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GS

1. Minimum oxygen that can be administered in analgesia machine A. 10 B. C. 20 30

Removal of all tumor with periphery intact Removal with involved soft tissue

D. 40% 2. Most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma? A. Hematogenous B. Lymphatogenous C. Optic nerve (neural) D. Trans scleral A hemophilia person going for major oral surgery. Blood unit will be given? A. 80-100 unit/12hr B. 80-100 unit/24hr C. 60-80 unit/6hr D. 60-80 unit/12hr Potential for transformation into malignancy A. Syphilitic Glossitis, Mikulicz's Disease B. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Hepatitis A C. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Syphilitic Glossitis D. Hepatitis A, Mikulicz's disease Lymph nodes most difficult to examine? A. Neck B. Axilla C. Abdomen D. Groin

10. A patient presented with a 4cm tumor in left parietal lobe for which he underwent surgery and radiotherapy .After 2 months he presented with headache and vomiting .which of the following best characterize the lesion in this patient? 1-Gd enhanced Mri 2- 99tcHMPAO Spect brain 3-digital subtraction angiography with dual source ct 4- 18- Fdg pet scan

3.

11. Test used to differentiate between chromosomal pattern of Normal cell and cancer cell? FISH comparative genomic hybridisation Pcr 12. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual

4.

disturbances and tenderness over his right temporal region. Biopsy taken from right temporal artery likely shows:(A). Acute abscess(B). Granulomatos inflammation with giant cell(C). Luminal thrombosis(D). Aneurysmal dilatation with sub

5.

acute inflammation 13. 3. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the diagnosis for A. Lymphoma B. ewing's sarcoma c. embryonal retinoblastoma 14. 4. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual disturbances and tenderness over his right tempiral region. A biopsy taken from his right temporal artery is most likely to show A. Acute organizing thrombus formation B. granulomatous inflammation with giant cells C. Luminal thrombosis D. Aneurysmal dilation with sub-intimal inflammation 15. 5. An eldery male with uncontolled hypertension and signs of renal failure. A renal biopsy reports fibrinoid necrosis of the walls n onion skinning. The diagnosis is A. Thromboangitis obliterans B. hyaline arteriosclerosis C. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis D. Arteriosclerosis obliterans 16. Q1 Riga fede disease is due to a)natal teeth b)taurodontism c)pink tooth of mummery d)??? 17. Test for diagnosis of neuromuscular blockade

6. 58) false about management of hyperkalemia. a) iv calcium is contra indicated b) loop diuretics can be used in d managemnt c) insulin n glucose enhance potassium intake into cells d) albuterol is an effective alternativ

7. Nt True about oropharyngeal pack during surgery A) gvn when pt is under ga B) prevents fluid aspiratn n contaminatn C) prevent blood aspirastions into oesophagus D) given when pt is awake 8. Which disease involves bone and intervertebral disc space radiographically: (A). Multiple myeloma (B). TB (C). Lymphoma (D). MetastaseS Composite Resection concept According to Gold and ....? Wide resection of the tumour Removal of all the involved bone only 9.

GM

18. AMPLE a)personal b)medical c)family

history

involves

all

except history history history 28. A child presented with unilateral proptosis which was compressible and increased on bending forwards. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows retro-orbital mass with enhancement with echogenic shadows. What is the most probable condition? (AIPG 2009) A B C D Orbital A V malformation. Orbital varix Orbital encephalocele Neurofibromatosis

d)last meal taken 19. Most a)BCC b)SCC c)hodgkins d)Kaposi sarcoma 20. Cooleys a)beta b)alpha c)thallesemia d)?????? 21. western blot test is for a) RNA b) DNA c) protein d)??? 22. Daily dietary allowance of iodine in a pregnant lady a) 250 mg b) 100 mg c) 150 mg d) 50 mg 23. The mesurement of Hba1c level can be used for?(a) Asymptomatic diabetic screening(b) Symptomatic diabetic screening(c) Monitering diabetic case(d) Diagnosis of diabetes anemia thallesemia is major thallesemia minor tumour common malignancy seen in AIDS

Ans. B Orbital varix Orbital varices are uncommon vascular malformations that produce intermittent proptosis, diplopia and venous hypertension, increases on bending forward, coughing, straining etc. They may be simple, consisting of a single tubular venous structure or complex when multiple varices are present. They are usually congenital. 29. carbamazepine is contraindicated in..(a)absence seizures.(b)-generalized temporal lobe epilepsy..?? 30. Vertibral disc involvment? -Tb -Multiple myeloma 31. Which vaccine should not be administered to pregnant lady???????? a) diptheria b) MMR c) hepatitis B d) rabies 32. Dermal & oral manifestation are seen most common in which type of leukemiaa.Monocytic b.Myelocytic c.Lymphocytic d.Aleukemia 33. 2) fever blister occurs due to Ans reactivation of hsv1 tonic clonic(c)medial

24. 14) Done for coronary aretery except? a) Echocardiograph b) ultrasonography c) angiography 25. 79) which is true a) JVP can be examined on both sides b) BP can b measured simultaneously with cuffs on both arms c) radial and ulnar artery should not be examined together d) carotid pulses should be palpated n both sides together 26. 86) was..true atatement about chr malig induced anemia..... a) serum ferritin reduced b) retixulocyte normal c) 27. Test to diagnose dubin johnson syndrome Bromisulphein test Alanine transferase GGT Hippuric test

PATHOLOGY
34. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is:-(A). Hyaline Fibrillary degeneration(B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis(C). Glomerulosclerosis(D). glomerulonephritis 35. Cell differentiation by surface markers a) G banding b) electrophoresis c) spectrometry

d) PCR 36. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the diagnosis for A. Lymphoma B. ewing's sarcoma c. embryonal retinoblastoma

44. 53)which of following is least likely to cause seizure in children a) ibuprofen b) lidocaine c) mannitol 45. 77) like Ach wich one is ultra short acting a) rucurorioum b) teubrocurorium c) d) Ans. A 46. 78) iv drug injection wats most important criteria.. a) vol of distribution b) age of pt c) plasma clearance 47. Cytotoxic and expired drugs should be disposed by a) autoclaving b) secure landfill after 10 years c) secure landfill d)incineration????? 48. which shory actin muscle relaxant shud be used after succinyl co a-(a)rocucurium. (b)atracurium. (c)pancurium 49. All of the following true for phenytoin except a)it causes hirsutism b)it is teratogenic c)blood plasma level required to be monitored d)has narrow therapeutic index 50. methemoglobinemia ,prliocaine is caused by procaine

PHARMA
37. An epileptic lady comes taking to phenytoin pregnancy & & phenobarbitone

contraception department . What is the best advice for her with current medication a )there will be no abnormality in the new born b )contraception is effective in both epileptic & nonepileptic women c)fits are increased during pregnancy d) stop current medication before planning pregnancy 38. Maximum dose of articaine in a healthy patient a ) 7 mg/kg b ) 4 mg/kg c) 2 mg/kg d) 1.3 mg/kg 39. Q. Patient admistered Penicillin has reaction after 2 days..he also has auto hemolytic anaemia...circulating antibodies are present...what is the type of allergic reaction? type a. I b. II c. III d. IV 40. minimal inhibitory concentrations for antibiotics in head and neck infections

41. 16) true about metformin a) excreted unchanged in urine b) contraindicated in decompensated heart failure c) decrease hepatic glucose production d) 42. 36) Factor 8 dose a) 80-100 mg every 24 hour b) 80-100 mg in 12 h c) 43. 37) not a second generation antihistamine a) cyclizine b) c)

51. Which of the following drug is not associated with seizures in children? Mannitol Brufen Ciprofloxacin Lidocaine 52. Most preferred drug in hypertensive emergency case:(A). Na nitroprusside(B). Hydralazine(C). Dopamine(D). Diazoxide(E). Nitroglycerin 53. Q) how erythromycin benefits in decreased

intestinal motility a)by incrreasing bacterial load b) by decreasing bacterial load c)??????

OMFS

54. Paraesthesia of lower lip is caused by fracture of a)body b)angle c)symphysis d)condyle 55. Transient paralysis during IAN block is caused by injection a)buccinator b)parotid c)massetor 56. Hanging Drop sign in fracture of a)maxilla b)mandible c)blow out fracture of orbit d)zygomatic 57. CSF rhinorrhoea occurs from a) Frontal sinus b) Ethmoidal sinus c) Maxillary sinus d) ???????????? 58. Not a theory of TMJ ankylosis a) condylar burst b) fusion with zygomatic arch due to increased condylar distance c) synovial fluid attracting Ca ions d) calcification around joint 59. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region the following muscles will tend to pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior belly of digastric 60. 25) Which z most commonly seen in cleft lip patient? a) post cross bite b) ant open bite 61. 69) True for lidocaine is? a) Most cardiotoxic na channel blocker b) Acts on both active and inactive Na channel 67. Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to avoid sub-acute endocarditis which regimen should be given(A). 2 mg amoxicillin 1hour before surgery(B). 2 gm amoxicillin 1hour before surgery(C). 500 gm penicillin 1 hour before surgery(D). 1 gm amoxicillin 2 hour before surgery into 64. nasal intubation contraindicated in..?? (a)maxillary fracture (b)ethmoid 65. normal dental care under feasible in ? a) Mentally retarded b) adults c) Pscycological pt d) children LA usually usually

66. To diagnose CSF rhinorrhea which of the following cannot be used as a criteria ?(A). High glucose content(B). High protein content(C). Tram line pattern(D). BETA-2 Transferrin

68. Young individual reported with fluctuant swelling infection of left lateral incisor. On clinical examination, entire left side of face is swollen and tooth is tender on percussion. The patient is unable to chew and as well as he has a fever of 102 degree. What should be the treatment plan:-(A). Incision and drainage(B). Antibiotic,heat and fluid(C). Extraction(D). Antibiotics and heat production

69. Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips first enter the blood stream at? (a) Branchiocephalic vein(b) Inferior labial vein(c) Inferior labial artery(d) Pterygoid venous plexus

70. About lidocaine all are true, except :(a) It acts on sodium channels in both active and inactive state(b) It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic(c) It is given I.V. in cardiac arrhythmias

71. patients on steroids therpy came fo extraction given- antibiotics 72. Techniques not used in cleft lip repair-VonLangenback flap technique

62. 88) facial nerve damaged in a) longitudinal fracture of petrous temple b) transverse fracture of petrous temple

63. Patient with ludwigs angina reports to emergency deptt .Treatment???(options may vary from original) a)Incision & drainage b)tracheostomy?????????? c)nasotracheal intubation???????? d)start antibiotics

73. A patient with extract ed 3rd molar complains of loss of blood clot ; pain with no fever and swelling best treated by- irrigation of socket with sedative placement and analgesic 74. orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite correction- Lefort1 osteotomy

75. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region the following muscles will tend to pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior belly of digastric

B. C.

Boric acid Iron oxide

D. Calcium carbonate in alcohol 86. To avoid fatigue to eyes, shade matching should be

PERIO
76. diameter 0.07 0.10 0.12 0.14 of bristles of soft toothbrush

done within A. 10 sec B. C. 15 sec 20 sec

D. 5 sec 87. Metallic oxides in porcelain A. Increase strength B. Improve bonding with metal C. Impart color D. All 88. Ceramic containing Lithia disilicate crystals A. IPS impress 1 B. IPS impress 2 C. Captek D. Cerestore 89. Incomplete casting in centrifuging machine is due to A. Narrow sprue diameter B. C. D. Kindly build up the other options 90. Non shrinkage type ceramic is A. Dicor B. IPS empress C.

77. Which of these is the best method to check perfusion of free flap:(A). Prick test(B). Pulse oxymetry(C). Fluroscopy Laser Doppler flowmetry(D).

78. Localised Juvenile Periodontitis caused by a) A. actinomycetumcomitans b) P. gingivalis c) P. intermedia d) Actinomyces 79. 89) change in color texture of gingiva seen in what stage of gingivitis a) stage -1, b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 80. Hiv associated gingivitis also called A.anug B.linear gingiva erythma C.ulcerative gingivitis D.,,?? 81. aggressive periodontitis associated bacteria-

D. 91. Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride varnish is due to A. Stannous trifluorophosphate B. C. Stannic trifluorophosphate Calcium trifluorostannate

Actinomycetemcomitans 82. gingival lesion in HIV termed- necrotisig ulcerative gingivitis

D. Tin hydroxyl phosphate 92. Shrink free ceramic

83. coloured

toot

Caused

by

bacteria

called-

A. Cerestore B. C. D. Kindly build up the other options

chlorodontia 84. Dose of predlisolone in desquamative gingivitis

DM
85. Which of the following is not an antiflux? A. Graphite

RADIOLOGY
93. exposure dose in IOPA for normal adults? 5 200 26 500 microsV microsV microsV microsV

102. Most radioresistant among the following: a)RBC,nerve ,muscle b)RBC,bone,nerve c)??? d)???

PROSTHO
103. Kennedys a)lingual b)lingual c)labial d)continuous clasp 104. 65) most active component of denture cleanser..? a) h2o2 b) detergent c) perborates d) alkylating agents? major connector is bar plate bar

94. Halo effect around root is seen in a) horizontal root fracture b ) widened pdl c ) acute periostitis d) acute periapical abscess 95. absorved dose for diagnosing tumor is measured in A.gray B.sievert C.qurie D.hertz

105. Dimensions of inner bow of facebow are O.45inch and o.125 inch

96. 60) best method to reduce radiation caries is aplication of a) .5%neutral sodium flouride gel b) 1%neutral sodium flouride gel c) .5% stannous flouride gel d) 1%stannous flouride gel 97. 68) with widening of mandibular canal and endosteal sclerosis..diagnosis is.? a) Chr. Sclerizng osteomyelitis b) Garres osteomyelitis? 98. 83) Onion skin appearancea) Periosteal periostitis b) hyaline degenaration c) hyperplastic arteriosclerosis 99. 113) about X rays what is True ? A) x rays do not affect all biological tissues B) For normal adult the effects are temporary and reversible C) Only primary central beam is of importance potentially hazardous? 100. Rda of iodine in pregnant ladies A.100 B.50 C.150 D.250

ORTHO
106. Increased interincisal angle is seen in:-(A). Bimaxillary protrusion(B). Class II div I(C). Class II div II(D). Mandibular retrusion

107. A child aged 5 years and 4 months is referred to orthodontist for unusually small chin. Distal step molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered & FMA DECREASED.What is the treatment of choice?(A). Wait & observe till 6 yrs age(B). Headgear(C). Twin block(D). Functional Regulator

108. 39) whats the ratio of nose length and nose width a) 70% b) 65% c) 66% d) 62.5% 109. After surgical correction of cleft palate which of the following is seen?(A). Anterior open bite(B). Anterior deep bite(C). Unilateral/Bilateral posterior cross bite(D). Rotated anteriors 110. maximum amount of neural growth is completed by a) 6-7 years b) 10-12 years c) 18 years d) 13-16 years 111. Tone of upper lip in mouth breathers is

101. Medical linear accelerator produces Photon n electron Photon n neutron Photon n proton Electron n proton

a ) Inceased b) Decreased c) Unaffected d) Lip becomes hypertrophic 112. 2) Adams is made up of which wire ?? a. 22 b. 23 c. 24 d. 25 113. 18) Skeletal clasificatn A) Kartz B) salzman C) angle

c)4 d)5 123. Calcification of permanent teeth starts a) at birth b) at 1 year c) at 5 years d) in utero 124. Tonicity Upper lip in Mouth breather -increased -decreased -not affected slightly affected

ANATOMY
114. Baker's anchorage is also known as(A). Intraoral anchorage(D). 125. Muscle responsible for opening of mandible a) b) c) 115. A 14 year old boy with Class II Div I malocclusion. Which model analysis method is used to decide, whether to do extraction or not?(A). Boltons(B). Peck and peck(C). Ashley Howes(D). Ponts 116. 75) most steble procidure for orthodontic corection a) le fort 1 b) segital split ostiotomy c) invart L otiotomy 117. 84) a) inter class incisal 2 angle incres div in 2 d) buccinators 126. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to infection of a) b) c) pterygoid submental maxillary plexus space space lateral medial pterygoid pterygoid temporalis Intramaxillary anchorage(C). anchorage(B). Extraoral

Intermaxillary anchorage

d) submandibular space 127. Lymphatic drainage of tongue by all except a) ventral vessal b) central vessal c) lateral vessal d) dorsal vessal 128. All are true for facial N.except a) carries parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to nasal n palatine glands b) carries a large motor root n a small sensory root c) supplies ant belly of digastric n mylohyoi

b) class 2 div 1 118. Spheno occipital synchondrosis closes at Ans 16yrs 119. In case of Orthodontically for 6 treated midline Hawley

diastemma which retainer should be used?(A). Hawley appliance months(B). appliance for 12 months(C). No need of retainer as it is self corrected(D). Lingual bonded retainer 120. Lip thickness of males is maximum at which age?(a) 21 years(b)18 years(c) 16 years(d) 25 years 121. Orthodontics problem associated with proximal caries-loss of arch length

129. 87) Not a branch of cavernous part of ICA A) oph. artery B) meningeal artery C) inf. hypophyseal artery

130. which of d following muscle spared in accessory nerve Injury a.stylopharyngeus b palatopharyngrus c d 131. Facial nerve supply all are true accept-

DADH
122. Minimum number of lobes for tooth development a)2 b)3

a. Ant belly of diagastric b. Post belly of diagastric c. Buccinator d. Stapedius 132. Which is the Dangerous area of scalp?(A). Skin(B). Connective areolar tissue 133. Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels(a) Posterior vessels(b) Central vessels- (c) Marginal vessels(d) Ventral vessels tissue(C). Aponeurosis(D). Loose

c) partial veneer preparation d) full crown preparation 140. 52) Nt seen in caoh repair for root perforation a) zone of necrosis b) zone of calcification c) proliferation zone 141. The most phisiologic media for tooth whch cn not be reimplantd immediately?? -Hbss -Vispan -Saline -Cold milk 142. which of the following is true about etching in case of flurosis affected teeth? a. etching with phosphoric acid b. etching with citric acid c. etching with HCL d. no need of etching 143. If biocompatible filling material fill in perforated root canal which histologically not seena.Zone of proliferation b.Zone of calcification c.Zone of necrosis d.Zone of stimulation 144. The most important criteria in children using irrigation solution is?(A). Volume of irrigant(B). Thickness of syringe used(C). Concentration of irrigant(D). None of above 145. wavelength of ND:YG laser is- 1.06micron

CONS & ENDO


134. A child (age=5yrs???)suffers trauma which causes lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. C I is not in occlusion & does not causes interference. Treatment? a) b) repositioning reduce the & opposite splinting tooth

c) reduce both the traumatized & opposite tooth d) no treatment required ,will reposition itself

135. The cotton applied in gluteraldehyde pulpotomy to the pulpal stumps should be kept for a)5 mins b)10 mins c)15 mins d)2 mins 136. A patient comes with history of oral injury,metallic sound on percussion of the affected tooth.Based onexamination,What would be the most likely diagnosis luxation after oral examination?(a) Lateral

PEDO
146. Overhanging margins of a stainless steel crown on a primary molar is causing pain & inflammation in gingiva because of A. Cement in excess B. C. Accumulation of plaque Irritation by crown margins

luxation(b) Subluxation(c) Concussion(d) Extrusive

137. Intracanal irrigating solution for an acute periapical abscess a) sod hypochlorite b) EDTA c) hydrogen peroxide d) saline 138. 5) second generation apex locator a) resistance b)impedence c) frequency d) conduction 139. 27) the highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with? a) classV prepratn on root surface b) inlay preparation

D. Engaging undercut 147. In a 4 year old child, primary central incisor has undergone intrusion injury. Treatment is A. Wait & watch B. Extract primary central incisor C. Will resorb on its own D. Reposition & splint 148. In Glutaraldehyde pulpotomy procedure, cotton pellet kept on pulp stem for A. 2 min B. 4 min C. 5 sec

D. 30 sec 149. When should a child be first exposed for using a tooth brush A. At eruption of the first tooth B. 1 year C. 2 years D. Primary school year 150. Localization of pain is not possible in acute pulpitis in children. Because A. Proprioceptors not present in pulp B. C. D. Kindly build up remaining options 151. Preventive resin restoration is placed on A. Cavitated pit and fissures B. C. D. Kindly build up remaining options 152. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride except A. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus B. C. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus 161. In an experiment, a scientist injected myeloid stem cells in an abalated animal. At the end of incubation period he found colonies of:-(A). Erythrocytes(B). T lymphocytes(C). Fibroblasts(D). Hematopoetic stem leptospirosis end a is is accidental host vector zoonosis host 163. herpes causing chicken pox is associated withvaricella group 154. 6) not a component of PCR a) DNA template b) dideoxynucleotide c) deoxynucleotide d) dna polymerase 155. 12) swab taken one was regarding cystic fibrosis, and mucoid colonies of organism (psedomonas nt sure) form, which indicates a) the organism has formed layer on the respiratory tract of the patient ..... b) was sumthing regarding toxin c) was resistant to bacteriocin.. 164. 9) true about conjugation in bacteria a) sex pili is used b) double strands f dna transferred c)? d)? 162. True about endemic typhus- Flea is a vector of disease cells D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions 160. 81) staining true? a) gm+ve black b) gm-ve red c) g. gormethamine silver stain fungi green d) calcaflour stainung white sumthing 158. 74) In angular cheilitis organism that can be cultured from corner of mouth ????? a) candida b) tubercular bacilli 159. 80) nocardia A diarrhoea B disseminated infection 156. 26) A nursing lady refused to take influenza vaccine. Later she developed pnuemonia after contracting flu. she died of acute pneumonia after a week.the causative agent is a) staph aureus, b) cmv, c) measles d) leiognella 157. Immunisation of 5 year old by NIS(a) Pentavalent vaccine Vitamin A(b) Booster DT(c) DT, OPV, vitamin A(d) DPT, vitamin AAns. (c) DT, OPV, vitamin A

MICRO
153. Not a) b) c) d) Man true Man Lice It is is about dead

BIOCHEM
165. NAD is reduced by following except (not sure about options) a) alpha keto-gluterate dehydrogenase b) malonyl transferase

c) transketolase d) branched chain keto acids ??????? 166. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways? A. Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2,3 DPG B. Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane D. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH Correct answer : C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane Hypoxia stimulates RBC glycolysis by promoting release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane.

C. D. 174. Neonatal teeth are A. Teeth that erupt within 30days after birth B. C. Teeth that erupt after the 120 days Teeth that erupt within 45 days

D. Teeth appearing in 180 days 175. Lesion with finger like projections on lip and index finger? A. Pemphigus B. Papilloma C. D.

OP
167. Presence of sclerotic bone in medullary cavity & periosteal new bone formation A. Chronic non-suppurative osteomyelitis B. Garre's osteomyelitis C. Acute osteomyelitis D. Osteopetrosis 168. Burning sensation of tongue is not seen in? A. Ranula B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pernicious anemia D. 169. Decalcification and fixing of bone tissue can be done by? A. Formic acid + formaline B. Nitric acid + formaline C. EDTA + formic acid D. Nitric acid + EDTA 170. Tooth within a tooth is seen in? A. Lateral incisor max B. Mandibular lateral and central incisors C. Mandibular 1st premolar D. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors 171. How to differentiate between unilateral fibrous dysplasia of jaws and facial hemi hypertrophy A. Shape of face B. Shape of palate C. Shape of tooth and supporting structures D. Distance of soft tissue landmarks from midline 172. Most common cleft lip defect is A. Isolated bilateral deformities B. Isolated left unilateral deformities C. Bilateral cleft lip with palate D. Unilateral cleft lip with palate 173. Tooth discoloration due to hyperbilirubinemia is A. Chlorodontia B.

176. Lc tumor marker A. Lymphoma B. Rhabdomyosarcoma C. D. 177. True about exfoliative cytology A. Transepithelial cell can be obtained B. Hindrance by excess keratinization C. After applying toluidine blue, wash with saline D. After applying toluidine blue, wash with water E. Just apply toluidine blue & take the scrapings with a swab 178. Gingival lesions not found in A. Herpes B. C. Recurrent aphthae Erythema Multiforme

D. Pyogenic granuloma 179. Osteosarcoma can arise from? A. Paget and Cherubism B. C. Cherubism and osteopetrosis Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and Cherubism 180. Bilateral mandibular involvement is seen in A. Cherubism B. C. D. 181. A man presents with hyperkeratotic lesion with papillary projection on lower lip & also in thumb, diagnosis is A. Papilloma B. C. D. Squamous cell carcinoma

182. Which tooth is commonly involved in twinning? A. B. C. D. 183. Diagnostic histologic feature of Langerhans cell histocytosis A. Histocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. Birbeck granules

a)first in right arm & than left arm b) in both the arms simultaneously c)only in right arm d)??????????

193. The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of muscle contraction 1-Causes opening of the calcium channels which leads to increase in calcium concentration with use of sarcomere 2-inhibit Na entry in sarcomere 3 -cause both plasma membrane and t tubules to undergoes hyperpolarization 4-is initiated by bonding of Ach.to receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum

COMMUNITY
184. Observational Study -community trials -randomized controlled trials -case control study 185. Malocclusion in a population relatd to Ans prevalance rate 186. Filter used in biological safety cabinet High efficiency particulate filter Seitz filter Berkfield filter Millipore 187. Space maintainer is an example if Health promotion Specific protection Rehabilitation Disability limitation 188. Power of a statistical test... A.ability of a test to reject null hypothesis is false B.ability of test to reject null hypothesis when alternate hypothesiis is AVAILABLE

194. Peripheral resistance is best given by(a) Mean arterial pressure as it remains constant(b) Diastolic pressure as it decreases at mid thoracic aorta(c) Systolic pressure as it increases in descending aorta(d) Pulse pressure as it relates to stroke volume and aortic compliance 195. Broca area is associated with- Word formation 196. the blood brain barrier is present in all exceptHabernacular Trigone

197. Christmas disease is caused due to deficiency of a)plasma b)plasma d)???? thromboplastin thromboplastin component antecedent globulin

c)antihaemophilic

198. Regarding ESI ACT WHICH IS CORRECT(a)

PHYSIOLOGY
189. 70) Which of the following does not affect oxygen saturation ofHb? a) skin color b) Temperature c) fetal hb d) 2,3 dpg 190. 82) enzymes faund in csf (a) GGT +ALP(b) ALP+CK-MB(c) CK+LDH(d) Deaminase and peroxidase 191. 2.which indicates obstruction of airway? Ans sternous breathing

Funeral

benefit

is

Rs.

50,000(b)

The

state

Governments share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8; the ESI Coorporations share of expenditure on medical care is 7/8 of total cost(c) Person with daily wages of Rs 70 has to contribute Rs300 towards ESI(d) Employee has to contribute 4.75% and employer contributes 8.75%

192. Ideal way of measuring B.P.