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Malaree Baraniuk

#0849952
Syntax 3I03

Problem Set #4

1. Draw the trees with the correct transformations


a) I have always loved peanut butter
CP

C’

C TP
Ø
<I> T’

T VP
[+past]
DP V’

D’ V VP
have
D NP AdvP V’
Ø
N’ Adv’ V DP
love [+ed]
N Adv D’
I always
D NP
Ø
N’

AdjP N
but
ter
Adj’

Adj
peanut

b) I do not love peanut butter


CP

C’

C TP
Ø
<I> T’

T NegP
+DO
Neg’ VP

Neg DP V’
not DP
D’
V D’
D NP love
Ø D NP
N’ Ø
N’
N
I AdjP N
butter
Adj’

Adj
peanut

c) Do you like peanut butter?


CP
C’

C TP
+DO Ø
[+Q] <you> T’

T VP
Ø
DP V’

D’ V DP
like
D NP D’
Ø
N’ D NP
Ø
N N’
you
AdjP N
butter
Adj’

Adj
peanut

d) Have you always hated peanut butter?


CP

C’
C TP
<have>Ø
[+Q] <you> T’

T VP
[+ have]
DP V’

D’ V VP

have ed
D NP AdvP V’
Ø
N’ Adv’ V DP
hate [+ed]
N Adv D’
you always
D NP
Ø
N’

AdjP N
butter
Adj’

Adj
peanu
t

e) Are you always so moody?


CP

C’
<Are> C TP
[ +Q ] Ø
<you> T’

T VP
[2sing]
are DP V’

D’ V VP
be
D NP AdvP V’
Ø
N’ Adv’ AdjP V
moody
N Adv Adj’
you always
Adj
so

1. Part 1: How does the data from American English support the idea
that the auxiliary have ends up in T, but the possessive have is a
main verb, and stays downstairs? (i.e. has affix lowering applied?)
Part 2: Does the possessive verb have in this dialect undergo V-to-T
movement? How can you tell?
Part 1: V-to-T and T-to-C movement interact for a verb to be able to move to
C, but it first must be able to move to T. Only English auxiliaries can do this;
which explains why only English auxiliaries undergo sub-aux inversion. The
examples show that the auxiliary have can move from the V node to the T
node as in the example: I have had a horrible day.
If we were to treat the main verb had as an auxiliary, it wouldn’t make sense
to raise the verb because we need to lower the past tense affix. If we raised
the main verb we would get: Had I have a horrible day. This causes problems
because we know affix hopping and verb raising are in complimentary
distribution, and if we introduce these two together we get problems. This is
why the main verb needs to stay downstairs; if it doesn’t we cannot apply
affix hopping/ lowering.

Part 2: Yes, the possessive have undergoes V-to-T movement in this dialect.
This is because the [+Q] parameter is null and requires something to move to
C to give the complementizer a phonological content. Since this dialect is not
using DO Insertion we must use the possessive have to fill in the spot. If we
used DO insertion the question would be: “Do you have a pencil?” where
have remains as the main verb. Instead, the target question is “Have you a
pencil?” and therefore we must treat have as an auxiliary which raises to the
C place holder. The possessive verb is originally located as the main verb, but
it must undergo V-to-T and then T-to-C movement in order to form the
question and fulfill the [+Q] parameter requirements.

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