1

What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with modulation index m=0.7 A C 149W 124.5W B D 170W 135W

What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index m=0.5 is replaced by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index A C 83.30% 96% B D 94.40% 88.88%

In television 4:3 represents A C Interlace ratio Aspect Ratio B D Form factor None of above

To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equi-probable events, number of bits required is A C 32 5 B D 8 4

Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is A C 455 KHz 70 MHz B D 10.7 MHz 118.7 MHz

Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because A C It limits audio signal It removes distortions B D It prevents overloading It removes amplitude variations

Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver A C RF amplifier Amplitude limiter B D Mixer AGC

Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver A C Poor linearity Tuning is difficult B D No amplitude limiting All of above

AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455 KHz. Image rejection in dB

A C 10

-20dB -35.5dB

B D

-30dB -46.5dB

Crystal oscillator can be used in A C Varactor diode modulator Armstrong modulator B D Transistor reactance modulator FET reactance modulator

11

Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system A C equal to two times B D three times less than

12

What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system? A C 900 22.50 B D 450 150

13

Number of possible symbols in QAM system are A C 2 8 B D 4 16

14

Muting (squelch) circuit is basically A C Low pass filter circuit Level activated switch B D High pass filter circuit Frequency converter circuit

15

Double conversion receiver has A C Two RF amplifier stage Two detectors B D Two IF Two audio amplifier stage

16

Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is . A C 8000 samples/sec 20000 samples/sec B D 16000 samples/sec 44100 samples/sec

17

Oversampling results into . A C Large transmission bandwidth Low SNR B D More transmission power Distorted speech

18

Synchronization is necessary in A PAM system B PWM System

C 19

PPM System

None of above

Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth 10 KHz coded with total 128 quantization levels is A C 1280 Kbps 70 Kbps B D 140 Kbps 64 kbps

20

Companding is used to A C Save transmission bandwidth Achieve uniform SNR for all amplitudes B D Remove noise Achieve amplitude limiting

21

Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is A C 890-915 MHz 890-960 MHz B D 935-960 MHz 890-910 MHz

22

Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is A C 45 MHz 25 MHz B D 95 MHz 50 MHz

23

Following is not component of GSM architecture. A C Main switching center Master station controller
5

B D

Base station controller Base trans receiver

24

If PN chip rate is 30x10 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of DSSS system is .. A C 3000 30000 B D 6000 60000

25

Frequency range of Ku Band is A C 2 GHz - 4 GHz 8 GHz - 12 GHz B D 4 GHz - 8 GHz 12 GHz - 18 GHz

26

What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension 1.5cm x 1 cm in dominant mode TE10. A C 1 GHz 10 GHz B D 5 GHz 15 GHz

27

Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is

A C 28

104 kbps 13 kbps

B D

64 kbps 2.2 kbps

CELP Speech coder is based on . A C Waveform coding Channel coding B D Parametric coding Hybrid coding

29

Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit in quantization A C 1 dB 6 dB B D 3 dB 12 dB

30

In adaptive delta modulation A C Step size is variable Granular noise is less B D Slope over load error eliminated All of above

31

The spectral density of real valued random process has A C an even symmetry an odd symmetry B D a conjugate symmetry no symmetry

32

The stationary process has A C Ensemble average equal to time average All statistical properties independent of time B D All Statistical properties dependent on time Zero variance

33

A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of the process is 5. Then the variance of process is .. A C 0 1 B D 0.5 5

34

Thermal noise is independent of A C Temperature Bandwidth B D Center frequency Boltzmann's constant

35

A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 . It is connected to an antenna with input resistance of 50 . Noise figure of the system is .. A 1 B 2

C 36

None of above

Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB A C 57 dB 51.23 dB B D 180 dB 55.23 dB

37

Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V. Modulation index is A C 0.25 0.5 B D 0.33 0.66

38

Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor will be . A C 0.1 50 B D 10 100

39

Balance modulator is used to generate A C AM Signal PM Signal B D DSBSC Signal PWM Signal

40

Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20 KHz, Modulation index .. A C doubled remains constant B D halved increase by 10

41

Primary function of multiplexing in communication system A To select one radio channel from a wide range of transmitted channels To reduce the bandwidth of a signal. B To allow a number of signals to make use of a single communications channel To match the frequency range of a signal to a particular channel.

C 42

Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves A C UHF Between Infrared and Ultraviolet B D Ultraviolet Infrarred

43

Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index n2=1. Multipath dispersion would be . (c=3x108 m/s) A 2.5 ns/m B 2.5 S/m

C 44

5 ns/m

5 S/m

In CDMA systems A C Entire bandwidth can be used at a time Entire bandwidth is divided into narrow bands B D Entire bandwidth is used on time sharing basis None of above

45

Following is not usual classification of optical fiber A C Single mode step index Multi-mode graded index B D Multi-mode step index Single mode graded index

46

The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of light (hf) A C Equal to Greater than B D Smaller than Independent of

47

Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle of fiber optic cable related by equation A C NA=sin NA=sin-1 B D NA=tan NA=(1-sin2)1/2

48

What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index m=0.5 A C 0.625 W 2.5 W B D 1.25 W 5W

49

What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index m=0.5 A C 0.625 W 2.5 W B D 1.25 W 5W

50

Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with A C Same operating spectrum both A & B B D Different operating spectrum None of above

51

In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19 A C Case 1 has more SIR Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR B D Case 2 has more SIR No effect of N on SIR

52

In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19

A C 53

Case 1 has more channel capacity Case 1 and Case 2 has equal Channel capacity Bandwidth increases by 1.5 Bandwidth remains constant

B D

Case 2 has more channel capacity No effect of N on channel capacity Bandwidth decreases by 1.5 None of above

In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75 A C B D

54

In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 . A C Transmission power doubles Transmission power 1.41 times B D Transmission power halved Remains same

55

In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator, Assuming frequency reuse factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous channels that can exists in one cell is A C 15 40 B D 25 200

56

The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is A C hand-off possibilities simple modulation requires B D frequency resue higher bandwidth

57

Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile communication system? A C AMPS IMT-2000 B D GSM NAMTS

58

Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is .. A C Reduce handoffs Increase channel capacity B D Reduce channel capacity Reduce bandwidth requirement

59

Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by A C Q=R/D Q=D/R

2

B D

Q=RxD Q=D/R

60

A cellular system has 12 macro-cells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro cell is splitted into 3 microcells. Find out total available channels after splitting A C 40 360 B D 120 30

61

Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications..

A C 62

Data & Voice convergence Internet

B D

Fixed and mobile convergence Satellite communication

One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication A C GPRS CDMA2000 1xRTT B D EDGE IS95

63

Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network? A C TACS GPRS B D GSM ISDN

64

Population inversion phenomenon found in A C LED LASER B D Photodiode FET

65

Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive index n2=1.05. Its numerical aperture will be A C 0.926 0.35 B D 0.8 0.15

66

Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength. What are total app. number of guided mode supported by fiber? A C 50 200 B D 100 400

67

The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless technology? A C Bluetooth UWB B D ZigBee WiMAX

68

Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI)? A C Mobile Country Code Equipment Serial Number B D Mobile Network Code None of above

69

The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________. A C The layered structure of the display The control signal applied to the display B D The nature of the liquid crystal itself The application of display backlighting

70

Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is . A Consumes more power B Operates slowely

C 71

Higher cost

Less life time

For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by: p(x)=1/2 for -1 x 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance respectively . A C 1/2 and 2/3 1 and 4/3 B D 1 and 2/3 2 and 4/3

72

Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise is A C Rayleigh Gaussian Average voltage Average frequency B D B D Poisson Rician Average current Average power as a function of frequency

73

Spectral density expresses . A C

74

Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using A C Integrator Predictor B D Differentiator Equalizer

75

In PCM system, quantization noise depends on Sampling interval B Number of quantization levels Frequency of information C D None of above signal In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by A C Parsevals Theorem Fourier Transform B D Nyquist Theorem Hysenberg Theorem A

76

77

Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is A C 20 Hz to 20 KHz 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz B D 500 Hz to 10 KHz 300 Hz to 5 KHz

78

Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is A C 3-30 MHz 300-3000 MHz B D 30-300 MHz 3-30 GHz

79

Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is called A Modulation B Multiplexing

C 80

Detection

Telemetry

Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal? A C PPM PAM B D PWM All of above

81

Quantization noise occurs in A C PWM PCM B D PPM AM

82

Which one of following system is digital? A C PAM PCM B D PWM AM

83

Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog? A C PWM DM B D PCM ADM

84

In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal A C remains constant decreases rapidly B D increases rapidly None of above

85

For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by A C 4 bit 8 bit B D 5 bit 32 bit

86

In QAM system following both identity are varied A C Amplitude and frequency Amplitude and Phase B D Frequency and phase Baud rate and phase

87

In PCM systems, if transmission path is long. A C High power transmitter are used Repeaters are used B D Sensitive receivers are used Pulse amplitude increases

88

An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB followed by mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise figureas referred to input in dB is

A C 89

21.53 10.44

B D

11.07 0.63

A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and capacitance of 10 pF. Temperature of circuit is 170 C. What is noise voltage observed across circuit by wideband voltmeter? A C 1 V 8 V B D 2 V 16 V

90

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal systems? A C BN > B3dB BN =0.5* B3dB B D BN = B3dB BN = 0.5**B3dB

91

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low pass filter? A C BN > B3dB BN =0.5* B3dB B D BN = B3dB BN = 0.5**B3dB

92

What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a bandwidth of 500 MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB? A C 0.5 pW 1 pW B D 0.557 pW 1.557 pW

93

Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 . Its power density spectrum is 0.24x10-5. Corresponding available power density is .. A C 2.6x10-5 26x10-5 B D 0.025 6x10-8

94

If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level, available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will A C remains constant Increase four times B D Increase two times Decrease to half

95

What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 . The Bandwidth of measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 270 C A C 0.40 V 0.16 V B D 1.28 V 1.19 V

96

Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal from modulated signal (5+10cosmt)coswct A C Envelope detector Ratio detector B D Synchronous detector None of above

97

Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields . A C Horizontal line Parabola B D Vertical line Hyperbola

98

Image rejection in super-heterodyne receiver occurs at .. A C RF Stage IF stage B D Mixer Stage Detector stage

99

Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power A C Increase by 100% Increase by 25% B D Increase by 50% Does not change

100

Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth and minimum power? A C VSB DSBSC B D SSBSC AM

101

For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used A C AM SSB B D FM DSBSC

102

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square wave of period 100 S . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal? A C 990 KHz 1020 KHz B D 1010 KHz 1030 KHz

103

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100 S for one cycle . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal? A C 990 KHz 1010 KHz B D 1000 KHz 1020 KHz

104

In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier is 400 W. Modulation index is A C 0.25 0.75 B D 0.5 1

105

Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5 What is total modulation index? A C 1.1 0.55 B D 0.67 0.25

106

Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A when modulating signal is removed. What is modulation index? A C 0.94 0.69 B D 0.83 0.33

107

AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt. What is modulation index? A C 0.201 0.8 B D 0.404 0.894

108

In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage must be .. A C Non-linear amplifier Class C amplifier B D Linear amplifier Harmonic amplifier

109

FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler, output signal have modulation index A C 3.33 30 B D 10 10

110

Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on A C Modulating frequency Maximum amplitude of modulating signal B D Carrier frequency Peak frequency deviation

111

Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver A C Poor adjacent channel rejection Tuning is difficult B D Poor sensitivity Poor fidelity

112

Following diode is used in AM detector circuit A C Silicon diode Tunnel diode B D Point contact diode PIN diode

113

Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is .. A C 10.7 MHz 100 KHz B D 50 KHz 200 KHz

114

Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is A C Tuned circuit is used RFC is used B D Primary to secondary phase relationship is linear Parallel combination of RC

115

Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting A C Diode detector Ratio detector B D Phase discriminator PLL Detector

116

UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication because. A Below 900 MHz, band is not available Line of sight and reflected signal ensure the reception at mobile handset B Good Sky wave Propogation at 900 MHz. None of above

C 117

GSM cellular mobile communication system uses A C CDMA and FDMA Only FDMA B D FDMA and TDMA Only TDMA

118

WLAN services uses A C Long distance communication at high data rate Long distance communication at low data rate B D Short distance communication at high data rate Short distance communication at low data rate

119

As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can send and receive data up to . A C 64 kbps 11 MBPS B D 2 MBPS 54 MBPS

120

GPRS is.

A C 121

Circuit switched and packet switched service Voice telephony services

B D

Packet switching for mobile users for data transfer useful for sending SMS

UMTS offers data speed A C 384 kbps on move and 2.048 Mbps on stationary 2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS on stationary B D 64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps on stationary None of above

122

IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate . A C 2 MBPS 54 MBPS B D 8 MBPS 75 MBPS

123

Bluetooth module communicates using . A C transmitter radio module B D receiver transponder

124

IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______ hops per second A C 512 1600 B D 800 3200

125

IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation DSSS uses carrier modulation scheme _____________. A C BPSK DQPSK B D QPSK QAM

126

The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at 2Mbps considering ideal transfer data rate. A C 2 MB 10 MB B D 2.5 MB 20 MB

127

Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate piconets A C DSSS FHSS-CDMA B D OFDM FHSS-TDMA

128

In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to mobile handset at every .

A C 129

1 ms 100 ms

B D

10 ms 500 ms

WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to . A C 16 64 B D 32 512

130

Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is A C BPSK DQPSK B D QPSK QAM

131

WCDMA uses chip rate of . A C 2 Mcps 3.84 Mcps B D 8 Mcps 16 Mcps

132

Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA A C LPC Adaptive CELP B D RELP DPCM

133

Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is A C +23 dBm +9 dBm B D +13 dBm +3 dBm

134

After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal A C remains constant increases significantly B D increases decreases

135

Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on .. A C Performance of coding method Tolerance of digitised voice B D Bit error rate All of these

136

CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique A C FDMA DSSS B D FHSS THSS

137

In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps, Processing gain in dB is

A C 138

4.8 dB 40 dB

B D

48 dB 60 dB

In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is 5 KHz. What is processing gain in dB? A C 5 dB 4 dB B D 50 dB 40 dB

139

Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of A C 200 KHz 1.25 MHz B D 600 KHz 10 MHz

140

Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop power setting is adjusted in 1 dB increments after every ______ by command from base station. A C 1 second 10 ms B D 1.25 second 1.25 ms

141

MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to A C reduce co-channel interference reduce inter-cell interference B D reduce transmission power reduce near-far problem

142

Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant amplitude ? A C FSK GMSK B D QPSK QAM

143

The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission frequency once in every ______ . A C 1.25 ms 4.615 ms B D 120 ms 125 s

144

Modulation data rate in GSM is . A C 200 kbps 64 kbps B D 270.833 kbps 2 Mbps

145

Spectrum efficiency in GSM is . A 1 bps/Hz B 1.35 bps/Hz

C 146

2 bps/Hz

4 bps/Hz

Grey list in mobile communication means A C Mobile numbers are VIP Mobile numbers are not allowed momentarily B D Mobile numbers are not allowed permanantly Mobile purchased without bills

147

Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast . A C Frequency of operation in cell Congestion information B D Channel availability All of above

148

The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is .. A C 3 8 B D 4 16

149

The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called A C Um Interface A B D A-bis D

150

The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km and 8 km from transmitter is A C 3 dB 12 dB B D 6 dB 15 dB

151

Wireless medium compared to wired medium A C Quite reliable for voice and data communication Offers more bandwidth B D Not reliable for voice and data communication Requires less power

152

In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent is A C 2 4 B D 3 5

153

Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead of 4. Increase in overall system capacity is approximately A C 28 times 4 times B D 7 times 1.7 times

154

Cells using same set of frequencies are called A C neighboring cells Co-channel cells B D adjacent channel cells Clusters

155

The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is 2 km A C 3 43 B D 23 4

156

Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km2. Cluster size N=7. What is will be area of one cluster? A C 3.5 km2 14 km2 B D 7 km2 143 km2

157

Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels are assigned to each cell. The number of channels per cluster are .. A C 1120 70 B D 112 None of above

158

Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice channels. If service area is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse factor of 4. System capacity is . A C 1000 10000 B D 5000 20000

159

In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster formed by i=2 and j=2 are . A C 4 12 B D 8 16

160

Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for system design cell shape used is ______________. A C circular, circular hexagonal, hexagonal B D circular, hexagonal hexagonal, circular

161

If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be A Reduction in path loss by 6 dB B Reduction in path loss by 3 dB

C 162

Reduction in path loss by 12 dB

No change in path loss

In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna gain is 3 dB. EIRP is. A C 10 W 30 W B D 20 W 3.33 W

163

PLL can be used to demodulate A C AM PM B D FM PCM

164

Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are added together and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the detector is . A C 21 KHz sinusoid 210 KHz sinusoid B D 1 KHz sinusoid 1.1 KHz sinusoid

165

In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to .. A C 3.4 KHz 15 KHz B D 5 KHz 20 KHz

166

Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth A C Gets doubled Increase by 20 KHz B D Does not change Increase by 10 KHz

167

In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is A C proportional to deviation inversely proportional to deviation B D proportional to cube of deviation Proportional to square of deviation

168

If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz. Bandwidth of FM signal as per Carson's rule is . A C 40 KHz 140 KHz B D 90 KHz 200 KHz

169

Following is not advantage of FM over AM system A C Noise immunity Capture effect B D Fidelity Sputtering effect

170

A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128 levels using mid-rise uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is A C 0.12 V2 0.0012 V2 B D 0.012 V2 0.000012 V2

171

Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is .. A C 64 KBPS 4 MBPS B D 2.048 MBPS 8 MBPS

172

The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit A C 48 dB 64 dB B D 56.8 dB 67.78 dB

173

Pulse stuffing is used in A C Synchronous TDM Any TDM B D Asynchronous TDM None of above

174

With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires A C lower sampling rate simple hardware B D low bandwidth better SNR

175

Following is not ideal requirement from line codes A C Transmission bandwidth Favorable PSD B D large DC component Timing recovery

176

Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery property? A C Manchestor RZ B D NRZ None of above

177

Which of the following gives maximum probability of error? A C ASK BPSK B D BFSK DPSK

178

Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of amplitude A and duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise PSD A 2AT/N B 2A2T/N

C 179

AT

A/N

Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is A C AND gate Ex-NOR gate B D OR gate NAND gate

180

In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine wave of 10 KHz and 1 is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are orthogonal for bit interval of . A C 45 s 200 s B D 50 s 250 s

181

For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a coherent binary FSK systems are A C 32 KHz and 40 KHz 20 KHz and 40 KHz B D 8 KHz and 12 KHz 16 KHz and 20 KHz

182

ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of A C Analog transmission of data Analog to Digital convertor B D Digital to analog converter Analog modulators

183

Correlation receiver consists of A C Adder and integrator Mutiplier and differentiator B D Multilier and integrator Addre and differentiator

184

Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is A C 800 200 B D 400 100

185

In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading causes _________and hence limits maximum symbol rate. A C Multipath fading higher bit rate B D Doppler effect Intersymbol interference

186

Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile communication are .. A Reflection and refraction B diffraction and scattering

C 187

Multipath fading and doppler effect

Blocking and shadowing

The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______ A C <0.1 s 3 s B D 0.5 s 5 s

188

A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency. Mobile moving at speed of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier frequency is A C 899.99 MHz 900 MHz B D 900.00006 MHz 900.03 MHz

189

Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal gain and linear phase without distortion. A C Rayleigh fading channel Frequency selective channel B D Rician fading channel Flat channel

190

Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will happen. A C Scattering Shadow fading B D Reflection Doppler effect

191

Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to A C Multiple indirect path between transmitter and receiver Direct line of sight path B D No distict line of sight path None of above

192

In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are located at distance of 10 km. transmission delay of signal typically A C 3.33 s 333.3 s B D 33.3 s 3 ms

193

Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in hybrid channel assignment mainly depends on A C Availability of channels Traffic characteristics B D Blocking probability System overheads

194

Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means A Transmitter power doubles B Transmitter power four times

C 195

Transmitter power 1000 times

None of above

Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is __________ the coverage area of original cell. A C Half one fourth B D Double Four times

196

In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into .. A C 3 dB increase in gain 9 dB increase in gain B D 6 dB increase in gain 8 dB increase in gain

197

Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to transmit each symbol are A C 4 6 B D 5 8

198

Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about A C 5 to 10 second 1 to 2 second B D 2 to 5 second less than 1 second

199

Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular systems. A C 3 dB 9 dB B D 6 dB 12 dB

200

If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3 minutes then offered traffic load in Erlang is . A C 6.66 60 B D 30 360

201

One of following is not related to cyclic code. A C Error detection is simple Code is powerful and efficient B D Look up table is required All of above

202

Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties has an error rate of 0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ... A C 0.9 0.99 B D 0.909 0.92

203

For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the telephone channel for SNR of 30 dB A C 64 KBPS 33.89 KBPS B D 32 KBPS 16 KBPS

204

If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter, amount of information communicated is . A C 8 bit 1 bit B D 4 bit 0

205

What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ? A C 8 bit 1 bit B D 4 bit 0

206

A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5, 0.25,0.125 and 0.125 respectively. Amount of information carried by symol x1 and x2 is A C 1 bit for both x1 and x2 1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2 B D 2 bit for both x1 and x2 2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2

207

What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its probability is 0.25 A C 0.25 1 B D 5 2

208

Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is A C 1 bit/message 2 bit/message B D 1.75 bit/message 4 bit/message

209

Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB SNR is A C 4 kbps 20.11 kbps B D 8.02 kbps 32.40 kbps

210

In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every A C 1 s 125 s B D 64 s 625 s

211

Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is

A C 212

e-T e-Tsin(t)

B D

e-Tsin(ht) e-T/2sin(2ht)

Inter-symbol Interference can be reduced by following A C Transmit sinc pulses instead of rectangular pulses By reducing data transmission rate B D By using suitable pulse shaping techniques. All of above

213

Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to A C Reduce ISI Reduce bandwidth B D Reduce data rate None of above

214

Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to recover error free data at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is power spectral density. A C 0 dB -1.59 dB B D 3 dB 1.33 dB

215

RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with 10 k, maximum modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of 10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping. A C 0.25 0.85 B D 0.5 0.9

216

HDTV has aspect ratio A C 4:3 9:16 B D 16:9 3:4

217

As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are A C Interlace scan mode 1080 Both A and B B D Progressive scan mode 780 None of above

218

In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are .. A C 786 1920 B D 1280 2400

219

What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire A 1 MHz B 40 GHz

C 220

100KHz

10 GHz

Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal A C Astable multivibrator Monostable multivibrator B D D-Flip flop Schmit trigger

221

What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem to store audio signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration of 1 minute? A C 1.2 MB 30 KB B D 1.8 MB 64 KB

222

Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is .. A C 2.4 kbps 8 kbps B D 4 kbps 16 kbps

223

Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed using DPCM technique. Total transmission rate will be.. A C 128 kbps 256 kbps B D 192 kbps 384 kbps

224

Following hardware is used for pulse shaping A C Low pass filter circuit Transversal filter B D High pass filter circuit All of above

225

HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides A C Digital Connection Carries audio signal B D Carries video signal All of above

226

Equalizer is used to .. A C Reshape incoming pulses To boost low freq components B D Boost high freq components Amplify incoming pulses

227

Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to A C To achieve smooth phase transitions of carrier To achieve zero ISI at decision making instant of neighboring B D To reduce bandwidth requirement for transmission. All of above

pulse 228

Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder A C Pitch Sample value B D Gain Voice/Unvoiced determination

229

How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ? A C 160 320 B D 200 400

230

Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal A C Low pass filter Amplifier B D Bistable multivibrator Monostable multivibrator

231

If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system.. A C We get good SNR More bits required to represent information B D Large bandwidth required for transmission All of above

232

If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system .. A C Transmission bit rate will increase No possibility of aliasing error B D Storage requirement will increase All of above

233

Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication A C RTS CTS B D Strobe DTR

234

Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak amplitude of 16 volt is quantized with 4 bits. A C 0.0833 0.5 B D 0.05 4

235

Adaptive delta modulation is used to A C Reduce transmission rate Dynamic sampling rate B D Remove slope overload and threshold error All of above

236

Sigma-Delta modulation is used to A C Pre-emphasize low frequency content Simplify receiver design B D Increase correlation between adjacent samples All of above

237

Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system.. A Bandwidth of transmitted signal must be large enough Bandwidth expansion factor should be independent of message signal B SNR should increase as bandwidth increase None of above

C 238

Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by equation A C SNR = 7.78 + 20logC C=2Blog2(SNR) B D C=2Blog10(1+SNR) C=Blog2(1+SNR)

239

Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system represents A C Vowels Unvoiced sound B D Voiced sound Pitch

240

10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between two frame of speech will be . A C 12.5 S 1250 S B D 125 S None of above

241

Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television system used in India is A C 625 lines, 52 S 625 lines, 64 S B D 525 lines, 53 S 525 lines,12 S

242

One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits encrypted data A C 156.25 57 B D 114 26

243

One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits A C 156.25 57 B D 114 26

244

Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile phone equipment A C HLR EIR B D VLR AuC

245

Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique .. A C Speech coding Bit interleaving B D Channel coding Equalisation

246

Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of packets A C PRMA FDMA B D TDMA CDMA

247

Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______ A C Omnidirectional antenna Switched beam antenna B D Parabolic antenna Dish antenna

248

To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used A C Source encoding Interleaving B D Channel coding Channel Equalisation

249

In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are related as: A C Ts=Tblog2M Ts=2Tblog10M B D Ts=TbxM Rs=Rblog2M

250

Scrambling is done to achieve A C To help synchronization To remove long string of 1s and 0s B D To make data pattern random All of above

x x E is
A C

. E - 2 E 2 E + E

B D

2 E - . E . E - E .

Unit vector of E is A C

E/ E E.E

B D

E ( ax + ay + az ) E /E

E x H is
A C EH cos EH sin an B D EH sin EH cos an

E x ( A + C ) is A C ExC+ExA A.E + C.E B D E.A+ExC AxEExC

Gradient of a scalar is A C Not defined a scalar B D A vector Not periodic

Divergence of a vector is A C Not defined A vector B D a scalar The same as gradient of a vector

The unit of del is A C Does not exist 1/meter B D meter dB

2 operates
A C Only on scalar On a scalar and also on a vector B D Only on vector Only on a constant

ax . ax is
A C

ax
0

B D

ay

10

ax . ay
A C

is
B D 1

0 az
X

-az

11

ax
A C

ay is 1 az
B D 0

-az

12

ax
A C

ax is 0 az
B D 1

ay

13

For static fields A C

14

xH=D xH=0 xE=0 .D =

v

B D

xH=J xH=E xE= x E = - B/t

v

In free space A C B D

15

Unit of E is A C

Volt
Volt/m

B D

Amp/m Volt/coulomb

16

Unit of H is A C

Weber
Volt/m

B D

ampere Amp/m

17

Unit of D is A C

Wb/m
C/m2

B D

Amp/m C/m

18

D is A C

E
H

B D

H E/t

19

.D/t is
A C

s l

B D

v
0

20

x E is
A C

B/t D/t + J

B D

-B/t J

21

The electric flux density , D is A C

E E / 0

B D

E
E

22

The electric flux is A C

Q E

B D

D Q

23

The unit of electric flux is A C

Weber
Tesla

B D

Gauss Coulomb

24

In free space A C

. E = 0 .E =

B D

xE=0 .E = /
v
0

25

In free space A C

. B = 0 xB= H
0

B D

. B = H . B = H /

26

For free space A C

=0
r = 0

B D

J = 1 Amp/m2

r = 0

27

The unit of conduction current density is A C

Amp/m
Amp/m3

B D

Amp/m2 Amp

28

The unit of displacement current density is A C Amp/m2 Amp B D

Amp/m
Amp-m

29

The unit of conduction current is A C Amp Amp/m

2

B D

Amp/m
Amp-m

30

The unit of permittivity is A C

Farad
Farad/m

B D

Henry Henry/m

31

The unit of permeability is A C Henry/m Henry B D Farad/m Weber

32

The conduction current density is A C

E
E/

B D

D D

33

The displacement current density is A C

E/t D

B D

0 E

34

For uniform plane wave propagation in z-direction A C

Ez = 0 Ez f(x)

B D

Ez f(y) Ez = 0 , Hz = 0

35

The line integral of E around a closed loop is A C

Zero
Equal to current

B D

36

The unit of attenuation is A C

dB/m
Amp/m

B D

V/m Coloumb/m

37

Velocity of a plane wave whose r = 4 , r = 1 is A C

3 x 108 m/s 6 x 108 cm/s

B D

1.5 x 108 cm/s 2 x 108 cm/s

38

Velocity of uniform plane wave in free space is A C

3 x 108 m/s 3 x 106 cm/s

B D

3 x 108 cm/s 3 x 1010 cm/s

39

The unit of depth of penetration is A C

dB
Neper

B D

Meter radian

40

E.H for a plane wave is A C

Zero
Does not exist

B D

1 EH

41

Equation of continuity is A C

.J = - /t .J = /t
v v

B D

.J = - .J =
v

/t

42

Magnetic current density is given by A C

B B/t

B D

D/t -B/t

43

The unit of magnetic current density is A C Amp/m2 Amp B D Volt/m2 Amp/m

44

Boundary conditions on E is A C

an X (E1 E2 ) = 0 an . (E1 E2 ) = 0

B D

Et1 = Et2

an . E1 = 0

45

Boundary conditions on H is A C Ht1 = Ht2 B D Ht1 - Ht2 = Js

an X (H1 H2 ) = Js

an X (H1 H2 ) = 0

46

Boundary conditions on B is A C

an X (B1 B2 ) = 0 an . (H1 H2 ) = Js

B D

an . (B1 B2 ) = 0 Bn1 = Bn2

47

Boundary conditions on D is A C

an . (D1 D2 ) = 0 an X (D1 D2 ) = s

B D

an . (D1 D2 ) = s an X (D1 D2 ) = 0

48

Boundary conditions on J is A C

an X (J1 J2 ) = 0 an X (J1 J2 ) = Js

B D

an . (J1 J2 ) = 0 an . (J1 J2 ) = Js

49

Lorentz Gauge condition is A C

.A = - V /t x A = B
J.dS = I J.dS = J

B D

50

x A = H .A = - V /t
J.dS = Q J.dS = v

Equation of continuity is A C B D

51

Intrinsic impedance of a medium is given by A C

Sqrt( / ) Sqrt( / )

B D

Sqrt( j / ( + j ) Sqrt( )

52

The characteristic impedance of free space is A C

277 377

B D

120 1202

53

The wave equation in free space is A C

2 E = 0 0 E /t 2 V = - v /

B D

2 E = 0 0 2E /t 2 E = 2E /t

54

E and H are always perpendicular to each other A C

Yes
Only for uniform plane wave

B D

Some times None of these

55

Velocity of propagation of a plane wave is A C

/
/f

B D

/
f /

56

Attenuation of plane wave in free space is A C

Zero
Propagation constant

B D

infinite

itself

57

A medium is a good conductor if A C

( / ) >> 1 ( / ) = 1

B D

( / ) << 1 ( / ) = 0

58

A medium is a good dielectric if A C

( / ) >> 1 ( / ) = 0

B D

( / ) << 1 ( / ) = 1

59

The ratio of conduction current to displacement current is A C

/
0

B D

/
1

60

Dissipation factor of a dielectric is A C

/
1

B D

/
0

61

depth of penetration in good conductors is A C

Inversely proportional to conductivity Not a function of conductivity

B D

Inversely proportional to square root of conductivity

Directly proportional to conductivity

62

Attenuation constant in good dielectrics is A Directly proportional to conductivity B

Inversely proportional to conductivity

C 63

Inversely proportional to square root of conductivity

Directly proportional to

Not a function of conductivity

Phase velocityof uniform plane wave is A C B D

Not a function of

Inversely proportional to Not Inversely proportional to square root of

64

Phase constant of a uniform plane wave in a medium is A C Directly proportional to frequency B D

Is inversely proportional to frequency

Not a function of frequency Is inversely proportional to square root of frequency

65

The characteristic impedance of a medium is A C

Sqrt( / ) Not a function of frequency

B D

Is a function of frequency Is independent of , and f

66

Poynting vector gives A C

Instantaneous power density

Total power

B D

Average power density Total power density

67

Standing waves are produced when A C

There are no reflections

There is only transmission

B D

There are full reflections

The waves are incident on good dielectrics

68

The minimum value of voltage standing wave ratio is A C

0
1

B D

-1 -

69

When the load impedance ZL = Z0 , the VSWR is A C

10
0

B D

70

Brewster angle is A C

Angle of incidence for which there is no reflection

Equal to reflected angle

B D

Angle of refraction for which there is no reflection

Equal to refraction angle

71

The range of HF is A C

3-30 kHz
3-30 MHz

B D

30-300 kHz 30-300 MHz

72

The range of VHF is A C 3-30 MHz 300 MHz-3 GHz B D 30-300 MHz 300 kHz 300 MHz

73

The standard antenna for reference is A C

Isotropic antenna
Dish antenna

B D

Half-wave dipole Yagi Uda antenna

74

The most common popular prevalent TV antenna is A C

Dipole
dish

B D

Monopole horn

75

Among the following the Broadband antenna is A C

Log-periodic
Yagi-Uda

B D

dipole Horn

76

Among the following the non-resonant antenna is A C

dipole
Monopole

B D

Yagi-Uda rhombic

77

The common microwave link antenna is A C

dipole
Rhombic

B D

Log-periodic Parabolic dish

78

Antenna for direction finding is A C Yagi-Uda Parabolic dish B D Rhombic Loop

79

The directivity of half-wave dipole is

A C 80

10
1.5

B D

1 1.64

The directivity of current element is A C

1.64
2.0

B D

1.5 5.0

81

Reflectors in Yagi-Uda antenna are A C

1
3

B D

More than 1 10

82

Directors in Yagi-Uda antenna are A C More than 1 5 B D 1 3

83

Radar antenna is A C

Parabolic dish
Horn

B D

dipole waveguide

84

The length of the folded dipole in yagi uda antenna is A C

468/f (MHz) feet 342/f (MHz) feet

B D

492/ f (MHz) feet

192/f (MHz) feet

85

The impedance of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is A C

Inductive reactance
Purely resistive

B D

Capacitive reactance 73

86

The radiation resistance of a current element is A C

80 2 ( dl / )2 80 2 ( dl / )

B D

80 ( dl / )2 80 ( dl / )

87

Circularly polarized antenna is A C

Dipole
Yagi-uda

B D

Parabolic dish helical

88

If the current element is y-directed , the resultant vector magnetic potential is

A C 89

y-directed z-directed

B D

x-directed -directed

For time-varying fields A C E=-

B D

E = - V - A /t E = - V - H /t
Polarization of electromagnetic wave Rate of energy flow

E = - V - D /t

100 poynting vector gives A C

Direction of electric field

Power flow

B D

101 The length of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is A C

Frequency dependent
Equal to

B D

Frequency independent
Equal to 0.2

102 The spacing between folded dipole and reflector is A C > /2 B D /2 < /2

103 Voltage standing wave ratio is A C

Vmin / Vmax
Vreflected / Vincident

B D

Vmax / Vmin Vmax

104 Antenna is a A C

transducer
Regulator

B D

filter amplifier

105 The radiation resistance of a half wave dipole close to earth is A C

73 > 73

B D

< 73
Infinity

106 If the directivity is high , the beam width is A C

High
constant

B D

low Very high

107 Director in yagi-uda antenna is A C

Active element
Parasitic element

B D

Driven element Identical to dipole

108 Reflector in yagi-uda antenna is A C

Active element
Identical to dipole

B D

Driven element Parasitic element

109 Log-periodic antenna is A C

Narrow band
Frequency independent

B D

Wide band Frequency dependent

110 In vertical dipole , the electric field is A C

Parallel to the dipole

- directed

B D

Perpendicular to dipole circular

111 The effective length of a vertical radiator is A C

Increased by capacitive hat

Increased by supplying more power

B D

Increased by loading with lumped Inductance Increased by resistance loading

112 The null-to-null beam width in end-fire array is A C

2/Nd 2 sqrt( / N d )

B D

Sqrt(2 / N d ) 2 sqrt(2 / N d )

113 The null-to-null beam width in broad side array is A C

2/Nd 2 2 / N d

B D

2 sqrt(2 / N d ) Sqrt(N d / 2 )

114 The length of resonant dipole is A C

/2 /4

B D

115 The first side lobe level in uniform array is

A C

0.212
0.312

B D

0.121 0.51

116 The side lobe level in binomial array is A C

Zero
-20 dB

B D

-13.5 dB Zero dB

117 In binomial array the central elements are excited A C

strongly
Uniformly

B D

Weakly easily

118 In horizontal polarized waves the electric field is A C

Parallel to the ground

In -direction

B D

Perpendicular to the ground Elliptical

119 The maximum directive gain of current element is A C

1.76 dB
3 dB

B D

2.15 dB 0 dB

120 Band width of an antenna is A C

f0 / Q
f0 Q

B D

Q / f0 f0 / Q
2

121 Antenna can be used as A C

Sound sensor
Temperature sensor

B D

Light sensor Colour sensor

122 For far field of z-directed current element A C

H = - sin Az/r H = H

B D

H = 0 H = Hr

123 Induction and far fields have equal magnitudes at

A C

r = / 2 r = /

B D

r = / 6
r=

124 Induction and radiation fields have equal magnitudes at A C

r = v0 / r = v0 /

B D

r = v0 / 2 r = v0 /

125 If the output signal power level is 1 W , power gain is A C

0 dB
10 dB

B D

1 dB dB

126 LF antennas are usually used for A C

Vertical polarization Circular polarization

B D

horizontal polarization Elliptical polarization

127 The real part of antenna impedance consists of A C

Rr only Rl only

B D

Rr and Rl
Zero ohms of resistance

128 Power and field patterns are related as A C

P E2 P E

B D

PE P

129 For radiation pattern measurement the distance of the far field region is A C

1/ E

r > 2 D2 /
r= /

B D

r < D2 /
r= D/

130 GTEM cell means A C

Geometric transverse electromagnetic cell

Grounded TEM cell

B D

Giga Hertz TEM cell Geo TEM cell

131 Whetastone bridge is used to measure antenna impedance at a frequency of A C

Giga hertz
Upto millimeter range

B D

Upto microwave frequency range Upto 30 MHz

132

If the field measurements are made at r < 2 D / A C

Side lobe levels will be high

Band width and side lobe levels are small

B D

Bandwidth will be small No side lobes appear

133 Null-to Null bandwith is A C

Equal to 3 dB bandwith
less than 3 dB band width

B D

Greater than 3 dB band width Not related to 3 dB band width

134 Antenna efficiency is A C

gp / gd gp

B D

gd / gp gd /

135 Phase difference is A C

D / Path difference x 136 If the response of a vertical dipole is 1 for a unity normalized input power , the polarization is A C

Vertical
Circular

B D

Horizontal elliptical

137 If the response of RCP helix is zero , the polarization of test antenna is A C

LCP
Horizontal

B D

RCP Vertical

138 If the response of RCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is A C

LCP
Horizontal

B D

RCP Vertical

139 If the response of LCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is A C

LCP
Horizontal

B D

RCP Vertical

140 If the response of a horizontal dipole is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is A C Horizontal Circular B D Vertical elliptical

141 If the response of any type of antenna is 0.5 for unity normalized power, the polarization of test antenna is A C

Linear
Vertical

B D

Horizontal unpolarised

142 The excitation levels of a three element binomial array are A C

1,2,1 1,4,1

B D

1,3,1 2,3,2

143 The excitation levels of a four element binomial array are A C

1,3,1,1 1,3,3,1

B D

1,2,2,1 1,4,4,1

144 The basic transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is A C

10 log ( ( 4 d )/ )2
10 log ( GTX GRX )

B D

10 log ( / ( 4 d ))2
zero

145 Actual transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is A C

10 log { ( / ( 4 d ))2 * 1/ ( GT GR ) } 10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ ) * GT GR }

B D

10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ ( GT GR ) } 10 log { ( / ( 4 d )) * ( GT GR ) } La = ( ( 4 d )/ )2 La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2

146 Friss formula is A C

La = ( / ( 4 d ))2 La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ ( GT GR )

B D

147 Noise figure of antenna is A C

Te / T0 1 - (Te / T0 )

B D

1 + (Te / T0 ) 1 + (Te / T0 )2

148 Actual transmission loss in dB between transmitter and receiver is A C

Greater than basic transmission loss Equal to basic transmission loss

B D

less than basic transmission loss

infinite

149 Schelkunoff polynomial method gives A C

Nulls in the desired direction

Desired side lobes

B D

Nulls in undesired directions Desired beam width

150 Range of VSWR is A C

0 to 1 0 to

B D

1 to - to

151 Tchebyscheff polynomial method gives A C

Desired side lobe ratio

Desired overall pattern

B D

Desired beam width Desired phase function

152 The advantage of uniform linear array is A C

The required number of sources is one

Number of side lobes are less

B D

SLR is small Grating lobes are present

153 The current distribution in half-wave dipole is A C

Sinusoidal
Triangular

B D

constant parabolic

154 When the array length high, the null to-null beam width is A C

Small
Constant

B D

High infinity

155 Conducting properties of earth are A C

Constant with frequency

Change with the type of antenna

B D

Change with frequency Change with excitation of antenna

156 In conductor , if charge is not moving , the radiation is A C

Very high
The same as when charge moves

B D

Zero moderate

157 If a charge is moving with a uniform velocity in an infinite straight wire , the radiaton is A C

Infinite
Zero

B D

Moderate high

158 If the charge is moving in a curved wire , radiation A C

Exists
Is infinite

B D

Does not exist Same as when the wire is straight

159 If the charge oscillates with time in a straight wire , it A C

Radiates
Stores energy

B D

Does not radiate oscillates

160 If the charge accelerates , there exists A C

No radiation
Stored energy

B D

Radiation Acceleration of antenna

161 If the charge deccelerates , radiation A C

Is zero
Does not exist in any antenna

B D

Exists Exists only in some wire antenna

162 The primary equation for electromagnetic radiation in a very thin z-directed wire of length L A C

L dIz / dt = L L az L dIz / dt = L ay

B D

L dIz / dt = L L ay L dIz / dt = L L

163 Radiation with broad frequency spectrum is very strong if A C

pulses are of shorter duration

Pulses have more amplitude

B D

pulses are of longer duration

Pulses have small amplitude

164 For frequency independent antennas , the band width is A C

zero
Finite

B D

Moderate

165 The radiation intensity of an isotropic radiator is A C

Pr / 4 r2 Pr / 4

B D

Pr / 4 r Pr

166 An omni directional antenna from the following A C

Parabolic dish
Horn

B D

Dipole Yagi-uda antenna

167 Loop antenna is a A C

Isotropic radiator
Omni-directional radiator

B D

Directional radiator Point source

168 Broad side arrays are A C Omni-directional Directional antennas B D Point sources

Isotropic antennas

169 In linear polarization , there exists A C

Three components
Two components differing by 900

B D

Only one component Two components differing by 2700

phase

phase

170 If there exists two orthogonal linear components which are in time phase, polarization is A C

Linear
Elliptical

B D

Circular Not present

171 Effective area of an antenna is A C

Ratio of power delivered to load to power density of incident wave

gp / gd

B D

Ratio of radiation intensity to power density of incident wave

gd / gp

172 Aperture efficiency , of an antenna is a A C

The ratio of gp and gd

Effective area to physical area

B D

Maximum effective area to physical area Physical area to effective area

173 In far-field region , the angular field distribution is independent of A C

Transmitter power
Angular region

B D

Distance from the antenna Antenna type

174 Fresnel region is A C

Far-field region
The region of constant field

B D

Near-field region The region of no field

175 Fraunhofer region is A C

Far-field region
The region of constant field

B D

Near-field region The region of no field

176 Reactive near-field region exists when A C

R > 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) R < 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

B D

R < 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / ) R > 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / ) R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) and R < 2D2 / R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

177 Fresnel region exists when A C

R 0.62 * sqrt( D / ) R 2D2 /

B D

178 Fraunhofer region exists when A C

R > 2D2 / R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

B D

R < 2D2 / R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

179 Unit of directivity is A C

Watts
Watts/m3

B D

Watts/m2 nil

180 Unit of solid angle A C

Degrees
Sterradian

B D

Radian nil

181 If h is the height of an antenna , the number of side lobes are A C

h/
4

B D

2 h/ 2/h

182 Divergence factor of a field from earth is

Reflected field from flat earth / Reflected field from curved B surface / reflected field from flat reflected field from curved surface surface Reflected field from curved earth incident field from curved earth C / incident field from curved D / reflected field from curved surface surface 183 If Rr is radiation resistance , e is effective permeability of ferrite core , the radiation resistance of ferrite loop is
A A C

Rr (0 / e )2 Rr

B D

Rr (e / 0 )2 Rr 0

184 The resultant field of an array antenna is A C 185

The product of element pattern and array factor

Sum of element patterns

B D

Array factor Element pattern

The excitation required to orient a beam in 0 direction is A C

kd cos 0
-kd

B D

-kd cos 0
kd

186 Super directivity of an array can be obtained by A C

Reducing the spacing

Reducing the number of elements

B D

Increasing the spacing Decreasing array length

187 Super directivity obtained by reducing the spacing and increasing the number of elements results in A C

High reactive power and Q

Small Q

B D

low reactive power and Q High reactive power and lower Q

188 Circular antennas are most sensitive to A

Linearily polarized waves

Elliptically polarized waves

Circularly polarized waves

Unpolarised waves

189 Circular antenna has usually a length of A C

/2 2

B D

/4

190 The horizontal pattern of a circular antenna is A C 191

Circle
Figure-eight pattern

B D

Four equal lobe pattern Six equal lobe pattern

Two end fire circular antenna elements with 90 phasing produce A C

Unidirectional pattern
Multidirectional pattern

B D

Figure eight pattern No radiation pattern

192 Cirular antennas are widely used at A C

VLF
Microwave frequency

B D

HF UHF

193 Directors in yagi uda antenna A C

Reduces the characteristic impedance of a driven antenna element

Has no effect on the characteristic impedance of driven element

B D

increases the characteristic impedance of a driven antenna element

Act as open circuit

194 Directors and reflectors are used to A C

Reduce the impedance

Increase the gain

B D

increase the impedance

Form an array

195 Due to use of parasitic elements the bandwidth of yagi-uda antenna is A C

Increased
Made ideal

B D

Not affected Limited

196 Yagi-uda antenna has A C

Poor front to back ratio infinite front to back ratio

B D

good front to back ratio zero front to back ratio

197 V-antenna yields A C

Bidirectional pattern
Good signal strength compared to dipole

B D

Unidirectional pattern Less band width compared to dipole

198 V-antenna is popular for A C

Satellite reception
Mobile reception

B D

FM reception Radar signal reception

199 If the power gain of an antenna is 0.5 dB , the power ratio is A C

0.216
1.26

B D

12.6 1.06

200 If the voltage gain of an antenna is 1.0 dB , the voltage ratio is A C

1.26
1.06

B D

0.126 1.0

201 If the power gain of an antenna is 30 dB , the power ratio is A C

1.477
100

B D

1000 10

202 If the power gain of an antenna is 20 , the power gain in dB is A C

13
20

B D

130 200

203 If a dipole is tilted forward , the band width becomes A C

Zero
More

B D

Infinite reduced

204 If a 300 line is terminated in 75 dipole , SWR is A C

4
8

B D

0.25 2

205 The power density at a distance of 1 km from 1 kW isotropic radiator is A C

795 mW / m2 795 W / m2

B D

79.5 mW / m2 79.5 W / m2

206 For radio wave propagation , fresh water is considered to be A C

Very poor
Very good

B D

Poor average

207 For radio wave propagation , cities are considered to be A C

Poor
Very good

B D

Very poor good

208 The phase velocity of a wave in medium whose = 0 is r A C

Finite

B D

0 V0

209 Antenna radiation efficiency is high when its length is A C

/ 2 3 / 2

B D

210 Antenna resonates when its length is integer multiples of A C

/ 4

B D

/ 2 / 3

211 For a 100 antenna with 2 A of current , radiated power is A C

400 watts 50 watts

B D

200 watts 25 watts

212 For a perfect conductor the power transmission coefficient is A C

B D

zero Reflection coeeficient

213

For a perfect conductor , the power transmission coefficient ||2 is A C

Equal to transmission coefficient

1

B D

1T 0

214 The Rayleigh criterion in the case of reflection of electromagnetic wave from semirough surface is A C

Cos i > / 8d Cos i < / 8d

B D

Cos i = / 8d Cos i = 0

215 The percent bandwidth of an antenna with an optimum frequency of operation of 500 MHz and - 3 dB frequencies of 300 MHz and 350 MHz is A C

20 %
500 %

B D

100 % 10 %

216 The received power of a receiving antenna whose effective area is 0.2 m2 for an

available power density of 100 W / m2

A C

200
50

B D

20 500

217 For an ideal antenna , the directivity is A C

Power gain
1.64

B D

1 1.5

218 For an ideal antenna , the radiation resistance is A C

73 293

B D

36.5
Input impedance

219 The power gain in dB of isotropic radiator is A C

0
1.5

B D

1 1.64

220 The normalized power of a dipole is A C

1
Sin2

B D

1.5 1.64

221 If the resistance part of antenna is 100 , radiation resistance is 80 , the antenna efficiency is A C

0.8
0.4

B D

10/8 8/18

222 If is the angle between the axis of a receiving dipole and the direction of electric field , the polarization loss factor is A C

Sin tan

B D

cos sec

223 The effective length of a half wave dipole is A C

0.4 /

B D

0.45 0.55

225 Effective area of a Hertzian dipole is A C

0.2 2 0.119 2

B D

0.25 2 0.3 2

226 Directive gain is equal to power gain if A C

= = gp

B D

=1 = gd

227 Directive gain and directivity are equal for A C 228

Directional antenna
Parabolic dish

B D

Dipole Isotropic antenna

For an isotropic antenna operating at = sqrt(4 ) , the effective area is A C 4 (4 )2 B D 1 2

229 Directivity is inversely proportional to square of beam width Directly proportional to square of C Directly proportional to beam width D beam width 230 If the direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is in z-direction , the polarization is in A inversely proportional to beam width B A C

z-direction x-direction

B D

y-direction
Circular polarization

231 If the quality factor of an antenna is 1000 , resonant frequency is 10 MHz its band width is A C

100 kHz 10 Hz

B D

10 kHz 10 MHz

232 The maximum effective area of an antenna operating at = 10 cm with the directivity of 100 is A C

1000 cm2
4 m2

B D

(1/4 ) m2 10 m2

233 The radiation resistance of an antenna which radiates 10 kW when a current of 10 ampere flows in it , is A C

100 10

B D

1,000 100 k

234 When an antenna radiates 10 kW in forward and 1 kW in backward directions , the front-to-back ratio of an antenna is A C

1 dB
100 dB

B D

10 dB
0 dB

235 If a medium has = 81 , = 2 mho/m , f = 10 GHz , it is r A C

A conductor
An insulator

B D

A bad conductor A good insulator

236 The radiated electric field is A C

dl 1/ dl

B D

(dl)2 1/(dl)2

237 Poynting vector has the unit of A C

Watts / m3 Watts / m2

B D

watts Volt-ampere

238 The current element has a directive gain of A C

3/2
1

B D

2/3 1.64

239 The polarization of horizontal dipole is A C

Vertical
- polarization

B D

Horizontal elliptical

240 To receive horizontally polarized wave , the receiving antenna should be polarised A C

Vertically
Circularly

B D

Horizontally Elliptically

241 The skin depth of an ideal conductor is A C

Finite

B D

Zero Sqrt( )

242 The conducting properties of a medium depends on A C Only f only B D only , and f

243 The surface current density of a good dielectric medium is A C

Zero
Finite

B D

Infinity -1

244 The surface charge density of a good dielectric medium is A C 245

-1
Finite

B D

Infinity Zero

In the boundary condition Dn1 - Dn2 = s , the unit of s is A C

C / m3 C/m

B D

C / m2 C

246 In the boundary condition H H = J , the unit of J t1 t2 s s A C

Ampere
Amp/m2

B D

Amp/m H/m

247 In the boundary condition B - B = 0 , the unit of B is n1 n2 n1 A C

Wb
Tesla/m

B D

Wb/m Wb/m2

248 In the boundary condition E E = 0 , the unit of E is t1 t2 t2 A C

Volt/m2
Volt

B D

Volt/m
Volt-m

249 H is A C

xE .B

B D

B/ P/E

250 The permittivity of a space is A C

1
>1

B D

251 The electric field of a circularly polarized wave is represented by A C

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t ax e j ( t
-z)

-z)

B D

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t ) ay e j ( t
-z)

252 A qurter wave line yields A C

Zero impedance
Impedance inversion

B D

Infinite impedance Real and reactive impedance

253 The tangential electric field at a perfect conductor is A C

1
Zero

B D

254 An electromagnetic wave when incident on a perfect conductor is A C

Reflected completely
Reflected and transmitted

B D

Transmitted completely Refracted completely

255 The electric field of elliptically polarized electromagnetic wave is represented by A C

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t Ex a x e j ( t
-z)

-z)

B D

( Ex ax + j Eyay ) e j ( t Eyay e j ( t
-z)

-z)

256 The transmission line can be converted into A C

A dipole antenna
A horn

B D

A dish antenna lens

257 The length of the mobile antenna is a A C

/4

B D

/2 >

258 E.H of uniform plane wave is A C

EH
E2

B D

0 None of these

259 For static magnetic field A C

XB= . B = 0 J

B D

XB=J XB=0

260 Electric field in free space A C

D / 0 0 D

B D

D / 0 / 0

261 For uniform plane wave in x-direction A C

Ex = 0 Ex = 0 and Hx = 0

B D

Hx = 0
None of these

262 Displacement current density is A C

D
D/t

B D

J J/t

263 Depth of penetration in free space is A C

B D

1/ None of these

264 Complex pointing vector P is A C

P= - E x H* P= E x H*

B D

P= E x H*
None of these

265 The time varying field is A C

E=-V E = - V -B

B D

E = - V -A/t E=-V-D

266 Uniform plane wave is A C

Longitudinal in nature
Neither transverse nor longitudinal

B D

Transverse in nature Vertically directed

267 The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from A C

ExH
E

B D

E.H H

268 An electromagnetic field can exist if it satisfies A C

Gausss law
Coulombs law

B D

Faradays law All Maxwells equations

269 If = 2.0 mho/m , E=10.0 V/m , the conduction current density is A C

5.0 A/m2 40.0 A/m2

B D

20.0 A/m2
20 A

270 Maxwells equations give the relations between A C Different fields Different boundary conditions B D Different Sources None of these

271 The velocity of EM wave is A C

Inversely proportional to
Directly proportional to

B D

Inversely proportional to
Directly proportional to

272 Velocity of a wave in a good conductor is A C

Very small
Moderate

B D

Very large None of these

273 If E = 2 V/m , of a wave in free space , (H) is A C 274

1 / 60 A/m 120 A/m

B D

60 A/m 240 A/m

If wet soil has = 10-2 A C

/m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 60 Hz , it is a
B D Good dielectric None of these

Good conductor
Semi conductor

275

If wet soil has = 10-2 A C

/m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 10 GHz , it is a
B D Good dielectric Semi dielectric

Good conductor
Semi conductor

276 The cosine of the angle between two vectors is A C

Sum of products of the directions of the two vectors Product of products of the directions of the two vectors

B D

Difference of products of the directions of the two vectors

None of these

277 The electric field intensity E at appoint (1,2,2) due to (1/9) nc located at (0,0,0) is A

33 v/m

0.333 V/m

C 278

0.33 V/m

Zero

If E is a vector , then . x E is A C

0
Does not exist

B D

1 None of these

279

The Maxwells equation .B = 0 is due to A C

B=H
Non existence of a monopole

B D

B=H/
None of these

280 Velocity of EM wave in free space is A C

Independent of f
Decreases with increase in f

B D

Increases with increase in f None of these

281 The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by A C

The direction of E The direction of E x H

B D

The direction of H The direction of E.H

282 For uniform plane wave propagating in z-direction A C

Ex = 0 H y = 0 , Ey = 0

B D

Hx = 0 Hz = 0 , Ez = 0

283 For free space A C

=
J0

B D

=0
None of these

284 Velocity of propagation of EM wave is A C

Sqrt(0 / 0 )
1/sqrt(0 0 )

B D

0 / 0 0 / 0

285 Electric field for time varying potentials A C

E=-V E= V

B D

E=-V-A E=-V+A

286 The intrinsic impedance of a medium whose = 0 , = 9 , = 1 Is r r A C

40 120

B D

60

287 For time varying EM fields A C

xH =J xE =0

B D

x H = D/t + J
None of these

288 The wave length of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1 + j 0.2 A C

10 m
30 m

B D

20 m 25 m

289 The electric field just above a conductor is always A C

Normal to surface
Zero

B D

Tangential to source

290 The normal components of D are A C

Continuous across a dielectric boundary

Zero

B D

Discontinuous across a dielectric boundary

291 An antenna is a synonyms to a A C

Generator
Regulator

B D

Transformer Reflector

292 A unipole is also known as A C

Omnidirectional radiator
Line radiator

B D

Unidirectional director None of the above

292 The directive gain of an antenna is given by A C

Radiation intensity in a particular direction / maximum radiated power

Radiation intensity in a particular direction / average radiated power

B D

Average radiated power/maximum radiated power Average radiated power / radiation intensity in a particular direction

293 The numeric value of directive gain may lie between A

- 1 And + 1

0 and 1

0 and

1 and

294 Which of the following constitute the loss resistance of an antenna ? A C

Dielectric loss
Loss in earth connection

B D

Leakage loss in insulation All of the above

295 In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in desired direction to the power radiated in the opposite direction is known as A C

Transmission efficiency
Loss coefficient

B D

Front to back ratio None of the above

296 Front-to-back ratio can be increased by A C

Sacrificing gain
Using the materials of high conductivity

B D

Increasing the size of conductor All of the above

297 A half wave dipole used at a frequency of 300 MHz has a length of A C

10 m
1m

B D

3m 50 cm

298 A vertical earthed antenna is resonant when its physical height is equal to A C

/4

B D

/2 /8

299 A folded dipole antenna is conveniently connected to A C

Shielded line
Coaxial line

B D

Two wire line Flat ribbon type transmission line

300 The bandwidth of an antenna is A C

Directly proportional to Q Directly proportional to Q2

B D

Inversely proportional to Q Inversely proportional to Q2

1.

Frequency domain representation of periodic signals is done by A C Fourier Transform Laplace Transform B D Fourier Series Z-transform

2.

Z transform of unit sample is A C 1 z B D 0 1/z

3.

Discrete Fourier Transform is A Discrete in Frequency B Continuous in frequency domain domain C Can be discrete or D None of the above continuous Continuous to-discrete conversion is achieved by a process of A C sampling inversion B D filtering multiplication

4.

5.

2 kHz sinusoidal signal is to be sampled. What should be the sampling interval? A 4 msec B 0.25 msec C 2.5 msec D 5 msec

6.

Discrete time fourier transform is A z-transform evaluated on unit circle C z-transform evaluated at origin Fourier series is a/an A C Finite series B D z-transform evaluated outside unit circle None of the above

7.

Infinite series

8.

Waveform dependent D None of the above finite or infinite series Fourier transform represents following type of signals in frequency domain A Periodic signals B Aperiodic signals C Quasi-periodic signals D All of the above

9.

For causal system, A C h(n)=0 for n<0 h(n)=1 for n<0 B D h(n)=0 for n>0 h(n)=1 for n>0

10.

For an LTI system, if x(n), h(n) and y(n) are input, impulse response and output of the system, which one of the following is true? A y(n)=h(n) x(n) B y(n)=h(n)*x(n) C h(n)=x(n) y(n) D x(n)= h(n)y(n)

11.

Laplace transform is used for the analysis of A C Continuous time system B Discrete time system

12.

Both continuous time D None of the above and discrete time systems Under force-current analogy ,displacement is analogous to A C Voltage Magnetic flux linkage B D conductance capacitance

13.

The Laplace transform of e-at is A C 1/s s/(s+a) B D 1/(s+a) a/(s+a)

14.

Transfer function can be obtained from A C Analogous table Output-input ratio B D Standard block system Signal flow graph

15.

Fast Fourier transform algorithm exploits A Symmetry property of WN C Both symmetry and periodicity property of WN An impulse train is A C Number of pulses B C Periodicity property of WN Addition property of WN

16.

17.

A number of pulses all D originating together The integral of a unit step function is A C A unit impulse function B D

A number of pulses spaced from each other None of the above

A unit pulse function None of the above

18.

A ramp function of slope 1 The area of an impulse is A C 1 infinity

B D

0 indefinite

19.

The function sinx / x A Has a period 2 ,decays with increasing x and has zeros at n ,n=1,2,3,4 Has a period /2 B Has a period

Has a period 2 ,decays with increasing x, is an even function and has zeros at n,n=(+/-) 1,2,3.

20.

The function sinc x is equal to A C Sinx/x x/sinx B D X sinx X+sinx

21.

The autocorrelation of a sampling function is a A C Triangular function Signum function B D Gate function None of the above

22.

For a periodic waveform, the power spectral density and correlation function form A a Laplace transform pair B a Fourier transform pair C a z-transform pair D a Hilbert transform pair

23.

The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not have A dc term B Cosine term C Sine term D Odd harmonic terms

24.

The Fourier series of an odd periodic function contains A C Odd harmonics only Cosine terms only B D Even harmonics only Sine terms only

25.

Autocorrelation function is A C An even function of B An odd function of

26.

May be an even or odd D Is both an even and odd function of function of The inverse Fourier transform of the function 2/j is A C Sin t Sgn (t) B D Cos t u(t)

27.

The period of the function cos (/4)(t-1) is A C 1/8 s 4s B D 8s 1/4 s

28.

The term energy spectral density is associated with A C Periodic waveform Cosine waveform B D Non-periodic waveform Exponential waveform

29.

Principle of superposition is applied to A C Linear systems only B Non linear systems only SECOND ORDER SYSTEM ONLY 2/ j

30.

Both linear and non D linear systems For the signum function sgn(t), F(j)= A 1/j B

C 31.

2 j

Ideal LPF is A C Non causal system FIR system B D Causal system Unstable system

32.

y(n)=x(Mn) defines A C multiplier delay B D compressor accumulator

33.

If f(t) is an even function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of Fourier series are A real B imaginary C complex D zeros

34.

If f(t) is an odd function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of Fourier series are A real B imaginary C complex D zeros

35.

A function will have only sine terms if A C f(t)=-f(t) f(-t)=-f(t) B D f(-t)=f(t) None of the above

36.

One unit of delay in time domain is equivalent to A C z-1 in z-domain z+1 in z domain B D z in z-domain z-1 in z -domain

37.

Modulation process can be explained by which of the following properties of Fourier transform? A Time shifting B Frequency shifting C differentiation D integration

38.

Discrete Fourier transform is a/an A C Finite duration sequence Periodic sequence B D Infinite duration sequence Periodic sequence with period of 2 Initial value of output None of the above

39.

Final value theorem is used to find A Steady state value of system output C Transient behavior of output If f(t) is in volts, F(j) is in A C volts Volts/sec B D

40.

B D

Volts*sec Volts*sec2

41.

Undersampling of the signal results in A Aliasing in frequency B Aliasing in time domain domain C Aliasing in both time D Preemphasis of the signal domain and frequency domain Even with Nyquist rate sampling, we cannot recover signal without distortion ,because A Filters are non-ideal B Sampling signal is non-ideal C Multipliers are non ideal D All of the above

42.

43.

Reconstruction of a signal from its sampled version requires A C Low pass filter Notch filter B D High pass filter Band reject filter

44.

The discrete time signal x(n)=(-1)n is periodic with fundamental period A C 6 2 B D 4 1

45.

The Fourier transform of an exponential signal x(n)=ejot is A C A constant An impulse B D A rectangular pulse A series of impulses

46.

The autocorrelation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is A B a rectangular pulse of a rectangular pulse of duration T. duration 2T. C D a triangular pulse of a triangular pulse of duration T. duration 2T. The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse existing between t = -T / 2 to t = +T / 2 is a A B sinc squared function. sinc function. C

47.

sine squared function.

sine function.

48.

The system characterized by the equation y(t ) = ax(t )+ b is

A C Linear for any value of b Linear if b<0 B D Linear if b>0 Non-linear

49.

If G(f) represents the Fourier Transform of a signal g (t), which is real and odd symmetric in time, then G (f) is A complex B imaginary
C real D Real and non-negative

50.

A band pass signal extends from 1 KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum sampling frequency needed to retain all information in the sampled signal is A 1 kHz B 2 kHz

C 51.

3 kHz

4 kHz

Two sequences x1 (n) and x2 (n) are related by x2 (n) = x1 (- n). In the zdomain, their ROCs are A The same B Reciprocal of each other
C Negative of each other D Complements of each other

52.

The Fourier transform (FT) of a function x (t) is X (f). The FT of dx(t )/ dt will be A dX(f)/df
C B D j2f X(f ).

jf X(f)

X(f )/(jf ).

53.

Inverse Fourier transform of u() is

A C 0.5 (t)+1/(t) 0.5 (t)+1/(2t) B D (t)+1/(t) (t)+1/(2t)

54.

The impulse response of a system is h(n) =a n u(n) . The condition for the system to be BIBO stable is A
C

a is real and positive

|a|>1

B D

A is real and negative |a|<1

55.

If R1 is the region of convergence of x (n) and R2 is the region of convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x (n) convoluted y (n) is A B R1+R2 . R1-R2 .
C

R1R2 .

R1R2 .

56.

The continuous time system described by y(t)= x(t2) is

A C

causal, linear and time varying. non causal, non-linear and time-invariant.

B D

causal, non-linear and time varying. non causal, linear and time-invariant.

57.

The signals x1(t ) and x2(t ) are both bandlimited to 1 to + 1 and 2 to + 2 respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal x1(t ) x2(t ) will be
A C

22 2(1 + 2)

B D

2
2 1

58.

The signal x(n)=sin(n/4) is A C aperiodic Periodic with period 12 B D Periodic with period 8 Periodic with period 2

59.

Minimum period of discrete time periodic signal is A 1 B 2

C 60.

Maximum frequency (rad/sample) of discrete time signal is A C 2 B D /2 /4

61.

The derivative of unit step function is A C Unit impulse impulse B D Ramp with slope 1 Rectangular function

62.

63.

If a periodic function f(t) of period T satisfies f(t)=-f( t + T/2) , then in its Fourier series expansion, A B the constant term will there will be no cosine be zero. terms. C D there will be no sine there will be no even terms. harmonics. A vertical line in s-plane corresponds to
A B A line in z-plane An ellipse in z-plane B D A point in z-plane A circle in z-plane

64.

For a right sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be A C Exterior of a circle Ring B D Interior of a circle Unit circle in z-plane

65.

For a left sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be A C Exterior of a circle Ring B D Interior of a circle Unit circle in z-plane

66.

For a two sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be A C Exterior of a circle Ring B D Interior of a circle Unit circle in z-plane

67.

Frequency response and impulse response are a A C z-transform pair Inverse z-transform pair B D Fourier transform pair DFT pair

68.

In z-plane, |z|=1 is A C A circle A square B D A line A rectangle

69.

The ROC of z-transform can not contain any A C zeros Poles and zeros B D poles

70.

Discrete Fourier transform represents

A C 71.

Time samples Frequency samples

B D

Period information All of the above

In z-transform, if x(n)X(z), then nx(n) A C -zdX(z)/dz -zdz B D dX(z)/dz zdX(z)/dz

72.

In computation of N- point DFT, there are A N complex B multiplications C N/2 complex D multiplications Circular convolution is also known as A C Linear convolution Simple convolution B D 2N complex multiplications N2 complex multiplications

73.

Periodic convolution None of the above

74.

If x(n)={1,1,1,1}, its 4-point DFT coefficient X(0) is A C 0 1 B D 4 2

75.

DFT is A C Sampled version of DTFT Same as DTFT B D Integrated version of DTFT Same as z-transform

76.

The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on transformation from x (t) to x (a t), a > 0 by a factor A a B 1/a
C a2 D a0.5

77.

If x(n) is of finite duration, then its z-transform will be possibly A C Unit circle Entire z-plane B D ring origin

78.

For DTFT to exist, the ROC must include A C Unit circle Point (-1,1) B D origin None of the above

79.

The ROC of z-transform must be A C A discontinuous region Unit circle B D A connected region Entire z-plane

80.

For a discrete time signal, dimension of o is A C degrees Radian/sample B D radians Degrees/sec

81.

For discrete time signal, high frequencies are closer to A C 2 B D 0 /2

82.

Period of DTFT is A C 2 /2 B D /4

83.

If we sample continuous signal x(t)=sin(200 t) with T=1/400 second, discrete time signal will be x(n)= A Sin(n/2) B Sin(n/4) C Sin (n/8) D Sin (/2n)

84.

Discrete Time Fourier Transform is a A Periodic function in time B Aperiodic function in time domain domain C Periodic function in D Aperiodic function in frequency domain frequency domain The LTI system with impulse response h(n)=4n u(n) is A C stable Non-causal B D unstable FIR system

85.

86.

To generate cos (n/3) from cos (4000 t) by sampling, T must be A C 1200 120 B D 12000 12

87.

If y(n)=log(x(n)), the system is A C linear LTI B D Non-linear None of the above

88.

The correlation of the function with itself is called A C autocorrelation Power spectral density B D Cross correlation Energy spectral density

89.

Autocorrelation function exhibits A C Conjugate asymmetry Compression of signal B D Nonlinearity property Conjugate symmetry

90.

Any periodic waveform can be expressed by A C Fourier series z-transform B D Fourier transform Discrete Fourier Transform

91.

Ideal delay system is characterized by A y(n)=x(n) B y(n)=x(n+no)

C 92.

y(n)=x(n-no)

y(n)=x(-no)

DTFT can be A C Sampled to get DFT B Integrated to get DFT None of the above

Differentiated to get DFT D

93.

sampling A Causes loss of B information C Is a step for D discretization To prevent aliasing, signal should be A C oversampled Critically sampled B D Is non-invertible operation All of the above

94.

undersampled None of the above

95.

DFT samples are A C Equi-spaced on unit circle Finite in number B D Samples of z-transform All of the above

96.

Duration of DFT sequence should be A Greater or equal to B Less than the duration of duration of time domain time domain sequence sequence C Equal to Half the D infinite duration of time domain sequence No. of DTFT samples possible on unit circle are A C finite N B D infinite 2N

97.

98.

DFT is normally a A C Real number Complex number B D Imaginary number Integer number

99.

DTFT A C Cannot be computed Can be computed for finite duration sequence DFT only B D Can be computed Can be computed for infinite duration sequence DTFT only

100.

FFT is A C B

101.

DFT computed with less D z-transform sample only no. of computations In force voltage analogy, the quantity analogous to spring constant K is A R B C

C 102.

1/C

Mechanical impedance is the ratio of A Rms force to rms B Rms force to rms velocity displacement C Rms velocity to rms D None of the above displacement In force current analogy, displacement is analogous to A C charge Electrostatic energy B D Magnetic flux linkage voltage

103.

104.

Time rate of change in heat energy is analogous to A C voltage current B D charge Voltage gradient

105.

A proportional controller is basically A An amplifier with adjustable gain C An amplifier with infinite gain In an integral controller, A The output is proportional to input B D An integrating amplifier An amplifier with almost zero gain The rate of change of output is proportional to input None of the above

106.

107.

The output is D proportional to rate of change of input Which control action is called rate control ? A C proportional integral B D

derivative Proportional plus integral

108.

Which control action can never be used alone? A C proportional integral B D derivative Both derivative and integral

109.

For a type I system and unit step input, the steady state error is A C 0 infinity B D 1 1/Kp

110.

For a type I system and unit parabolic input, the steady state error is A C 0 infinity B D 1 1/Kv

111.

For a type 0 system and unit ramp input, the steady state error is A 0 B 1

C 112.

infinity

1/Kv

The frequency at which phase angle is 180 is called A Phase cross over B Stability limit frequency frequency C Frequency of limited D Gain margin frequency stability The system has high gain and phase margins. The system is A C Very stable Very stable and sluggish B D sluggish oscillatory

113.

114.

A system is highly oscillatory if A C Gain margin is high B D Gain margin is close to 1 Gain margin is high and phase margin is 180 May lead to oscillatory response Neither A nor B

115.

Gain margin is close to 1 or phase margin is zero Integral control action A C Removes offset Both A and B

B D

116.

The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls the root locus A To the right B To the left C Towards zero D Towards infinity

117.

A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of poles lies on j axis. The system is A stable B unstable C Marginally stable D Highly stable

118.

A lead compensator A Speeds up the transient response C Increases the stability margin and speeds up the transient response The root locus branches A B D Increases the stability margin None of the above

119.

120.

Start from open loop B Start from open loop zeros poles and terminate at and terminate at poles zeros C May start from pole or D None of the above zero and terminate at another pole or zero If zeros at infinity are included in count, the number of zeros of G(s)H(s) is A Equal to number of B One more than number of poles poles C One less than number of D Two more than number of poles poles

121.

In root locus analysis, the breakaway and break in points A Lie on the real axis B Either lie on the real axis or occur in complex conjugate pairs None of the above

C 122.

Always occur in complex conjugate pairs In a minimum phase system, A

123.

All poles lie on the real B axis C All poles and zeros lie in D the left half plane The angular location of poles depends on A C Undamped natural frequency Resistance alone B D

All zeros lie in the left half plane All except one pole or zero lie in the left half plane Damping ratio Capacitance alone

124.

If a system is to follow arbitrary inputs accurately, the bandwidth should be A large B small C Very small D medium

125.

From the view point of noise, bandwidth should be A C large infinite B D small zero

126.

The distance of poles from origin depends on A C Undamped natural frequency Both A and B B D Damping ratio None of the above

127.

If poles lie in the first quadrant, damping ratio is A C 1 Less than 1 B D More than 1 zero

128.

The gain margin for a stable system A C Has a positive dB value B Has a negative dB value

129.

Has a large negative dB D Has zero dB value value A thermometer requires 1 minute to indicate 98% of its final response to a step input. If it is a first order system, the time constant is A 1 minute B 0.5 minute C 0.25 minute D 0.1 minute

130.

A lead compensator is basically a A C High pass filter Band stop filter B D Low pass filter Band reject filter

131.

A lag compensator provides attenuation in A C Very low frequency range High frequency range B D Low frequency range None of the above

132.

PID controlled system has A P and I actions in B forward path and D action in feedback path C All 3 actions in forward D path The ac motor used in servo application is A C Single phase induction motor 3 phase induction motor B D P and I actions in feedback path and D action in forward path All 3 actions in feedback path Two phase induction motor Synchronous motor

133.

134.

Optical encoders most commonly used in control systems are A C Absolute encoders Incremental encoders B D Secondary encoders None of the above

135.

Nichols chart consists of A C Constant magnitude loci B Constant phase angle loci

136.

Magnitude and phase D None of the above angle loci in logmagnitude versus phase diagram As the bandwidth increases, the cost of components A C Generally decreases B Generally increases

137.

May increase or D Does not change decrease The effects of adding poles and zeros can be determined quickly by A C Nichols chart Bode plot B D Nyquist plot Root locus

138.

Magnetic amplifier is used for A C Voltage amplification Current amplification B D Power amplification Frequency multiplication

139.

Robotic manipulator arms mostly use A C Hydraulic actuator Electric motor actuator B D Pneumatic actuator None of the above

140.

Integral error compensation changes a second order system to A First order system B Third order system

C 141.

Fourth order system

Higher order system

The effect of negative feedback on distortion and bandwidth are A C Both are decreased B Both are increased

142.

Distortion is reduced D Distortion is increased and and bandwidth is bandwidth is decreased increased If feedback factor is , the overall gain of a closed loop system is approximately A 1/ B C 2 D +A

143.

In a second order system, peak overshoot is independent of A C Damping factor B Natural frequency

144.

Both natural frequency D Neither natural frequency and damping factor nor damping factor In a second order undamped system, the poles are on A C Positive real axis Negative real axis B D Imaginary axis origin

145.

The polar plot of G(s)=1/[(1+s)(1+2s)] A C Does not cross real axis B Crosses real axis

146.

Crosses real axis at D Crosses real axis at =1.4 =0.7 rad/sec rad/sec At corner frequency, the phase angle of factor 1/(1+jT) is A C 90 45 B D -90 -45

147.

In log magnitude Bode plot ,the slope of high frequency asymptote of (1+jT) is A 20 dB/ decade B 10 dB/decade C 20 dB /octave D 10 dB/octave

148.

A conditionally stable system has A One phase cross over B Two phase cross over frequency frequency C Two or more phase D Zero phase cross over cross over frequencies frequency A system has 12 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of A -200 dB/decade B -240 dB/decade C -280 dB/decade D -320 dB/decade

149.

150.

Modeling error can occur due to A Neglecting non linear characteristics B Inaccuracy of parameters

Change of plant characteristics with time

Any of the above

An abrupt p-n junction diode in thermal equilibrium at T = 300 K is doped such that Ec EF = 0.21 eV in the n-region and EF- EV = 0.18 eV in the p-region. The built-in potential barrier Vbi is A 0.69 V B 0.83 V C 0.61 V D 0.88 V

A silicon p-n junction at T = 300 K has ND = 1014 cm-3 and NA =1017 cm-3. The built-in voltage is A C 0.63 V 0.026 V B D 0.93 V 0.038 V

An p-n junction diode is operating in reverse bias region. The applied reverse voltage, at which the ideal reverse current reaches 90% of its reverse saturation current, is

A C 4

59.6 mV 30.4 mV

B D

2.7 mV 12.0 mV

An abrupt silicon pn junction at zero bias and T = 300 K has dopant concentration of NA =1017 cm-3 and ND = 5 x 1015 cm-3, The Fermi level on n - side is A C 0.1 eV 0.3 eV B D 0.2 eV 0.4 eV

An ideal p-n junction diode is operating in the forward bias region. The change in diode voltage, that will cause a increase in current by factor of 9, is A C 83 mV 43 mV B D 59 mV 31 mV

A transition region in an open circuited p-n junction contains A C free electrons only both free electrons and holes B D holes only uncovered immobile impurity ions

In unbiased p-n junction, the junction current at equilibrium is A C due to diffusion of majority carriers zero due to equal and opposite currents crossing the junction B D due to diffusion of minority carriers zero because no charges cross the junction

In the energy band diagram of an open circuited p-n junction, the energy band of nregion has shifted relative to that of p-region A C downward by qVbi downwards by ( qVbi )/2 B D upward by qVbi upwards by ( qVbi )/2

The reverse saturation current in germanium diode varies as (where T is the temperature in deg K) A C T T2 B D T1.5 1/T

10

The reverse saturation current in silicon diode varies as (where T is the temperature in deg K) A C T T2 B D T1.5 1/T

11

In a p-n junction diode for constant value of current at room temperature dV/dT varies approximately at the rate of A C -2.5 mV/deg C -25 mV/deg C

B D

2.5 mV/deg C 25 mV/deg C

12

In a step graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion layer varies as A C 1 In a linearly graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion layer varies as D A C 1 In any p-n junction diode the transition capacitance CT varies as ( where is the width of the depletion layer)
/

13

14

15

B 1 C D The built in potential in a p-n junction diode equals A A C ln ln B D ln

16

Pinch off voltage VP for an FET is the drain voltage at which A C significant current starts B flowing all free charges get D removed from the channel drain current becomes zero avalanche break down takes place

ln

17

The % load regulation in a rectifier output circuit is defined as A 100% B 100% + + C 100% D 100%

18

value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by B A 2 2 2 C D

19 29

20

21

22

For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of output voltage . B A 2 2 2 C D value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given by B A 2 2 2 C D value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given by A B 2 2 2 C D The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for the half-wave rectifier is A C 0.406 0.693 B D 0.286 0.512

23

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for thefull-wave rectifier is A C 0.406 0.693 B D 0.286 0.512

24

The ripple factor () for the half-wave rectifier is A C 1.41 1.11 B D 0.48 1.21

25

The ripple factor () for the full-wave rectifier is A C 0.48 0.28 B D 0.68 1.21

26

The rectification efficiency () for the half-wave rectifier is A C 23.1% 46.1% B D 40.6% 20.1%

27

The rectification efficiency () for the full-wave rectifier is A C 68.1% 40.6% /2 2 B D 81.2% 92.1%

28

In half wave rectifier, the lowest ripple frequency is A C B D 3

C 30

For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of output voltage .

31

In the circuit of the following figure, D1 and D2 are ideal diodes. The current and are

A C

0, 4 mA 0, 8 mA

B D

4 mA, 0 8 mA,

32

For the circuit shown the figure given below the input voltage . Assume the RC time constant large and cut-in voltage of diode = 0. The output voltage is

C 33

In the circuit of the figure given below, the diodes have cut-in voltages of 0.6 V. The diode in ON state are

A C 34

only D1 both D1 and D2

B D

only D2 none of the above

For the circuit shown in the figure below, diode cut-in voltage = 0. The maximum ripple voltage is 4 V. The minimum load resistance, that can be connected to the output is

A C 35

6.25 k 25 k

B D

12.50 k None of the above

In the voltage regulator circuit in figure given below the maximum load current that can be drawn is

A C

1.4 mA 1.8 mA

B D

2.3 mA 2.6 mA

36

A Tunnel diode is p-n diode with A C very high doping in p-region very high doping in both p-region and n-region B D very high doping in n-region low doping in both p-region and n-region

37

In a Tunnel diode, the depletion width is order of A C 100 A0 1 micron B D 0.1 micron 5 micron

38

In a Tunnel diode, the impurity concentration is of the order of A C 1 in 103 1 in 107 B D 1 in 105 1 in 109

39

The most important application of Tunnel diode is A C as rectifier B as switching device in digital circuits

40

41

as voltage controllable D as oscillator device In a Varactor diode using the alloy junction, the transition capacitance is proportional to (where is the magnitude of reverse junction voltage) 1 A B 1 1 D C Zener breakdown results basically due to A C impact ionization emission of electrons B D strong electric field across the junction high thermal energy of the electrons

42

The dynamic resistance of the Zener diode increases with increase of decreases with the increase of B its current current is almost independent of C D none of these current At 250 C, a Zener diode is rated at 2 Watts, its power rating at 500 C will be A A C 2 Watts greater than 2 Watts
at the origin in the saturation

43

B D

1 Watts much greater than 2 Watts

44

The ON resistance rd ON , of an FET is the ratio : A C B D

in the saturation region at the origin 1

45

The saturation Drain current in an FET equals A C 1 1 2 B D

region

46

The transconduction of an FET in the saturation region equals A C 1 / 2 1 B D 2 . / 1

47

Input resistance of a JFET is of order of A C 1 k 10 M B D 10 k 100 M

48

Main drawback of a JFET is A C high input impedance higher noise B D low input impedance lower gain

49

50

In a PNP transistor operating in the active region, the concentration of minority carrier holes in the n-region at collector junction JC is thermal equilibrium value A zero B of emitter thermal equilibrium C concentration of holes in D same as junction JE collector region As the magnitude of the collector junction reverse bias increases, the effective base width A C increases remain same B D decreases first increases then becomes constant

51

52

Transistor approaches unity when : (Where and are the conductivities of Base and Emitter regions respectively) =1 1 A B 1 =5 C D In a BJT , as the conductivity of the base increases, the punch through voltage A C remains same decreases B D increases may increase or decrease depending on the bias at junction JE The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is of the order of A C 0.01 100 B D 1 10 k

53

54

55

In a BJT the, may be expressed in terms of as A B 1+ 1 1+ 1 C D In cut off region operation of BJT (where JE and JC are the Emitter and Collector junctions respectively) both JE and JC are both JE and JC are reversed A B forward biased biased JE is forward bias and JC JC is forward bias and JE is C D is reversed biased reversed biased In a BJT, with = 1 and = 0.99 the value of is A C 0.01 1 B D 0.1 100

56

57 66

In a BJT, The common with emitter = 0.98 short the value circuitof current is gain of a transistor A C 49 B 98 In a BJT, with = 100 the value of is A C 99 B 1.0 D 0.49 D 980

58

0.99 1.01

59

In a BJT, the spreading resistance is in the order of A C 10 1 B D 100 1 k

60

In a transistor current flows in A C base and emitter leads base and collector leads

B D

collector and emitter leads

61

emitter, base and collector leads In an ideal BJT, the impurity concentration in the emitter (E) , base (B) and collector (C) are such that A C E>C>B C>E>B B D B>C>E E=C>B

62

The h parameter equivalent circuit of BJT is valid for A C high frequency, large signal operation high frequency, small signal operation B D low frequency, large signal operation low frequency, small signal operation

63

The Ebers-Moll equation for in CB configuration is given by A C = + = + / 1 = 100 = 10 = 50 = 1 = 5 = 0 = 20 = 3

64

= + / 1 Typical values of h-parameters, at about 1 mA collector current , for small signal audio transistors in CE configuration are: D A B = 5 = 10 = 200 = 20

B = +

C 65

= 100 = 10 = 100 = 10

The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as Early voltage. Hence, reverse collector voltage A C increases both and increases and decreases B D decreases both and increases and decreases

C 67

The - cut off frequency of a BJT A C increases with the increase in base width increases with the increase in temperature

is a monotonically increasing function of the collector current IC increases with IC for low IC reaches maximum and then decreases

is a monotonically decreasing function of the collector current IC is not a function of IC

B D

increases with the increase in collector width increases with the decrease in base width

68

A single IC contains more than 110 logic gates. This forms a case of A C SSI LSI B D MSI VLSI

69

In a JFET the amplification factor , transconduction , and the dynamic drain resistance are related by = = A B C The transconductance of a JFET is of the order of A C 1 mS B 1S 100 S D 1000 S = . D = .

70

71

The dynamic resistance of the JFET is of the order of the A C 1 k B 10 k The dynamic resistance of the MOSFET is of the order of the A C 10 k B 500 k The magnitude of the threshold voltage for enhancement mode MOSFET is of the order of A C 0.01 V 10 V B D 1V 100 V 10 M D 100 M 500 k D 100 M

72

73

74

Which is the fastest switching device among the below given A C JFET MOSFET B D BJT Triode

75

The JFET can operate in A C depletion mode only either in depletion mode or enhancement mode B D enhancement mode only both in depletion mode or enhancement mode simultaneously

76

The input gate current of FET is A C a few amperes afew microamperes B D a few miliamperes negligibly small

77

Which of the following transistor is most vulnerable against ESD (Elecrostatic discharge) A C NPN transistor JFET B D PNP transistor MOSFET

78

A field effect transistor (FET) A C has three p-n junctions B uses a forward biased junction

79

80

depends on the variation depends on the variation the the magnetic field for its D reverse voltage for its operation operation The drain-source output characteristic of an n-channel depletion FET has = A = 0 at = 0 B at = 0 = C D is independent of at = 0 The V-I characteristics of an enhancement mode MOSFET has A C only an ohmic region an ohmic region at low voltages and saturation region at higher voltages B D only a saturation region an ohmic region at higher voltages and saturation region at lower voltages

81

The output V-I characteristics of a BJT has A C only an ohmic region an ohmic region at low voltages and saturation region at higher voltages reducing the power dissipation B D only a saturation region an ohmic region at higher voltages and saturation region at lower voltages

82

A Schottky diode clamp is used along with the BJT for A C increasing the value of B D reducing the switching time reducing the base current

84

For an n-channel JFET having drain source voltage constant if the gatesource voltage is increased (more negative) pinch-off would occur for high values of drain saturation value of drain A B current current gate current equal to drain C zero drain current D current A MOSFET is called A C 2-terminal device 4-terminal device B D 3-terminal device 5-terminal device

85

86

For MOSFETs, the material used for gate structure is A C highly pure Silicon B high purity Silica

87

heavily doped heavily doped amorphous D polycrystalline Silicon Silicon Consider the following statements: The Threshold Voltage ( of a n-MOSFET can be lowered by 1. Using thinner gate oxide 2. Reducing the substrate concentration 3. Increasing the substrate concentration Of these statements A C 3 alone is correct 1 and 3 are correct B D 1 and 2 is correct 2 alone is correct

88

The Threshold Voltage ( of a n-MOSFET can be increased by increasing the channel decreasing the channel B dopant concentration dopant concentration reducing the gate oxide C D reducing the channel length thickness Which of the following methods of biasing provides the best operating point stability A A C two battery bias fixed bias B D collector-to-base bias self bias +1

89

90

Stability factor S in fixed bias CE amplifier is given by A C 1 +1 B D + 1

91

Stability factor S in self bias CE amplifier is given by + 1 1 + + 1 A B + 1 + + 1 + + 1 1 + C D + 1 + + 1 +

92

93

The thermal resistance of collector junction of a transistor is given by (where = temperature deviation and = average power dissipation A B = = D C = = In a CE amplifier, the thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if A B = > 2 2 = D C < 2 2 The parameter of a typical transistor is of the order of A C 2.5 10 2.5 10 2.5 S B The parameter of a typical transistor is of the order of A C B 25 S 250 S D 2.5 mS D 2.5 10 2.5 10

94

95

96

With source resistance RS of 1000, the output impedance of a typical CE amplifier stage is of the order of A C 500 50 k B D 5 k 500 k

97

With load resistance of 4 k, the current gain of a typical CB amplifier stage is of the order of A C 0.98 50 B D 5 250

98

In a CE amplifier stage, on introducing a resistor Re in the emitter branch the input resistance Ri A C remains same decreases B D increases nominally increases very much

99

Ignoring the biasing network, Darlington emitter follower has input resistance of the order of A C 20 k 2 M B D 200 k 20 M

100

The current gain of the amplifier stage is lowest in A C CB configuration CC configuration B D CE configuration same in all configurations

101

Transistor amplifier stage has lowest input impedance A C CB configuration CC configuration B D CE configuration same in all configurations

102

Current gain of small signal transistor amplifier equals A

103

B 1 + 1 + C D 1 + 1 + Common collector amplifier has (where is input resistance and is output resistance) A C high and low high and high B D

104

The current stability of an emitter follower may improved by A decreasing emitter circuit and base circuit resistances decreasing emitter circuit and increasing base circuit resistances is higher than in CE and CB configuration is lower than in CE and CB configuration output is taken from the collector terminal input resistance is low B

low and high increasing emitter circuit and base circuit resistances increasing emitter circuit and decreasing base circuit resistances depends strongly on the source resistance is independent of the source resistance input and output signals are in phase

low and low

C 105

Output resistance of CC amplifier A C B D

106

In CC amplifier A C B D

voltage gain is relatively high

107

108

In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance equals B A C D In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the base spreading quals A C / 3 pF 1000 pF B D + /

109

In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the typical value of CC is A C B D 100 pF 0.01 F

110

111

The frequency at which the short circuit current gain of a CE amplifier falls to 12 of its low frequency value is equal to A B + 2 + + C D +

112

Parameter of a transistor is approximately given by A B 2 2 C D In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance accounts for bulk conduction of base leakage conductance in the A B region base region feedback action due to C D none of these base width modulation As collector current IC increases the values of A C remains constant B

113

decreases

114

increases, reaches decreases, reaches minimum D maximum and then falls and then rise In class-AB amplifier with sinusoidal input , the output current flows for A C half the cycle B full cycle

115

116

117

slightly Less than half D slightly more than half cycle cycle In RC coupled two stage CE amplifier, reduction in voltage gain at the high frequency range results due to shunt capacitance in the input A coupling capacitor Cc B circuit shunt capacitance in the bypass capacitor in the self C D output circuit bias circuit In RC coupled single stage CE amplifier, the lower 3-dB frequency may be reduced by reducing the value of increasing the value of A B coupling capacitor Cc coupling capacitor Cc reducing the total effective shunt reducing the total effective C capacitance in the output D shunt capacitance in the input circuit of the hybrid- circuit of the hybrid- model model The upper 3-dB frequency of n-stage amplifier with non-interacting stages equals A B 2 1 2 1 C D

118

The presence of emitter circuit bypass resistance adversely affects the A C low frequency response high frequency response B D mid-band response

119

response over all frequency range When multistage amplifier the coupling method which is capable of providing highest gain is A C RC coupling Transformer coupling B D Direct coupling Impedance coupling

120

In the output of a Push-Pull amplifier most disturbing harmonic distortion is the fundamental frequency A B first harmonic distortion C third harmonic D fourth harmonic

121

Which of the following amplifier produces least distortion A C Class-A Class-C B D Class-B Class-AB

122

Which of the following amplifier produces highest distortion A C Class-A Class-C B D Class-B Class-AB

123

Compared to single ended amplifier, a push-pull amplifier offers less distortion and less less distortion and more B output power output power more distortion and less more distortion and more D C output power output power In a class-C amplifier, full cycle conduction of the current can be achieved by employing A A C transformers Tuned circuit B D Push-pull circuit Complementary pair 1 1 1 + tends to increase the output resistance produces same effect on the output resistance as voltage sampling

124

125

In a feedback amplifier, de-sensitivity D equals A C 1 + B D

126

In a negative feedback amplifier, current sampling A C tends to decrease the output resistance does not change the output resistance B D

127 134

FET source at Frequency follower which the is a gain negative of the feedback Op-Amp amplifier is zero dB using called A C Voltage series feedback Voltage shunt feedback B D Current series feedback Current shunt feedback

128

129

BJT RC phase shift oscillator has angular frequency of oscillation equals 3 1 1 B A 6 + 4 1 1 1 1 C D 29 6 + 4 In BJT Colpitts oscillator angular frequency of oscillation equals A B 1 . C 1 +
. .

130

131

For sustained oscillations in BJT RC phase shift oscillator with 3-sections of RC network, the required transistor is given by (where = ) 29 > 29 A B > 4 + 23 + 29 29 C D > 4 + > 23 + Following compensation method in amplifier leads to reduction in bandwidth A C Lead compensation B Pole-zero compensation Miller effect D Dominant pole compensation compensation In circuit shown in figure below, the input voltage is 0.2 V. The output voltage is

132

A C 133

6V -6 V

B D

8V -8 V

Consider the circuit shown below, If = 2 V, then output is

A C

4V -3 V

B D

6V -6 V

A C 135

crossover frequency Gain margin

B D

Unity gain crossover frequency Phase margin

For the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure, is

A C 136

-2 V -0.5 V

B D

-1 v 0.5 V

For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the of the transistor is very large and = 0.7 . The mode of operation of the BJT is

A C 137

cut-off normal active

B D

saturation reverse active

The circuit below forms

A C 138

active positive clipper active peak detector

B D

logarithmic amplifier active half wave rectifier

For the circuit in figure = and = 50. The value of is

A C

0.9 V 2.14 V

B D

1.19 V 2.84 V

139

The Ton time for the 555 based astable multivibrator is A C 0.69 + 2 . 0.69 . B D 1.44

0.69 + .

140

Frequency of the waveform generated in 555 based astable multivirator can be given by A C 1.44 / + 2 . . B D 1.44 / + . 1.44 1.1 . 1.7 . oscillates continuously none of the above

141

On time for the pulse when monostable multivibrator triggered can be given by A C 1.34 . . B D

142

Relaxation oscillator is one which A C produces non-sinusoidal output has two stable states B D

143

A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when A C it is unbiased no current is flowing through it B D no signal is applied to it emitter junction bias equal to collector junction bias reduce overall frequency response decrease overall gain and increase the frequency response

144

Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to A C reduce the overall gain increase overall gain and reduce the frequency response B D

145

Comparator circuits are used in A C summing differentiating B D integrating converting sine to square wave

146

In a multistage amplifier, the intermediate stages are always in A C CB configuration CC configuration B D CE configuration any configuration

147

A CB amplifier is characterized by A C low Ai , high AV high Ai , high AV B D low Ai , low AV high Ai , low AV

148

Capacitor filter is ideal for currents which are A C small large B D medium very large

149

Negative feedback in an amplifier results in A C more gain, more bandwidth less gain, more bandwidth B D more gain, less bandwidth less gain, less bandwidth

150

Schmitt trigger circuit is also called A C squaring circuit sweep circuit B D blocking oscillator astable multivibrator

Resistances can be measured with the help of A C wattmeters ammeters B voltmeters

D ohmmeters and resistance bridges

An ammeter is a A C secondary instrument recording instrument B absolute instrument

D integrating instrument

The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in A C series series-parallel B parallel

D none of the above

A potentiometer may be used for A C measurement of resistance calibration of ammeter B measurement of current

D all of the above

An ohmmeter is a A C moving iron instrument dynamometer instrument B moving coil instrument

D none of the above

For measuring a very high resistance we should use A C Kelvin's double bridge Meggar B Wheat stone bridge

D None of the above

Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. Voltage A C Small range moving coil voltmeter Small range thermocouple voltmeter B D.C. potentiometer

D None of the above

A direct current can be measured by A a D.C. potentiometer directly a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box B a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance

C 9

D none of the above

Basically a potentiometer is a device for

A C 10

comparing two voltages comparing two currents

measuring a current

D measuring a voltage

In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of A C known inductance and resistance known resistance B known capacitance and resistance

D known inductance

11

For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is A C Wein bridge Schering bridge B Modified De Santy's bridge

D Any of the above

12

For measurement of mutual inductance we can use A C Anderson bridge Heaviside bridge B Maxwell's bridge

D Any of the above

13

If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle of the capacitor is A C 10 120 B 80

D 170

14

In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is A C a few volts only 5 kV B 1 kV

D 10 kV

15 If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three arms A the bridge can always be balanced B the bridge cannot be balanced

C 16

the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have D Any of the above some specific values

Systematic errors are A C instrumental errors observational errors B environmental errors

D all of the above

17

Standard resistor is made from A platinum B maganin

C 18

silver

D nichrome

Commonly used standard capacitor is A C spherical type electrostatic type B concentric cylindrical type

D multilayer parallel plate type

19

For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use A C Maxwell's bridge Hay's bridge B Maxwell Wein bridge

D Any of the above

20

Volt box is a component to A C extend voltage range compare voltage in a box B measure voltage

D none of the above

21

Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of A C electrostatic instrument moving iron instrument B thermocouple instrument

D electrodynamic instrument

22

Qualitative results refer to: A C Results that can be observed during an experiment. Results that require numerical data. B Results that are difficult to observe during an experiment.

D none of these is correct.

23

The unit of sensitivity is A C Volt Volt/Ohm B Ohm

D Ohm/Volt

24

The basic PMMC movement is often called DArsonval movement is used to measure A C DC only Both DC & AC B D AC only None of the above

25

The ratio of the change in output of the instrument to a change in input is known as A C Precision Resolution B D Sensitivity Accuracy

26

The deviation of the true value from the desired value is known as A Expected value B Output value

C 27

Error

D Input value

Which of the following are integrating instruments A C Ammeters Wattmeters B Voltmeters

D Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

28

Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument A C Deflecting device Damping device B Controlling device

D All of the above

29

A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt. A C ammeter flux-meter B voltmeter

D flux-meter

30

A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to reach its final position quickly A C deflecting damping B controlling

D any of the above

31

A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter A C by using a low resistance shunt by eliminating the control springs B D by using a high series resistance by making control springs of large moment of inertia

32

Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments A C Shunts Current transformers B Multipliers

D All of the above

33

In majority of instruments damping is provided by A C fluid friction eddy currents B spring

D all of the above

34

An ammeter is a A C secondary instrument secondary instrument B secondary instrument

D integrating instrument

35

Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.

A C 36

Active Secondary

Passive

D Inverse

Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of A C Active transducers Analog transducers B Passive transducers

D Primary transducers

37

A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting A C Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance Force into a displacement B
Pressure into a change of resistance

Force into a displacement

38

Piezo electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it. A C Mechanical force Illuminations B D
Vibrations

Heat

39

In a LVDT, the two secondary voltage A C Are independent of the core position
Vary equally depending on the core position

Vary unequally depending on the core position

D Are always in phase quadrature

40

The application of LVDT is A C Joint motion Limb movement B Finger movement

D Heart wall motion

41

The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy. A C Remains unaltered Reaches maximum B Increases

D Decreases

42

Which of the following is a digital transducer A C Strain gauge Thermistor B Encoder

D LVDT

43

The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of A C

Self inductance

Mutual inductance

Reluctance

D Permanence

44

S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity. S2: Transducer is also called as sensor. A C S1 is true & S2 is false Both S1 & S2 are true B D S2 is true & S1 is false Both S1 & S2 are false

45

The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is A Deformation leads to change in resistance Coupling of two coils changes with displacement B Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material

C 46

_____________ is the example of photo emissive cell A C LDR Photo transistor B Photo diode

D Photo multiplier

47

B-H Curve is used to determination of: A C Hysteresis loss Eddy current loss B Iron loss

D Both (a) and (b

48

In CRO the time base signal is applied to A C Y-plates Either X-plate or Y-plate B D X-plates Both X-plate and Y-plate

49

The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its output is A C A Constant frequency range 50 Hz to 60 Hz B DC

D Variable frequency

50

Hays Bridge is suitable for the measurement of: A C Inductances with Q>10 Capacitors with high dissipation factor B D Inductances with Q<10 Capacitors with low dissipation factor

51

A 0 - 100 V volteter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to 1/2 division. Determine the resolutin of the meter in volt. A 0.60 V B 1V

0.92 V

0.25 V

Illumination is measured using which one of the following? 52 A C Millivoltmeter Luxmeter B D Stroboscope pH meter

Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal? 53 A C Force Sound B D Velocity Pressure

Which of the following is a digital transducer? 54 A C Strain gauge Thermistor B D Encoder LVDT

The difference between the measured value and the true value is called 55 A C gross error probable error B D relative error absolute error

The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is 56 A C Electrometer Voltmeter B D Galvanometer Coulometer

An average-reading digital multimeter reads 10V when fed with a triangular wave, symmetric about the time-axis.For the same input an rms-reading meter will read 57 A C 20/3 203 B D 10/3 103

A voltmeter should have 58 A C Low internal resistance Electrostatic plates B D High internal resistance A sensitive amplifier

The pressure coil of a dynamo meter type wattmeter is 59 A C Highly inductive Purely resistive B D Highly resistive Purely inductive

The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode, the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can be made from this. 60 The amplitudes of the signals are very close but not equal There is a constant but small phase difference between the signals

The signals are not sinusoidal The signals are sinusoidal with their frequencies very close but not equal

In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows zero reading, then it can be concluded that 61 A C Power factor is unity Power factor is 0.5 lagging B D Power factor is zero Power factor is 0.5 leading

A thermocouple 62 A C Gets warm when dc flows through it Generates ac when heated B D Is a thin, straight, special wire Generates dc when exposed to visible light

The shunt type ohm meter is not suitable for high resistance measurements because Very low resistance of the meter would short the high unknown resistance

63

Scale is highly cramped for high resistance

Full scale value of the meter may D Battery cannot supply the necessary be exceeded current for proper meter deflection The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces what is called the 64 A C quantization error B resolution error

D sampling error Nyquist error Which of the following performance specifications applies to a sample-and-hold circuit? 65 A C 66 Aperture time Feedback B D Aperture droop Acquisition jitter

Telemetry may be defined as,

A C

Drawing graph Calculating length

B D

Indicating direction Measuring at a distance

Converting the deflection of an insrument in to impulses of proportional frequency is known as 67 A C Frequency modulation Impulse counting system B D Pulse amplitude modulation system Impulse frequency system

Strain guage converts 68 A C Mechanical displacement in to a change in resistance Current in to a change in resistance B D Resistance in to a change in mechanical displacement None of this

In CRT the amount of cathod current, which governs the intensity of the spot, can be controlled with 69 A C The spot screw The control grid B D Holding switch First anode

In oscilloscope tube electron gun the beam is accelerated to the final velocity by a 70 A C Quadrupole lens Control grid B D Increasing current Deflection plates

The power factor is the cosine of the angle between 71 A C Voltage and curent Voltage and frequency B D Current and inductance All of above

A 1 - mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 100 is to be converted in to a 0 - 100 mA ammeter. The value of the shunt resistance required is 72 A C 73 9.10 0 B D 1.01 10

Relation of averae value and the rms value of time varying voltages and currents is

Power factor

Form factor

Phase value

None of this

Desirable value of temperature coefficient of resistance () in resistance temperature detectors is 74 A C Low Value does not affect sensitivity B D High None of this

Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRT is 75 A C Meter/Volt Volts/Meter B D Volts Volts/Time

What is crest factor in true rms responding voltmeter 76 A C Ratio of rms value to peak value Ratio of value of current to value of peak value B D Ratio of value of current to rms value Ratio of peak value to rms value

The output voltage of a typical thermocouple is 77 A C Less than 100 mV Thermocouples vary resistance, not voltage B D Greater than 1 V None of this

What is the zero-voltage switch used for? A 78 C To control low-voltage circuits D To reduce radiation of high frequencies during turn-on of a high current to a load For extremely low-voltage applications B To provide power to a circuit when power is lost

Temperature sensing can be achieved by the use of 79 A C Thermocouples thermistors B D RTDs All of the above

The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is 80 A to decrease temperature sensitivity B to increase voltage output

C 81

to cancel unwanted voltage output of a thermocouple

used for high-temperature circuits

Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers. A C Active Passive B D Secondary Inverse

82

Which of the following instrument can be used for both ac and dc A C PMMC type Induction type B D Moving-iron type None of the above

83

Electrostatic instruments are mainly employed to measure: A C Heavy currents Low currents B D Low voltages High voltages

84

Measurement range of a voltmeter can be extended by using: A C High current resistance High series resistance B D Low shunt resistance Low series resistance

85

_____________ is the example of photo emissive cell A C LDR Photo diode B D Photo transistor Photo multiplier

86

The instrument which is cheapest for dc measurement is: A C Moving iron PMMC LVDT windings are wound on A C Steel sheets Aluminium B D Ferrite Copper B D Hot-wire Electro-dynamo

87

88 Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal? A C 89 Force Velocity B D Sound Pressure

Swamping of resistance is used to compensate error due to: A Stray magnetic field B Large supply variations

C 90

Temperature variations

None of the above

Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of A C Active transducers Passive transducers B D Analog transducers Primary transducers

91 Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called A C 92 The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of A C 93 Self inductance Mutual inductance B D Reluctance Permanence Piezo-electric Photo-electric B D Thermo-electric Photo-resistive

A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called A C Active transducer Analog transducer B D Digital transducer Pulse transducer

94

An inverse transducer is a device which converts A C An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity B D Electrical energy into thermal energy Electrical energy into light energy

95

The internal resistance for milli ammeter must be very low for: A C High sensitivity High accuracy B D Maximum voltage drop across the meter Minimum voltage drop across the meter

96

Potentiometer is an __ instrument: A C Indicating Comparison B D Calibrating Recording

97

Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf A C When external mechanical force is applied to i When radiant energy stimulates the crystal B D When external magnetic field is applied When the junction of two such crystals are heated

98

Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive: A C Wheatstone bridge Maxwell bridge B D Anderson bridge Wien bridge

99

In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to A C change in diameter of the wire Change in length of the wire B D Change in both length and diameter Change in resistivity

100

Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that: It may draw current minimum A B Its range is high possible C Its accuracy is high D Its sensitivity is high

101 The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy. A C 102 Remains unaltered Increases B D Reaches maximum Decreases

Direct current is preferred over alternating current for testing of ac transmission lines and cables because: Heavy charging currents will be drawn and so a large sized transformer is required if tested with ac b) Transmission lines and cables should not be tested with dc The transformers required for testing cannot be used for long distances

C 103

All the above

The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of A C Heart rate Blood flow B D Heart sound Foot pressure

104

The application of LVDT is A C Joint motion Finger movement B D Limb movement Heart wall motion

105

A Ohmmeter is basically: A ammeter A voltmeter B D A multimeter None of the above

106

Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is A C Strain gauge transducer only Strain gauge or capacitive transducer B D Resistive transducer Fiber optic transducer

107

Test electrode is also known as A C a) Indicator electrode B c) Second electrode

108

D d) Primary electrode b) Reference electrode A moving iron ammeter coil has few turns of thick wire in order to have: A C B D c) Low resistance and large current carrying capacity d) Large scale

a) High sensitivity b) Effective damping

109

A thermo-couple instrument can be used for the measurement of: A C a) Direct current only B c) Both direct current and alternating current

110

D d) dc/ac voltage only b) Alternating current only Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements A C a) Static b) Dynamic B D c) Transient d) Both static and dynamic

111

Which of the following is a digital transducer? A C a) Strain gauge b) Encoder B D c) Thermistor d) LVDT

Aluminum is a 1 A C 2 Diamagnetic material Paramagnetic material B D Ferromagnetic material Dielectric material

Relative permeability of Aluminum is A C 3 1.00000065 1.00004 B D 1.00000079 1.0001

Boltzmann constant is A C 1.381 X 1023 J/K 1.381 X 1023 V/K B D 1.381 X 10-23 J/K 1.381 X 10-23 V/K

Conductivity of Silver used in wave guide is ____mho/meter A C 3.82 X 107 5.80 X 107 B D 4.10 X 107 6.17 X 107

Conductivity of Gold used in wave guide is ____mho/meter 5 A C 6 3.82 X 107 5.80 X 107 B D 4.10 X 107 6.17 X 107

IEEE microwave frequency band Ku is in ______GHz range A C 7 8.000 12.000 18.000 27.000 B D 12.000 18.000 27.000 40.000

IEEE microwave frequency band X is in ______GHz range A C 8.000 12.000 18.000 27.000 B D 12.000 18.000 27.000 40.000

A conductor of _____ conductivity and ____ permeability has low intrinsic impedance. A Low, Low B Low, High C High, Low D High, High

Principle advantage of microwaves over low frequency is A C Increased bandwidth B Increased privacy

10

Ability to use high gain, D All of the above high directivity antenna Microwave links are preferred for TV transmission because

11

They produce less phase distortion C They are relatively D They are free from impulse cheaper noise Rain drop attenuation in most microwave link is caused due to A Scattering of microwaves B. Scattering of microwaves by a by water drops of specific collection of droplets acting of size a single body C Absorption of microwave D Absorption of microwaves by by water consequent water vapour in the heating of the liquid atmosphere Standard mismatching in microwave circuits have SWR from A C 0.5 : 1 to 2 : 1 1.2 : 1 to 2 : 1 B D 1 : 0 to 2 : 1 1.33 : 1 to 2 : 1

Of small S/N ratio

12

13

In microwave we take the elements as A C Lumped circuit element Both a and b B D Distributed circuit element None of the above

14

Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart A Because of earth B Because of atmospheric curvature attenuation C Because of output tube D To ensure that the applied dc power limitations voltage is not excessive When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cut off wavelength of guide A The group velocity of the B The phase velocity of the signal becomes zero. signal becomes infinite C The wavelength within the D All of the above waveguide becomes infinite The front end of the amplifier chain in a manufacturer communication system is kept immersed in liquid nitrogen, to A Dissipate heat generated B Expand its frequency response by amplifier C Improve its noise figure D Reduce the distortion by the amplifier Short-term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by A Increasing the B Changing the antenna transmitting power C Changing the modulation D Diversity reception and scheme transmission The wavelength of microwave at 100GHz will be

15

16

17

18

A C 19

3 cm 0.03 cm

B D

0.3 cm 0.3 m

When microwave signals follows the curvature of the this is known as, A C Ducting Tropospheric scatter B D Farady effect Ionospheric reflection

20

Multicavity Klystron A C Is not microwave device B D Is not good low level amplifier because of noise Has a high repeller voltage to ensure small transition time Microwave amplifier

21

Is not suited for pulse operation A Reflex Klystron functions as A C Microwave oscillator

22

Both as microwave D A high gain cavity amplifier and oscillator A Reflex klystron is capable of generating such high frequencies as A C 1000 MHz 100000 MHz B D 10000 MHz 8 GHz

23

Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have A C Too low Q B D Harmonically related resonant frequency Are difficult to fabricate

24

A shape not permitting easy adjustment of resonant frequency The modes in a reflex klystron A

25

Give the same frequency B Result from excessive transit but different transit times time across the resonator gap C Are caused by spurious D Are just for theoretical frequency modulation considerations Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses a coaxial magnetic field and radial electric field? A Coaxial magnetron B CFA C Travelling wave D Reflex Klystron magnetron The secondary cavity in a two cavity klystron is called the A C Buncher cavity Velocity modulation cavity B D Catcher cavity None of these

26

27

Klystron operates on the principle of A C Amplitude modulation Pulse modulation B D Frequency modulation Velocity modulation

28

The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of diameter 1 meter and carrying current of 2 A is A C 8 3 B D 4 2

29

The polarization of a dielectric material is given by A C

B D

P =r E . P = E 0 (r 1)
30

P = (r -1 )E . P = (r 1) 0

In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are A C perpendicular in space . B parallel in space

31

E is in the direction of D H is in the direction of wave wave travel travel. For a broad side linear array which of the following is not correct A the maximum radiation occurs perpendicular to the line of the array at =90 width of principal lobe is less than that of an end fire array. B the progressive phase shift ( ) between elements is zero.

the maximum radiation occurs along the line of array at = 90

32

A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a plane electromagnetic wave increases four times, the skin depth, will A Increase by a factor of 2. B decrease by a factor of 4. C remain the same. D decrease by a factor of 2.

33

In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component of electric field is A Et B 2Et C Zero D Infinite

34

For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which of the following statement is incorrect:

35

The energy distribution between magnetic and electric field is not equal. C Standing wave does not D Efficiency of transmission of exist. power is maximum. For a line of characteristic impedance, ZO terminated in a load, ZR such that ZR > ZO , the Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) is given by A C ZR/Z0 ZR B D Z0 Z0/ZR

It is a smooth line.

36

The lower cut-off frequency of a rectangular wave guide with inside dimensions (3 4.5 cm) operating at 10 GHz is A C 10 GHz 10/9 GHz B D 9 GHz 10/3 GHz

37

The directive gain cannot be stated as A the ratio of the radiation B the function of angles intensity in that direction to the average radiated power. C the directivity of an D independent of angles antenna when directive gain is maximum. With respect to equi-potential surface pick the odd one out. A Potential is same every where B Work done in moving charge from one point to another is zero No current flows on this surface 73 ohm 377 ohm

38

C 39

Potential is different every D where The intrinsic impedance of free space is A C 75 ohm 120 ohm B D

40

The characteristic impedance is given by A C Z0 =

B D

. Ez = 0; Hz = 0

Zsc. Zoc

41

Transverse electric wave travelling in z- direction satisfies A B Ez = 0; Hz 0

C 42

Ez 0; Hz = 0

Ez 0; Hz 0.

Radiation resistance of a /2 dipole is A C 73 120 ohm B D 75 ohm 377 ohm

43

In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between electric and magnetic field vectors E and B is A Zero B /2 C D /4

44

Consider a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and the line is terminated at one end by +j50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the transmission line will be A +1 B 0 C Infinite D -1

45

Which one of the following conditions will not guarantee a distortion less transmission line A R=0=G B RC = LG C very low frequency range D very high frequency range (R>>wL, G >> wC) (R<<wL, G << wC) In a certain medium E = 10 Cos( t 3y) ax V/m. What type of medium is it? A Free space B Lossy dielectric C Lossless dielectric D Perfect conductor

46

47

Which of the following statements is not true of waves in general? A It may be a function of B It may be sinusoidal or time only cosinusoidal C It may be a function of D For practical reasons, it must time and space be finite in extent. Plane y=0 carries a uniform current of 30 az mA/m. At (1, 10, 2), the magnetic field intensity is A 15 ax mA/m B 15 ax mA/m C 477.5 a y A/m D 18.85 a y nA/m

48

49

A loop is rotating about y-axis in a magnetic field B =B0 sin _t ax Wb/m2 . The voltage induced in the loop is due to A Motional emf B Transformer emf C A combination of motional D None of the above & transformer emf If D = E and J = E in a given material, the material is

50

said to be A C 51 Linear Isotropic B D Homogeneous Linear & Homogeneous

Lorentz force law is A C F = QE F= Q(E + V*B) B D F = V*B F = Q (V*B)

52

For a transmission line terminated by a load, the reflection co-efficient magnitude and the voltage standing wave ration S are related as: A B S = 1 / (1+| | ) S = 1 / (1 || ) C S = (1 | | ) / (1+| | ) D S = (1+ | | ) / (1 | | )

53

For a rectangular wave guide, 2.5cm x 1.2cm, dominant cut off wavelength is A 5 cm B 2.5 cm C 2.4 cm D 3.7 cm

54

If a line is terminated in an open circuit, the VSWR is A C 0 Infinite B D 1 -1

55

A hollow rectangular waveguide acts as a A C High pass filter Band pass filter B D Low pass filter Low frequency radiator

56

Divergence theorem is applicable for A C static field only B time varying fields only

57

both static and time D electric fields only varying fields A uniform plane wave in air is incident normally on an infinitely thick slab. If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5, then the percentage of the incident power that is reflected from the air-glass interface is A 0% B 4% C 20 % D 10 % Some unknown material has a conductivity of mho/ m, and a permeability of 4 * . The skin depth for the material at 1 GHz A 15.9 um B 20.9 um

58

C 59

25.9 um

30.9 um

The radio wave is incident on layer of ionosphere at an angle of 30 with the vertical. If the critical frequency is 1.2 MHz, the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is A 1.2 MHz B 2.4 MHz C 0.6 MHz D 1.386 MHz

60

61

A transmission line with a characteristic impedance 1 Z is connected to a transmission line with characteristic impedance 2 Z . If the system is being driven by a generator connected to the first line, then the overall transmission coefficient will be A B + + C D + + A rectangular waveguide has dimension 1.0 cm0.5 cm, its cutoff frequency for the dominant mode is A 5 GHz B 10 GHz C 15 GHz D 20 GHz

62

Poynting vector gives A C rate of energy flow. intensity of electric field. B D direction of polarization intensity of magnetic field.

63

In an-filled rectangular wave guide, the cutoff frequency of a TE10 mode is 5 GHz where as that of TE01 mode is 12 GHz. The dimensions of the guide is A 3 cm by 1.25 cm B 1.25 cm by 3 cm C 6 cm by 2.5 cm D 2.5 cm by 6 cm

64

Consider a 150 m long air-filled hollow rectangular waveguide with cutoff frequency 6.5 GHz. If a short pulse of 7.2 GHz is introduced into the input end of the guide, the time taken by the pulse to return the input end is A 920 ns B 460 ns C 230 ns D 430 ns

65

A rectangular waveguide is filled with a polyethylene r=2.25 and operates at 24 GHz. The cutoff frequency of a certain mode is 16 GHz. The intrinsic impedance of this mode is A 224.8 ohm B 337.2 ohm C 421.4 ohm D 632.2 ohm

66

The cross section of a waveguide is shown in fig. It has dielectric discontinuity as shown in fig. If the guide operate at 8 GHz in the dominant mode, the standing wave ratio is

A C 67

-3.911 1.564

B D

2.268 4.389

The air filled cavity resonator has dimension a = 3 cm, b = 2 cm, c=- 4 cm. The resonant frequency for the TM110 mode is A 5 GHz B 6.4 GHz C 16.2 GHz D 9 GHz

68

Two identical rectangular waveguide are joined end to end where a = 2b. One guide is air filled and other is filled with a lossless dielectric of r . it is found that up to a certain frequency single mode operation can be simultaneously ensured in both guide. For this frequency range, the maximum allowable value of r is A 4 B 2 C 1 D 6

69

A parallel-plate guide operates in the TEM mode only over the frequency range0 < f< 3GHz. The dielectric between the plates is Teflon (r =21) . The maximum allowable plate separation b is A 3.4 cm B 6.8 cm C 4.3 cm D 8.6 cm

70

A 81 lossless planer line was designed but did not meet a requirement. To get the characteristic impedance of 75 the fraction of the width of the strip should be A added by 4% B removed by 4% C added by 8% D removed by 8%

71

A lossless line has a voltage wave V(z, t) =10 sin(t - z). The line has parameter L =0.2 uH /m, C= 0.5 nF /m. The corresponding current wave is A 20 sin(t - z) B 0.5 sin(t - z) C 200 sin(t - z) D sin(t - z)

72

A lossless transmission line operating at 4.5 GHz has L =2.6 uH m and Z 0= 80. The phase constant and the phase velocity v is A B 214 rad/m, 30.8* m s 148 rad/m, 274* m s C 919 rad/m, 30.8* m s D None of the above A 60 coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 dipole antenna. The voltage

73

reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio s are respectively A C 74 0.212 48.55, 1.538 0.486 41.45 , 2.628 B D 0.486 68.4, 2.628 0.212 68.4, 1.538

For a short-circuited coaxial transmission line: Characteristic impedance Z0 = 35 + j49 , Propagation constant = 1.4 + j5 Length of line l =0.4 m. The input impedance of short-circuited line is A 82 + j39 B 41 + j78 C 68+ j46 D 34 + j23

75

The quarter-wave lossless 100 line is terminated by load ZL =210. If the voltage at the receiving end is 60 V, the voltage at the sending end is A 126 B 28.6 C 21.3 D 169

76

Consider a 300 quarter-wave long transmission line operating at 1 GHz. It is connected to 10 V, 50 source at one end and is left open circuited at the other end. The magnitude of the voltage at the open circuited end of line is A 10 B 5 C 0 D 7.707

77

A lossless transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 80 is terminated by a load of 125 . The length of line is 1.25 . The input impedance is A 80 B 51.2 C 125 D 45

78

Three lossless lines are connected as shown in fig. The input impedance Zin at A is

A C 79

46 j 69 67 + j 48

B D

39 j 57 61 + j 52

Two /4 transformers in tandem are to connect a 50 line to a 75 load as shown in fig. P8.6.34. If Z02 =30 and there is no reflected wave to the left of A, then the characteristic impedance Zo1 is

A C 80

28 49

B D

56 24.5

Two identical antennas, each of input impedance 74 are fed with three identical 50 quarter-wave lossless transmission lines as shown in fig. The input impedance at the source end is

A C 81

148 74

B D

106 53

The 300 lossless line shown in fig. is matched to the left of the stub. The value of ZL is

A C 82

1-j 1.37 300+j413

B D

1+j 1.37 300-j413

A short-circuited stub is connected to a 50 transmission line as shown in fig. The admittance seen at the junction of the stub and the transmission line is

A C 83

0.01 j 0.02 0.04 + j0.02

B D

0.02 + j0.01 0.04 j 0.02

Frequencies that encompass the 300- to 3000-MHz range are under which of the following segments A high frequency B very high frequency C ultrahigh frequency D microwave

84

The time it takes a signal applied at one end of a transmission line to appear at the other end of the line is called A signal time B time constant C transit time D transmission delay

85

Which of the following is not an important transmission line specification? A impedance B attenuation C inside diameter D velocity factor

86

Energy that is reflected from the end of an improperly terminated line back up the line towards the generator is called a A harmonic B stranded wave C standing wave D reflected signal

87

When the load impedance does not exactly match the line impedance and the load has reactive components in addition to its resistance, the line is said to be A open B shorted C reactive D resonant

88

In an ideal case where there are no standing waves, the standing wave ratio is A 0 B 1 C 100 D Infinite

89 Which of the following is not used to offset antenna reactance and to

produce an impedance match? A C 90 LC network RC network B D T LC network L LC network

Special transmission lines constructed with copper patterns on a printedcircuit board that can be used as tuned circuits, filters, or impedancematching circuits are called A microchip B stripline C PCB lines D special lines

91

92

Tinier microstrip and striplines made by using monolithic, thin-film, and hybrid techniques when combined with diodes, transistors, and other components form what are called A microstrip integrated B microwave integrated circuits circuits C stripline integrated D high-frequency integrated circuits circuits A sophisticated graph that permits visual solutions to transmission line calculations is the A Karnaugh map B Smith chart C Boolean table D frequency response curve

93

Which of the following is not found on the linear scales printed at the bottom of Smith charts? A SWR B impedance C dB loss D reflection coefficient

94

A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from one another by one-half wavelengths is the A broadside array B end-fire array C wide-bandwidth array D parasitic array

95

When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the output impedance of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna itself, A the SWR will be 10:1 B the SWR will be 1:10 C minimum power transfer D maximum power transfer will will take place take place A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a specific impedance connected between a load and a source in order to match impedances is A a balun B an autotransformer C a Q section D dummy load

96

97

Small wire loop inductors and capacitors are used to provide A C low-noise amplification B decoupling to prevent feedback signal coupling

98

impedance matching and D tuning Hollow metal conducting pipes designed to carry and constrain the electromagnetic waves of a microwave signal are A wavetraps B waveguides C traveling wave tubes D microwave tubes

99

A microwave component which is used to interconnect two sections of waveguide is the A T section B curved section C choke joint D tapered wedge

100

A waveguide like device that acts as a high-Q parallel resonant circuit is a A C microstrip horn B D klystron Cavity resonator

101

A three-port microwave device used for coupling energy in only one direction around a closed loop is a A circulator B Joint C Terminator D cavity resonator

102

Which of the following diodes is not typically used in the microwave region? A point-contact B standard PN C standard PN D hot carrier

103

Which of the following diodes does not oscillate due to negativeresistance characteristics? A tunnel B SCR C Gunn D IMPATT

104

A thin piece of N-type gallium arsenide or indium phosphide semiconductor which forms a special resistor when voltage is applied to it is the A tunnel diode B PIN diode C Gunn diode D varactor diode

105

A microwave vacuum tube using cavity resonators to produce velocity modulation of an electron beam which produces amplification is A a klystron B magnetron

C 106

a cathode-ray tube

traveling-wave tube

A ship to ship communication system is affected by fading. A useful solution which can be used is A A more directional B Use of space diversity antenna C Use of frequency diversity D A broadband antenna For the experimental study of small microwave antennas, a free space environment with minimum interference by external objects, the facilities required are: A RF screens B slotted waveguides C UHF screens D power meter

107

108

In a typical satellite communication system, which of the following could be the up-link and down-link frequencies respectively? A 60 GHz and 40 GHz B 40 GHz and 60 GHz C 4 GHz and 6 GHz D 6 GHz and 4 GHz

109

The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its A C High sensitivity High attenuation B D Low distortion Low selectivity

110

Which of the following introduces mode partition noise? A C Fiber transmission Wave guide B D Fiber transmission

111

Both coaxial line and wave guide Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables? A C stepped index operation micro-bending B D attenuation in glass impurities

112

Consider the transmission line of length 37.5cm which is terminated into zero resistance. This line is being excited by a source of 1Ghz which has a internal impedance of 50ohm. What is the input impedance of the line as seen by the source? A infinite B 52ohm C 0 ohm D 100 ohm

113

Which device can detect the presence of both forward and backward waves in a wave guide? A directional coupler B detector

C 114

filter

magic T

Consider the following statements: The klystron and travelling wave tube differ from each other 1. in TWT the microwave circuit is non resonant . 2. in klystron the microwave circuit is resonant . 3. TWT uses attenuator . 4. the wave in TWT is a non proper gating wave . which of the above statements are correct? A 2 and 3 B 1 C 1 and 2 D 3 and 4

115

Which of the following is a microwave source with a cross field structure? A C Gyrotron Magnetron B D Travelling wave tube Relfex klystron

116

Which of the devices has the negative resistance characteristic? A C PNP transistor Reflex klystron B D Magnetron Gunn diode

117

Which of the following devices is a not electron diode? A C Thermal electron diode Thermionic tube diode B D Thomson deletion diode Schottky barrier diode

118

Which of the following uses transferred electron effect for the production of microwave power amplifier? A Metal semi conductor B Germanium C Silicon D Gallium arsenide

119

Which of the following is a microwave power amplifier? A C Magnetron Gunn diode B D Travelling wave tube Reflex klystron

120

The frequency determining portion of a magnetron is______ A C short line open line B D cathode Reasonant cavity

121

MASER finds application in A C telephones opto electronics B D fiber optics all the above

122

Consider the following statements: In the case of space wave propagation the signal strength at the receiver is 1.directly proportional to transmitter and receiver heights 2.inversely proportional to distance between transmitter and receiver 3.directly proportional to frequency Which of the above statements are correct? A 3 B 2 C 1 and 3 D 1

123

Which of the following frequency bands fall under microwave frequency? A C SHF and EHF UHF and SHF B D UHF SHF and EHF

124

The gain of a TWT is proportional to_____ A C type of input and output no both A and B B D length of tube none of the these

125

Large microwave power may be measured with the help of A C Calorimeter Bolometer B D thermister barreter

126

Microwave circuit impedance or admittance can be determined from readings of A Maximum and minimum B VSWR values of crystal current C Both (A) and (B) above D None of the above Most of the power measuring microwave devices measure A C Average power Instantaneous power B D Peak power None of the above

127

128

The most fundamental method of frequency measurement is A C With an absorption wave meter With a slotted line B D With a slotted line By comparison

129

In laboratory experiments the output from the Reflex Klystron are modulated by square wave because A It is easy to generate a B Crystal diode operates in the square wave square law region of the V-I characteristic C It prevents frequency D Detector circuit is less modulation complicated.

130

In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without coupling them to each other, one could not use A Rat-race B E-plane T C Hybrid ring D Magic T

131

A ferrite is A A non-conductor with magnetic properties B An inter metallic compound with particularly good conductivity A microwave semiconductor invented by Faraday A microwave mixer diode Suitable for use as a microwave switch.

C 132

An insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields A PIN diode is A A metal semiconductor point-contact diode C Often used as a microwave detector A duplexer is used to A

B D

134

135

Couple two different B Allow the one antenna to be antennas to a transmitter used for reception or without mutual transmission without mutual interference interference C To prevent interference D To increase the speed of the between two antennas pulses in pulsed radar when they are connected to a receiver For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is A C Flexible waveguide Rectangular waveguide B D Ridge waveguide Coaxial line

136

A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field. This is the A Reflex klystron B Coaxial magnetron C Travelling wave tube D CFA

137

138

One of the reason why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies is that their A Noise figure increases B Transit time becomes too short C Shunt capacitive D Series inductive reactance reactance become too become too small large Te cavity magnetron uses strapping to

A C 139

Prevent mode jumping Ensure bunching

B D

Prevent cathode back heating

Improve the phase focusing effect A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to A Prevent anode current in B Ensure that the oscillation are the absence of oscillations pulsed C Help in focusing the D Ensure that the electrons will electron beam, thus orbit around the cathode. preventing spreading The primary purpose of the helix in a travelling wave tube is to A Prevent the electron B Reduce the axial velocity of beam from spreading in the RF field the long tube C Ensure broad band D Reduce the noise figure. operation A backward wave oscillator is based on the A C Rising sun magnetron Coaxial magnetron B D Cross Field Amplifier Travelling wave tube

140

141

142

A Parametric amplifier must be cooled A Because parametric B amplification generates lots of heat C Because it cannot operate D at room temperature A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled A To increase bandwidth

To improve the noise performance

143

144

Because maser B To increase bandwidth amplification generates lots of heat C Because it cannot operate D To improve the noise at room temperature performance A Disadvantage of micro strip compared with strip line is that micro strip A Does not readily land itself to printed circuit techniques Is bulkier B Is more likely to radiate

C 145

Is more expansive and complex to manufacture The Transmission system using two ground plane is A C Micro strip Parallel wire Line B D Electrical wave guide Strip Line

146

Surface acoustic waves propagates in A C Gallium Arsenide Strip Line B D Indium Phosphide Quartz Crystal

147

Saw Devices may be used as A C Transmission media like Strip Line UHF Amplifiers B D Filters

148

Oscillator as millimetre Frequencies The biggest advantage of the TRAPATT Diode over the IMPATT Diode is its A C Lower Noise B Higher Efficiency

149

Ability to operate at D Lesser Sensitivity to higher Frequencies Harmonics Indicate which of the following Diodes will Produce highest Pulse Power Output A Varactor B Gunn C SCHOTTKY Barrier D RIMPATT

150

Indicate which of the following Diodes does not use negative resistance in its operation A Backward B Gunn C IMPATT D Tunnel

151

One of the following microwave diode is suitable for Very low power oscillators Only A Tunnel B Avalanche C Gunn D IMPATT

152

A Parametric Amplifier has an Input and Output Frequency of 2.25GHZ,and its pump at 4.5GHz.It is a A Travelling wave amplifier B Generative Amplifier C Lower Sideband UpD Upper Sideband Up-Converter Converter A non degenerate a Parametric Amplifier has an input Frequency fi and a Pump Frequency fp. The idler frequency is A fi B 2fi C fi fp D fp fi

153

154

A Tunnel diode is loosely couple to its cavity in order to A Increase the Frequency Stability B Increase the Available negative resistance

C 155

Facilitate Tuning

Allow Operation at highest frequency

The Negative resistance in a Tunnel Diode A Is available between the peak and valid points C Maybe improved by reverse bias Negative Resistance is obtained with a Gunn Diode because of A Electron Transfer to a less B Avalanche breakdown with mobile energy level the high voltage gradient C Tunnelling across the D Electron domains forming at junction the junctions For Gunn Diodes, Gallium Arsenide is Preferred to Silicon because the former A Has a suitable empty B Has a higher ion mobility energy band, which silicon does not have C Has a lower noise at a D Is capable of handling higher highest Frequencies power densities. The Ruby laser differs from the Ruby maser in that the former A C Does not require pumping Is an Oscillator B D Need no resonator Produces much more powers Is maximum at the peak B point of the characteristics Is maximum at valid point D

156

157

158

159

The output from a laser is monochromatic : This means that it is A C Infrared Narrow beam B D Polarised Single Frequency

160

If the peak transmitted power in the radar system increases why a factor of 16,maximum range will be increased by a factor of A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16

161

If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increase by factor of 4,the maximum range will be increased by a factor of A 2 B 2 C 4 D 8

162

The Radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement) A C Depends on the frequency used Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical B D Maybe reduced by the special coating of the target Is equal to the actual cross sectional area for small targets

163

The If bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the A C Pulse width Pulse interval B D Pulse repetition frequency

164

Square root of the peak transmitted power The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that A Is does not give the target B Is does not give the target velocity range C A transponder is required D Is does not give the target at target position A solution to the Blind Speed Problem is to A C Change the Doppler frequency Use mono pulse B D Vary the PRF Use MTI

165

166

The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the A C Infinitesimal dipole Elementary doublet B D Isotropic antenna Half wave dipole

167

Top loading is some time used with an antenna in order to increase its A C Effective height Beam width B D Bandwidth Input Capacitance

168

A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its A C Circular Polarisation Broad bandwidth B D Maneuverability Good front to back ratio

169

170

When the free space wavelength of a signal equal the cut off wavelength of the guide (Indicate the false statement) A Group velocity of the B Phase velocity of the signals signal become zero becomes infinite C Characteristics impedance D The wavelength within the of the guide becomes waveguide become infinite infinite A Signal Propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two further walls, and no components of the electric filed in the direction of the propagation. The mode is A TE1,1 B TE1,0 C TM2,2 D TE2,0

171

The square of the periodic time orbit is proportional to the cube of the mean distance between the two bodies is the statement of

A C 172

Keplers first law Keplers third law

B D

Keplers second law None of the above

Dielectric lens act as A C Directive antennas Diploes B D Non-directive antennas Monopoles

173

If the mouth diameter of a parabolic antenna is 2.5m and if it is operating at frequency of 10 GHz, the power gain in dB is A 46.19 B 25 C 250 D 100

174

The maximum gain of 100 element uniform linear array is A C 10 1000 B D 100 1

175

A magnetic dipole is A C A small circular loop A piece of conducting rod B D A piece of wire The same as electric dipole

176

The normalised radiated power of a dipole is A C 1 sin2 B D 1.5 1.64

177

The resonant frequency of a rectangular cavity of dimensions a= 3 cm, b=2cm, d=4cm and operating in TE101 Mode is A 6 GHz B 6.25GHz C 6.5GHz D 6.75GHz

178

A directional coupler is a _________ Port Device. A C 1 3 B D 2 4

179

The match load absorbs _______ incident Power upon it and reflects _______. A NO,NO B NO,YES C YES,NO D YES,YES

180

The term radar is an acronym for A Raster direction and ranging B Radio detection and range

C 181

Radio direction and range

Range detection of radio wave

Coherent pulse Doppler radars measures_____ of radar echoes A C Both the amplitude & phase phase B D Amplitude None of these

182 A C 183 p.n.i,p

IMPATT device has ____layers in order B D n+,p,i,p+ P+.n.i,p+

n+,p,i,n+

Step recovery diode (select the correct statement) A C Made of Si or GaAs B Also known as Snap-off varactor diode All of these

184

Stores the charge under D forward bias condition Applications of Varactor diodes are A C Widely used in parametric amplifier Active filter B D

Harmonic generator All of these

185

Which of the following microwave component has got the combined characteristic of dielectric, ohmic and radiation losses? A Wave guide B Micro strip line C Coaxial line D Two wire parallel line

Q: 1

Which of the following is the binary representation of F03516 hexadecimal number? A 1111000000110111 B 1111000001110101 C 1111000000110101 D 1111100000110101

Q: 2

Which of the following is the hexadecimal representation of 4510 (decimal number)? A 2D B 2C C 2B D 2A

Q: 3

Which of the following is the decimal representation of 6B216 hexadecimal number? A 1512 B 1714 C 1514 D 1614

Q: 4

Perform hex subtraction of 59F 2B8 and the answer is _____. A C 2E7 2C7 B D 2E9 2B7

Q: 5

Find 2s complement of 1001010 and the answer is _____. A C 0110110 0111110 B D 0110111 0110101

Q: 6

M = 1010100 and N = 1000100, M N = _______. A C 10000 100000 B D 110000 10001

Q: 7

M = 1000100 and N = 1010100, M N = _______. A C 1101111 -1101111 B D -10000 10000

Q:8

The binary conversion of (0.6875)10 is _______. A C 0.0001 0.1011 B D 0.0101 0.1110

Q:9

(41.6875)10 = __________________ A C (101001.1010)2 (101000.1011)2 B D (101001.1011)2 (101000.1011)2

Q: 10

(153.513)10 = __________________ A C (231.416517)8 (221.406517)8 B D (230.406517)8 (231.406517)8

Q: 11

(10110001101011.111100000110)2 = ________________ A C (26153.7416)8 (26143.7406)8 B D (26163.7406)8 (26153.7406)8

Q: 12

(10110001101011.11110010)2 = __________________ A C (2C6B.F2)16 (2D6B.F2)16 B D (2C6B.F1)16 (2C6A.F2)16

Q: 13

(306.D)16 = _________________ A C (001100000110.1100)2 (001100000110.1101)2 B D (001100000111.1101)2 (011100000110.1100)2

Q: 14

(673.124)8 = ________________ A C (110111011.001010100)2 (110111011.001010101)2 B D (110111001.001010101)2 (110111111.001010100)2

Q:15

(11010011)2 + (1101111)2 = ____________ A C (001000010)2 (101010010)2 B D (101000010)2 (101000011)2

Q:16

24 kilobytes = _________ bytes A C 24576 24600 B D 24000 24500

Q: 17

ROM memory address map of AT89C51 with 4 KB of ROM is ________ A C 0000 to 1FFFH 0000 to 2FFFH B D 0000 to 0FFFH 0000 to FFFFH

Q: 18

ROM memory address map of DS89C420 with 16 KB of ROM is ________ A 0000 to 1FFFH B 0000 to 3FFFH C 0000 to 2FFFH D 0000 to 4FFFH

Q: 19

ROM memory address map of DS5000-32 with 32 KB of ROM is ________ A 0000 to FFFFH B 0000 to 7FFFH C 0000 to 6FFFH D 0000 to 8FFFH

Q: 20

What is the status of the CY, AC, and P flags after the execution following instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller? MOV A, #9CH ADD A, #64H A CY =1, AC = 1, P = 0 B CY =0, AC = 1, P = 0 C CY =1, AC = 1, P = 1 D CY =1, AC = 0, P = 0

Q: 21

What is the content of PSW register after the execution following instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller? MOV A, #0BFH ADD A, #1BH A 40H B 00H C 41H D 01H

Q: 22

Q: 23

Which of the following instruction can be used to select register bank3 in 8051 microcontroller? A CLR PSW.4 B SETB PSW.4 SETB PSW.3 SETB PSW.3 C CLR PSW.3 D SETB PSW.3 CLR PSW.4 CLR PSW.4 Which bits of the PSW of 8051microcontroller are user-definable? A C PSW.4 and PSW.5 PSW.1 and PSW.3 B D PSW.4 and PSW.3 PSW.1 and PSW.5

Q: 24

In 8051 microcontroller, the program counter is _____ bits wide. A C 12 20 B D 8 16

Q: 25

________ is the number of I/O pins in 8051 microcontroller. A C 30 40 B D 32 24

Q: 26

________ number of timers are available in 8051 microcontroller. A C 1 2 B D 3 4

Q: 27

________ on-chip ROM is available in 8031 microcontroller. A C 4K 16 K B D 8K 0K

Q: 28

The size of stack pointer register in 8051 microcontroller is _______. A C 4 bits 12 bits B D 8 bits 16 bits

Q: 29

In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each PUSH instruction, stack pointer register is ___________. A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1 C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2

Q: 30

In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each POP instruction, stack pointer register is ___________. A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1 C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2

Q: 31

In 8051, on power-up, SP = _____ and the first RAM location used as a stack ______. A 7, 8 B 7, 6 C 8, 7 D 6, 7

Q: 32

In 8051, initially, the program counter is ______ when powered-up. A C 0001H 0000H B D 1000H FFFFH

Q: 33

In 8051, the target address in SJMP instruction is within _____ to _____ bytes of memory location from the current address of program counter. A -127 to 128 B -128 to 127 C 0 to 256 D 0 to 127

Q: 34

In 8051, LJMP (long jump) is ____ byte/s instruction. A C 1 3 B D 4 2

Q: 35

On execution of LCALL instruction in 8051, SP is _______. A C Incremented by 2 Decremented by 2 B D Incremented by 1 Decremented by 1

Q: 36

On execution of RET instruction in 8051, SP is _______. A C Incremented by 2 Decremented by 2 B D Incremented by 1 Decremented by 1

Q: 37

In 8051, ACALL is _______ instruction. A C 2 bytes 1 byte B D 3 bytes 4 bytes

Q: 38

For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long it takes to execute one machine cycle instruction? (Take 1 machine cycle = 12 clock periods) A 10.85 s B 0.1085 s C 1.085 s D 108.5 s

Q: 39

_____ and _____ ports provide address when 64 K bytes of external memory is interfaced with 8031. A P0 and P2 B P0 and P1 C P1 and P3 D P1 and P2

Q: 40

Which 8051 port/s need pull-up resistors to function as I/O port? A C P0 and P1 P1 and P2 B D P0 P1

Q: 41

In 8051, _____ and _____ pins port 3 can be used as RxD and TxD, respectively. A P3.0, P3.1 B P3.2 and P3.3 C P3.1, P3.0 D P3.3 and P3.2

Q: 42

In 8051, the instruction JNB P2.5, HERE, assumes that bit P2.5 is an ______. A Output B Input C Neither input nor output D Input or output

Q: 43

The function of following instruction in 8051 is _______. MOV C, P2.4 A Incorrect instruction B To copy status of P2.4 to CY C To copy C to P2.4 D To copy CY to P2.4

Q: 44

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent immediate addressing mode? A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0 C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 45

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register addressing mode? A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0 C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 46

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent direct addressing mode? A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0 C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 47

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register indirect addressing mode? A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0 C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 48

In 8051, the meaning of MOV A, 7 is ________. A C To copy R7 into A To load A with value 7 B D Incorrect instruction None of the above

Q: 49

In 8051, the meaning of MOV @R1, B is ________. A Copy contents of B into B Incorrect instruction RAM location whose address is held by R1 C Copy contents of R1 into D Copy B into R1 RAM location whose address is held by B In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent indexed addressing mode? A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0 C MOV A, #25H D MOVC A, @A+DPTR

Q: 50

Q: 51

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, 40H uses __________ addressing mode. A C Immediate Register indirect B D Register Direct

Q: 52

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, #40H uses __________ addressing mode. A C Immediate Register indirect B D Register Direct

Q: 53

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, R0 uses __________ addressing mode. A C Immediate Register indirect B D Register Direct

Q: 54

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, @R0 uses __________ addressing mode. A C Immediate Register indirect B D Register Direct

Q: 55

In 8051, out of 128 byte internal RAM, how many byte locations are bitaddressable? A 128 B 16 C 64 D 32

Q: 56

In 8051, which of the following instruction sets bit P0.6? A C SETB 81H SETB 82H B D SETB 80H SETB 86H

A C Q: 57

B D

In which language, program are written in mnemonics? A C Assembly language High-level language B D Machine language None of the above

Q: 58

In 8085, instruction OUT 01H does ___________ on execution. A Displays program counter B Displays accumulator content content at port 01H at port 01H C Displays register B content D Displays register C content at at port 01H port 01H In 8085, instruction ADD M does ___________ on execution. A Add the content of A with B Add the content of A with that that of memory location of memory location pointed pointed by HL register by BC register pair pair C Add the content of B with D Add the content of A with that that of memory location of memory location pointed pointed by HL register by DE register pair pair In 8085, instruction XRI 6AH does ___________on execution. A Exclusive-OR 6AH with B Exclusive-OR 6AH with the the contents of B contents of A C Exclusive-OR 6AH with D Exclusive-OR 6AH with the the contents of C contents of D In 8085, instruction JC 2025H does ___________on execution. A Change the program B Incorrect instruction sequence to 2025H if the carry flag is reset C Change the program D Change the stack pointer data sequence to 2025H if the to 2025H if the carry flag is set carry flag is set In 8085, instruction ANA M does ___________ on execution. A Logically AND the contents of accumulator with that of memory location pointed by HL register pair Logically AND the contents of register B with B Logically AND the contents of accumulator with that of memory location pointed by BC register pair Incorrect instruction

Q: 59

Q: 60

Q: 61

Q: 62

Q: 63

that of memory location pointed by HL register pair In 8085, instruction CPI 4FH does ___________on execution. A C Compare 4FH with the contents of B Compare 4FH with the contents of C B D Compare 4FH with the contents of A Incorrect instruction

Q: 64

In 8085, instruction SUI 7FH does ___________ on execution. A Subtract 7FH from the B Subtract 7FH from the contents of A contents of B C Subtract A from the D Subtract B from the contents contents of 7FH of 7FH In 8085, instruction MOV B, M does ___________ on execution. A Copy the content of B Incorrect instruction memory location pointed by DE register into B C Copy the content of D Copy the content register B memory location pointed into the memory location by HL register into B pointed by HL register In 8085, instruction DCX B does _____________ on execution. A Decrement the content of register pair B B Decrement the content of memory location pointed by register pair B Incorrect instruction

Q: 65

Q: 66

C Q: 67

Decrement the content of D register B In 8085, instruction SUB M does _____________ on execution. A Subtract the content of memory location pointed by BC register pair from accumulator C Subtract the content of memory location pointed by DE register pair from accumulator 8085 is _____ microprocessor. A C 8-bit 20-bit B

Subtract the content of memory location pointed by HL register pair from accumulator Incorrect instruction

Q: 68

B D

16-bit 10-bit

Q: 69

Which one of the following is valid register pair in 8085 microprocessor? A C HD HE B D BC BH

Q: 70

In 8085, ____________ address lines are multiplexed with data lines. A Higher-order eight address B Higher-order four address lines lines C Lower-order four address D Lower-order eight address lines lines In 8085, ______________ control signal is used to de-multiplex address lines from data lines.

Q: 71

A C

ALE INTR

B D

S0 S1

Q: 72

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for opcode fetch operation? A C S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 B D S1 = 0 and S0 = 0 S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 73

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory read operation? A C S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 B D S1 = 0 and S0 = 0 S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 74

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory write operation? A C S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 B D S1 = 0 and S0 = 0 S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 75

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O read operation? A C S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1 B S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1

Q: 76

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O write operation? A C S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1 B S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1

S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D

Q: 77

Which of the following interrupt has highest priority in 8085? A C TRAP RST 5.5 B D RST 7.5 RST 6.5

Q: 78

Which of the following is vectored interrupt in 8085? A C HLDA RST 7.5 B D HOLD INTR

Q: 79

Which of the following signal/pin is used to interface slow-responding peripheral with 8085 microprocessor? A HOLD B READY C RST 7.5 D INTR

Q: 80

Q: 81

In 8085, MOV C, A instruction is executed in _________ T-states _________ machine cycles. A 7 T-states and 2 machine B 10 T-states and 3 machine cycles cycles C 4 T-states and 1 machine D 13 T-states and 4 machine cycle cycle AC flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic operation when ___________. A Carry is generated from D3 B Carry is generated from D7 and and passed on to D4 passed on to D0 C Carry is generated from D4 D Carry is generated from D6 and and passed on to D5 passed on to D7 In 8085, MVI A, 32H instruction is executed in _________ T-states _________ machine cycles. A 7 T-states and 2 machine B 10 T-states and 3 machine cycles cycles C 4 T-states and 1 machine D 13 T-states and 4 machine cycle cycle S flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic/logical operation when ___________. A C D6 comes out be 1 D6 comes out be 0 B D D7 comes out be 0 D7 comes out be 1

Q: 82

Q: 83

Q: 84

Z flag in 8085 is set when ALU operation results in ___________. A C 00H 11H B D AAH FFH

Q: 85

P flag in 8085 is set when arithmetic/logical operation results in ___________. A Even number of 1s B Odd number of 1s C D7 comes out be 1 D D7 comes out be 0

Q: 86

Q: 87

In 8085, the instruction IN 84H requires __________ T-states and _________ machine cycles. A 7 T-states and 2 machine B 10 T-states and 3 machine cycles cycles C 4 T-states and 1 machine D 13 T-states and 4 machine cycle cycle Absolute address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller. A Unique B Multiple C Infinite D Three

Q: 88

Partial address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller. A Unique B Multiple C Infinite D None of the above

Q: 89

In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address pins can be used at most to generate address for peripheral. A 8 B 16 C 12 D 10

Q: 90

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address pins can be used at most to generate address for peripheral/memory. A 8 B 16 C 12 D 10

Q: 91

In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the following instruction can be used? A IN B LDA C MOV M, B D STA

Q: 92

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the following instruction can be used? A IN B OUT C STA D None of the above

Q: 93

In 8085, which interfacing technique permits arithmetic and logical operations directly to be performed on data? A Peripheral I/O B Memory-mapped I/O C Peripheral and memoryD None of the above mapped I/O In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, _____ input and _____ output devices can be connected at most. A 255, 256 B 256, 255 C 256, 256 D 255, 255

Q: 94

Q: 95

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, __________. A C Memory map is shared between I/Os and memory Memory map is 0 to 64K B D I/O map is independent of memory I/O map is 0 to 256

Q: 96

HLT instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction. A C One Four B D Two Three

Q: 97

NOP instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction. A C One Four B D Two Three

Q: 98

Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of indirect addressing mode? A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl C Give me item no. 17 of D I will have what Manish has menu In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now, INR A instruction is executed, which of the following is true? A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1 C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q: 99

Q:100 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now, ADI 01H instruction is executed, which of the following is true? A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1 C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q:101 In 8085, what is the position of carry flag in flag register? A C D7 D4 B D D6 D0

Q:102 In 8085, what is the position of sign flag in flag register? A C D7 D4 B D D6 D0

Q:103 In 8085, what is the position of zero flag in flag register? A C D7 D4 B D D6 D0

Q:104 In 8085, what is the position of auxiliary carry flag in flag register? A C D7 D4 B D D6 D0

Q:105 In 8085, what is the position of parity flag in flag register? A C D2 D4 B D D6 D0

Q:106 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of direct addressing mode? A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl Give me item no. 17 of D I will have what Manish has menu Q:107 Which of the following program can display FFH data on a port with address 01H for 8085? A MVI C, FFH B MVI B, FFH OUT 01H OUT 01H HLT HLT C MVI D, FFH D MVI A, FFH OUT 01H OUT 01H HLT HLT Q:108 The result of XRA A instruction for 8085 is _________. A C 00H 55H B D FFH Incorrect instruction C

Q:109 Which logical operation is generally used to mask certain bits of accumulator? A And operation B Or operation C NOT operation D XOR operation

Q:110 Which logical operation is generally used to set certain bits of accumulator? A And operation B Or operation C NOT operation D XOR operation

Q:111 LXI H, 2050H instruction of 8085 does on execution _________. A C H = 50H, L = 20H H = 20H, L = 50H B D Incorrect instruction Data from 2050 H memory location with copied to A

Q:112 LDAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________. A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location pointed by DE pair copied to A Data from register pair BC copied to A

Data from memory D location pointed by BC register pair copied to A Q:113 LDAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________. A Incorrect instruction B

Data from memory D location pointed by DE register pair copied to A Q:114 STAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________. A Incorrect instruction B

Data from memory location pointed by DE pair copied to A Data from register pair DE copied to A

Data from A copied into D memory location pointed by BC register pair Q:115 STAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________. A Incorrect instruction B

Data from memory location pointed by DE pair copied to A Data from A copied into register pair BC

Data from A copied into D memory location pointed by DE register pair Q:116 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on execution of RLC instruction? A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0 C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Data from memory location pointed by DE pair copied to A Data from A copied into register pair DE

Q:117 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on execution of RAL instruction? A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0 C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:118 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on execution of RRC instruction? A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0 C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:119 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on execution of RAR instruction? A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0 C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:120 In 8085, if data of accumulator and register B are same, on execution of CMP B instruction results into __________. A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:121 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution of CMP B instruction results into __________. A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:122 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution of CMP B instruction results into __________. A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:123 In 8085, instruction ANI 01H masks ________ bits. A C D7 to D0 D0 B D D7 to D1 D1

Q:124 In 8085, instruction ANI 00H masks ________ bits. A C D7 to D0 D0 B D D7 to D1 None of the bits

Q:125 In 8085, on execution of PUSH B instruction, SP is _________. A C Decremented by 2 Incremented by 2 B D Decremented by 1 Incremented by 1

Q:126 In 8085, on execution of POP B instruction, SP is _________. A C Decremented by 2 Incremented by 2 B D Decremented by 1 Incremented by 1

Q:127 In 8085, on execution of POP PSW instruction, SP is _________. A C Decremented by 2 Incremented by 2 B D Decremented by 1 Incorrect instruction

Q:128 In 8085, if H = 20H and L = 50H, and execution of PUSH H is followed with POP PSW. Which of the following is true in this case? A A = 50H, Flag register = B A = 20H, Flag register 20H maintain previous state and not affected C A = 20H, Flag register = D Accumulator and Flag 50H registers maintain previous state and not affected Q:129 In 8085, on execution of CALL instruction, SP is _______. A C Decremented by 2 Incremented by 2 B D Decremented by 1 Incremented by 1

Q:130 In 8085, on execution of RET instruction, SP is _______. A C Decremented by 2 Incremented by 2 B D Decremented by 1 Incremented by 1

Q:131 In 8085, the meaning CNC is __________. A C Incorrect instruction Call subroutine if CY = 0 B D Call subroutine if CY = 1 Call subroutine unconditionally Call subroutine if S = 1 Call subroutine unconditionally Call subroutine if S = 1

Q:132 In 8085, the meaning CM is __________. A C Incorrect instruction Call subroutine if S = 0 B D

Q:133 In 8085, the meaning CP is __________. A C Incorrect instruction Call subroutine if S = 0 B D

Call subroutine unconditionally Q:134 In 8085, DAA instruction uses _____ and _____ flags to perform decimal adjustment of accumulator. A CY, AC B CY C AC D CY, S

Q:135 In 8085, LHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution. A Loads data from memory location 2050H to L and 2051H to H Loads data from memory location 2050H to H and 2051H to L B Copies L with 50H and H with 20H Copies H with 50H and L with 20H

Q:136 In 8085, SHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution. Stores data of H into B Copies L with 50H and H with memory location 2050H 20H and L into 2051H C Stores data of L into D Copies H with 50H and L with memory location 2050H 20H and H into 2051H Q:137 In 8085, XCHG instruction does _______ on execution. Content of HL and DE B Content of H and D registers register pairs exchanged exchanged C Content of HL and BC D Content of L and E registers register pairs exchanged exchanged Q:138 In 8085, ADC B instruction does _______ on execution. A C A = A + B + CY flag A=A+B B D B = A + B + CY flag B=A+B A A

Q:139 In 8085, if HL register pair is cleared, DAD SP instruction does _______ on execution. A Clears SP B Places the content of SP in DE Places the content of SP in D Places the content of SP in BC HL Q:140 In 8085, instruction XTHL does _________ execution. Contents of L exchanged B Contents of L exchanged with with memory location memory location pointed by pointed by SP and H with SP memory location pointed by SP + 1. C Contents of H exchanged D Contents of H exchanged with with memory location memory location pointed by pointed by SP and L with SP memory location pointed by SP + 1. Q:141 Which instruction in 8085 is used to complement carry flag? A C CMA CMC B D STC None of the above A C

Q:142 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to set carry flag? A C CMA CMC B D STC None of the above

Q:143 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the program counter?

A C

SPHL XCHG

B D

PCHL None of the above

Q:144 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the program counter? A SPHL B PCHL C XCHG D None of the above

Q:145 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to enable interrupt? A C EI RIM B D DI None of the above

Q:146 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to disable interrupt? A C EI RIM B D DI None of the above

Q:147 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to read pending interrupt requests? A C EI RIM B D DI None of the above

Q:148 What is the use of SIM instruction in 8085? A C To enable/disable RST 7.5, 6.5, 5.5 To enable TRAP B D To read pending interrupt requests To enable INTR interrupt

Q:149 What is the use of 8259A? Programmable keyboard/display interface C Programmable interrupt controller Q:150 What is the use of 8279? Programmable keyboard/display interface C Programmable interrupt controller Q:151 What is the use of 8155? A C Programmable keyboard/display interface Programmable interrupt controller A A B D Programmable I/O ports and timer Direct memory access controller Programmable I/O ports and timer Direct memory access controller Programmable I/O ports and timer Direct memory access controller

B D

B D

Q:152 What is the use of 8237? Programmable keyboard/display interface C Programmable interrupt controller Q:153 What is the use of 8255A? Programmable keyboard/display interface C Programmable interrupt controller Q:154 What is the use of 8253? A A A B D Programmable I/O ports and timer Direct memory access controller Programmable peripheral interface Direct memory access controller

B D

Programmable B Programmable interval timer keyboard/display interface C Programmable interrupt D Direct memory access controller controller Q:155 Which port in 8255A can be used as individual pins or grouped in two 4bit ports? A Port A B Port B C Port A and Port B D Port C

Q:156 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to output data serially through SOD line? A SIM B RIM C DI D EI

Q:157 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to input data serially through SOD line? A SIM B RIM C DI D EI

Q:158 8086 is _______ bits microprocessor. A C 8 10 B D 16 20

Q:159 The memory addressing capacity of 8086 is ________. A C 220 bytes 212 bytes B D 216 bytes 210 bytes

Q:160 8086 can address a physical memory with address ranging from _______ to ________. A 0000H, FFFFH B 00000H, FFFFFH C 000H, FFFH D 000000H, FFFFFFH

Q:161 What is the maximum size of data segment in 8086? A C 16K 32K B D 64K 1M

Q:162 In 8086, base address is shifted ______ by _______ bits in the process of generating physical address. A Right, 4 B Left, 4 C Right, 8 D Left, 8

Q:163 In 8086, BIU performs the address calculation to fetch instruction from memory using ______ and _______ registers. A DS, DI B SS, SP C ES, SI D CS, IP

Q:164 In 8086, stack physical address is calculated using ______ and _______ registers. A DS, DI B SS, SP C ES, SI D CS, IP

Q:165 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s with DS to generate physical address? A IP B BX C DI D BX, DI, SI

Q:166 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s with ES to generate physical address? A IP B BX C DI D BX, DI, SI

Q:167 In 8086, if DS = 345BH and data segment length to be 12K bytes, what is the physical address range for data segment? A 345B0H to 365B0H B 345B0H to 385B0H C 345B0H to 375B0H D 345B0H to 355B0H

Q:168 In 8086, if CS = 1111H and IP = 1232H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in code segment. A 12342H B 11110H C 23430H D 01232H

Q:169 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, IP = 1232H, and SP = 1100H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in stack segment. A 26580H B 36260H C 26360H D 37580H

Q:170 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, DS = 3333H, IP = 1232H, DI = 0020H, and SP = 1100H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in data segment. A 33350H B 26350H C 26580H D 37580H

Q:171 We can have _______ logical address/es for the given physical address in 8086 A Only one B Only two C Only three D One or more than one

Q:172 In 8086, instruction MOV AX, [2345H] represents _______ addressing mode. A Register B Immediate C Direct D Register indirect

Q:173 In 8086, instruction MOV AL, [BX] represents _______ addressing mode. A C Register Direct B D Immediate Register indirect

Q:174 In 8086, instruction MOV BX, 34E3H represents _______ addressing mode. A Register B Immediate C Direct D Register indirect

Q:175 In 8086, instruction MOV DS, 2300H represents _______ addressing mode. A Register B Immediate C Direct D Incorrect instruction

Q:176 In 8086, for the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP], the effective address is _______. A 5 + BP + SI B SI C BP + SI D BP

Q:177 In 8086, the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP] represents ___________ addressing mode. A Register relative B Based indexed C Relative based indexed D None of the above

Q:178 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV DS: [BP + 7], BL for 8086? A DS to be used instead of B SS to be used instead of DS SS C DS to be used instead of D DS to be used instead of ES CS Q:179 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV AX, CS:[BX] for 8086? A CS to be used instead of B DS to be used instead of CS SS C CS to be used instead of D SS to be used instead of CS DS Q:180 In 8086, the flag is ______ bits register. A C 8 12 B D 16 10

Q:181 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as control flags? A C 6 7 B D 3 9

Q:182 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are unused? A C 6 7 B D 3 9

Q:183 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as conditional flags? A C 6 7 B D 3 9

Q:184 In 8086, after the execution of following instruction, find the status of CF (carry flag) and S (sign flag). MOV AL, 35H ADD AL, 0CEH A CF = 0, S = 0 B CF = 1, S = 1 C CF = 0, S = 1 D CF = 1, S = 0

Q:185 In 8086, for near jump instruction, which of the following is true? A C New IP = Current IP + 16bit offset New IP = 16-bit offset B D New IP = Current IP + 8-bit offset New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:186 In 8086, for short jump instruction, which of the following is true? A C New IP = Current IP + 16bit offset New IP = 16-bit offset B D New IP = Current IP + 8-bit offset New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:187 In 8086, instruction JMP BX does ______ on execution. A C CS = BX IP = IP + BX B D IP = BX Incorrect instruction

Q:188 In 8086, instruction JMP SI does ______ on execution. A C DS = SI IP = IP + SI B D IP = SI Incorrect instruction

Q:189 In 8086, the instruction LOOP label does _______ on execution. CX is decremented and B BX is decremented and loop is loop is exited if CX = 0 exited if BX = 0 C CX is incremented and D BX is incremented and loop is loop is exited if CX = 0 exited if BX = 0 Q:190 In 8086, the instruction INC [BX] does _________ on execution. A C BX = BX + 1 B BL = BL + 1 A

Add 1 to the content of D Incorrect instruction memory location pointed by BX Q:191 In 8086, the instruction ADC AX, [BX][SI] does ________ on execution. A C AX + CF + (the data with EA = BX + SI) AX + (the data with EA = BX + SI) B D AX + CF + (the data with EA = BX) AX + CF + (the data with EA = SI)

Q:192 In 8086, the instruction SUB CL, BYTE PTR [SI] does ________ on execution. A CX (Byte pointed by SI) B CL (Byte pointed by SI) CL (Byte pointed by SI) D Incorrect instruction CF Q:193 In 8086, the instruction SBB CH, 7 does ________ on execution. A C CH 7 CH 7 CF B D CL 7 Incorrect instruction C

Q:194 In 8086, the instruction DEC WORD [SI] does __________ on execution. A C Incorrect instruction (Byte pointed by SI) 1 B D (Word pointed by SI) 1 (Word pointed by SI) 2

Q:195 For the instruction MUL BL in 8086, the content of BL is multiplied with ___________ and the result is stored in ___________. A AL, AX B AX, AX C AH, AX D None of the above

Q:196 For the instruction MUL CX in 8086, the content of CX is multiplied with ___________ and the result is stored in ___________. A AX, DX B AX, DX and AX C AX, AX D None of the above

Q:197 For the instruction DIV BYTE PTR [BX], the result on execution is __________. A Data in AX is divided by B Data in AL is divided by the the word pointed by BX byte pointed by BX C Data in AH is divided by D Data in AX is divided by the the byte pointed by BX byte pointed by BX Q:198 For the instruction DIV WORD PTR [SI], the result on execution is __________. A Double word data in AXB Double word data in DX-AX DX is divided by the is divided by the word pointed word pointed by SI by SI C Incorrect instruction D Data in AX is divided by the word pointed by SI Q:199 TEST dest, src instruction in 8086 does __________ on execution. A Performs a logical AND of B the two operands updating the flag register without saving the result Performs a logical OR of D the two operands updating Performs a logical XOR of the two operands updating the flag register without saving the result Performs a logical AND of the two operands updating the flag

the flag register without saving the result

register and saving the result

Q:200 In 8086, if AH = 00H, BL = 5EH, then the result of TEST AH, BL is __________. A Zero flag is set B Zero flag is reset C Incorrect instruction D Zero flag not affected

Q:201 In 8086, if AL = 8CH, CH = 67H, then the result of XOR AL, CH is __________. A EBH B EAH C FBH D FAH

Q:202 In 8086, the instruction SHL BX, 1 does on execution ___________. Content of BX is shifted B Content of BX is shifted left left logical by two position arithmetic by two position C Content of BX is shifted D Content of BX is shifted left left logical by one position arithmetic by one position Q:203 In 8086, the instruction SAL AL, CL does on execution ___________. Content of AL is shifted B Content of AL is shifted right left arithmetic by the count arithmetic by the count specified in CL specified in CL C Content of AL is shifted D Content of AL is shifted right left logical by the count logical by the count specified specified in CL in CL Q:204 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry left? A C SHR ROL B D RCL RCR A A

Q:205 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry right? A C SHR ROL B D RCL RCR

Q:206 In 8086, which instruction does rotate right not through carry? A C ROR ROL B D RCL RCR

Q:207 In 8086, which instruction does rotate left not through carry? A C ROR ROL B D RCL RCR

Q:208 In 8086, which control flag is set or reset to decrement or increment pointer registers in string operations? A DF B TF C CF D IF

Q:209 In 8086, which register is loaded with the count value in string operations? A C BX DX B D CX AX

Q:210 In 8086, MOVSB instruction does ____________ on execution. Data in the location B Data in the location pointed by pointed by SI to be moved DI to be moved to the location to the location pointed by pointed by SI, CX = CX 1, DI, CX = CX 1, SI = SI SI = SI + 1, DI = DI + 1 + 1, DI = DI + 1 C Data in the location D Data in the location pointed by pointed by SI to be moved SI to be moved to the location to the location pointed by pointed by DI, CX = CX 1 DI Q:211 In 8086, REPE CMPSB instruction does __________ on execution. Compares string pointed by SI and BP byte by byte and update ZF C D Compares string pointed by SI and DI byte by byte and update ZF Q:212 In 8086, for SCASB instruction, the string to be scanned has to be in __________ and is to be pointed by ___________. A Extra, DI B Data, SI C Extra, SI D Data, DI A Compares string pointed by SP and BP byte by byte and update ZF Compares string pointed by SI and DI byte by byte B A

Q:213 In 8086, for STOSW instruction, the memory where the data/string to be stored has to be in __________ and is to be pointed by ___________. A Extra, DI B Data, SI C Extra, SI D Data, DI

Q:214 In 8086, for LODSW instruction, the destination register is _________. A C AL SI B D AH AX

Q:215 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the result in AL? MOV AL, 5

ADD AL, 4 AAA A AL = 69H C AL = 0AH

B D

AL = 09H AL = 39H

Q:216 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the result in AL? MOV AL, 7 ADD AL, 6 AAA A AL = 13 B AH = 01 AL = 03 C AL = 6DH D AH = 03 AL = 01

Q:217 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX after multiplication? A AAM B AAA C AAD D AAS

Q:218 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after addition? A C AAM AAD B D AAA AAS

Q:219 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after subtraction? A AAM B AAA C AAD D AAS

Q:220 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX before division? A C AAM AAD B D AAA AAS

Q:221 In 8086, I/O addresses are limited to _________ bits for IN and OUT instructions. A 8 B 16 C 12 D 20

Q:222 In 8086, the instruction IN AX, 67H does ____________ on execution. Gets 16-bit data into AX B Gets 8-bit data into AL from from port with address port with address 67H 67H C Gets 8-bit data into AH D None of the above from port with address 67H Q:223 In 8086, the instruction CBW does ___________ on execution. A C Copies D7 bit of AL to all the bits of AH Copies D7 bit of BL to all B D Copies D7 bit of AH to all the bits of AL Copies D7 bit of BH to all the A

the bits of BH

bits of BL

Q:224 In 8086, the instruction CWD does ___________ on execution. Copies D15 bit of AX to all B Copies D15 bit of DX to all the the bits of DX bits of AX C Copies D15 bit of BX to all D Copies D15 bit of CX to all the the bits of CX bits of BX Q:225 In 8086, instruction IN AX, 12H does ________ on execution. Copies 16-bit data from port with address 12H into AX C Copies 12H into AL D Copies 8-bit data from port with address 12H into AX Q:226 In 8086, instruction IN AL, 45H does ________ on execution. Copies 16-bit data from port with address 45H into AX C Copies 45H into AH D Copies 8-bit data from port with address 45H into AL Q:227 8086 has _____ address lines multiplexed with data lines. A C 8 12 B D 16 20 A Copies 45H into AL B A Copies 12H into AX B A

Q:228 Status lines S3 = _______ and S4 = _________ in 8086 if the current segment in use is data segment. A 1, 1 B 0, 0 C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:229 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current segment in use is code segment. A 1, 1 B 0, 0 C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:230 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current segment in use is stack segment. A 1, 1 B 0, 0 C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:231 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current segment in use is extra segment. A 1, 1 B 0, 0 C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:232 In 8086, _________ and __________ signals are connected with direct memory access. A HOLD, INTR B HOLD, HLDA C Q:233 HLDA, INTR D INTR, READY

DT / R is ______ in transmit and ________ in receive for 8086.

A C 1, 0 0, 0 B D 0, 1 1, 1

Q:234

M / IO is ______ for I/O access and ________ for memory access in 8086. A 1, 0 B 0, 1
C 0, 0 D 1, 1

Q:235

RD is ______ for read operation and WR ________ for write operation in 8086. A 1, 0 B 0, 1
C 0, 0 D 1, 1

Q:236 In 8086, TEST pin tested by the _________ instruction and tested instruction becomes _______ instruction when TEST pin is logic _____. A WAIT, NOP, 1 B NOP, WAIT, 1 C WAIT, NOP, 0 D NOP, WAIT, 0

Q:237 In 8086, _______ is used for interrupt request and ________ is used for interrupt acknowledge. A B INTR , INTA INTR , HLDA C INTR, INTA D

INTA , INTR

Q:238 ________ signal/pin is used to enable high memory bank of the data bus in 8086. A B BHE / S 7 BHE / S 7 C

BHE / S 7
WAIT, READY, 0 WAIT, READY, 1

BHE/S7

Q:239 ________ states are inserted when _________ pin is __________ in 8086. A C B D READY, WAIT, 0 READY, WAIT, 1

Q:240 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction? A 4 s B 0.4 s C 40 s D 1 s

Q:241 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction when three wait states are inserted? A 0.7 s B 0.4 s C 70 s D 7 s

Q:242 Which pin in 8086 microprocessor is used for maximum mode? A C

MN / MX MN / MX

B D

MN / MX
MN/MX

Q:243 Which pin in 8086 is used to prevent other bus masters from accessing the bus? A B LOCK TEST C

DEN

None of the above

Q:244 How many minimum address pins are required to be connected/decoded to interface 2K X 8 memory chip with microprocessor? Assume chip select is permanently connected to the desired voltage level. A 13 pins B 10 pins C 12 pins D 11 pins

Q:245 8086 microprocessor has _________ interrupts. A C Hardware, software Software B D Hardware

Hardware, software, and error generated Q:246 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of c? int a =7, b = 3, c; c = a %b; A 1 B 2 C 2.33 D None of the above

Q:247 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of c? int a =7, b = 3, c; c = a/b;

A C

1 2.33

B D

2 None of the above

Q:248 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of y? int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3; y = x * (k/4); A 0 B 6.0 C 8.0 D None of the above

Q:249 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of y? int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3; y = (x * k)/4; A 0 B 6.0 C 8.0 D None of the above

Q:250 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of x and y? int x = 6, y = 8; y = x++; A 7, 6 B 7, 7 C 6, 7 D 7, 8

Q:251 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of x and y? int x = 6, y = 8; y = ++x; A 7, 6 B 7, 7 C 6, 7 D 7, 8

Q:252 What is the meaning of statement p = z++ in c-language? A C p = z + 1, z = z + 1 p = z, z = z + 1 B D p = z + 1, z = z p = z, z = z

Q:253 What is the meaning of statement p = ++z in c-language? A C p = z + 1, z = z + 1 p = z, z = z + 1 B D p = z + 1, z = z p = z, z = z

Q:254 What is the meaning of statement p += z in c-language? A C p = z; p = p * z; B D p = p + z; Incorrect statement

Q:255 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the value of variable sum? int n=123, sum=0, digit;

while (n!=0) { digit = n %10; sum += digit; n = n/10; } A C 2 1 B D 6 123

Q:256 In c-language, which looping statement does execute at least once? A C Do While For B D While None of the above

Q:257 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with _________ number of total elements? A 40 B 20 C 400 D None of the above

Q:258 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with 1st index ranging from ____ to ____ and 2nd index ranging from _____ to _____? A 0, 19, 0, 19 B 1, 20, 1, 20 C 1, 19, 1, 19 D 0, 20, 0, 20

Q:259 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to be of integer type in c-language? A scanf(%d, a) B scanf(%d, &a) C scanf(%ld, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)

Q:260 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to be of float type in c-language? A scanf(%d, a) B scanf(%d, &a) C scanf(%ld, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)

Q:261 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to be of long integer type in c-language? A scanf(%d, a) B scanf(%d, &a) C scanf(%ld, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)

Q:262 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to be of double type in c-language? A scanf(%d, a) B scanf(%d, &a) C scanf(%lf, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)

Q:263 Which statement in c-language is used to proceed with the next value of iterative variable in for statement? A Break B Continue C Exit D None of the above

Q:264 Which statement in c-language is normally used to prevent from continuing from one case to another case in switch statement? A Break B Continue C Exit D None of the above

Q:265 How can we declare an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) in c-language? A C int *y; int &y; B D int y; None of the above

Q:266 In c-language, how can we point an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) to point to integer variable (e.g. x)? A y = x; B y = &x; C y = *x; D None of the above

Q:267 In c-language, how can we access the value from a pointer variable (e.g. y) and can assign it to another variable z? A z = *y; B z = &y; C z = y; D None of the above

Q:268 In c-language, array variable name points to _____ element of the array? A C Last Middle B D 1st None of the above

Q:269 In c-language, if a and b are integer variable, what will be the result on execution of following statement? a = *(&b); A Incorrect statement B Values of a and b are same a is assigned with address D Values of a and b are not same of b Q:270 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following statements? x = 5; y = 10; max = (x > y) ? x : (x+y); A max = 10 B max = 5 C max = 15 D Incorrect statement C

Q:271 In c-language, file can be opened in _______ mode/s? A C Read, Append B D Write All of the above

Q:272 In c-language, how can we declare file pointer? A C FILE *fp; FILE &fp; B D FILE fp; None of the above

Q:273 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements? FILE *fp; fp = fopen(sample.dat,r ); A Declares file pointer B Declares file pointer variable variable fp fp and opens file sample.dat in read mode C Declares file pointer D None of the above variable fp and opens file sample.dat in write mode Q:274 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements? FILE *fp; fp = fopen(sample.dat,r ); A Declares file pointer B Declares file pointer variable variable fp fp and opens file sample.dat in read mode C Declares file pointer D None of the above variable fp and opens file sample.dat in write mode Q:275 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements? FILE *fp; fp = fopen(sample.dat,a ); A Declares file pointer B Declares file pointer variable variable fp fp and opens file sample.dat in read mode C Declares file pointer D Declares file pointer variable variable fp and opens file fp and opens file sample.dat sample.dat in write in append mode mode Q:276 In c-langauge, which statement is used to read from a file? A C scanf fopen B D fscanf None of the above

Q:277 In c-langauge, which statement is used to write into a file? A C printf fopen B D fprintf None of the above

Q:278 In c-language, how can we verify the successful opening of a file?

Comparing file pointer B Comparing file pointer with with EOF EXIT C Comparing file pointer D None of the above with NULL Q:279 In c-langauge, which file function is used to position the file pointer to the start of the file? A rewind B fclose C fgets D None of the above

Q:280 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of integer variable? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

Q:281 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of double variable? A 1 B 2 C 8 D 4

Q:282 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of float variable? A 1 B 2 C 8 D 4

Q:283 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of char variable? A 1 B 2 C 8 D 4

Q:284 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for integer variable? A C 0 to 255 -32768 to 32767 B D 0 to 65535 None of the above

Q:285 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned integer variable? A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535 C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above

Q:286 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned char variable? A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535 C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above

Q:287 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for char variable? A C 0 to 255 -128 to 127 B D 0 to 65535 None of the above

Q:288 In c-language, compiler automatically assigns _____ to first value in enumerated data type. A 0 B 1 C 2 D None of the above

Q:289 Which of the following is/are storage classes available in c-language? A C Register, auto Extern B D Static Register, auto, static, extern

Q:290 Which of the following is the valid statement to define constant in clanguage? A define MAX 100 B #define MAX 100 C # define MAX 100 D #define MAX 100;

Q:291 Which one of the following is bitwise shift left operator in c-language? A C & ^ B D << >>

Q:292 Which one of the following is bitwise exclusive OR operator in clanguage? A & B << C ^ D >>

Q:293 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements. float a, b, c, x; a = 9; b = 12; c =3; x = a b/3 + c*2 1; A 10.0 C 4.0

B D

7.0 None of the above

Q:294 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements. float a, b, c, x; a = 9; b = 12; c =3; x = a b/(3 + c)*(2 1); A 10.0 C 4.0

B D

7.0 None of the above

Q:295 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements. float a, b, c, x; a = 9; b = 12; c =3; x = a (b/(3 + c)*2) 1;

A C

10.0 4.0

B D

7.0 None of the above

Q:296 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following statements? int a; a = (int)21.3/(int)4.5; A C 5 5.25 B D 4.73 None of the above

Q:297 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following statements? int x; float y = 27.6; x = (int)(y + 0.5); A C 28.1 27 B D 28 None of the above

Q:298 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following statements? for(x=9; x<9 ; x = x 1) printf(%d, x); A printf will never be B printf will be executed infinite executed times C printf will be executed one D printf will be executed 10 time times Q:299 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following statements? for(x=9; x>=0 ; x = x 1) printf(%d, x); A printf will never be B printf will be executed infinite executed times C printf will be executed one D printf will be executed 10 time times Q:300 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following statements? for(j=1000; j > 0; j = j 1); printf(%d, j); A printf will never be executed C printf will be executed one time

B D

printf will be executed infinite times printf will be executed 1000 times

Determine the values of A, B, C that make the sum term A'+ B' +C equal to 0. A A=0, B=1,C=0 C A=1, B=1,C=0 B A=1, B=0,C=0 D A=1, B=1,C=1

X+X.Y =. A X C Y B 1+Y D None of these

The circuit shown in Figure represents _________ gate.

A AND. C OR. 4 CMOS logic has the property of A increased capacitance and delay. C high noise margin. 5

B NAND. D NOR.

B decreased area. D low static power dissipation.

For a 12-bit flash ADC, the number of comparators required are A 4097 C 4095 B 2047 D None of these

A 32 to 1 multiplexer has the following features. A 32 outputs, one input and 5 control signals C 5 inputs, one control signal and 32 outputs B 32 inputs, one output and 5 control signals D 5 inputs,32 control signal and one outputs

Given a MOD-12 ripple counter using a J-K flip-flop. If the clock frequency to the counter is 40 KHZ , then the output frequency of the counter is. A 40 khz C 3.33 khz B 12 khz D None of these

The exact number of flip flops requierd to construct a MOD 10 counter is

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A 5 C 2 9

B 10 D 4

The number of address bits needed to operate a 2K 8-bit RAM are: A 9 C 15 B 11 D 25

10 A one-to-sixteen demultiplexer requires A 2 select input line C 5 select input line 11 EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to A Infrared rays. C Burst of microwaves 12 B Ultraviolet rays. D None of these B 4 select input line D 8 select input line

The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to A 1100 C 0101 B 1001

D 0110 13 The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either A a NAND or an EX-OR C an AND or an EX-OR 14 The speed of conversion is maximum in A Successive-approximation A/D converter. C Counter ramp A/D converter. B Parallel-comparative A/D converter. D Dual-slope A/D converter. B an OR or an EX-NOR D a NOR or an EX-NOR

15 When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to A x C x(1 + yz) 16 The gates required to build a half adder are A EX-OR gate and NOR gate C EX-OR gate and AND gate B EX-OR gate and OR gate D Four NAND gates. B x + x(y + z) D x + yz

17 The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is A Binary code. C Excess 3 B BCD. D Gray.

18 If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flipflops in cascade is

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A 1000 Hz C 333 Hz 19

B 500 Hz D 12.5 Hz.

For which of the following ip-ops, the output is clearly dened for all combinaons oftwo inputs. A D type flip-flop. C J-K flip-flop. B R-S flip-flop. D none of these

20 The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is A ECL C CMOS B TTL D PMOS

21 In digital ICs, Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their A Lower Propagation delay. C Lower Power dissipation. 22 Which TTL logic gate is used for wired ANDing A Open collector output C Tri state output 23 Advanced Low Power Schottky is a part of A ECL family C CMOS family B TTL family D None of these B Totem Pole D ECL gates B Higher Propagation delay. D Higher Power dissipation.

24 Shifting a register content to left by one bit position is equivalent to A division by two. C multiplication by two. B addition by two. D subtraction by two.

25 How many two-input AND and OR gates are required respectively to realize Y=CD+EF+G A 2,2. C 3,3. 26 Which of following can not be accessed randomly A DRAM. C ROM. 27 Karnaugh map is used for the purpose of A Reducing the electronic circuits used. B To map the given Boolean logic function. B SRAM. D Magnetic tape. B 2,3. D none of these.

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To minimize the terms in a Boolean expression.

To maximize the terms of a given Boolean expression.

28 A full adder logic circuit will have A Two inputs and one output. C Two inputs and two outputs. 29 The information in ROM is stored A By the user any number of times. C By the user using ultraviolet light. B By the manufacturer during fabrication of the device. D By the user once and only once. B Three inputs and three outputs. D Three inputs and two outputs.

30 A weighted resistor digital to analog converter using N bits requires a total of A N precision resistors. C N + 1 precision resistors. B 2N precision resistors. D N 1 precision resistors.

31 Which of the following memories stores the most number of bits A 8 K 64 memory C 8 M 32 memory. B 8 M1 memory. D 64K 6 memory.

32 What is the end address of 8k X 8 memory ,if the starting address is AAOOH? A B9FFH C AAFFH B C9FFH D B900

33 The Boolean function f(w,x,y,z ) = m (5,7,9 ,11 ,13, 15) is independent of variables. A w B x

C y

D z and x

34

The contents of BC register pair after the execution of the following program in an 8085 microprocessor is ..... LXI H,7585 H LXI B, 4774 H PUSH B XTHL POP B HLT A 7585 C 8575 B 4774 D 7447

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35 Which of these statements are true? (1) A flip-flop can store 1-bit information (2) Race condition occurs in a J-K flip flop when both inputs are 1 (3) Master Slave configuration is used in flip flops to stroe 2- bits of data. (4) A transparent latch consists of a D-type flip-flop. A 1 & 2 only B 1,3 and 4 D 2 and 3

C 1,2 and 4

36 Pick up the correct statement(s) from the following: (P) Open collector outputconfiguration enables to generate OAI logic. (Q) Power consumption is minimum in CMOS family. (R ) Minimum two transistors are required to construct dynamic RAM cell. (S) Single comparator is used in successive approximation type of ADC. A P,R & S C Q&S B
Q&R

D R&S

37 A 6 bit DAC use binary weighted resistors. If MSB resistor is 10 k ohm, the value of LSB resistor Is A 40 k ohm C 640 k ohm B 80 k ohm D 320 k ohm

38 As the number of flip flops are increased, the total propagation delay of A ripple counter increases, but that of synchronous counter remains the same Both ripple counter and synchronous C counter increases. B Both ripple counter and synchronous counter decreases. D None of these

39 To convert J K flip flop to D filp flop. A short both J and K and connect D to it. C Connect D to K and leave J open. B Connect D to J Directly and D to K through inverter. D Connect D to J and leave K open.

40 The advantage of using dual slope ADC in digital voltmeter is that A its conversion time is very small. C it does not require a comparator 41 The noise margin of a TTL gate is about A 1.2 V C 0.4 V 42 A memory system of size 32 k bytes is reqiured to design using memory chips which have 12 address lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips reqiured to design the memory system is A 4 B 8 B 0.2 V D 0.8 V B its accuracy is very high. D None of these

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C 16

D 32

43 An 8 bit ripple counter uses flip flops with propagation delay of 25 ns each. The maximum clock frequency which can be used is A 10 MHz C 20 MHz 44 The application of shift registors are : (1) serial to parallel data conversion (2) parallel to serial data conversion (3) Provide delay to the input A 1,2 C 1,2,3 45 find the correct statement. A ROM is a Volatile memory while RAM is a Non Volatile memory. B Both ROM and RAM are Volatile D RAM is a Volatile memory while ROM is a Non Volatile memory. B 2,3 D none of these. B 5 MHz D 50 MHz

C Both ROM and RAM are Non Volatile 46 For a logic famliy correct relationship is A VOH > VIH > VOL > VIL C VOH > VIH > VIL > VOL

B VIH > VOH > VIL > VOL D None of these

47 A 10 bit ADC is used to convert analog voltage of 0 to 10 V into digital. The resolution is A 4.88 m V C 20 m V B 9.775 m V D None of these

48 To design a sequential circuit having 11 states, minimum number of memory elements required is A 5 C 4 B 3 D 11

49 A 4 input NAND gate is to be used as an inverter. Which is preferrable ? A the three unused inputs are left open C the three unused inputs are connected to 1 50 which are charcterstics of sequential circuits ? (1) Feed back (2) output depends on previous inputs (3) gates are arranged in sequence. A 1,3 C 2,3 B 1,2 D none of these B the three unused inputs are connected to 0 D none of these

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51 The number of address bits needed to operate a EPROM 8192 X 8 is A 4 C 12 B 8 D 13

52 Which one of the following is D/A conversion technique A dual slope C Successive-approximation. 53 The figure of merit for a logic family is A fan out X fan in C gain bandwith product B propagation delay time X power dissipation D none of these B weighted resistor D none of these

54 To count 2500 bottles in cold drink plant, the minimum number of flip flops requered is A 8 C 12 55 One XOR gate can work as A one bit magnitude comparator C both one bit magnitude comparatoe and an inverter B an inverter D none of these B 10 D 16

56 which is non-saturating logic family A CMOS C ECL 57 The power dissipation per gate A increases with frequency C remain constant with frequency 58 Quantzation error occurs in A D/A converter C both D/A and A/D converter 59 A binary ladder network D/A converter requires A resistor of one value only C resistor of two different values B resistor of many different values D none of these B A/D converter D none of these B decreases with frequency D none of these B TTL D none of these

60 If number of bits is N, the % resolution in analog to digital conversion is A 100/2N+1 B 100/2N-1

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C 100/N 61 Internal structure of PLA : A only AND array programmable C both OR & AND array programmable 62 The accuracy of A/D conversion is generally A LSB C 1/4LSB 63 Which memory requires periodic recharging A All RAMS C EPROMS

D 100/2N

B only OR array programmable D none of these

B 1/2LSB D none of these

B Dynamic RAM D static RAM

64 If number of information bits is 11, the number of parity bits in Hamming code is A 2 C 4 65 A buffer is A Always inverting C inverting or non-inverting 66 In--------- function each term is known as min term. A POS C SOP 67 In--------- function each term is known as max term A Hybrid C POS 68 Which stack is used in 8085? A FIFO C FILO 69 Why 8085 is called an 8 bit processor? A because 8085 has 8 bit address bus. C because 8085 has 8 bit stack pointer 70 Which is not a flag of 8085? A Overflow Flag B sign Flag B because 8085 has 8 bit data bus and 8 bit ALU. D None of these B LIFO D None of these B SOP and Hybrid D SOP B Hybrid D none of these B Always non-inverting D none of these B 3 D 5

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C carry Flag

D zero flag

71 In 8085 microprocessor how many I/O devices can be interfaced in I/O mapped I/O technique? A Either 256 input devices or 256 output devices B 256 input output devices C 256 input devices and 256 output devices D none of these

72 In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the contents of accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result carry flag and zero flag will be respectively A Reset,Reset C set,set 73 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state A Lower the HOLD input C rise the HOLD input B Lower the READY input D rise the READY input B Set, Reset D reset,set

74 The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one of the following statements is true of TRAP? A It is level triggered B It is edge triggered C It is level triggered and positive edge triggered 75 A dynamic RAM consists of A 6 transistors. C 2 transistors and 2 capacitors. 76 A PLA can be used A as a microprocessor. C to realize a combinational logic. B as a dynamic memory. D to realize sequential logic. D None of these

B 2 capacitors only. D 1 transistor and 1 capacitor.

77 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer as per the following code. A. Schottky transistors are preffered over normal transistors in digital circuits. R. Schottky transistor when used as a switch, switches between cuttoff and active region. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

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78

The circuit in Fig is used to realize the logic function of

A Inverter. C NAND gate.

B NOR gate. D XOR gate.

79 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer as per the following code. A.Boolean expressions can be easily simplified using K-map. R. K-map can be drawn for minterms as well as maxterms. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

80 What J-K input condition will always set Q upon the occurrence of the active clock transition? A J = 0, K = 0 C J = 1, K = 0 B J = 1, K = 1 D J = 0, K = 1

81 The Boolean Expression A'B + AB'+AB is equivalent to. A AB C AB' 82 A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have A 5 states C 16 states B 32 states D None of these B A+B D (A+B)'

83 A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called A Multiplexer C Encoder B Demultiplexer D Decoder

84 The A/D converter whose conversion time is independent of the number of bits is A Dual slope C Parallel conversion B Successive approximation. D Counter type

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85

A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay times of 15 ns each. The maximum possible time required for change of state will be A 15 ns C 45 ns B 30 ns D 60 ns

86 Boolean Algebra obeys A Associative law C Distributive law B Commutative law D All of these

87 In a four variable Karnaugh map two adjacent cells give a A Three variable term C Two variable term 88 Large screen integration refers to A More than 10 gates on the same chip C More than 75 gates on the same chip B More than 25 gates on the same chip D More than 100 gates on the same chip B Single variable term D Four variable term

89 The minimum number of 2 input NAND gates required to implement boolean function X Y ' Z , if X,Y,Z are available A 2 B 3 C 4 90 If the functions W,X,Y,Z are as follows: W = R+P'Q+ R'S ; X =PQR'S'+ P'Q'R'S'+PQ'R'S' ; Y = RS + (PR + PQ'+P'Q')' ; Z= R+S+(PQ + P'Q'R'+PQ'S')' D 5

A W=Z, X=Z' C W=Z,X=Y' 91

B W=Z, X=Y D W=Y=Z'

The Boolean Expression Y=A'B'C'D+A'BCD'+AB'C'D+ABC'D' can be minimized to

A Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC'+AC'D C Y=A'BCD' +'B'C'D+AB'C'D 92 A 2bit binary multiplier can be implemented using A XOR gates and multiplexer C 4 input NOR and multiplexer

B Y = A'B'C'D+ BCD'+AB'C'D D Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'

B 2 input ANDs only D None of these.

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93 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2 bit input A is greater than the 2 bit input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1 is A 4 C 8 B 6 D 10

94 For a binary half subtractor having two inputs A and B , the correct set of logical expressions for the outputs D = A-B and X (=borrow) are A D=AB+A'B, X= A'B C D= A'B+AB', X = A'B B D= A'B+AB', X = AB' D None of these.

95 The following program starts at Location 0100H LXI SP, 00FF LXI H,0107 MVI A,20H SUB M The contents of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0209H is A 20H C 00H B 02H D FFH

96 In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt Only if an interrupt service routine is not B Only if a bit in the inturrept mask is made 0. being executed. Only if inturrepts have been enabled by an C D none of these. EI instruction 97 If CS = A'15 A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range will be A 3000H - 3FFFH B 7000H - 7FFFH A C 5000H - 5FFFH and 6000H - 6FFFH 98 D 6000H - 6FFFH and 7000H - 7FFFH

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer as per the following code. A. A PROM can be used as a synchronous counter. R. Each memory location in a PROM can be read synchronously. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

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99

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer as per the following code. A. Gray code is used in shaft position encoding. R. In gray code only a single bit change occurs when going from one code to another. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

100 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer as per the following code. A.ECL gate has very high speed of operation R. Trsistors in ECL do not go into saturation region. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

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The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by A fast turn-on C large collector-base reverse bias B fast turn-off D large emitter-base forward bias

The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called A avalanche breakdown. C breakdown by tunnelling. B zener breakdown. D high voltage breakdown.

For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behaves as A Voltage controlled resistor. C Voltage controlled current source. B Current controlled current source. D Current controlled resistor.

Space charge region around a p-n junction A does not contain mobile carriers C contains electrons only as free carriers B contains both free electrons and holes D contains holes only as free carriers

The reverse saturation current of a silicon diode A doubles for every 10C increase in temperature B does not change with temperature

C doubles for every 10C decrease in temperature D None of these 6 Transistor is a A Current controlled current device. C Voltage controlled current device. 7 B Current controlled voltage device. D Voltage controlled voltage device.

In the voltage regulator shown below, if the current through the load decreases,

A The current through R1 will increase. C zener diode current will increase. 8

B The current through R1 will decrease. D zener diode current will decrease.

For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current A Increases C remains constant. B decreases D Initially increases and then decreases

N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because

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A They have large size

B They consume less power

C Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes D They are easy to fabricate 10 n-type silicon is obtained by A Doping with tetravalent element C Doping with trivalent element 11 B Doping with pentavalent element D Doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent element

The forward characteristic of a diode has a slope of approximately 100mA/V at a desired point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is

A 50 C 100

B 20 D 10

12 When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity A increases C remains constant. 13 A zener diode A Has a high forward voltage rating. C Is useful as an amplifier. B Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse voltage. D Has a negative resistance. B decreases D increases or decreases depending on semiconductor type

14 Field effect transistor has A large input impedance. C large power gain 15 MOSFET can be used as a A current controlled capacitor C current controlled inductor B voltage controlled capacitor D voltage controlled inductors B large output impedance. D large votage gain.

16 Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases A the mobility decreases C the drain current increases B the transconductance increases D None of these

17 Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction A junction capacitance C depletion capacitance 18 Which of the transistor component is bigger in size? A Emmiter B Collector B charge storage capacitance D channel length modulation

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C Base

D All are of equal size

19 In which material do conduction and valence bands overlap ? A Conductor C Dieelectric 20 Hall Effect can be used A To find type of semi conductor (whether p OR n) B to find carrier concentration C to measure conductivity 21 Which statement is false as regards Transistors. A Base is lightly doped. C Collector is moderately doped. 22 Thermionic emmision current is given by A Fermi Dirac distribution C Richardsons Dushman equation B Maxwell's distribution D None of these. B Emmiter is moderately doped D All statements are correct. D All of the above B Semiconductor D None of these

23 In energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor the acceptor energy level is A Slightly above valence band C Slightly below valence band 24 Fermi level is the amount of energy which A a hole can have at room temperature C must be given to an electron to move to conduction band B an electron can have at room temperature D None of these. B in valence band

D None of these.

25 Which of the following has highest conductivity ? A Platinum C Tunguston B Aluminium D Silver

26 When a reverse bias is applied to PN junction, the width of the depletion layer A Decreases C remains constant. 27 Surface leakage current is a part of A reverse current C Forward breakdown 28 The cut in voltage of a diode is nearly equal to B Forward current D Reverse breakdown B increases D Initially decreases then remains constant

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A applied forward voltage C Barrier potential 29 A varactor diode is A reverse bised C biased to breakdown 30 Which of these has highly doped p and n region? A PIN Diode C Tunnel diode 31 Which of these has semiconductor metal junction? A PIN Diode C Tunnel diode 32 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a JFET has A Lower input impedance C higher voltage gain 33 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a FET has A Less noisy C Has higher input impedance

B applied reverse voltage D None of these.

B forward bised D unbiased

B Schottky diode D None of these

B Schottky diode D None of these

B high input impedance and high voltage gain D high input impedance and low voltage gain

B Has better thermal stability D All of these

34 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) When a photoconductor device is exposed to light,its bulk resistance increases. (R) When exposed to light, electron hole pair are generated in the photoconducive device. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

35 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) A PN junction diode is used as a rectifier (R) A PN junction diode has low resistance in forward direction and high resistance in reverse direction. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

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36

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) Intrinsic semiconductor is an insulator at 0 degree Kelvin. (R) Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor is in the centre of forbidden energy band. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

37 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) When a high reverse voltage is applied to a p-n junction the diode breaks down. (R) High reverse voltage causes avalanche effect. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

38 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) In n-p-n transistor conduction is mainly due to electrons. (R) In n type materials electrons are majority carriers. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false 39

D A is false, R is true

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) The amount of photo electric emission depends on the intensity of incident light. (R) Photo Electric emission can occur only if frequency of incident light is less than threshold frequency. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false 40

D A is false, R is true

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) In intrinsic semiconductor the charge concentration increases with temperature. (R) At higher temperatures, the forbidden energy gap in semiconductors is lower. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A C A is true, R is false Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A D A is false, R is true B

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41

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) In p-n-p transistor ,collector current is termed negative. (B) in a p-n-p transistor holes are majority carriers. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

42 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) A Hall effect is used to find the type of semiconductor. (R) When a semiconductor carrying current I lies in a magnetic field , the force on electrons and holes is in opposite directions. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct Both A and R are correct and R is correct B A explanation of A explanation of A C A is true, R is false 43 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer based on the following statements . (A) In a BJT, the base region is very thick. (R) In p-n-p transistor most of holes given off by emmiter diffuse through the base. A Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A B Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A D A is false, R is true

C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

44 The voltage between the emitter and collector of a silicon transistor when the transistor is biased to be at the edge of saturation is: A 5 volts. C 0.1 volts. 45 B 10 volts. D 0.3 volts.

In a transistor switch, the voltage change from base-to-emitter which is adequate to accomplish the switching [for silicon transistor] is only about

A 0.2 V. C 0.1 V

B 5V D 0.5 V.

46 The cut-in voltage of the aluminium n-type Schottky diode is about A 0.5 V. C 0.35 V. 47 Which of the following has highest conductivity ? B 0.5 V . D 0.35 mV.

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A copper C cast iron 48 For a NPN BJT transistor to be in saturation mode: A VE< VB, VC< VB C VE> VB, VC< VB

B Aluminium D Mild steel

B VE< VB, VC > VB D VE> VB, VC > VB

49 Which of the following statements best describes a forward biased silicon diode? A The current through diode is exponentially related to the diode voltage. B The voltage acrosss diode is 0 V D The current through diode is of the form m Vd, where m is contant and Vd diode voltage

C The current through diode is 0 A.

50 Which of the following statement is correct? (1 ) A P-channel MOSFET uses a n-type substrate or well (2) Conduction in a MOSFET channel is primarily due to Majority carriers A only 1 C both 1 and 2 51 When a BJT is operates under cut-off condition A Both junctions are forward biased C CB in forward biased and EB is reverse biased 52 Which is true about LASER diode? A LASER means Light Amplification by stimulated emission of radiation C very small dimension B It is monochromatic coherent light source D All of these B Both junctions are reverse biased D None of these B only 2 D None of these

53 The types of carriers in a semiconductor are A 1 C 3 54 The number of protons in a silicon atom is A 32 C 14 55 The most commonly used semi conductor material is A Silicon C Mixture of silicon and Germanium 56 Holes act like B Germanium D None of these B 28 D 4 B 2 D 4

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A Poitive charges C Negative charges 57 Eddy current loss is A Proportional to frequency C Proportional to ( frequency)2 58 In an n type semiconductor A Number of free electrons and holes are equal Number of free electrons is less than number of holes 59 If for a transistor is 0.98, is equal to C A 52 C 48

B neutral atoms D crystals

B independent of frequency D None of these

B Number of free electrons is greater than number of holes D none of these

B 49 D 46

60 Consider two well designed npn bipolar junction transistors , QA and QB. They are otherwise identical except base of QA is doped twice as heavily as the base of QB. The base emitter diode saturation current in Ebers Moll model, IES in transistor QA will be A Same as QB C Greater than QB B Less than QB D None of these

61 Which of the following statements are correct: (1) Input impedance of a MOSFET is higher than that of a JFET. (2) In MOS transistor, triode region is the saturation region. (3) GaAsP LED produces light in visible region A 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 62 The number of valence electrons in a donor atom is A 2 C 4 B 3 D 5 B 1 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3

63 BJT acts like a switch by operating between these two regions: A cut-off and saturation C saturation and active 64 The power dissipation in transistors is the product of A Emitter current and VBE voltage C Collector current and VCE voltage B Emitter current and VCE voltage D None of these B cut-off and active D None of these

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65 For a N type MOSFET , substrate is----------- type A P type C P type or N type depends on fabrication 66 Most Negative characteristics of CMOS logic family is A High power dissipation C low speed 67 polysilicon can be doped by A Diffusion C Addition of dopant gases during deposition B Implantation D All these three methods B Latch Up D None of these B N type D none of these

68 Resistivity of implanted polysilicon primarily depends on A Implant dose C anneling time 69 The merging of a hole and an electron is called A Recombination C covalent bonding B thermal bonding D None of these B anneling temperature D All these three

70 When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor crystal,the free electron will flow A towards positive terminal C either towards positive terminal ortowards negative terminal B towards negative terminal D none of these

71 Which diode is used at microwave frequncies? A Varactor diode C schottky diode 72 Which is the charactristic of FET A It is an unipolar device C Low input resiatance 73 B Govern by majority and minority carrier D None of these B zener diode D PIN Diode

At sufficiently high temperatures some electrons acquire enough kinetic energy to escape from metal surface. This is called

A Thermionic emission C Field emission 74 In BJT which current is the smallest? A Collector current

B secondary emission D Photoelectric emission.

B Base current

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C Emitter current

D Collector current and emitter current.

75 Which device converts solar radiation into electrical energy? A LED C LDR B Photo voltaic device D None of these

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1 What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with modulation index m=0.7 A C 149W 124.5W B D 170W 135W

2 What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index m=0.5 is replaced by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index A C 83.30% 96% B D 94.40% 88.88%

3 In television 4:3 represents A Interlace ratio C Aspect Ratio 4 B Form factor D None of above

To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equiprobable events, number of bits required is A C 32 5 B D 8 4

5 Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is A C 455 KHz 70 MHz B D 10.7 MHz 118.7 MHz

6 Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because A It limits audio signal C It removes distortions B It prevents overloading D It removes amplitude variations

7 Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver A RF ampliier C Amplitude limiter 8 Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver A Poor linearity C Tuning is difficult B No amplitude limiting D All of above B Mixer D AGC

9 AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455 KHz. Image rejection in dB A -20dB C -35.5dB 10 Crystal oscillator can be used in A Varactor diode modulator C Armstrong modulator 11 Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system B Transistor reactance modulator D FET reactance modulator B -30dB D -46.5dB

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

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A C

equal to two times

B D

three times less than

12 What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system? A C 900 22.50 B D 45

0

150

13 Number of possible symbols in QAM system are A C 2 8 B D 4 16

14 Muting (squelch) circuit is basically A C Low pass filter circuit Level activated switch B D High pass filter circuit Frequency converter circuit

15 Double conversion receiver has A C Two RF amplifier stage Two detectors B D Two IF Two audio amplifier stage

16 Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is . A 8000 samples/sec C 20000 samples/sec 17 Oversampling results into . A Large transmission bandwidth C Low SNR 18 Synchronization is necessary in A PAM system C PPM System B PWM System D None of above B More transmission power D Distorted speech B 16000 samples/sec D 44100 samples/sec

19 Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth 10 KHz coded with total 128 quantization levels is A 1280 Kbps C 70 Kbps 20 Companding is used to A Save transmission bandwidth C Achieve uniform SNR for all amplitudes 21 Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is A C 890-915 MHz 890-960 MHz B D 935-960 MHz 890-910 MHz B Remove noise D Achieve amplitude limiting B 140 Kbps D 64 kbps

22 Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 2/25 PGCET

A C

45 MHz 25 MHz

B D

95 MHz 50 MHz

23 Following is not component of GSM architecture. A C Main switching center Master station controller B D Base station controller Base trans receiver

24 If PN chip rate is 30x105 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of DSSS system is .. A C 3000 30000 B D 6000 60000

25 Frequency range of Ku Band is A C 2 GHz - 4 GHz 8 GHz - 12 GHz B D 4 GHz - 8 GHz 12 GHz - 18 GHz

26 What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension 1.5cm x 1 cm in dominant mode TE10. A C 1 GHz 10 GHz B D 5 GHz 15 GHz

27 Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is A 104 kbps C 13 kbps 28 CELP Speech coder is based on . A Waveform coding C Channel coding 29 B Parametric coding D Hybrid coding B 64 kbps D 2.2 kbps

Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit in quantization A 1 dB C 6 dB B 3 dB D 12 dB

30 In adaptive delta modulation A Step size is variable C Granular noise is less B Slope over load error eliminated D All of above

31 The spectral density of real valued random process has A C an even symmetry an odd symmetry B D a conjugate symmetry no symmetry

32 The stationary process has A Ensemble average equal to time average B All Statistical properties dependent on time

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All statistical properties independent of time

Zero variance

33 A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of the process is 5. Then the variance of process is .. A C 0 1 B D 0.5 5

34 Thermal noise is independent of A C Temperature Bandwidth B D Center frequency Boltzmann's constant

35 A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 . It is connected to an antenna with input resistance of 50 . Noise figure of the system is .. A C 1 0 B D 2 None of above

36 Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB A C 57 dB 51.23 dB B D 180 dB 55.23 dB

37 Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V. Modulation index is A C 38 Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor will be . A C 0.1 50 B D 10 100 0.25 0.5 B D 0.33 0.66

39 Balance modulator is used to generate A AM Signal C PM Signal B DSBSC Signal D PWM Signal

40 Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20 KHz, Modulation index .. A doubled C remains constant B halved D increase by 10

41 Primary function of multiplexing in communication system A To select one radio channel from a wide range of transmitted channels B D To allow a number of signals to make use of a single communications channel To match the frequency range of a signal to a particular channel.

C To reduce the bandwidth of a signal.

42 Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves A UHF SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Ultraviolet 4/25 PGCET

C Between Infrarred and Ultraviolet

D Infrarred

43 Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index n2=1. Multipath dispersion would be . (c=3x10 8 m/s) A C 44 In CDMA systems A Entire bandwidth can be used at a time C Entire bandwidth is divided into narrow bands B Entire bandwidth is used on time sharing basis 2.5 ns/m 5 ns/m B D 2.5 S/m 5 S/m

D None of above

45 Following is not usual classification of optical fiber A Single mode step index C Multi-mode graded index 46 B Multi-mode step index D Single mode graded index

The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of light (h f) A Equal to C Greater than B Smaller than D Independent of

47

Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle of fiber optic cable related by equation A C NA=sin
-1 NA=sin

B D

NA=tan NA=(1-sin2)1/2

48 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index m=0.5 A C 0.625 W 2.5 W B D 1.25 W 5W

49 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index m=0.5 A C 0.625 W 2.5 W B D 1.25 W 5W

50 Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with A Same operating spectrum C both A & B B Different operating spectrum D None of above

51 In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19 A Case 1 has more SIR C Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR B Case 2 has more SIR D No effect of N on SIR

52 In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19 A Case 1 has more channel capacity B Case 2 has more channel capacity

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

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Case 1 and Case 2 has equal Channel D No effect of N on channel capacity capacity 53 In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75 C A Bandwidth increases by 1.5 C Bandwidth remains constant A Transmission power doubles C Transmission power 1.41 times 55 B Bandwidth decreases by 1.5 D None of above B Transmission power halved D Remains same

54 In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 .

In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator, Assuming frequency reuse factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous channels that can exists in one cell is A C 15 40 B D 25 200

56 The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is A hand-off possibilities C simple modulation requires 57 B frequency resue D higher bandwidth

Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile communication system? A AMPS C IMT-2000 B GSM D NAMTS

58 Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is .. A Reduce handoffs C Increase channel capacity B Reduce channel capacity D Reduce bandwidth requirement

59 Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by A Q=R/D C Q=D/R 60

2

B Q=RxD D Q=D/R

A cellular system has 12 macrocells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro cell is splitted into 3 microcells. Find out total available channels after splitting A C 40 360 B D 120 30

61 Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications.. A Data & Voice convergence C Internet B Fixed and mobile convergence D Satellite communication

62 One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication A GPRS C CDMA2000 1xRTT B EDGE D IS95

63 Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network? A TACS C GPRS 64 Population inversion phenomenon found in A LED SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Photodiode 6/25 PGCET B GSM D ISDN

C LASER

D FET

65 Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive index n2=1.05. Its numerical aperture will be A C 0.926 0.35 B D 0.8 0.15

66 Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength. What are total app. number of guided mode supported by fiber? A C 50 200 B D 100 400

67 The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless technology? A Bluetooth C UWB B ZigBee D WiMAX

68 Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI)? A Mobile Country Code C Equipment Serial Number B Mobile Network Code D None of above

69 The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________. A The layered structure of the display C The control signal applied to the display 70 Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is . A Consumes more power C Higher cost 71 B Operates slowely D Less life time B The nature of the liquid crystal itself D The application of display backlighting

For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by: p(x)=1/2 for -1 x 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance respectively . A 1/2 and 2/3 C 1 and 4/3 B 1 and 2/3 D 2 and 4/3

72

Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise is A Rayleigh C Gaussian B Poisson D Rician B Average current Average power as a function of D frequency

73 Spectral density expresses . A Average voltage C Average frequency

74 Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using A Integrator C Predictor SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Differentiator D Equalizer 7/25 PGCET

75 In PCM system, quantization noise depends on A Sampling interval C Frequency of information signal 76 In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by A Parsevals Theorem C Fourier Transform 77 Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is A 20 Hz to 20 KHz C 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz 78 Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is A 3-30 MHz C 300-3000 MHz 79 B 30-300 MHz D 3-30 GHz B 500 Hz to 10 KHz D 300 Hz to 5 KHz B Nyquist Theorem D Hysenberg Theorem B Number of quantization levels D None of above

Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is called A Modulation C Detection B Multiplexing D Telemetry

80 Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal? A PPM C PAM 81 Quantization noise occurs in A PWM C PCM 82 Which one of following system is digital? A PAM C PCM B PWM D AM B PPM D AM B PWM D All of above

83 Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog? A PWM C DM B PCM D ADM

84 In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal A remains constant C decreases rapidly B increases rapidly D None of above

85 For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by A 4 bit C 8 bit SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B 5 bit D 32 bit 8/25 PGCET

86 In QAM system following both identity are varied A Amplitude and frequency C Amplitude and Phase 87 In PCM systems, if transmission path is long. A High power transmitter are used C Repeaters are used B Sensitive receivers are used D Pulse amplitude increases B Frequency and phase D Baud rate and phase

88 An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB followed by mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise figureas referred to input in dB is A C 21.53 10.44 B D 11.07 0.63

89 A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and capacitance of 10 pF. Temperature of circuit is 17 0 C. What is noise voltage observed across circuit by wideband voltmeter? A 1 V B 2 V C 90 8 V D 16 V

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal systems? A C BN > B3dB BN =0.5* B3dB B D BN = B3dB BN = 0.5**B3dB

91

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low pass filter? A C BN > B3dB BN =0.5* B3dB B D BN = B3dB BN = 0.5**B3dB

92 What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a bandwidth of 500 MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB? A C 0.5 pW 1 pW B D 0.557 pW 1.557 pW

93 Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 . Its power density spectrum is 0.24x10 -5. Corresponding available power density is .. A C 2.6x10-5 26x10-5 B D 0.025 6x10-8

94 If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level, available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will A remains constant C Increase four times B Increase two times D Decrease to half

95 What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 . The Bandwidth of measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 27 0 C A SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 0.40 V B 9/25 1.28 V PGCET

0.16 V

1.19 V

96 Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal from modulated signal (5+10cosmt)coswct A Envelope detector C Ratio detector B Synchronous detector D None of above

97 Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields . A Horizontal line C Parabola B Vertical line D Hyperbola

98 Image rejection in superheterodyne receiver occurs at .. A RF Stage C IF stage B Mixer Stage D Detector stage

99 Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power A Increase by 100% C Increase by 25% B Increase by 50% D Does not change

100 Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth and minimum power? A VSB C DSBSC B SSBSC D AM

101 For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used A AM C SSB 102 B FM D DSBSC

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square wave of period 100 S . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal? A 990 KHz C 1020 KHz B 1010 KHz D 1030 KHz

103

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100 S for one cycle . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal? A 990 KHz C 1010 KHz B 1000 KHz D 1020 KHz

104 In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier is 400 W. Modulation index is A C 0.25 0.75 B D 0.5 1

105 Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5 What is total modulation index? SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 10/25 PGCET

A C

1.1 0.55

B D

0.67 0.25

106 Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A when modulating signal is removed. What is modulation index? A C 0.94 0.69 B D 0.83 0.33

107 AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt. What is modulation index? A C 108 0.201 0.8 B D 0.404 0.894

In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage must be .. A Non-linear amplifier C Class C amplifier B Linear amplifier D Harmonic amplifier

109 FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler, output signal have modulation index A C 3.33 30 B D 10 10

110 Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on A Modulating frequency C Maximum amplitude of modulating signal B Carrier frequency D Peak frequency deviation

111 Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver A Poor adjacent channel rejection C Tuning is difficult 112 Following diode is used in AM detector circuit A Silicon diode C Tunnel diode B Point contact diode D PIN diode B Poor sensitivity D Poor fidelity

113 Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is .. A 10.7 MHz C 100 KHz B 50 KHz D 200 KHz

114 Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is A Tuned circuit is used C RFC is used B Primary to secondary phase relation ship is linear

D Parallel combination of RC

115 Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting A Diode detector SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Phase discriminator 11/25 PGCET

C Ratio detector 116

D PLL Detector

UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication because. A Below 900 MHz, band is not avialable Line of sight and reflected signal ensure the reception at mobile handset B Good Sky wave Propogation at 900 MHz.

D None of above

117 GSM cellular mobile communication system uses A CDMA and FDMA C Only FDMA 118 WLAN services uses Long distance communication at high data Short distance communication at high B rate data rate Long distance communication at low data Short distance communication at low C D rate data rate 119 As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can send and receive data up to . A A 64 kbps C 11 MBPS 120 GPRS is. A Circuit switched and packet switched service B Packet switching for mobile users for data transfer B 2 MBPS D 54 MBPS B FDMA and TDMA D Only TDMA

C Voice telephony services 121 UMTS offers data speed A C 384 kbps on move and 2.048 Mbps on stationary 2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS on stationary

D useful for sending SMS

64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps on stationary

D None of above

122 IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate . A 2 MBPS C 54 MBPS 123 Bluetooth module communicates using . A transmitter C radio module 124 B receiver D transponder B 8 MBPS D 75 MBPS

IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______ hops per second A C 512 1600 B D 800 3200

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

12/25

PGCET

125 IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation DSSS uses carrier modulation scheme _____________. A BPSK C DQPSK B QPSK D QAM

126 The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at 2Mbps considering ideal transfer data rate. A 2 MB C 10 MB 127 B 2.5 MB D 20 MB

Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate piconets A DSSS C FHSS-CDMA B OFDM D FHSS-TDMA

128 In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to mobile handset at every . A 1 ms C 100 ms 129 WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to . A C 16 64 B D 32 512 B 10 ms D 500 ms

130 Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is A BPSK C DQPSK 131 WCDMA uses chip rate of . A 2 Mcps C 3.84 Mcps 132 Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA A LPC C Adaptive CELP B RELP D DPCM B 8 Mcps D 16 Mcps B QPSK D QAM

133 Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is A C +23 dBm +9 dBm B D +13 dBm +3 dBm

134 After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal A remains constant C increases significantly B increases D decreases

135 Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on .. A Performance of coding method SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Bit error rate 13/25 PGCET

C Tolerance of digitised voice

D All of these

136 CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique A FDMA C DSSS B FHSS D THSS

137 In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps, Processing gain in dB is A C 4.8 dB 40 dB B D 48 dB 60 dB

138 In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is 5 KHz. What is processing gain in dB? A C 5 dB 4 dB B D 50 dB 40 dB

139 Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of A C 140 200 KHz 1.25 MHz B D 600 KHz 10 MHz

Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop power setting is adjested in 1 dB increments after every ______ by command from base station. A C 1 second 10 ms B D 1.25 second 1.25 ms

141 MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to A reduce co-channel interference C reduce intercell interference 142 Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant amplitude ? A C FSK GMSK B D QPSK QAM B reduce transmission power D reduce near-far problem

143 The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission frequency once in every ______ . A C 1.25 ms 4.615 ms B D 120 ms 125 s

144 Modulation data rate in GSM is . A C 200 kbps 64 kbps B D 270.833 kbps 2 Mbps

145 Spectrum efficiency in GSM is . A SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 1 bps/Hz B 14/25 1.35 bps/Hz PGCET

2 bps/Hz

4 bps/Hz

146 Grey list in mobile communication means A Mobile numbers are VIP C Mobile numbers are not allowed momentarily B Mobile numbers are not allowed permanantly

D Mobile purchased without bills

147 Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast . A Frequency of operation in cell C Congestion information B Channel availability D All of above

148 The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is .. A C 3 8 B D 4 16

149 The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called A C Um Interface A B D A-bis D

150 The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km and 8 km from transmitter is A C 3 dB 12 dB B D 6 dB 15 dB

151 Wireless medium compared to wired medium A Quite reliable for voice and data communication B Not reliable for voice and data communication

C Offers more bandwidth

D Requires less power

152 In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent is A C 2 4 B D 3 5

153 Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead of 4. Increase in overall system capacity is approximately A C 28 times 4 times B D 7 times 1.7 times

154 Cells using same set of frequencies are called A neighbouring cells C cochannel cells 155 The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is 2 km A SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 3 B 15/25 23 PGCET B adjacent channel cells D Clusters

43

156 Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km 2. Cluster size N=7. What is will be area of one cluster? A C 3.5 km2 14 km
2

B D

7 km2 143 km
2

157 Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels are assigned to each cell. The number of channels per cluster are .. A C 158 Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice channels. If service area is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse factor of 4. System capacity is . A C 1000 10000 B D 5000 20000 1120 70 B D 112 None of above

159 In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster formed by i=2 and j=2 are . A C 160 4 12 B D 8 16

Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for system design cell shape used is ______________. A circular, circular C hexagonal,hexagonal B circular, hexagonal D hexagonal, circular

161 If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be A Reduction in path loss by 6 dB C Reduction in path loss by 12 dB B Reduction in path loss by 3 dB D No change in path loss

162 In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna gain is 3 dB. EIRP is. A C 10 W 30 W B D 20 W 3.33 W

163 PLL can be used to demodulate A C 164 AM PM B D FM PCM

Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are added together and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the detector is . A 21 KHz sinusoid C 210 KHz sinusoid B 1 KHz sinusoid D 1.1 KHz sinusoid 16/25 PGCET

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

165 In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to .. A C 3.4 KHz 15 KHz B D 5 KHz 20 KHz

166 Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth A Gets doubled C Increase by 20 KHz 167 In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is A proportional to deviation C inversely proportional to deviation B proportional to cube of deviation D Proportional to square of deviation B Does not change D Increase by 10 KHz

168 If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz. Bandwidth of FM signal as per Carson's rule is . A C 40 KHz 140 KHz B D 90 KHz 200 KHz

169 Following is not advantage of FM over AM system A Noise immunity C Capture effect B Fidelity D Sputtering effect

170 A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128 levels using mid-rise uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is A C 0.12 V2 0.0012 V2 B D 0.012 V2 0.000012 V2

171 Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is .. A C 64 KBPS 4 MBPS B D 2.048 MBPS 8 MBPS

172 The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit A C 173 Pulse stuffing is used in A Synchronous TDM C Any TDM B Asynchronous TDM D None of above 48 dB 64 dB B D 56.8 dB 67.78 dB

174 With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires A lower sampling rate C simple hardware 175 Following is not ideal requirement from line codes A Transmission bandwidth SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B large DC component 17/25 PGCET B low bandwidth D better SNR

C Favourable PSD 176

D Timing recovery

Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery property? A Manchestor C RZ B NRZ D None of above

177 Which of the following gives maximum probability of error? A ASK C BPSK 178 B BFSK D DPSK

Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of amplitude A and duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise PSD A C 2AT/N AT B D 2A T/N A/N
2

179 Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is A AND gate C Ex-NOR gate 180 In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine wave of 10 KHz and 1 is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are orthogonal for bit interval of . A 45 s C 200 s B 50 s D 250 s B OR gate D NAND gate

181 For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a coherent binary FSK systems are A 32 KHz and 40 KHz C 20 KHz and 40 KHz 182 ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of A Analog transmission of data C Analog to Digital convertor 183 Correlation receiver consists of A Adder and integrator C Mutiplier and differentiator 184 Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is A C 800 200 B D 400 100 B Multilier and integrator D Addre and differentiator B Digital to analog converter D Analog modulators B 8 KHz and 12 KHz D 16 KHz and 20 KHz

185 In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading causes _________and hence limits maximum symbol rate. SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 18/25 PGCET

A Multipath fading C higher bit rate 186

B Doppler effect D Intersymbol interference

Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile communication are .. A Reflection and refraction C Multipath fading and doppler effect B diffraction and scattering D Blocking and shadowing

187 The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______ A C <0.1 s 3 s B D 0.5 s 5 s

188 A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency. Mobile moving at speed of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier frequency is A 899.99 MHz C 900 MHz B 900.00006 MHz D 900.03 MHz

189 Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal gain and linear phase without distortion. A Rayleigh fading channel C Frequency selective channel 190 B Rician fading channel D Flat channel

Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will happen. A Scattering C Shadow fading B Reflection D Doppler effect

191 Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to A Multiple indirect path between transmitter and receiver B No distict line of sight path D None of above

C Direct line of sight path

192 In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are located at distance of 10 km. transmission delay of signal typically A C 3.33 s 333.3 s B D 33.3 s 3 ms

193 Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in hybrid channel assignment mainly depends on A Availability of channels C Traffic characteristics B Blocking probability D System overheads

194 Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means A Transmitter power doubles C Transmitter power 1000 times SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 B Transmitter power four times D None of above 19/25 PGCET

195 Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is __________ the coverage area of original cell. A Half C one fourth B Double D Four times

196 In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into .. A 3 dB increase in gain C 9 dB increase in gain 197 B 6 dB increase in gain D 8 dB increase in gain

Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to transmit each symbol are A C 4 6 B D 5 8

198 Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about A 5 to 10 second C 1 to 2 second 199 B 2 to 5 second D less than 1 second

Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular systems. A C 3 dB 9 dB B D 6 dB 12 dB

200 If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3 minutes then offered traffic load in Erlang is . A C 6.66 60 B D 30 360

201 One of following is not related to cyclic code. A C Error detection is simple Code is powerful and efficient B D Look up table is required All of above

202 Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties has an error rate of 0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ... A C 0.9 0.99 B D 0.909 0.92

203 For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the telephone channel for SNR of 30 dB A C 64 KBPS 33.89 KBPS B D 32 KBPS 16 KBPS

204 If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter, amount of information communicated is . A C 8 bit 1 bit B D 4 bit 0

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

20/25

PGCET

205 What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ? A C 206 A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5, 0.25,0.125 and 0.125 respectively. Amount of information carried by symol x1 and x2 is A C 207 1 bit for both x1 and x2 1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2 B D 2 bit for both x1 and x2 2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2 8 bit 1 bit B D 4 bit 0

What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its probability is 0.25 A C 0.25 1 B D 5 2

208 Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is A C 209 1 bit/message 2 bit/message B D 1.75 bit/message 4 bit/message

Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB SNR is A C 4 kbps 20.11 kbps B D 8.02 kbps 32.40 kbps

210 In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every A C 1 s 125 s B D 64 s 625 s

211 Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is A C e-T e-Tsin(t) B D e-Tsin(ht) e-T/2sin(2ht)

212 Intersymbol Interference can be reduced by following A C Transmit sinc pulses instead of ractangular pulses By reducing data transmission rate B D By using suitable pulse shaping techniques. All of above

213 Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to A C 214 Reduce ISI Reduce bandwidth B D Reduce data rate None of above

Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to recover error free data at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is power spectral density. A 0 dB B 21/25 3 dB PGCET

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

C 215

-1.59 dB

1.33 dB

RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with 10 k , maximum modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of 10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping. A C 0.25 0.85 B D 0.5 0.9

216 HDTV has aspect ratio A C 4:3 9:16 B D 16:9 3:4

217 As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are A C Interlace scan mode 1080 Both A and B B D Progressive scan mode 780 None of above

218 In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are .. A C 786 1920 B D 1280 2400

219 What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire A C 1 MHz 100KHz B D 40 GHz 10 GHz

220 Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal A C 221 Astable multivibrator Monostable multivibrator B D D-Flip flop Schmit trigger

What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem to store audio signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration of 1 minute? A C 1.2 MB 30 KB B D 1.8 MB 64 KB

222 Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is .. A C 2.4 kbps 8 kbps B D 4 kbps 16 kbps

223 Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed using DPCM technique. Total transmission rate will be.. A C 128 kbps 256 kbps B D 192 kbps 384 kbps

224 Following hardware is used for pulse shaping A C SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 Low pass filter circuit Transversal filter B D 22/25 High pass filter circuit All of above PGCET

225 HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides A C Digital Connection Carries audio signal B D Carries video signal All of above

226 Equalizer is used to .. A C Reshape incoming pulses To boost low freq components B D Boost high freq components Amplify incoming pulses

227 Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to A C To achieve smooth phase transitions of carrier To achieve zero ISI at decision making instant of neighboring pulse B D To reduce bandwidth requirement for transmission. All of above

228 Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder A C Pitch Sample value B D Gain Voice/Unvoiced determination

229 How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ? A C 230 160 320 B D 200 400

Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal A C Low pass filter Amplifier B D Bistable multivibrator Monostable multivibrator

231 If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system.. A We get good SNR B D Large bandwidth required for transmission All of above

C More bits required to represent information 232 If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system .. A C Transmission bit rate will increase No possibility of aliasing error

B D

Storage requirement will increase All of above

233 Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication A C RTS CTS B D Strobe DTR

234 Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak amplitude of 16 volt is quantized with 4 bits. A C SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 0.0833 0.5 B D 23/25 0.05 4 PGCET

235 Adaptive delta modulation is used to A C Reduce transmission rate Dynamic sampling rate B D Remove slope overload and threshold error All of above

236 Sigma-Delta modulation is used to A C Pre-emphasize low frequency content Simplify receiver design B D Increase correlation between adjacent samples All of above

237 Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system.. A Bandwidth of transmitted signal must be large enough Bandwidth expansion factor should be independent of message signal B SNR should increase as bandwidth increase None of above

C 238

Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by equation A C SNR = 7.78 + 20logC C=2Blog2(SNR) B D C=2Blog10(1+SNR) C=Blog2(1+SNR)

239

Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system represents A C Vowels Unvoiced sound B D Voiced sound Pitch

240 10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between two frame of speech will be . A C 241 Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television system used in India is A C 242 625 lines, 52 S 625 lines, 64 S B D 525 lines, 53 S 525 lines,12 S 12.5 S 1250 S B D 125 S None of above

One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits encrypted data A C 156.25 57 B D 114 26

243 One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits A C 244 156.25 57 B D 114 26

Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile phone equipment

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

24/25

PGCET

A C

HLR EIR

B D

VLR AuC

245 Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique .. A C 246 Speech coding Bit interleaving B D Channel coding Equalisation

Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of packets A C PRMA FDMA B D TDMA CDMA

247 Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______ A C Omnidirectional antenna Switched beam antenna B D Parabolic antenna Dish antenna

248 To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used A C 249 In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are related as: A C Ts=Tblog2M Ts=2Tblog10M B D Ts=TbxM Rs=Rblog2M Source encoding Interleaving B D Channel coding Channel Equalisation

250 Scrambling is done to achieve A C To help synchronization To remove long string of 1s and 0s B D To make data pattern random All of above

SUBJECT CODE: 4.09

25/25

PGCET

10

11

A microwave terrestrial link of 30 km long is operating at 4GHz with radiated power of 100 W through a parabolic disk having maximum gain of 50 dB. The receiver uses similar antenna. The free space loss is A 50 dB B 100 dB C 134.1 dB D 143.1 dB A microwave terrestrial link of 30 km long is operating at 4GHz with radiated power of 100 W through a parabolic disk having maximum gain of 50 dB. The receiver uses similar antenna. The received power is A 15.9 dBm B 25 dBm C 134.1 dBm D 32.5 dBm The resonant frequency of rectangular cavity of dimension s a= 5cm, b=4 cm ,d= 2.5 cm for TE110 mode is A 4.80 GHz B 6.71GHz C 7.08 GHz D 8.08 GHz The resonant frequency of rectangular cavity of dimension s a= 5cm, b=4 cm ,d= 2.5 cm for TM101 mode is A 4.80 GHz B 6.71GHz C 7.08 GHz D 8.08 GHz A rectangular wave guide of cross section 5 cm X 2 cm is used to propagate TM11 mode at 10 GHz. Its characteristic impedance is A 377 ohm B 75 ohm C 222 ohm D 300 ohm A rectangular wave guide of cross section 5 cm X 2 cm is used to propagate TM11 mode at 10 GHz. Its cut off wavelength is A 2.5 cm B 10 cm C 3.7 cm D 4 cm The diagonal elements of Scattering matrix are zero for A Reciprocal network B Perfect match network C Loss less junction D Phase shifter The scattering matrix having Sij =Sji (ij) is A Reciprocal network B Perfect match network C Loss less junction D Phase shifter For any loss less network the sum of the products of each term of any row or of any column of the S-matrix multiplies by its complex conjugate is unity. It is the property for A Reciprocal network B Perfect match network C Loss less junction D Phase shifter Quarter wave coaxial cavity is equivalent to the A Series resonant circuit B Parallel resonant circuit C Inductor circuit D Capacitor circuit Half wave coaxial cavity is equivalent to the A Series resonant circuit B Parallel resonant circuit C Inductor circuit D Capacitor circuit

Q. = ?

A C 2

1A 3A

B D

2A 4A

Consider the circuit graph shown in figure below. Every branch of circuit graph has a non-zero resistive element. The voltage drops of some branches are shown as per the branch resistance. Find out the value of voltage is

A C 3

- 30 V - 20 V

B D

25 V 15 V

= ?

A C 4

11.86 25

B D

10 11.18

A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA and results in a voltage increase of 12 V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is A C 0.75 mF 0.6 mF B D 1.33 mF 1.67 mF

value is A C

If the Laplace transform of a signal y(t) is = -1 1 B D 0

then its final

unbounded

Page 1 of 24

The RC circuit shown in the figure is a

A C 7

low pass filter band pass filter

B D

high pass filter band reject filter

For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin voltage and resistance looking into X Y are

A C

4/3 V, 2 4/3 V, 2/3

B D

4 V, 2/3 4 V, 2

If the unit step response of a network is 1 , then its unit impulse response is A B C In the circuit shown below, the value of RL such that the maximum power transferred to RL is 1 D 1

A C 10

5 15

B D

10 20

Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown below. If all elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

A C

B D

Page 2 of 24

11

For a periodic signal v (t) = 30sin100t + 10cos300t + 6 sin(500t + p / 4) , the fundamental frequency in rad/s is A 100 B 300 C 500

1500

12

The transfer function

for the circuit shown below is

13

3 + 2 0.5 + 1 B +2 +1 +2 +1 C D +1 +2 A source = 3 has an internal impedance of 6 + 7 . If a purely resistive load connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in should be A 6.00 B 9.22 A C 7.32 D 13.0

14

15

For parallel RLC circuit, which one of the following statements is NOT correct? A The bandwidth of the B The bandwidth of the circuit circuit deceases if R is remains same if L is increased increased C At resonance, input D At resonance, the magnitude impedance is a real of input impedance attains its quantity minimum value A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 1 kHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each of R, L and C is doubled from its original value, the new Q of the circuit is A 25 B 50 C 100 D 20

16

The minimum number of equations required to analyze the circuit shown in Figure below is

A C

3 6

B D

4 7

Page 3 of 24

17

The differential equation for the current i(t) in the circuit given below is

A C 18

The Laplace transform of sin + is A

19

sin + cos sin cos B + + sin cos cos + sin C D + The inverse Laplace transform of the function = is A C 1 sin The Laplace transform of is A sin B D sin 1

+ 2 + = sin 2 + 2 + = 2

B D

+ 2 + 2 = 2 + 2 + 2 = sin 2

20

21

1 1 B + 1 1 C D + The inverse Laplace transform of the function = A

22

1 1 B 1 + 1 2 2 1 1 C D 1 + 1 + 2 2 The Laplace transform of is given by = , as the value of the tends to 0 2

is

A C 23

B D

The magnitude of the transfer function = A increases with increase in frequency C has some relation with the frequency B D

decreases with decrease in frequency is independent of the frequency

Page 4 of 24

24

An independent voltage source in series with an impedance = + delivers a maximum average power to a load impedance when = + = =

A C 25 = ?

B D

A C 26

0.6 A 0.3 A

B D

0.5 A 0.4A

A network has 8 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches in the network is A 11 B 12 C 8 D 6

27

A branch has 6 nodes and 9 branches. The independent loops are A C 3 5 B D 4 6

28

= ? =?

A C 29

2 V, 4 4V,5

B D

4 V, 4 2 V, 5

= ?

A C

3.5 F 2.4 F

B D

1.2 F 2.6 F

Page 5 of 24

Page 6 of 24

30

In the circuit of figure dependent source

A C 31

supplies 16 W supplies 32 W

B D

absorbs 16 W absorbs 32 W

Consider the following circuits :

The planner circuits are A 1 and 2 C 32 3 and 4

B D

2 and 3 4 and 1

A tree of the graph shown in figure is

A C 33

adeh afgh

B D

acfh aefg

The directed graph will be A B

Page 7 of 24

34

If the number of branch in a network is , the number of nodes is and the number of dependent loop is , then the number of independent node equations will be A B +1 1 C Branch current and loop current relation are expressed in matrix form as +1 D 1

35

where represent branch current and loop current. The rank of incidence matrix is A 4 B 5 C 36 =? 6 D 8

A C 37 =?

0.4

B D

0.67

1.5 2.5

A C

-11 V 3V

B D

11 V -3 V

Page 8 of 24

38

=?

A C 39

1V 4V

B D

1.5 V 6V

= ? =?

A C 40

-2 V, 6/5 1 V, 5/6

B D

2 V, 5/6 -1 V, 6/5

In the circuit of figure given, the value of R, for which it absorbs maximum power, is

A C 41

4 2

B D

3 none of the above

The natural response of an RLC circuit is described by the differential equation Then is A 101 + C
+

+1=0

0 = 10

=0

42

=?

10

B D

101 10

A C

20 300 + 68.2

2.48 300 + 68.2

B D

20 300 68.2

2.48 300 68.2

Page 9 of 24

43

=?

A C 44

In the bridge shown in figure, = 300 , = 300 600 , = 200 + 100 then at balance is

0.45 10 + 26.57

0.89cos 10 t 63.43 V

B D

0.89 10 + 63.43 0.45 10 26.57

A C 45

400 + 300 100

B D

400 300 900

In a two element series circuit, the applied voltage and the resulting current are = 60 + 66 10 , = 2.3 103 + 68.3 . The nature of the elements would be A R-C B L-C C =? R-L D R-R

46

A C

+ 1.5 + 1 + 1 2 + 3 + 2 + 1

B D

+ 3 + 1 + 1 2 + 3 + 2 2 + 1

Page 10 of 24

47

=?

48

+ + 1 + 1 + 1 C 2 + 2 + 1 =? A

B D

2 + + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1

49

B + + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 C D 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 A resistance of 10 is connected in one branch of a network. The current in the branch is 2A. If this 10 resistor is replaced by a 20 resistance the current in this branch A may be more or less than B will be less than 2A 2A C will be more than 2A D none of these A When a negative converter with conversion ratio k is terminated through an impedance ZL the equivalent element at the input terminal is A k ZL B k 2 ZL C -k ZL D -k2/ ZL

50

51

Reciprocity theorem is applicable to a network 1. Which contains R,L and C as elements 2. Initially relaxed system 3. Which has both independent and dependent sources the correct combination is A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 = D 1,2 and 3 = =

52

Give the correct relation A C = B D

Page 11 of 24

53

The parameters of the given network are

A C

8 , 7.55 12 , 8.5

B D

13 , 9 None of the above

Page 12 of 24

54

For network given below and are

A C 55

5 , -2/3 3.4 , -3/5

B D

3.4 , -2/5 None of the above

A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2k and half power frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of capacitor is A 6 F B 20 nF C 2 nF D 60 F

56

A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2k and half power frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of inductor is A 4.3 mH B 43 mH C 0.16 mH D 1.6 mH

57

A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2k and half power frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of quality factor is A 22 B 100 A parallel resonant circuit has a mid-band admittance of 25 10 , quality factor of 80 and a resonant frequency of 200 krad/s. The value R is A 40 B 56.57 A parallel resonant circuit has a mid-band admittance of 25 10 , quality factor of 80 and a resonant frequency of 200 krad/s. The value C is A 2 F B 28.1 F C 10 F D 14.14 F C 80 D 28.28 C 48 D 200

58

59

60

A parallel RLC circuit has R = 1 k and C = 1 F. The quality factor at resonance is 200. The value of inductor is A 35.4 H B 25 H C 17.7 H D 50 H

61

A parallel circuit has R = 1 k, C = 1 F and L = 10mH. The quality factor at resonance is A 100 B 90.86 C 70.7 D none of the above

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62

A series resonant circuit has an inductor L = 10 mH. The resonant frequency 0 = 106 rad/s and bandwidth is BW = 103 rad/s. The value of R and C will be A 100 F, 10 B 100 pF, 10 C 100 pF, 10 M D 100 F, 10 M

63

A series resonant circuit has L = 1 mH and C = 10 F. The required R for the BW 15. 9 Hz is A 0.1 B 0.2 C 15.9 m D 500 C

64

For the RLC parallel resonant circuit when R = 8 k, L = 40 mH and = 0.25 F, the quality factor Q is A 40 B 20 C 30 D 10

65

Bode diagram of the network function Vo/Vs for the circuit of figure is

66

h21 = ?

A C

-3/2 -1/2

B D

1/2 3/2

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67

Leq = ?

A C 68 Leq = ?

4H 7H

B D

6H 0H

A C 69 Leq = ?

2H 6H

B D

4H 8H

A C 70 Leq = ?

8H 4H

B D

6H 2H

A C 71 Leq = ?

0.4 H 1.2 H

B D

2H 6H

A C

1H 3H

B D

2H 4H Page 15 of 24

72

Leq = ?

A C 73 Leq = ?

0.2 H 0.4 H

B D

1H 2H

A C 74

1H 3H

B D

2H 4H

In the circuit of figure below = 2 rad/s. The resonance occurs when C is

A C 75

1F 1/3 F

B D

1/2 F 1/6 F

In the circuit of figure the maximum power delivered to RL is

A C 76

250 W 150 W

B D

200 W 100 W

The condition for reciprocity of a two port network having different parameters are 1. h12 = - h21 2. g12 = - g21 3. A = D Choose the correct combination A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3

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77

Millmans theorem is applicable when the sources are connected in A C parallel series and parallel B D series any configuration

78

Maximum power transfer theorem finds application in A C power circuits communication circuits B D distribution circuits

79

power and communication circuits To find the current in a resistance connected in one branch of a network, Thevenins theorem is used. VTH = 20V and RTH=5 . The current in the resistance is A 4A B 4 A or less C less than 4 A D more or less than 4 A

80

A step voltage E is applied to an R-L circuit. The rate of change of current is maximum at A t=0 B R/L C L/R D infinity

81

A step voltage E is applied to an R-L circuit. At t=0 the current in the circuit is A E/R B zero C infinity D E/L

82

In an RC circuit excited by a step voltage E, the current t=0 is A C E/R zero B D E/C infinity

83

In an R-L-C series circuit the value of resistance which corresponds to critical damping is A B / / C 1 D 2

84

/ / A series R-L-C circuit is critically damped. If the value of R is increased A the response will become B the response will become underdamped underdamped or overdamped C the response will become D the response will remain the overdamped same A series R-L circuit is excited by a voltage = such that = /. Then the current in the circuit is A B C D Page 17 of 24

85

86

87

88

89

An R-L-C series circuit is connected to a step voltage E. The initial current through an inductance is 0 . In the s domain the circuit element L will be replaced by A an impedance sL B an impedance sL in series with a current source 0 . C an impedance sL in series D an impedance sL in series with a voltage source 0 . with a source 0 . In a series R-L-C circuit the Q factor is given by A 1 B

A unit impulse voltage is applied to an inductance L. The current through the inductor is given by 1 A B 1 C D A unit impulse voltage is applied to a capacitance C. The voltage across the capacitor is given by 1 A B 1 C D

90

The impedance parameter z21 is A transfer impedance at port 1 with port 2 open circuited C transfer impedance at port 2 with port 1 open circuited For a symmetrical network A C h11 = h22 h11 h22 - h12 h21 = 0 B

1 transfer impedance at port 1 with port 2 short circuited transfer impedance at port 2 with port 1 short circuited

91

B D

h12 = h21 h11 h22 - h12 h21 = 1

92

For a network of the given figure, the impedance parameter matrix is

+ + + +

+ +

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93

Which of the following is correct || C = || For symmetrical network A = A C z11 = z22 z11 = z22 and z12 = z21 B D

94

|| = || = z12 = z21 z11 z22 - z12 z21 = 0

B D

95

The convolution of a function with the unit impulse function is A C B D

96

The impulse response of a system where transfer function is given as is A C 1 2 B D 1 2

97

The final value of the function = is A C 1 0 B D

2 infinity

98

Transfer function of an electrical low-pass RC network is A

99

1 B 1 + 1 + C D 1 + 1 + A coil with certain number of turns has a specified time constant. If the number of turns of the coil is doubled, its time constant would A remain unaffected B become doubled C become four-fold D get halved

100

Consider the following statements. The coefficient of coupling between two coils depends upon 1. Orientation of the coils 2. Core material 3. Number of turns on the two coils 4. Self inductances of the two coils Of these statements A 1,2 and 3 are correct B 1 and 2 are correct C 3 and 4 are correct D 1,2 and 4 are correct

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Page 20 of 24

101

Consider the following statements. A unit impulse is mathematically defined as 1. = 0 0 2. = 1 3. = 1 Of these statements A 1,2 and 3 are correct C 2 and 3 are correct

B D

1 and 2 are correct 1 and 3 are correct

102

Given = the initial and final values of will be respectively A 1,2 C 1,1 B D 2,1 2,2

103

The pole-zero configuration of an impedance function is given in the figure

The network is A R-L realizable C 104 L-C realizable

B D

R-C realizable R-L-C realizable

105

Under conditions of maximum power transfer from an a.c. source to a variable load A the load impedance must B the sum of source and load also be inductive, if the impedance is zero generator impedance is inductive C the sum of source and D the load impedance has the load reactance is zero same phase angle as the source impedance Consider the voltage waveform shown in the figure

The equation for is A 1 + 2 + 3 C

+ 1 + 2 + 4

B 1 + 2 2 + 3 3 D
1 + 2 + 3 3 4

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106

When a number of 2-port networks are cascaded , the individual A C matrices are added

107

chain matrices are D multiplied The realization of the reactance function =

matrices are added

h-matrices are multiplied

108

Requires a minimum of A 4 inductors and 4 B 3 inductors and 1 capacitors capacitors C 1 inductors and D 2 inductors and 2 capacitors 1 capacitors and 1 resistor In a two port network, the condition for reciprocity in terms of hparameters is A h12 = h21 B h11 = h22 A transient current in a network is = 2 , 0 The pole-zero configuration of is A poles at 1,5 B poles at -1,-5 zeros at 9 zeros at -9 C poles at 2,-1 D poles at 2,-1 zeros at -1,-5 zeros at 1,5 A step voltage is applied to an underdamped series RLC circuit with variable R. which of the following statements correctly describe the behavior of the circuit? 1. If R is increased, the transient oscillations wil die down faster 2. If R is increased, the frequency of transient oscillations across C will be reduced 3. If R is reduced, the steady state voltage across C will be reduced 4. If R is reduced to be zero, the peak amplitude of the voltage across C will be double the input step voltage. Select the correct answer A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 1,3 and 4 C h11 = -h22 D h12 = -h21

109

110

111

In the case of RC driving point functions A ZRC cannot have a pole at B ZRC cannot have a pole at infinity origin C YRC cannot have a pole at D ZRC and YRC are constant or infinity zero at infinity An initially relaxed 100 mH inductor is switched ON at t=1 sec with an ideal 2A D.C. current source. The voltage across the inductor would be A zero B 0.2 C 0.2 1 D 0.2 1

112

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113

An impulse response of an R-L circuit is A C rising exponential function B step function D decaying exponential function parabolic function

114

A second order system is given by + 12 + 100 = 0 The damped natural frequency in rad/sec is A 100 B 10 C 40 D 8

115

116

A series circuit R,L and C is excited by a step voltage input. The voltage across the capacitance exhibits oscillations. The damping coefficient (ratio) of this circuit is given by A B = = 2 C D = = 2 2 For an RC driving point impedance function, the poles and zeros A should alternate on real B should alternate only on the axis negative real axis C should alternate on the D can lie anywhere on the left imaginary axis half plane The ideal transformer cannot be described by A C h parameters g parameters B D ABCD parameters z parameters

117

118

A step function voltage is applied to an RLC series circuit having R = 2, L = 1 H and C = 1F. The transient current response of the circuit would be A overdamped B critically damped C underdamped sin

119

The Laplace transform of a function A C

B D

, the function is cos

can be any of the three

120

The poles with greater displacement from the real axis correspondence A C higher frequencies of oscillations lower frequencies of oscillations B D stable response unbounded output

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121

If a system has some poles lying on the imaginary axis, it is A C unconditionally stable unstable B D conditionally stable marginally stable

122

In a network, if the ratio of response transform to excitation transform is invariant to an interchange of their positions, then the network is said to be A linear B bilinear C bilateral D reciprocal

123

A series RLC circuit is overdamped when A

124

B 1 1 > = 4 4 C D 1 = < 4 For the Laplace transformed function = , = 0 =? A C 10 A zero B 5A D 2/3

125

If the roots of the characteristic equation moves towards the origin along the radial line connecting it with the origin. Then A damping ratio increases B damping ratio decreases C damping ratio and damping frequency of oscillations decreases D damping ratio remains unaltered and damping frequency of oscillations decreases

Page 24 of 24