion are homologous with the 58. Evidence suggests that there is a ‘clock’ running
green glands of crustaceans. inside the cells or organs, determining how long they
—T/F live.
41. Planula is solid free-swimming ciliated larva of most —T/F
cnidaria and a few of the ctenophores. 59. Darwin’s geological observations were consistent with
—T/F those of Hutton and Lyell.
42. Enterogastrone in hibits the secretion of enterocrinin. —T/F
—T/F 60. Germplasm is the sum total of all the alleles of the
43. Planarians are free-living Turbellarians. genes.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1039


Physics external force applied on the body to refractive index to a medium of lower
the magnitude of acceleration pro- refractive index. At the critical angle
Q. What are the rules for
counting the significant figures ?
()
duced in it, i.e., a =
F
m
(θ c ), the refrected ray just grazes the
boundary between the two media.
☞ Rule I : All non zero digits are Properties of inertial mass : Using Snell’s law we get
significant. (i) It is proportional to the
Rule II : All zeros occurring bet- quantity of matter present in the body.
ween the non zero digits are signifi- (ii) It is independent of shape,
cant. For example 230089 contains size and state of the body.
six significant figures. (iii) It increases as the speed of
Rule III : All zeros to the left of body increases : If m 0 be the rest
non zero digits are not significant. For mass of the body and c be the speed
example, 0·0023 contains two signifi- of light then μ1 sin θc = μ2 sin 90°
cant figures.
m0 μ2
Rule IV : All zeros to the right of m = θ c = sin –1
non zero digits are significant. For
example, 23·000 as well as 23000 ( )
1–
v2
c2
μ1
For an angle of incidence greater
contain five significant figures. Gravitational mass—Mass of
Q. What is polygon law of than θc the light is totally reflected
the material of the body which is
vector addition ? back into the medium of higher
determined by gravitational pull acting
☞ (i) If a number of vectors refractive index. This phenomenon is
on it, is called as gravitational mass,
acting at a point be represented both called total internal reflection.
i.e.,
in magnitude and direction by the FR2 Q. In a transistor, the emitter is
sides of a closed polygon taken in m = always forward-biased but the
GM
order, then the resultant of these collector is reverse biased. Why ?
Inertial and gravitational masses
vector is a null vector.
are equivalent. However the defini- ☞ The forward bias of the emitter
(ii) If n vectors are arranged such of transistor forces the charge carriers
tions are independent of each other
that each one is making an angle to cross the junction. So the current
and two masses differ in the methods
2π/n with the preceding vector, then flows in the transistor. If the emitter is
of their measurement.
the resultant of these vectors is equal reverse biased, there will be practi-
to zero. Q. What is law of equipartition
cally no current because the majority
Q. What is unit force ? of energy ?
charge carriers will be prevented from
☞ It is defined as the force which ☞ According to the law of Equi- crossing the emitter junction.
changes the momentum of a body by partition of energy, the total kinetic
energy of a dynamical system con- The reverse bias of the collector
unity in unit time. According to this—
helps in fast collection of the charge
→ sisting of a large number of particles
→ dP d → is equally distributed among its carriers from the base region. Thus,
F = = (m v ) the reverse bias of the collector helps
dt dt degrees of freedom. We know that
→ average K.E. of translation of a mole- to reduce the recombination rate in
d v → dm the bias region.
= m.
dt
+ v.
dt cule of perfect gas is ( )3
2
. k T and the Q. Why a common emitter tran-
If the mass of the system is finite molecule has three degrees of free- sistor amplifier is preferred to a
and remains constant w.r.t. time, then dom. Hence, the average kinetic common base transistor amplifier ?

( )
dm
dt
= 0 and energy associated with each degree ☞ This is because the current



dv →
of freedom is ( ) 1
2
. kT . Here k is
gain of common emitter transistor
amplifier is much higher as compared
R to that of a common base transistor
F = m =ma Boltzmann constant, k = = 1·38 ×
dt N amplifier.
→ → 10–23 JK– 1 per molecule R = Gas Q. The magnetic field at the
(P2 – P1) constant and N = Avogadro’s number. centre of a current-carrying cube
=
t Q. What is total internal reflec- made of twelve wires is zero. Do
Q. What are inertial and gravi- tion ? you know why ?
tational masses ? ☞ The phenomenon of total ☞ A current-carrying cube of 12
☞ Inertial mass—It is defined internal reflection occurs when light wires can be regarded as a set of six
as the ratio of the magnitude of travels from a medium of higher current-carrying pairs. The contribu-

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1041


tion of each pair is zero. So the net ☞ In the ground state of hydro- They travel at the speed of light ( c).
magnetic field induction at the centre gen atom, an electron occupies the They differ however, in their frequen-
of the cube is zero (see figure). lowest energy level. When the atom is cies and wavelengths. The product of
excited, the electron jumps to some frequency and wavelength of electro-
higher energy level. But within 10– 8 magnetic radiation is always equal to
second the electron jumps to the the speed of light (c ).
lowest energy level. However, it may
νλ = c
so happen that the electron jumps
from higher energy level to some As a result, electromagnetic
lower energy level and then to the radiation that has long wavelength
lowest energy level. When an electron has low frequency and a radiation
jumps from higher energy level to with high frequency has short wave-
Q. Doppler effect in light is lower energy level, a spectral line is length.
symmetrical but the same effect in emitted. Since a large number of Q. Fahrenheit and Celsius
sound is asymmetrical. Explain. energy levels are available, therefore, scales of temperature converge at
☞ Whether source of light is a large number of electron-transitions –40°° .
are possible. This explains why the ☞ The temperature at which two
receding from the observer or the
spectrum of hydrogen atom contains a
observer is receding from the source, scales reach zero is not the same;
large number of lines.
both situations are physically identical zero on Celsius scale is equivalent to
and show exactly the same Doppler Chemistry 32°F. To convert from Celsius to
frequency. So the Doppler effect in Fahrenheit we, therefore, have to
light is symmetrical. On the other Q. What is doctor solution ? multiply by 9/5 and then add 32°.
hand, the source of sound receding ☞ An alkaline solution of sodium 9
from the observer or the observer is T°F = T + 32
plumbite containing sulphur is known 5 °C
receding from the source of sound are as doctor solution. It is used in This equation can be rearrange
different physical situations. So they preparation of disulphides from thiols. to convert from Fahrenheit to Celsius
would show different Doppler fre-
2RSH + Na2PbO2 + S → 5
quency. Thus, Doppler effect in sound T°C = [T – 32]
144243 9 °F
is asymmetrical.
R–S–S–R + PbS + 2NaOH It does not matter in which direc-
Q. What do you mean by Diallyl disulphide (CH2––CH–CH2–)2S2, tion we try to do the conversion, from
‘atomicity of electricity’ ?
occurs in garlic. °C to °F or vice-versa, – 40°F is equal
☞ This is just another name for
Q. What are important charac- to – 40°C.
quantisation of charge. The charge
teristics of resonating structures of
carried by a body is always an integral Q. What is the mass of a
a molecule ?
multiple of the fundamental charge of single atom of 12C in grams and
☞ Resonance structures of a
1·6 × 10–19 C. the number of grams per amu ?
molecule must have an identical
Q. Why is the value of specific ☞ We know the fact that a mole
arrangement of atoms, nearly same
charge not constant for positive of 12C has mass of exactly 12 gram.
energy content, same number of lone
rays ? We then construct a unit factor based
pairs of electrons. However, they do
☞ The positive rays consist of on the fact that a mole of any subs-
not have identical bonding in them.
ions of different isotopes of the gas in tance contains 6·022 × 1023 atom.
the discharge tube. The ions may Q. What is the charge on one
12·00 g 12C 1 mol C
have the same electric charge. How- mole of electrons ? ×
☞ The charge on one electron is
1 mol C 6·022 × 1023 atom
ever, masses of different isotopes are
different. Consequently, the value of 1·6021892 × 10–19 coulomb. We know = 1·993 × 10–23 g/atom
e that one mole of electrons = 6·022045 The number of grams per amu
charge to mass ratio, i.e., is not
m × 1023 electrons. Hence, the charge 1·993 × 10–23 g
constant. on one mole of electrons is = = 1·661 × 10 –24 g
Q. What is the basic principle 12·00 amu
1·6021892 × 10–19 × 6·022045 × 1023
of electron microscope ? Q. What will be the value of
☞ It is based on de-Broglie = 96,484·56 coulomb. ideal gas constant, R, if exactly
hypothesis. A beam of accelerated The value 96,484·56 C/mol is known 1 mol of an ideal gas occupies a
electrons behaves like a wave. This as Faraday’s constant. volume of 22·414 litre at 0°° C and
wave can be handled by electric and Q. Why the product of fre- 1 atom pressure ?
magnetic fields in exactly the same quency and wavelength of infrared ☞ According to ideal gas law,
way as electromagentic waves can be and ultraviolet radiations is always the product of pressure and volume
handled by lenses. same ? of an ideal gas divided by the product
Q. A hydrogen atom contains ☞ The electromagnetic spectrum of amount of gas (moles) and abso-
only one electron, but the spectrum includes radio and TV waves. micro- lute temperature is a constant
of hydrogen atom has many lines. waves, infrared, visible light, ultra- PV
violet, X-rays, γ-rays and cosmic rays. = R
Do you know why ? nTK

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1042


We can calculate the value of R with its method of preparation. It is Zoology
for any set of units of P, V, n and T by soluble in water and is used as a
simply substituting the known values colouring material for foodstuffs and Q. What are good and bad
1·0 atom × 22·414 L drinks. cholesterol ?
Q. What is the difference bet- ☞ In human blood, cholesterol is
1·0 mol × 273·15 K
ween nucleophilicity and basicity ? carried by special proteins, the lipo-
= 0·082057 L-atm/mol-K ☞ The nucleophilicity is defined proteins, which are manufactured in
Q. Would H2O2 behave as the liver. Two classes of these chole-
as a reaction of a nucleophile (: Nu –)
oxidant or reductant with respect to sterol–containing lipoproteins are
with electrophilic carbon atom and it significant for the heart and blood
couple Fe3+/Fe2+ at standard con- influences the rate of reaction as vessels. Low density lipoproteins
centration ? reflected by rate constant kr. (LDL) contain triglyceride and chole-
☞ We know that H2O2 can act | | sterol. If cells are in need of chole-
kr
both as oxidant and reductant. Follow- : Nu – + C : X ⎯→ Nu— C + + X– sterol for plasma membranes or
ing reactions occur with respect to steroid hormone synthesis, they take
Fe 3+/Fe2+ couple. The basicity of a base (: B–) is
up LDL. If this process does not
Fe 3+ + e – → Fe 2+ ; occur, the LDL loaded with chole-
the ability to remove H+ from an acid sterol remain in the plasma and
E° = 0·771 V as is represented by equilibrium deposition of cholesterol as plaques
constant kb.
2Fe 3+ + H2O2 → 2Fe 2+ + O2 + 2H +; becomes possible. High density
k eq lipoproteins (HDL) are the second
E° = 0·02 V : B– + H : A B : H + : A– group of lipoproteins. HDL picks up
Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e –; The basicity of a nucleophile cholesterol from cells and transports
E° = – 0·771 V it to the liver for disposal. The liver
determines the equilibrium of a reac-
releases the excess cholesterol with
2Fe 2+ + H 2O2 + 2H + → 2Fe3+ + 2H2O; tion while nucleophilicity the kinetics. the bile into the small intestine. It has
E° = 1·00 V Remember that : been found that higher HDL levels
(a) Bases are better nucleophiles are associated with a fewer risk of
Since both potentials are positive,
H2O2 will act as an oxidant and reduc- than their conjugate acids : developing atherosclerosis, while
.. .. high LDL levels are associated with a
tant. HO –
. . : >> H2O : higher risk. That is why HDL has
In fact, iron(II) or iron(III) salts .. been called ‘good’ cholesterol and
catalyse self-oxidation-reduction of and H2 N: – >> : NH3 LDL ‘bad’ cholesterol. LDL levels
H2O2. (b) From left to right in a period below 130 milligrams per decilitre and
Q. Why do cyanic acid and iso- both basicity and nucleophilicity HDL levels above 40 mg/dl are consi-
cyanic acid have the same conju- decrease dered desirable.
gate base ? .. .. Q. How do the digestive tracts
..
H3C:– > H2 N: – > HO – – of carnivores differ from those of
☞ N ≡ C—OH is cyanic acid and . . : > : .F. :
hervivores ?
HN = C —
— O is isocyanic acid. (c) In going down the group ☞ Animal meat requires more
nucleophility increases and basicity
The conjugate bases of each acid storage and less processing than
decreases.
are contributing structures of same plant materials. The teeth of a carni-
.. .. .. ..
resonance hybrid, i.e., the resonance : .F. : – < : Cl – – – vore are pointed and sharp for killing
. . : < : Br
. . : < : .I . :
structures of both conjugate bases of its prey and tearing it into pieces
(Nucleophility)
both acids have same hybrid struc- small enough to swallow. Animal
.. .. .. ..
ture. : .F. : – > : Cl – – – meat does not require chewing. The
. . : > : Br
. . : > : .I . :
.. – H+
teeth of a herbivore, by contrast, are
(Basicity)
H:N — —C— — O ⎯→ flat for crushing and grinding plant
Q. Why is the following general
.–. .. .. materials. A mammal cannot digest
reaction,
:N— — O ←→ N ≡ C—O
—C— . .:
– cellulose and so derives no nutrients
R—Cl + R′′ –ONa → R—O—R′′ + NaCl from plant materials unless the cell
..
catalysed by a trace amount of walls are ruptured by chewing. A
. . —C ≡ N
H:O
NaI ? carnivore has a large stomach for
– H+ .–. ..
☞ In the presence of NaI, the
⎯→ : O . . —C ≡ N ←→ O —
— C = N: – food storage, since it eats large and
overall reaction occurs in two steps, infrequent meals. An herbivore has a
Both have hybrid structure each of which is faster than, uncata- smaller stomach because it eats
δ– δ–

: N ˙˙˙
— C˙˙˙
—.O. : lysed reaction. smaller amounts of food more fre-
Hence conjugate base is same in (I) R—Cl + I– → R—I + Cl– quently. Most digestion and all
This step is faster because I– is a absorption of food take place in small
both cases.
soft base and has more nucleo- intestine and a carnivore, whose food
Q. What is the caramel ? requires less processing has a
philicity than OR –, a hard base.
☞ A brown substance obtained shorter small intestine than an herbi-
by heating cane sugar or other carbo- (II) R—I + R′O– : → R–O–R′ + I– vore, whose food requires extensive
hydrate materials. Its chemical nature This step is faster because I – processing, has a longer small intes-
is not exactly known. Its reactions vary is a better leaving group than Cl –. tine.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1043


Q. What is sodium pump ? hours, the bacteria will have time to peratures, not necessarily freezing
☞ Sodium pump is active trans- grow, producing and releasing harmful improves the quantity of the root by
port mechanism present in plasma quantities of toxin. When ingested with favouring the conversion of starch to
membranes of most animal cells, con- food, the toxin irritates the gastroin- sugar.
suming an estimated third of a cell’s testinal tract, causing vomiting, Q. What do you mean by rhizo-
ATP production in pumping sodium nausea and diarrhoea. This causes sphere ? What are its effects on
ions (Na+) out of the cell and potas- staph food poisoning. plants ?
sium ions (K+) into it in the ratio 3 : 2. ☞ Rhizosphere is the soil region
As a result of its (electrogenic) role in Botany subject to the influence of plant roots.
the establishment of a cell’s resting It is characterized by a zone of
potential this pump serves to regulate Q. How are monosaccharides increased microbiological activity and
cell volume by casting out Na+ which formed from polysaccharides ? is an example of the relationship of
would tend to enter along its electro- ☞ Polysaccharides are broken soil microbes to higher plants.
chemical gradient, adding to the down into their monosaccharide com- At the roof surface the rhizo-
negative osmotic potential of the cell ponents by hydrolysis. This process sphere effect is most intense, falling
and drawing water in. The cell’s is essentially reverse of dehydration off sharply with increasing distance.
internal electrical negativity prevents synthesis : each bond between In the rhizosphere there are more
ions (Cl–) from entering and having monomers is broken and a molecule microorganisms than in soil distant
the same effect. The pump is blocked of water is added to form the original from the plant. The rhizosphere effect
by external ouabain, and animal cell monosaccharides. This process is is seen in seedling plants; it increases
may, therefore, swell or burst if this or essential for use of sugars by cells; with the age of the plant and usually
other inhibitors of ATP synthesis or starch and glycogen must be broken reaches a maximum at the stage of
hydrolysis are added. It is indirectly down into monomers (glucose) before greatest vegetative growth.
responsible for glucose and amino their energy is available for cellular Q. What do you mean by intra-
acid uptake by cells since it creates a work. specific competition ?
sodium gradient necessary for Na+- Q. Why is CO2 commonly ☞ Intraspecific competition is the
based symports. known as green house gas ? competition occurring between mem-
Q. What is Transduction ? ☞ Since CO2 is confined exclu- bers of the same species. It is likely to
☞ Transduction is process in sively to the troposphere, its higher be intense because individuals will
which usually a bacteriophage picks concentration may act as a serious tend to share requirements for the
up DNA from one bacterial cell and pollutant. Although CO2 is a minor same resources. Although there may
carries it to another, when the DNA component (about 0·0314%) of the be age differences in resource require-
fragment may become incorporated atmosphere, it plays a significant role ments or sex differences. By depress-
into the bacterial host’s genome. Two by absorbing radiant heat, catching ing the fitness of individuals in crowded
basic types : (a) generalized trans- much like the glass of a green house. populations, it influences both pro-
duction, where the phage DNA- That’s why we often term CO2 and cesses like mortality and fecundity,
packaging mechanism picks up ‘by other heat-trapping gases as green and hence regulates population size,
mistake’ any phagesized fragment of house gases. And we call the warm- leading to behavioural adaptations to
chromosomal DNA, which can be ing caused by these gases the green overcome the competition, such as
integrated by homologous recombi- house effect. territoriality and dispersal.
nation into the recipient genome after Q. What do you mean by Q. What is oregano or marjo-
injection into the cell by the phage Enterobacter ? ram ? What are its important chrac-
apparatus, (b) specialized tranduction ☞ Enterobacter is a genus of teristics ?
in which on induction, integrated phage bacteria, formerly called Aerobacter. ☞ Oregano (marjoram) is a herb.
DNA genome is imprecisely excised Its members are motile, ferment lac- The dried leaves of several aromatic
from the chromosome, carrying adja- tose, form gas from glucose, decar- plants are known as oregano. Thus
cent chromosomal DNA with it; since boxylate ornithine and utilize citrate, oregano is a common name for a
the phage is generally integrated at a but do not produce indole or hydro- general flavour and aroma rather than
specific site in the chromosome, only gen sulphide. The two recognized the name of a specific plant.
a few bacterial genes can be trans- species, Enterobacter cloacae and E. An European oregano (origanum
duced this way. aerogenes , are widely distributed in vulgare) and Greek oregano (Origa-
Q. What is Staph Food Poison- nature (sewage, soil and water num hervacleoticum) are both in the
ing ? sources) and are also found in human mint family Laminaceae. Euporopean
☞ Staph food poisoning, once and animal feces. A few species oregano can be distinguished by its
known as ptomaine poisoning, results Enterobacter agglomerans has been strong piquant character and tall
from toxins produced by staphylococ- proposed for strains formerly assig- growth with dark, broad leaves; it is a
cus bacteria growing on food. These ned to the genus Erwinia. perennial erect herb, 2-3 feet tall with
bacteria can be part of the normal Q. What is parsnip ? What are pubescent stem, ovate, dark green
flora of the nasal passage but can its importance ? leaves and white or purple flowers.
☞ Parsnip (Pastinaca sativa) is a Mexican oregano is obtained from
also cause boils, pimples and other
plants of Lippia graveolens.
skin infections. Therefore, sneezing hardy biennial plant of mediterranean
Dried oregano leaves are used as
and coughing on food and preparing origin. It belongs to plant order—
a culinary herb in meat and sausage
food with unprotected hands can lead Umbellales. The parsnip is grown for products, soup and salads. The
to the deposition of millions of staph its thickened taproot and is used essential oil of oregano is used in food
bacteria. If such contaminated food primarily as a cooked vegetable. products, cosmetics and liqueurs.
remains at room temperature for few Exposure of mature roots to low tem- ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1044


According to the rules of the CSV
Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.

PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Vijay Kumar
New Medicare
L. B. Palace Kadamkuan, Patna
Bihar–800 003
Second Prize
Gagandeep Singh
C/o Dayaram Verma
L-971 Shastri Nagar, Meerut
U.P.–250 004
Third Prize
Ravi Jaiswal
C/o Gaurav Jaiswal
Room No. 88, A. N. Jha Hostel,
University of Allahabad, Allahabad
U.P.–211 002

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1045


1. A block of mass m = 2 kg is kept 6. The reagent not used in the (C) Mitochondria and 9 + 2
at the floor of an elevator. The chloromethylation of benzene is— arrangement of microtubules
elevator is suddenly pulled down (A) Cl2 (B) HCHO (D) Centriole and mitochondria
with an acceleration of 14·7 m/s2. (C) ZnCl2 (D) HCl with three flagella
The distance moved by the block
7. The most acidic of the following 14. Lakes that are deficient in
in 0·3 sec from start is—
is— nutrients and consequently low in
(A) 0·6615 m downwards
(A) CH3CH2COOH productivity are called—
(B) 0·4410 m downwards (A) Oligotrophic
(B) C6H5COOH
(C) 0·2205 m downwards (B) Metatrophic
(C) ClCH2COOH
(D) 0·6615 m upwards (C) Mesotrophic
(D) All have the same acidic
2. Light is a transverse electro- value (D) Eutrophic
magnetic wave carrying energy 15. Which part of the adult human
through any cross-section at the 8. If one litre of a gas X at 600 mm
and half litre of gas Y at 800 mm colon joins the rectum ?
rate of— (in terms of electric and
are taken in a 2 litre tube, the (A) Sigmoid colon
magnetic field vector)
resulting pressure is— (B) Transverse colon
ε0 | E |2
2
| B |2 (A) 500 mm (B) 1000 mm (C) Ascending colon
(A) (B)
2 2 μ0 (C) 5 mm (D) 2000 mm (D) Descending colon
|E×B| E 9. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase 16. The feature of flowers of Stapelia
(C) (D) catalyses the change—
μ0 cB gigantea includes—
(A) Maltose to glucose (A) Flowers are star-shaped
3. A lump of copper wire (mass m, (B) Lactose to glucose and (B) Flowers have an elaborate
density d and resistivity ρ ) is galactose circular fleshy disc in the
drawn in a fine wire of length l (C) Carbonic acid to CO2 and centre
and radius r. The wire is folded H2O
into a circular loop of diameter D (C) Flowers have fringes of soft
(D) All of the above white hairs on the petals
and then placed in a time varying
magnetic field varying at a rate 10. The stage in a titration when the (D) All of the above
dB indicator, in its widest sense, 17. Amino acids derived from the
= 100 gauss/sec. The induced undergoes maximum change in
dt breakdown of well-stored seed
electric current in the circular loop colour for a small amount of
added titrant, is called— proteins also yield precursors
is—
(A) End point for—
(A) Proportional to the length of
(B) Filter press (A) Gluconeogenesis
the wire
(C) Fischer-Hepp rearrange- (B) Diuresis
(B) Proportional to the diameter
of the wire ment (C) Atherosclerosis
(C) Proportional to the radius of (D) Feedback inhibition (D) Amoebiasis
the loop 11. A receptor— 18. Which of the following is/are
(D) Proportional to the rate d B/ dt (A) Initiates nerve impulses correct regarding Cyanophyta ?
4. A steel rod [density ρ = 7·8 × 103 (B) Responds to only one type (A) No plastids
kg/m3 and Young’s modulus of stimulus (B) Pyrenoid absent
(C) Is the first part of a reflex arc (C) Cyanophycean starch found
(Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)] of length 50
(D) Performs all of the above in the chromatoplasm
cm is clamped at its mid point.
The number of natural longitudi- 12. In amphibians and most reptiles, (D) All of the above
nal oscillations of the rod within the heart bears— 19. Theory of spontaneous genera-
audible frequency range will be— (A) No any atrium tion was prevalent in—
(A) 2 (B) 3 (B) Two atria (A) Chinese
(C) 4 (D) None of these (C) One atrium (B) Egyptian
(D) Three atria and one ventricle (C) Babylonian
5. A charge Q is placed at each of
the opposite corners of a square. 13. A cross section at the mid point (D) All of the above
A charge q is placed at each of of the middle piece of a healthy 20. The spores of Funaria after
the other two corners. If the net human sperm will show— germination give rise to—
electrical force on Q is zero, then (A) Archegonia
Q/ q equals— (A) 9 + 2 arrangement of micro-
tubules only (B) Antheridia
1 (C) Protonema
(A) – (B) – 2 2 (B) Centriole, mitochondria and
2 (D) All of the above
9 + 2 arrangement of micro-
(C) – 1 (D) 1 tubules ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1046


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11.
12.
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3. 13.
This book contains 4. 14.
☞ Reasoning 5. 15.
☞ Numerical Ability 6. 16.
☞ General Knowledge 7. 17.
Hindi Edition 8. 18.
Code No. 1478 Price : Rs. 160/-
9. 19.
● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1047


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Directions—(Q. 1–3) These 6. In a certain code CONCISE is 12. In a row of children facing North,
questions are based on the following written as FTJBBNM. How is Bharat is eleventh from the right
information : FISHERY written in that code ? end and is third to the right of
‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of B’. (A) ZSFIGJT Samir who is fifteenth from the
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. (B) ZSFGIHR left end. Total how many
children are there in the row ?
‘A – B’ means ‘A is sister of B’. (C) ZSFGEHR
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is brother of B’. (A) 29 (B) 28
(D) ZSFEHGR
1. Which of the following expres- (C) 30 (D) 27
(E) None of these
sions represents ‘J is daughter of (E) None of these
D’ ? 7. Four of the following five are
alike in a certain way and so 13. In a certain code READ is written
(A) D × K + J ÷ H as #5%6 and PAID is written as
form a group. Which is the one
(B) D × K + H – J that does not belong to the $%46. How is RIPE written in
(C) D × K + J – H group ? that code ?
(D) D + K ÷ J (A) Snake (B) Crocodile (A) #4$5 (B) #6$5
(E) None of these (C) Frog (D) Lizard (C) $4#5 (D) $4#6
(E) Fish (E) None of these
2. In M ÷ L + T × R, how is T related
to M ? 8. How many meaningful English 14. If it is possible to make only one
(A) Nephew words can be made from the meaningful word from the first,
(B) Niece letters ADER, using each letter the fourth, the fifth and the ninth
(C) Nephew or Niece only once in each word ? letters of the word VERSATILE
(D) Daughter (A) None (B) One using each letter only once
(E) Cannot be determined (C) Two (D) Three second letter of that word is your
(E) More than three answer. If more than one such
3. Which of the following expres-
word can be formed your answer
sions represents ‘V is mother of 9. How many such pairs of letters
is M and if no such word can be
L’ ? are there in the word PRELI-
formed your answer is N.
(A) V ÷ F + J – L MINARY each of which have as
(B) F × V + J – L many letters between them in the (A) A (B) S
(C) F ÷ V + J – L word, as they have in the English (C) E (D) N
(D) V × F + J – L alphabet ? (E) M
(E) None of these (A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three 15. What will come next in the series
Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) These given below ?
(E) More than three
questions are based on following set 11212312341234512
of numbers : 10. How many such digits are there
3456123456712345
349 483 766 598 674 in the number 57683421, each of
which is as far away from the (A) 1 (B) 5
4. If in each of the numbers the
beginning of the number, as they (C) 6 (D) 2
positions of the first two digits are
interchanged and then the will be when arranged in descen- (E) None of these
numbers are arranged in ascend- ding order within the number ?
Directions—(Q. 16–23) In these
ing order which number will be at (A) None (B) One questions the symbols @, #, ★, $ and
the second position ? (C) Two (D) Three © are used with different meanings as
(A) 349 (B) 483 (E) More than three follows :
(C) 766 (D) 598 11. If in the word CALIBRE, the ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater
(E) 674 previous letter in the English than B’.
5. If in each of the numbers the alphabet replaces each conso-
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither
positions of the first and the third nant and each vowel is replaced
greater than nor equal to B’.
digits are interchanged and then by the next letter and then the
order of letters is reversed, which ‘A ★ B’ means ‘A is not smaller
the numbers are arranged in
descending order which number letter will be third from the right than B’.
will be at the fourth position ? end ? ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither
(A) 349 (B) 483 (A) A (B) C smaller than nor equal to B’.
(C) 766 (D) 598 (C) B (D) K ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither
(E) 674 (E) None of these greater than nor smaller than B’.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1049


Now in each of the following (C) Only III and either I or II are (ii) If the first as well as the last
questions assuming the given state- true letter is a vowel, both are to be coded
ments to be true, find out which of the (D) Only either I or II is true as £.
conclusions I, II, III given below them (E) None is true (iii) If the first letter is a vowel and
is/are definitely true and mark your the last letter is a consonant both are
answer accordingly. 21. Statements : to be coded by the code for con-
V # W, W ★ T, T © K, K @ F sonant.
16. Statements :
Conclusions : I. T @ V 24. PTLAFI—
H $ K, K © R, R @ J, J # F (A) 3219©4 (B) 4219©3
II. T $ V
Conclusions : I. R # H (C) 4219©4 (D) 3219©3
III. F ★ T
II. F $ R (E) None of these
(A) Only either I or II is true
III. H $ J 25. FQUEJL—
(B) Only III is true
(A) Only I and II are true (A) %#@7$% (B) 1#@7$©
(C) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I is true (D) Only III and either I or II are (C) 1#@7$1 (D) ©#@7$1
(C) Only II is true true (E) None of these
(D) Only II and III are true (E) None of these 26. AJQTHI—
(E) All are true 22. Statements : (A) 9$#259 (B) 9$#254
17. Statements : F ★ E, E © H, H @ I, I $ W (C) £$#25£ (D) 4$#259
L @ M, M ★ P, M # D, D $ F Conclusions : I. W # H (E) None of these
Conclusions : I. L @ P II. F $ H 27. EBGLRQ—
II. P @ D III. E # I (A) #%★16# (B) 7%★L6#
III. M © F (A) None is true (C) #%★167 (D) 7%★167
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true (E) None of these
(B) Only III is true (C) Only III is true 28. DUARFE—
(C) Only either I or III is true (D) Only either I or III is true (A) 8@96©7 (B) 8@96©8
(D) Only I and II are true (E) None of these (C) 7@96©7 (D) %@96©%
(E) None is true 23. Statements : (E) None of these
18. Statements : L @ R, R # M, N $ M, N # K Directions—(Q. 29–33) Study
T @ V, V # Q, Q © L, L ★ M Conclusions : I. L # N the following information carefully to
Conclusions : I. M @ Q II. K $ M answer these questions.
II. T @ L III. R # N J, K, H, R, F, L, N and Q are
III. T # L (A) None is true sitting around a circular table facing
the centre. H is third to the left of L
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true and is to the immediate right of K. R
(B) Only II is true (C) Only I and III are true is third to the left of N but is not a
(C) Only III is true (D) Only II and III are true neighbour of H or L. J is second to
(E) All are true the right of Q.
(D) Only I and III are true
29. Who is second to the left of N ?
(E) None of these Directions—(Q. 24–28) In each (A) Q (B) K
of these questions, a group of letters (C) J (D) F or J
19. Statements :
is given followed by four combinations (E) None of these
J ★ E, D @ E, E $ K, K © T of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C)
Conclusions : I. J $ D and (D). The letters are to be coded 30. Which of the following groups of
persons has the first person
II. J ★ D as per the scheme and conditions
sitting between the next two ?
III. E $ T given below. You have to find out
(A) LKN (B) QFL
which of the four digit/symbol combi-
(A) None is true (C) JHR (D) JHF
nations correctly represents the group
(B) Only II and III are true (E) None of these
of letters. The serial letter of that
(C) Only I and III are true combination is your answer. If none 31. Who is to the immediate left of
of the combinations is correct, your R?
(D) All are true
answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’. (A) Q (B) K
(E) None of these (C) F (D) N
Letters :
20. Statements : (E) None of these
PEQARTJLFIHUBDG
H @ I, I # L, L ★ A, A $ Q 32. Which of the following is correct
Digit/Symbol : position of J with respect to K ?
Conclusions : I. H#L
37#962$1©45@%8★ (A) Third to the left
II. H★L
Conditions : (i) If the first letter (B) Third to the right
III. Q # H is a consonant and the last letter is a (C) Second to the left
(A) Only I is true vowel their codes are to be inter- (D) Second to the right
(B) Only I and II are true changed. (E) Fourth to the right

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1050


33. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way on the basis of
their seating positions and so
form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the
group ?
(A) RQ (B) LK
(C) HJ (D) JR
(E) FN

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1052


1. If a new State of the Indian Union 9. World Ozone Day is observed 15. Mangroves in India account for
is to be created which one of the on— about—
following Schedules of the Cons- (A) March 20 (A) 9% of world’s mangrove
titution must be amended ? (B) June 5 vegetation
(A) First (B) Second (B) 5% of world’s mangrove
(C) September 16
(C) Third (D) Fifth vegetation
(D) October 3
2. When water is heated from 0°C (C) 8% of world’s mangrove
10. Under the Permanent Settlement vegetation
to 10°C its volume— of 1793, the Zamindars were (D) 3% of world’s mangrove
(A) Decreases required to issue pattas to the vegetation
(B) Does not change farmers which were not issued
16. Which of the following was not
(C) Increase by many of the Zamindars. The
the major achievement of Lord
(D) First decreases and then reason was—
Hastings ?
increases (A) It was the responsibility of
(A) Subsidiary Alliance
3. Which one of the following is not the British government
(B) Suppression of Pindaris
radioactive ? (B) There was no official check
(C) Treaty of Sagauli (1816)
(A) Tritium (B) Astatine upon the Zamindars
(D) End of the Maratha Con-
(C) Francium (D) Zirconium (C) The farmers were not inte- federacy
4. Centre for DNA finger printing rested in getting pattas
17. When Sindh was conquered in
and diagnostics is situated at— (D) The Zamindars were trusted
1843 by the Britishers, the
(A) Chandigarh (B) Hyderabad by the farmers
Governor-General was—
(C) New Delhi (D) Lucknow 11. The Mongols under Chenghis (A) Lord Ellenborough
5. Which one of the following ani- Khan invaded India during the (B) Lord Auckland
mals was not represented on the reign of— (C) Lord Dalhousie
seals and terracotta art of Harap- (D) Lord Hastings
(A) Feroz Tughlaq
pan culture ?
(A) Cow (B) Rhinoceros (B) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 18. Which of the following was not
(C) Tiger (D) Elephant (C) Iltutmish the party to the Tripartite Treaty
(D) Balban signed in 1839 ?
6. The range of Agni-II missile is
around— (A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
12. The most appropriate measure of (B) Shah Shuja of Afghanistan
(A) 5000 km (B) 2000 km a country’s economic growth is
(C) 500 km (D) 3500 km (C) Mughal Emperor Shah
its— Alam II
7. The approximate age of the (A) Net National Product (D) The English
Aravalli range is—
(B) Gross Domestic Product 19. Ogaden region has been a
(A) 370 million years
(B) 670 million years (C) Net Domestic Product source of conflict between which
(C) 470 million years (D) Per Capita Real Income two countries ?
(D) 570 million years (A) Ethiopia and Somalia
13. The Supreme Court of India
(B) Morocco and Algeria
8. In reference to the provisions as tenders advice to the President
enshrined in the Constitution of (C) Nigeria and Cameroon
on a matter of law or fact—
India which of the following (D) Angola and Zambia
(A) Only if the issue poses a
statements is incorrect ? 20. During the time of which Mughal
threat to the unity and
(A) Article 56 provides for the Emperor did the English East
President of India integrity of the country
India Company establish its first
(B) In Article 75 is enshrined the (B) Only if he seeks such advice
factory in India ?
appointment of the Prime (C) On its own initiative (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
Minister and Council of (D) Only if the matter relates to (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb
Ministers
the Fundamental Rights of
(C) Article 155 mentions the 21. Which one of the following Union
Citizens
appointment of the Governor Ministries is implementing the
of a state 14. Which of the following year was Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal
(D) Article 164 provides for the observed as the International Ministry) ?
appointment of Chief Minister year of Coral Reefs— (A) Ministry of Agriculture
and Council of Ministers of a (A) 2007 (B) 2006 (B) Ministry of Science and
State (C) 2008 (D) None of these Technology

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1053


(C) Ministry of New and Renew- 30. The first biosphere reserve of
able Energy India is—
(D) Ministry of Rural Develop- (A) Gulf of Mannar biosphere
ment reserve
22. Who among the Gandhian fol- (B) Nilgiri biosphere reserve
lowers was a teacher by profes- (C) Nanda Devi
sion ? (D) Sunderbans
(A) A. N. Sinha
31. The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-
(B) Braj Kishore Prasad
safety came into force on—
(C) J. B. Kriplani
(A) September 11, 2003
(D) Rajendra Prasad
(B) June 5, 2002
23. Which one of the following laser
(C) May 12, 2005
types is used in a laser type
printer ? (D) February 5, 2005
(A) Dye laser 32. Who among the following was the
(B) Gas laser President of the All India State’s
(C) Semiconductor laser People Conference in 1939 ?
(D) Excimer laser (A) Sardar Vallabbhai Patel
24. Among the following which one (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
has the minimum population on (C) Jaya Prakash Narayan
the basis of data of Census of (D) Sheikh Abdullah
India, 2001 ?
33. The Government of India has
(A) Chandigarh (B) Mizoram
notified as Minorities—
(C) Puducherry (D) Sikkim
(A) Five Communities
25. What is the name of the scheme (B) Six Communities
which provides training and
(C) Seven Communities
skills to women in traditional and
non-traditional trades ? (D) Four Communities
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana 34. The earlier name of WTO was—
(B) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (A) OECD (B) GATT
(C) Swayamsiddha (C) UNCTAD (D) UNIDO
(D) Swawlamban
35. Volcanic eruptions do not occur
26. Pedology is a science/study of— in the—
(A) Vegetation (B) Mountains
(A) Baltic Sea
(C) Soil (D) Continent
(B) Caspian Sea
27. Which one of the following (C) Black Sea
figures represents the age of the
(D) Caribbean Sea
earth ?
(A) 4·6 million year 36. Athletes Foot is a disease caused
(B) 4·6 billion year by—
(C) 13·7 billion year (A) Nematode (B) Fungus
(D) 13·7 trillion year (C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa

28. Which one of the following has 37. Who among the following was
the longest duration ? the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi
for the propagation of his mes-
(A) Eons (B) Era
sage ?
(C) Period (D) Epoch
(A) Dadu (B) Kabir
29. The prices at which the govern- (C) Ramanand (D) Tulsidas
ment purchases foodgrains for
maintaining the public distribu-
tion system and for building up
bufferstocks is known as—
(A) Ceiling prices
(B) Procurement prices
(C) Minimum support prices
(D) Issue prices ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1054