SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014 Complete Guide Ebook

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide

Table of Contents
PREFACE ............................................................................................................................................. 4
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC) AN INTRODUCTION .............................................. 5
LIST OF OPEN EXAMINATIONS CONDUCTED BY SSC ..................................................................... 5
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014 ....................................................................... 6
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Notification ...................................................................................... 6
Important Dates ............................................................................................................................................ 6
Names of Posts ............................................................................................................................................. 6
Educational Qualification ............................................................................................................................... 7
Age Limit ....................................................................................................................................................... 7
Scheme of Examination ................................................................................................................................. 7
How to Apply ................................................................................................................................................ 8
Application Fee ............................................................................................................................................. 8
Selection Procedure ........................................................................................................................................... 8
Examination Scheme for SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014 ............................................................... 8
PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW ..................................................................................................................... 9
Skill Test: FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANTS (Central Excise & Income Tax) .................................................. 9
Syllabus for SSC Combined Graduate Level(Tier-I)Exam 2014 ............................................................................ 10
General Intelligence & Reasoning ................................................................................................................ 10
General Awareness ..................................................................................................................................... 11
Quantitative Aptitude.................................................................................................................................. 11
English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................... 11
Syllabus for SSC Combined Graduate Level(Tier-II)Exam 2014 ........................................................................... 11
Paper-I : Quantitative Ability ....................................................................................................................... 11
Paper-II : English Language & Comprehesion ............................................................................................... 12
Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler
in RGI .......................................................................................................................................................... 12
Tips and Strategies for SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination 2014 .......................................................... 14
English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................... 14
Quantitative Aptitude.................................................................................................................................. 14
General Intelligence and Reasoning ............................................................................................................. 15
General Awareness ..................................................................................................................................... 17
Time Management Tips ............................................................................................................................... 19
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2013: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ........ 20
Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning .......................................................................................................... 20
Part B General Awareness ................................................................................................................................... 41
Part C Quantitative Aptitude ............................................................................................................................... 52
Part D English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................. 67


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Answers).......................................................................................... 79
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Explanations) ................................................................................... 81
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2012: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ..... 118
Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning ........................................................................................................ 118
PART- B General Awareness .............................................................................................................................. 134
PART- C Quantitative Aptitude .......................................................................................................................... 145
PART- D English Comprehension ........................................................................................................................ 158
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Answers)........................................................................................ 169
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Explanations) ................................................................................. 171
FEEDBACK ..................................................................................................................................... 208


Preface
Jagranjoshs SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook is a one-stop solution for
aspirants who endeavor to leave no stone unturned to score considerably in SSC Combined Graduate
Level Exam 2014.
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide e-Book is prepared by Jagranjoshs team of
subject matter experts who worked up the best to come up with this all-inclusive preparation package
for all sections of SSC CGL Exam. This eBook is a perfect blend of all important information clubbed
together for SSC CGL Exam. The compilation of this eBook is made to help students understand the SSC
CGL exam pattern and prepare accordingly. It further includes fully solved two previous year question
papers along with tips & strategies to prepare for individual subjects.
Our SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook will let students prepare well for
SSC CGL Exam. This will help them hone time management skills.
The SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook includes:
Introduction to SSC
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Notification
Syllabus, Selection Procedure, Exam Pattern and Tips and Strategies
Fully solved Question Papers of 2013 and 2012
Jagranjoshs SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook is a one-stop solution to
help students prepare for the SSC CGL Exam. All the chapters of this eBook are reader-friendly and easy
to understand. Just prepare with it to score more.
Our team at Jagranjosh.com wishes all the very best to the aspirants of SSC Exams.
All the Best!

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Staff Selection Commission (SSC) An Introduction
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is an attached office of the Department of Personnel and
Training.
The function of SSC is to make recruitment to-
(i) Group B posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and
their Attached and Subordinate Offices and
(ii) Group C posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and
their Attached and Subordinate Offices.

SSC Conducts both Open Level and Departmental Exams for the recruitment.
LIST OF OPEN EXAMINATIONS CONDUCTED BY SSC
S.No. Name of Examination Posts to be filled
1. Combined Graduate Level Examination Assistants ,in CSS,AFHQ, MEA etc, Inspectors in Central Excise/Preventive
Officer/Income Tax, Inspector of Posts, Sub Inspector in CBI, Divl Accountants,
Auditors,UDC etc
2. Tax Assistant Examination Tax Assistant in CBDT & CBEC
3. Statistical Investigators (SSS) Grade IV
Examination
Statistical Investigators (SSS( Grade IV in Deptt. of Statistice & PI
4. Junior Engineers(Civil & Elect) Examination Junior Engineers (Civil & Elect) in CPWD/Deptt of Posts,Military Engineering Service
5. Junior Translators (CSOLS) Examination Junior Translators of CSOLS Cadre in DOL
6. Section Officer (Comml Audit) Examination Section Officer(Commercial Audit)
7. Deputy Field Officer (Cab Sectt) Examination Deputy Field Officer(Cabinet Sectt)
8.

Data Entry Operator(DEO) Examination
Data Entry Operator(DEO)
9. Sub Inspector in CPOs Examination Sub Inspector in CPOs
10. Section Officer (Audit) Examination Section Officer
(Audit)
11. Combined Matric Level Examination Steno Gr"C",
Steno Gr "D",
& LDC
12. Section Officer (Accounts) Examination Section Officer(Accounts)


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014: NOTIFICATION
Staff Selection Commission will conduct the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2013 for
the recruitment to the different posts. The Graduation from a recognized University is the
minimum Educational Qualification for the examination. The eligible candidate can apply for
the posts before 15 February 2013.
IMPORTANT DATES
Opening Date for Online Registration: 18 January 2014
Closing Date for Online Registration: 14 February 2014
Date of Examination: 27 April 2014 and 4 May 2014
NAMES OF POSTS
Assistant Central Secretariat Service
Assistant Central Vigilance Commission
Assistant Intelligence Bureau Group
Assistant Ministry of Railway Group
Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group
Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group
Assistant AFHQ Group
Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations
Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations
Inspector of Income Tax CBDT
Inspector, (Central Excise) CBEC
Inspector (Preventive Officer)
Inspector (Examiner)
Assistant Enforcement Officer: Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue
Sub Inspectors Central Bureau of Investigation
Inspector of Posts Department of Post
Divisional Accountant Offices under CAG
Statistical Investigator Gr.II M/Statistics & Prog Implementation
Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics Group B
Auditor Offices under C&AG
Auditor Offices under CGDA
Auditor Offices under CGA & others


Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under C&AG
Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under CGA & others
Upper Division Clerk Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres
Tax Assistant CBDT
Tax Assistant CBEC
Compiler Registrar General of India
Sub-Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
Compiler: Bachelors Degree from any recognized University with Economics or Statistics or
Mathematics as compulsory or Elective subject.
Statistical Investigator Grade II: Bachelors Degree with Statistics as one of the main subjects
or
Bachelors Degree with Mathematics (with Statistics as a papers studied in one year/two
years/all three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or
Bachelors Degree with Economics (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all
the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or
Bachelors Degree with Commerce (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all
the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects
All other Posts: Bachelors Degree from a recognized University or equivalent
AGE LIMIT
Age Limit for all the posts will be 18 Years to 27 Years
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
The Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:
Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -II -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -III -- Personality Test cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test
(wherever applicable)/ Document Verification & Descriptive/on-line test of qualifying
nature.


HOW TO APPLY
The candidate can apply through online and offline mode of application and registration before
15 February.
APPLICATION FEE
Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically
Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application
fee, as per extant government orders
All other candidates are required to pay Rs 100/-
SELECTION PROCEDURE
The candidates will be selected on the basis of Written Papers prescribed for different posts
and interview. After this, the merit list of candidates will be prepared by the commission.
EXAMINATION SCHEME FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014
The Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:
Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -II -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -III -- Personality Test cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test
(wherever applicable)/ Document Verification & Descriptive/on-line test of qualifying
nature.
Tier 1 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)
General Intelligence and Reasoning 50 marks
General Awareness- 50 marks
Quantitative Aptitude- 50 marks
English Comprehension- 50 marks
Total marks is 200 marks. Duration will be of two hours.
Tier 2 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)
Quantitative Abilities 200 marks (100 questions)
Duration will be 2 hours


English Language Comprehension: 200 marks
Total Marks will be 400.
The Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) will be required for the post of Assistant CSS only, and for
the same the total marks will be 700. For posts, where no interview is prescribed the total
marks will be 600.
Candidates qualifying in Tier 2 of the examination, for the computer proficiency test and
interview for the posts of Assistant in CSS, interview for the other interview posts, Data Entry
Skill Test for posts of Tax Assistant and document verification for other non interview posts, will
be subjected to a short description paper/online test of not more than one hours duration with
questions drawn from English Language and Comprehension, Quantitative Abilities and
General Awareness.
The examination will be qualifying in nature and will not be taken into account for determining
the position of the candidates in the merit order.
Students must also note that there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong
answer in Tier 1, and in Tier 2, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in paper 2 and 0.50
marks in paper 1 and paper 3 for each wrong answer.
PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW
For posts for which Interview cum Personality Test is prescribed, the Personality Test/
interview will carry a maximum of 100 marks.
NOTE-I: The Commission, at its discretion may fix different minimum qualifying marks in
interview for General and Reserved category candidates.
NOTE-II : The interview will be held at the Commissions Regional /Sub Regional Offices of the
Commission or at any other place as decided by the Commission.
NOTE-III : SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid TA as per Govt. Orders. However,
no TA is payable to any candidate for appearing in the written examination.
NOTE-IV : Canvassing in any form will disqualify the candidate.
SKILL TEST: FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANTS (CENTRAL EXCISE & INCOME TAX)
Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depression per hour on
Computer.
The Data Entry Speed Skill Test at 2000 (two thousand) key depressions for a duration of 15
(fifteen) minutes will be of qualifying nature. Computer will be provided by the Commission at
the Centre/venue notified for the purpose. Candidates shall not be allowed to bring their own
Key-board.


NOTE-I: The Skill test will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the
purpose.
NOTE-II: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the
written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be eligible to
appear in the SKILL TEST. The SKILL TEST will be held at the Commissions Regional/Sub
Regional Offices or at other Centres as may be decided by the Commission.
NOTE-III: EXEMPTION FROM SKILL TEST FOR OH CANDIDATES: OH CANDIDATES OPTING FOR
THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBDT ARE EXEMPTED FOR APPEARING IN SKILL TEST. OH
CANDIDATES OPTING FOR POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBEC ARE NOT EXEMPTED FROM SKILL
TEST. HH AND VH CANDIDATES ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR EXEMPTION FROM THE SKILL TEST.
NOTE-IV: Detailed instructions regarding Skill Test will be sent by the Regional /Sub Regional
Offices of the Commission to eligible candidates declared qualified for appearing in Skill Test.
NOTE-V: VH CANDIDATES MAY BE ALLOWED COMPENSATORY TIME OF 20 MINUTES IN DEST AT
PAR WITH TYPING TEST. ONLY THOSE VH CANDIDATES WHO OPT FOR SCRIBES IN THE WRITTEN
EXAMINATION WILL BE PROVIDED PASSAGE READER AT THE TIME OF SKILL TEST.
NOTE-VI: The Skill Test will be of qualifying nature.
SYLLABUS FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL(TIER-I)EXAM 2014
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Questions of both verbal and non-verbal type
Questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation,
problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination,
observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic
number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic
reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Fi ural Analogy,
Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series,
Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding 8 de-coding, Numerical
Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn
Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern -folding 8 un-folding, Figural Pattern
folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of
centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification,
Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-
topics, if any.


GENERAL AWARENESS
Questions in this section will be asked for testing the candidates general awareness of the
environment around him and its application to society. The several questions will specially
designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations
and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test
will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining
History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
The questions in this section will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers
and number sense of the candidate. The main scope of the test will be computation of whole
numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio 8
Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business,
Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time 8 Work, Basic algebraic identities of School
Algebra 8 Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of
centers, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles
subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle,
Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular
Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with
triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard
Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar
diagram and Pie chart.
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
The question will be asked to judge the candidates ability to understand correct English, his
basic comprehension and writing ability, etc.
SYLLABUS FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL(TIER-II)EXAM 2014
PAPER-I : QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number
sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers,
decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square
roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and
Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra &
Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres,
Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by
chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular
Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,


Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base,
Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles,
Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
PAPER-II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHESION
Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidates understanding and
knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms,
antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution,
improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect
narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage &
comprehension passage.
PAPER-III : STATISTICS FOR INVESTIGATOR GRADE-II, MINISTRY OF STATISTICS &
PROGRAMME IMPLEMENTATION & COMPILER IN RGI
Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data Primary and Secondary data,
Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions;
Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.
Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency mean median and
mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.
Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion range, quartile deviations, mean
deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis Different types of moments and their relationship;
meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.
Correlation and Regression Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression
lines; Spearmans rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression;
Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).
Probability Theory Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional
probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes theorem.
Random Variable and Probability Distributions Random variable; Probability functions;
Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial
, Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable
(discrete).
Sampling Theory Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and
non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random
sampling, stratified sampling,


multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive
sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only);
Sample size decisions.
Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator,
Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares
method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests,
Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.
Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.
Time Series Analysis - Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by
different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.
Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers,
Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of
living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.
NOTE-I : Questions in Paper-I will be of 10th standard level, Paper-II of 10+2 level and Paper-III
of graduation level.
NOTE- II: (i)The Commission will have full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks
in each of the papers in Tier II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each
category of candidates (viz. SC/ST/OBC /PH/ExS/General (UR) Only those candidates who
qualify in all the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for
being called for Interview and/or Skill Test.
(ii)There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-
I-Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of Map/Graphs/Statistical Data/
Diagrams/Figures/Geometrical problems/Pie-chart etc. However, components of other
papers will be the same as that for general candidates.
NOTE-III: Any representation to key of the examination will be scrutinized with the help of
experts, wherever necessary, and evaluation in that case will be done with modified answer
key. The decision of the Commission in this regard will be final and no further representation
will be entertained.


TIPS AND STRATEGIES FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL
EXAMINATION 2014
Jagranjosh.com is an ideal destination for the candidates where, the candidates get complete
information about all banking exam like notifications, previous year question papers, Model
Practice sets, Online test, eBooks etc. our banking team develop each and every product by
amalgamating proper ingredients after proper understanding of exam requirement. Here are
some tips and strategies related to all 4 sections of SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination
(Tier I) 2014.
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Each section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer.
Here are some tips and strategies related to English Language, which will help the students to
score well in the examination.
English Language Section is included in SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam to test your English
language ability.
The candidates should have good knowledge of rules of Grammar and its correct usage in
right perspective.
Questions from the topics like Reading Comprehensions, Sentence Arrangement, Synonyms,
Antonyms, spelling test, common error, fillers etc are being asked.
The rules of part of speech must be understood well as they are highly required to solve
grammar part.
Vocabulary of candidates should also be strong to answer synonyms and antonyms.
The candidate should give attention to the various exceptions to the grammatical rules also as
it is highly helpful in spotting Errors type questions.
They should have good reading ability for attempting questions of Reading Comprehension.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Quantitative Aptitude section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for
each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to Quantitative Aptitude, which
will help the students to score well in the examination.
Quantitative Aptitude section generally includes questions from topic like Simplification,
Approximation, Profit and Loss Percentage, Discount, Average, Data Interpretation, Time and
Work, Trigonometry, Ratio Proportion, Square Roots, Decimal and Fractions.


Knowledge of Basic Mathematics from class V to X is required for QA Section of SSC
Combined Higher Secondary Exam. In Mathematics, questions from Trigonometry,Algebra and
Geometry are asked.
The candidates should know the basic concepts applied in each chapter. Application of those
concepts with right method is the key to solving questions.
By heart learning of formulas and their application would be perfect way to solve many
questions.
Basic calculation and approximation concept should be strong as they directly drive the
candidate to right option. A small amount of time is to be devoted for learning fast calculation
methods including Vedic maths. It helps in saving time devoted for each question.
More and More Practice of Model Questions and Previous Year Questions will be very helpful
for the candidates in scoring well in the exam.
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
General Intelligence & Reasoning section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25
marks for each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to General Intelligence
& Reasoning, which will help the students to score well in the examination.
The General Intelligence and Reasoning occupies prominent position in almost all the
competitive examinations. General Intelligence and Reasoning is variously rendered as Mental
Ability, Reasoning Ability, Mental Aptitude, Analytical Skills, and Aptitude.
This questions in this section broadly classified into both verbal and non verbal type.
Topics Covered in Verbal Section
a) Analogy
b) Classification
c) Word Formation/Building
d) Ranking/Arrangement
e) Blood Relationship
f) Distance and Direction
g) Series
h) Mathematical Problem
i) Arrangement of Words in a Logical Order


j) Venn Diagram
k) Symbols and Notations
l) Trends
m) Cubes and Dices
n) Coding Decoding
o) Problem Solving
p) Statement and Conclusion
q) Syllogism
Skill Set Required for Verbal Section
Verbal Reasoning incorporates in itself the skills in language and the capacity to infer
something logically means reasoned thinking or reasoned conclusion.
The best approach to perform better in verbal reasoning is to follow instructions,
identify the root of the problem and to work with a cool and cautious mind.
Topics Covered in Non Verbal Reasoning
a) Series
b) Analogy
c) Classification/Grouping
d) Embedded Figure
e) Paper Folding and Cutting
f) Completion of Figure
g) Mirror and Water Image
Skill Set Required for Nonverbal Section
This section is a part of abstract reasoning. It is meant to test your ability to argue,
reasoning and thinking and finally arrive to valid conclusion with the help of different
figures provided in options.
Here, persons logic and thinking should be in right directions because once he/she start
thinking in wrong direction


The inherent logical procedure will help the candidates to find out the principle on
which problem figure is based
GENERAL AWARENESS
The general Awareness Section of SSC-CGL Exam(Tier-I) Question Paper is aimed at testing the
general awareness of the candidate about national and international affairs and matters that
happens in everyday life. The questions from topics like History, Culture, Geography, Science,
Economics, General Policy and Scientific Research would be asked in this section. Therefore, to
prepare for this section, a candidate has to take into consideration all these topics and should
try to ensure a fair amount of knowledge of the same.
Topics No of questions asked in 2013
Exam
History and Culture 8
Geography and Science 23
Economics 7
General Policy and Scientific
Research
3
Current General Knowledge 6
Total 50


History and Culture
For preparation of history part, the candidates are required to go through historical
events (Dates, Person involved, and places of happening, and final outcome)
Make a good notes of all the important events of pasts and try to learn them by heart
Geography and Science
The preparation of geography and science involves continuous revision of the important
concepts, facts, problems that you would have marked during book reading.
For this, the candidates should make notes for important discoveries, life processes,
Cells, Environment, Biodiversity, Ecosystem, Nutrition, Atmosphere, Climate, Soil, Land
and Resources
Thorough revision of all the topics will make the candidates more confident.
Economics
Economics is one the important section in General Awareness Section of the Question
Paper.
The candidates should have good knowledge of Basic Economy, National income and
aggregates, Demand, Supply, Foreign Exchange, Economic Development, Balance of
Payment and National and International Financial Institutions etc.
General Policy and Scientific Research
One should thoroughly learn and revise policies, programs, latest updating in economy
to score well in exam
Latest Scientific researches with the name of researchers and its main implications
should be properly prepared for CGL Tier 1 Exam.
Current General Knowledge
Prepare notes of important banking news, economy news and corporate affairs and
revise them meticulously to keep yourselves perfect in General Awareness
Keep an eye on latest happenings and read a daily newspaper to yourselves updated
with latest news.


TIME MANAGEMENT TIPS
Managing time in proper way is extremely important for the candidates who are preparing for
the upcoming SSC CGL Exam.
Before appearing in the examination, the candidates must have to review below mentioned
important tips and manage time in better way.
Reach the examination venue, 30 minutes prior of scheduled time to avoid any discomfort
Pre-Plan your travel to avoid delay
If the candidate live far from the exam venue than reach the destination before two or a day
before.
Carry valid ID proof such as Passport/PAN Card/ Driving License/Voters Card/Bank passbook
with photograph/Photo Identity Proof issued by a Gazetted Officer (on official letterhead) or
Photo Identity Proof issued by a Peoples Representative (on official letterhead)/Identity card
issued by a recognized college/University/Aadhar card with photograph/Employee ID in original
as well as a photocopy
Call letter with your recent passport size photograph
Bring all the necessary things along like ball point pen for rough work and other
documentation works.
When START signal for Test is given, do not waste your time in first reading all the questions as
is done in the School/College/University examinations.


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013:
(Complete Question Paper)
Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the
word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
1. DISTANCE
(a) DANCE
(b) STAND
(c) SANE
(d) TEASE
2. RESURRECTIONIST
(a) TOURIST
(b) NOISE
(c) SORCERER
(d) TENDER
3. COMMERCIALISM
(a) CROME
(b) LANCER
(c) MISER
(d) OSCAR
4. If DIVINE is coded as AFSFKB, then POWERFUL is coded as
(a) XLHOJVIM
(b) MLTBDCRI


(c) MLWBOCRI
(d) HLTBNCRI
5. If NOTE is written as PQVG, then TIME is written as
(a) VQOG
(b) VKOG
(c) VOKG
(d) VGKO
6. If SMART is coded as UKCPV, then WONDER is coded as
(a) YMPPRT
(b) YMPBGP
(c) YMPBFP
(d) YMBPPG
Directions (Q. Nos. 7 and 8) In the following questions, which of the following interchange of
signs would make the given equation correct?
7. 10 + 10 10 10 10 = 10
(a) + and
(b) + and
(c) + and
(d) and +
8. (8 8) + 8 32 = 64
(a) , +,
(b) ,, +
(c) +,, +
(d) +,,


9. If R Stands for, A stands for +, B stands for and C stands for , then what
is the value of the given equation? (BODMAS rule will not be applicable)
25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 =?
(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 30
(d) 27
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-15) In the following questions, select the related letter/word/ number
form the given alternatives.
10. Chisel : Sculptor :: Harrow : ?
(a) Gardener
(b) Mason
(c) Blacksmith
(d) Guard
11. Moon : Satellite :: Earth: ?
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar system
(d) Round
12. BJCI : JBIC :: CXDW : ?
(a) JCDU
(b) BCJU
(c) EVFU
(d) XCWD


13. AB : NO :: LM : ?
(a) OL
(b) KP
(c) PK
(d) YZ
14. AG : IO :: EK : ?
(a) LR
(b) MS
(c) PV
(d) SY
15. 25 : 175 :: 32 : ?
(a) 150
(b) 170
(c) 162
(d) 160
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In the following questions, select the one which is different from the
other three responses?
16.
(a) Shimla
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Ooty
(d) Agra


17.
(a) Foal
(b) Hen
(c) Lamb
(d) Leveret
18.
(a) BADC
(b) XWZY
(c) VUST
(d) NMPO
19.
(a) DCFG
(b) FEHI
(c) JILM
(d) HGJL
20.
(a) (1, 0)
(b) (2, 3)
(c) (3, 8)
(d) (4, 27)
21.
(a) (96, 24)
(b) (39, 18)
(c) (81, 54)


(d) (82, 64)
22. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words
in ascending order?
1. Accommodation
2. Perception
3. Scheme formation
4. Assimilation
5. Sensation
(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
(b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
23. Which of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following starting
from the inner layer?
1. Hydrosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Biosphere
4. Lithosphere
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27) In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series?


24. EJO, FKP, GLQ, HMR, ?
(a) ABC
(b) DEF
(c) MNO
(d) INS
25. B O C N D M E ? ?
(a) LF
(b) OP
(c) KL
(d) EF
26. 7, 2 = 59 ; 5, 3 = 28 ; 9, 1 = 810 ; 2, 1 = 13 ; 5, 4 = ?
(a) 19
(b) 9
(c) 20
(d) 239
27. 120, 440, 960, 1680, ?
(a) 2600
(b) 3240
(c) 3040
(d) 2400


Directions (Q. Nos. 28-30) In the following question, select the missing number from the given
responses.
28.
81 64 16
4 9 49
36 16 25
108 96 ?
(a) 230
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 410
29.
25 5 5
30 5 6
35 ? 5
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7


30.
24 51 67
2 4 6
5 7 5
53 211 ?
(a) 135
(b) 235
(c) 247
(d) 407
31. G is fatter than H but not as fat as M. Q is also not as fat as M. Who is the most lean
person in the group?
(a) Q
(b) H
(c) G
(d) M
32. A man walks 15 m South. Then, turning to his right he walks 15 m. Then, turning to his
left, he walks 10 m. Again turns to his left and walks 15 m. How far is he from his initial
position?
(a) 10 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 60 m


33. There are five buses M, N, O, P, Q in a row on a road. Bus M is standing at the front and
Q is standing at the back end. Bus N stands between M and O. Bus P stands between O
and Q. Which bus is in the middle of the five?
(a) M
(b) P
(c) N
(d) Q
34. If + stands for multiplication, < stands for division, stands for subtraction,
stands for addition and stands for greater than. Identify which expression is
correct?
(a) 20 4 4 + 8 < 2 26
(b) 20 8 + 15 < 5 9 8
(c) 20 < 2 + 10 4 6 100
(d) 20 < 5 + 25 10 2 96
35. One day, Nita left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and
turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers
will he have to cycle to reach her home straight?
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 25 km
36. Rajat moves from his office to the canteen straight at a distance of 12 m. Then, he
turned left and walked for 2 m. Then, he turns left again and walks straight for 12 m.
How far is he from his office?
(a) 10 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 8 m


(d) 2 m
Directions (Q. Nos. 37 and 38) In the following question, two/ four statements are given
followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Your have to decide which of
the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
37. Statements
All apples are bananas.
All bananas are sweet.
Conclusions
I. Some apples are sweet.
II. Some bananas are apples.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow
38. Statements
All metals are silver.
All silver are diamond.
Some diamonds are gold.
Some gold are marbles.
Conclusions
I. Some gold are metals.
II. All metals are diamond.
III. Some silver are marble.
IV. Some gold are silver.


(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Only conclusion IV follows
39. Which of the following cubes can be created by folding the given figure?
Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


40. Two positions of a dice are given. Which number would be at the top when bottom is 2?

(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 6
41. Identify the response figure from which the question figures pieces have been cut.
Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


42.

In the above figure, the circle stand for employed, the square stands for social worker,
the triangle stands for illiterate and the rectangle stands for truthful. Employed, truth
and illiterate social workers are indicated by which region?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
43. Find the missing number.

(a) 37
(b) 45
(c) 47
(d) 57


44.

In the above diagram, parallelogram represents women, triangle represents the sub-
inspectors of police and circle represents the graduates. Which numbered area
represents women graduate sub-inspectors of police?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 13
Directions (Q. Nos. 45 and 46) In the following questions which answer figure will complete the
pattern in the question figure?
45. Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)


(d)

46. Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


47. From the given answer Figure, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.
Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From
the given answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


49. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given pattern of numbers
when the mirror is held at MN?
Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.
The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets
as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0
to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be
represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., B can be represented by 01, 31
etc. and P can be represented by 67, 75 etc. similarly, you have to identify the set for
the word CARD.
Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4
0 A B C D E
1 D C B A E
2 B A D C E
3 D B C A E
4 C D A E B
Matrix Ii
5 6 7 8 9
5 P Q R S T
6 Q S P R T
7 P T R S Q
8 Q S P R T
9 T P S Q R
(a) 32, 00, 56, 10


(b) 40, 21, 68, 44
(c) 11, 33, 57, 22
(d) 02, 42, 77, 20


Part B General Awareness
51. Which one of the following is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc
experiment?
(a) Formation of pure spectra
(b) Formation of impure spectra
(c) Persistence of vision
(d) Principle of complementary colour
52. The dimension ML T-2 corresponds to
(a) force
(b) work done
(c) acceleration
(d) velocity
53. Who is the founder of quantum theory of radiation?
(a) Einstein
(b) Bohr
(c) Plank
(d) S N Bose
54. Fiber optics cable used in communication, works on the principle of
(a) regular reflection of light
(b) diffuse reflection of light
(c) refraction of light
(d) total internal reflection of light


55. Which was the first electronic computer constructed at the Moore School of
Engineering?
(a) EOVAC
(b) ONIVAC
(c) (c)ENIAC
(d) EDSAC
56. Which among the following standard protocols is the most widely used by the Internet?
(a) HITP
(b) TCP/lP
(c) (C) SMTP
(d) SLIP
57. The outer skin most of the crustaceans are made up of a carbohydrate. This
carbohydrate is
(a) cellulose
(b) galactose
(c) chitin
(d) starch
58. Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of
(a) atoms in all matter
(b) electrons in atoms
(c) neutrons in atoms
(d) nucleus in atoms
59. When a metal is heated in a flame, the electrons absorb energy and jump to higher
energy state. On coming back to the lower energy state, they emit light, which we can
observe in


(a) Raman spectra
(b) Absorption spectra
(c) Emission spectra
(d) Fluorescence
60. Blood pressure may be increased by the excessive secretion of
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Estradiol
(d) Estral
61. The concept of 'Green House Gases' was postulated by
(a) Joseph Furier
(b) Abdul Kalam
(c) M S Swaminathan
(d) Richael Carlson
62. 'Bhopal gas tragedy' 1984 is related to
(a) Aluminium Phosphide
(b) Methyl bromide
(c) Methyl isocyanate
(d) Carbon dioxide
63. The Particulate Matter (PM - 10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered
out during the process of
(a) Coughing
(b) Sneezing
(c) a and b


(d) Urination
64. Sarus crane is the state bird of
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Paschim Benga
65. The Tongario volcano erupted on November 21, 2012 is in
(a) Australia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Papua New Guinea
(d) New Zealand
66. The Daocheng Yading Airport is located in
(a) Thailand
(b) Philippines
(c) China
(d) Tibet
67. BCCI named the "Indian Cricketer of the year 2011-12" to honour
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) VVS Laxman
(c) Virat Kohli
(d) Yuvraj
68. 'Martyr's Day' is marked on
(a) 1 January
(b) 15 January


(c) 30 January
(d) 9 January
69. Who won the World Carrom Championship 2012?
(a) Rashmi Kumari
(b) Mirabai Chanu
(c) Nishantha Fernando
(d) Nuthaki Priyanka
70. The animal who can consume more salt among the following is
(a) Sheep
(b) Camel
(c) Donkey
(d) Dog
71. Which of the following is only domestic Airport?
(a) Dabolin Airport, Goa
(b) Srinagar Airport
(c) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar Airport
(d) None of the above
72. Tick the correct option with regards to the contribution towards GDP (Gross Domestic
Product) from Agriculture
(a) During 1950-51 (GDP 51.88%) and 2011-12 (GDP 14.01%)
(b) During 1950-51 (GDP 11.00%) and 2011-12 (GDP25%)
(c) During 1990-91 (GDP 29.53%) and 2011-12 (GDP 66.77%)
(d) During 1980-81 (GDP 35.69%) and 2011-12 (GDP 20.69%)


73. Second India-Africa Forum Summit 2011 was held in
(a) Eretrea
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Sudan
(d) Nigeria
74. Where did Aurangzeb die?
(a) Pune
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Ahmadnagar
(d) Mumbai
75. The principle of maximum social advantage is the basic principle of
(a) Micro Economics
(b) Macro Economics
(c) Fiscal Economics
(d) Environmental Economics
76. Which Five Year Plan is not correct among the following?
(a) First 1951-56
(b) Second 1956-61
(c) Third 1961-66
(d) Fourth 1966-71
77. The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is
(a) 50 db to 70 db
(b) 60 db to 80 db
(c) 65 db to 75 db


(d) 70 db to 85 db
78. An economic theory is a/an
(a) Axion
(b) Proposition
(c) Hypothesis
(d) Tested hypothesis
79. Indian Special Economic Rules amendment came in the year
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2004
(d) 2006
80. Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution, became applicable in
(a) 1950
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
81. Who gave the title of 'Sardar' to Ballabh Bhai Patel?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) Women of Bardoli
(d) Peasants of Gujrat
82. According to Marx, the source of value is
(a) Capital
(b) Land


(c) Labour
(d) None of these
83. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external
aggression or armed revolt through
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
84. The Community Development Programme was launched in the year
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1951
(d) 1953
85. What Satyagraha was held at Nagpur in 1923?
(a) Salt Satyagraha
(b) Individual Satyagraha
(c) Ryots Satyagraha
(d) Flag Satyagraha
86. Which one of the following is not a sect of Buddhism?
(a) Mahayana
(b) Hinayana
(c) Digambar
(d) Theravad


87. Who was the viceroy when Delhi became the capital of British India?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Wavell
88. Who established the Indian Civil Liberties Union in 1936?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Rajendra Prasad
89. Which of the following was established first?
(a) Banaras Hindu University
(b) University of Bombay
(c) Aligarh Muslim University
(d) University of Allahabad
90. 'Yosemite' is a
(a) River
(b) Peak
(c) Waterfall
(d) Dam
91. The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was launched in
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1977


(d) 1979
92. Where is the shore based steel plant located?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Salem
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Mangalore
93. Which two of the following are connected by the North South corridor?
(a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
(b) Mumbai and Chennai
(c) Amritsar and Kolkata
(d) Hyderabad and Bhopal
94. The pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water are called
(a) Leachates
(b) Pollutates
(c) Earthites
(d) Percolates
95. Lungs are located in the
(a) abdominal cavity
(b) pericardial cavity
(c) peritoneal cavity
(d) pleural cavity
96. Which one of the following is the ideal food for newborn babies?
(a) Water
(b) Sugar


(c) Honey
(d) Milk
97. Transcription means the synthesis of
(a) Lipids
(b) Protein
(c) DNA
(d) RNA
98. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the cells lining the
(a) Oral cavity
(b) Stomach
(c) Ileum
(d) Colon
99. Emulsification is
(a) breaking fats into small globules
(b) digestion of fats
(c) absorption of fats
(d) storage of fats
100. Taxonomy is a science that deals with
(a) Morphology
(b) Anatomy
(c) Classification
(d) Economic uses


Part C Quantitative Aptitude
101. The minimum value of (x 2) (x 9) is
(a)
11
4

(b)
49
4

(c) 0
(d)
49
4

102. If x +y + z = 6 and x
2
+ y
2
+z
2
= 20, then the value of x
3
+y
3
+z
3
3xyz is
(a) 64
(b) 70
(c) 72
(d) 76
103. The third proportional to
x
y
+
y
x
and x
2
+ y
2
is
(a) xy
(b) xy
(c) xy
3

(d) xy
4

104. In a ABC, the side BC is extended upto D. Such that CD = AC, if BAD = 109 and ACB
= 72, then the value of ABC is
(a) 35
(b) 60
(c) 40


(d) 45
105. Two circles touch each other internally. Their radii are 2 cm and 3cm. The biggest chord
of the greater circle which is outside the inner circle is of length
(a) 22cm
(b) 32cm
(c) 23cm
(d) 42cm
106. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. AB and DC are produced to meet at P. If ADC = 70 and
DAB = 60, then the PBC + PCB is
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 155
(d) 180
107. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm, in
the same plane, a pair of tangents PQ and PR are drawn to the circle. Area of
quadrilateral PQOR is
(a) 65 cm
2
(b) 60 cm
2
(c) 30 em
2

(d) 90 em
2

108. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium with ABDC and AB diameter of the circle. If CAB = 30, then
ADC is
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 150


(d) 30
109. ABC is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle B and external angle C intersect
at D. If BDC = 50, then A is
(a) 100
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 60
110. AB is the chord of a circle with centre O and DOC is a line segment originating from a
point D on the circle and intersecting AB produced at C such that BC = OD. If BCD = 20,
then AOD is equal to
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 60
111. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords of lengths 30 cm and 16 cm are drawn. If
both the chords are on the same side of the centre, then the distance between the
chords is
(a) 9 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 23 cm
(d) 11 cm
112. If sin =
1
2
cos + =
1
2
, > > 0 + is an acute angle,
then the value B is
(a)
6

(b)
12


(c)
4

(d)
2

113. The fifth term of the sequence for which t
1
= 1, t
2
= 2 and t
n+2
= t
n
+ t
n+1
is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 8
114. If (x + 7954 7956) be a square number, then the value of x is
(a) 1
(b) 16
(c) 9
(d) 4
115. A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of
C, they can finish it in 5 days. If they are paid Rs. 960 for the whole work how much
money A gets?
(a) Rs. 480
(b) Rs. 240
(c) Rs. 320
(d) Rs. 400
116. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronal takes 6 h to type 32 pages on a
computer, while Elan takes 5 h to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working
together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
(a) 7 h 30 min
(b) 8 h
(c) 8 h 15 min


(d) 8 h 25 min
117. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 h, 2 men and 8 boys can do
it in 80 h, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 h. 5 men and 12 boys can do it in
(a) 39
1
11

(b) 42
7
11

(c) 43
7
11

(d) 44 h
118. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being the right angle. Mid-points of BC and AC are
respectively B and A. The ratio of the area of the quadrilateral AA BB to the area of
ABC is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
119. A square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Semi-circles are described on each
side as a diameter. The area of the region bounded by the four semi-circles and the
circle is
(a) 1 sq unit
(b) 2 sq unit
(c) 1.5 sq unit
(d) 2.5 sq unit
120. If the perimeters of a rectangle and a square are equal and the ratio of two adjacent
sides of the rectangle is 1 : 2, then the ratio of area of the rectangle and that of the
square is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2


(c) 2 : 3
(d) 8 : 9
121. The interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 22 and the discount on the same sum for
the same time and at the same rate is Rs. 20, find the sum
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 210
(d) Rs. 212
122. A retailer purchased radio sets at the rate of Rs. 400 each from a wholesaler. He raised
the price by 30% and then allowed a discount of 8% on each set. His profit will be]
(a) 19%
(b) 78.4%
(c) 22%
(d) 19.6%
123. A reduction in the price of apples enables a person to purchase 3 apples for Rs. 1
instead of Rs. 1.25. What is the percent of reduction in price (approximately)?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 33
1
3

124. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the ratio of the amounts of A and B is
2 : 3 and that of B and C is 4 : 5. Find the amounts (in Rs.) each received, in the order A,
B, C
(a) 150, 250, 300
(b) 160, 240, 300


(c) 150, 250, 290
(d) 150, 240, 310
125. The ratio of monthly incomes of A, B is 6 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the
ration 4 : 3. If each of them saves Rs. 400 per month, find the sum of their monthly
incomes
(a) Rs. 2300
(b) Rs. 2400
(c) Rs. 2200
(d) Rs. 2500
126. A and B have together three times what B and C have, while A, B, C together have Rs. 30
more than that of A. If B has 5 times that of C, then A has
(a) Rs. 60
(b) Rs. 65
(c) Rs. 75
(d) Rs. 45
127. A cricket player after playing 10 tests scored 100 runs in the 11th test. As a result, the
average of his runs is increased by 5. The present average of runs is
(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 55
128. A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4 for Rs. 10 and an equal number more at
5 for Rs. 10. He sells the whole lot at 9 for Rs. 20. What is his loss or gain per cent?
(a) 1
19
81
%
(b) 1
19
81
%


(c) No loss or no profit
(d) Loss per cent 2%
129. 15 L of a mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 L of water is mixed in
it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be
(a) 15
(b) 16
2
3

(c) 17
(d) 18
1
2

130. A man rides at the rate of 18 km/h but stops for 6 min, to change horses at the end of
every 7th km. The time that he will take to cover a distance of 90 km is
(a) 6 h
(b) 6 h 12 min
(c) 6 h 18 min
(d) 6 h 24 min
131. A man rows down a river 15 km in 3 h with the stream and returns in 7
1
2
. The rate at
which he rows in still water is
(a) 2.5 km/h
(b) 1.5 km/h
(c) 3.5 km/h
(d) 4.5 km/h
132. There is 100% increase to an amount in 8 yr, at simple interest. Find the compound
interest of Rs. 8000 after 2 yr at the same rate of interest
(a) Rs. 2500
(b) Rs. 2000


(c) Rs. 2250
(d) Rs. 2125
133. If the number p is 5 more than q and the sum of the squares of p and q is 55, then the
product of p and q is
(a) 10
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 15
134. If +
1
2
= 4, then the value of
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 4
135. If a + b + c = 2s, then
2
+
2
+
2
+
2
2
+
2
+
2
is equal to
(a)
2
+
2
+
2

(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
136. If ( + ) = 1, then the value of
1
3

3
3
is
(a) 3
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 1


137. If
3

3
3
= 0, then the value of
9
9

9
3
3
3
is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1
138. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves along a circular path always
keeping the rope stretched and describes 88 m when it has traced out 72 at the centre
the length of the rope is =
22
7

(a) 70 m
(b) 75 m
(c) 80 m
(d) 65 m
139. Maximum value of (2sin +3 cos ) is
(a) 2
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 1
140. The value of 152(sin30 +2 cos
2
45 + 3 sin30 +4cos
2
45 + . +17 sin30 +
18cos245) is
(a) an integer but not a perfect square
(b) a rational number but not an integer
(c) a perfect square of an integer
(d) irrational


141. If 1 +sin 1 +sin 1 +sin = 1 sin 1 sin 1 sin , then each
side is equal to
(a) sin cos cos
(b) sin sin sin
(c) sin cos cos
(d) sin sin cos
142. One of the four angles of a rhombus is 60. If the length of each side of the rhombus is,
8 cm, then the length of the longer diagonal is
(a) 83
(b) 8 cm
(c) 43
(d)
8
3

143. If the arcs of square length in two circles subtend angles of 60 and 75 at their centres
the ratio of their radii is
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 3 : 5


Direction (Q. No. 144) study the above bar graph showing the production of food grains (in
million tonne).

144. What is ratio between the maximum production and the minimum production during
the given periods?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 5 : 2

0
20
40
60
80
100
120
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Column1
Column1


Directions (Q. Nos. 145-149) study the following Histogram and answer following questions.

145. The total number of students involved in the data is
(a) 33
(b) 32
(c) 43
(d) 42
146. The maximum number of students got the marks in the interval of
(a) 10-20
(b) 20-30
(c) 30-40
(d) 40-50
147. The least number of students got the marks in the interval
(a) 40-50
(b) 20-30
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
10 20 30 40 50
N
u
m
b
e
r

o
f

s
t
u
d
e
n
t
s

Marks


(c) 10-20
(d) 0-10
148. The ratio of the students obtaining marks in the first and the last interval is
(a) 5 : 4
(b) 6 : 5
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 3 : 4
149. The difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and
architects fees is
(a) Rs. 10000
(b) Rs. 9500
(c) Rs. 7200
(d) Rs. 9600
150. .

In a certain country, allocations to various sectors of the yearly budget per Rs. 1000
crore are represented by this pie-diagram. The expenditure (in Rs.) on Agriculture is
(a) 250 crore
(b) 150 crore


(c) 300 crore
(d) 200 crore


Part D English Comprehension
Directions (Q. Nos. 151 and 152) In the following questions, four words are given in each
question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
151.
(a) connivance
(b) connivance
(c) connivance
(d) conivence
152.
(a) maintennance
(b) manteinance
(c) maintenance
(d) mentenance
Directions (Q. Nos. 153-162) In the following questions, you have a passage with 10 questions.
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four
alternatives.
Passage
Cyber Bogeys
The cyber-world is ultimately ungovernable. This is alarming as well as convenient, sometimes,
convenient because alarming. Some Indian politicians use this to great advantage. When there
is an obvious failure in governance during a crisis they deflect attention from their own
incompetence towards the ungovernable. So, having failed to prevent nervous citizens from
fleeing their cities of work by assuring them of proper protection, some national leaders are
now busy trying to prove to one another and to panic-prone Indians, that a mischievous
neighbour has been using the Internet and social networking sites to spread dangerous
rumours. And the Centre's automatic reaction is to start blocking these sites and begin
elaborate and potentially endless negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook about access
to information. If this is the official idea of prompt action at a time of crisis among
communities, then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors than the nebulous
mischief-makers of the cyber-world. Wasting time gathering proof, blocking vaguely suspicious


websites, hurling accusations across the border and worrying about bilateral relations are ways
of keeping busy with inessentials because one does not quite know what to do about the
essentials of a difficult situation. Besides, only a fifth of the 245 websites blocked by the Centre
mention the people of the North- East or the violence in Assam. And if a few morphed images
and spurious texts can unsettle an entire nation, then there is something deeply wrong with the
nation and with how it is being governed. This is what its leaders should be addressing
immediately, rather than making a wrongheaded display of their powers of censorship.
It is just as absurd and part of the same syndrome, to try to ban Twitter accounts that parody
despatches from the Prime Minister's Office. To describe such forms of humour and dissent as
'misrepresenting' the PMO-as if Twitterers would take these parodies for genuine despatches
from the PMO-makes the PMO look more ridiculous than its parodists manage to. With the
precedent forsuch action set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal, this is yet another
proof that what Bengal thinks today India will think tomorrow. Using the cyber-world for flexing
the wrong muscles is essentially not funny. It might even prove to be quite dangerously
distracting.
153. According to the passage, the cyber-world is
(a) beyond the imagination of people
(b) outside the purview of common people
(e) not to be governed
(c) ungovernable
154. The author is of the opinion' that
(a) the centre should start negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook
(b) the centre should help the citizens evacuate their city
(c) the centre should not block the sites
(d) the centre should arrest the guilty
155. Which of the following is closest to the meaning of 'nebulous'?
(a) Confused
(b) Vague
(c) Iridescent
(d) Glowing


156. The author's seriousness' regarding the situation can best be described in the following
sentences. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Our leaders should display their powers of censorship when needed
(b) If this is the official idea of prompt action at a time of crisis among communities,
then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors than the nebulous mischief-
maker of the cyber-world
(c) The politicians deflect attention from their own incompetence
(d) If a few morphed images and spurious texts can unsettle an entire nation, then there
is something deeply wrong with the nation
157. The word 'spurious' means
(a) genuine
(b) authentic
(c) substantial
(d) fake
158. The author warns us against
(a) not playing false with the citizens
(b) dangers inherent in the cyber-world
(c) not using the cyber-world judiciously
(d) not protecting the citizens from dangerous politicians
159. 'Parody' means
(a) twist
(b) jeopardize
(c) ridicule
(d) imitate
160. What is the opposite of 'wrong headed'?


(a) silly
(b) sane
(c) insane
(d) insensible
161. The passage suggests different ways of keeping the public busy with 'inessentials'. Pick
the odd one out.
(a) By blocking websites which are vaguely suspicious
(b) By blaming neighbouring countries across the border
(c) By turning the attention of the people to violence in Assam
(d) By getting involved in a discourse on bilateral relations
162. The following is a list of statements made by the author of the above passage. Pick the
odd one out.
(a) It is absurd to ban Twitter accounts that parody despatches from the Prime
Minister's Office
(b) Twitterers take these parodies for genuine despatches from the PMO
(c) To describe such forms of humour as 'misrepresenting' the PMO makes the PMO
look more ridiculous
(d) The precedent for such action was set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal
Directions (Q. Nos. 163-167) In the following questions/some parts of the sentences have errors
and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose to the
appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d).
163. In India (a)/ working woman lead a life of dual responsibilities (b)/ if they are married
and have a family. (c)/ No error (d)
164. Greatly to our surprise (a)/ we find the ringleader (b)/ was lame. (c)/ No error (d)
165. They have (a)/ played a game (b)/ last week. (c)/ No error (d)
166. The teacher made the boys (a)/ to do the sum (b)/ all over again. (c)/ No error (d)


167. Many overseas students (a)/ attend colleges (b)/ in the Great Britain. (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 168-172) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be
filled with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose
the correct alternative out of the four.
168. Student-parking should be .. , students should not be charged to buy parking stickers.
(a) fined
(b) free
(c) costly
(d) cheap
169. If you have roses growing in your garden, you can make a lovely .... of flowers at home.
(a) bouqutte
(b) bucquete
(c) bouquet
(d) bouquet
170. The. of the middle school is a woman of..
(a) Principles, Principal
(b) Principals, Principal
(c) Principal, Principle
(d) Principle, Principals
171. With the changing times, most of the students have become business like they are ....
and want to take only those courses which they find rewarding ..
(a) idealistic
(b) pragmatic
(c) enthusiastic
(d) partial


172.
1. John's at ... institute studying French.
2. They're building ... school at the end of our street.
3. Do they live in ... United Kingdom or somewhere else?
(a) a, the, an
(b) an, a, the
(c) the, a, an
(d) the, an, a
Directions (Q. Nos. 173-175) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
173. Parsimony
(a) Expenditure
(b) Bankruptcy
(c) Bribery
(d) Miserliness
174. Tribulation
(a) Palpitation
(b) Suffering
(c) Weakness
(d) Stimulation
175. The Prime Minister goes on the ramparts of the Red Fort to hoist the National flag.
(a) rompway
(b) staircase
(c) parapet


(d) scaffold
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-178) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning
to the given word.
176. Lunacy
(a) Sanity
(b) Stupidity
(c) Sensibility
(d) Insanity
177. Obtuse
(a) Sharp witted
(b) Transparent
(c) Timid
(d) Blunt
178. Inadvertently
(a) Secretly
(b) Accidentally
(c) Completely
(d) Deliberately
Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
179. What egged you on to become a social worker?
(a) urged
(b) dampened
(c) hindered


(d) discouraged
180. Many politicians in India are not fit to hold a candle to Mahatma Gandhi.
(a) superior
(b) equal
(c) inferior
(d) indifferent
181. She must be paying through the nose for the face left.
(a) paying less than necessary
(b) paying too much
(c) paying the right amount
(d) paying reluctantly
182. He is putting the cart before the horse by purchasing furniture before buying a house.
(a) doing a thing in the wrong way
(b) doing a thing in the right way
(c) committing a great crime
(d) doing things meticulously
183. Casting pearls before swine
(a) speaking nice words and convincing them
(b) offering good things to undeserving people
(c) uplifting the needy for their welfare
(d) doing worthwhile things to unknown people
Directions (Q. Nos. 184-193) In the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is
underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined sentence/part of the sentence at (a),
(b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, your answer is (d).


184. It became clear that the strangers were heading into a serious disaster.
(a) along
(b) towards
(c) on
(d) No improvement
185. 20 km are not a great distance in these days of fast moving vehicles.
(a) is not a great distance
(b) are not too great a distance
(c) aren't proving a great distance
(d) No improvement
186. I adapted a new method to solve the problem.
(a) I have been adopted
(b) I adopted
(c) I was adapted
(d) No improvement
187. Hoping not to be disturbed, I sat down in my easy chair to read the book, I won as a
prize.
(a) I had won as a prize
(b) I have won as prize
(c) I had to win as a prize
(d) No improvement
188. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bear the disturbances
caused by traffic.
(a) to bear upon


(b) to bear with
(c) to bear away
(d) No improvement
189. The more they earn, more they spend on luxury items.
(a) more they should spend
(b) the more they spend
(c) the more they ought to spend
(d) No improvement
190. You have come here with a view to insult me.
(a) to insulting me
(b) of insulting me
(c) for insulting me
(d) No improvement
191. A little rail-road engine was empolyed by a station yard for doing small pieces of work.
(a) was made by a station yard
(b) was used at the station yard
(c) was employed at the station yard
(d) No improvement
192. From an aesthetic point of view, the painting did not appeal to me.
(a) From the Viewpoint of aesthetics, the painting did not appeal to me.
(b) The painting had no aesthetic appeal to me
(c) From an aesthetic point of view, the painting had a little appeal to me
(d) No improvement


193. The child tossed in bed burning with fever.
(a) The child in bed, burning with fever tossed
(b) The child burning with fever, tossed in bed
(c) The child burning in bed tossed with fever
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 194-200) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
194. An apartment building in which each apartment is owned separately by the people living
in it, but also containing shared areas.
(a) Condominium
(b) Multiplex
(c) Duplex
(d) Caravan
195. A group of three powerful people.
(a) Trio
(b) Tritium
(c) Trivet
(d) Triumvirate
196. Operation of the body after death.
(a) Post-mortem
(b) Obituary
(c) Homage
(d) Mortuary


197. Not allowing the passage of light.
(a) Oblique
(b) Opaque
(c) Optique
(d) Opulant
198. Science regarding principles of classification.
(a) Taxidermy
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Toxicology
(d) Classicology
199. A political leader appealing to popular desires and prejudices.
(a) Dictator
(b) Tyrant
(c) Popularist
(d) Demagogue
200. Enclosed in a small closed space.
(a) Closophobia
(b) Clusterophobia
(c) Claustrophobia
(d) Liftophobia


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Answers)
1 d 51 c 101 d 151 c
2 d 52 a 102 c 152 c
3 b 53 c 103 a 153 d
4 (*) 54 d 104 a 154 a
5 b 55 c 105 d 155 b
6 b 56 b 106 a 156 a
7 c 57 c 107 b 157 d
8 d 58 d 108 b 158 c
9 c 59 c 109 a 159 c
10 a 60 c 110 d 160 b
11 b 61 a 111 b 161 c
12 d 62 c 112 b 162 b
13 d 63 c 113 d 163 b
14 b 64 b 114 a 164 b
15 d 65 d 115 d 165 a
16 b 66 c 116 c 166 b
17 d 67 c 117 c 167 c
18 c 68 c 118 c 168 b
19 d 69 (*) 119 b 169 d
20 d 70 b 120 d 170 c
21 a 71 d 121 a 171 b
22 d 72 a 122 d 172 c
23 a 73 b 123 a 173 d
24 d 74 c 124 b 174 b
25 a 75 b 125 c 175 c
26 a 76 d 126 b 176 a
27 a 77 d 127 c 177 a
28 b 78 d 128 a 178 d
29 d 79 d 129 b 179 a
30 d 80 a 130 b 180 b
31 b 81 c 131 c 181 b
32 b 82 c 132 d 182 a
33 (*) 83 a 133 c 183 b
34 c 84 b 134 b 184 b
35 b 85 d 135 c 185 a
36 d 86 c 136 a 186 b
37 d 87 c 137 c 187 a


38 b 88 c 138 a 188 b
39 b 89 b 139 b 189 b
40 d 90 (*) 140 c 190 a
41 d 91 b 141 a 191 b
42 d 92 c 142 a 192 b
43 d 93 a 143 c 193 b
44 b 94 a 144 d 194 a
45 c 95 d 145 a 195 d
46 b 96 d 146 b 196 a
47 c 97 d 147 d 197 b
48 d 98 b 148 c 198 b
49 c 99 a 149
Wrng
ques 199 d
50 c 100 c 150 d 200 c


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Explanations)
1. (d) Due to absence of letter 'E' in the main word, the word 'TEASE' cannot be formed.
2. (d) Due to absence of letter 'D' in the main word, the word 'TENDER' cannot be formed.
3. (b) Due to absence of letter 'N' in the main word, the word 'LANCER' cannot be formed.
4. (*) Observe the following pattern:

5. (b) Observe the following pattern:


7. (c) From the Given equation => 10 + 10 + 10 10 x 10 = 10 From option (c), after
interchanging the signs
10 x 10 10 10 + 10 = 10


10 x 1 10 + 10 = 10
20 10 = 10
8. (d) From the Given equation (8 8) + 8 x 32 = 64
From option (d), after putting signs
(8 + 8) 8 x 32 = 64
16 + 8 x 32 = 64
2 x 32 = 64
9. (c) From the Given equation = 25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1
According to the question, after putting signs
25 + 37 x 2 4 1
= 62 x 2 4 1 (BODMAS Rule not applied)
= 124 4 1
= 31 1 = 30
10. (a) As, 'Sculptor' made Idol with help of 'Chisel'. Similarly, 'Gardener' plough garden with the
help of 'Harrow'.
11. (b) As, 'Moon' is a 'Satellite'. Similarly, 'Earth' is a 'Planet'.
12. (d) Observe the following pattern:




15. (d) As, 25 and 25 7 = 175
Similarly, 32 and 32 = 160
16. (d) Except 'Agra', all others are mountain places.
17. (b) Except 'Hen', all others are young one.
18. (c) Observe the following pattern:

Hence, 'VUST' is different from the other three.

Hence, 'HGJL' is different from the other three.
(a) 1 and 1
2
1 = 0
(b) 2 and 2
2
1 = 3
(c) 3 and 3
2
1 = 8
(d) 4 and 4
2
1 = 15 # 27
Hence, (4, 27) is different from the other three.
21. (a) Only in (96, 24), first number is multiple of second number.


22. (d) Words in meaningful ascending order are as follows:
Sensation Perception Assimilation Scheme formation Accomodation
(5) (2) (4) (3) (1)

23. (a) Words in meaningful order starting from the inner layer are as follows:
Lithosphere Hydrosphere Biosphere Atmosphere
(4) (1) (3) (2)

24. (d)The pattern of series are as follows:

25. (a) The pattern of series are as follow:

26. (a) (a) As, 7, 2 (7 2) + (7 + 2) 59
5, 3 (5 3) + (5 + 3) 28
9, 1 (9 1) + (9 + 1) 810
and 2, 1 (2 1) + (2 + 1) 13
Similarly, 5, 4 (5 4) + (5 + 4) = 19
27. (a) The pattern of series are as follows:


28. (b) See the below table:
Col 1 Col 2 Col 3
81(9
2
) 64(8
2
) 16(4
2
)
4(2
2
) 9(3
2
) 49(7
2
)
36(6
2
) 16(4
2
) 25(5
2
)
108(926) 96(834) 140(475)
29. (d) As, 25 = 5 5 (in first row)
and 30 = 5 6 (in second row)
Similarly, 35 = 7 5 (in third row)
30. (d) As, 24 2 + 5 = 53 (in first column)
and 51 4 + 7 = 211 (in second column)
Similarly, 67 + 5 = 407 (in third column)
31. (b) As given in the question, M > G> H and M> Q
M > Q > G > H
Hence, H is the most leaned person in the group.
32. (b) Mans walking direction are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OD) = OA + AD (BC)
= (15 + 10) m
= 25 m


33. (*) Buses standing order are as follows:
M N O P Q

34. (c) Observe the below options:
(a) 20 4 4 + 8 < 2 x 26
= 20 + 4 4 x 8 2 > 26
= 24 4 x 4 > 26
= 24 16 > 26
= 8 > 26 (False)
(b) 20 x 8 + 15 < 5 9 8
= 20 > 8 x 15 5 9 + 8
= 20 > 8 x 3 9 + 8
= 20 > 24 9 + 8
= 20 > 32 9 = 20 > 23 (False)
(c) 20 < 2 + 10 4 6 x 100
= 20 2 x 10 4 + 6 > 100
= 10 x 10 4 + 6 > 100
= 106 4 > 100
= 102 > 100 (True)
(d) 20 < 5 + 25 10 2 x 96
= 20 5 x 25 10 + 2 > 96
= 4 x 25 10 + 2 > 96
= 100 10 + 2 > 96
= 102 10 > 96
= 92 > 96 (False)


35. (b) Nitss walking directions are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OD) = OC(=AB) + CD
= (5 + 10)km = 15km
36. (d) Rajats walking directions are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OC) = AB = 2m
37. (d) According to the given statements, venn-diagram is as follows:

Conclusions
I.
II.
38. (b) According to the given statements, venn-diagram is as follows:


Conclusions
I.
II.
III.
IV.
39. (b)

Opposite faces are:
A D
B F
C E
From above it can be observed that Opposite faces cannot adjacent to each other. Hence,
answer figure (b) can be created by folding the given figure.
40. (d) Number 3 appear in same face. Hence, 2 is opposite to number 6 and 5 is opposite to
number 1.
41. (d)

Hence, from the answer figure (d) question figure's pieces have been cut.
42. (d)
(d) Number 1 is common in all four figures. Hence, number 1 region represents employed,
truthful and illiterate social workers.
43. (d) As, (4
2
+ 3
2
+ 5
2
+ 2
2
) 2 = 27 (middle number)
and (5
2
+ 6
2
+ 2
2
+ 3
2
) 2 = 37 (middle number)


Similarly, (5
2
+ 2
2
+ 2
2
+ 9
2
) 2 = 114 2 =17 (middle number)
44. (b) Since Number 3 is common in all three figures. Hence, number 3 area represents women
graduate sub-inspectors of police.
45. (c) Answer figure (c) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.
46. (b) Answer figure (b) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.
47. (c)

Hence, in answer figure (c) question figure is hidden/embedded.
48. (d) answer figure (d) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in
the questo figures.
49. (c)

Hence, when the mirror is held at MN answer figure (c) is the exact mirror image of the
question figure.
50. (c)
C 11, 23, 32, 40
A 00, 13, 21, 33, 42
R 57, 68, 77, 88, 99
D 03, 10, 22, 30, 41
CARD 11, 33, 57, 22
51. (c) Persistence of vision is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc experiment.


52. (a) The dimension MLT
2
corresponds to force. Force is the product of mass of the body and
its acceleration.
53. (c) Max Plank explained the distribution of energy in the spectrum of radiations of a hot
body by his Quantum Theory of Radiation. According it, the Radiant energy is always in the
form of tiny bundles of light called quanta i.e., the energy is absorbed or emitted
discontinuously, each quantum has some definite energy. Which depends upon the frequency
of the radiations.
54. (d) An optical fiber is a flexible transparent fiber made of glass (silica) or plastic. It can
function as a wave guide or light pipe to transmit light between the two ends of the fiber. Its
transmits light along its axis by the process of total internal reflection.
55. (c) ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Computer) was the first electronic general-
purpose computer. ENIAC (1946) was designed to calculate artillery firing tables for the US
Army's Ballistic Research Laboratory. It constructed at the University of Pennsylvania's Moore
School of Electrical Engineering.
56. (b) The Internet protocol suite is the networking model and a set of communications
protocols used for the Internet and similar networks. It is commonly known as TCP/IP, because
its most important protocols the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the Internet Protocol
(IP) were the first networking protocols defined in this standard.
57. (c) Chitin is a long-chain polymer of a N-acetylglucosamine, a derivative of glucose and is
found in many places throughout the natural world. It is the main component of the cell-walls
of fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects.
58. (d) Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of nucleus is atoms. It suggests
that the entire mass of an atom is concentrated on its centre at the nucleus, the nucleus is
surrounded by electrons that more around the nucleus with a very high speed in circular paths
called orbits.
59. (c) The emission spectrum of a chemical element or chemical compound is the spectrum of
frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an atom's electrons making a
transition from a high energy state to a lower energy state.
60. (c) Blood pressure may be increased by the excessive secration of Estradiol (Sex Harmone).
61. (a) The theory that gases in the atmosphere might increase Earth's temperature was first
postulated by Joseph Fourier in 1827, a scientist who also seems to have coined the term
"Green House Gases".
62. (c) Bhopal gas tragedy, was a gas leak incident in India, considered the world's worst
industrial disaster. It occurred on the night of 2-3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide India


Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal. Madhya Pradesh, over 5 lakh people were exposed to
methyl isocynate gas and other chemicals.
63. (c) The particulate matter (PM -10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered
out during the process of coughing and sneezing.
64. (b) Sarus crane is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh.
65. (d) Mount Tongario is a compound volcano in the Taupo volcanic zone of the North Island of
New Zealand. Its Te Mari craters erupted in 2012, for the first time since 1897.
66. (c) Daocheng Yading Airport is located in Daocheng country in Graze Tibetan Autonomous
Prefecture of Sichuan Province. China.
67. (c) Virat Kohli has been named the Indian Cricketer of the year for 2011-12, picking up the
Polly Umrigar Trophy and a cheque for Rs. 5 lakh at the BCCI awards function in Mumbai on Nov
22,2012.
68. (c) 30 January is observed as Martyr's Day at the National level. The date was chosen as it
marks the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948.
69. (*) 6th World Carrom Championship 2012 held in Sri Lanka during 31 Oct. to 4th Nov. 2012
in Galadare hotel, Colombo. In this event Nishanta Fernando (Sri Lanka) won the men's single
and Rashmi Kumari (India) won the women's single trophy. The team title won by Indian team.
70. (b) The camel's physiology allows it to cope with the salt intake from its food and from
drinking salty water indeed, they need the salt and in the absence of natural source of salt,
need to be given a daily ration of as much as 45-60 grams.
71. (d)
72. (a) On the eve of planning (1950-51) agriculture generated as much as 51 % of the country's
national income. As per the 2011-12, quick estimates, agriculture and allied activities accounted
for 14.01 % of the GDP, at constant 2004-05 prices.
73. (b) The second India-Africa Forum Summit 2011 was held at Addis Ababa (Ethiopia). The
leaders discussed significant aspects of the India-Africa partnership with the objective of
enhancing and widening its ambit for mutual benefit.
74. (c) Aurangzeb died in Ahmadnagar on 20 February 1707 at the age of 88 years.
75. (b) The principle of maximum social advantage was introduced by British economist Hugh
Dalton. According to him, Public Finance is concerned with income and expenditure of public
authorities and with the adjustment of one with the other.


76. (d) In 1966, the Government of India declared the devaluation of rupee, with a view to
increase the exports of the country. So, the fourth plan was postponed and three annual plan
were implemented. Some of the economists called this period, i.e., from 1966 to 1969, Plan
Holiday.
77. (d) The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is 70 db to 85 db.
78. (d) An economic theory is a tested Hypothesis.
79. (d) Indian Special Economic Rules amendment came in the year 2006.
80. (a) Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution become applicable from 26th January,
1949.
81. (c) Women of Bardoli gave the title of 'Sardar' to Ballabh Bhai Patel during Bardoli Satyagrah
(1928).
82. (c) According to Marx's labour theory of value, human labour is the only source of net new
economic value.
83. (a) Article 352 confers power on the President to make a proclaimation of Emergency on
the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
84. (b) The community development programme was launched on a pilot basis in 1952 to
provide for a substantial increase in the country's agricultural programme and for
improvements in systems of communication in rural health and hygiene and in rural education.
85. (d) Flag Satyagraha were conducted mostnotably in the city of Nagpur in 1923 but also in
many other parts of India.
86. (c) Digambar is a sect of Jainism. They believed in the retention of the rule of nudity.
87. (c) Lord Hardinge II (1910-1916) was the viceroy, when Delhi (1911) became the capital of
British India.
88. (c) The Indian Civil Liberties Union was established by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1936.
89. (b) The University of Mumbai (Bombay) is one of the oldest and premier universities in
India. It was established in 1857 consequent upon "Woods Education Dispatch".
90. (*) Yosemite is a United States National park in the central Eastern portion of California.
Yosemite is internationally recognized for its spectacular granite cliffs, water falls, clear
streams, Gaint sequoia groves and bio-diversity.


91. (b) The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was launched on April 19,1975 from Bainkanoor
Space Centre.
92. (c) Vizagh Steel Plant, Vishakhapatnam is the only Indian shore based steel plant founded in
1971.
93. (a) North-South corridor connects Srinagar to Kanyakumari.
94. (a) Leachates are pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water.
95. (d) Lungs are located in the pleural cavity.
96. (d) Milk is an ideal food for Newborn babies.
97. (d) Transcription means the synthesis of RNA on a DNA template.
98. (b) Hydrochloric acid (HCI) is a component of Gastric acid. It is produced by cells lining the
stomach.
99. (a) Emulsification is the breakdown of large fat globules into smaller, uniformly distributed
particles. It is the first preparation of fat for chemical digestion by specific enzymes.
100. (c) Taxonomy is the academic discipline of defining groups of biological organisms on the
basis of shared characteristics and giving names to those groups.
101. (d)
2
2
2
2
( 2) ( 9)
( 9 18)
( 1 18)
121 121
11 18
4 4
11 49
2 4
11

2
49
4
49
( 2) ( 9)
4
x x
x x x
x x
x x
x
On putting x
Minimum value of x x


102. (c)
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
2
3 3 3
2 2 2
, 6
20
,
( ) 2( )
(6) 20 2( )
36 20 2( )
16 2( )
( ) 8
3
( ) ( ( )
Given x y z
x y z
According to the question
x y z x y z xy yz zx
xy yz zx
xy yz zx
xy yz zx
xy yz zx
x y z xyz
x y z x y z xy yz zx
6(20 8)
6 12 72

103. (a)
2 2
2
2
2 2
2 2
2 2
. Let the third proportional be c
x y
a
y x
b x y
b
c
a
x y
c
x y
y x
x y
x y
c
xy
c xy


104. (a) According to the question,

180 72 108

36
108
109 36 73
180 (72 73 )

ACD
AC CD
CAD CDA
ACD
BAC
ABC
180 145 35

105. (d)

2 2
2 2
4 3 1
2, '
,
3 1
9 1 8
2 2
2 2 2
4 2
OM MN ON
cm
O N radius at inner circle
In PMO
PM OP OM
PM cm
cm
PQ
cm


106. (a) According to the question,
.
180 70 110
180 60 120
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
ABC
and BCD

(180 110 ) (180 120 )
70 60 130
PBC PCB

107. (b)

2 2
2 2
,
90
,
13 5
169 25

OPQ ORP
In OQP QP OP OQ
144 12
1
12 5
2
30
2 30
60
cm
Area of OQP
sq cm
Area of PQDR
sq cm


108. (b) According to the Question,
90 ACB

In ABC,
CAB+ CBA+ ACB=180
30+90+ CBA=180
CBA=180 120=60
ABCD is a cyclic trapezium.
ADC=180 60
= 120

109. (a)

,
180 2 50 180
50 0
50
,
2 180 2 180
2 ( ) 0
2( 50) 0
100
In BDC
y x x
y x
x y
In ABC
y x A
y x A
A
A

110. (d) According to the question,


,

, 180 ( )
180 (20 20 )
180 40 140
180 140 40

OD BC
Then OB BC
BCO BOC
Then OBC BCO BOC
OBA
( )
,
180 ( )
180 (40 40 )
180 80 100
180 (
OB OA radius of circle
Then OBA OAB
AOB OBA OAB
AOD AOB BOC)
180 (100 20 )
180 120 60


111. (b)
2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
30
16
,
17 15
289 225
64 8
,
17 8
289 64 225 15
Re tan 15 8 7
CD cm
AB cm
Then OM OC CM
OM
cm
Similarly
ON OA AN
cm
quired dis ce cm

112. (b)
1
sin( )
2
sin( ) sin30
30 ...(i)
1
cos( )
2
cos( ) cos 60
30 ...(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
B=15
15

180
12
A B
A B
A B
A B
A B
A B
Value of B


113. (d)
2 1
1 2 1 1
3 1 2
1 2
2
3
3
2 1
1,

..( )
, 1, 2
1, 2 . ( ),
1 2
3
,

n n n
l
l
n n n
Given
t t t
On putting n
t t t
t t t i
Given t t
On putting t t in Eq i we get
t
t
Again
t t t
On putting
2 2 2 2 1
4 2 3
4
4
2 1
3 2 3 3 1
5 3 4
5
5
2,
2 3
5
, 3,
3 5
8
n n n
n
t t t
t t t
t
t
Similarly putting n
t t t
t t t
t t t
t
t

114. (a) From option (a),
2
2
1
1 7954 7956
1 7954 7954 2
1 7954 2 7954
1 7954 7955
x


115. (d)
1 1 1
' 1 day's work
5 12 15
12 5 4
60
1
20
1 1 1
: : : :
12 15 20
: : 5: 4: 3
960 5
' share .
12
. 400
C s
A B C
A B C
A s Rs
Rs

116. (c)
32
' 1
6
40
' 1 8
5
32
( : ) ' 1 : 8
6
32: 48
2: 3
110
110 2
44
5
6
44 8 15 min
32
Ronald s h work
Elan s h work
Ronald Elan s h work
Total pages
Type by Ronald pages
Time taken by Ronald h


117. (c)
1
(2 8 ) ' 1
80
1
(1 4 ) ' 1
160
1
(1 3 4 ) ' 1
96
1 1 1
3 ' 1
96 160 240
1
(2 3 ' ) 1
20
1 1 1
2 ' 1
120 240 240
(2 8 ) ' 1
M B s h work
M B s h work
M W B s h work
W s h work
M W s h work
M s h work
M B s h work
1
80
1 1
8 ' 1
80 240
2 1
240 120
5 12
(5 12 ) ' 1
2 240 8 120
1 1
96 80
176 11
80 96 480
480 7
(5 12 ) 43
11 11
B s h work
M B s h work
M B will finish h

118. (c) According to the question,

By theorem,
Area of AAB = Area of BA B


= Area of B A C
Hence, the required ratio = 3 : 4
119. (b) According to the question,

2
2
2
(1)
2
2
2 2
2 2
1 1
-
2 2

4
2
, 4
4 4
2
2
Area of circle sq unit
d
Side of square ABCD unit
Area of square ABCD sq unit
Area of semi circle ABN
sq unit
Hence the required area
sq unit

120. (d) Let the length of rectangle be 2x and breadth x.
Let the side of square be a.
According to the question,


2
2
2
2
2
2
4 2(2 )
4 2 3
4 6
4 2

6 3
tan 2 2
2 8
2
3 9

8
Re :
9
8: 9
a x x
a x
a x
x a x a
Area of rec gle x x x
a
a
Area of square a
a
quired ratio a

121. (a) Let the sum be x.
22
100
2200 ...( )
100
20
22 20
100
200 20
10
10 . ( ),
10 2200
2200
10
220
Re . 220
x r t
x r t i
Discount r t
Interest Discount
r t
r t
r t
On putting r t in Eq i
x
x
x
quired sum Rs

122. (d) CP of one radio = Rs. 400


400 400 30%
400 30
400
100
400 120 . 520
8%

520 (100 8)
100
520 92
. 478.40
100
(478.4 400) 100

400
78.4 100
19.6%
400
Marked price
Rs
Discount
SP of one radio after discount
Rs
Per cent profit

123. (a)
(1.25 1) 100
Per cent of reduction= 20%
1.25

124. (b)
: 2: 3
: 4: 5
: : 8:12:15
700 8
A's share= .160
35
700 12
B's share= .240
35
700 8
C's share= .300
35
A B
B C
A B C
Rs
Rs
Rs

125. (c) Let the monthly income A and B be Rs. 6x and Rs. 5x.


6 400 4
5 400 3
18 1200 20 1600
2 400
400

2
200
11
11 200
. 2200
x
x
x x
x
x
x
Total monthly income x
Rs

126. (b) According to the question,
3
30
30
3 30
. 90
5
5 30
6 30
5 5
A B B C
and A B C A
B C
A B
A B Rs
B C
C C
C
B

127. (c) Let the average of runs in 10th test was x.
Sum of 10th innings = 10x
Sum of 11th innings = 11(x + 5)
10x + 100x = 11x + 55
x = 45
Present average of runs = 45 + 5 =50


128. (a) Let the bought oranges in initial was x.
10
1 .
4
10
.
4
,
10
1 .
5
10
.
5
10 10 90
2
4 5 20
9
.
2
20
1 .
9
2
CP of orange Rs
x
CP of x oranges Rs
According to the case II
CP of orange Rs
x
CP of x oranges Rs
CP of oranges x x
Rs x
SP of orange Rs
SP of x oranges Rs
40
.
9
9 40
2 9
81 80
18 18
100

9
18
2
100 2
18 9
200 100
162 81
19
1 %
81
x
x x
Loss
x
x
x
Per cent loss
x
x
x


129.(b)
15
: 1: 4

15 1
3
5
15 3
12
:
3: (12 3)
3:15
1: 5
1 100
Re
6
Total mixture L
Alcohol Water
Quantity of alcohol in the mixture
L
Quantity of water in the mixture
L
Alcohol Water in the new mixture
quired percentage
2
16 %
3

130. (b)
18 /
6 min
, 90 7 12
7
12 .
12 12 6
72min
1 12 mi
Rate of riders km h
Time taken by riders to change horses
Because he stops every km
So he stops times
Time taken by riders in times
h n
90
1 12 min
18
5 1 12 min
6 12 min
Total time h
h h
h


131. (c)
15
' 5 /
3
15
'
15
15 2
15
2 /
1
' 5 2
2
3.5 /
Man s rate with current km h
Man s rate agamst current
km h
Man s rate of still water
km h


132. (d)
int .
,
8 2 ,
int 2
8
100
25
2 25
2
1
12 %
2
,
. 8000
25
%
2
Let the rate of simple erest be r and principal x
After yr principal x
then erest x x x
x r
x
r r
r
According to the case II
P Rs
r
2
2
2
2
1
100
25
8000 1
2 100
9
8000
8
8000 81
.10125
64
int 10125 8000
.2125
t yr
r
A P
A
Rs
Compound erest
Rs


133. (c)
2 2
2
,
5 ...( )
55 ...( )
. ( ),
( )
p q i
p q ii
Squaring both sides in Eq i we get
p q
2
2 2
(5)
2 25
55 2 2
2 30
15
p q pq
pq
pq
pq

134. (b)
2
2
2
2
2
2
1
exp , 4
2
2 ,
1
2 4 2
2
1
2 2
2
,
1
2 2 4
2
1
2 4 2
2
1
2 2
2
Given ression a
a
Subtracting from both sides
a
a
a
a
On squaring both sides
a
a
a
a
a
a


135. (c)
2 2 2
2
2 2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
2 2 2
2 2 2
2 2 2
, 2
2 2 2
4 2 ( )
4 2 2
1
Given a b c s
s a s b s c s
a b c
s a sa s b sb s c sc s
a b c
s a b c s a b c
a b c
s a b c s s
a b c
a b c
a b c

136. (a)
3 3
3 3 3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3
. ( ) 1
,
[ . ( )] (1)
[ 3 ( )] 1
1
3 ( )
1
3 ( )
, . ( ) 1
1
3 1
1
3
x y x y
On cubing both sides
x y x y
x y x y xy x y
x y xy x y
x y
xy x y x y
x y
Given x y x y
x y
x y
x y
x y


137. (c)
3 3 3
3 3 3
3 3 3 3 3
9 9 9 3 3 3 3
3 3 3
9 3 9 3 3 3
9 9 9 3 3 3
exp , 0

,
( ) ( )
3 ( )
,
3
3 0
Given ression a b c
a b c
On cubing both sides we get
a b c
a b c b c b c
On putting b c a
a b c b c a
a b c a b c

138. (a)
cov
72 88

360
88 440
72
2 440 ( )
440 440 7
2 2 22
70
Circumference erd in
m
Total circurcumference of circle
m
r m r length of repe
r
r m

139. (b)
2sin 3cos
2cos 3sin
max min 0
2cos 3sin 0
2
tan
3
Let x
dx
d
dx
for or
d


140. (c)
2 2 2
2 2
152(sin30 2cos 45 3sin30 4cos 45 ......... 17sin30 18cos 45
1 1 1 1 1
152 2 3 4 ......... 18
2 2 2 2 2
1
152 1 2 3 ......18
2
76 18 19
38 18 9
2
19 2 18 19 (19) (6)
A perf
1
ect square

141. (a)
142. (a)

3
2 8cos30 2 8 8 3
2
Length of longer diagonal

143. (c)
1 1
2
2
2
1
1
2
/
/
75
60
5
4
area
angle
radius
area angle
r
r area angle
angle
angle
r
r

144. (d) Required ratio = 100 : 40 = 5: 2
145. (a) Total number of students = 4 + 6 + 10 + 8 + 5 = 33
146. According to the Histogram,
Clearly, maximum number of students is in 20 30 interval.
147. (d) Clearly, minimum number of students is in 0 10 interval.


148. (c) Required ratio = 4: 5
149. Wrong question
150. (d) Expenditure on Agriculture = 720
Required expenditure
72 1000
.200 crore
360
Rs
151. (c) Correctly spelt connivance
152. (c) Maintenance
153. (d) Clearly mentioned in the first line.
154. (a) Clearly, mentioned in the middle of above passage.
155. (b) vague
156. (a)
157. (d) fake
158. (c)
159. (c) ridicule
160. (b) sane means free from mental disturbance.
161. (c)
162. (b)
163. (b) replace woman to women
164. (b) replace find to found is part form
165. (a) remove have
166. (b) remove to
167. (c) remove-s from students
168. (b) free


169. (d) correct word is bouquet.
170. (c) Principal and principle
171. (b) pragmatic
172. (c)
173. (d) Miserliness
174. (b) Suffering
175. (c) Parapet means-railing along the edge of a balcony.
176. (a)
177. (a) Sharp-witted where as obtuse means mentally slow person.
178. (d) Deliberately
179. (a) urged
180. (b) not fit to hold a candle means to be inferior.
181. (b) paying too much
182. (a)
183. (b)
184. (b) use towards
185. (a) 20 km is a definite value.Hence use is with definite value.
186. (b) adopted
187. (a)
188. (b) to bear with
189. (b) use the more they spend.
190. (a) use with a view to verb Ist + ing i.e., to insulting me.
191. (b)
192. (b)


193. (b)
194. (a) Condominium
195. (d) Triumvirate means a board of three officials jointly responsible for some task.
196. (a) Post-mortem
197. (b) Opaque
198. (b) taxonomy-Concerned with the Classification.
199. (d) Demagogue
200. (c) Claustrophobia


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012:
(Complete Question Paper)
Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9): In these questions select the related letters/words/numbers from the
given alternatives.
1. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?
(a) 901
(b) 1009
(c) 9889
(d) 9999
2. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?
(a) 180
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 318
3. 335 : 216 :: 987 : ?
(a) 868
(b) 867
(c) 872
(d) 888
4. BEGK: ADFJ :: PSVY : ?
(a) ROUX
(b) ORUX
(c) LQUT
(d) LOQT


5. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?
(a) GTHS
(b) GHTS
(c) GSTH
(d) TGSH
6. BDFH: SUWY:: CEGI : ?
(a) QTWZ
(b) PTVX
(c) JLNP
(d) TVXZ
7. food: man :: fuel: ?
(a) wood
(b) fire
(c) heat
(d) smoke
8. Spiritual: Belief :: Orchestral: ?
(a) Theatre
(b) Situation
(c) Music
(d) Direction
9. Latter: Former :: Hazardous: ?
(a) Risky
(b) Comfortable
(c) Safe
(d) Harmful


Directions (Q. Nos. 10-18): Find word/number/letter/number pair from alternatives.
10.
(a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL
11.
(a) BE
(b) GJ
(c) NP
(d) QR
12.
(a) 400
(b) 484
(c) 625
(d) 729
13.
(a) 1000
(b) 1725
(c) 2744
(d) 4096
14.
(a) 12 - 16
(b) 60 - 80
(c) 30 - 50
(d) 36 - 48


15.
(a) CX
(b) DW
(c) JQ
(d) LR
16.
(a) Cyclotron
(b) Basic
(c) Pascal
(d) Fortran
17.
(a) Rooster
(b) Buck
(c) Gander
(d) Peahen
18.
(a) Booklet
(b) Pamphlet
(c) Voucher
(d) Brochure
19. Which word will appear third in the dictionary?
(a) Ballium
(b) Ballistics
(c) Ballerina
(d) Ballistite
20.



Which word will appear last in the dictionary?
(a) Laugh
(b) Latch
(c) Laurels
(d) Latitude
21. Arrange the given words in a meaningful order
1. Infant
2. Adolescent
3. Child
4. Old
5. Adult
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Directions (Q. Nos. 22 and 23): Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in
the given letter series shall complete it?
22. c_ab_ca_bc_a
(a) b c a b
(b) a b c b
(c) b a c b
(d) c b a c
23. _ba_bab_babb_b
(a) b a a a
(b) a b b b
(c) b a b b


(d) a b a b
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27): Select the missing number from the given responses.
24. 500, 484, 459, ?, 374
(a) 384
(b) 432
(c) 418
(d) 423
25. MNOPWXYZRSTUBCD?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) I
(d) F
26. 60, 69, 85, ?, 146
(a) 110
(b) 117
(c) 109
(d) 120
27. 46, 50, 47, 55, 49, 61, ?
(a) 54
(b) 52
(c) 57
(d) 51
28. The average age of 25 subordinates in an office is 30 yr. If the age of Manager is added, the
average increases to 31 yr. What is the age of the Manager?
(a) 26
(b) 36


(c) 46
(d) 56
29. Class A has students twice that of class B. After adding 20 students to class A and 30
students to class B, the total number of students in both the classes is 140. What is the number
of students in class A in the beginning?
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 140
30. Find the lowest number which when divided by 8, 12, 15 and 20 leaves the remainder 2.
(a) 360
(b) 242
(c) 122
(d) 82
31. If B becomes A and P becomes 0, what will K becomes in the English alphabet?
(a) L
(b) J
(c) H
(d) N
32. The given word is followed by 4 responses, one of which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the word given 'CAMBRIDGE'. Find out the word.
(a) BRIDGE
(b) CAME
(c) BRIDE
(d) CAMP
33. IF SEASONAL is written as ESSANOLA, how can SEPARATE be written in that code?
(a) SEAPARET


(b) ESPARATE
(c) ESPAARTE
(d) ESAPARET
34. In certain code, 'RAGHA V AN' is written as 'GARV AHNA'. In that code which word will be
written as MATHAVAN?
(a) TAMVAHNA
(b) TAMV AHAN
(c) TAMHAVNA
(d) MATVAHNA
35. IF 'FRIEND' is coded as 'IULHQG' how will you code 'ENEMY'?
(a) HQHPB
(b) HQHPA
(c) HQEMY
(d) HQHPG
36. In a coded language, if the word 'EQUATION' is coded as 'GSWCVKQP', then how is the word
'DONKEY' be coded?
(a) FQPMGA
(b) YEKNOD
(c) GWCVKJ
(d) PQKUCW
37. If 38 + 15 = 66 and 29 + 36 = 99, then 82 + 44 = ?
(a) 77
(b) 88
(c) 80
(d) 94


38. IF + means +, - means x, x means + , + means -, given the value of 45 + 9 - 3 x 15 + 2.
(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 56
(d) 28
Directions (Q. Nos. 39 and 40): Select the missing number from the given responses.
39.
7 8 6
4 9 5
3 2 ?
25 70 29
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 5
40.
3 4 5
6 7 8
9 1 2
57 11 ?
(a) 42


(b) 21
(c) 11
(d) 18
41. From the given details, estimate the number of people affected by Tuberculosis in particular
locality in the year 1994.
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
? 92 113 141 176
(a) 99
(b) 85
(c) 71
(d) 78
42. A man started from a place walked towards North for 5 km then turned 90 to his right and
walked another 5 km. Then he turned 45 to his right and walked 2 km and turned as 45 to his
left. What is his direction now?
(a) South
(b) South-East
(c) East
(d) South-West
43. A boy running towards South, turns to his right and runs. Then he turns to his right and
finally turns to his left. Towards which direction is he running now?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North
Directions (Q. Nos. 44 and 45): One statement is given followed by two conclusion I and II. You
have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given
statements.


44. Statement To keep myself updated, I always listen to 9 o'clock news on radio.
Conclusions
I. The person does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news is available only on radio.
(a) Only conclusion I is implicit
(b) Only conclusion II is implicit
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit
(d) Both conclusions are implicit
45. Statement All wealthy people are happy in life.
Conclusions
I. Wealth and happiness are directly related.
II. Wealth leads to happiness in life.
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusions I nor II follow


Directions (Q. Nos. 46 and 47): Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
46. Question Figure

Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure in
hidden/embedded.
Question Figure

Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)


(d)
Direction (Q. No. 48): A piece of paper is folded and cut as show below in the question figures.
From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
48. Questions Figures

Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
49. Select the correct option that will be the mirror reflection of the problem figure.
Question Figure


Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in
two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that
of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can represented first by its
row and next by its column e.g., 'P' can be represented by 11, 32 etc. and 'K' can be represented
by 65, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SALM.
Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4
0 P A I V R
1 I P R A V
2 A R V P I
3 V I P R A
4 R V A I P


Matrix II
5 6 7 8 9
5 S L K M E
6 K M S E L
7 M E L K S
8 L K E S M
9 E S M L K
(a) 55, 20, 56, 59
(b) 79, 13, 69, 75
(c) 96, 34, 76, 89
(d) 67, 21, 85, 97


PART- B General Awareness
51. A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in
(a) income of the consumers
(b) its own price
(c) taste of the consumers
(d) expectation of the consumers
52. GNP calculation through expenditure method does not include
(a) Gross Domestic Private Investments
(b) Net Foreign Investments
(c) Depreciation Expenditures
(d) Private Consumption Expenditure
53. The Lobb-Douglas Production function Q = AL
a
k
(1-a)
is based on
(a) increasing returns to scale
(b) decreasing returns to scale
(c) constant returns to scale
(d) fluctuating returns to scale
54. Find the odd one out of the following
(a) Delhi Transport Corporation
(b) Indian Railways
(c) Kingfisher Airlines
(d) Reliance Industries Limited
55. Monetary Policy in India is laid down and executed by
(a) Union Government
(b) ASSOCHAM
(c) Reserve Bank of India


(d) FICCI
56. Which one of the following subjects is not available on the Union List?
(a) Census
(b) Banking
(c) Trade Union
(d) Foreign Loan
57. The term 'closure' in Parlimentary terminology implies
(a) the end of session of Parliament
(b) stoppage of debate on a motion
(c) end of a day's proceedings
58. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Article 14-Equality before law
(b) Article 16-Equal opportunities
(c) Article 17-Abolition of titles
(d) Article 18-Permission of military titles
59. Which of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?
(a) Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussian
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Both 'a' and 'c'
60. Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 61st


61. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vikrama Era
Saka Era
Kalachuri Era
Gupta Era
1.
2.
3.
4.
A D 248
A D 320
58 B C
A D 78
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
62. Mahavira was the
(a) 21st Tirthankara
(b) 24th Tirthankara
(c) 23rd Tirthankara
(d) 22nd Tirthankara
63. Which one among the following woman scholars challenged the invincible Yainavalkyain
debate?
(a) Ghosa
(b) Apala
(c) Maitreyi
(d) Gargi
64. Which one of the following event made the crown of England to take over the Indian
Administration?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar


(c) The Carnatic Wars
(d) The Sepoy Mutiny
65. Who built the famous Dilwara temple At Mount Abu in Rajasthan in the 13th century?
(a) Mahendrapala
(b) Mahipala
(c) Rajyapala
(d) Tejapala
66. GIS stands for
(a) Global Institute for Soils
(b) Geographical International Studies
(c) Geographical Information Systems
(d) Global Information Statistics
67. Which of the following is a Trans Himalayan river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Sutlej
(d) Ravi
68. Match the following using codes given below
List I
(Forest Type)
List II
(Regions)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tropical Evergreen
Monsoon
Temperate
Mangrove
1.
2.
3.
4.
SIwaliks
Shillong
Paschim Banga
Nilgiris


A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
69. On which river is the Nagarjunasagar Project located?
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Cauvery
(d) Tapti
70. Suez canal joins
(a) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea
(b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
(d) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
71. Drug which helps about calmness is to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness is
(a) tranquiliser
(b) diuretic
(c) analgesic
(d) antihistamine
72. A keel is absent in
(a) chicken
(b) ostrich
(c) duck
(d) peacock


73. Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by
(a) streptomyces
(b) aspergillus
(c) pencillium
(d) bacillus
74. The pigment that protect plants from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) carotenoid
(c) phycocyanin
(d) plastic
75. Glycogen, starch and cellulose are polymers of
(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) lactose
(d) maltose
76. Black death is
(a) cancer
(b) plague
(c) AIDS
(d) gonorrhea
77. Stars appear to move from East to West because the
(a) whole universe is moving from East to West
(b) Earth is revolving round the Sun
(c) Earth is rotating from East to West
(d) Earth is rotating from West to East


78. On the Moon, an astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of straw because
(a) acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less
(b) there is no atmosphere on the Moon
(c) lemonade evaporates instantaneously on the Moon
79. A particle moving with uniform speed
(a) must have uniform velocity
(b) cannot have uniform velocity
(c) may have uniform velocity
(d) will have no velocity
80. Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called
(a) radar
(b) sonar
(c) pukar
(d) None of these
81. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between
each possible node?
(a) Ring
(b) Star
(c) Tree
(d) Mesh
82. LAN stands for
(a) Local Area Nodes
(b) Large Area Network
(c) Large Area Nodes
(d) Local Area Network


83. Dry Ice is nothing but
(a) gaseous carbon dioxide
(b) washing soda
(c) solid carbon dioxide
(d) carbon monoxide
84. Which one of the following is obtained as slag in a blast furnace?
(a) Calcium Carbonate
(b) Calcium Sulphate
(c) Calcium Chloride
(d) Calcium Silicate
85. When H
2
gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure
the temperature of the gas
(a) decreases to a small extent
(b) increases
(c) does not change
(d) decreases suddenly
86. In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is
(a) dissociation
(b) reduction
(c) oxidation
(d) ionization
87. Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by
industrial affluents?
(a) Parthenium
(b) Elephant grass
(c) Water hyacinth


(d) Both 'a' and 'b'
88. In which year the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant of the former USSR had accident that
caused escape of radio nuclides into atmosphere?
(a) 1979
(b) 1980
(c) 1984
(d) 1986
89. Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of
(a) protective mechanism against their predators
(b) limiting factor of the organism
(c) adaptation of the organism to the environment
(d) countering the problem of food scarcity
90. Which one is regarded as "World heritage forest"?
(a) Nandan Kanan in Odisha
(b) Kaziranga in Asom
(c) Sundarbans in Paschim Banga
(d) Indian Botanical Garden, Shibpur in Paschim Banga
91. Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the
(a) cessation of neurological function only
(b) cessation of cardiac function only
(c) cessation of respiratory function only
(d) cessation of kidney function only
92. There is no life on Moon because it has no
(a) nitrogen
(b) sulphur
(c) oxygen


(d) water
93. Losoong is a festival celebrated in
(a) Tibet
(b) Arunchal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Kerala
94. The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is
(a) foodgrains
(b) crude petroleum
(c) fertilizers
(d) iron and steel
95. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel Prizes?
(a) Physics and Chemistry
(b) Chemistry and Medicine
(c) Physics and Medicine
(d) Chemistry and Peace
96. Michail Phelps won . gold medals in swimming events in the Beijing Olympics.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
97. Spot the odd one from the following
(a) Tarapur
(b) Trombay
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) Narora


98. Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles
in ATP tour history?
(a) Leander Paes
(b) Andy Roddick
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Roger Federer
99. As per the 2011 census, the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala
100. Which among the following is termed 'Hot Money'
(a) FII
(b) FDI
(c) ADR
(d) GDR


PART- C Quantitative Aptitude
101. The nest term of the series 1, 5, 12, 24, 43 is
(a) 51
(b) 62
(c) 71
(d) 78
102. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is
(a) 3780
(b) 3783
(c) 2520
(d) 2522
103. The simplest value of
1 1 1 1
+ + + is
2+ 3 3+ 4 4+ 5 5+ 6

(a) 3( 2-1)
(b) 2( 3-1)
(c) 3-1
(d) 2-1
104. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes
1
4
of the capital for 15 month and B
received
2
3
of the profit. Find for how long Bs money was used.
(a) 6 month
(b) 8 month
(c) 10 month
(d) 12 month


105. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than thrice of the number. Then, the number
is
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 19
106. Two men A and B are started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took
60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job if they start
working together?
(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c)
1
22
2
days
(d) 25 days
107. A rectangular garden is 100 m x 80m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it.
Width of the path is 10 m. The area of the path is
(a) 1900 sq m
(b) 2400 sq m
(c) 3660 sq m
(d) 4000 sq m
108. A dealer offered a machine for sale for Rs. 27500 but even if he had charged 10% less, he
would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is
(a) Rs. 22000
(b) Rs. 24250
(c) Rs. 22500
(d) Rs. 22275
109. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages
in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is


(a) increased-in the ratio 56 : 69
(b) decreased in the ratio 56 : 45
(c) increased in the ratio 13 : 17
(d) decreased in the ratio 17 : 13
110. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and a man aged 25
becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is
(a) 30 yr
(b) 38 yr
(c) 40 yr
(d) 42 yr
111. With average speed of 40 km/h, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an
average speed of 35 km/h, it is late by 15 min. The total journey is
(a) 30 km
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km
112. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. the number of
articles he bought by Rs. 1 is
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 30
113. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also
increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be
(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 45%


(d) 48%
114. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/h. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it. it
sends a radiowave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has
moved 500 m. The depth of the ocean is
(a)
143
2
km
(b) 12 km
(c) 6 km
(d) 8 km
115. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10000 partly from a bank at 8% per annum and remaining
from another bank at 10% per annum, He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of
loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is
(a) 2500
(b) 5200
(c) 2050
(d) 5020
116. If
2
2
1
a + = 98 (a > 0),
a
then the value of
3
3
1
a +
a
will be
(a) 535
(b) 1030
(c) 790
(d) 970
117. If x = 1 + 2 + 3, then the value of
4 3 2
(2x - 8x - 5x + 26x - 28) is
(a) 6 6
(b) 0
(c) 3 6
(d) 2 6


118. If the distance two points (0, -5) and (x, 0) is 13 unit, then x equal to
(a) 10
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 12
119. If 4x = 18y, then the value of 1
x
y
is
(a)
1
3

(b)
7
2

(c)
2
3

(d)
3
2

120. If
1
x + = 5,
x
then the value of
4
2
2
1
x +
x
x - 3x + 1
is
(a) 70
(b) 50
(c) 110
(d) 55
121. If x = 2+ 3, y = 2- 3, then the value of
2 2
3 3
x + y
x + y
is
(a)
7
38

(b)
7
40


(c)
7
19

(d)
7
26

122. If
2 2 2
a + b + c = 2(a - b - c) - 3, then the value of 2a - 3b + 4c
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
123. If
1
2x - = 6,
2x
then the value of
2
2
1
x +
16x
is
(a)
19
2

(b)
17
2

(c)
18
3

(d)
15
2

124. If
1
5a + = 5,
3a
the value of
2
2
1
9a +
25a
is
(a)
34
5

(b)
39
5

(c)
42
5

(d)
52
5


125. The area of the triangle formed by the lines 5x + 7y = 35, 4x + 3y = 12and x-axis is
(a)
160
sq units
3

(b)
150
sq units
3

(c)
140
sq units
13

(d) 10 sq units
126. In an obtuse-angle triangle ABC, A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If BOC
= 54, then BAC is
(a) 108
(b) 126
(c) 136
(d) 116
127. If the ratio of area of two similar triangles is 9 : 16, then the ratio of their corresponding
sides is
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 4 : 3
128. Let BE and CF be the two medians of a ABC and G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG
at O. Then, AO : OG is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
129. If S is the circumcentre of ABC and A = 50, then the value of BCS is
(a) 20


(b) 40
(c) 60
(d) 80
130. AC and BC are two equal chords of a circle. BA is produced to any point P and CP, wen
joined cuts the circle at T. Then,
(a) CT : TP = AB : CA
(b) CT : TP = CA : AB
(c) CT : CB = CA : CP
(d) CT : CB = CP : CA
131. PQ is a direct common tangent of two circles of radii r
1
and r
2
touching each other
externally at A. then, the value of PQ
2
is
(a) r
1
r
2

(b) 2r
1
r
2

(c) 3r
1
r
2

(d) 4r
1
r
2

132. BC is the chord of a circle with centre O. A is a point on major arc BC as shown in the above
figure. What is the value of BAC + OBC =?

(a) 120
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 180
133. Two circles with radii 5 cm and 8 cm touch each other externally at a point A. If a straight
line through the point A cut the circles at points P and Q respectively, then AP : AQ is
(a) 8 : 5


(b) 5 : 8
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 5
134. If l is the in-centre of ABC and A = 60, then the value of BIC is
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 110
135. The external bisectors of B and C of ABC meet at point P. If BAC = 80, then BPC
is
(a) 50
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 100
136. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it produces an arc of 16 cm. The angle so
formed in degree measure is (approx).
(a) 1825
(b) 1835
(c) 1820
(d) 1808
137. If x, y are positive acute angles x + y < 90 and sin (2x - 20) = cos (2y + 20), then the value
of sec (x + y) is
(a) 2
(b)
1
2

(c) 1
(d) 0


138. If 5 tan = 4, then the value of
5 sin - 3 cos
5 sin + 3 cos
is
(a)
1
7

(b)
2
7

(c)
5
7

(d)
2
5

139. The least value of (4 sec
2
+ 9 cosec
2
) is
(a) 1
(b) 19
(c) 25
(d) 7
140. If tan(x + y) tan (x y) = 1, then the value of tan
2x
3
is
(a)
1
3

(b)
2
3

(c) 3
(d) 1
141. If x = cosec sin and y = sec cos, then the value of x
2
y
2
(x
2
+ y
2
+ 3) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3


142. If
0 < < ,2y cos = x sin

2
and 2x sec y cosec = 3, then the value of x
2
+ 4y
2
is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
143. When the angle of elevation of the sun increases from 30 to 60, the shadow of a post is
diminished by 5 m. Then, the height of the post is
(a)
5 3
m
2

(b)
2 3
m
5

(c)
2
m
5 3

(d)
4
m
5 3

144. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle. What radius should be used if the track is to
change direction by 25 in a distance of 42 m?
(a) 91.64 m
(b) 90.46 m
(c) 89.64 m
(d) 93.64 m
145. If sin + sin
2
= 1, then the value of cos
12
+ 3 cos
10
+ 3 cos
8
+ cos
6
- 1 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 2


Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): Read the given information carefully and the questions given
below.
Population of five adjacent areas of a town, in the year of 2010, are represented in the
following pie-chart. The ratio of the numbers of males to that of females in these areas are
stated in the table below. The total of the population in all the five areas is 72 lakh.

Ratio of numbers of males (M) to females (F)
Areas S
1
S
2
S
3
S
4
S
5

Ratio M : F 3 : 2 4 : 1 7 : 3 2 : 3 13 : 7
146. 12 lakh is the population of the area
(a) S
1

(b) S
3

(c) S
5

(d) S
4

147. The number of males in the areas S
1
and S
4
together is
(a) 13.8 lakh
(b) 8.2 lakh
(c) 16.2 lakh
(d) 15.8 lakh
148. The ratio of number of females in the area S
2
to that in the area S
5
is
(a) 7 : 9


(b) 36 : 13
(c) 9 : 7
(d) 13 : 36
149. If in the year 2010, there was an increase of 5% population in the area S
1
and 8% increases
in population of the area S
3
compared to the previous year, then the ratio of population in the
areas S
1
and S
3
in the year 2009 was
(a) 3 : 10
(b) 27 : 10
(c) 27 : 70
(d) 10 : 3
150. The average of females population in all the five areas is lower than the female population
in each of the areas
(a) S
1
and S
2

(b) S
2
and S
5

(c) S
2
and S
4

(d) S
4
and S
5


PART- D English Comprehension
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155): In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and
some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error to the appropriate letter (a, b,
c). If there is no error, your is (d).
151. Instead of being (a)/ helpful he was (b)/ being hindrance. (c)/ No error (d)
152. Where (a)/ have I (b)/ to deposit fees? (c)/ No error (d)
153. By the time she had finished her work (a)/ I had nearly given up (b)/ all hope of arriving at
the part in time. (c)/ No error (d)
154. Some categorically suspected (a)/ having seen the (b)/ guard and thief together. (c)/ No
error (d)
155. He was (a)/ not in position to state (b)/ the speed the ship travelled. (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160): In these questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
with an appropriate words. Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.
156. I . lunch one hour ago.
(a) have had
(b) had had
(c) have
(d) had
157. He though that my car . for sale.
(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) will be
158. He tried to prevent me . doing my duty.
(a) against
(b) at


(c) with
(d) from
159. To the dismay of the student body, the class president was . berated by the principal
at the school assembly.
(a) ignominiously
(b) privately
(c) magnanimously
(d) fortuitously
160. I would apologize if I . you.
(a) am
(b) was
(c) have been
(d) were
Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165): In this questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
161. Gaol
(a) destination
(b) Garden
(c) Jail
(d) Bird
162. Loathing
(a) Warmth
(b) Affectation
(c) Hatred
(d) Affection


163. Pragmatic
(a) Intelligent
(b) Wise
(c) Religious
(d) Practical
164. Notion
(a) Thought
(b) Fact
(c) Truth
(d) Hypothesis
165. Vivacious
(a) Poisonous
(b) Energetic
(c) Tricky
(d) Slow
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170): In these questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the
given word.
166. Hasten
(a) Dash
(b) Dawdle
(c) Hurry
(d) Scurry
167. Spirited
(a) Animated
(b) Excited
(c) Lively


(d) Dull
168. Forthright
(a) Blunt
(b) Tricky
(c) Candid
(d) Plainspoken
169. Antagonism
(a) Cordiality
(b) Animosity
(c) Hostility
(d) Enmity
170. Vanity
(a) Humanity
(b) Humility
(c) Pretension
(d) Arrogance
Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175): In these questions four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentences. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
171. The project is carried over to this year, and we need to keep the ball rolling.
(a) to continue the work
(b) more information
(c) to do better
(d) new strategies
172. The host team bore the palm in the league matches.
(a) played quite well


(b) was victorious
(c) was defeated
(d) played a very boring match
173. Just keep your wig on. Everything will be alright.
(a) hold on to your wig, so it won't fall off
(b) get another hair cut
(c) calm down
(d) take off your wig
174. Parents pay through their nose for their children's education.
(a) by taking loans
(b) an extremely high price
(c) grudgingly
(d) willingly
175. Monica's habit of picking holes in every relationship-is very irksome.
(a) admiring people
(b) finding fault
(c) criticizing people
(d) arguing with people
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-180): In these questions a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are
given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentences.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your is (d).
176. His life is hanging with a thread.
(a) from
(b) by
(c) to
(d) No improvement


177. After twenty years of exile, the prisoner was in the end of his tether.
(a) on
(b) though
(c) at
(d) No improvement
178. Grandfather is often so tired that he drops of in his armchair.
(a) slides away
(b) falls out
(c) slips in
(d) No improvement
179. The court was forced to respect the profundity of the learned judge's knowledge.
(a) probity
(b) proximity
(c) prodigality
(d) No improvement
180. He has lost his nearly all many pets.
(a) all his nearly many pets
(b) his many pets nearly all of them
(c) nearly all his many pets
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185): In this questions out of the four alternatives choose the one which
can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
181. A group of three books, films etc, that have the same subject or characters
(a) Trinity
(b) Trilogy
(c) Trio


(d) Tripod
182. A study of the human race
(a) Anthropology
(b) Archaeology
(c) Ethnology
(d) Etymology
183. An expert in the area of the fine or other arts
(a) Neophyte
(b) Amateur
(c) Connoisseur
(d) Enthusiast
184. The art of preserving skin of animals, birds, fishes
(a) Topology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Seismology
(d) Taxidermy
185. Chanting of magic spells
(a) Narration
(b) Recitation
(c) Incartation
(d) Utterance
Directions (Q. Nos. 186-190): In these questions four words are given in each question, out of
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
186.
(a) Abracadebra
(b) Abracadebri


(c) Abracadabra
(d) Abrakadabra
187.
(a) Apparrel
(b) Aparell
(c) Aparel
(d) Apparel
188.
(a) Refferee
(b) Refere
(c) Referre
(d) Referee
189.
(a) Commissioner
(b) Comissioner
(c) Commissionar
(d) Comissionor
190.
(a) Etiquete
(b) Etiquette
(c) Ettiquette
(d) Ettiquete


Directions (Q. Nos. 191-200): In these questions you have two brief passages with 5 questions
in each passage.
Read the passages carefully and choose the best to each question out of the four alternatives.
Passage I
"Nobody knows my name" is the title of one of James Baldwin's celeberated books, Who knows
the name of the old man sitting amidst ruins pondering over his hubble-bubble? We do not. It
does not matter. He is there like the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps but with one
difference. The North pole, the Everest and the Alps will be there when he is not there any
more. Can we really say this? "Dust thou act to dust returneth" was not spoken of the soul. We
do not know whether the old man's soul will go marching on like John Brown's. While his body
lies mouldering in the grave or becomes ash driven by the wind or is immersed in water, such
speculation is hazardous. A soul's trip can take one to the treacherous sholas of metaphysics
where there is no "yes" or "no". "Who am I?" asked Tagore of the rising sun in the first dawn of
his life, he received no answer. "Who am I?" he asked the setting sun in the twilight of his life.
He received no answer.
We are no more on solid ground with dust which we can feel in our hands, scatter to the wind
and wet with water to turn it into mud. For this much is sure, that in the end, when life's
ceaseless labour grinds to a halt and man meets death, the brother of sleep, his body buried or
burnt, becomes dust. In the form of dust he lives, inanimate yet in contact with the animate. He
settles on files in endless government almirahs, on manuscripts written and not published on all
shelves, on faces and hands. He becomes ubiquitous all pervasive sometimes sneaking even
into hermetically scaled chambers.
191. What is the difference between the old man and the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps?
(a) He ponders over his bubble-bubble while they don't
(b) They are known to all while he is known to none
(c) They remain while he will soon become dust
(d) They are not as old as he
192. What according to the passage, happens to a person's soul after death?
(a) The soul also dies with the body
(b) The soul continues to live after the body is dead
(c) The soul certainly becomes dust after death
(d) It is dangerous to guess


193. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The rising sun told Tagore who he was
(b) The rising sun did not tell Tagore who he was
(c) The rising sun advised Tagore to ask no questions
(d) The rising sun told Tagore that he would becomes dust
194. What happens to man after he becomes dust?
(a) He disappears from the world for ever
(b) He appears in the form of man again
(c) He becomes all pervasive as dust
(d) He often sneaks into hermetically sealed chambers
195. What figure of speech is used in the expression 'the brother of sleep'?
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Oxymoron
(d) Irony
Passage II
To write well you have to be able to write clearly and logically, and you cannot do this unless
you can thin clearly and logically. If you cannot do this yet you should train yourself to do it by
taking particular problems and following them through, point by point to a solution; without
leaving anything out and without avoiding any difficulties that you meet.
At first you find clear, step-by-step thought very difficult. You may find that your mind is not
able to concentrate. Several unconnected ideas may occur together. But practice will improve
your ability to concentrate on a single idea and think about it clearly and logically. In order to
increase your vocabulary and to improve your style, you should read widely and use a good
dictionary to help you find the exact meanings and correct usages of words.
Always remember that regular and frequent practice is necessary if you want to learn to write
well. It is no good waiting until you have an inspiration before you write. Even with the most
famous writers, inspiration is rare. Someone said that writing is ninety-nine per cent hard work
and one per cent inspiration, so the sooner you get into the habit of disciplining yourself to
write, the better.


196. To write well, a person must train himself in
(a) dealing with a difficult problem
(b) not leaving anything out
(c) thinking clearly and logically
(d) following a step-by-step approach
197. Initially it is difficult to write because
(a) a good dictionary is not used
(b) ideas occur without any sequence
(c) aids to correct writing are not known
(d) exact usages of words are not known
198. According to the passage, writing style can be improved by
(a) thinking logically
(b) writing clearly
(c) undergoing training
(d) reading widely
199. Famous writers have achieved success by
(a) using their linguistic resources properly
(b) disciplining their skill
(c) following only one idea
(d) waiting for inspiration
200. All the following words mean 'exact' except
(a) precise
(b) accurate
(c) very
(d) erect


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Answers)
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. b
8. c
9. c
10. d
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. c
15. d
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. d
20. c
21. b
22. c
23. b
24. d
25. b
26. a
27. b
28. d
29. b
30. c
31. b
32. d
33. d
34. a
35. a
36. a
37. c
38. d
39. c
40. b
41. d
42. c
43. b
44. c
45. c
46. c
47. c
48. d
49. c
50. b
51. b
52. c
53. c
54. d
55. c
56. c
57. b
58. c
59. c
60. d
61. b
62. b
63. c
64. d
65. d
66. c
67. c
68. c
69. a
70. b
71. b
72. a
73. a
74. b
75. b
76. b
77. d
78. b
79. c
80. b
81. d
82. d
83. c
84. d
85. b
86. b
87. c
88. d
89. c
90. c
91. a
92. d
93. c
94. b
95. a
96. c
97. b
98. a
99. c
100. a
101. c
102. b
103. b
104. c
105. a
106. c
107. d
108. c
109. b
110. b


111. c
112. b
113. a
114. a
115. a
116. d
117. a
118. d
119. b
120. d
121. d
122. b
123. a
124. b
125. a
126. b
127. b
128. d
129. b
130. c
131. d
132. c
133. b
134. b
135. a
136. c
137. a
138. a
139. c
140. a
141. b
142. d
143. a
144. a
145. a
146. c
147. a
148. c
149. *
150. c
151. c
152. b
153. a
154. a
155. d
156. d
157. b
158. d
159. a
160. d
161. c
162. c
163. d
164. a
165. b
166. b
167. d
168. b
169. a
170. b
171. a
172. b
173. c
174. b
175. b
176. b
177. c
178. d
179. d
180. c
181. b
182. a
183. c
184. d
185. c
186. c
187. d
188. b
189. a
190. b
191. c
192. d
193. b
194. c
195. b
196. c
197. b
198. d
199. b
200. d

171 SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Explanations)
1. (d)
As 9
2
1 = 81 1 = 80
Similarly, 100
2
1 = 9999
2. (c)
As we know 5
2
= 25 and 5
3
= 125
Similarly, 6
2
= 36 and 6
3
= 216
3. (a)
As we know 335 216 =119
Similarly, 987 - ? = 119
Hence, ? = 987 119 = 868
4. (b)
As we observe,

Similarly,


5. (a)
As we observe ,

Similarly,

6. (d)
As we observe,

Similarly,

7. (b)
As Man depends on food. Similarly, fire depends on fuel.
8. (c)
Belief comes from spiritual. Similarly, music comes from orchestral.
9. (c) Observe the following:
opposite
opposite
Former Latter
Similarly, Hazardous Safe


10. (d)
Except option (d) all others are not a sequence of letters.
11. (c) Observe the following:
B (2) + E (5) 7 (odd)
G (7) + J (10) 17 (odd)
N (14) + P (16) 30 (even)
Q (17) + R (18) 35 (odd)
Hence, option (c) is odd option.
12. (d)
In option (d), As required, the sum of first and second digit is equal to third digit.
13. (b)
Except option (b), all other are cubes.
14. (c) Observe the below pattern:
12 16 60 80 36 48
43 (44)' (415) (4 20) and (49) (4 12)
Hence, option (c).
15. (d)
opposite
opposite
opposite
C X
D W
J Q

Hence, option (d).
16. (a)
Except option (a), all others a computer language.
17. (d)
Except option (d), all others are masculine.


18. (c)
Except option (c), all others presents a detail.
19. (d)
Dictionary arrangement of words
(c) (b) (d) (a)
Ballerina Ballictics Ballistite Ballium
Word of third position (d) Ballistite
20. (c) Dictionary arrangement of words
(b) (d) (c)
(a)
Latch Latitude Laugh Laurels
Last words in dictionary Laurels.
21. (b)
(1) (3) (2) (5) (4)
Infant Child Adolescent Adult Old
1, 3, 2, 5, 4
22. (c) The following is the pattern in letter series-
c b a/b a c/a c b/c b a
bacb
23. (b) The following is the pattern in letter series-
a b/a b b/a b b b/a b b b b
a b b b
24. (d)

25. (b)
MNOP/WXYZ/RSTU/BCDE
At ? position E


26. (a)

Hence, ? 110
27. (b)

Hence, ? 52
28. (d)
Let the age of manager = x years
According to question,
25 30 + x
= 31
26
x = 26 31-2530
= 806 - 750
= 56 yr

29. (b)
Let the number of student in class A in the beginning = x
So number of student in class B in the beginning =
x
2

According to the given question,


x
(x + 20) + + 30 = 140
2
3x
+ 50 = 140
2
3x
= 140 - 50
2
90 2
x = = 60
3

30. (c)
LCM of 8, 12, 15, 20 = 120
Required number = 120 + 2 = 122
31. (b) Observe the below relation-
-1 -1
-1
B A, P O
K J

32. (d)
Since the letter P is not present in the keyword and hence, the word CAMP cannot be made
from the letters of the word CAMBRIDGE.
33. (d)
As,

Similarly,

34. (a)
As,


Similarly,

35. (a)
As,

Similarly,

36. (a)
As,

Similarly,

37. (c)
38 + 15 = 66, 29 + 36 = 99


(3 + 8) (1 + 5) = 66
(2 + 9) (3 + 6) = 99
Similarly,
82 + 44 (8 +2) (4 + 4) = 10 8 = 80
38. (d)
45 + 9 3 15 2
Conversion according to question,
45 9 3 + 15 2
= 5 3 + 15 2
= 15 + 15 2
= 28
39. (c)
7 4 3 = 25
8 9 2 = 70
6 5 ? = 29
? = 30 29 = 1
40. (b)
3 + 6 9 = 57
4 + 7 1 = 11
Similarly,
5 + 8 2 = 21
41. (d)


42. (c)

From the given figure, now that boy running towards West.
43. (b)

From the given figure, now that boy running towards west
44. (c)
By the given statement, neither conclusion I nor II is implicit.
45. (c)
By the given statement, both conclusions are implicit.
46. (c)

Hence, option (c) is correct .
47. (c)


48. (d)

Hence, option (d) is correct .
49. (c)

50. (b)
By option (b),
S 79
A 13
L 69
M 75
SALM 79, 13, 69, 75
51. (b)
52. (c)
53. (c)
54. (d)
55. (c)
56. (c)


57. (b)
58. (c)
59. (c)
60. (d)
61. (b)
62. (b)
63. (c)
64. (d)
65. (d)
66. (c)
67. (c)
68. (c)
69. (a)
70. (b)
71. (b)
72. (a)
73. (a)
74. (b)
75. (b)
76. (b)
77. (d)
78. (b)
79. (c)
80. (b)
81. (d)
82. (d)


83. (c)
84. (d)
85. (b)
86. (b)
87. (c)
88. (d)
89. (c)
90. (c)
91. (a)
92. (d)
93. (c)
94. (b)
95. (a)
96. (c)
97. (b)
98. (a)
99. (c)
100. (a)
101. (c)

102. (b)
By option (b), 3783 13 = 291
and 3783 3 = 3780, which is divided by 4, 5, 6 and 7.


103. (b)
1 1 2- 3
=
2+ 3 2+ 3 2- 3
= 3- 2
similarly,
1 1
= 4- 3, = 5- 4
3+ 4 4+ 5
1
and = 6- 5
5+ 6
simplest value
= 3- 2+ 4- 3+ 5- 4+ 6- 5
= 6- 2= 2 3-1

104. (c)
3
B contributer
4
,
1 3 2 2
15 : x 1 :
4 4 3 3
5 1
2
x=10 month
Let of the capital for x month
According to question
x

105. (a)
Let the number to be x.
X + 21 = 3x - 7
2x = 21 + 7
28
X = 14
2

106. (c)


Let A and B can do a work in x days and 3x days respectively.
3x - x = 60
2x = 60
60
x = 30
2
Time taken to complete the work
30 90 1
22 days
30 90 2

107. (d)
From Figure,

Area of the path = Area of PQRS - Area of ABCD
= 120 100 - 100 80
=100 40 = 4000 sq m

108. (c)
Let, the actual cost of the machine = Rs. x
110 100 - 10
x 27500
100 100
90 100
x = 27500
100 110
x = Rs. 22500

109. (b) Solution below-


Given, Ratio in number of employees = 8 : 5
And ratio in their wages = 7 : 9
After increment, ratio in their wages
= 8 7 : 9 5
= 56 : 45
hence, the overall wages bill is decreased in the ratio 56 : 45

Let the average age of new jury = X yr
5 40 - 35 + 25
= X
5
5X = 200 - 10
190
X = 38 yr
5

111. (c) Solution below-
Let, the total journey = X km
X X 15
- =
35 40 60
X 1

280 4
280
X = = 70 km
4



Let , the number of articles bought by Rs. 1 be X
SP - CP
Percentage profit = 100
CP
1 1
-
20 x
20 = 100
1
x
20 1 1
= 100
x 20

x
20 100
= 5 -
x x
120
x = = 24
5

113. (a) Solution below-
Here, X 25% y = 12%
Required percentage
25 12
25 + 12 + %
100
= 37 + 3 = 40 %

Let, The depth of ocean = h km
Speed of ship = 30 km/h
30 5 25
= = m/s
18 3


25
Time taken to cover 500 m at the speed of m/s
3
500
= 60 s
25
3
Distance covered by radiowave in 60 s
= 200 60

2 2 2
2
2
= 12000 m or 12 km
In OCB,
OC CB - OB
1
OC = 6
4
5 23
OC = = 5.99 (approx.)
4
143
Which is equal to
2

Let, amount of loan taken from the first bank be Rs. x
10000 - x 10 1
x 8 1
+ 950
100 100
2x
1000 - = 950
100
2x = 50 100
x = Rs. 2500


116. (d) Solution below-
2
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
1
a + = 98
a
1
a + + 2 = 100
a
1
a + = 100
a
1
a + 100 = 10
a
1
a + 10
a
1 1 1
a + + 3a. + = 1000
a a a
1
a + + 3 10 = 1000
a
1
a +
a
a
= 1000 - 30 = 970


2
2
2
4 2 3 2
4 3 2
x = 1 + 2 + 3
x - 1 = 2 + 3
x - 2x + 1 = 2 + 3 + 2 6
x - 2x = 4 + 2 6....................( )
x - 2x - 4 = 2 6
,
- 4x + 16 - 4x 16 - 8x = 24
- 4x - 4x 16 - 8
i
Squaring both side
x x
x x
4 3 2
4 3 2
2
2
= 0
2 - 8x - 8x + 32x - 16 = 0
2 - 8x - 5x + 26x - 28
= 3x - 6x - 12
= 3 x - 2x - 12

x
x
= 3 4 + 2 6 - 12
= 12 + 6 6 - 12
= 6 6

2 2
2
2
Distance between two points (0, -5) and (x, 0) = 13 unit
x - 0 + 0 + 5 13
x + 25 = 169
x 169 - 25
x = 144

Given, 4x = 18y
x 9
=
y 2
x 9 7
- 1 = - 1 =
y 2 2



2
2 2
3 3 3
2
2
2
3
x + y - 2xy
+ y
=
+ y
x + y - 3xy x + y
4 - 2
xy = 2 - 3 = 1
4 - 3 4
14 7
=
52 26
x
x

2 2 2
2 2 2
2 2 2
+ b + c = 2 a - b - c - 3
a - 2a + 1 + b + 2b + 1 + + 2c + 1 = 0
a - 1 + b + 1 + c + 1 0
a - 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0
a = 1, b = -1, c = -1
2a - 3b + 4c = 2 1 - 3(-1) + 4(-1) = 1
a
c

2
2
3
4
3
2
2
3
3
3
1
+ = 5
x
x - 5x + 1 = 0
x - 3x + 1 = 2x.........................(i)
1
1
x x
x
x
x
=
x - 3x + 1 2
1 1
= x
2 x
1 1
= x + - 3 x +
2 x
x
x
1

x
1
= 125 - 15
2
= 55


2 2
2 2
2
2
1 1 1
+ 4 +
16 4 4
1 1
= 2 - + 2
4 2
1 19
= 6 + 2 =
4 2
x x
x x
x
x

2
2
2
2
1
5a + = 5
3a
5 1
3a + = 5
3 5a
1 5 3
3a + = = 3
5a 5
On squaring both side,
1 1
9a + +2.3a. = 9
25a 5a
1 6 39
9a + = 9 - =
25a 5 5

Given,


1 2 3 2 3 1 3
5x + 7y = 35 .................(i)
4x + 3y = 12 .................(ii)
Co -ordinate of intersection point of given
-84 80
.( ) (ii) is ,
13 13
,
of ABC
1
= y + y +
2
Eqs i and
From figure
Area
x y x y x
1 2
y
1 80 80 - 84
= 3 0 + 7 0 + . 0 0
2 13 13 13
1 80 3 80 7
= +
2 13 13
1 80 4 160
= = sq units
2 3 3
y

From figure, BOC = 54

,
MAN = 360 - 90 + 90 + BOC
= 360 - 180 + 54
= 126
BAC = MAN = 126
In ABCD



2
In similar triangles.
( Ratio of their corresponding sides)
= Ratio of area of two similar triangles.
Ratio of their corresponding sides
9
=
16
= 3 : 4

The mid points of sides AC and AB are E, F respectively

EF BC
In ABD,
AF AO
=
FB OD
AO
= 1
OD
AO = OD
AO = OG + GD
1
AO = OG + AG
2
AO
1
= OG + AO + OG
2
1 3
AO = OG
2 2
AO : OG = 3 : 1

The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc


= 2 BAC
= 2 50 = 100
BSC,
BS = SC = Radius of circle
=
+ 2 = 180
2 = 180 -100
=
BSC
In
BCS CBS
BSC BCS
BCS
BCS

80
= 40
2



,
ABCT is a cyclic
ATC = 180 -
PB is a straight line
PAC = 180 -
PAC and ATC,
ATC = PAC = 180 -
AC = AC

From figure
Quadrilateral
In
PCA = TCA
PAC ~ ATC
AC CT
=
PC AC
AC CT
=
PC BC
CT : CB = CA : CP [ AC = BC]

figure From

1 2
1 2
2 2 2 2
2 2
1 2 1 2
1 2
Distance between centre of circles.
OO' = r r
OO' M
O'M = O' Q - MQ
= O' Q - OP
= r - r
PQ = OM = (O' O) - (O'M)
= r r - r - r
= 4r r
In


The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc.

BOC = 2 BAC
In BOC,
BOC + 2 OBC = 180
2 BAC + 2 OBC = 180
180
BAC + OBC = = 90
2

Let AB and AC are the diameters of two circles.


AB = 10 cm, AC = 16 cm
From figure,
In PAB and QAC,
APB = AQC
PAB = QAC
PBA = ACQ
PAB ~ QAC
AP AB
=
AQ AC
AP

AQ
10
= 5 : 8
16

From Figure,

A
BIC = 90 +
2
60
= 90 + = 120
2


From figure,


A
BPC = 90 -
2
80
= 90 - = 50
2

Circumference of a circle
= 2
= 2 50 [ R = 50]
= 100 cm
Angle substened at the centre by a circle
= 360
Angle substened at the centre by an arc BC
360
= 16
100
360 16 7
=
100 22
18.33 or 18 20'
R
(approx.)

Given,
sin(2 20 ) cos(2 20 )
cos 90 - 2x - 20 = cos( 2y+ 20 )
90 - 2 - 20 2y + 20
90
x + y = = 45
2
sec(x + y) = sec 45 2
x y
x


5 sin
cos 3
cos
sin
cos 5 3
cos
5 tan - 3
5 tan + 3
4
5. 3
1
5
=
4
7
5. 3
5

2 2 2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
2
4 sec + 9 cosec = 4 1 + tan + 9 1 + cot
13 + 4 tan + 9 cot
AM GM
4 tan + 9 cot
4 tan 9 cot
2
4 tan + 9 cot = 2 36
12
Minimum value of 4 sec + 9 cose
2
c
13 + 12 = 25



, tan y tan (x - y) = 1
tan y = cot (x - y)
tan y = tan 90 - (x - y)
y = 90 - (x - y)
2x = 90
90
x = = 45
2
2 2 45
tan = tan
3 3

Given x
x
x
x
x
= tan 30
1
=
3

2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
2 2
2
+ y + 3 = cosec - sin + sec - cos 3
= cosec + sec - 3 + 3
1
=
sin cos
= cosec - sin sec - cos
1 1
= - sin
sin cos
x
x y
2
2
2 2
2
2 2
2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2
- cos
1 - sin 1 - cos
=
sin cos
cos sin
= = cos sin
sin cos
1
+ y + 3 = cos sin
sin cos
= 1
x y x



, 2y cos = x sin ...........................(i)
1 x
2y =
sec cosec
x sec - 2y cosec = 0 ..................(ii)
and 2x sec - y cosec = 3...................(iii)
By Eqs. (i
Given
2 2
2 2
2 2
) and (ii), we get
y = sin
By Eq. (i), x = 2 cos
x + 4y = 2 cos + 4 sin
= 4 cos + sin
= 4

, the height of the post = h m Let


ACB,
h
tan 30 = ..........( )
5 + x
DAB,
h
tan 60 =
x
h
x =
3
. (i)
1 h
=
3
5
3
5
+
3 3
In
i
In
By Eq
h
h
= h
h 5
h - =
3 3
5 3 5 3
h = =
2 2 3
m

Length of the road for substened a angle of 25
= 40 m
Length of the road for substened a angle of 360
40
= 360 = 576 m
25
Radius of a circular r
576
oad =
2
576 7
= = 91.64 m
2 22



2
2
2
12 10 8 6
3
4 2
2
2 2
sin + sin = 1
sin = 1 - sin
sin = cos ..................(i)
cos + 3 cos + 3 cos + cos = 1
= cos + cos - 1
= sin + cos - 1
=
2
1 -1
= 0

5
the given pie-chart,
72 lakh 360
360
12 lakh 12 = 60
72
The population of area S is 12 lakh.
In

1
4
3 45
s in area S = 72
5 360
= 5.4 lakh
2 105
s in area S = 72
5 360

Number of male
Number of male
1 4
= 8.4 lakh
n s in area S and S
= 5.4 + 8.4 = 13.8 lakh
total umber of male



2
5
1 135
fe in area S = 72
5 360
7 60
fe in area S = 72
20 360
1 135
72
5 360
Required ratio =
7 60
72
20 360
= 9 : 7
Number of male
Number of male

149. (*)Solution below-
1
1
3
area S in 2010
45
= 72
360
area S in 2009
9 100 60
= = lakh
105 7
area S in 2010
15
=
360
Total population of
Total population of
Total population of
3
72 = 3 lakh
area S in 2009
3 100 25
= = lakh
100 8 9
60 9
Required ratio = = 108 : 35
7 25
Total population of


1
2
3
fe in area
2 45
S = 72 = 3.6 lakh
5 360
fe in area
1 135
S = 72 = 5.4 lakh
5 360
fe in area
3 15
S = 72 =
10 360
Number of males
Number of males
Number of males
4
0.9 lakh
fe in area
3 105
S = 72 = 12.6 lakh
5 360
Number of males

151. (c)
Put a in place of being.
152. (b)
I have in place of have I.
153. (a)
Remove the word had.
154. (a)
Put have before categorically.
155. (d)
Put had after ship.
156. (d)
157. (b)
158. (d)
159. (a)
160. (d)


161. (c)
162. (c)
163. (d)
164. (a)
165. (b)
166. (b)
167. (d)
168. (b)
169. (a)
170. (b)
171. (a)
172. (b)
173. (c)
174. (b)
175. (b)
176. (b)
177. (c)
178. (d)
179. (d)
180. (c)
181. (b)
182. (a)
183. (c)
184. (d)
185. (c)
186. (c)


187. (d)
188. (b)
189. (a)
190. (b)
191. (c)
Answer can be drawn from the sixth sentence of the first paragraph.
192. (d)
Answer can be drawn from the ninth sentence of the first paragraph.
193. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the eleventh sentence of the first paragraph.
194. (c)
Answer can be drawn from the second sentence of the second paragraph.
195. (b)
196. (c)
Answer can be drawn from from the very first sentence of the first paragraph.
197. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the third sentence of the second paragraph.
198. (d)
Answer can be drawn from the last sentence of the second paragraph.
199. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the last two sentence of the last paragraph.
200. (d)


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