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JAA Test Prep 050 - Meteorology Edition 2008 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 1 2008 AVIATI

ONEXAM.com 8808 (A) 8814 (B) 8817 (A) 8876 (D) 8889 (C) 10028 (D) 10050 (A) 1005
5 (A) 10061 (A) 10102 (B) 10753 (D) 10804 (A) 10846 (C) 10851 (A) 10855 (D) 1089
6 (D) 050-01-01 Composition, extent, vertical division 8808. (AIR: atpl; HELI: a
tpl) Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? A) It is higher in pola
r regions than in equatorial regions. B) It is higher in equatorial regions than
in polar regions. C) It is highest in middle latitudes. D) There is no signific
ant difference with change of latitude. 8814. (all) The troposphere is the: A) p
art of the atmosphere above the stratosphere. B) part of the atmosphere below th
e tropopause. C) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere. D) boundary b
etween the stratosphere and the mesosphere. 8817. (all) What is the boundary lay
er between troposphere and stratosphere called? A) Tropopause B) Ionosphere C) S
tratosphere D) Atmosphere 8876. (all) The tropopause is a level at which: A) ver
tical currents are strongest. B) water vapour content is greatest. C) pressure r
emains constant. D) temperature ceases to fall with increasing height. 8889. (AI
R: atpl; HELI: atpl) The tropopause is lower: A) south of the equator than north
of it. B) in summer than winter in moderate latitudes. C) over the North Pole t
han over the equator. D) over the equator than over the South Pole. 10028. (all)
Advection is: A) the same as convection. B) vertical motion of air. C) the same
as subsidence. D) horizontal motion of air. 10050. (all) What is the approximat
e composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere? A) 21% oxygen, 78% ni
trogen, and the rest other gasses. B) 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest oth
er gasses. C) 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. D) 50% oxygen,
40% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. 10055. (all) In which layer is most of
the atmospheric humidity concentrated? A) Troposphere
B) Tropopause C) Stratosphere D) Stratopause 10061. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The
thickness of the troposphere varies with: A) latitude. B) longitude. C) rotation
of the earth. D) the wind. 10102. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Going from the equato
r to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause: A) increases and its temper
ature increases. B) decreases and its temperature increases. C) increases and it
s temperature decreases. D) decreases and its temperature decreases. 10753. (AIR
: atpl; HELI: atpl) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average
from: A) 85 to more than 200 km. B) 0 to 11 km. C) 50 to 85 km. D) 11 to 50 km.
10804. (all) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all
water vapour? A) Troposphere. B) Lower stratosphere. C) Upper stratosphere. D)
Ionosphere. 10846. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The average height of the tropopause
at 50N is about: A) 14 km B) 8 km C) 11 km D) 16 km 10851. (all) The troposphere:
A) has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles. B) con
tains all oxygen of the stratosphere. C) is the separation layer between the str
atosphere and atmosphere. D) reaches the same height at all latitudes. 10855. (A
IR: atpl; HELI: atpl) How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with l
atitude in the northern hemisphere? A) It remains constant throughout the year.
B) It remains constant from north to south. C) It increases from south to north.
D) It decreases from south to north. 10896. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What, appro
ximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator? A) 40 km B)
8 km C) 11 km D) 16 km 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 2
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15783 (A) 15790 (B) 15820 (A) 15849 (B) 15850 (B) 16572 (A
) 24289 (C) 24425 (D) 24440 (D) 27119 (B) 27159 (C) 27177 (B) 27390 (A) 27396 (A
) 15783. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Why are indications about the height of the tro
popause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics? A) The tropopause
is generally well above the flight level actually flown. B) The meteorological
services are unable to provide such a chart. C) The temperatures of the tropical
tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important. D) Tropopause info
rmations are of no value. 15790. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the most likely
temperature at the tropical tropopause? A) -25 C B) -75 C C) -55 C D) -35 C 15820.
(all) Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first: A) 5 km B) 3 km C)
8 km D) 11 km 15849. (all) What of the following is the most important constitue
nt in the atmosphere from a weather standpoint? A) Hydrogen. B) Water vapour. C)
Nitrogen. D) Oxygen. 15850. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The height and the temperat
ure of the tropopause are respectively in the order of: A) 16 km and -40 C over t
he poles. B) 16 km and -75 C over the equator. C) 8 km and -40 C over the equator.
D) 8 km and - 75 C over the poles. 16572. (all) The troposphere is: A) deepest (
thickest) over the equator. B) deepest (thickest) over the poles. C) the same de
pth all over the earth. D) shallowest over the poles in summer. 24289. (all) In
relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere bet
ween mean sea level and a height of 5.500 m is: A) 25% B) 1% C) 50% D) 99% 24425
. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?
A) The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal. B
) The temperature remains constant above and below the
tropopause. C) The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than a
t the poles. D) The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause. 2
4440. (all) Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct? A) The tempera
ture at the tropopause is approximately -80 C over the Poles and approximately -4
0 C over the equator. B) Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs. C)
In the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles than o
ver the equator. D) The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable. 27
119. (all) A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called: A) he
ating aloft. B) an inversion. C) an extension. D) unstable air. 27159. (AIR: atp
l; HELI: atpl) The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few
clouds is known as the: A) tropopause B) troposphere C) stratosphere D) jetstre
am 27177. (all) The lowest layer in the atmosphere is: A) the stratosphere. B) t
he troposphere. C) the mesosphere. D) the Heaviside layer. 27390. (AIR: atpl; HE
LI: atpl) What is the average temperature of the tropical tropopause? A) -75 C B)
-65 C C) -56,5 C D) -40 C 27396. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which statement is true c
oncerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles? A) The tropopause decrea
ses, the tropopause temperature increases. B) The tropopause decreases, the trop
opause temperature decreases. C) The tropopause increases, the tropopause temper
ature increases. D) The tropopause increases, the tropopause teniperature decrea
ses. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 3 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27422 (B) 28393 (C) 28398 (D)
8810 (D) 8824 (B) 8833 (D) 8858 (C) 8887 (B) 8890 (B) 8898 (A) 10024 (A) 10038
(D) 10066 (C) 10068 (D) 10074 (D) 27422. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What can be sai
d about the temperature in the lower stratosphere? A) The temperature is constan
t.
B) The temperature is increasing. C) The temperature is decreasing. D) The tempe
rature is first increasing and then decreasing. 28393. (all) The layer of the Ea
rth s atmosphere which most concerns aviators is called the: A) stratosphere. B)
tropopause. C) troposphere. D) equatorial zone. 28398. (all) The percentage con
centration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the surface of the earth
to a certain altitude with the exception of: A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D
) water vapour 050-01-02 Temperature 8810. (all) Several physical processes cont
ribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most? A) Ab
sorption and evaporation. B) Solar radiation and conduction. C) Absorption and v
aporization. D) Convection and condensation. 8824. (all) The amount of water vap
or which air can hold largely depends on: A) relative humidity. B) air temperatu
re. C) stability of air. D) dew point. 8833. (all) An outside air temperature of
-35 C is measured while cruising at FL200. What is the temperature deviation fro
m the ISA at this level? A) 5 C colder than ISA. B) 10 C warmer than ISA. C) 5 C wa
rmer than ISA. D) 10 C colder than ISA. 8858. (all) At a certain position, the te
mperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48 C; according to the tropopause chart, the t
ropopause is at FL330. What is the most likely temperature at FL350? A) -56,5 C B
) -50 C C) -54 C D) -58 C 8887. (all) A significant inversion at low height is a ch
aracteristic of: A) the passage of cold front. B) nocturnal radiation. C) advect
ion fog. D) cumulus clouds. 8890. (all) An inversion is a layer of air which is:
A) absolutely unstable. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable.
D) conditionally stable. 8898. (all) An inversion is: A) an increase of temperat
ure with height. B) an increase of pressure with height. C) a decrease of pressu
re with height. D) a decrease of temperature with height. 10024. (all) When in t
he upper part of a layer warm air is advected the: A) stability increases in the
layer. B) stability decreases in the layer. C) wind will back with increasing h
eight in the northern hemisphere. D) wind speed will always decrease with increa
sing height in the northern hemisphere. 10038. (all) The environmental lapse rat
e in an actual atmosphere: A) has a fixed value of 2 C/1000 ft. B) has a fixed va
lue of 1 C/100 m. C) has a fixed value of 0,65 C/100 m. D) varies with time. 10066
. (all) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature: A) decreases with
altitude. B) is almost constant. C) increases with altitude. D) increases at fi
rst and decreases afterward. 10068. (all) An isothermal layer is a layer of air
in which the temperature: A) increases with height at a constant rate. B) increa
ses with height. C) decreases with height at a constant rate. D) remains constan
t with height. 10074. (all) Which of the following is a common result of subside
nce? A) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes . B) CB-clouds and thunderstorm
s over a large area. C) Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation.
D) An inversion over a large area with haze, mist. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 4 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 10095 (B) 10122 (C) 10130 (A) 10145 (D) 10754 10839 (B) 10861 (
C) 10862 (D) 10877 (D) 10879 10095. (all) What is the technical term for an incr
ease in with altitude? A) Subsidence B) Inversion C) Adiabatic D) Advection 1012
2. (all) How would you characterise an air temperature the 700 hPa level over we
stern Europe? A) Within +/-5 C of ISA. B) High. C) Low. D) 20 C below standard. 10
130. (all)
(A) 10802 (B) 10812 (C) 10820 (D) (B) 10894 (C) 15782 (A) temperature
of -15 C at
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International S
tandard Atmosphere is: A) 0,65 C B) 1 C C) 0,5 C D) variable 10145. (all) The radia
tion of the Sun heats: A) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds
are present. B) the air in the troposphere directly. C) the water vapour in the
air of the troposphere. D) the surface of the Earth, which heats the air in the
troposphere. 10754. (all) What characteristic is associated with a temperature i
nversion? A) Stability. B) Instability. C) Clear ice. D) Area of active storms.
10802. (all) The temperature at FL160 is -22 C. What will the temperature be at F
L90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied? A) -4 C B) -8 C C) 0 C D) +4 C 10812
. (all) The temperature at FL140 is -12 C. What will the temperature be at FL110
if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied: A) -9 C B) -18 C C) -6 C D) -15 C 10820.
(all) The temperature at FL80 is +6 C. What will the temperature be at FL130 if
the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied? A) +2 C B) -6 C C) 0 C D) -4 C 10839. (all)
The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is: A) clear and w
inds are strong. B) clear and winds are weak. C) overcast and winds are weak. D)
overcast and winds are strong. 10861. (all) On a clear sky, continental ground
surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately: A) at the
moment the sun rises. B) half an hour before sunrise. C) half an hour after sunr
ise. D) one hour before sunrise. 10862. (all) The temperature at FL110 is -5 C. W
hat will the temperature be at FL50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
A) -3 C B) +3 C C) 0 C
D) +7 C 10877. (all) The 0 isotherm is forecast to be at FL50. At what FLwould you
expect a temperature of -6 C? A) FL110 B) FL20 C) FL100 D) FL80 10879. (all) A t
emperature of 15 C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If t
he vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level? A) +4 C
B) +2 C C) 0 C D) -2 C 10894. (all) Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the s
urface temperature, under shelter, is 3 C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of strat
us. QNH is 1.033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature o
f the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be: A) slightly above +3 C. B) s
ignificantly below 0 C. C) slightly below +3 C. D) significantly above +3 C. 15782.
(all) Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature
inversion? A) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light wind
s. B) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrai
n. C) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air ove
r cold air. D) Heating of the air by subsidence. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 5 2008 AV
IATIONEXAM.com 15810 (D) 15822 (A) 15823 (D) 15851 (C) 15858 (B) 15876 (A) 16348
(C) 16555 (A) 16556 (B) 16571 (A) 24216 (C) 24222 (C) 24353 (D) 24386 (C) 27349
(A) 27385 (B) 15810. (all) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude i
n the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? A) Increases. B) At first i
t increases and higher up it decreases. C) Remains constant. D) Decreases. 15822
. (all) How would you characterize an air temperature of -30c at the 300 hPa leve
l over western Europe? A) High. B) Within +/-5 C of ISA. C) Low. D) Very low. 158
23. (all) How would you characterise an air temperature of -55 C at
the 200 hPa level over western Europe? A) High. B) Low. C) Very high. D) Within
+/-5 C of ISA. 15851. (all) An Inversion is a layer of air in which the temperatu
re: A) increases with height more than 1 C/100 m. B) decreases with height more t
han 1 C/100 m. C) increases with height. D) remains constant with height. 15858.
(all) A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly a
fter takeoff the aircrafts rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to: A) l
ow relative humidity. B) a very strong temperature inversion. C) sand/dust in th
e engines. D) very pronounced downdrafts. 15876. (all) In still air the temperat
ure decreases at an average of 1,2 C per 100 m increase in altitude. This tempera
ture change is called: A) environmental lapse rate. B) saturated adiabatic lapse
rate. C) dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) normal lapse rate. 16348. (all) Horizonta
l differences in the mean temperature of a layer near the earth surface are caus
ed by: A) insolation. B) advection. C) differential heating of the earths surfac
e. D) change of air mass. 16555. (all) Which one of the following describes norm
al conditions? A) Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere. B) Tempe
rature increases with height in the troposphere. C) Temperature decreases with h
eight in the stratosphere. D) Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the tro
posphere as in the stratosphere. 16556. (all) For international aviation meteoro
logical purposes, temperature is measured in degrees: A) Fahrenheit B) Celsius C
) Absolute D) Kelvin 16571. (all) If the depth of the troposphere increases, the
temperature at the tropopause must: A) decrease. B) stay the same. C) increase.
D) impossible to say. 24216. (all) A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to ris
e through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperatur
e of the parcel: A) decreases 0,65 C per 100 m.
B) remains constant. C) decreases 1 C per 100 m. D) becomes equal to the temperat
ure of the isothermal layer. 24222. (all) According to ISA the temperature in th
e lower part of the stratosphere: A) decreases with altitude. B) is almost const
ant. C) increases with altitude. D) increases at first and decreases afterward.
24353. (all) The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the tropos
phere is: A) -2,5 C/1.000 ft. B) -3 C/1.000 ft. C) -6,5 C/1.000 ft. D) -2 C/1.000 ft
. 24386. (all) What is, approximately, the temperature at 20.000 ft in the ICAO
Standard Atmosphere? A) -20 C B) -15 C C) -25 C D) -30 C 27349. (all) What feature i
s associated with a temperature inversion? A) A stable layer of air. B) An unsta
ble layer of air. C) Air man thunderstorms. D) Cold front. 27385. (all) A temper
ature increase with increasing altitude is called: A) subsidence B) inversion C)
adiabate D) advection 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 6 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27389 (A) 2
7744 (D) 28390 (B) 28391 (C) 28402 (A) 28418 (B) 28469 (D) 10035 (A) 10059 (C) 1
0085 (D) 10137 (D) 10807 (B) 10822 (B) 15780 (A) 15809 (C) 27389. (all) While fl
ying at FL120, you notice an OAT of -2 C. At which altitude do you expect the fre
ezing level to be? A) FL110 B) FL130 C) FL150 D) FL90 27744. (all) What is the c
ause for a surface temperature inversion? A) The presence of a high pressure are
a. B) The presence of a polar front depression. C) Moist, unstable air, and a li
fting action. D) By heavy radiational cooling at night of the lowest layer of ai
r, or if warm air moves in over a colder surface. 28390. (all) The majority of t
roposphere heating is the result of: A) radiation of the sun.
B) heating from the ground below. C) re-radiation of the sun s rays from the sur
face of the earth. D) re-radiation from the clouds. 28391. (all) Why is a calm a
nd clear-sky night cooler than a cloudy night? A) The clouds prevent radiation f
rom the atmosphere. B) There is radiation from the clouds. C) The radiation from
the earth s surface slips into space. D) Due to contents of carbon dioxide. 284
02. (all) Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over: A) sea B) grass C
) mountain D) forest 28418. (all) When temperature drops without changes of dew
point temperature: A) the amount of water vapor will increase. B) relative humid
ity will increase. C) the amount of water vapor will decrease. D) relative humid
ity will decrease. 28469. (all) An inversion is characterized by: A) constant te
mperature with increasing altitude. B) parts of the air mass at each level is wa
rmer than surrounding air. C) the tendency to increase relative humidity with in
creasing altitude. D) increasing temperature with increasing altitude. 050-01-03
Atmospheric pressure 10035. (all) What positions are connected by isobars on th
e surface weather chart? A) Positions with the same air pressure at a given leve
l. B) Positions with the same temperature at a given level. C) Positions with th
e same wind velocity at a given level. D) Positions with the same relative press
ure heights. 10059. (all) In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m
increase in height: A) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels. B) rema
ins constant at all levels. C) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
D) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL. 10085. (all) An isohypse (contour): A) i
ndicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm. B) is the longest slope line
of a frontal surface. C) is the limit between two air masses of different temper
ature. D) indicates the true altitude of a pressure level. 10137. (all) The stat
ion pressure used in surface weather charts is: A) QNE B) QFE C) QNH D) QFF 1080
7. (all)
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure? A) It is higher
in winter than in summer. B) It decreases with height. C) It is higher at night
than during the da. D) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8
m. 10822. (all) Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal: A) QFE B) QFF C)
QNE D) QNH 15780. (all) What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal
to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5.500 m? A) 15 m (50 ft). B) 8
m (27 ft). C) 32 m (105 ft). D) 64 m (210 ft). 15809. (all) The isobars drawn on
a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: A) at height of obse
rvatory. B) at a determined density altitude. C) reduced to sea level. D) at fli
ght level. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 7 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15837 (C) 15877 (A) 163
49 (B) 16357 (A) 16363 (B) 16364 (D) 16436 (B) 16438 (C) 16439 (B) 16511 (A) 165
17 (B) 16534 (C) 16544 (C) 15837. (all) Between which latitudes are you most lik
ely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems in summer? A) 25 - 35 B)
10 - 15 C) 55 - 75 D) 35 - 55 15877. (all) Assume that an aircraft is flying in the n
orthern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270. Which of
the following statements is correct? A) If in this pressure surface the wind com
es from the direction 360, then true altitude is increasing. B) If in this pressu
re surface the wind comes from the direction 180, then true altitude is increasin
g. C) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270, then tru
e altitude is increasing. D) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the
direction 090, then true altitude is increasing. 16349. (all) At altitude, the a
tmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be: A) lower than at th
e same height in a column of cold air. B) higher than at the same height in a co
lumn of cold air. C) the same irrespective of the temperature. D) depends on the
relative humidity.
16357. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) High contour values a
re equivalent to high pressure. B) Low contour values are equivalent to high pre
ssures. C) High contour values are equivalent to low pressure. D) There is not d
irect relationship between contour values and pressure. 16363. (all) Contour hei
ghts are: A) true heights AGL. B) true heights AMSL. C) indicated heights above
1.013,25 mb. D) do not indicate heights at all. 16364. (all) When flying from hi
gh to low contour values, which of the following is incorrect? A) The true heigh
t of the aircraft will be falling. B) The pressure altimeter will indicate a con
stant value. C) The indicated height of the aircraft will be constant. D) The in
dicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1.013,25 mb is set. 16436. (
all) You are making a long-distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising a
ltitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have descended
. What may be to reason for this? A) You are approaching a region of high pressu
re. B) You are approaching a region of low pressure. C) Standard pressure has dr
opped. D) Temperature has increased. 16438. (all) Select the correct statement r
egarding the wind directions in connection with the high and low pressure system
s in the northern hemisphere: A) the winds blow counter-clockwise around a high
a clockwise in a low. B) the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows. C) the
winds blow clockwise in a high and counterclockwise in a low. D) the winds blow
counter-clockwise in both highs and lows. 16439. (all) If you fly across the is
obars towards a region of high pressure in the northern hemisphere, you will: A)
drift to the right. B) drift to the left. C) experience no drift but experience
a headwind. D) experience no drift but experience a tailwind. 16511. (all) Acco
rding to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure deter
mined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value? A) 1.013,25 hPa. B) 1.
025,13 hPa. C) Actual QFE. D) Actual QNH. 16517. (all) If you have a column of a
ir limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the dis
tance between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pre
ssure of the column of air change. In which of
the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact
to shorten the distance as much as possible? A) The temperature increases and pr
essure increases. B) The temperature decreases and pressure increases. C) The te
mperature increases and pressure decreases. D) The temperature decreases and pre
ssure decreases. 16534. (all) Lines joining points of equal pressure are known a
s: A) isotherms B) isopleths C) isobars D) isotachs 16544. (all) A pressure diff
erence of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height difference of: A) a
bout 50 m. B) about 150 m. C) about 300 ft. D) about 30 ft. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHER
E 8 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16587 (D) 24345 (B) 24431 (C) 27179 (A) 27189 (C) 2735
4 (B) 27355 (A) 27356 (D) 27357 (C) 27358 (A) 27359 (B) 27360 (A) 27361 (B) 2736
2 (D) 27363 (C) 16587. (all) A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering o
r leaving it, will: A) reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in dens
ity. B) maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure. C) maintain pr
essure, reduce in density, increase in volume. D) reduce in pressure, decrease i
n density, increase in volume. 24345. (all) The QFF at an airfield located 400 m
etres above sea level is 1.016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C higher than a sta
ndard atmosphere. What is the QNH? A) 1.016 hPa. B) More than 1.016 hPa. C) Less
than 1.016 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. 24431. (all)
Which of the following statements is correct? A) Cumulus clouds and a good visi
bility are normally observed in a warm sector in winter. B) Cumulus clouds and a
good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in autumn. C) Normally a
tmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front, the air temperatu
re rises. D) At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed. 27179. (all) The a
verage change of pressure with height in the lower atmosphere is: A) 1hPa/27 ft.
B) 1hPa/20 ft. C) 1hPa/50 ft. D) 1hPa/56 ft. 27189. (all) A line on a chart joi
ning places of equal sea level pressure
is called an: A) isogonal. B) agonic line. C) isobar. D) isotherm. 27354. (all)
The isohypse 2.960 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the foll
owing pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 27355. (all) T
he isohypse 1.620 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the follo
wing pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 27356. (all) Th
e isohypse 11.880 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for following
pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27357. (all) The is
ohypse 5.700 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following
pressure level: A) 300 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27358. (all) The iso
hypse 8.760 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for following press
ure level: A) 300 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27359. (all) What is the
pressure in sutface weather charts called? A) QFE B) QFF C) QNH D) QNE 27360. (a
ll) At which average height can the 700 hPa pressure level in moderate latitude
be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 27
361. (all) At which average height can the 500 hPa pressure level in moderate la
titudes be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km
AMSL.
27362. (all) Atwhich average height can the 200 hPa pressure level in moderate l
atitudes be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km
AMSL. 27363. (all) At which average height can the 300 hPa pressure level in mo
derate latitudes be expected? A) 1,5 km AMSL. B) 3,0 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D)
12,0 km AMSL. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 9 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27364 (A) 27365 (A)
27367 (A) 27368 (D) 27369 (C) 27370 (A) 27371 (A) 27372 (B) 27373 (B) 27374 (C)
27375 (A) 27376 (B) 27398 (A) 27399 (C) 27400 (A) 27364. (all) At which average
height can the 850 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected? A) 1,5
km AMSL. B) 3,0 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 27365. (all) At an ai
rport (400 m AMSL), a QFF of 1.016 hPa and a temperature 10 C higher than ISA is
observed: A) the QNH is higher than 1.016 hPa. B) the QNH is lower than 1.016 hP
a. C) the QNH equals 1.016 hPa. D) the QNH cannot be determined. 27367. (all) At
an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.009 hPa and a temperature 10 C lower than IS
A is observed: A) the QFF is higher than 1.016 hPa. B) the QFF is lower than 1.0
16 hPa. C) the QFF equals 1.009 hPa. D) the QFF cannot be determined. 27368. (al
l) At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.022 hPa is observed and the temperatur
e is unknown. A) The QFF is higher than 1.022 hPa. B) The QFF is lower than 1.02
2 hPa. C) The QFF equals 1.022 hPa. D) The QFF cannot be determined. 27369. (all
) At an airport (0 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.022 hPa is observed and the temperature i
s unknown: A) the QFF is higher than 1.022 hPa. B) the QFF is lower than 1.022 h
Pa. C) the QFF equals 1.022 hPa. D) the QFF cannot be determined. 27370. (all) A
t an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QNH of 1.018 hPa and a temperatur
e 10 C higher than standard is observed: A) the QFF is higher than 1.018 hPa.
B) the QFF is lower than 1.018 hPa. C) the QFF equals 1.018 hPa. D) the QFF cann
ot be determined. 27371. (all) At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a Q
FF of 1.030 hPa and a termperature is 10 C lower than standard is observed: A) th
e QNH is higher than 1.030 hPa. B) the QNH is lower than 1.030 hPa. C) the QNH e
quals 1.030 hPa. D) the QNH cannot be determined. 27372. (all) What is the value
for a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5.500 m? A) Approx. 8 m (27 ft
). B) Approx. 16 m (50 ft). C) Approx. 32 m (105 ft). D) Approx. 64 m (210 ft).
27373. (all) QFE 980 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What will the approximate
QNH be? A) 1.000 hPa B) 1.005 hPa C) 1.010 hPa D) 1.015 hPa 27374. (all) QFE 1.
000 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What will the approximate QNH be? A) 985 h
Pa B) 990 hPa C) 1.025 hPa D) 1.035 hPa 27375. (all) QNH 1015 hPa at an altitude
of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be? A) 990 hPa B) 995 hPa C) 1.000
hPa D) 1.005 hPa. 27376. (all) QNH 1.025 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What
will the approximate QFE be? A) 995 hPa B) 1.000 hPa C) 1.005 hPa D) 1.025 hPa
27398. (all) State the definition for QNH: A) QFE reduced to MSL, using standard
temperature gradient. B) OFF reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradien
t. C) QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient. D) QNE reduced to M
SL, using standard temperature gradient. 27399. (all) State the definition for Q
FF: A) QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. B) QNH reduced t
o MSL, using standard temperature gradient. C) QFE reduced to MSL, using actual
temperature gradient. D) QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
. 27400. (all) Which value has to be known to calculate the QNH out of the QFE?
A) B) C) D)
Field elevation. Actual temperature. The relative humidity of the air. The densi
ty altitude of the field.
050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 10 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27465 (A) 27492 (A) 28387 (D) 283
88 (B) 28389 (A) 28394 (C) 15779 (B) 24454 (B) 27120 (B) 28396 (B) 28470 (B) 284
71 (D) 8840 (C) 8850 (A) 27465. (all) What can be said about isobars? A) Isobars
appear on meteorological surface charts. B) Isobars are lines of equal temperat
ure. C) Certain information can be depicted with the isobars on upper level char
. D) Isobars show wind speeds around a jet stream area. 27492. (all) Which state
ment is true? A) QNH can be equal to QFE. B) QNH is always lower than QFE. C) QF
E is always lower than QNH. D) QFE can be equal to QFF only. 28387. (all) At sea
level, the pressure of the atmosphere on a standard day will cause the mercury
in the column to rise to: A) 92,29 inches. B) 19,19 inches. C) 29,29 inches. D)
29,92 inches. 28388. (all) What is dynamic pressure? A) Turbulence. B) Pressure
caused by movement. C) Acceleration force. D) Centrifugal force. 28389. (all) As
altitude increases, the weight of the atmosphere above you will: A) decrease. B
) remain the same. C) increase. D) increase with 1,5 kg/m2 per 1.000 ft. 28394.
(all) The unit of pressure most commonly used in meteorology is: A) kg/cm2 B) lb
s/in2 C) hPa D) tons/m2 050-01-04 Atmospheric density 15779. (all) At FL180, the
air temperature is -35 C. The air density at this level is: A) unable to be dete
rmined without knowing the QNH. B) greater than the density of the ISA atmospher
e at FL180. C) less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. D) equal to
the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. 24454. (all)
With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increase
s with increasing: A) relative humidity. B) air pressure. C) stability. D) tempe
rature. 27120. (all) Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally wil
l be: A) rough with good visibility. B) smooth with low ceiling and visibility.
C) smooth with good visibility. D) smooth with moderate turbulence and good vkib
ility. 28396. (all) In relation to air density which of the following responses
are correct: A) cold air is less dense than warm air. B) dry warm air is less de
nse than cold air. C) if the temperature is decreasing the air density will decr
ease. D) air density is not influenced of air humidity. 28470. (all) Which of th
e following combinations contain the greatest air density? A) High pressure and
high temperature. B) High pressure and low temperature. C) Low pressure and high
temperature. D) Low pressure and low temperature. 28471. (all) Air density is m
ass of air per unity of volume, and is influenced by: A) pressure, latitude and
season. B) pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour. C) altitude. D)
altitude, pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour. 050-01-05 Inter
national Standard Atmosphere (ISA) 8840. (all) The lowest assumed temperature in
the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is: A) -44,7 C B) -273 C C) -56,5 C D)
-100 C 8850. (all) A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate reg
ions which of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL180 B) FL160 C)
FL100 D) FL390 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 11 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8869 (A) 8882 (C)
8884 (A) 10073 (C) 10120 (A) 10125 (B) 10127 (D) 10136 (D) 10736 (C) 10763 (B) 1
0888 (A) 24253 (C) 24336 (C) 8869. (all) A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in he
ight. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable?
A) FL100 B) FL180 C) FL300 D) FL390 8882. (all) The temperature at 10.000 ft in
the International Standard Atmosphere is: A) -20 C B) 0 C C) -5 C D) -35 C 8884. (al
l) If you are flying at FL120 and the outside temperature is -2 C, at what altitu
de will the freezing level be? A) FL110 B) FL130 C) FL150 D) FL90 10073. (all) A
850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the fo
llowing average heights is applicable? A) FL300 B) FL100 C) FL50 D) FL390 10120.
(all) If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15 C warmer than a stand
ard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? A) -30 C B) -45 C C)
-60 C D) -15 C 10125. (all) In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease
in temperature with height below 11 km is: A) 1 C per 100 m. B) 0,65 C per 100 m.
C) 0,5 C per 100 m. D) 0,6 C per 100 m. 10127. (all) What is the vertical tempera
ture lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere? A) 2 C per 1.000 m
. B) 4,5 C per 1.000 m. C) 3 C per 1.000 m. D) 6,5 C per 1.000 m. 10136. (all) A 20
0 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable? A) FL50 B) FL300 C) FL100 D) FL390
10736. (all) A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions w
hich of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL100 B) FL390
C) FL300 D) FL50 10763. (all) If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is
10 C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to
be? A) +15 C B) +5 C C) -10 C D) -15 C 10888. (all) Which statement is correct rega
rding the International Standard Atmosphere? A) At MSL temperature is 15 C and pr
essure is 1.013,25 hPa. B) At MSL temperature is 15 C and the decrease in tempera
ture with height is 1 C per 100 m. C) At MSL temperature is 10 C and the decrease
in temperature with height is 1 C per 100 m. D) At MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa a
nd the decrease of temperature with height is 1 C per 100 m. 24253. (all) Between
mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standa
rd Atmosphere (ISA) is: A) -44,7 C B) -273 C C) -56,5 C D) -100 C 24336. (all) The I
CAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate o
f: A) 2 C per 1.000 ft up to 65.617 ft after which it will remain constant to 104
.987 ft. B) 1,98 C per 1.000 ft up to 36.090 ft and will then rise at 0,3 C per 1.
000 ft up to 65.617 ft when it will remain constant. C) 1,98 C per 1.000 ft up to
36.090 ft after which it remains constant to 65.617 ft. D) 2 C per 1.000 ft up t
o 36.090 ft and will then increase at 0,3 C per 1.000 ft up to 65.617 ft. 050-01
THE ATMOSPHERE 12 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24447 (A) 27044 (D) 27193 (C) 27210 (C)
27377 (B) 27378 (A) 27379 (D) 27380 (C) 27381 (A) 27382 (C) 27383 (B) 27386 (B)
27387 (C) 27388 (C) 27395 (A) 24447. (all) Which statement is correct regarding
the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? A) At MSL temperature is 15 C and pressure is 1.013
,25 hPa. B) At MSL temperature is 15 C and the decrease in temperature with heigh
t is 1 C per 100 m. C) At MSL temperature is 10 C and the decrease in temperature
with height is 1 C per 100 m. D) At MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa and the decrease
of temperature with height is 1 C per 100 m. 27044. (all) You are departing an a
erodrome (600 RAMSL, QNH 1.012 hPa) and proceed to another airfield (195 RAMSL)
with the
same QNH. After landing, which barometric setting on the altimeter makes it agai
n indicate 600 ft? A) 997 B) 1.032 C) 992 D) 1.027 27193. (all) The temperature
at sea level in the ISA is: A) +12,5 C B) +25 C C) +15 C D) 0 C 27210. (all) The pre
ssure at sea level in the ISA is: A) 1.012,35 hPa B) 1.025,13 hPa C) 1.013,25 hP
a D) 29,95 inHg 27377. (all) At an altitude of 500 m AMSL, a temperature of +15 C
is measured. What will the temperatire be at an altitude of 2.500 m, if you con
sider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) +4 C B) +2 C C) 0 C D
) 2 C 27378. (all) FL80, an OAT +6 C is measured. What will the temperature be at
FL130, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -
4 C B) +2 C C) 0 C D) 6 C 27379. (all) FL110, an OAT -5 C is measured. What will the
temperature be at FL50, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard
Atmosphere? A) -3 C B) +3 C C) 0 C D) +7 C 27380. (all) FL140, an OAT -12 C is measu
red. What will the temperature be at FL110, if you consider the temperature grad
ient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) +2 C B) 0 C C) -6 C D) -18 C 27381. (all) FL160,
an OAT -22 C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL90, if you consider
the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -8 C B) -4 C C) +4 C D) 0 C
27382. (all)
An OAT of -15 C at the 700 hPa pressure level: A) equals approximately (45 C) ISA.
B) is high. C) is low. D) is almost impossible. 27383. (all) An OAT of -30 C at
the 300 hPa pressure level: A) equals approximately (5 C) ISA. B) is high. C) is l
ow. D) is almost impossible. 27386. (all) An aircraft cruises at FL300 in an air
mass, which is 15 C warmer than the Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore: A
) -60 C B) -30 C C) -45 C D) -15 C 27387. (all) An aircraft cruises at FL100 in an a
ir mass, which is 10 C warmer than the Standart Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore:
A) -10 C B) -15 C C) +5 C D) +15 C 27388. (all) You cruise at FL200 and notice an O
AT of 35 C. The air mass has therefore an average temperature which is: A) 5 C war
mer than ISA. B) 20 C colder than ISA. C) 10 C colder than ISA. D) 5 C colder than
ISA. 27395. (all) What is the ISA temperature at FL110? A) -7 C B) +7 C C) 0 C D) 5
C 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 13 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27397 (A) 27505 (A) 28395 (D) 2
8401 (C) 8807 (A) 8811 (B) 8815 (C) 8818 (A) 8829 (D) 8834 (B) 8836 (D) 8842 (A)
8843 (D) 27397. (all) What is the temperature decrease in the ISA? A) 0,65 C/100
m. B) 0,65 C/1.000 ft. C) 2 C/100 m. D) 1 C/100 m. 27505. (all) A temperature of 1
0 C above ISA is observed at FL180. What is the vertical distance between FL60 an
d FL120? A) 6.240 ft B) 6.000 ft C) 5.760 ft D) 3.000 ft 28395. (all) The intern
ational standard atmosphere (ISA) is defined for
mean sea level as: A) 1015,25 hPa, 15 C, and a density of 1.225 kg/m3. B) 1015,25
hPa, 15 C, with a lapse rate of 2 C per 1.000 ft. C) 1013,25 hPa, 15 C, a temperat
ure lapse rate of 2 C per 1.000 ft. and a humidity of 5%. D) 1013,25 hPa, 15 C, a
temperature lapse rate of 2 C per 1.000 ft. and a density of 1,225 kg/m3. 28401.
(all) The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is
: A) 1 C/100 m B) 0,5 C/100 m C) 0,65 C/100 m D) 0,6 C/100 m 050-01-06 Altimetry 880
7. (all) In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1.411 f
t. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is: A) 942 hPa B) 967 hPa C) 961 hPa D) 948 hPa
8811. (all) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1.0
09 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at
the transition level? A) It will increase. B) It will decrease. C) It will remai
n the same. D) It will not be affected. 8815. (all) The QNH at an airfield locat
ed 200 metres above sea level is 1.009 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C lower tha
n a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? A) Less than 1.009 hPa. B) 1.009 hPa.
C) More than 1.009 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. 8818.
(all) An aircraft is flying at FL80. The local QNH is 1.000 hPa. After the seco
nd altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximate
ly: A) 7.650 ft B) 8.600 ft C) 8.350 ft D) 8.000 ft 8829. (all) The QFF at an ai
rfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1.030 hPa. The air tem
perature is 10 C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? A) It is not
possible to give a definitive answer. B) Less than 1.030 hPa. C) 1.030 hPa. D) M
ore than 1.030 hPa. 8834. (all) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevati
on 1.240 ft, QNH 1.008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1.013 hPa. The altimeter wi
ll indicate: A) 1.200 ft B) 1.375 ft
C) 1.105 ft D) 1.280 ft 8836. (all) The following temperatures have been observe
d over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temp
erature in degrees C. 20.000 -12; 18.000 -11; 16.000 -10; 14.000 -10; 12.000 -6;
10.000 -2; 8.000 +2; 6.000 +6; 4.000 +12; 2.000 +15; surface +15. A) The layer
between 16.000 and 18.000 ft is absolutely unstable. B) The height of the freezi
ng level over the station is approximately 12.000 ft. C) The temperature at 10.0
00 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard Atmosph
ere. D) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa the true altitude of an a
ircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude. 8842. (all) An air
craft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the altim
eter set to 1.013 hPa. What will it indicate? A) 1.080 ft B) 700 ft C) 380 ft D)
0 ft 8843. (all) You are flying at FL130, and your true altitude is 12.000 ft.
What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL130
(QNH 1.013,2 hPa)? A) ISA +12 C. B) ISA 0 C. C) ISA +20 C. D) ISA -20 C. 050-01 THE A
TMOSPHERE 14 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8845 (B) 8861 (C) 8863 (C) 8867 (D) 8870 (C)
8875 (D) 8879 (C) 10030 (B) 10046 (D) 10049 (C) 10052 (D) 10079 (B) 10087 (C) 10
090 (A) 8845. (all) The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if: A) t
he outside air temperature is standard for that height. B) standard atmospheric
conditions occur. C) the air pressure is 1.013,25 hPa at the surface. D) the ind
icated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude. 8861. (all) Which of the foll
owing conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than tha
t actually flown? A) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude. B) Atmosp
heric pressure lower than standard. C) Air temperature higher than standard. D)
Air temperature lower than standard. 8863. (all) What pressure is defined as QFE
? A) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures. B) The pressur
e of the altimeter. C) The pressure at field elevation. D) The pressure reduced
to sea level using ISA temperatures. 8867. (all)
During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transit
ion altitude. If the local QNH is 1.023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter r
eading during the resetting procedure? A) It is not possible to give a definitiv
e answer. B) It will increase. C) It will remain the same. D) It will decrease.
8870. (all) An aircraft is flying at FL180 on the northern hemisphere with a cro
sswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true alti
tude? A) It remains constant. B) It increases. C) It decreases. D) Without knowi
ng temperatures at FL180 this question can not be answered. 8875. (all) In order
to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known? A) Elevation a
nd the temperature at the airfield. B) Temperature at the airfield. C) Elevation
of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. D) Elevation of the airfield. 8879.
(all) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1.025 hPa, what is
the approximate QFE? A) 1.005 hPa B) 995 hPa C) 1.000 hPa D) 1.025 hPa 10030. (a
ll) You are flying at FL200. Outside air temperature is -40 C, and the pressure a
t sea level is 1.033 hPa. What is the true altitude? A) 20.660 feet. B) 19.340 f
eet. C) 21.740 feet. D) 18.260 feet. 10046. (all) The QNH at an airfield located
0 metres above sea level is 1.022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. Wh
at is the QFF? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) Less than 1
.022 hPa. C) More than 1.022 hPa. D) 1.022 hPa. 10049. (all) Which of the follow
ing conditions gives the highest value of the QNH? A) QFE = 1.003 hPa, elevation
= 1.200 ft (366m). B) QFE = 1.000 hPa, elevation = 1.200 ft (366m). C) QFE = 99
5 hPa, elevation = 1.600 ft (488m). D) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1.200 ft (366m
). 10052. (all) Which statement is true? A) QNH can be 1.013,25 only for a stati
on at MSL. B) QNH can not be 1.013,25 hPa. C) QNH is lower than 1.013,25 hPa at
any time. D) QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1.013,25 hPa.
10079. (all) When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure alt
imeter indicates: A) zero while landing. B) elevation while landing. C) elevatio
n while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphe
re. D) zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standar
d Atmosphere. 10087. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) A vertical spacing of 1.000
ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of col
d air advection (ISA -15 C), what would the true vertical separation be? A) More
than 1.000 ft. B) It remains 1.000 ft. C) Less than 1.000 ft. D) Without QNH inf
ormation, it can not be determined. 10090. (all) The QNH at an airfield in Calif
ornia located 69 metres below sea level is 1.018 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C
higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? A) More than 1.018 hPa. B)
Less than 1.018 hPa. C) 1.018 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive an
swer. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 15 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10091 (B) 10101 (D) 10113 (
D) 10124 (B) 10140 (D) 10147 (C) 10162 (A) 10165 (B) 10735 (C) 10740 (D) 10798 (
D) 10799 (D) 10091. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You are planning to fly acro
ss a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12.000 feet abov
e mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10 C warm
er than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1.023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at near
ly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the r
ecommended minimum altitude? A) 12.210 feet. B) 11.520 feet. C) 11.250 feet. D)
11.790 feet. 10101. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You intend to overfly a moun
tain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviatio
n chart, 15.000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15
C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1.023 hPa).
At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum fli
ght altitude? A) 15.900 ft B) 13.830 ft C) 14.370 ft D) 14.100 ft 10113. (all) Q
NH is defined as: A) the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere.
B) the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions. C) QFE reduced to M
SL using the actual conditions. D) QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosph
ere. 10124. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) At which pressure and temperature co
nditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lie
s at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude? A) In a cold low pressure re
gion. B) At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the
QNH is greater than or equal to 1.013 hPa. C) At a temperature less than or equ
al to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1.013 hPa. D) In a warm hig
h pressure region. 10140. (all) The QNH is equal to the QFE if: A) T actual < T
standard. B) T actual = T standard. C) T actual > T standard. D) the elevation =
0. 10147. (all) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperatu
re deviation from ISA is -15 C below FL100. What is the true altitude of FL100? A
) 9.740 ft B) 10.160 ft C) 8.640 ft D) 11.460 ft 10162. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: at
pl, ir) The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1.013,
2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where t
he QNH is 1.023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 ft, the reading on th
e altimeter on the ground will be: A) 20 ft B) 11 ft C) -10 ft D) 560 ft 10165.
(all) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL90; the true altitude is 9.100 fee
t; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass
in which the aircraft is flying? A) It is colder than ISA. B) There is insuffic
ient information to make any assumption. C) It is warmer than ISA. D) Its averag
e temperature is the same as ISA. 10735. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An airc
raft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional QNH is
1.013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its
summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation
of the summit? A) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit. B) A lower
altitude than the elevation of the summit. C) A higher altitude than the elevati
on of the summit. D) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion.
10740. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying through the Alps on
a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in
the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at
an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compare
d to the summits elevation? A) There is insufficient information to come to a co
nclusion. B) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit. C) The same alt
itude as the elevation of the summit. D) A lower altitude than the elevation of
the summit. 10798. (all) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea lev
el is 1.016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C lower than a standard atmosphere. Wh
at is the QNH? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) More than 1
.016 hPa. C) 1.016 hPa. D) Less than 1.016 hPa. 10799. (all) In order to reduce
QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known? A) Elevation of the ai
rfield and the temperature at the airfield. B) Temperature at the airfield. C) E
levation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. D) Elevation of the airfiel
d. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 16 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10803 (B) 10808 (A) 10813 (D)
10816 (C) 10830 (C) 10835 (B) 10836 (A) 10853 (D) 10858 (C) 10859 (B) 10864 (B)
10865 (B) 10868 (A) 10803. (all) After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevat
ion 1.715 ft), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1.310 ft. The altimeter is
set to the pressure value of 1.013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome? A) 1
.015 hPa B) 1.028 hPa C) 1.013 hPa D) 998 hPa 10808. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl,
ir) What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowe
st usable flight level? A) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperat
ure deviation from ISA. B) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative tempera
ture deviation from ISA. C) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temper
ature deviation from ISA. D) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative tempera
ture deviation from ISA. 10813. (all) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL10
0, with a true altitude of 10.000 feet; local QNH is 1.003 hPa. What assumption,
if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) Ther
e is insufficient information to come to any conclusion. B) Its average temperat
ure is about ISA. C) It is colder than ISA. D) It is warmer than ISA. 10816. (al
l) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared
to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerou
s? A) Cold high. B) Warm depression. C) Cold low. D) Warm high. 10830. (all) An
aircraft flying at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QN
H 1.006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that
: A) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested. B) the air at Palma de
Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille. C) the air at Palma de Mallorca is w
armer than that at Marseille. D) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect. 108
35. (all) During a flight over the sea at FL135, the true altitude is 13.500 fee
t; local QNH is 1.019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) Its average temperature is the same as
ISA. B) It is colder than ISA. C) It is warmer than ISA. D) There is insufficie
nt information to make any assumption. 10836. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) If
atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10 C in
the lower troposphere up to 18.000 ft, what is the actual layer thickness betwe
en FL60 and FL120? A) 6.240 ft B) 6.000 ft C) 5.900 ft D) 5.760 ft 10853. (all)
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1.000 hPa. The approximat
e elevation of the airfield is: A) 120 metres. B) 600 metres. C) 540 metres. D)
160 metres. 10858. (all) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 9
80 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? A) 1.015 hPa B) 1.000 hPa C) 1.005 hPa D) 1
.010 hPa 10859. (all) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1.00
0 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? A) 985 hPa B) 1.025 hPa C) 990 hPa D) 1.035
hPa 10864. (all) An altimeter adjusted to 1.013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3.6
00 ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the
altitude indicated would be: A) 2.922 ft B) 3.006 ft C) 4.278 ft
D) 4.194 ft 10865. (all) You are flying at FL160. Outside air temperature is -27
C, and the pressure at sea level is 1.003 hPa. What is the true altitude? A) 15.
630 feet. B) 15.090 feet. C) 16.370 feet. D) 16.910 feet. 10868. (AIR: atpl, ir;
HELI: atpl, ir) During a flight over the sea at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012
hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly incr
easing. What action, if any, should be taken? A) None, the reason for the change
is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille. B) Have y
our altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong. C) Recheck the
QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong. D) Compensate by heading furthe
r to the left. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 17 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10873 (C) 10876 (B
) 10881 (B) 15812 (C) 15824 (B) 15825 (B) 15826 (C) 15827 (D) 15828 (B) 15836 (B
) 15852 (D) 15857 (C) 15889 (B) 10873. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) During a
flight at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.015 h
Pa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is tha
t: A) the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca. B) the alti
meters are erroneous, and need to be tested. C) the air at Marseille is warmer t
han that at Palma de Mallorca. D) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect. 10
876. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) During a flight over the sea at FL100 from
Marseille (QNH 1.016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.016 hPa), the true altitud
e is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this? A) One of the
QNH values must be wrong. B) The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma d
e Mallorca. C) The altimeter is faulty. D) The aircraft is being blown off track
to the left. 10881. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You plan a flight over a mo
untain range at a true altitude of 15.000 ft/AMSL. The air is on an average 15 C
colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1.003 hPa. What indication must th
e altimeter (setting 1.013,2 hPa) read? A) 15.690 ft B) 16.170 ft C) 14.370 ft D
) 13.830 ft 15812. (all) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH a
t an airport situated 50 ft below sea level? A) QFE equals QNH. B) No clear rela
tionship exists. C) QFE is greater than QNH.
D) QFE is smaller than QNH. 15824. (all) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metr
es above sea level is 1.022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is t
he QFF? A) Less than 1.022 hPa. B) It is not possible to give a definitive answe
r. C) More than 1.022 hPa. D) 1.022 hPa. 15825. (all) If the QNH at Locarno (200
metres above sea level) is 1.015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hP
a = 8 m) A) 1.005 hPa B) 990 hPa C) 995 hPa D) 1.000 hPa 15826. (all) An aircraf
t is flying over the sea at FL120, with a true altitude of 12.000 feet, local QN
H is 1.013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which
the aircraft is flying? A) It is warmer than ISA. B) There is insufficient info
rmation to come to any conclusion. C) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
. D) It is colder than ISA. 15827. (all) During the climb after takeoff, the alt
imeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 h
Pa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? A)
It will decrease. B) It will remain the same. C) It is not possible to give a d
efinitive answer. D) It will increase. 15828. (all) (Refer to figure 050-14) An
aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind
speed at A and at B is the same. B) The true altitude will be higher at A than
at B. C) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A. D) Wind speed at A is
higher than at B. 15836. (all) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is
noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1.013,2 hPa and that it reads 1.200
feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level? A) 2.280 feet
. B) 660 feet. C) 1.200 feet. D) 1.740 feet. 15852. (all) Which of the following
statements is true? A) QNH is always lower than QFE. B) QNH is always higher th
an QFE. C) QNH is always equal to QFE. D) QNH can be equal to QFE. 15857. (all)
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a
field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4.000 ft is 1.025 hPa and the temp
erature is -20 C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1.025 h
Pa is set in the subscale? A) 4.000 ft. B) Less than 0 ft. C) 0 ft. D) More than
0 ft, but less than 4.000 ft. 15889. (all) Before landing, an altimeter set to
QFE indicates: A) the height of the aircraft s wheels above the runway. B) in st
andard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevati
on. C) the flight level. D) the aircraft s altitude above the mean sea level. 05
0-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 18 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16504 (A) 16505 (C) 16510 (A) 16512
(B) 16514 (C) 16515 (B) 16516 (D) 16520 (D) 16521 (D) 16522 (C) 16524 (B) 16527
(B) 16535 (D) 16504. (all) Suppose that you are flying at FL40 and that you res
et the altimeter to reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates: A)
about 3.400 ft. B) about 3.700 ft. C) about 4.300 ft. D) about 4.600 ft. 16505.
(all) In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the ai
rport elevation when landing? A) If QFF on the airport is set as reference. B) I
f QFE of the airport is set as reference. C) If QNH of the airport is set as ref
erence. D) At standard setting. 16510. (all) At an airport 1.700 ft above sea le
vel the temperature reading is +10 C . from the barometer readings made at the sa
me time QFE, QFF nad QNH are computed. Which of the following statements concern
ing air pressure in correct? A) QFF is higher than QNH. B) QFF is equal to QNH.
C) QFF is equal to QFE. D) QNH is equal to QFE. 16512. (all) When landing at an
airport you have correctly set QNH = 1.023 hPa as reference pressure on your alt
imeter. The altimeter indicates 1.200 ft after landing. Suppose that you change
the pressure reference to standard setting (1.013 hPa). What will your altimeter
indicate? A) 0 ft B) 900 ft C) 1.200 ft D) 1.500 ft 16514. (all) What will the
altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10.000 ft when the pressure a
ltitude is 10.000 ft at OAT -30 C?
A) 9.000 ft B) 10.000 ft C) 11.000 ft D) 12.000 ft 16515. (all) A barometric alt
imeter always indicates: A) correct altitude to the terrain below. B) altitude t
o the set altitude reference. C) standard altitude. D) the dynamic pressure. 165
16. (all) Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport el
evation. Which of the following pressures will you use as reference? A) Standard
(1.013,25). B) QFE. C) QFF. D) QNH. 16520. (all) A pressure altimeter indicates
: A) actual altitude above MSL. B) actual altitude above the terrain below. C) t
he distance between two isobaric surfaces in the actual atmoshpere. D) the dista
nce between two isobaric surfaces in the standard atmosphere. 16521. (all) You a
re flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your altimeter set
ting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a minimum a true alti
tude? 1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that an area of high pressure. 2
) Flying from an area of high pressure to that an area of low pressure. 3) Flyin
from a warm air mass to a cold air mass. 4) Flying from a cold air mass to a wa
rm air mass. A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 4 D) 2, 3 16522. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl,
ir) You are fying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5.600 ft. Airport
elevation = 2.785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value of
993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a hig
ht above ground of: (standard pressure setting = 1.013 hPa, 1 hPa = 27 ft) A) 5.
000 ft B) 5.600 ft C) 2.815 ft D) 2.215 ft 16524. (all) At the official measurin
g level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at QNH for the airpor
t, should read: A) the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temper
ature. B) the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature. C) zero, rega
rdless of temperature. D) zero, only at standard ISA temperature. 16527. (all) W
hich one of the following conditions gives the shortest
takeoff run, if the airports have the same QNH? A) High temperature and low airp
ort elevation. B) Low temperature and low airport elevation. C) High temperature
and high airport elevation. D) Low temperature and high airport elevation. 1653
5. (all) On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH
is set. A) airfield elevation; airfield altitude B) zero ft; airfield altitude C
) zero ft; airfield height D) zero ft; airfield elevation 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE
19 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16541 (C) 16543 (B) 16568 (D) 24011 (D) 24189 (D) 24190
(D) 24229 (A) 24236 (D) 24237 (C) 24238 (C) 24239 (A) 24240 (B) 16541. (AIR: at
pl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying at FL75 over point A where the QNH
is 1.013 hPa, enroute to B where the QNH is 979 hPa. Assuming that 1hPa equals
27 ft and that point B is 823 metres amsl the terrain clearance over B is: A) 6.
480 ft B) 4.280 ft C) 4.072 ft D) 5.680 ft 16543. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
) An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5.000 ft from X (elevation 8
50 ft, QNH 984 hPa) to Y (elevation 2.300 ft QNH 1.024 hPa). Assuming that the a
ltimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 27 ft, the height of the aircra
ft over X and Y will be: A) 5.000 ft; 3.900 ft. B) 4.150 ft; 3.780 ft. C) 4.150
ft; 1.500 ft. D) 5.000 ft; 1.500 ft. 16568. (all) The altimeter reading of press
ure must be corrected for the following errors: A) temperature, index, instrumen
t. B) index, temperature, pressure. C) instrument, gravity, temperature. D) inst
rument, temperature, pressure. 24011. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraf
t is flying at FL150, with an outside air temperature of -30, above an airport wh
ere the elevation is 1.660 ft and the QNH is 993 hPa. Calculate the true altitud
e. (Assume 27 ft = 1 hPa) A) 15.210 ft B) 14.120 ft C) 17.160 ft D) 13.660 ft 24
189. (all) (Refer to figure 050-15) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point
B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which
of these statements is correct? A) Wind speed at B is higher than at A.
B) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B. C) Wind speed at Madrid is h
igher than at A. D) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A. 24190. (all
) (Refer to figure 050-16) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the
upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which of these
statements is correct? A) Wind speed at B is higher than at A. B) The true altit
ude will be higher at A than at B. C) Wind speed at A and at B is the same. D) T
he true altitude will be higher at B than at A. 24229. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atp
l, ir) An aeroplane flies at FL40. Elevation of the aerodrome is 990 ft QNH 976
hPa. The tower clears the pilot to fly at 3.000 ft QNH. Which of the following s
tatements is correct? A) Only a small change of altitude is necessary. B) The ae
roplane has to climb about 1.000 ft. C) The aeroplane has to descend about 1.000
ft. D) The aeroplane has to descend about 2.000 ft. 24236. (all) An aircraft fl
ying at FL45 (OAT 6 C) obtains a reading of 1.860 ft on its radio altimeter (grou
nd elevation 3.090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at tha
t point? A) 1.042 B) 996 C) 1.013 D) 1.030 24237. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4.500 ft from A (360 ft
/AMSL - QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/ AMSL - QNH 1.011 hPa). Assuming that the alti
meter subscale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height of the aircraft
above the surface at B are: A) 4.815 ft B) 3.135 ft C) 4.485 ft D) 5.175 ft 2423
8. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated al
titude of 5.500 ft from A (1.050 ft/AMSL - QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 ft/ AMSL - QNH
1.016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 9
68 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A) 4.854 ft B) 6.
796 ft C) 6.146 ft D) 7.446 ft 24239. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraf
t maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6.500 ft from A (600 ft/AMSL - QNH
1012 hPa) to B (930 ft/ AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscal
e setting remains unchanged at 1.012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the s
urface at B are: A) 4.625 ft B) 6.515 ft C) 5.555 ft
D) 5.225 ft 24240. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a const
ant indicated altitude of 7.500 ft from A (270 ft/AMSL - QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1.6
50 ft/AMSL - QNH 983 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains
unchanged at 1.021 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A
) 6.204 ft B) 4.824 ft C) 6.876 ft D) 6.474 ft 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 20 2008 AVI
ATIONEXAM.com 24273 (C) 24280 (D) 24313 (D) 24408 (B) 24409 (B) 24410 (C) 24411
(C) 24412 (B) 24456 (D) 24458 (A) 27043 (A) 27045 (A) 27046 (D) 27047 (B) 24273.
(AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Given: Altimeter setting: 1.013,2 hPa Altimeter
reading: 5.000 ft Outside air temperature at 5.000 ft: +5 C QFE: 958 hPa QNH: 98
3 hPa What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome? A) 4.325 ft
B) 4.190 ft C) 3.515 ft D) 4.865 ft 24280. (all) If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an a
irport have the same value: A) the 1.013,25 hPa level must be at MSL. B) the con
ditions must be as in the ISA. C) the airport must be at MSL and the conditions
must be as in the ISA. D) the airport must be at MSL. 24313. (all) Pressure alti
tude is obtained by: A) setting the altimeter to QFF pressure. B) correcting the
altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA. C) setting the altimeter to a sta
tion pressure which has been corrected to sea level. D) setting the altimeter to
standard sea level pressure. 24408. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa
pressure level? A) FL300 B) FL390 C) FL100 D) FL50 24409. (all) Which FL corres
ponds with the 300 hPa pressure level? A) FL390 B) FL300 C) FL100 D) FL50 24410.
(all) Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level? A) FL100
B) FL160 C) FL180 D) FL390 24411. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pr
essure level? A) FL300 B) FL180 C) FL100 D) FL390 24412. (all) Which FL correspo
nds with the 850 hPa pressure level? A) FL100 B) FL50 C) FL300 D) FL390 24456. (
all) You are flying at FL340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is g
eostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true alti
tude will: A) increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising o
n your route. B) decrease. C) decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is d
ecreasing on your route. D) increase. 24458. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You
are flying over the sea at FL250 and measure an outside temperature of -50 C. Th
e pressure at sea level is 1.023 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude cal
culated using normal vertical change in temperature with increase in height? A)
23.770 ft AMSL. B) 26.230 ft AMSL. C) 26.770 ft AMSL. D) 23.230 ft AMSL. 27043.
(all) When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1.013,2 hPa,
what type of altitude is being measured? A) Preaure altitude. B) Indicated altit
ude. C) True altitude. D) Relative height. 27045. (all) When the altimeter indic
ated 0 (zero) ft when the aircraft was parked for the night, and 1.000 ft the fo
llowing morning, this shows that: A) the barometric pressure has decreasedby app
rox. 37 hPa. B) the barometric pressure is constant, but the temperature has fal
len during the night. C) a formation of fog has most probably taken place. D) th
e barometric prenure has increased by approx. 37 hPa. 27046. (all) Without readj
usting the barometric setting of the altimeter, it will under-read when: A) flyi
ng from a high pressure area into a low pressure area. B) flying in headwind wit
h constant barometric pressure. C) flying in tailwind with constant barometric p
ressure. D) flying from a low prenure area into a high pressure area. 27047. (al
l)
An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up
to 2.400 metres AMSL. If the regional QNH is 998 hPa, what is the approximate te
rrain clearance? A) 2.536 feet. B) 1.700 feet. C) 7.821 feet. D) 405 feet. 050-0
1 THE ATMOSPHERE 21 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27191 (B) 27401 (A) 27402 (A) 27424 (A
) 27426 (A) 27433 (A) 27441 (A) 27598 (A) 27599 (A) 27600 (C) 27601 (D) 27602 (D
) 27603 (C) 27191. (all) An aircraft, flying so that the altimeter indicates 2.5
00 ft with the current regional QNH set in the subscale, is flying towards an ar
ea of lower pressure. If the pilot fails to revise the subscale setting as the Q
NH changes, then the aircraft will: A) gradually climb. B) gradually descend. C)
maintain 2.500 ft AMSL. D) no anumption is possible. 27401. (all) While passing
the Transition Level, you set the subscale on your altimeter to the local QNH o
f 1.009 hPa: A) your indicated altitude decreases. B) your indicated altitude in
creases. C) a statement is not possible without the knowledge of the exact OAT.
D) your setting is wrong, the subscale must be set to 1.013,2 hPa. 27402. (all)
On takeoff, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1.023 hPa. While passing t
he Transition Altitude, you adjust the subscale accordingly: A) your indicated a
ltitude decreases. B) your indicated altitude increases. C) a statement is not p
oseible without the knowledge of the exad OAT. D) the altimeter setting must rem
ain at 1.023 hPa. 27424. (all) What condition would cause that your altimeter is
indicating lower than actually flown? A) Temperature higher than standard. B) T
emperature lower than standard. C) Standard temperature. D) Pressure lower than
standard. 27426. (all) You fly over the sea at FL90, TA 9.100R, QNH unknown. Wha
t can be assumpted? A) No assumption is possible, because the information is not
sufficient. B) It is warmer than ISA. C) It is colder than ISA. D) The QNH is l
ower than 1.013 hPa. 27433. (all) Your altimeter is blocked at 1.000 hPa. You ha
ve to overfly a mountain (8.000 ft) with a terrain clearance of at least
1.500 ft. What will be your indicated altitude when the QNH of a nearby airport
is 990 hPa and the temperature is 10 C colder than ISA? A) 10.150 ft B) 10.501 ft
C) 8.850 ft D) 9.500 ft 27441. (all) You are flying at FL100 in an air mass whi
ch is 15 C colder than ISA, local QNH 983. True altitude? A) 8.590 ft B) 11.410 f
t C) 10.000 ft D) 10.210 ft 27598. (all) While mountain flying on a cold winter
day, under fair weather conditions (QNH 1.013 hPa) you circle a mountain of know
n height at peak elevation. Comparing to the elevation of the mountain, the aner
oid altimeter of your aircraft will therefore indicate: A) a higher altitude. B)
a lower altitude. C) peak elevation. D) cannot be determined. 27599. (all) Whil
e mountain flying on a warm summer day under high pressure conditions, you circl
e a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the indication of y
our altimeter, the peak elevation will therefore be: A) higher. B) lower. C) equ
al. D) cannot be determined. 27600. (all) You have landed on an airport (elevati
on 1.240 ft, QNH 1.008 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is erroneously set to 1.013
hPa. Therefore, the indication will be: A) 1.105 ft B) 1.200 ft C) 1.375 ft D)
1.280 ft 27601. (all) You are cruising at FL200, OAT -40 C, sea level pressure 1.
033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude: A) 20.660 ft B) 21.740 ft C) 18.260 ft D)
19.340 ft 27602. (all) You intend to ovefly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 1
5.000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 15 C lower than ISA, the sea level
pressure 1.003 hPa. Which altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed? A)
15.630 ft B) 14.370 ft C) 13.830 ft D) 16.170 ft 27603. (all) You have landed on
an airport (elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is erroneou
sly set to
1.013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be: A) 0 ft B) 380 ft C) 1.080 ft D) 7
00 ft 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 22 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27604 (C) 27607 (A) 27609 (
D) 27626 (A) 28392 (C) 28397 (B) 28399 (D) 28400 (A) 28403 (A) 27604. (all) You
intend to ovefly a mountain ridge. The recommended minimum altitude for overflig
ht according to your ICAO chart is 12.000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature i
s 10 C higher than ISA, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1023 hPa. Which
altimeter indication is needed to maintain the recomended minimum altitude? A)
11.205 ft B) 12.210 ft C) 11.250 ft D) 11.790 ft 27607. (all) You have landed at
an airport, local QNH 993 hPa. After landing, you notice, that your altimeter s
ubscale is still set to 1.013,2 hPa. Your altimeter indicates 1.200 ft. What is
the airport elevation? A) 660 ft AMSL. B) 40 ft AMSL. C) 2.280 ft AMSL. D) 1.200
ft AMSL. 27609. (all) You are cruising at FL160 at an OAT of -27 C. The sea leve
l pressure is 1.003 hPa. Your true altitude therefore is: A) 15.630 ft B) 16.370
ft C) 16.910 ft D) 15.090 ft 27626. (all) Your altimeter indicates 3.600 ft, wh
ile set to standard pressure. You now adjust the subscale to the local QNH of 99
1 hPa. What will the indication be? A) 3.006 ft B) 4.194 ft C) 3.600 ft D) 3.320
ft 28392. (all) The altimeter is connected to: A) the pitot tube. B) the dynami
c system. C) the static system. D) the elevator. 28397. (all) In spite of a cons
tant altimeter reading your aircraft is loosing altitude. This could be caused b
y: A) flying towards high pressure. B) flying towards low pressure. C) the stand
ard air pressure has fallen. D) increased temperature.
28399. (all) What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield
3.000 ft above MSL, altimeter setting is QFE for the field and local temperatur
e is +25 C? A) 3.300 ft B) 3.000 ft C) 2.700 ft D) 0 ft 28400. (all) The temperat
ure is -15 C on an airport 3.000 ft above mean sea level. Which of the following
statements is correct? A) QFF > QNH B) QFF = QFE C) QFF = QNH D) QNH = QFE 28403
. (all) Which of altimeter settings is used when flying in flight levels? A) 101
3,25 hPa B) 1025,13 hPa C) QFF D) QFE 050-02 WIND 23 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8940
(C) 8944 (A) 8947 (D) 8952 (A) 8953 (A) 8963 (B) 8988 (A) 8994 (B) 10561 (A) 105
62 (B) 10600 (D) 10632 (D) 10648 (D) 10687 (B) 050-02-01 Definition and measurem
ent 8940. (all) What is the approximate speed of a 40 kts wind, expressed in m/s
ec? A) 25 m/sec. B) 15 m/sec. C) 20 m/sec. D) 30 m/sec. 8944. (all) (Refer to fi
gure 050-28) What does zone A depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm secto
r. D) The cold front. 8947. (all) What values are used for the forecasted wind a
t higher levels? A) Direction relative to grid north and speed in km/h. B) Direc
tion relative to magnetic north and speed in knots. C) Direction relative to mag
netic north and speed in km/h. D) Direction relative to true north and speed in
knots. 8952. (all) The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above
the friction layer because: A) the coriolis force tends to balance with the hori
zontal pressure gradient force. B) contour lines are lines that connect points w
ith the same windspeed in the upper air. C) the coriolis force acts perpendicula
r on a line that connects high and low pressure system. D) the friction of the a
ir with the Earth s surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the g
radient force.
8953. (all) During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic
conditions, the: A) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early aft
ernoon. B) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night. C) angle between iso
bars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon. D)
wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon. 8963. (all) (Refer
to figure 050-08) Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B? A)
2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 8988. (all) (Refer to figure 050-90) On which route do you exp
ect moderate to severe CAT at FL300? A) Zurich-Rome. B) London-Zurich. C) Zurich
-Copenhagen. D) Paris-Bordeaux. 8994. (all) Wind is caused by? A) Mixing of fron
ts. B) Horizontal pressure difference. C) Earth rotation. D) Surface friction. 1
0561. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) What wind speed do you expect over Rome at
FL340? A) 145 kts B) 340 kts C) 95 kts D) 140 km/h 10562. (all) What causes surf
ace winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the iso
bars? A) Coriolis force. B) Surface friction. C) The greater density of the air
at the surface. D) The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface. 10600. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-63) What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-St
ockholm at FL240? A) Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas.
B) Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditio
ns. C) You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently. D) Your flight will be pe
rmanently clear of clouds. 10632. (all) What is the approximate speed of a 25 kt
s wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? A) 60 km/h B) 35 km/h C) 55 km/h
D) 45 km/h 10648. (all) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressu
re areas to low-pressure areas? A) The pressure gradient force. B) Surface frict
ion. C) Katabatic force. D) Coriolis force. 10687. (all) What is the approximate
speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots: A) 55 kts B) 50 kts C) 60 kts D) 7
0 kts 050-02 WIND 24 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10702 (A) 10783 (D) 15860 (D) 15862 (
A) 16600 (C) 16609 (D) 24219 (A) 24294 (D) 27037 (A) 27038 (A) 27114 (A) 27115 (
B) 27131 (B) 27134 (C) 10702. (all) The difference between geostrophic wind and
gradient wind is caused by: A) curvature of isohypses. B) friction. C) horizonta
l temperature gradients. D) slope of pressure surfaces. 10783. (all) (Refer to f
igure 050-28) What does zone B depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sect
or. D) The cold front. 15860. (all) In an area of converging air in low level: A
) convective clouds can be dissolved. B) stratified clouds can be dissolved. C)
clouds can not be formed. D) clouds can be formed. 15862. (all) What relationshi
p exists between the wind at 3.000 feet and the surface wind? A) The wind at 3.0
00 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across th
e isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker. B) They have t
he same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction. C) They a
re practically the same except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles. D) The su
rface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3.000 feet and is usually weaker. 1
6600. (all) Buys Ballot s law implies that: A) the wind blows anti-clockwise rou
nd depressions in both hemispheres. B) the wind blows clockwise round an anticyc
lone in the southern hemisphere.
C) the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere only.
D) the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the northern hemisphere.
16609. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) A gale has an averag
e speed of 33 kts or more. B) A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
. C) The more stable the atmosphere, the more turbulence. D) The more stable the
atmosphere, the less turbulence. 24219. (all) A wind of 20 knots corresponds to
an approximate speed of: A) 10 m/sec B) 40 m/sec C) 10 km/h D) 50 km/h 24294. (
all) In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows: A) direct f
rom high to low pressure areas. B) clockwise around anticyclones and cyclones. C
) clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anticyclones. D) clockwise
around anticyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones. 27037. (all) What is dr
izzle? A) Small water droplets of 0,2 to 0,5 mm in diameter. B) Water droplets o
f more than 0,5 mm in diameter. C) Precipitation which forms mostly in CB and CU
clouds. D) Typical precipitation, when NS clouds are present. 27038. (all) What
(amongst other) is the purpose for consulting an SWC chart prior to flight? A)
To avoid areas with turbulence. B) To obtain exact weather information for the d
estination airport. C) To obtain complete weather forecastsfor the entire route
of flight. D) To obtain weather information for a VFR flight only. 27114. (all)
Evaporation is the change of: A) liquid water to water vapour. B) water vapour t
o ice. C) invisible water vapour to liquid water. D) ice diredly to water vapour
. 27115. (all) Water droplets often condense or persist at temperature colder th
an 0 C. What are the droplets called which are colder than 0 C? A) Super-heated wa
ter droplets. B) Supercooled water droplets. C) Ice. D) None of the above. 27131
. (all) The direction of the pressure gradient force is? A) Towards high pressur
e. B) Towards low pressure. C) Parallel to the isobars. D) Same direction as the
friction force. 27134. (all)
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at some altitude above
the ground? A) Snow. B) Hail. C) Ice pellets. D) Ice crystals. 050-02 WIND 25 2
008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27141 (B) 27143 (C) 27144 (B) 27147 (C) 27151 (A) 27162 (A)
27194 (C) 27208 (A) 27245 (C) 27250 (A) 27252 (B) 27314 (A) 27315 (A) 27410 (A)
27141. (all) Thermal turbulence is caused by: A) wing-tip vortexes. B) vertical
movements due convection flow in unstable air. C) deviations due to mountain te
rrain. D) smooth air movements upon smooth subdratum. 27143. (all) What relation
ship exists between the winds at 2.000 ft above the surface and the surface wind
s? A) The winds at 2.000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, bu
t the surface winds are weaker due to friction. B) The winds at 2.000 ft and the
surface winds are approximately the same except when eddies form due to obstruc
tions. C) The winds at 2.000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface w
inds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. D) The
surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2.000 ft and are visuall
y weaker. 27144. (all) Possible mountain wave turbulence should be anticipated i
n cases where windspeeds of: A) 20 kts or greater blow across a mountain ridge,
and the air is unstable. B) 25 kts or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and
the air is stable. C) 25 kts or greater blow down a mountain valley, and the air
is unstable. D) 25 kts or greater blow parallel to a mountain peak, and the air
is stable. 27147. (all) Which force, in the northern hemisphere, acts at a righ
t angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
A) Centrifugal. B) Pressure gradient. C) Coriolis. D) Advection. 27151. (all) A
trough is a: A) kind of low pressure. B) high pressure ridge. C) tropical thunde
rstorm. D) tropical wind. 27162. (all) If you are flying into an area of low pre
ssure, what drift would you expect to be experience in the northern hemisphere?
A) Right drift. B) None C) Left drift. D) Ice directly to water vapor. 27194. (a
ll) A wind that has changed clockwise in direction can be said to have: A) reduc
ed B) backed C) veered D) advanced 27208. (all) There is a natural tendency for
air to flow from areas of: A) high pressure to low pressure. B) low pressure to
high pressure. C) mountainous areas to flat areas. D) flat terrain towards the s
ea. 27245. (all) A V-shaped extension of a low pressure area is called a: A) rid
ge B) col C) trough D) occlusion 27250. (all) If you stand with your back to the
wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure will be: A) on your left. B)
on your right. C) behind you. D) ahead of you. 27252. (all) The wind at the surf
ace is 240/15 kts. What is it most likely to be at 2.000 ft? A) 210/30 kts B) 27
0/30 kts C) 280/15 kts D) 210/15 kts 27314. (all) What prevents air from flowing
directly from high to low pressure areas over western Europe? A) Coriolis force
. B) Surface friction. C) Pressure gradient force. D) The presence of occlusions
. 27315. (all) The general circulation of air associated with a low pressure are
a in there is: A) inward, upward and counter clockwise. B) inward, upward and cl
ockwise. C) outward, downward and clockwise. D) inward, downward and counter clo
ckwise. 27410. (all) How is wind measured? A) 8-10 m above the ground on a mastw
ith an anemometer. B) 2 m above the ground in a weather shelter. C) 2 m above th
e ground on a mast with an anemomenter. D) 8-10 m above the ground on a mast wit
h a pluiriometet. 050-02 WIND 26
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27419 (B) 27423 (C) 27432 (C) 27439 (A) 27440 (A) 27445 (A
) 27446 (A) 27447 (A) 27461 (A) 27477 (A) 27485 (A) 27491 (A) 27495 (A) 27499 (A
) 27502 (A) 27506 (A) 27419. (all) What is the name of the low level winds betwe
en the subtropical high pressure belt and the TCZ? A) Monsoon. B) Trade winds. C
) Easterly wave. D) Low level jetstream. 27423. (all) What is the most frequent
wind in valleys, caused by thermal effects? A) Mountain wind by day. B) Mountain
wind by night. C) Valley wind by day. D) Valley wind by night. 27432. (all) Wha
t can you expect at FL180, when the wind is geostrophic and your true altitude i
s 18.000 ft? A) Crosswind from the right. B) Crosswind from the left. C) No cros
swind. D) None of the above. 27439. (all) Where can ajetstream be observed? A) O
n a Significant Weather Chart (SWC). B) On a high level pressure chart. C) On a
surface chart. D) All of the above. 27440. (all) What can on a Significant Weath
er Chart be depicted? A) The speed and direction of a surface front. B) The spee
d and direction of an upper front. C) The amount of rain in a certain area. D) T
he actual weather situation. 27445. (all) What cloud type is prone to +RA? A) NS
B) AS C) CC D) ST 27446. (all) When is heavy precipitation unlikely? A) In summ
er, with SC and AC clouds. B) In summer, with CB and CU clouds. C) In spring and
autumn, with NS and CB clouds. D) In winter, with CB clouds. 27447. (all) The p
recipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud type: A)
CB B) CU C) NS D) CC 27461. (all) What happens when you descend from 2.000 ft t
o the surface, when no fronts are present? A) The wind backs and decreases.
B) The wind veers and decreases. C) The wind veers and increases. D) The wind ba
cks and the wind speed remains more or less constant. 27477. (all) A trough of l
ow pressure on a surface synoptic chart: A) is an area of convergence and widesp
read ascent. B) is an area of divergence and widespread ascent. C) leads to desc
ending air masses. D) is a narrow band of ascent. 27485. (all) Name the conditio
ns for the formation of radiation fog: A) flat landscape, a clear night, no wind
conditions. B) over the sea with a 20 kts wind. C) mountainous terrain with win
ds of approx. 10 kts, overcast skies. D) flat landscape, a clear night, winds of
10-20 kts. 27491. (all) You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the n
orthern hemisphere: A) if the wind is from the north, there is a gain in altitud
e. B) if the wind is from the south, there is a gain in altitude. C) if you enco
unter a northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude. D) you fly towards an area
of low pressure, and, therefore, experience a less in altitude. 27495. (all) Wi
nd at 2.000 ft 200/40 kts. What would you expect at the surface over the sea app
roximately? A) 190/30 kts B) 185/40 kts C) 210/30 kts D) 220/40 kts 27499. (all)
Which statement is true for condensation? A) Latent heat is released to the atm
osphere. B) Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. C) Latent heat is absor
bed from the surrounding air by the water droplet. D) Precipitation forms. 27502
. (all) Of which air mass does the warm sector of a polar front depression consi
st? A) Maritime tropical air. B) Maritime polar air. C) Continental arctic air.
D) Continental equatorial air. 27506. (all) Which statement is true, when isobar
s stand close together on a surface chart? A) Strong winds are present. B) Light
s winds prevail. C) A high presure area is approaching. D) Westerly winds prevai
l. 050-02 WIND 27 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27643 (A) 27652 (D) 27653 (B) 27655 (C)
27656 (D) 27660 (D) 27745 (A) 2849 (B) 8918 (B) 8965 (C) 8993 (B) 10606 (A) 1063
1 (A) 10644 (A)
27643. (all) The vertical extension of radiation fog during the winter over flat
land is approximately: A) 500 ft. B) 1.000 ft. C) 2.000 ft. D) more than 2.000
ft. 27652. (all) What is sublimation? A) The change of state from ice to water.
B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change of state from w
ater vapour to water. D) The change of state from ice to water vapour or from wa
ter vapour to ice. 27653. (all) What is evaporation? A) The change of state from
ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change
of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from ice to water va
pour or from water vapour to ice. 27655. (all) What is condensation? A) The chan
ge of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour
. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from
ice to water vapour or from water vapour to ice. 27656. (all) What is freezing?
A) The change of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to
water vapour. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change o
f state from water to ice. 27660. (all) In an anticyclone in the northern hemisp
here, with curved isobars, the speed of the gradient wind: A) is lower than the
geostrophic wind. B) equals the cyclostrophic wind. C) depends on Coriolis force
only. D) is greater than the geostrophic wind. 27745. (all) Why are there no or
very few clouds, when a high pressure area is present? A) Because of subsiding
air, subject to adiabatic heating. B) Because of rising air, cooling adiabatical
ly at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. C) The air is warmed from below. D) Wa
rm air moves over a cold surface, thus, generating stability. 050-02-02 Primary
cause of wind 2849. (all) For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind
speed will be? A) Greater at 60N than at 30N. B) Greater at 30N than at 60N. C) Equi
valent to gradient wind thermal component. D) The same at all latitudes north or
south of 15. 8918. (all) The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared
to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being
the same): A) always higher. B) higher if curvature is anticyclonic. C) always l
ower. D) higher if curvature is cyclonic. 8965. (all) What characteristics will
the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very
close together? A) Strong and parallel to the isobars. B) Very weak but gusty an
d flowing across the isobars. C) Strong and flowing across the isobars. D) Moder
ate and parallel to the isobars. 8993. (all) In the southern hemisphere what win
d effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pr
essure area at FL100? A) Wind from the left. B) Wind from the right. C) Tailwind
with no drift. D) Headwind with no drift. 10606. (all) Geostrophic wind is the
wind when isobars are: A) straight lines and no friction is involved. B) curved
lines and no friction is involved. C) straight lines and friction is involved. D
) curved lines and friction is involved. 10631. (all) The geostrophic wind is gr
eater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the: A) centri
fugal force opposes the pressure gradient. B) centrifugal force is added to the
pressure gradient. C) coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient. D) corio
lis force opposes to the centrifugal force. 10644. (all) For the same pressure g
radient at 60N, 50N and 40N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be: A) greatest
at 40N. B) the same at all latitudes. C) greatest at 60N. D) least at 50N. 050-02 W
IND 28 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10645 (D) 10649 (B) 10656 (B) 10692 (D) 10697 (A) 1
0698 (A) 10701 (A) 10719 (C) 10777 (C) 15863 (A) 15865 (B) 15866 (C) 16595 (C) 1
6596 (C) 10645. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Divergence in the upper air results
, near the surface, in: A) falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds. B)
rising pressure and likely formation of clouds. C) rising pressure and likely d
issipation of clouds. D) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds. 10649.
(AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemis
phere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is: A) less than the g
eostrophic wind. B) greater than the geostrophic wind. C) the same as the therma
l component. D) proportional only to the Coriolis force.
10656. (all) The greater the pressure gradient the: A) further the isobars will
be apart and the weaker the wind. B) closer the isobars and the stronger the win
d. C) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures. D) further the isobars
will be apart and the higher the temperature. 10692. (all) Whilst flying at FL18
0 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, i
f any, will this have on the aircrafts true altitude? A) Without knowing the pre
ssure change this question cannot be answered. B) It increases. C) It remains co
nstant. D) It decreases. 10697. (all) When isobars, for an area in the mid-latit
udes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be: A) str
ong. B) blowing perpendicular to the isobars. C) changing direction rapidly. D)
light. 10698. (all) Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow p
atterns around high- and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weathe
r chart. A) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is
greater and wind velocities are stronger. B) Surface winds flow perpendicular to
the isobars. C) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature. D) When the
isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lent
icular clouds. 10701. (all) Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? A)
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force. B) Friction force, pressure gradient f
orce, Coriolis force. C) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal fo
rce. D) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force. 10719. (all)
An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2.000 feet, has to turn to the
right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft
, is the center of low pressure? A) To the left. B) Behind. C) In front. D) To t
he right. 10777. (all) Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to
the ground? A) At the center of a high-pressure system. B) At the center of a l
ow-pressure system. C) In the transition zone between two air masses. D) Where t
here is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months.
15863. (all) The geostrophic wind depends on: A) density, earths rotation, geog
raphic latitude. B) earths rotation, geographic latitude, centrifugal force. C)
geographic latitude, centrifugal force, height. D) centrifugal force, height, pr
essure gradient.
15865. (all) The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the: A) dens
ity of the air. B) horizontal pressure gradient. C) curvature of isobars. D) sin
e of latitude. 15866. (all) Geostrophic wind: A) always increases with increasin
g height. B) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemispher
e. C) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force. D) is directly
proportional to the density of the air. 16595. (all) A pressure gradient is sai
d to exist when: A) two columns of air have different temperatures. B) surface p
ressure is compared at two different points on the earths surface. C) two points
at the same level have a different atmospheric pressure. D) two points on the e
arth s surface have the same isobar passing through them. 16596. (all) The press
ure gradient force acts: A) parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its lef
t (in the northern hemisphere). B) perpendicular to the isobars with low pressur
e behind it. C) perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure. D)
parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure. 050-02 WIND 29 2008 AVIAT
IONEXAM.com 16598 (C) 16599 (A) 16601 (C) 16602 (A) 16603 (D) 16604 (C) 16605 (A
) 16606 (A) 16607 (B) 24270 (D) 24398 (B) 26324 (D) 27041 (A) 27042 (C) 16598. (
all) The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in balan
ce, is: A) the gradient wind. B) the Coriolis wind. C) the geostrophic wind. D)
the surface. 16599. (all) A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the follo
wing conditions: A) straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no
friction. B) uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2.000 ft wind.
C) circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction. D) parallel isobars,
constant pressure field, no friction. 16601. (all) For a given latitude, which o
f the following statements is true: A) Coriolis force acts at right angels to th
e wind and affects its speed and direction. B) Coriolis force acts at right ange
ls to the wind and affects speed but not direction.
C) Coriolis force acts at right angels to the wind and affects direction but not
speed. D) none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent for
ce. 16602. (all) With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue
? A) The Coriolis force decreases near the poles. B) The Coriolis force is non-e
xistent at the equator. C) The Coriolis force varies in direct proportion to the
wind speed. D) The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles. 16603. (a
ll) The gradient wind: A) blows across the isobars when there is a surface press
ure gradient. B) is the 2.000 ft geostrophic wind. C) is the surface wind affect
ed by friction. D) blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the
pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, and centrifugal force. 16604. (all) The
effect of curved isobars on gradient wind speed correction is: A) greater at hi
gh latitudes. B) low latitudes. C) less at high latitudes. D) no effect. 16605.
(all) The gradient wind is: A) less than the geostrophic wind around a low. B) m
ore than the goeostrophic wind around a low. C) less than the geostrophic wind a
round a high. D) none of the above. 16606. (all) In the northern hemisphere, sur
face friction causes the geostrophic wind to: A) back and decrease. B) veer and
decrease. C) back and increase. D) veer and increase. 16607. (all) Which of the
following statements is untrue? A) At night the surface wind is lighter in speed
and more inclined towards low pressure. B) Over land, the surface wind is backe
d by 15 to the isobars and and is 2/3 geostrophic speed. C) The steeper the press
ure gradient, the less marked the noctumal effect. D) At night, the wind can be
geostrophic down to 1.000 ft or less. 24270. (all) For the same horizontal dista
nce between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50N and 30N the gradient wind speed will
be least at latitude: A) 30N in an anticyclone. B) 50N in an anticyclone. C) 30N w
ith a cyclonic circulation. D) 50N with a cyclonic circulation. 24398. (all)
When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface fricti
on will cause the surface wind to: A) back and increase. B) back and decrease. C
) veer and decrease. D) veer and increase. 26324. (all) The flow of air parallel
to the isobars at a speed which is proportional to the pressure gradient, is kn
own as the: A) equivalent wind. B) thermal wind. C) isallobaric wind. D) geostro
phic wind. 27041. (all) State the altitude at which the core of the Arctic Jet S
tream can be found: A) 20.000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 27042. (
all) State the altitude at which the core of the Subtropical Jet Stream can be f
ound: A) 20.000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 050-02 WIND 30 2008 AV
IATIONEXAM.com 27140 (B) 27214 (C) 27407 (A) 27408 (B) 27453 (A) 27455 (A) 27484
(A) 27494 (A) 27503 (A) 27612 (A) 27658 (D) 28383 (A) 28439 (C) 28456 (A) 27140
. (all) Which is a characteristic of low level windshear as it relates to f ront
al activity? A) The amount of windshear in cold fronts is insignificant and does
not have to be considered. B) With a warm front, the most critical period is ju
st before the front has passed the airport. C) With a cold front, the most criti
cal period is just before the front passes the airport. D) Turbulence will alway
s exist in windshear conditions. 27214. (all) Select the true statement concerni
ng isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low pressure systems that are
shown on a pressure chart: A) surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars. B
) when the isobars are far apart, crests of standing waves may be marked by lent
icular clouds. C) when the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient for
ce is stronger, and velocities are higher. D) when the isobars are close togethe
r, the pressure gradient force is weaker, and wind velocities are lower. 27407.
(all) When flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere you experience a right dri
ft: A) your TA decreases.
B) your TA increases. C) your TA remains unchanged. D) not enough information is
provided to determine the TA. 27408. (all) When flying at FL180 in the northern
hemisphere you experience a left drift: A) your TA decreases. B) your TA increa
ses. C) your TA remains unchanged. D) not enough information is provided to dete
rmine the TA. 27453. (all) What can be said about a wind speed of 350 kts in a j
etstream? A) It is possible, but rare. B) It is impossible. C) A wind speed of 3
50 kts is common. D) It is only possible in a subtropical jetstream. 27455. (all
) A warm front is approaching an airport: A) QFE and QNH decrease. B) QFE increa
ses and QNH decreases. C) QFE decreases and QNH increases. D) QNH decreases, whi
le QFE remains unchanged. 27484. (all) Where do you encounter the strongest wind
s close to the ground? A) In the transition zone between air masses. B) In a col
d air mass. C) At a point distant from the center of the occlusion. D) When a ri
dge is present. 27494. (all) How is the weather in Bombay in early July influenc
ed? A) By SW monsoon. B) By NE monsoon. C) By the Harmattan. D) By the trade win
ds. 27503. (all) What clouds do you expect approximately 800 km ahead of a warm
front? A) CS B) AC C) NS D) CU 27612. (all) The average slope of a warm front is
approximately: A) 1:150 B) 1:250 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 27658. (all) What is the geos
trophic wind? A) It blows along curved isobars, and is affected by Coriolis forc
e and centrifugal force. B) It blows parallel to straight isobars when there are
no gradient forces present. C) It blows along curved isobars when frictional fo
rces are present. D) It blows parallel to straight isobars, when no friction is
present. 28383. (all) Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following
types of wind arise: A) sea and land breeze. B) trade-winds. C) monsoon winds. D
) anabatic winds. 28439. (all) List the two forces in balance in a geostrophic w
ind: A) pressure force and friction force. B) centrifugal force and friction for
ce. C) gradient force and Coriolis force. D) coriolis force and centrifugal forc
e. 28456. (all) The wind speed at an isobaric surface in the northern hemisphere
: A) increases with increased inclination of the isobaric surface. B) is greates
t when the isobaric surface is horizontal. C) is not influenced by inclination o
f the isobaric surface. D) decreases with increased inclination of the isobaric
surface. 050-02 WIND 31 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28464 (B) 8968 (C) 8976 (B) 8998 (
D) 10566 (B) 10576 (D) 10650 (C) 10670 (A) 10781 (D) 10790 (D) 15861 (A) 16437 (
C) 24262 (D) 28464. (all) When the inclination of isobar surfaces are equal, the
geostrophic wind velocity depends upon A) Air density. B) Latitude. C) Temperat
ure. D) Centrifugal force. 050-02-03 General circulation 8968. (all) (Refer to f
igure 050-26) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind cir
culation, zone U is in area of: A) SW trade winds. B) travelling depressions. C)
NE trade winds. D) subtropical high pressure. 8976. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
89) Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL170
: A) 200/50 kts. B) 230/35 kts. C) 060/50 kts. D) 030/35 kts. 8998. (all) Betwee
n which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt
? A) 55 - 75. B) 10 - 15. C) 35 - 55. D) 25 - 35. 10566. (all) In the central part of
e Atlantic Ocean between 10N and 20N the prevailing winds are: A) NE monsoon in wi
nter and SW monsoon in summer.
B) NE trade winds. C) SE trade winds. D) SW winds throughout the whole year. 105
76. (all) The average slope of a cold front is in the order of: A) 1:150 B) 1:25
0 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 10650. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalised
zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone Y is an area of: A) SE
trade winds. B) NE trade winds. C) travelling low pressure systems. D) subtropi
cal high pressure systems. 10670. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the ave
rage wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL290: A) 360/80 kts. B) 030/70 kts. C)
190/75 kts. D) 340/90 kts. 10781. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the ave
rage temperature for the route GenevaStockholm, FL260? A) -55 C B) -51 C C) -63 C D
) -47 C 10790. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalised zonal system
of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T is an area of: A) NE trade winds
. B) SE trade winds. C) travelling low pressure systems. D) subtropical high pre
ssure systems. 15861. (all) You are flying from east to west in the northern hem
isphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is co
rrect? A) If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude. B) If the wind
is from the south you are gaining altitude. C) If you have a head wind you are
gaining altitude. D) If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude. 16437. (al
l) Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface
wind in relation to the air pressure in the northern hemisphere? A) The wind ov
er land blows parallel to the isobars. B) The wind around a high pressure blows
clockwise and slants across the isobars towards higher pressure. C) The wind blo
ws counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the isobars towards lower pr
essure. D) The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a
low.
24262. (all) During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the: A)
wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon. B) surface wind spe
ed tends to be highest at night. C) angle between isobars and surface wind direc
tion tends to be lowest in the mid afternoon. D) surface wind speed tends to be
highest during the mid afternoon. 050-02 WIND 32 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26321 (B)
28381 (A) 28460 (C) 28482 (A) 8933 (A) 8981 (C) 8983 (B) 10676 (B) 10728 (D) 16
329 (A) 26321. (all) After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take
off from an airfield at mid-latitudes an hour before sunrise. The field is not s
ituated close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the ea
sterly surface wind is weak and makes: A) large but gradual increase in wind spe
ed and large but gradual veering of the wind up to a height of 5.000 ft. B) a su
dden strong increase in wind speed and strong veering of the wind a short time a
fter takeoff. C) little increase in wind speed and little veering of the wind up
to an height of 5.000 ft. D) a squally wind up to great heights. 28381. (all) I
n the northern hemisphere the surface wind is blowing around a low pressure: A)
anticlockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center. B) parall
el to the isobars. C) across the isobars. D) opposite the situation described in
A. 28460. (all) How does the geostrophic wind speed change with latitude? A) In
crease with increasing latitude to a certain latitude. B) Decrease with increasi
ng latitude to a certain latitude. C) Increase with decreasing latitude. D) Lati
tude does not affect wind force. 28482. (all) Buys Ballot s law of winds states
that in the northern hemisphere standing with your back to the wind, you have: A
) a low pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a high pressure behind you
at an angle to the right. B) a low pressure ahead at an angle to your right, and
a high pressure behind you at an angle to the left. C) a high pressure ahead at
an angle to your right, and a low pressure behind you at an angle to the left.
D) a high pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a low pressure behind you
at an angle to the right. 050-02-04 Turbulence 8933. (all) Which cloud type may
indicate the presence of severe turbulence? A) Altocumulus lenticularis. B) Str
atocumulus.
C) Cirrocumulus. D) Nimbostratus. 8981. (all) Which degree of aircraft turbulenc
e is determined by the following ICAO description? There may be moderate changes
in aircraft attitude and/ or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive cont
rol at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in acceleromet
er readings of 0,5 to 1,0 g at the aircrafts center of gravity. Occupants feel s
train against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are
difficult. A) Severe B) Light C) Moderate D) Violent 8983. (all) What degree of
turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold fro
nt in the summer over Central Europe at FL100? A) Moderate turbulence in NS clou
d. B) Severe turbulence in CB cloud. C) Light turbulence in CB cloud. D) Light t
urbulence in ST cloud. 10676. (all) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by
solar heating is most pronounced: A) immediately after sunset. B) during the ear
ly afternoon. C) during early morning hours before sunrise. D) about midmorning.
10728. (all) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of: A) a high risk of
thunderstorms. B) poor visibility at surface. C) smooth flying conditions below
the cloud level. D) turbulence at and below the cloud level. 16329. (all) If a s
trong wind perpendicular to a mountains decreases or reverses in direction at me
dium and high levels the likely result is: A) traveling rotors with very severe
turbulence. B) stationary rotors with very severe turbulence. C) stationary roto
rs with light turbulence. D) traveling rotors with light turbulence. 050-02 WIND
33 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8913 (A) 8955 (D) 8962 (D) 8996 (B) 10647 (C) 10660 (B
) 10671 (C) 10693 (A) 10725 (B) 10794 (C) 10797 (C) 15789 (D) 8913. (all) If Par
is reports a wind of 080/10 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expec
t to encounter at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground? A) 110/20 kts B) 080/
15 kts C) 050/20 kts D) 080/05 kts 8955. (all)
You are flying at 2.500 ft AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an
airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would y
ou expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)? A) South. B) Sou
th-southwest. C) Southwest. D) South-southeast. 8962. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cp
l) In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direct
ion towards the low pressure area because: A) turbulence is formed and pressure
decreases. B) the pressure gradient increases. C) turbulence is formed and press
ure increases. D) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases. 8
996. (all) In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows: A) from a l
ow pressure area to a high pressure area. B) counter-clockwise around, and towar
d the center of, a low pressure area. C) clockwise around, and away from the cen
ter of, a low pressure area. D) counter-clockwise around, and away from the cent
er of, a high pressure area. 10647. (all) In a low pressure system the convergen
ce at the surface is caused by: A) the inbalance of the horizontal gradient forc
e and the Coriolis force. B) centrifugal force. C) frictional forces. D) the cur
vature of the isobars. 10660. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 190/15 kts on the
METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 fe
et above the ground? A) 160/20 kts B) 220/30 kts C) 250/25 kts D) 220/10 kts 106
71. (all) At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind directi
on changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is t
hat the wind: A) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer.
B) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer. C) veers in
the friction layer and veers above the friction layer. D) backs in the friction
layer and backs above the friction layer. 10693. (all) In the northern hemispher
e the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea
the surface wind would approximate: A) 340/20 B) 030/20 C) 340/28 D) 030/28 1072
5. (all)
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone becaus
e the: A) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient. B) centrifugal force
is added to the pressure gradient. C) effect of Coriolis is added to friction. D
) Coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force. 10794. (all) If Paris reports a
wind of 300/12 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encount
er at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground? A) 300/25 kts B) 230/30 kts C) 33
0/25 kts D) 270/20 kts 10797. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 160/20 kts on the
METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 fe
et above the ground: A) 140/20 kts B) 160/30 kts C) 190/40 kts D) 170/15 kts 157
89. (all) Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5.000 ft AGL are southwesterly
while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of dif
ference between these two wind directions? A) A strong pressure gradient at high
er altitudes. B) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface. C) The influence of war
m air at the lower altitude. D) Friction between the wind and the surface. 050-0
2-05 Variation of wind with height 050-02 WIND 34 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15838 (C
) 15859 (B) 15864 (D) 28453 (B) 8905 (C) 8927 (C) 8942 (D) 10577 (B) 10590 (A) 1
0599 (C) 10621 (D) 10641 (C) 10658 (C) 15838. (all) An aircraft is approaching u
nder visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be
anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon? A) Tailwind.
B) Headwind. C) Crosswind from the left. D) Crosswind from the right. 15859. (a
ll) During a descent from 2.000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally: A) veers and decreases. B) backs and decreases. C) v
eers and increases. D) backs and increases. 15864. (all) The vertical extent of
the friction layer depends primarily on: A) wind speed, roughness of surface, te
mperature.
B) roughness of surface, temperature, local time. C) temperature, local time, en
vironmental lapse rate. D) stability, wind speed, roughness of surface. 28453. (
all) Describe the change of wind through the friction layer from the ground and
up: A) decreased force and veering . B) lncreased force and veering . C) increas
ed force and backing . D) increased force and turning 180. 050-02-06 Local winds
8905. (all) Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying
at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true alt
itude remains constant? A) There is a cross wind from the right. B) There is a c
ross wind from the left. C) There is no cross wind. D) Without knowing temperatu
re at FL180 this question can not be answered. 8927. (all) An aircraft is flying
in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2.000 feet) and going dir
ectly towards the center of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircra
ft, does the wind come from? A) From the left and slightly on the tail. B) From
the right and slightly on the nose. C) From the right and slightly on the tail.
D) From the left and slightly on the nose. 8942. (all) In a mountain-valley wind
circulation, the mountain wind blows: A) during the day up from the valley. B)
at night up from the valley. C) during the day down from the mountains. D) at ni
ght down from the mountains. 10577. (all) In a land- and sea-breeze circulation
the land-breeze blows: A) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze. B)
during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze. C) during the day and is we
aker than the sea-breeze. D) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breez
e. 10590. (all) Which of the following is true of a land breeze? A) It blows fro
m land to water. B) It blows from water to land. C) It blows by day. D) It blows
only at noon. 10599. (all) Friction between the air and the ground results in t
he northern hemisphere in: A) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at
the surface. B) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface. C
) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface. D) veering of t
he wind and increase of wind speed at the surface. 10621. (all)
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterra
nean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the ai
rport on a sunny afternoon? A) Parallel to the coastline. B) Land to sea. C) Var
iable. D) Sea to land. 10641. (all) In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at
1.000 ft AGL directly towards the center of a low pressure area, will find the
wind blowing from: A) about 45 to the right of directly ahead. B) right and behin
d. C) left and behind. D) directly ahead. 10658. (all) The most frequent wind di
rection in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the: A) valley during da
ylight hours. B) mountain at night. C) mountain during daylight hours. D) valley
during daylight as much as at night. 050-02 WIND 35 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10662
(C) 10681 (B) 10684 (B) 10726 (A) 15883 (D) 16611 (C) 24211 (B) 24317 (A) 27345
(C) 28449 (A) 8906 (C) 8930 (C) 8931 (D) 8956 (B) 10662. (all) The sea breeze i
s a wind from the sea: A) blowing at night in mid-latitudes. B) that reaches up
to the tropopause in daytime. C) occurring only in the lower layers of the atmos
phere in daytime. D) occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime. 10681. (all
) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a lar
ge body of water will experience wind: A) continually from land to water. B) fro
m the water in daytime and from the land at night. C) continually from water to
the land. D) from the land in daytime and from the water at night. 10684. (all)
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right
. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon? A) Crosswind from the left. B) Crosswind from the right. C) Tai
lwind. D) Headwind. 10726. (all) A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows: A) do
wn the slope during the night. B) up the slope during the day. C) down the slope
during the day. D) up the slope during the night.
15883. (all) In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the
geostrophic wind at 2.000 ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the s
urface wind is most likely to be: A) 075/12 B) 060/18 C) 060/12 D) 030/08 16611.
(all) The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid-altitudes is approxima
tely: A) 5.000 ft B) 200 ft C) 500 - 1.000 ft D) 50 ft 24211. (all) A high press
ure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coas
tal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airpor
t at the coast on a sunny afternoon? A) Land to sea. B) Sea to land. C) Variable
. D) Parallel to the coastline. 24317. (all) Sea breezes are most likely to occu
r when: A) slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high lan
d temperatures. B) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures
and overcast conditions persist. C) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high
sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist. D) a slack pressure gradient, r
elatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist. 27345. (all) Wh
ich type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer? A) Land breeze. B) Vall
ey wind. C) Foehn wind. D) Anabatic wind. 28449. (AIR: atpl) What are trade wind
s? A) The wind zones towards the Intertropical Convergence Zone. B) The westerly
wind zones. C) The polar easterly winds. D) Foehn winds in alpine valleys. 050-
02-07 Jet streams 8906. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What jet streams are likely to b
e crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23S) at FL350 in July
? A) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a
second polar front jet stream. B) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar f
ront jet stream. C) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical
jet streams. D) One subtropical jet stream.
8930. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classif
ied as a jet stream? A) 70 kts B) 50 kts C) 60 kts D) 100 kts 8931. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected? A
) About 12.000 ft above the core. B) The warm air side of the core. C) Exactly i
n the center of the core. D) The cold air side of the core. 8956. (AIR: atpl; HE
LI: atpl) In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL370) fro
m Bombay (19N 73E) to Bangkok (13N 100E). What wind conditions can you expect? A) Li
ght winds diagonal to the route. B) Headwinds. C) Tailwinds. D) Strong northerly
winds. 050-02 WIND 36 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8987 (C) 10565 (D) 10568 (D) 10569
(B) 10592 (D) 10605 (D) 10609 (C) 10619 (D) 10626 (A) 10633 (C) 10640 (C) 10643
(B) 10667 (B) 8987. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) While crossing a jet stream at right
angles in western Europe (3.000 ft below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what
would be the prevailing wind? A) A headwind. B) Crosswind from the right. C) Cro
sswind from the left. D) A tailwind. 10565. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, as a
general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found? A) Just bel
ow the cold-air tropopause. B) In the cold air mass. C) Just above the warm-air
tropopause. D) In the warm air mass. 10568. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the
following types of jet streams can be observed all year round? A) Equatorial je
t stream / arctic jet stream. B) Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.
C) Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream. D) Subtropical jet stream / pola
r front jet stream. 10569. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Under which of the following
conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced? A) A jet stream, wit
h great spacing between the isotherms. B) A curved jet stream near a deep trough
. C) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer. D) A straight jet str
eam near a low pressure area. 10592. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) A wind sounding in
the region of a polar front jet stream
gives the following windprofile (northern hemisphere). 900 hPa 220/20 kts 800 hP
a 220/25 kts 700 hPa 230/35 kts 500 hPa 260/60 kts 400 hPa 280/85 kts 300 hPa 30
0/100 kts 250 hPa 310/120 kts 200 hPa 310/80 kts Which system is the jet stream
associated with: A) with an easterly wave. B) with a cold front. C) with a ITCZ.
D) with a warm front. 10605. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) At approximately what alti
tude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe? A) FL500 B) FL200 C) FL300
D) FL400 10609. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the main cause for the formatio
n of a polar front jet stream? A) The varied elevations of the tropopause in the
polar front region. B) The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a
high over the Azores and a low over Iceland. C) The north-south horizontal tempe
rature gradient at the polar front. D) Strong winds in the upper atmosphere. 106
19. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the average height of the jet core within a
polar front jet stream? A) 50.000 ft B) 20.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 30.000 ft 1062
6. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which area of a polar front jet stream in the norther
n hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? A) Looking downstream, t
he area to the left of the core. B) Looking downstream, the area to the right of
the core. C) In the core of the jet stream. D) Above the core in the boundary b
etween warm and cold air. 10633. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the following
statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct? A) It lie
s in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the cor
e. B) It and its surface projection lie in the warm air. C) It lies at a height
where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure sur
faces at the height of the core is at its maximum. D) It lies in the cold air; t
he thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core. 10640. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl) What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet s
tream and all the other jet streams?
A) Horizontal dimension. B) Vertical dimension. C) Wind direction. D) Windspeed.
10643. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the average height of the arctic jet str
eam core? A) 30.000 ft B) 20.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 10667. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl) You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right
angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kts, you notice the tem
perature barely changes. A) You assume the front associated with the jet stream
to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two airma
sses. B) This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.
C) Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing ha
ve the instruments tested. D) This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, sinc
e normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights. 050-0
2 WIND 37 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10672 (D) 10690 (B) 10709 (D) 10717 (C) 10720 (B
) 10727 (B) 10786 (C) 10792 (C) 10795 (D) 15813 (D) 15815 (A) 15878 (B) 16335 (B
) 16355 (D) 10672. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jet stream blows all year round
, over the northern hemisphere? A) The arctic jet stream. B) The polar night jet
stream. C) The equatorial jet stream. D) The subtropical jet stream. 10690. (AI
R: atpl; HELI: atpl) Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) hav
e a westerly direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. Whe
n and where is it likely to be encountered? A) In winter along the Russian coast
facing the Arctic ocean. B) In summer from south-east Asia extending over south
ern India to central Africa. C) In summer from the Middle East extending over th
e southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain. D) Throughout the year t
o the south of the Azorian high. 10709. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) On a particular
day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern he
misphere. This means that: A) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperatu
re gradient runs from north to south. B) the polar air is on the eastern side an
d above the core of the jet. C) below the core of the jet the horizontal tempera
ture gradient runs from north to south. D) the polar air is below and to the eas
t of the core of the jet. 10717. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl)
(Refer to figure 050-25) What name is given to the jet stream lying over North A
frica (B)? A) Polar front jet stream. B) Equatorial jet stream. C) Sub-tropical
jet stream. D) Arctic jet stream. 10720. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, in centr
al Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found? A) At about 5.500 metres alt
itude. B) Just below the tropopause. C) Close to the ground. D) In the stratosph
ere. 10727. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jet stream is connected with a surface
front system? A) The easterly jet stream. B) The polar front jet stream. C) The
subtropical jet stream. D) The equatorial jet stream. 10786. (AIR: atpl; HELI:
atpl) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to nor
th, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, duri
ng this portion of the flight? A) It first increases, then decreases. B) It incr
eases. C) It decreases. D) It remains constant. 10792. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) D
uring the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar f
ront jetstream moves toward the: A) south and speed decreases. B) north and spee
d decreases. C) south and speed increases. D) north and speed increases. 10795.
(AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) An aircraft over western Europe is crossing a jet stream
2.500 ft below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperatur
e is increasing. The prevailing wind is: A) headwind. B) from the left. C) tailw
ind. D) from the right. 15813. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the approximate r
atio between height and width for a jet stream cross section? A) 1/1 B) 1/10 C)
1/1000 D) 1/100 15815. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) A wind speed of 350 kts within a
jet stream core should be worldwide regarded as: A) possible but a very rare phe
nomenon. B) not possible. C) a common occurence. D) not unusual in polar regions
. 15878. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the following statements concerning je
t streams
is correct? A) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur. B) In
the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur. C) In the
northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur. D) In the southern hemisph
ere no jet streams occur. 16335. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) In January, a mean sub-
tropical jet appears at: A) 30S B) 30N C) 60S D) 50N 16355. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl)
A jet stream is: A) a band of strong winds only found near thunderstorms. B) a b
road band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross-section. C) a narrow ba
nd of strong winds only found near fronts. D) a narrow band of strong winds flat
tened and tubular in cross-section. 050-02 WIND 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16365 (A)
24251 (D) 24302 (D) 24304 (C) 24328 (D) 24371 (D) 25626 (A) 25630 (A) 25636 (C)
27454 (A) 27483 (A) 27809 (A) 28455 (A) 28457 (B) 28458 (A) 28459 (A) 38 16365.
(AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The normal maximum speeds of the polar front jet are in
the region of: A) 150 kts in January / 135 kts in July. B) 150 kts in July / 135
kts in January. C) 150 kts in July / 50 kts in January. D) 135 kts in July / 13
5 kts in January. 24251. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) At which time, if any, are pola
r front jet streams over the south pacific usually strongest? A) October. B) Jan
uary. C) There is no annual variation. D) July. 24302. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) I
sotachs are lines joining equal: A) wind speed lapse rates. B) sea-level pressur
es. C) horizontal wind speed gradients. D) wind speeds. 24304. (AIR: atpl; HELI:
atpl) Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually l
ocated in the: A) polar air above the tropopause. B) tropical air above the trop
opause. C) tropical air below the tropopause. D) polar air below the tropopause.
24328. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The core of the polar front jet stream is usuall
y located in the: A) tropical air above the tropical tropopause. B) polar air ab
ove the tropopause. C) polar air below the tropopause.
D) tropical air below the tropical tropopause. 24371. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Wh
at is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream? A) An unstable
atmosphere up to great heights. B) Strong vertical temperature gradients. C) A u
niform pressure pattern. D) Strong horizontal temperature gradients. 25626. (AIR
: atpl; HELI: atpl) (Refer to figure 050-25) What name is given to the jet strea
m lying across India (A)? A) Tropical jet stream. B) Polar front jet stream. C)
Arctic jet stream. D) Sub-tropical jet stream. 25630. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) An
aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL
400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be expe
rienced? A) It decreases. B) It increases. C) It stays the same. D) It decreases
and then increases. 25636. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, as a general rule, is
the core of the polar front jet stream to be found: A) just above the warm-air
tropopause. B) in the polar air mass. C) in the tropical air mass. D) just below
the cold-air tropopause. 27454. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Name the jetstream(s) w
hich appear all year round: A) subtropical and polar front jetstream. B) subtrop
ical jetstream only. C) polar front jetstream only. D) arctical jetstream. 27483
. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) You cross a jet stream 2.500 ft below the core at a ri
ght angle over western Europe. While crossing, the temperature is increasing. Wh
at wind direction do you encounter? A) Wind from the right. B) Wind from the lef
t. C) Information insufficient to determine wind direction. D) Calm winds. 27809
. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The equatorial easterly jet is a jetstream that occurs
: A) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45.000 ft. B) only
in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30.000 ft. C) during the wh
ole year in the southern hemisphere. D) during the whole year in the northern he
misphere. 28455. (all) How would you describe a jetstream? A) A zone of wind in
the upper troposphere or lower stratosphere with wind forces at 60 knots minimum
. B) The outflow airstream from a turbine engine. C) Any wind force above 64 kno
ts. squall line . D) A zone of winds in connection with a
28457. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which phenomenon is often associated with a jetst
ream? A) Icing. B) Clear Air Turbulence (CAT). C) Windshear. D) Both icing and C
lear Air Turbulence (CAT). 28458. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Severe turbulence is a
ssociated with a jetstream: A) at the low pressure side. B) at the high pressure
side. C) in the core of the jetstream. D) underneath the core of the jetstream.
28459. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The approximate position of the polar front jet
stream is: A) approx. 60N. B) approx. 30N. C) approx. 80N. D) over the north polar
area. 050-02 WIND 39 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28465 (C) 8909 (C) 10675 (A) 16613 (D
) 26323 (B) 26325 (D) 28465. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jetstream is more or
less found continuously around the Earth? A) The polar front jetstream. B) The a
rtic front jetstream. C) The subtropical jetstream. D) The equatorial jetstream.
050-02-08 Standing waves 8909. (all) (Refer to figure 050-11) In which directio
n does the polar front move in this picture? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 10675. (all) At
the top of standing waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is: A) altocumulus lenticularis. B) cirrostratus. C) cirrus. D) cumu
lus mediocris. 16613. (all) Standing waves are likely when: A) wind speeds are u
niform with height. B) the atmosphere is uniformly stable. C) the wind direction
is at 45 to the ridge of the hills. D) none of the above. 26323. (all) In a moun
tainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing wave
s are likely to be experienced: A) on the windward side of the mountain just abo
ve the cap cloud. B) in the vicinity of the roll cloud or rotor zone beneath the
first wave on the leeward side. C) just above the lenticular cloud on the windw
ard side.
D) between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and clo
se to the tropopause. 26325. (all) In addition to a stable layer of air over a s
ubstantial mountain range, the conditions most favourable to the development of
standing waves are A) significant moisture loss due to precipitation, rapid lowe
ring of the tropopause in the area of the mountain range. B) steep dry adiabatic
lapse rate, wind speed increasing and changing direction rapidly with increase
in height. C) conditional instability, wind speed constant from a direction para
llel to the mountain range. D) wind speed excess of 20 kts at the surface and in
creasing with height, wind direction perpendicular to the general direction of t
he range. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 40 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9004 (C) 9012 (D) 9018
(C) 9019 (D) 9022 (D) 9027 (C) 9040 (A) 9047 (D) 9049 (D) 9051 (D) 9064 (B) 9066
(A) 9074 (D) 050-03-01 Humidity 9004. (all) Relative humidity: A) is not affect
ed by temperature changes of the air. B) is not affected when air is ascending o
r descending. C) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature
remains constant. D) does not change when water vapour is added provided the te
mperature of the air remains constant. 9012. (all) The dewpoint temperature: A)
can not be equal to the air temperature. B) is always lower than the air tempera
ture. C) is always higher than the air temperature. D) can be equal to the air t
emperature. 9018. (all) Relative humidity: A) is higher in cool air than in warm
air. B) is higher in warm air than in cool air. C) increases if the air is cool
ed whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant. D) decreases if the air is c
ooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant. 9019. (all) Relative humi
dity depends on: A) temperature of the air only. B) pressure of the air only. C)
moisture content of the air only. D) moisture content and temperature of the ai
r. 9022. (all) Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an
air mass? A) It can be used to estimate the air mass s relative humidity even if
the air temperature is unknown. B) It can be higher than the temperature of the
air mass. C) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air
mass s relative humidity. D) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the tempera
ture of
the air mass. 9027. (all) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12 C a
nd a dew point of +5 C were measured. What temperature change must occur during t
he night in order to induce saturation? A) It must decrease to +6 C. B) It must d
ecrease by 5 C. C) It must decrease to +5 C. D) It must decrease to +7 C. 9040. (al
l) (Refer to figure 050-54) Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture? A
) In central Europe. B) Over the North sea. C) In the Mediterranean sea. D) Over
the Baltics. 9047. (all) Dew point is defined as: A) the temperature below whic
h the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of
latent heat. B) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a giv
en pressure. C) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to r
educe the relative humidity. D) the temperature to which moist air must be coole
d to become saturated at a given pressure. 9049. (all) Relative humidity at a gi
ven temperature is the relation between: A) dew point and air temperature. B) wa
ter vapour weight and dry air weight. C) water vapour weight and humid air volum
e. D) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content. 9051. (all
) When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidi
ty? A) It increases up to 100%, then remains stable. B) It increases. C) It rema
ins constant. D) It decreases. 9064. (all) The relative humidity of a sample air
mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by change
s of the amount of water vapour in it? A) It is not influenced by changing water
vapour. B) It increases with increasing water vapour. C) It decreases with incr
easing water vapour. D) It is only influenced by temperature. 9066. (all) Which
of the following is the definition of relative humidity? A) Ratio between the ac
tual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100. B) Ratio between air te
mperature and dewpoint temperature X 100. C) Ratio between water vapour pressure
and atmospheric pressure X 100. D) Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg)
X 100. 9074. (all) How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated
air mass change with varying temperature?
A) When temperature decreases, the the dewpoint remain constant. B) When tempera
ture increases, the and the dewpoint decreases. C) When temperature decreases, t
he and the dewpoint increases. D) When temperature increases, the and the dewpoi
nt remains constant.
relative humidity and relative humidity increases, relative humidity decreases,
relative humidity decreases,
050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 41 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9077 (B) 9083 (D) 9093 (D) 9094 (
A) 9100 (B) 10174 (C) 10192 (B) 10193 (C) 16563 (D) 26317 (C) 27112 (D) 27113 (B
) 27116 (D) 27118 (A) 9077. (all) The dewpoint temperature: A) can be reached by
lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant. B) can be reached by
cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant. C) can not be equal to the ai
r temperature. D) can not be lower than the air temperature. 9083. (all) The max
imum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the: A) dewpoint
. B) relative humidity. C) stability of the air. D) air temperature. 9093. (all)
The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in: A) air with low
temperature. B) moist air. C) air with high temperature. D) dry air. 9094. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-54) What does this picture depict? A) A westerly wave over
central Europe. B) A high pressure area over central Europe. C) South foehn. D)
North foehn. 9100. (all) What does dewpoint mean? A) The temperature at which i
ce melts. B) The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to r
each saturation. C) The freezing level (danger of icing). D) The temperature at
which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same. 10174.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-55) Which weather situation can be expected during th
e day at Zurich airport? A) TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 0501
8KT 0300 +SHSN VV002= B) TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003
OVC015 = C) TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG
1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = D) TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030T
CU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 10192. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
52) Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture? A) In central Europe. B)
Over Scandinavia. C) In the Mediterranean Sea. D) Over the Baltics. 10193. (all)
How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced
by temperature changes? A) It increases with increasing temperature. B) It is no
t influenced by temperature changes. C) It decreases with increasing temperature
. D) It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour. 16563. (all) In a high
relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions is true?
A) High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb di
fference. B) Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/d
ry bulb difference. C) Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; inc
reased latent heat absorption. D) Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent
heat absorption; low evaporation rate. 26317. (all) The maximum vapour pressure
over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a fla
t ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure
is: A) equal over both surfaces. B) smaller over the water surface. C) greater o
ver the water surface. D) the same over both surfaces, air pressure is the same.
27112. (all) Relative humidity relates to: A) the amount of water vapour presen
t in warm air compared to cold air. B) actual water vapour present to what could
be present. C) the degree of saturation. D) the degree of saturation and actual
water vapour present to what could be present. 27113. (all) The difference betw
een air temperature and dew point temperature is popularly called the spread . A
s spread increases, relative humidity: A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the
same. D) first decreases and then increases. 27116. (all) If the dew point stays
the same, but the air temperature decreases, then: A) the relative humidity wil
l decrease.
B) water vapor will decrease. C) water vapor will increase. D) the relative humi
dity will increase. 27118. (all) Unsaturated air moving downwards is heated at a
certain rate of: A) dry adiabatic. B) chinook wind. C) saturated adiabatic. D)
ambient lapse rate. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 42 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27142 (C) 271
98 (A) 27200 (B) 27235 (C) 27248 (B) 27307 (A) 27448 (A) 27507 (A) 27648 (C) 276
50 (D) 28474 (D) 9038 (B) 9042 (D) 27142. (all) Hazardous windshear is encounter
ed near the ground: A) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35
knots. B) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and n
ear mountain valleys. C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near
thunderstorms. D) near mountain valleys and on the windward side of hillsdr mou
ntains. 27198. (all) As a parcel of air cools, its ability to hold water vapour:
A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains unaltered. D) depends, whether the parce
l is rising or no. 27200. (all) As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold wa
ter vapour: A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains unaltered. D) depends, whethe
r the parcel is rising or not. 27235. (all) Moist air is: A) denser than dry air
. B) warmer than dry air. C) less dense than dry air. D) colder than dry air. 27
248. (all) A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity
of: A) 50%. B) 100%. C) greater than 90%. D) greater than 80%. 27307. (all) The
temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated if it cools is called: A
) dew point temperature. B) saturation temperature. C) condensation temperature.
D) freezing temperature. 27448. (all)
The maximum water in the air depends on the following: A) temperature. B) densit
y. C) cloud type. D) none of the above. 27507. (all) Which statement is true for
the lifting of an air parcel? A) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than sat
urated. B) Saturated parcels cool more rapidly than unsaturated. C) An air parce
l always cools at the dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) A stable air mas must be pres
ent. 27648. (all) In which of the following METARs is the probability the bigges
t for the formation of fog the following night? A) 18502 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12l
M08 Q1028 NOSlG = B) 18502 06018G30KT5000 OV0010 04/01 Q1024 NOSlG = C) 18502 15
003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 81032 BECMG 1600 = D) 18502 25010KT 4000 FIA BKN012 0800
30 12/10 81006 TEMP.0 1500 = 27650. (all) What is relative humidity? A) The actu
al water vapour content in the air given in per cent. B) The possible saturated
water vapour content at a given temperature, given in per cent. C) A term used t
o indicate the presence of water vapour, or moisture, in the air. D) The ratio o
f the actual water vapour content in the air to the saturated water vapour conte
nt of the air at a given temperature. 28474. (all) With decreasing temperature a
nd unchanged dew point: A) the relative humidity will decrease. B) water vapor w
ill decrease. C) water vapor will increase. D) the relative humidity will increa
se. 050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation 9038. (all) The process by which wa
ter vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as: A) supercooling. B) sub
limation. C) supersaturation. D) radiation cooling. 9042. (all) In which of the
following changes of state is latent heat released? A) Liquid to gas. B) Solid t
o liquid. C) Solid to gas. D) Gas to liquid. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 43 2008 AVIAT
IONEXAM.com 9043 (D) 9048 (B) 9057 (D) 9072 (C) 9073 (D) 9081 (C) 10186 (C) 1018
9 (B) 27160 (C) 27394 (A) 27405 (D) 8856 (D) 8864 (B) 9003 (C) 9005 (C) 9043. (a
ll)
When water evaporates into unsaturated air: A) relative humidity is decreased. B
) heat is released. C) relative humidity is not changed. D) heat is absorbed. 90
48. (all) A super cooled droplet is: A) a water droplet that is mainly frozen. B
) a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing. C) a small pa
rticle of water at a temperature below -50 C. D) a water droplet that has been fr
ozen during its descent. 9057. (all) Supercooled droplets can be encountered: A)
only in winter at high altitude. B) in winter only in high clouds. C) only in w
inter above 10.000 ft. D) at any time of the year. 9072. (all) Clouds, fog or de
w will always be formed when: A) relative humidity reaches 98%. B) water vapour
is present. C) water vapour condenses. D) temperature and dew point are nearly e
qual. 9073. (all) A super cooled droplet is one that: A) is at an above freezing
temperature in below freezing air. B) has frozen to become an ice pellet. C) ha
s a shell of ice with water inside it. D) remains liquid at a below freezing tem
perature. 9081. (all) How are high level condensation trails formed that are to
be found occasionally behind jet aircraft? A) Only through unburnt fuel in the e
xhaust gases. B) Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic dr
op in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humi
d air. C) Through water vapour released during fuel combustion. D) In conditions
of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases.
10186. (all) Supercooled droplets are always: A) large and at a temperature belo
w freezing. B) small and at a temperature below freezing. C) at a temperature be
low freezing. D) at a temperature below -60 C. 10189. (all) Which of the followin
g changes of state is known as sublimation? A) Solid direct to liquid. B) Solid
direct to vapour. C) Liquid direct to solid. D) Liquid direct to vapour. 27160.
(all) When water vapour condenses into water droplets, there is a: A) release of
heat energy that increases density of the surrounding air. B) sublimation. C) r
elease of heat energy that makes the surrounding air warmer. D) none of the abov
e.
27394. (all) What kind of weather conditions are most common in a stationary hig
h pressure area? A) Calm winds and haze. B) Thunderstorm and showers in the summ
er. C) Light rain. D) Gusty winds and clear skies. 27405. (all) The stable layer
at some height in the lower troposphere of an old high pressure area in the mod
erate latitudes is called: A) friction inversion. B) radiation inversion. C) tra
de wind. D) subsidence inversion. 050-03-03 Adiabatic processes 8856. (all) A la
yer can be: A) unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable. B) stabl
e for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air. C) unstable for unsaturate
d air and neutral for saturated air. D) stable for unsaturated air and unstable
for saturated air. 8864. (all) Absolute instability exists whenever the environm
ental lapse rate: A) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. B) exceeds the
dry adiabatic lapse rate. C) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. D)
is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. 9003. (all) What is the
dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1.000 ft? A) 1,5 C B) 2,0 C C) 3,0 C D) 3,5 C 9005. (al
l) If the surface temperature is 15 C , then the temperature at 10.000 ft in a cu
rrent of ascending unsaturated air is: A) 5 C B) 0 C C) -15 C D) -5 C 050-03 THERMOD
YNAMICS 44 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9016 (C) 9035 (A) 9046 (C) 9058 (D) 9062 (B) 90
76 (B) 9079 (B) 9084 (A) 9085 (C) 9089 (D) 9095 (D) 9099 (C) 9101 (A) 9141 (C) 9
016. (all) A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation
level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of
the parcel of air? A) Lower than the starting temperature. B) Higher than the st
arting temperature. C) The same as the starting temperature. D) It depends upon
the QFE. 9035. (all) A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated
by:
A) expanding it adiabatically. B) raising the temperature. C) lowering the press
ure, keeping temperature constant. D) compressing it adiabatically. 9046. (all)
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of
air is: A) 0,65 C B) 2 C C) 1 C D) 0,5 C 9058. (all) The rate of cooling of ascendin
g saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air be
cause: A) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun. B) moist air is h
eavier than dry air. C) water vapour doesn t cool as rapidly as dry air. D) heat
is released during the condensation process. 9062. (all) If a saturated air mas
s descends down a slope its temperature increases at: A) the same rate as if the
air mass were dry. B) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat
. C) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat. D) a higher r
ate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat. 9076. (all) Which o
f the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
A) Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels. B) Unsaturated
parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels. C) Unsaturated parcels cool a
t a rate of 0,65 C/100 m. D) Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0,65 C/100
m. 9079. (all) The stability in a layer is increasing if: A) warm air is advect
ed in the lower part and cold air in the upper part. B) warm air is advected in
the upper part and cold air in the lower part. C) warm and moist air is advected
in the lower part. D) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part. 9084. (al
l) (Refer to figure 050-53) What can be said about this weather situation? A) Ai
r mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime. B) Strong gradient winds may
occur over central Europe. C) Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of
the Alps. D) No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
. 9085. (all) A layer in which the temperature increases with height is: A) cond
itionally unstable. B) absolutely unstable. C) absolutely stable. D) neutral. 90
89. (all) Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer? A) The wet
adiabatic lapse rate is 0,65 C/100 m.
B) The environmental lapse rate is less than 0,65 C/100 m. C) The layer is unstab
le for unsaturated air. D) The environmental lapse rate is less than 1 C/100 m. 9
095. (all) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase
in height is more than 1 C. This layer can be described as being: A) conditional
ly stable. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable. D) absolutely unstab
le. 9099. (all) (Refer to figure 050-53) What does this picture depict? A) A wes
terly wave over central Europe. B) A high pressure area over central Europe. C)
Flat pressure pattern. D) North foehn. 9101. (all) An inversion is: A) an absolu
tely stable layer. B) a conditionally unstable layer. C) an unstable layer. D) a
layer that can be either stable or unstable. 9141. (all) Rising air cools becau
se: A) it becomes more moist. B) surrounding air is cooler at higher levels. C)
it expands. D) it contracts. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 45 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 1008
3 (A) 10111 (D) 10128 (B) 10175 (A) 10177 (B) 10180 (C) 10181 (A) 10183 (B) 1018
4 (A) 10187 (C) 10202 (C) 10742 (B) 10760 (D) 10761 (A) 10887 (D) 10083. (all) A
n air mass is called stable when: A) the vertical motion of rising air tends to
become weaker and disappears. B) the temperature in a given air mass decreases r
apidly with height. C) the pressure in a given area is constant. D) the environm
ental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents. 10111. (a
ll) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of: A) 0,5 C/100 m. B) 2 C/1.000 ft.
C) 0,65 C/100 m. D) 1 C/100 m. 10128. (all) In an air mass with no clouds the surf
ace temperature is 15 C and the temperature at 1.000 m AGL is 13 C. This layer of
air is: A) unstable. B) stable. C) a layer of heavy turbulence. D) conditionally
unstable.
10175. (all) If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the laye
r is 10 C and at the top of the layer is 8 C then this layer is: A) absolutely uns
table. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable. D) neutral. 10177. (all)
A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by: A) lowering the par
cel to a lower level. B) lifting the parcel to a higher level. C) moving the par
cel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature. D) moving the parcel t
o an area with higher pressure and equal temperature. 10180. (all) A layer in wh
ich the temperature remains constant with height is: A) neutral. B) unstable. C)
absolutely stable. D) conditionally unstable. 10181. (all) During an adiabatic
process heat is: A) neither added nor lost. B) added. C) lost. D) added but the
result is an overall loss. 10183. (all) A layer is absolutely unstable if the te
mperature decrease with height is: A) between 1 C/100 m and 0,65 C/100 m. B) more
than 1 C/100 m. C) 0,65 C/100 m. D) less than 0,65 C/100 m. 10184. (all) The height
of the lifting condensation level is determined by: A) temperature and dewpoint
at the surface. B) temperature at surface and air pressure. C) wind and dewpoin
t at the surface. D) wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface. 10187
. (all) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parce
l of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately: A) 1,5 C B) 1 C C) 0,6
C D) 0,35 C 10202. (all) A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1 C per 1
00 m is: A) absolutely unstable. B) absolutely stable. C) neutral for dry air. D
) conditionally unstable. 10742. (all) From which of the following pieces of inf
ormation can the
stability of the atmosphere be derived? A) Surface temperature. B) Environmental
lapse rate. C) Dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) Pressure at the surface. 10760. (al
l) Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in: A) winter in t
he afternoon. B) winter during the night and early morning. C) summer during the
night and early morning. D) summer in the afternoon. 10761. (all) The dry adiab
atic lapse rate: A) has a constant fixed value. B) is greater in summer than in
winter. C) is greater during the night than during the day. D) has a variable va
lue. 10887. (all) The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to
that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in: A) cumulus. B) freezing fog. C) stratus
. D) cirrus. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 46 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16588 (D) 16592 (B)
16593 (D) 24221 (A) 24269 (A) 24291 (A) 26309 (A) 26313 (A) 26316 (A) 27117 (D)
27121 (B) 27343 (C) 27403 (D) 27421 (A) 16588. (all) What is the final temperatu
re of unsaturated surface air at 12 C, which rises to 6.000 ft? A) +30 C B) +18 C C
) -30 C D) -06 C 16592. (all) The average value of the ELR is: A) 1,5 C / 1.000 ft.
B) 2,0 C / 1.000 ft. C) 3,0 C / 1.000 ft. D) it varies daily. 16593. (all) An ELR
of 2,9 C per 1.000 ft, is by definition: A) stable. B) conditionally stable. C)
unstable. D) conditionally unstable. 24221. (all) Absolute instability in the at
mosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is: A) greater than both s
aturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) less than saturat
ed adiabatic lapse rate. C) less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dr
y adiabatic lapse rate. D) greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less
than
dry adiabatic lapse rate. 24269. (all) For both saturated and unsaturated air in
stability will occur when the: A) environmental lapse rate is greater than both
dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. B) environmental la
pse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiaba
tic lapse rate. C) environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic laps
e rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. D) dry adiabatic lapse rate is less t
han saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than environmental lapse rate. 24
291. (all) In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse ra
te is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic la
pse rate, the air mass is described as being: A) conditionally unstable. B) stab
le. C) unstable. D) absolutely unstable. 26309. (all) What is the dry adiabatic
lapse rate? A) 3,0 C/1.000 ft. B) 2,0 C/1.000 ft. C) 1,5 C/1.000 ft. D) 3,5 C/1.000
ft. 26313. (all) The stability in a layer increases by advection of: A) cold air
in the lower part. B) warm air in the lower part. C) dry air in the upper part.
D) moist air in the lower part. 26316. (all) Which statement is correct for an
absolutely unstable atmosphere? A) Visibility is good between showers. B) The en
vironmental lapse rate is less than 1 C / 100 m. C) Clouds are mainly of the stra
tiform type. D) The dry adiabatic lapse rate is more than 1 C / 100 m. 27117. (al
l) The rate at which descending unsaturated air is heated is about: A) 1,5 C per
100 m. B) 1,5 C per 1.000 ft. C) 3 C per 100 m. D) 3 C per 1.000 ft. 27121. (all) T
he weather is clear and the temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you c
limb (approaching 3,2 C per 1.000 ft), you have an indication of: A) stable air.
B) unstable air. C) saturation. D) sublimation. 27343. (all) Which term applies
when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat
added or removed? A) Katabatic B) Advection C) Adiabatic
D) Atmospheric 27403. (all) From which ofthe following pieces of information can
stability of the atmosphere be derived? A) Dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) Pressur
e at the surface. C) Surface temperature. D) Environmental lapse rate. 27421. (a
ll) State the preference of a layer of air with no clouds, surface temperature 1
5 C, and 13 C at 1.000 metres: A) stable layer. B) unstable layer. C) the preferen
ce cannot be determined. D) none of the above. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 47 2008 AVI
ATIONEXAM.com 27452 (A) 27566 (A) 27452. (all) What can be said about the altime
ter indication during a period of 10 minutes, when a flat pressure pattern preva
ils? A) There will be no visible change in the indication. B) The indication dec
reases. C) The indication increases. D) The altimeter indicates lower when set t
o 1.013,2 hPa. 27566. (all) What is the preference of a layer with constant temp
erature? A) Absolutely stable. B) Unstable. C) Relatively stable. D) An example
of an inversion. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 48 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9104 (A) 9105 (C
) 9108 (A) 9109 (C) 9110 (B) 9111 (D) 9139 (D) 9142 (C) 9143 (B) 9146 (B) 9151 (
A) 9154 (C) 9159 (D) 9166 (C) 050-04-01 Cloud formation and description 9104. (A
IR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming ov
er flat land? A) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate w
ind. B) Unstable air. C) Convection during the day. D) The release of latent hea
t. 9105. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What process in an air mass leads to the cre
ation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? A) Convection process. B) Sin
king. C) Lifting. D) Radiation. 9108. (all) What type of cloud is being describe
d? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance,
which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud
, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged
patches. A) Stratus B) Altostratus C) Nimbostratus D) Cirrostratus 9109. (all)
Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate
regions? A) CI, CC. B) SC, NS. C) AS, AC. D) CS, ST. 9110. (all) Which of the f
ollowing types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions? A) ST, CS. B)
CU, CB. C) SC, NS. D) CI, SC. 9111. (all) (Refer to figure 050-07) Which one of
the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus? A) B B)
D C) A D) C 9139. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the following processes wi
thin a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? A) Frontal lif
ting within stable layers. B) Radiation. C) Subsidence. D) Convection. 9142. (al
l) Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud? A) ST B) CS C) AS
D) SC 9143. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitud
es in summer contains: A) only water droplets. B) ice crystals, water droplets a
nd supercooled water droplets. C) only ice crystals. D) ice crystals and water d
roplets but never supercooled water droplets. 9146. (all) Which of the following
cloud types is found at high levels? A) SC B) CI C) AS D) CU 9151. (all) Which
of the following are medium level clouds? A) Altostratus and altocumulus. B) Cir
rocumulus and cirrostratus.
C) Cumulonimbus. D) All convective clouds. 9154. (all) A plain in western Europe
with an average height of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered with a un
iform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the groun
d is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 6.500 - 16.500 ft above ground. B
) 100 - 1.500 ft above ground. C) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above ground. D) 16.500 - 23.
000 ft above ground. 9159. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What flying condition
s may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds? A) Average horizontal visibil
ity more than 1.000 m; light to moderate rime ice. B) Average horizontal visibil
ity less than 500 m; nil icing. C) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m
; light to moderate icing. D) Average horizontal visibility more than 1.000 m; n
il icing. 9166. (all) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to ha
ve bases from: A) 500 to 1.000 ft. B) 1000 to 2.000 ft. C) the surface to 6.500
ft. D) 100 to 200 ft. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 49 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9169 (A) 91
71 (D) 9185 (B) 9186 (A) 9189 (A) 9191 (A) 9193 (B) 9194 (A) 9196 (B) 10213 (A)
10223 (C) 10231 (A) 10235 (B) 10237 (C) 9169. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Wh
ich of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high clo
ud levels? A) CB B) AC C) ST D) CI 9171. (all) Altostratus clouds are classified
as: A) convective clouds. B) low level clouds. C) high level clouds. D) medium
level clouds. 9185. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Which of the following cloud
s may extend into more than one layer? A) Stratus B) Nimbostratus C) Altocumulus
D) Cirrus 9186. (all) Which of the following cloud is classified as low level c
loud? A) ST B) CS C) AS
D) CC 9189. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Which types of clouds are typical ev
idence of stable air conditions? A) ST, AS. B) CU, CB. C) NS, CU. D) CB, CC. 919
1. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Fallstreaks or virga are: A) water or ice par
ticles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground. B) stro
ng downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks. C) gusts a
ssociated with a well developed Bora. D) strong katabatic winds in mountainous a
reas and accompanied by heavy precipitation. 9193. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, i
r) Convective clouds are formed: A) in stable atmosphere. B) in unstable atmosph
ere. C) in summer during the day only. D) in mid-latitudes only. 9194. (all) (Re
fer to figure 050-07) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative o
f a cumulonimbus capillatus? A) D B) A C) B D) C 9196. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
) Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of: A) the presence of a l
ow level inversion. B) instability in the atmosphere. C) the presence of warm ai
r aloft. D) poor surface visibility. 10213. (all) (Refer to figure 050-07) Which
one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
A) B B) A C) D D) C 10223. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) In an unstable layer
there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
: A) air pressure at the surface. B) wind direction. C) thickness of the unstabl
e layer. D) pressure at different levels. 10231. (all) A plain in western Europe
with an average height of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered with a un
iform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the groun
d is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 16.500 - 45.000 ft above the terr
ain. B) 6.500 - 16.500 ft above the terrain. C) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above the terra
in.
D) 100 - 1.500 ft above the terrain. 10235. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What
is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds? A) Supercool
ed water droplets. B) Ice crystals. C) Water droplets. D) Water vapour. 10237. (
AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds
? A) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice
. B) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
C) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
D) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and r
ime ice. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 50 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10243 (C) 10244 (D) 1024
6 (D) 10247 (B) 10248 (C) 15793 (A) 16552 (D) 16553 (A) 16554 (B) 16612 (D) 2411
4 (B) 24115 (A) 24116 (A) 24118 (C) 24121 (A) 10243. (all) A plain in western Eu
rope with an average elevation of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered wi
th a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above th
e ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above the
terrain. B) 100 - 1.500 ft above the terrain. C) 7.000 - 16.500 ft above the te
rrain. D) 16.500 - 23.000 ft above the terrain. 10244. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atp
l, ir) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the: A) pres
ence of valley winds. B) risk of orographic thunderstorms. C) development of the
rmal lows. D) presence of mountain waves. 10246. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir)
In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most
likely to be encountered? A) Within cloud of any type. B) Below the freezing lev
el in clear air. C) In clear air above the freezing level. D) In Nimbostratus cl
oud. 10247. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Cumulus clouds are an indication for
: A) stability. B) up and downdrafts. C) the approach of a cold front. D) the ap
proach of a warm front. 10248. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The presence of a
ltocumulus castellanus indicates: A) stability in the higher troposphere. B) str
ong convection at low height. C) instability in the middle troposphere. D) subsi
dence in a large part of the troposphere.
15793. (all) Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosp
here? A) Cumulonimbus B) Cirrostratus C) Altocumulus D) Altostratus 16552. (all)
Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types stratus and ni
mbostratus? A) Neither cloud type may give precipitation. B) Stratus may give dr
izzle or snow grains and nimbostratus may give rain showers. C) Stratus may give
rain showers and nimbostratus may give drizzle or snow grains. D) Stratus may g
ive drizzle or snow grains and nimbostratus may give continuously falling rain o
r snow. 16553. (all) Altostratus (AS) and nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused.
How do you distinguish between them? A) The precipitation from AS, if any, is l
ight and the cloud is thinner than for NS. B) Precipitation falls from AS but no
t from NS. C) Steady precipitation from AS. D) The sun can be seen through NS. 1
6554. (all) Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall
? A) Altostratus B) Nimbostratus C) Cirrostratus D) Cumulonimbus 16612. (AIR: at
pl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of: A
) severe instability. B) anabatic winds. C) katabatic winds. D) lee waves. 24114
. (all) (Refer to figure 050-21) The cloud most likely to be experienced in squa
re 1E is: A) CS B) CI C) AS D) CB 24115. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The clou
d type most applicable to square 2D is: A) AS B) CU C) CB D) CS 24116. (all) (Re
fer to figure 050-23) The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is: A) NS B) A
C C) AS D) CB 24118. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-23) During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square
2A is: A) ST B) AC C) CB D) CS 24121. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The cloud
type most applicable to most of square 3B is: A) SC B) CS C) AS D) NS 050-04 CLO
UDS AND FOG 51 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24129 (A) 24130 (B) 24131 (C) 24209 (B) 242
13 (D) 24220 (C) 24225 (D) 24254 (C) 24255 (B) 24303 (B) 24306 (B) 27122 (D) 271
26 (D) 27129 (A) 27230 (A) 24129. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The cloud type
most applicable to square 1E is: A) CS B) CB C) NS D) SC 24130. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-20) The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is: A) CS B) AS C) CB
D) CU 24131. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The cloud type most applicable to s
quare 2B is: A) ST B) CS C) CB D) SC 24209. (all) A cumulus congestus is: A) a r
emnant of a CB. B) a cumulus that is of great vertical extent. C) a cumulus with
little vertical development. D) a cumulus that only occurs in association with
the ITCZ. 24213. (all) A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by: A)
adiabatic cooling due to subsidence. B) absorption of longwaved solar radiation
in the stratus layer. C) the release of latent heat due to precipitation. D) ins
olation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level. 24220. (all) About t
en identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with
well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of
these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is
essentially horizontal and at FL30, and their tops at FL150. These clouds are: A
) altocumulus castellanus. B) broken cumulus humilis. C) towering cumulus. D) st
ratocumulus. 24225. (all) After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in th
e morning. Why can the base of these clouds become higher during the day? A) Bec
ause the difference between the temperature and the dewpoint temperature at the
initial condensation level becomes smaller. B) The wind speed is increasing, bec
ause the cold air mass changes into a warm air mass. C) Because the stability in
creases. D) Because the surface temperature increases. 24254. (all) Clouds in pa
tches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large peb
bles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are: A) altostr
atus. B) stratus. C) stratocumulus. D) nimbostratus. 24255. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI
: all) Clouds will mainly consist of supercooled water droplets when the tempera
ture is: A) between -5 C and -30 C. B) between 0 C and -15 C. C) between -30 C and -4
0 C. D) below -40 C. 24303. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Lenticular clouds in m
ountainous areas indicate: A) unstable air. B) turbulence. C) an inversion. D) l
ight variable winds. 24306. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Of what does lenticu
lar cloud provide evidence? A) Jet streams. B) Mountain waves. C) Stratospheric
inversions. D) Areas of high level clear air turbulence. 27122. (all) The family
of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In moderate
latitudes their height of base ranges from: A) 3.000 to 5.000 feet. B) 2.000 to
10.000 feet. C) 2.000 to 12.000 feet. D) 6.500 to 23.000 feet. 27126. (all) Hig
h clouds are normally composed of: A) hail. B) water droplets. C) condensation n
uclei. D) ice crystals. 27129. (all) Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
A) turbulence at and below the cloud level. B) smooth flying conditions. C) rain
and strong winds. D) fog. 27230. (all) Given a surface temperature of +10 C, and
a dew point of +5 C, at what height might you expect cumulus clouds to form? A)
2.000 ft B) 4.000 ft C) 1.000 ft D) 3.000 ft 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 52 2008 AVIAT
IONEXAM.com 27247 (B) 27306 (C) 27308 (A) 27317 (A) 27412 (A) 27449 (A) 27460 (A
) 27466 (A) 27486 (A) 27487 (B) 27488 (C) 27489 (B) 27490 (A) 27743 (A) 28405 (D
) 28406 (A) 27247. (all) If a stable air mass is forced to rise, what type of cl
oud is most likely: A) CU B) NS C) TCU D) CB 27306. (all) What wil be the classi
fication of high level clouds and where will the base be? A) Above 14.000 ft, ni
mbus. B) Above 16.500 ft, cumuliform. C) Above 16.500 ft, cirriform. D) Above 7.
000 ft, cumuliform. 27308. (all) Which of the following types of cloud is most l
ikely to be associated with prolonged and continuous moderate rain? A) NS B) CU
C) ST D) CI 27317. (all) The presence of standing lenticular AC clouds is a good
indication of: A) updrafts and downdrafts. B) an approaching thunderstorm. C) a
n unstable air mass. D) a stable air mass. 27412. (all) Which clouds, normally f
ound in the medium level, can extend to the other levels? A) NS B) AS C) CU D) S
T 27449. (all) What can be said about the formation of haze? A) Dust particles a
re trapped below an inversion. B) The air is very cold and thus the relative hum
idity increases. C) A strong lifting action in the atmosphere is necessary.
D) A frontal system is the cause. 27460. (all) What does a CB contain at moderat
e latitudes in summer? A) A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supe
rcooled water droplets. B) A combination of ice crystals and water droplets. C)
Ice crystals, snow, and water droplets. D) Ice crystals only. 27466. (all) What
do you expect with fair weather cumulus clouds? A) Turbulence at and below the c
loud level. B) Smooth flight below the cloud level. C) Continuous rain. D) Turbu
lence in and above the clouds up to approximately FL250. 27486. (all) Which of t
he following are medium level clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC.
B) ST, CU. C) CI, ST. D) NS, CI. 27487. (all) Which of the following are low le
vel clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC. B) ST, NS. C) CI, ST. D)
NS, CI. 27488. (all) Which of the following are high level clouds? State the mos
t complete answer: A) AS, AC. B) ST, NS. C) CI, CC. D) NS, CI. 27489. (all) Whic
h cloud, normally found in the medium level, may extend to the low and high leve
ls? A) AC B) NS C) CI D) CU 27490. (all) Which cloud type may extend from low to
high level (vertical development)? A) CB B) NS C) CI D) AC 27743. (all) Which p
rocess in an air mass lead to NSAS-ST clouds? A) Lifting. B) Sublimation. C) Eva
poration. D) The presence of a high pressure area. 28405. (all) Regarding stratu
s (ST) and nimbostratus (NS): A) neither does cause precipitation. B) ST does ca
use drizzle and NS rain showers.
C) ST does cause rain showers and NS drizzle. D) ST does cause drizzle and NS ra
in. 28406. (all) Fog and cloud formation takes place by: A) condensation. B) eva
poration. C) sublimation. D) none of the above. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 53 2008 AV
IATIONEXAM.com 28407 (D) 28408 (B) 28472 (D) 28473 (D) 9107 (B) 9112 (B) 9113 (B
) 9114 (B) 9116 (D) 9118 (B) 9119 (B) 9123 (D) 9124 (B) 9130 (B) 28407. (all) Fl
ying conditions associated with cumulonimbus (CB) at summertime are: A) hazy wea
ther combined with drizzle and turbulence. B) good visibility, intervals of fine
weather and little turbulence. C) bad visibility, continuous rain and little tu
rbulence. D) bad visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence. 28408. (all) T
he type of cloud formed when warm, light air rises rapidly into cooler air is a:
A) stratus type. B) cumulus type. C) stratocumulus type. D) nimbostratus type.
28472. (all) The formation of a cumulonimbus (CB) depends on: A) warm and humid
air. B) instability of thick layers of air. C) some sort of lifting of the air.
D) all answers are correct. 28473. (all) Formation of an orographic cloud takes
place when sufficient wind forces the air over obstacles like a mountain, and fu
rther: A) with sufficient height of the mountain the air temperature reaches the
dew point thus creating a cloud. B) it is true that the necessary amount of lif
ting of the air depends on the air humidity. C) the air is supercooled and unsta
ble. D) it is true that the necessary amount of lifting of the air depends on th
e air humidity; and with sufficient height of the mountain the air temperature r
eaches the dew point thus creating a cloud. 050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze 9107. (all
) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of a
dvection fog? A) Moist cold air moving over a warm surface. B) Moist warm air mo
ving over a cold surface. C) Dry warm air moving over a cold surface. D) Dry col
d air moving over a warm surface. 9112. (all) Which of the following is most lik
ely to lead to the formation of radiation fog? A) Dry, warm air passing over war
m ground.
B) Heat loss from the ground on clear nights. C) The passage of fronts. D) Cold
air passing over warm ground. 9113. (all) Which of the following circumstances m
ost favour the development of radiation fog? A) Warm moist air at the windward s
ide of a mountain. B) Moist air over land during clear night with little wind. C
) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea. D) Advection of very cold air ove
r much warmer sea. 9114. (all) What is the average vertical extent of radiation
fog? A) 2.000 ft B) 500 ft C) 5.000 ft D) 10.000 ft 9116. (all) Frontal fog is m
ost likely to occur: A) in winter in the early morning. B) in rear of a warm fro
nt. C) in summer in the early morning. D) in advance of a warm front. 9118. (all
) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of s
team fog (arctic smoke)? A) Warm air moving over cold water. B) Cold air moving
over warm water. C) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun. D) The c
oastal region of the sea cools at night. 9119. (all) At what time of day, or nig
ht, is radiation fog most likely to occur? A) At sunset. B) Shortly after sunris
e. C) Late evening. D) Shortly after midnight. 9123. (all) The range of wind spe
ed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is: A) above 15 kts. B) between
10 and 15 kts. C) between 5 and 10 kts. D) below 5 kts. 9124. (all) When does f
rontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur? A) When very humid warm air meets w
ith dry cold air. B) When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air. C)
When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air. D) When very dry cold air mee
ts with very dry warm air. 9130. (all) Freezing fog consists of: A) frozen water
droplets. B) supercooled water droplets. C) frozen minute snow flakes. D) ice c
rystals. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 54 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 9132 (D) 9133 (A) 9155 (B) 9179 (D) 9183 (C) 9188 (A) 9198 (D)
10209 (D) 10212 (B) 10218 (A) 10241 (D) 10242 (B) 10245 (A) 15786 (B) 16579 (C)
9132. (all) Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?
A) It forms slowly and disappears rapidly. B) It forms at night or the early mor
ning. C) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically. D) It can be formed
suddenly by day or night. 9133. (all) What conditions are most likely to lead t
o the formation of hill fog? A) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the
hills. B) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass. C) Clear skies, calm
or light winds, with relatively low humidity. D) Precipitation which is lifted b
y the action of moderate winds striking the range. 9155. (all) The morning follo
wing a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is li
kely to produce: A) a cold front. B) radiation fog. C) advection fog. D) good cl
ear weather. 9179. (all) When the temperature and dew point are less than one de
gree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be: A) unlimited visibility
. B) clear and cool. C) high scattered clouds. D) fog or low cloud. 9183. (all)
What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at
an airport where the temperature is 15 C and the dew point is 14 C? A) Westerly, 1
0 kts variable. B) Northerly, 10 kts. C) Calm. D) Easterly, 10 kts. 9188. (all)
The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
A) increasing surface wind speed. B) an increasingly stable atmosphere. C) surfa
ce cooling. D) a low level temperature inversion. 9198. (all) Which of the follo
wing is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog? A) A build up o
f a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking
air mass. B) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground. C) Ground c
ooling caused by radiation during the night. D) A marked increase in wind veloci
ty near the ground. 10209. (all) Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:
A) that is stable. B) with warm mass properties.
C) that is absolutely stable. D) with cold mass properties. 10212. (all) Which t
ype of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15 C and dew point of
12 C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5 C? A) Radiatio
n fog. B) Advection fog. C) Steam fog. D) Frontal fog. 10218. (all) Which of the
following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog? A) Light wi
nd, little or no cloud, moist air. B) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air. C) L
ight wind, extensive cloud, moist air. D) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist
air. 10241. (all) Advection fog can be formed when: A) cold moist air flows ove
r warmer water. B) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface. C) warm moist air
flows over a warmer surface. D) warm moist air flows over a colder surface. 102
42. (all) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
A) Very dry air. B) Little or no cloud. C) Strong surface winds. D) Very low tem
peratures. 10245. (all) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land d
uring a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions? A) Radiation B) Advecti
on C) Steam D) Orographic 15786. (all) (Refer to figure 050-02) Of the four radi
o soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog: A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 16579
. (all) Fog (FG) is defined as being a: A) visibility of < 1.000 m due to any pr
ecipitation in the atmosphere. B) visibility of . 1.000 m due to liquid particle
s or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. C) visibility of < 1.000 m due to
liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. D) visibility of
< 1.000 m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere. 050-04 C
LOUDS AND FOG 55 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16580 (D) 16581 (B) 16582 (D) 16583 (D) 1
6584 (D) 16586 (D) 24223 (C) 24224 (D)
24245 (C) 24272 (C) 24279 (D) 24300 (C) 24314 (B) 24335 (A) 16580. (all) Mist (B
R) is defined as being: A) reduced visibility > 1.000 m but not more than 5.000
m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere. B) reduced visibility
> 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to solid or liquid particles in the atm
osphere. C) reduced visibility . 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to solid
or liquid particles in the atmosphere. D) reduced visibility . 1.000 m but not m
ore than 5.000 m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere. 16581.
(all) According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to
the presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A) < 5.000 m B) . 5.000 m C) > 5.000 m D) . 5.000 m 16582. (all) Conditions favo
urable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are: A) high relative humidity,
no cloud. B) high relative humidity, little or no cloud. C) high relative humid
ity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze. D) high relative humidity, little
or no cloud, little wind. 16583. (all) Which of the following statements is true
? A) Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind. B) Radiation fog on
ly forms in valleys (the katabatic effect). C) Radiation fog only forms when the
air is very dry and there is an inversion. D) Radiation fog cannot form over th
e sea. 16584. (all) Radiation fog can be dispersed by: A) insolation. B) strong
winds. C) replacement of moist air by drier air. D) all of the above. 16586. (al
l) Advection fog: A) is formed by advection. B) can form a persist with moderate
or even strong wind. C) is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an
increase in wind strength. D) all of the above. 24223. (all) Advection fog is m
ost likely to form when: A) cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and th
e wind speed is greater than 15 kts. B) cold air is forced over higher ground an
d further adiabatic cooling occurs. C) a mild moist airstream flows over snow co
vered ground and the wind speed is more than 8 kts. D) warm maritime air flows o
ver a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kts. 24224
. (all) Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
A) frontal fog. B) advection fog. C) no fog at all. D) steaming fog. 24245. (all
) As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is
formed. Which statement is true? A) Layers of altocumulus will develop caused by
increasing wind speed. B) Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combi
nation with low geostrophic wind speed. C) Low stratus will develop caused by in
creasing wind speed. D) Stratus will develop caused by insolation. 24272. (all)
Frontal fog can be formed by: A) cooling at night. B) condensation of air satura
ted by adiabatic cooling. C) condensation of air saturated by evaporation of pre
cipitation. D) evaporation of moisture at the surface. 24279. (all) If radiation
fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5
kts to 13 kts will most likely: A) disperse the fog immediately. B) change the r
adiation fog to advection fog. C) have no effect. D) cause the fog to lift and b
ecome low stratus. 24300. (all) In which situation is advection fog most likely
to form? A) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. B) A warm moist air ma
ss on the windward side of the mountains. C) An air mass moving inland from the
coast in winter. D) Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under nowind c
onditions. 24314. (all) Radiation fog most frequently occurs in: A) low pressure
systems over sea. B) high pressure systems over land. C) high pressure systems
over sea. D) low pressure systems over land. 24335. (all) The formation of morni
ng fog before sunrise is possible if A) air temperature and dew point are equal
or close to one another. B) the wind is strong. C) the sky is overcast. D) the t
urbulence in the lower layers is moderate. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 56 2008 AVIATIO
NEXAM.com 24375 (D) 24387 (C) 24415 (A) 24418 (B) 24422 (D) 24448 (A) 24451 (B)
24498 (A) 27069 (A) 27444 (A) 27493 (A) 28409 (B) 28410 (C) 24375. (all) What is
the difference between radiation fog and advection fog? A) Radiation fog is for
med by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation ov
er the sea. B) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only
on the sea. C) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to
daytime cooling. D) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a li
ght wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface. 243
87. (all) What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundla
nd in spring time? A) Radiation fog. B) Frontal fog. C) Advection fog. D) Steami
ng fog. 24415. (all) Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as
MIFG? A) A layer of 5 feet deep. B) A layer of 10 feet deep. C) A layer of 15 f
eet deep. D) A layer of 20 feet deep. 24418. (all) Which of the following phenom
ena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm
? A) Convection. B) Ground radiation. C) Convergence. D) Orographic lift. 24422.
(all) Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the
formation of advection fog? A) Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surf
ace at a speed greater than 15 kts. B) Clear skies at night over an inland marsh
y area. C) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in ex
cess of 30 kts. D) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the
wind speed less than 15 kts. 24448. (all) Which statement is correct? A) Fog can
be supercooled and can also contain ice crystals. B) Mist and haze consist of w
ater droplets. C) Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics. D) Mist and haze onl
y differ by different values of visibility. 24451. (all) Which type of fog can n
ot be formed over water? A) Advection fog. B) Radiation fog. C) Arctic smoke. D)
Frontal fog. 24498. (all) Which is true of advection fog? A) It can appear sudd
enly by day or by night. B) It develops slowly and clears fast. C) It forms when
unstable air is adiabatically cooled. D) It usually forms by night and clears b
y day. 27069. (all) What are the differences between radiation fog and advection
fog? A) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Ad
vection fog forms when warm humid air flows
over a cold surface. B) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog on
ly on the sea. C) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due
to daytime cooling. D) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calmwind
. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea. 27444. (all) Which type o
f fog do you expect over flat landscape on a clear night, under no wind conditio
ns? A) Radiation fog. B) Advection fog. C) Orographic fog. D) Steam fog. 27493.
(all) Name the difference between radiation and advection fog: A) vertical movem
ent (radiation fog) versus horizontal movement (advection fog). B) advedion fog
occurs under no wind conditions in a clear night, while radiation fog formsover
the sea in a 20 kts wind. C) flat landscape, a clear night, winds of 10 kts, for
the formation of radiation fog, and. mountainous terrain and no wind conditions
for advedion fog. D) orographic lining for radiation fog, and horizontal moveme
nt with a 21 kts wind for advection fog. 28409. (all) An autumn day with rain sh
owers and terminated by evening clear sky will be followed in the next morning b
y: A) advection fog. B) radiation fog. C) orografic fog. D) frontal fog. 28410.
(all) Concerning advection fog, a possible extent and duration is: A) tens of me
ters and many days. B) tens of meters and some hours. C) hundreds of meters and
many days. D) hundreds of meters and some hours. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 57 2008 A
VIATIONEXAM.com 28414 (B) 28416 (C) 28475 (D) 28414. (all) Fog formation by warm
and humid air flowing over cold areas is often extensive and of long duration.
Such fog is called: A) radiation fog. B) advection fog. C) orografic fog. D) fro
ntal fog. 28416. (all) The danger of experiencing fog is greatest when: A) dew p
oint temperature is high. B) dew point temperature is low. C) there is little de
w point spread. D) there is great dew point spread.
28475. (all) Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground or 10 metres above the
sea is called: A) smog. B) mist. C) drifting fog. D) shallow fog. 050-05 PRECIP
ITATION 58 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9203 (A) 9205 (D) 9227 (B) 24357 (A) 26319 (A)
27133 (B) 9202 (C) 9204 (C) 9206 (D) 9207 (A) 9215 (D) 9216 (A) 9218 (A) 9219 (C
) 9221 (D) 050-05-01 Development of precipitation 9203. (all) The presence of ic
e pellets at the surface is evidence that: A) freezing rain occurs at a higher a
ltitude. B) a cold front has passed. C) there are thunderstorms in the area. D)
a warm front has passed. 9205. (all) Which form of precipitation from clouds con
taining only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? A) Hail. B) Moderate
rain with large drops. C) Heavy rain with large drops. D) Drizzle. 9227. (all)
How does freezing rain develop? A) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes. B
) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0 C. C) Through melting
of sleet grains. D) Through melting of ice crystals. 24357. (all) The widest pr
ecipitation zone occurs usually: A) ahead of a warm front. B) ahead of a cold fr
ont. C) in rear of a cold front. D) in rear of a warm front. 26319. (all) Which
of the following statements is correct? A) The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mai
nly based on the difference of maximum vapour pressure over water and over ice o
f the same temperature. B) The principle of the Bergeron-Findeisen process is ma
inly based on the difference in size of the cloud elements. C) At mid-latitudes
the coalescense process is usually the initial process in the formation of preci
pitation. D) In the tropics stratiform precipitation does not occur. 27133. (all
) What enhances the growth rate of precipitation? A) Advective action. B) Upward
currents. C) Cyclonic movement. D) Temperature inversions. 050-05-02 Types of p
recipitation 9202. (all) Freezing precipitation occurs:
A) only in the precipitation of a warm front. B) only in the precipitation of a
cold front. C) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle. D) mainl
y in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow. 9204. (all) What type of cloud
can produce hail showers? A) CS B) NS C) CB D) AC 9206. (all) With what type of
cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated? A) CC B) AS C) ST D) CB 9207
. (all) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall? A) Stratus B) Altostratus C)
Cumulus D) Cirrostratus 9215. (all) Freezing rain occurs when: A) snow falls int
o an above-freezing layer of air. B) ice pellets melt. C) water vapour first tur
ns into water droplets. D) rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures belo
w 0 C. 9216. (all) With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly a
ssociated? A) CB B) AS C) SC D) NS 9218. (all) Which of the following are favour
able conditions for the formation of freezing rain? A) Warm air aloft from which
rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0 C. B) Water droplets falling
from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0 C. C) Cold air aloft from which h
ail is falling into air that is warm. D) An isothermal layer aloft with a temper
ature just above 0 C through which rain is falling. 9219. (all) With what type of
cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months? A) NS, CC. B) C
B, ST. C) SC, AS. D) AS, NS. 9221. (all) What type of clouds are associated with
snow showers? A) Nimbostratus. B) Cumulus and altostratus. C) Altostratus and s
tratus. D) Cumulus and cumulonimbus.
050-05 PRECIPITATION 59 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9222 (B) 9223 (D) 9224 (D) 9228 (C
) 9229 (B) 9230 (B) 9231 (A) 9232 (A) 9233 (C) 9235 (A) 16578 (D) 24275 (D) 2431
9 (A) 27146 (D) 27409 (A) 9222. (all) Large hail stones: A) only occur in thunde
rstorms of mid-latitudes. B) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms.
C) are entirely composed of clear ice. D) only occur in frontal thunderstorms.
9223. (all) Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from: A) clouds c
ontaining only ice crystals. B) stratified clouds. C) cirro-type clouds. D) conv
ective clouds. 9224. (all) What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?
A) Nimbostratus. B) Towering cumulus and altostratus. C) Altostratus and stratu
s. D) Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus. 9228. (all) Which one of the following
types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation? A) SC B) CS C) NS
D) ST 9229. (all) With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? A
) Stratocumulus B) Cumulonimbus C) Nimbostratus D) Stratus 9230. (all) With what
type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated? A) CB B) ST C) CC D
) CU 9231. (all) With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation
most commonly associated? A) NS B) AC C) SC D) ST 9232. (all) The following sta
tements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containin
g the most likely alternatives for NS cloud: A) precipitation may be snow, sleet
or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence i
s rarely more than moderate. B) precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing
and turbulence
are frequently severe. C) precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing
and turbulence are frequently severe. D) precipitation and icing are usually ni
l. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate. 9233. (all) Steady precipitation, in
contrast to showery precipitation falls from: A) stratiform clouds with severe
turbulence. B) convective clouds with little or no turbulence. C) stratiform clo
uds with little or no turbulence. D) convective clouds with moderate turbulence.
9235. (all) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce preci
pitation? A) CI B) AS C) CB D) NS 16578. (all) Which precipitation type generall
y has the greatest impact on visibility? A) Heavy rain. B) Drizzle. C) Hail. D)
Snow. 24275. (all) Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to
be experienced below CB clouds situated: A) over the sea in middle latitudes. B
) over the sea near the equator. C) in continental interiors near the equator. D
) in continental interiors in middle latitudes. 24319. (all) Supercooled droplet
s can occur in: A) clouds, fog and precipitation. B) clouds but not in precipita
tion. C) precipitation but not in clouds. D) clouds but not in fog. 27146. (all)
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceeding a front is an indicati
on of: A) cumuliform clouds with moderate turbulence. B) stratiform clouds with
moderate turbulence. C) cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. D) strat
iform clouds with little or no turbulence. 27409. (all) What type of cloud is pe
rtinent for showers? A) CB B) NS C) CI D) AS 050-05 PRECIPITATION 60 2008 AVIATI
ONEXAM.com 28415 (A) 28415. (all) When a rain shower approaches and passes an ai
rfield, the
following will happen: A) the temperature drops and dew point rises. B) the temp
erature remains unchanged and dew point drops. C) the temperature rises and dew
point remains unchanged. D) the temperature rises and dew point drops. 050-06 AI
RMASSES AND FRONTS 61 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9236 (C) 9282 (D) 9285 (A) 9304 (D)
9310 (C) 9324 (D) 10264 (C) 16429 (C) 16431 (C) 24217 (D) 24228 (A) 24230 (C) 24
231 (A) 24232 (C) 050-06-01 Types of airmasses 9236. (all) Where does polar cont
inental air originate? A) The region of the Baltic sea. B) Areas of arctic water
. C) Siberian landmass. D) The region of Greenland. 9282. (all) An air mass is u
nstable when: A) temperature increases with height. B) temperature and humidity
are not constant. C) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal a
rea. D) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height. 9
285. (all) What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity
between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its orig
in over northern Russia? A) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than
the north Russian air. B) The north Russian air is colder and more humid than th
e air of the Azores. C) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the north
Russian air. D) The north Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the A
zores. 9304. (all) In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
A) Arctic maritime air. B) Polar maritime air. C) Tropical continental air. D)
Polar continental air. 9310. (all) An air mass is stable when: A) pressure is co
nstant. B) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height. C) th
e vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappear
s. D) the lapse rate is 1 C per 100 m. 9324. (all) Where is the source of tropica
l continental air that affects Europe in summer? A) The Azores region. B) Southe
rn Italy. C) Southern France.
D) The southern Balkan region and the Near East. 10264. (all) In which of the fo
llowing regions does polar maritime air originate? A) Baltic sea. B) Region of B
ritish Isles. C) East of Greenland. D) Black sea. 16429. (all) A stable humid wa
rm air mass slowly overrides a cold one. Which one of the following weather type
s may originate from this condition? A) The formation of thunder storms. B) Warm
front dissipation. C) The forming of a warm front. D) The forming of a cold fro
nt. 16431. (all) Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone b
etween two air masses? A) An unstable low pressure. B) Radiation fog. C) A front
al low pressure. D) A ridge of high pressure. 24217. (all) A stationary front is
a front in which: A) there are never frontal clouds. B) there is no difference
in temperature between the two air masses. C) there is no wind on both sides of
the front. D) there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front. 24228. (
all) Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterized by: A)
fog, poor visibility and layered clouds. B) strong winds, cumulus clouds, good
visibility. C) uniform temperature, good visibility. D) continuous rain and free
zing temperatures. 24230. (all) An air mass acquires its basic properties: A) by
widespread thunderstorms. B) by the influence of jet streams. C) by stagnation
of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristic
s. D) in the westerlies of the mid-latitudes. 24231. (all) An air mass is stable
when: A) lifted air returns to its original level. B) temperature in a given ar
ea drops off very rapidly with height. C) pressure is constant. D) the lapse rat
e is 1 C per 100 m. 24232. (all) An air mass is unstable when: A) pressure shows
a marked variation over a given horizontal area. B) temperature and humidity are
not constant. C) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable
height. D) temperature increases with height.
050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 62 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24233 (A) 24243 (D) 24244 (
B) 24419 (B) 26337 (C) 27132 (C) 27138 (B) 27219 (A) 27221 (C) 27392 (A) 27628 (
A) 28379 (A) 28382 (C) 28384 (B) 28417 (A) 24233. (all) An air mass is: A) an ex
tensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in horizontal plan
es are practically uniform. B) a large body of air with temperature and humidity
constant in the vertical. C) a body of air with a volume of not more than thous
and cubic kilometres. D) a large body of air within which the temperature and hu
midity is uniform in horizontal and vertical planes. 24243. (all) An unstable ai
r mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of clouds can be expected
? A) Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion. B) Stratiform clouds with c
onsiderable turbulence. C) Layer-like clouds with little vertical development. D
) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence. 24244
. (all) An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by: A) stratiform cl
oud. B) cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation. C) continu
ous light rain from medium level layer cloud. D) poor visibility due to haze at
the lower levels. 24419. (all) Which of the following processes will increase th
e stability of an air mass? A) Addition of water vapour in the lower layer. B) C
ooling by the underlying surface. C) Warming of the air mass from below. D) Adve
ction of colder air aloft. 26337. (all) An air mass acquires its characteristics
by: A) rising of the warm air above the underlying cold air. B) convection. C)
stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular cha
racteristics. D) air circulation around centers of permanent action. 27132. (all
) An air mass is a body of air that: A) has similar cloud formations associated
with it. B) creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth s surface. C) cove
rs an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moistu
re. D) has extensive turbulence associated with it. 27138. (all) Which are chara
cteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A) Cumulifor
m clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and
good visibility. C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility. D) Stra
tiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. 27219. (all) What are the most c
ommon characteristics of a cold air
mass moving over a warm surface? A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visi
bility. B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. C) Stratiform clo
uds, smooth air, and poor visibilty. D) Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good
visibility. 27221. (all) What are the most common characteristics of a warm air
mass, moving over a cold surface? A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good vis
ibility. B) Comuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. C) Stratiform cl
ouds, smooth air, and poor visibilily. D) Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and goo
d visibility. 27392. (all) Where does a polar continental air mass has its origi
n? A) Over the Siberian landmass. B) Over the Baltic sea. C) Over the Atlantic o
cean. D) Over the North Pole. 27628. (all) Which air masses do most often contri
bute to the weather situation in western Europe? A) Maritime tropical air, marit
ime polar air. B) Maritime tropical air, continental polar air. C) Continental t
ropical air, continental arctic air. D) Maritime equatorial air, maritime polar
air. 28379. (all) A warm air mass: A) is cooled from below by the base layer. B)
is warmed from below by the base layer. C) originates at the equator. D) is cha
racterized by sea breeze. 28382. (all) Characteristic of a cold air mass is: A)
precipitation (drizzle). B) extensive fog. C) showers and gusty winds. D) strong
and smooth winds. 28384. (all) What is meant by an area of divergence? A) An ar
ea where air masses are moving in. B) An area where air masses are moving out. C
) A frontal zone. D) A high pressure area. 28417. (all) Absolute instability in
a layer of air is characterized by the vertical temperature gradient in the laye
r being: A) greater than 1/100 m. B) greater than 0,5/100 m. C) less than 0,65/100
m. D) less than 0,6/100 m. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 63 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 2
8462 (A) 9238 (A) 9240 (A) 9241 (B) 9247 (D) 9251 (A) 9252 (B) 9253 (A) 9254 (C)
9255 (B) 9258 (B) 28462. (all) The stability of an air mass increases by: A) co
oling of the lower and heating of the upper layers.
B) heating of the lower and cooling of the upper layers. C) supply of humidity.
D) decreasing dispersion. occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level. C)
The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less col
d air is above ground level. D) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front
of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level. 9254. (all) Whi
ch of the following describes a warm occlusion? A) The air mass ahead of the fro
nt is drier than the air mass behind the front. B) The air mass behind the front
is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front. C) The coldest air mass
is ahead of the occlusion. D) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm
front. 9255. (all) In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observati
ons were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG
= 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 80
00 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1
008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT04
0 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006
BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSI
G = What do you conclude based on these observations? A) A cold front passed the
station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon. B) A warm
front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late after
noon. C) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon. D) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed
the station. 9258. (all) Which of the following conditions are you most likely t
o encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level? A) Sev
ere thunderstorms at low altitude. B) Low cloud base and poor visibility. C) Ext
reme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground. D) High cloud base, go
od surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms. 050-06-02 Fronts 9238. (all)
What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North sea, app
roximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front? A) Cloud cover mostly scat
tered, isolated showers. B) Showers and thunderstorms. C) Rain covering a large
area, 8 oktas NS.
D) 8 oktas CS, AS without precipitation. 9240. (all) In a warm occlusion: A) the
warm front becomes a front aloft. B) the warm front overtakes the cold front. C
) the warm air is lifted. D) the cold air is lifted. 9241. (all) Over central Eu
rope what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression duri
ng winter? A) CI, CS. B) ST with drizzle. C) Fair weather CU. D) CU, CB. 9247. (
all) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the su
mmer? A) Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed. B) Mainly laye
red clouds. C) Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed. D) Mainly tower
ing clouds. 9251. (all) Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direct
ion of the 2.000 feet wind: A) in the warm sector. B) in front of the warm front
. C) behind the cold front. D) at the apex of the wave. 9252. (all) If you have
to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10.000 feet in the warm ai
r and at 2.000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of fre
ezing rain the lowest? A) 9.000 feet. B) 12.000 feet. C) 5.000 feet. D) 3.000 fe
et. 9253. (all) How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion? A) The c
oldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm
air mass is above ground level. B) The coldest air in front of and the less col
d air is behind the 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 64 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9261 (B
) 9262 (B) 9265 (B) 9266 (B) 9268 (A) 9272 (B) 9274 (B) 9275 (A) 9287 (B) 9291 (
A) 9298 (A) 9303 (B) 9261. (all) Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occ
lusion with cold front characteristics? A) Ahead of the front. B) Behind the fro
nt. C) At the surface position of the front. D) At the junction of the occlusion
. 9262. (all) What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front? A)
Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS
begin. B) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front. C)
At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB. D) At some 5
00 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS. 9265. (a
ll) What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in centr
al Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0 C, and freezing rain
starts to fall? A) Cold occlusions. B) Warm fronts, occlusions. C) High level co
ld fronts. D) Cold fronts. 9266. (all) (Refer to figure 050-10) Examining the pi
ctures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be ex
pected? A) Track B-C. B) Track B-D. C) Track A-D. D) Track A-E. 9268. (all) What
type of front usually moves the fastest? A) Cold front. B) Warm front. C) Cold
occlusion. D) Warm occlusion. 9272. (all) (Refer to figure 050-34) This chart sh
ows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the foll
owing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? A) TAF LSGG 230716
05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
B) TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC0
50 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 = C) TAF L
SGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA B
KN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 = D) TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR
SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSR
A BKN020CB = 9274. (all) During a cross-country flight at FL50, you observe the
following sequence of clouds: nimbostratus, altostratus, cirrostratus, cirrus. W
hich of the following are you most likely to encounter? A) Strong, gusty winds.
B) Decreasing temperatures. C) A strong downdraught. D) Increasing temperatures.
9275. (all) In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusio
n when the cold air: A) behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the
warm
air at a high altitude. B) in front of the surface position of front is only at
a high altitude. C) behind is colder than the cold air in front. D) behind is co
lder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude. 928
7. (all) An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind s
ystem of a depression, which is moving from west to east. The center of the depr
ession passes to the south of the observer. For this observer the wind direction
is: A) continuously veering. B) continuously backing. C) initially backing, the
n veering. D) initially veering, then backing. 9291. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
18) Where might we find the warmest air? A) B B) C C) A D) D 9298. (all) What wi
ll be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the gro
und as an active cold front is passing? A) It will first increase then decrease.
B) It will remain unchanged. C) It will first decrease then increase. D) It wil
l fluctuate up and down by about 50 feet. 9303. (all) What characterizes a stati
onary front? A) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the
front. B) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front. C) T
he warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air. D) The weathe
r conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense col
d front and those of a warm and very active front. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 6
5 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9306 (C) 9307 (A) 9309 (D) 9312 (B) 9314 (C) 9319 (C) 93
20 (D) 9322 (D) 9328 (C) 9330 (A) 9332 (B) 9333 (B) 9334 (B) 10250 (C) 10258 (A)
9306. (all) (Refer to figure 050-09) Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is
represented by the cross-section shown on the left? A) Track B-A. B) Track C-A.
C) Track D-A. D) Track B-C. 9307. (all) When do cold occlusions occur most frequ
ently in Europe? A) Summer.
B) Winter. C) Autumn and winter. D) Winter and spring. 9309. (all) (Refer to fig
ure 050-24) What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour
? A) Approximately constant pressure. B) A drop in pressure. C) Irregular fluctu
ations. D) A rise in pressure. 9312. (all) The approximate inclined plane of a w
arm front is: A) 1/50 B) 1/150 C) 1/300 D) 1/500 9314. (all) What is the relativ
e movement of the two airmasses along a cold front? A) Cold air slides over a wa
rm air mass. B) Warm air pushes over a cold air mass. C) Cold air pushes under a
warm air mass. D) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass. 9319. (all) What type
of low pressure area is associated with a surface front? A) A low on lee side of
a mountain. B) A cold air pool. C) Polar front low. D) Heat low. 9320. (all) At
what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to
east generally, at their most southerly position? A) Autumn B) Summer C) Spring
D) Winter 9322. (all) What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a wa
rm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer? A) Very good (greater tha
n 50 km). B) Very poor (less than 1 km). C) Good (greater than 10 km). D) Modera
te (several km). 9328. (all) On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:
A) QFE increases and QNH decreases. B) QFE and QNH increase. C) QFE and QNH decr
ease. D) QFE decreases and QNH increases. 9330. (all) In which approximate direc
tion does the center of a frontal depression move? A) In the direction of the wa
rm sector isobars. B) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front. C
) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase. D) In the direction of the
isobars behind the cold front. 9332. (all)
How do air masses move at a warm front? A) Cold air overrides a warm air mass. B
) Warm air overrides a cold air mass. C) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass. D)
Warm air undercuts a cold air mass. 9333. (all) (Refer to figure 050-11) Assumin
g the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave
have moved? A) Position 4. B) Position 3. C) Position 1. D) Position 2. 9334. (
all) What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depress
ion over central Europe in the summer? A) BKN CU and CB. B) Fair weather CU. C)
Sky clear. D) ST with drizzle. 10250. (all) What will be the effect on the readi
ng of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period followi
ng the passage of an active cold front? A) It will have increased. B) It will re
main unchanged. C) It will have decreased. D) It will show a small increase or d
ecrease. 10258. (all) In which of the following situations can freezing rain be
encountered? A) Ahead of a warm front in the winter. B) Ahead of a cold front in
the winter. C) Behind a warm front in the summer. D) Ahead of a cold front in t
he summer. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 66 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10270 (D) 10271
(B) 10274 (C) 10277 (B) 10278 (C) 10279 (A) 10281 (D) 10282 (D) 10284 (B) 10286
(A) 15867 (C) 16354 (B) 16366 (D) 16427 (A) 10270. (all) The polar front is the
boundary between: A) maritime polar air and continental polar air. B) arctic air
and polar air. C) arctic air and tropical air. D) polar air and tropical air. 1
0271. (all) What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a wa
rm air mass overrides a cold air mass? A) Cumulus B) Stratus C) Altostratus D) C
umulonimbus 10274. (all) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter
of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
A) It will be decreasing. B) It will remain unchanged.
C) It will be increasing. D) It will fluctuate up and down by about 50 feet. 102
77. (all) (Refer to figure 050-08) Which cross-section of air mass and cloud pre
sentation is applicable to the straight line A-B? A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 10278. (al
l) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if: A) t
he cold air is conditionally stable. B) the cold air is conditionally unstable.
C) the warm air is conditionally unstable. D) the warm air is conditionally stab
le. 10279. (all) Read this description: After such a fine day, the ring around t
he moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough
, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling
of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer. Which of these
weather phenomena is being described? A) A warm front. B) A blizzard. C) Weather
at the back of a cold front. D) A cold front. 10281. (all) A frontal depression
passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect? A) Rain o
r snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm secto
r the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front. B) Continous
rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours. C) Sh
owers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sect
or within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front. D) Continuous
rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation sto
ps for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, s
howers within a couple of hours. 10282. (all) After passing at right angles thro
ugh a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you enc
ounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperat
ure? A) A decrease in headwind. B) A backing in the wind direction. C) An increa
se in tailwind. D) A veering in the wind direction. 10284. (all) The main factor
which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is
the: A) saturation of the warm air by rain falling into the cold air and evapora
ting. B) saturation of the cold air by rain falling into the warm air and evapor
ating. C) reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds.
D) warm air moving over a cold surface. 10286. (all) What type of precipitation
would you expect at an active unstable cold front? A) Showers associated with th
understorms. B) Freezing rain. C) Light to moderate continuous rain. D) Drizzle.
15867. (all) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered: A) in an a
ir mass with cold mass properties. B) behind of a stationary front. C) ahead of
a cold front. D) at an occluded front. 16354. (all) Ahead of a warm front: A) wi
nds back and increase with height. B) wind back slightly but veer on passage and
increase with height. C) winds veer and decrease with height. D) winds back and
decrease with height. 16366. (all) The boundary between polar and tropical air
is known as: A) tropical front. B) cold front. C) warm front. D) polar front. 16
427. (all) If cold air is being replaced by warm air, the boundary between the a
ir masses is called: A) a warm front. B) a cold front. C) a polar front. D) an a
rctic front. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 67 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16430 (C) 1643
2 (A) 16434 (B) 16435 (C) 24171 (B) 24184 (B) 24210 (B) 24218 (A) 24241 (B) 2424
2 (D) 24247 (A) 24266 (D) 24295 (A) 24324 (C) 24326 (D) 16430. (all) Which one o
f the following alternatives indicates how an occludet front is generated? A) Wa
rm air supersedes cold air. B) Cold air wedges under warm air. C) A cold front o
vertakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is lifted. D) A cold f
ront is halted and becomes almost stationary. 16432. (all) When flying through a
cold front from the warm air side in the summer, the following flying weather m
ay be expected: A) towering clouds with showery precipitation. B) horizontally e
xtended clouds with drizzle. C) horizontally extended clouds with even tops and
bases. D) towering clouds without turbulence. 16434. (all) When a cold front has
passed over a meteorological station it will result in: A) a steady fall in pre
ssure and a backing of the surface
wind. B) a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface wind. C) a stead
y fall in pressure and a veering of the surface wind. D) a steady rise in pressu
re and a backing of the surface wind. 16435. (all) The mean position of the pola
r front in the N Atlantic is: A) from Florida to SW UK in July. B) from Florida
to North of the UK in January. C) from north of UK to Newfoundland in July. D) f
rom SW UK to Newfoundland in January. 24171. (all) (Refer to figure 050-05) The
diagram of the system in annex represents a: A) cold occlusion. B) warm occlusio
n. C) warm front. D) cold front. 24184. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) The front
labelled F is a: A) cold front. B) warm front. C) warm occlusion. D) cold occlu
sion. 24210. (all) A gust front is: A) normally encountered directly below a thu
nderstorm. B) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm. C) characteriz
ed by heavy lightning. D) another name for a cold front. 24218. (all) A stationa
ry observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The
center of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. Fo
r this observer the wind: A) backs. B) veers. C) initially veers, then backs. D)
initially backs, then veers. 24241. (all) An occlusion has the characteristics
of a warm front when: A) the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead.
B) the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead. C) the cold air behind
is lifted by the warm air. D) the cold air ahead is lifted. 24242. (all) An occ
lusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air: A) at the rear of the occlu
sion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude.
B) ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude.
C) at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead. D) at the rea
r of the occlusion is less cold than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a
higher altitude.
24247. (all) At a cold front: A) warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under i
t. B) warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it. C) temperature rises owi
ng to increased pressure. D) fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm
air. 24266. (all) During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the
wind veers. This statement is: A) not true. B) only true for the passage of a co
ld front. C) only true for the passage of a warm front. D) true. 24295. (all) In
the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates: A) the approach
of a warm occlusion. B) backing winds with increasing heights. C) increasing pro
bability for showers. D) the formation of advection fog. 24324. (all) The air ma
ss in the warm sector of a polar front is: A) arctic air. B) polar air. C) tropi
cal air. D) equatorial air. 24326. (all) The arctic front is the boundary betwee
n: A) arctic air and tropical air. B) polar air and tropical air. C) cold polar
air and less cold polar air. D) polar air and arctic air. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND F
RONTS 68 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24330 (A) 24332 (D) 24338 (B) 24342 (C) 24347 (D)
24348 (A) 24396 (A) 24406 (D) 24438 (B) 26312 (D) 27149 (B) 27150 (C) 24330. (a
ll) The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and ci
rrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and
drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arri
ves. These phenomenon is due to a: A) warm front. B) cold front. C) trade wind f
ront. D) sea-breeze front. 24332. (all) The following sequence of clouds is obse
rved at an airport: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typ
ical for: A) a squall line. B) a cold front. C) anticyclonic weather. D) a warm
front. 24338. (all) The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus, and there
is moderate continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this mo
ment is:
A) behind the cold front. B) the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the
occlusion. C) the warm sector. D) the high pressure area. 24342. (all) The passa
ge of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in
advance and just after the passage are respectively A) arctic smoke and frontal
fog. B) advection fog and radiation fog. C) frontal fog and advection fog. D) a
dvection fog and steaming fog. 24347. (all) The reason for the fact, that the at
mospheric pressure of a polar front depression is normally lower in winter than
in summer is that A) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
B) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter. C)
the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the developm
ent of lows. D) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas ar
e much greater in winter. 24348. (all) The slope and speed of a warm front compa
red to the slope and speed of a cold front is in general: A) smaller and slower.
B) greater and faster. C) greater and slower. D) smaller and faster. 24396. (al
l) When a cold front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity: A) strengt
hens upwind of the mountains. B) decreases when it reaches the mountains. C) is
not disturbed by the mountains. D) ceases immediately. 24406. (all) Where is the
projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be found
in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression? A) 300 to 450 NM behin
d the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front. B) Up to 100 NM eithe
r side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front. C) Up t
o 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm
front. D) 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm
front. 24438. (all) Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of
a frontal depression in the northern hemisphere is correct? A) The precipitatio
n zone of the cold front is in general wider than the precipitation zone of the
warm front. B) The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front tha
n ahead of and behind the cold front. C) While occluding the warm front never be
comes a front aloft. D) The wind veers more at the warm front than at the cold f
ront.
26312. (all) What is signified if an occlusion is described as cold ? A) On meet
ing the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface. B) It deri
ves from a polar depression. C) The air ahead of the associated warm front is co
lder than the air behind the associated cold front. D) The air ahead of the asso
ciated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated cold front. 27
149. (all) When a cold front has passed over an airfield, the wind will: A) reve
rse. B) veer. C) not change. D) become laminar. 27150. (all) Bad weather usually
follows a low pressure because there will be: A) convergence. B) divergence. C)
convergence with lifting of air masses in a deeper layer. D) a sinking of the a
ir masses. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 69 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27429 (A) 27430
(B) 27431 (B) 27457 (A) 27458 (C) 27482 (A) 27613 (D) 27615 (A) 27621 (B) 27429.
(all) You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly before an active c
old front passes. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It increases. B) It decre
ases. C) It is not affected by a pressure change. D) The pressure changes are ve
ry small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. 27430. (al
l) You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shorty after an active cold fr
ont has passed. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It increases. B) It decreas
es. C) It is not affeded by a pressure change. D) The pressure changes are very
small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. 27431. (all)
You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft while a cold front passes the air
port. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It first decreases and then increases
. B) It first increases and then decreases. C) It is not affected by a pressure
change. D) The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visibl
e change of the indication. 27457. (all) Describe a warm occlusion at a polar fr
ont depression: A) the air behind the cold front is lea cold than the air ahead
of the warm front.
B) the air behind the cold front is colder than the air ahead of the warm front.
C) the air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front
. D) both, the air ahead of the warm front and the air behind the cold front are
of approximately the same temperature. 27458. (all) Describe a cold occlusion a
t a polar front depression: A) the air behind the cold front is lea cold than th
e air ahead of the warm front. B) the air ahead of the warm front is colder than
the air behind the cold front. C) the air ahead of the warm front is warmer tha
n the air behind the cold front. D) both, the air ahead of the warm front and th
e air behind the cold front are of approximately the same temperature. 27482. (a
ll) What can be said about showers at a cold front? A) Unstable air is present.
B) They occur mostly in stable air. C) It is a sign for a cold occlusion. D) NS
clouds are present. 27613. (all) The average slope of a cold front is approximat
ely: A) 1:150 B) 1:250 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 27615. (all) On a summer day, the follow
ing observations are made in Zurich: 0450223015KT 3000 +RA SCTOO8 SCT020 OVC030
13112 Q1010 NOSIG= 0650225008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 QlOlO RERA NOSIG= 08502
25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCTIOO 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG= 1050224008KT 9999 SCT040 SCTIOO 21
/15 Q1008 NOSIG= 1250223012KT CAVOK 23116 Q1005 NOSIG= 1450223016KT 9999 SCT040
BKN090 24/17 81003 BECMG 25020 G40KT TS= 1650224018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCTOO6 BKN01
5CB 18H6 Q NOSIG= 1850228012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG= You conclud
e, that: A) a warm front early in the morning and a cold front late in the after
noon have paned the station. B) a trough line early in the morning and a warm fr
ont late in the afternoon have paned the station. C) an air mass thunderstorm on
ly has passed during the entire day. D) a cold front early in the morning and a
warm front late in the afternoon have passed the station. 27621. (all) On a summ
er day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 06502 19002 kts 3000 SCT2
80 08/07 Q1019 BECMG 5000 = 08502 21004KT 8000 BKN280 10107 Q1019 NOSlG = 10502
22007KT CAVOK 14/06 81017 NOSlG = 12502 22012KT 9999 SCT040 SCTIOO BKN250 16/07
Q1016 NOSlG =
14502 22015KT 9999 SCT040 OVC080 17/08 Q1014 NOSlG = 16502 23014KT 8000 -RA SCT0
30 OVC070 16110 Q1013 TEMPO 3000 = 18502 24018KT 4000 +RA SCTOIO BKN020 OVC040 1
6/12 Q1011 NOSIG= 20502 26009KT 8000 SCT030 BKN080 19/13 81012 RERA NOS10 = You
conclude, that: A) a cold front in the morning, and a second cold front in the a
fternoon have passed the station. B) a warm front has passed the station during
the day. C) a warm front early in the morning, and a cold front in the evening h
ave passed the station. D) a north foehn weather pattern prevailed the entire da
y. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 70 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27623 (C) 27742 (A) 2842
8 (D) 28434 (C) 28437 (A) 28476 (B) 28477 (C) 28479 (B) 27623. (all) On a summer
day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450224009 kts 7000 SCT040
SCT120 15112 81014 NOSlG= 0650224010KT 6000 SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSlG= 085
0223014KT 8000 BKNIOO 19/13 PI009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS= 10502 28022G33KT 4000 TSR
A SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16114 Q1006 BECMG NSW= 1250231016KT 9999 SCT025TCU BKN0
30 13/09 Q1009 NOSlG= 1450230012KT 9999 SHRA BKN020TCU 14110 QlOll NOSlG = 16502
30009KT SCT025 BKN035 13110 Q1013 RESHRA NOSIG= 1850228006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q
1014 NOSlG= 2050226004KT CAVOK 10108 PI015 NOSIG= You conclude, that: A) a warm
front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have paned the station.
B) a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather p
revailed in the afternoon. C) a cold front has passed the station in the morning
, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon. D) a cold front in the morni
ng, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station. 27742. (all) Wher
e does the frontal depression move in the direction of the 2.000 ft wind? A) In
the warm sector. B) At the rear side. C) Ahead of the warm front. D) In the cent
er of an occlusion. 28428. (all) In a frontal low: A) the isobars are found in c
losed and more or less oval circles around the lowest pressure. B) the isobars a
re often closer to each other than around a high pressure.
C) the wind will tend to be stronger with increasing altitude and also blow more
parallel to the isobars. D) all answers are correct. 28434. (all) Define a warm
front: A) the front side of a heat wave. B) the situation when cold air displac
es warm air. C) the situation when warm air displaces cold air. D) the same as a
n occlusion. 28437. (all) An occlusion takes place when: A) a cold front catches
up with a warm front. B) warm air displaces cold air. C) cold air displaces war
m air. D) the front no longer moves. 28476. (all) The following is true concerni
ng a warm front: A) the associated type of weather is mostly uniform and offers
only small variations. B) when the air is stable, the clouds are stratiform with
uniform precipitation. C) when the air is unstable, the clouds form vertically
and showers will develop in the precipitation area. D) both B) and C) are corred
. 28477. (all) The following is true concerning a cold front: A) a cold front is
normally less steep than a warm front. B) a cold front is normally moving with
less speed than a warm front. C) a cold front is normally steeper than a warm fr
ont. D) both B) and C) are correct. 28479. (all) In connection with the passage
of a front: A) the pressure will increase before it passes. B) the pressure will
decrease before it passes. C) after frontal passage, the wind will veer. D) the
pressure will decrease before it passes, and after frontal passage, the wind wi
ll veer. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 71 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9353 (D) 9367 (B) 9391
(A) 9405 (C) 27404 (D) 27470 (A) 28435 (A) 28436 (A) 28454 (C) 28467 (A) 9344 (
D) 9348 (B) 050-07-01 Location of the principal pressure areas 9353. (all) In wh
ich of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate
over the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N and the adjoining land areas du
ring the northern summer? A) Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada. B) Greenland, Azor
es, NE Canada. C) Iceland, SW USA, Azores. D) Azores, SE USA, SW Europe. 9367. (
all) Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30N and 65N. During winter the predominant mean low
pressure system at the surface is usually centered over: A) USA. B) Iceland / Gr
eenland. C) Siberia. D) Azores. 9391. (all) Considering the North Atlantic regio
n between 30N and 65N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the nor
mal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is: A) Azores, Siberia.
B) Siberia, Iceland, Canaries. C) NE Canada, Iceland. D) Greenland, Iberian peni
nsula. 9405. (all) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N and t
he adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are:
A) weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high. B) Scandinavian high and Azore
s high. C) Azores high and weak low over NE Canada. D) Azores low and Icelandic
high. 27404. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Select the answer in relation to the main p
ressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30 N and 65 N: Durin
g winter the predominant low pressure system at the surface is usually centered
over: A) USA. B) Siberia. C) Azores. D) Iceland and Greenland. 27470. (AIR: atpl
; HELI: atpl) What is the easterly wave? A) A wave in the trade wind belt, movin
g from east to west, with severe convective activity in the rear of its trough.
B) A wave in the moderate latitudes, moving from east to west, with mostly stabl
e air in the rear of its trough. C) An orographic-induced wave, moving to the ea
st, in moderate latitudes. D) A wave in the trade wind belt, moving to the east,
with severe convective action in the rear of its trouhg. 28435. (all) Define lo
w pressure: A) an area with lower pressure than that of the horizontal environme
nts. B) an area of convergence. C) a trough. D) none of the above. 28436. (all)
Define high pressure: A) an area with higher pressure than that of the horizonta
l environments. B) a high pressure ridge. C) an area of divergence. D) non of th
e above. 28454. (all) Describe how a cold high pressure changes at altitude: A)
strengthens. B) no change. C) weakens and may transfer into a low pressure. D) i
mpossible to predict.
28467. (all) The formation of high and low pressure areas is normally caused by:
A) temperature differences. B) humidity. C) mechanical turbulence. D) storms. 0
50-07-02 Anticyclone 9344. (all) In temperate latitudes what weather conditions
may be expected over land during the summer in the center of a stationary high p
ressure zone? A) NS. B) TS, SH. C) CB, TS. D) Calm winds, haze. 9348. (all) If t
he pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a:
A) cold low. B) warm high. C) cold high. D) warm low. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 72
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9358 (B) 9362 (C) 9390 (A) 9399 (A) 9410 (B) 9415 (C) 941
6 (B) 9420 (D) 16433 (B) 24263 (B) 24399 (C) 24457 (A) 28424 (B) 9358. (all) The
most effective way to dissipate cloud is by: A) convection. B) subsidence. C) a
decrease in temperature. D) a decrease in pressure. 9362. (all) Subsidence is:
A) vertically upwards motion of air. B) horizontal motion of air. C) vertically
downwards motion of air. D) the same as convection. 9390. (all) The stable layer
at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid
-latitudes is called: A) subsidence inversion. B) friction inversion. C) radiati
on inversion. D) trade wind inversion. 9399. (all) A blocking anticyclone on the
northern hemisphere is: A) a warm anticyclone (quasi stationary) situated betwe
en 30N and 65N. B) quasi stationary (situated between 30N and 65N) a cold anticyclon
e. C) situated between 30 and 65N (a cold anticyclone) steering depressions. D) a
cold anticyclone (steering depressions) situated over Scandinavia. 9410. (all)
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over l
and in the winter? A) Thunderstorms. B) A tendency for fog and low ST. C) NS wit
h continuous rain. D) The possibility of snow showers. 9415. (all) What is the m
ost likely cause of a lack of clouds at upper levels in a stationary high? A) In
stability. B) Rising air. C) Sinking air. D) Divergence at higher levels. 9416.
(all) Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it: A) r
eaches warmer layers. B) is heated by compression. C) is heated by expansion. D)
loses water vapour. 9420. (all) What is the correct term for the descending air
flow in a large high pressure area? A) Convection B) Convergence C) Advection D
) Subsidence 16433. (all) Polar air moving south will become: A) increasingly st
able. B) it depends on the pressure. C) conditionally unstable. D) it depends on
the humidity. 24263. (all) During summer an anticyclone covers the British Isle
s giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern Engl
and reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is
aligned in an east/west direction. During the day: A) back to NW and strengthen
by mid-afternoon. B) become southerly to south-westerly and increase in velocit
y by afternoon. C) increase from the north by mid-morning becoming calm towards
evening. D) veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon. 24399. (all)
When flying at 5.000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country)
with an anticyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be
: A) from the right. B) from the left. C) a head wind. D) a tail wind. 24457. (a
ll) You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2.000 ft over a flat country ar
ea. An anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affe
cting you, will be: A) from your right. B) from your left. C) from ahead.
D) from behind. 28424. (all) A high pressure (or anticyclone) is characterized b
y: A) the wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on the northern
hemisphere. B) the wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on th
e southern hemisphere. C) the wind in the friction layer is blowing at an obliqu
e angle and out from the high pressure in relation to the isobars. D) both B) an
d C) are correct. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 73 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9349 (A) 9352
(C) 9366 (A) 9392 (C) 9395 (D) 9407 (B) 9408 (C) 9412 (B) 24208 (D) 24256 (D) 2
6318 (C) 27393 (A) 28433 (D) 28440 (D) 9349. (all) Which is true of a secondary
depression in the northern hemisphere? A) It tends to move round the primary in
a cyclonic sense. B) It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
. C) It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary. D) It tends to maintain
its position relative to the primary. 9352. (all) What type of air movement is a
ssociated with the center line of a trough? A) Divergence with lifting. B) Diver
gence with descending air. C) Convergence with lifting. D) Convergence with desc
ending air. 9366. (all) With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland duri
ng wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is: A) strong windshear, conv
ection and snow showers. B) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
. C) strong wind with subsidence at low levels. D) strong wind associated with a
n almost clear sky. 9392. (all) How do you recognize a cold air pool? A) A cold
air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area. B)
As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart). C) As a low pressure
area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart). D) A cold air pool may only be recognize
d on the surface chart as a high pressure area. 9395. (all) What is encountered
during the summer, over land, in the center of a cold air pool? A) Nothing (CAVO
K). B) Strong westerly winds. C) Fine weather CU. D) Showers and thunderstorms.
9407. (all) A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:
A) divergence and subsidence. B) convergence and widespread ascent. C) divergenc
e and widespread ascent.
D) convergence and subsidence. 9408. (all) Extensive cloud and precipitation is
often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of: A) surface di
vergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the de
pression. B) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread d
escent of air in the depression. C) surface convergence and upper level divergen
ce causing widespread ascent of air in the depression. D) surface divergence and
upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression. 941
2. (all) Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression? A) It forms
over the ocean in summer. B) It forms over land in summer. C) It forms both over
the ocean and land in winter. D) It forms over land in winter. 24208. (all) A c
old air pool: A) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this
region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream. B) develops usua
lly in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents
stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure,
in association with occluded systems. C) normally disappears at night and occur
s almost exclusively in summer. D) is usually most evident in the circulation an
d temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on
a surface chart. 24256. (all) Cold air pools: A) only occur in winter. B) can e
asily be recognized on synoptic surface charts. C) only occur at mid-latitudes.
D) are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels. 2631
8. (all) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front o
f a depression. The center of the depression passes from west to east and north
of the observer. For this observer the wind: A) initially veers, then backs. B)
backs. C) veers. D) initially backs, then veers. 27393. (all) What kind of weath
er conditions do you encounter in a cold air pool center? A) Showers and thunder
storm. B) Light drizzle. C) Light rain. D) Mostly clear skies. 28433. (all) The
formation of a thermal low pressure is by: A) advection of warm air. B) advectio
n of cold air. C) a dynamic effect.
D) a temperature rise in an area in relation to the environment. 28440. (all) In
stability low pressure means: A) a lee low. B) orographic low pressure containin
g condensation heat. C) cold low pressure. D) a low pressure receiving energy fr
om released condensation heat. 050-07-03 Non frontal depressions 050-07 PRESSURE
SYSTEMS 74 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9339 (D) 9345 (A) 9354 (D) 9355 (C) 9363 (D) 9
364 (A) 9369 (D) 9376 (B) 9379 (C) 9380 (D) 9388 (D) 9400 (B) 9402 (A) 9403 (C)
9339. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What type of clouds, visible even at a long d
istance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm? A) NS spread
over a large area. B) Frequent SC. C) Excessive accumulation of CU. D) Dense CI
. 9345. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the likely track for a hurricane in
the Carribean area? A) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
B) East then south. C) West deep into the USA. D) West in the earlier stages an
d later turning south east. 9354. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the main
energy source of a tropical revolving storm? A) The equatorial jet stream. B) Te
mperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high
pressure belt. C) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes. D) Latent heat r
eleased from condensing water vapour. 9355. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During
which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean? A) January until April. B
) October until January. C) July until November. D) April until July. 9363. (AIR
: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropi
cal revolving storms the greatest? A) NE coast. B) W coast. C) N coast. D) SE co
ast. 9364. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) When, if at all, is a tropical revolving
storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? A)
December to April. B) May to July. C) August to October. D) Not experienced at
Darwin. 9369. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During which seasons are hurricanes m
ost likely to appear
in the northern hemisphere? A) All seasons. B) Winter. C) Winter and spring. D)
Summer and autumn. 9376. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Tropical revolving storms
do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because: A) there i
s no Coriolis force present. B) of the low water temperature. C) of the strong s
outheast wind. D) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisph
ere. 9379. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Why do tropical revolving storms tend to
develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans? A) Because there is
a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea. B) Because they are
areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of height.
C) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds along
sea passage. D) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong r
otary circulation. 9380. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the track most lik
ely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area? A) West in the earlier sta
ges and later south east. B) East. C) West deep into the USA. D) West in the ear
lier stages and later north east. 9388. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The region
of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is: A)
the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. B) the ca
rribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of t
he USA. C) the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and t
he island of Reunion. D) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea
and the Chinese coastline. 9400. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 0
50-32) The arrows labelled U represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms w
hich occur mainly from: A) January to March and are called willy-willies. B) Jul
y to October and are called typhoons. C) May to July and are called cyclones. D)
December to April and are called tornadoes. 9402. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)
Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic? A) From the earths
surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings. B) They
intensify rapidly after landfall. C) The diameter is 50-500 m. D) Their greatest
frequency of occurrence is in winter. 9403. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) At wha
t time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands o
f Japan?
A) January to May. B) September to January. C) July to November. D) May to July.
050-07-04 Tropical revolving storms 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 75 2008 AVIATIONEXA
M.com 9409 (B) 9411 (C) 9419 (B) 27459 (A) 28451 (A) 9409. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atp
l, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled S represent the mean tracks
of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) December to April and
are called cyclones. B) May to November and are called cyclones. C) May to Novem
ber and are called hurricanes. D) December to April and are called typhoons. 941
1. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled R r
epresent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A
) June to October and are called typhoons. B) December to April and are called t
ornadoes. C) December to April and are called cyclones. D) June to October and a
re called hurricanes. 9419. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Where is the most dange
rous zone in a tropical revolving storm? A) Anywhere in the eye. B) In the wall
of clouds around the eye. C) In the center of the eye. D) About 600 km away from
the eye. 27459. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which is the greatest region of tropica
l revolving storms? A) The northwest Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea an
d the Chinese coastline. B) The Bermuda Triangle. C) The Carribean Sea, affectin
g Florida and the Bahamas. D) The Gulf of Mexico, affecting Texas, Louisiana and
Florida. 28451. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) To build a hurricane, the following con
ditions, among others, must be fulfilled: A) the surface temperature at least +2
7 C, and the building area 5 - 15 away from the equator. B) building area 5 - 6 awa
y from the equator. C) building area in the equatorial area. D) the hurricane mu
st be in the western areas of the ocean. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 76 2008 AVIATIONEXAM
.com 9468 (C) 9473 (C) 10312 (A) 24257 (C) 24258 (B) 24260 (B) 9435 (A) 9456 (D)
9457 (B) 9463 (A) 9470 (B) 9475 (B) 050-08-01 Climatic zones 9468. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl, cpl) The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally dee
per in winter than in summer is that:
A) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the devel
opment of lows. B) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher
in winter. C) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are
much greater in winter. D) converging air currents are of greater intensity in
winter. 9473. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the type, intensity and seaso
nal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region? A) Precipitation is gen
erally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest inte
nsity is in July. B) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency
is the same throughout the year. C) Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms
occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and
October-November. D) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the fre
quency is highest in January. 10312. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) At about what
geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlie
s? A) 50 N B) 10 N C) 30 N D) 80 N 24257. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering t
he North Atlantic area north of 60N during winter, the mean height of the tropopa
use is approximately: A) 37.000 ft B) 56.000 ft C) 29.000 ft D) 20.000 ft 24258.
(AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50N duri
ng winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately: A) 23.000 ft B) 3
1.000 ft C) 43.000 ft D) 54.000 ft 24260. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Consideri
ng the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N, the mean position of the polar f
ront during summer extends from: A) Florida to SW England. B) Newfoundland to N
Scotland. C) NE Canada to Iceland. D) Greenland to Spain. 050-08-02 Tropical cli
matology 9435. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What winds are mainly associated wit
h the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent? A) Nort
heasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. B) Southwesterly winds carrying warm
and humid air. C) Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. D) Southeasterl
y winds carrying warm and humid air. 9456. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which on
e of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ
) is correct? A) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course
of the year. B) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ. C) The I
TCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream. D) Frequent and widespread th
understorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ. 9457. (AIR: atpl; HE
LI: atpl, cpl) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects: A
) western Africa, at a latitude of 25N in July. B) western Africa between 10 and 2
0N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July. C) the atlantic ocean, bet
ween latitudes 10N and 30N, depending on the time of year. D) western Africa, wher
e it is situated between the 10N and 30N parallels, depending on the time of the y
ear. 9463. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ,
when it lies at the equator? A) SE trade winds and NE trade winds. B) SW monsoo
n and NW monsoon. C) SW monsoon and NW trade winds. D) NW monsoon and SW trade w
inds. 9470. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements conce
rning trade winds is correct? A) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pr
onounced over the continents. B) They occur only in the lower part of the tropos
phere and more pronounced over the oceans. C) They reach up to the tropopause an
d are more pronounced over the oceans. D) They occur only in the lower part of t
he troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents. 9475. (AIR: atpl; HE
LI: atpl, cpl) Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced
by the: A) SW monsoon. B) NE monsoon. C) NW monsoon. D) SE monsoon. 050-08 CLIM
ATOLOGY 77 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9479 (B) 9481 (A) 9484 (D) 9486 (B) 9490 (D) 95
19 (B) 9523 (A) 10297 (D) 10299 (C) 10300 (D) 10302 (D) 10307 (A) 10316 (A) 9479
. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In which month does the humid monsoon in India st
art? A) In October. B) In June. C) In December. D) In March. 9481. (AIR: atpl; H
ELI: atpl, cpl) An easterly wave is a: A) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough. B) wave-li
ke disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with se
vere convective activity ahead of its trough. C) small scale wave disturbance in
the tropics, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough. D) disturbanc
e in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough. 9484. (AIR:
atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-30) What weather conditions are mos
t likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July? A) Reduced visibility due t
o the rising sand of the Harmattan. B) Dry and clear due to the influence of the
Azores high pressure system. C) Generally clear skies - NW trade winds. D) Wet
and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). 9486
. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements is correct
concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa? A) It reaches
its maximum southerly position of 5 S in January. B) It reaches its maximum north
erly position of 15 - 20 N in July. C) It oscillates during the year between 10 N a
nd 10 S. D) It oscillates during the year between the equator and 10 N. 9490. (AIR
: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What name is given to the low level wind system between
the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (I
TCZ)? A) Doldrums. B) Westerly winds. C) Monsoon. D) Trade winds. 9519. (AIR: at
pl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly i
nfluenced by the A) NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ. B) SW monsoon. C)
passage of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean. D) high incidence
of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf. 9523. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl, cpl) What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves? A) Th
understorms and rain. B) Continuous rain. C) Clear skies. D) Frontal weather. 10
297. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During July flights from Bangkok (13N 100E) to K
arachi (25N 67E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kts. In January th
e same flights, also operating at FL370, have an average headwind of 50 kts. Wha
t is the reason for this difference? A) The flights happen to be in the area of
the polar front jet stream. B) The flights during the summer encountered, by cha
nce, very unusual, favorable conditions. C) The flights in January encountered,
by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.
D) The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind sy
stem. 10299. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Along the West coast of India the prev
ailing winds are the: A) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January. B) SW m
onsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January. C) SW monsoon in July and a NE monso
on in January. D) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January. 10300. (AIR: a
tpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, m
ay the ITCZ be encountered? A) At the latitudes of Algeria. B) Near the Canary I
slands. C) At the latitudes of Gibraltar. D) In the vicinity of Dakar. 10302. (A
IR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the
southern hemisphere? A) N B) NE C) SW D) SE 10307. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? A) March to May and October to
November. B) December to February and July to October. C) March to May and Augus
t to October. D) April to July and December to February. 10316. (AIR: atpl; HELI
: atpl, cpl) The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in: A) Septemb
er, October, November. B) July, August, September. C) December, January, Februar
y. D) February, March, April. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 78 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10328
(D) 10333 (C) 10334 (B) 10337 (C) 10563 (A) 16333 (B) 16334 (D) 16336 (C) 24106
(C) 24133 (A) 24134 (A) 24135 (A) 24150 (B) 10328. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)
What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India? A) Fog.
B) Stratus clouds and drizzle. C) Sandstorms. D) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy
rain. 10333. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In which of the following bands of la
titude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in Ja
nuary, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro? A) 8 - 12S. B) 3 - 8S. C) 0 - 7N. D) 7 - 12N.
0334. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following best describes the int
ertropical convergence zone? A) The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeast
erly
trade winds over Africa. B) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemis
phere meet those of the southern hemisphere. C) The zone where cold fronts form
in the tropics. D) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high press
ure belt. 10337. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the name of the wind or ai
r mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipit
ation? A) Indian, maritime tropical air mass. B) South-east trade wind. C) South
-west monsoon. D) Winter monsoon. 10563. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to
figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal system of world wind circulation, th
e NE trade winds are applicable to zone: A) U B) T C) V D) W 16333. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl, cpl) In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over:
A) the Aleutians, Australia, South America. B) the Azores, Siberia, the South Pa
cific. C) the South Pacific, the Azores, Australia. D) Greenland, Siberia, north
west Australia. 16334. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following state
ments concerning the ITCZ is correct? A) In the southern summer it is normally p
ositioned entired south of the equator. B) Its furthest displacement from the eq
uator is normally about 45S. C) It is normally fed with converging northern and s
outhern trad winds. D) Its assocated weather is invariably strong convergence an
d heavy cumuliform cloud. 16336. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The Doldrums: A) i
s another name for the sub-tropical anticyclones. B) are cols between weak front
s encountered in low latitudes. C) are weak inter-tropical convergence zones. D)
are associated with light and variable monsoon winds. 24106. (AIR: atpl; HELI:
atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the sector from 10N to Nairobi of
the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are mo
st likely to be: A) westerlies in excess of 60 kts. B) easterly jet streams in e
xcess of 70 kts. C) light easterlies. D) westerlies at 40 kts. 24133. (AIR: atpl
; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled T represents the
mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) June to Oc
tober and are called cyclones. B) December to April and are called hurricanes.
C) June to October and are called tornadoes. D) June to October and are called h
urricanes. 24134. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-30) Consider
ing that portion of the route indicated from 30E to 50E, the upper winds in Januar
y above FL300 are most likely to be: A) a subtropical westerly jet stream, maxim
um speed exceeding 90 kts. B) a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed e
xceeding 90 kts. C) variable in direction and less than 30 kts. D) light easterl
ies. 24135. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-33) Which is true
of Nairobi (Kenya)? A) There are two wet seasons. B) Apart from the wet season(s
) it is cloud and rain free. C) There is one wet season. D) In July it is freque
ntly affected by clear skies and northerly winds from North Africa. 24150. (AIR:
atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-31) The typical weather conditions
affecting the Darwin area during July are: A) NE monsoon - continuous heavy rain
but little thunderstorm activity. B) dry season - mainly SE winds - visibility
reduced by dust and haze. C) NW monsoon - very wet - proximity of the intertropi
cal convergence zone causes widespread thunderstorm activity. D) mainly clear sk
ies - advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE wind. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY
79 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24265 (A) 24310 (C) 24312 (C) 24404 (D) 27456 (A) 2845
2 (B) 9446 (C) 9458 (A) 9461 (A) 10289 (C) 10304 (A) 10319 (A) 24265. (AIR: atpl
; HELI: atpl, cpl) During the approach to Bombay (19N 73E ) on the west coast of I
ndia, you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 LT. Which of the followin
g reports is most likely? A) 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG
= B) 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000= C) 02005KT CAVOK 24
/09 Q1030 NOSIG= D) 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR= 24310.
(AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On the west coast of India it can be said in gener
al that the wind blows: A) the whole year from the northeast. B) for six month f
rom the northwest and for six month from the southeast. C) for six month from th
e northeast and for six month from the southwest. D) the whole year from the sou
theast.
24312. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur
? A) Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic ocean at 20S. B) India, Arabic sea, Atla
ntic ocean at 2S. C) Caribbean sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian ocean east of Madagasc
ar. D) Caribbean sea, Indian ocean at 20S, Pacific ocean at 2N. 24404. (AIR: atpl;
HELI: atpl, cpl) Where do the trade winds blow? A) At the equator. B) Between t
he horse latitudes and the mid latitudes. C) Between the horse latitudes and the
equatorial highs. D) Between the horse latitudes and the doldrums. 27456. (AIR:
atpl; HELI: atpl) The ITCZ affects: A) west Africa between 10 and 30 N, and the n
orth coasts of the Arabian Sea. B) east Africa between 10 and 20 N. C) west Africa
between 10 and 30 N only. D) the entire African continent. 28452. (AIR: atpl; HEL
I: atpl) Mention one of the characteristics of the Monsoons: A) daily change of
wind direction. B) yearly change of wind direction. C) the wind blowing from one
direction all the year. D) the wind blowing along the 40 south, from the west to
wards the east. 050-08-03 Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes 9446. (all
) A cold pool: A) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in
summer. B) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or marit
ime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive
ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems. C) is usually mos
t evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere an
d may show little or no sign on a surface chart. D) occurs frequently in winter
to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-w
esterly airstream. 9458. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the
intertropical convergence zone is true? A) There are frequent occurrences of CB.
B) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southe
rn hemisphere in January. C) It does not change its position over the oceans dur
ing the year. D) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity. 9461.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-29) Which typical weather situation is shown on the w
eather chart? (spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa) A) Flat pressure pattern. B) Cutti
ng wind. C) West wind condition. D) Warm south wind condition (Foehn). 10289. (a
ll)
(Refer to figure 050-52) Which typical weather situation is shown by the design
for northern Italy? A) Westerly wind. B) Warm southerly wind. C) High pressure.
D) Easterly wind. 10304. (all) With a flat pressure pattern and no thunderstorms
around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked
on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes? A) Apparently nothing, bec
ause any changes would be small. B) Increase rapidly. C) Show strong fluctuation
s. D) Decrease rapidly. 10319. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) Which typical weat
her situation is shown by the design for the area of central Europe? A) Westerly
waves. B) Uniform pressure pattern. C) Cutting wind. D) Easterly waves. 050-08
CLIMATOLOGY 80 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16339 (C) 24102 (C) 24287 (C) 24337 (B) 244
37 (A) 26320 (A) 28450 (B) 9429 (A) 9430 (C) 9441 (A) 9449 (B) 9451 (C) 9466 (C)
16339. (all) Which of the following statements is correct? A) In winter the Sav
annah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains. B) Trade wind seldom
extend much above 5.000 feet. C) The outflow of air from the Siberian high over
northern China an Japan is initally north-westerly. D) The easterly jet stream n
ormally appears at the 200 mb level. 24102. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assum
ing a generalized zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone X is
an area of: A) NE trade winds. B) travelling low pressure systems. C) subtropic
al high pressure systems. D) the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). 24287. (
all) In mid-latitudes, the tops of cumulus are often limited by: A) a radiation
inversion. B) a layer of unstable air. C) a temperature inversion. D) the tropop
ause. 24337. (all) The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet st
ream are respectively: A) 1.000 NM, 150 NM, 30.000 ft. B) 1.000 NM, 150 NM, 18.0
00 ft.
C) 1.000 NM, 5.000 to 8.000 ft, 30.000 ft. D) 200 NM, 5 NM, 18.000 ft. 24437. (a
ll) Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct? A) Their
eye can be well observed by weather satellites. B) They intensify after landfall
. C) They move towards the equator. D) They move with a speed of at least 60 kts
. 26320. (all) The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section,
the lower situated pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressu
re surfaces bulge downward is a: A) cold high pressure area. B) cold low pressur
e area. C) warm low pressure area. D) warm high pressure area. 28450. (all) List
the characteristics of a typical coastal climate: A) warm summer and cold winte
r. B) chilly summer and mild winter. C) small amounts of precipitation. D) stabl
e weather. 050-08-04 Local seasonal weather and wind 9429. (all) The Chinook is
a: A) warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Ro
cky Mountains. B) very cold wind with blowing snow. C) downslope wind that occur
s particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes. D) warm anabatic win
d up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers. 9430. (all) What is the name of the n
ortherly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Euro
pe? A) Bora B) Foehn C) Mistral D) Typhoon 9441. (all) Which weather phenomena a
re typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south (F
oehn)? A) Good visibility, turbulence. B) Continuous precipitation, severe turbu
lence. C) Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing. D) Icing, huge mass
of clouds. 9449. (all) A dry, sand- and dust-laden northeasterly wind that blow
s in winter over large parts of northwest Africa is known as a: A) Scirocco B) H
armattan C) Pampero D) Khamsin 9451. (all) For an aircraft what are the meteorol
ogical dangers associated with a Harmattan wind? A) Sand up to FL150. B) Thunder
storms.
C) Dust and poor visibility. D) Hail. 9466. (all) What are the characteristics o
f the Bora? A) It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eas
tern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation. B) It is a very cold win
d that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the Mediterranea
n. C) It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table
land downwards to the Adriatic. D) It is a dry and hot southerly wind experience
d in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 81 2008 AVIA
TIONEXAM.com 9474 (B) 9488 (A) 9495 (D) 9507 (C) 9524 (D) 9527 (C) 9747 (A) 9808
(A) 10301 (D) 10326 (C) 10329 (D) 10330 (A) 10331 (C) 9474. (all) (Refer to fig
ure 050-53) Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statem
ents is likely to apply? A) Severe gradient wind likely over central Europe. B)
Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over central Europe. C) Moderate to
strong Foehn in the Alps. D) Radiation fog is unlikely in central Europe in the
winter. 9488. (all) Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter li
ttle or no precipitation? A) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn
from the south. B) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the n
orth. C) Frontal zones. D) Occlusions. 9495. (all) What weather conditions in th
e region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south? A) Heavy airframe i
cing conditions on the northern side of the Alps. B) Heavy clear air turbulence
on the southern side of the Alps. C) Strong north winds on the southern side of
the Alps. D) Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps. 9507. (all) Th
e Foehn wind is a: A) warm anabatic wind. B) cold fall wind. C) warm fall wind.
D) cold anabatic wind. 9524. (all) What is characteristic of the pamperos? A) Fo
ehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees. B) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountain
s. C) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America. D) A marked advance
of cold air in South America. 9527. (all) What is the strong relatively cold kat
abatic wind, blowing
down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called? A)
Mistral B) Ghibli C) Bora D) Scirocco 9747. (all) What is the reason for season
al changes in climate? A) Because the Earths spin axis is inclined to the plane
of its orbit round the Sun. B) Because the distance between the Earth and the Su
n varies over a year. C) Because the Earth s orbital speed round the Sun varies
according to the time of the year. D) Because of the difference between the Trop
ical Year and the Calendar Year. 9808. (all) At what times of the year does the
length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly? A) Spring Equinox and Autum
n Equinox. B) Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice. C) Spring Equinox and Summer
Solstice. D) Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice. 10301. (all) A strong, dry and
warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or moun
tains is known as a: A) Bora B) Harmattan C) Mistral D) Foehn 10326. (all) (Refe
r to figure 050-33) Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the
Harmattan is a: A) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of Nort
h Africa. B) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along th
e west African coast south of 15N. C) NE wind affecting northwest Africa during N
ovember to April reducing visibility in rising dust. D) localised depression giv
ing squally winds. 10329. (all) A Foehn wind occurs on the: A) leeward side of a
mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leewa
rd side than on the windward side. B) windward side of a mountain range and is c
aused by surface heating. C) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by
surface cooling and reverse air flow. D) leeward side of a mountain range and is
caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud. 10330. (all) W
hat is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chain
s? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind
depending on the weather situation. A) Foehn B) Mistral
C) Bora D) Scirocco 10331. (all) The Bora is a: A) cold catabatic wind with gust
s associated with a maritime air mass. B) squally warm catabatic wind which occu
rs mainly in summer. C) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gust
s. D) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers. 050-0
8 CLIMATOLOGY 82 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10336 (C) 15829 (B) 24101 (A) 24103 (B) 2
4104 (A) 24250 (A) 24259 (A) 24268 (B) 24271 (A) 24290 (C) 24311 (D) 24325 (C) 2
4327 (B) 10336. (all) Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? A)
Harmattan B) Scirocco C) Chinook D) Bora 15829. (all) 8/8 stratus base 200 ft A
GL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1.0
28 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is lik
ely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter? A) Winter: SCT base 3.000 ft AGL; summer
OVC base 500 ft AGL. B) Winter: OVC base 500 ft AGL; summer SCT base 3.000 ft AG
L. C) Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1.500 ft AGL. D) Winter: BKN base 2.
500 ft AGL; summer BKN base 3.500 ft AGL. 24101. (all) (Refer to figure 050-30)
Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the trop
opause during January is approximately: A) 56.000 ft B) 43.000 ft C) 36.000 ft D
) 29.000 ft 24103. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal s
ystem of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone: A) T
B) W C) U D) V 24104. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zon
al system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are appl
icable to zone: A) S and Y. B) T only. C) T and X. D) U and W.
24250. (all) At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be aff
ected by the equatorial jet stream? A) FL500 from June to August. B) FL500 from
November to February. C) FL400 during the winter in the northern hemisphere. D)
FL400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere. 24259. (all) Considering the
North Atlantic between 30N and 65N, the mean position of the polar front during w
inter extends from: A) Florida to SW England. B) Newfoundland to Iceland. C) Ice
land to Norway. D) NE Canada to Portugal. 24268. (all) For an airfield located i
n the British Isles, the passage of a warm front from the cold air side will usu
ally be indicated by: A) a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, w
ind backing and decreasing. B) rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperatur
e, wind veers and decreases. C) rapid improvement in visibility, pressure fallin
g rapidly, wind veering and increasing. D) rise in temperature, rapid rise in pr
essure, wind backs and becomes gusty. 24271. (all) From summer to winter the pol
ar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves: A) towards the south and the
speed increases. B) towards the north and the speed increases. C) towards the so
uth and the speed decreases. D) towards the north and the speed decreases. 24290
. (all) In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated
with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located A) below the tropopause at abo
ut 300 hPa. B) above the tropopause at about 100 hPa. C) below the tropopause at
about 200 hPa. D) above the tropopause at about 250 hPa. 24311. (all) Over the
Indian ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are: A) frequently observed
, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but never over the Bay of Be
ngal. B) rare, in the average one every two years. C) never observed. D) occasio
nally observed, in the average 12 per year. 24325. (all) The air masses that are
observed most frequently over western Europe are: A) polar air and equatorial a
ir. B) arctic air and polar air. C) polar air and tropical air. D) arctic air an
d tropical air. 24327. (all) The average position of the polar front in the nort
hern hemisphere is:
A) B) C) D)
more southerly during the summer than during the winter. more southerly during t
he winter than during the summer. located near 55N during the whole year. located
near 65N during the whole year.
050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 83 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24329 (B) 24331 (B) 24344 (B) 24350
(C) 24359 (D) 24368 (C) 24393 (D) 24397 (D) 24426 (A) 24439 (B) 24446 (B) 24449
(B) 24450 (D) 24329. (all) The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs: A) only
in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30.000 ft. B) only in the s
ummer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45.000 ft. C) during the whole year
in the southern hemisphere. D) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere.
24331. (all) The Foehn wind is a: A) cold katabatic wind. B) warm katabatic win
d. C) warm anabatic wind. D) cold anabatic wind. 24344. (all) The prevailing sur
face wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of
Guinea) is a: A) SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer. B) SW monsoon in
summer and NE tradewind in winter. C) NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind i
n winter. D) NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer. 24350. (all) The S
W monsoon starts in the month of: A) december in southern India to reach Pakista
n in May. B) september in Pakistan to reach southern India in November. C) june
in southern India to reach Pakistan in July. D) march in southern India to reach
Pakistan end of April. 24359. (all) Tropical revolving storms are not formed in
: A) south Indian ocean. B) gulf of Bengal. C) waters around the Philippines. D)
south Atlantic ocean. 24368. (all) What is a favourable synoptic situation for
the development of a Scirocco? A) Extension of the Azores high pressure area ove
r the Alps. B) High pressure area over Italy. C) Low pressure area in the wester
n part of the Mediterranean sea. D) High pressure area in the western part of th
e Mediterranean sea. 24393. (all) What type of weather can usually be expected i
n a polar maritime air mass over central Europe in the daytime during summer? A)
Sky clear. B) Continuous rain and poor visibility.
C) Drizzle and low stratus. D) Showers and good visibility. 24397. (all) When an
d where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered? A) Throughout the ye
ar to the south of the Azorian high. B) In winter along the Russian coast facing
the Arctic ocean. C) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern
part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain. D) In summer from southeast Asia e
xtending over southern India to central Africa. 24426. (all) Which of the follow
ing statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter
on the North Atlantic between FL300 and FL400 is most correct? A) The average we
sterly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of th
e axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer
. B) The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest sp
eeds moves south in winter. C) The average westerly component remains the same b
ut the altitude of greatest wind speed reduces in winter. D) The average westerl
y component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude of the axi
s of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter. 24439.
(all) Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct? A) It is a northeasterl
y wind over the western part of North Africa with much dust and sand. B) It blow
s from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may reach Europe.
C) The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by the
presence of a trade wind inversion. D) It is formed by a strong increase of air
pressure over North Africa. 24446. (all) Which statement is correct for the sou
thern hemisphere? A) The jet streams are easterly. B) In the friction layer the
wind backs with increasing height. C) The wind veers at the passage of a cold fr
ont. D) If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected. 2444
9. (all) Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europ
e? A) Continental tropical warm and continental polar cold. B) Maritime tropical
warm and maritime polar cold. C) Maritime tropical warm and continental polar c
old. D) Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm. 24450. (all) Which ty
pe of air mass never occurs over central Europe? A) Tropical air. B) Arctic air.
C) Polar air. D) Equatorial air. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 84 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com
25621 (A) 25631 (A) 25635 (B) 26322 (D) 27406 (A) 27414 (B) 27467 (A) 27468 (A)
27469 (A) 25621. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-31) Consideri
ng Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of
: A) subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originatin
g in the adjacent zone of westerly waves. B) antarctic high pressure due to the
absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and Antarctica. C) d
isturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fro
nts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain. D) equatorial low pressure du
e to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia.
25631. (all) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of
travelling low pressure systems during summer? A) 45 - 70. B) 25 - 45. C) 15 - 25. D)
10 - 15. 25635. (all) What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm s
ector of maritime tropical air during a summer afternoon in western Europe? A) V
ery poor (less than 1 km). B) Moderate (several km). C) Very good (greater than
50 km). D) Good (greater than 10 km). 26322. (all) During summer, a weak pressur
e gradient covers a coastal airfield in eastern England resulting in mainly clea
r skies. The surface wind at dawn was calm. If the alignment of the coastline in
the vicinity of the airfield is predominantly north/south, the surface wind dir
ection is likely to become: A) westerly and then southerly by evening. B) easter
ly and then westerly by afternoon. C) westerly and increase in velocity by after
noon. D) easterly to southeasterly and increase in velocitiy by afternoon. 27406
. (all) Which of the following is a cold katabatic wind flowing towards the Adri
atic sea? A) Bora B) Scirocco C) Ghibli D) Mistral 27414. (all) What typical wea
ther do you encounter during foehn conditions north of the Alps? A) Good weather
. B) Turbulence during south foehn. C) Heavy rain and NS clouds. D) Icing. 27467
. (all) Define the Chinook: A) warm and dry air descending at the leeward side o
f the Rocky Mountains. B) cold and dry air descending at the leeward side of the
Appalachian Mountains.
C) a dust and sand laden northeasterly wind in Northwest Africa. D) warm and dry
air ascending on the West Side of the-Rocky Mountains. 27468. (all) Define the
Foehn: A) warm and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Alp. B) cold an
d dry air descending at the leeward side of the Appalachian Mountains. C) strong
, cold wind, mostly obsenred in the Rhone valley, blowing towards Southern Franc
e. D) warm and dry air ascending on the west side of the Alps. 27469. (AIR: atpl
; HELI: atpl) What is a dry, sand and dust-laden northeasterly wind in the winte
r in northwest Africa? A) Harmattan B) Khamsin C) Scirocco D) Pampero 050-09 FLI
GHT HAZARDS 85 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9536 (B) 9537 (D) 9541 (C) 9548 (C) 9568 (D
) 9570 (A) 9581 (D) 9595 (A) 9604 (B) 9608 (A) 9612 (C) 9615 (B) 9616 (D) 050-09
-01 Icing 9536. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Large supercooled water drops, which
freeze on impact on an airplane, form: A) rime ice. B) clear ice. C) hoar frost.
D) cloudy ice. 9537. (all) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually
ruled out? A) CU B) SC C) NS D) CI 9541. (all) You have been flying for some ti
me in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25 C. Which of the fol
lowing statements is true? A) If you do not have weather radar on board there is
no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloud. B) Severe airframe i
cing is quite likely under these conditions. C) Severe airframe icing is unlikel
y under these conditions. D) In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at
an outside air temperature of -5 C. 9548. (all) In which of these temperature ban
ds is ice most likely to form on the aircrafts surface? A) -20 C to -35 C. B) +10 C
to 0 C. C) 0 C to -10 C. D) -35 C to -50 C. 9568. (all)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? A) NS B) AS C) S
C D) CS 9570. (all) On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5 C. Th
e freezing level is at 3.000 ft AGL. At 4.000 ft AGL, there is a solid cloud lay
er from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are
due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. W
ould you expect icing? A) Yes, between ground level and 3.000 ft AGL. B) Yes, bu
t only between 3.000 and 4.000 ft AGL. C) No, flights clear of cloud experience
no icing. D) No, absolutely no icing will occur. 9581. (all) Which of the follow
ing conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing? A) PE B) GR C) SHSN D) +F
ZRA 9595. (all) A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil
will most likely: A) freeze immediately and create rime ice. B) freeze immediate
ly and create clear ice. C) travel back over the wing, creating rime ice. D) tra
vel back over the wing, creating clear ice. 9604. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Whi
le descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and
rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing.
This contamination is called: A) clear ice. B) rime ice. C) mixed ice. D) frost.
9608. (all) In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptibl
e to icing? A) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero
degrees C. B) Flying in dense cirrus clouds. C) Level flight in snowfall below a
nimbostratus layer. D) Flying in heavy drizzle. 9612. (all) Which one of the fo
llowing statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct? A
) Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 C
. B) Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds. C) A clo
ud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircr
aft icing. D) Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a
cloud. 9615. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all)
Hoar frost is most likely to form when: A) flying inside convective clouds. B) t
aking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion. C) flying inside
stratiform clouds. D) flying in supercooled drizzle. 9616. (all) Which of the f
ollowing factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types
of ice on an aircraft? A) Relative humidity inside the cloud. B) Aircraft speed
and size of cloud droplets. C) Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil. D) C
loud temperature and droplet size. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 86 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.co
m 9618 (B) 9621 (B) 9624 (C) 9626 (B) 10341 (B) 10345 (B) 10353 (D) 10358 (D) 10
368 (B) 10373 (B) 10376 (B) 10377 (A) 10378 (C) 10379 (A) 9618. (AIR: atpl, ir;
HELI: all) Freezing fog exists if fog droplets: A) are frozen. B) are supercoole
d. C) are freezing very rapidly. D) freeze when temperature falls below zero. 96
21. (all) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a
thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. Th
e cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statement
s is most correct concerning ice accretion? A) Aircraft T experiences more icing
than S. B) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T. C) Aircraft S and T experi
ence the same amount of icing. D) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to
the small size of droplets. 9624. (all) A winter day in northern Europe with a t
hick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to 0 C at ground level,
you can expect: A) reduced visibility and light icing in clouds. B) decreasing v
isibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds. C) a
high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to acc
umulation of large droplets. D) turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no ici
ng because clouds consist of ice crystals. 9626. (all) Which of the following cl
oud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not s
ubject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets? A) Strat
ocumulus and cirrostratus. B) Altocumulus and altostratus. C) Stratus and cumulo
nimbus. D) Altostratus and cirrocumulus. 10341. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At wh
at degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/ or altitude immediately instr
uction be followed? A) Light. B) Severe.
C) Moderate. D) Extreme. 10345. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clear ice forms on an
aircraft by the freezing of: A) water vapour. B) large supercooled water drops.
C) small supercooled water drops. D) snow. 10353. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Cl
ear ice is dangerous because it: A) spreads out and contains many air particles.
B) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges. C) is not translucent an
d forms at the leading edges. D) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the ai
rcraft surfaces. 10358. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) The most dangerous form of ai
rframe icing is: A) rime ice. B) hoar frost. C) dry ice. D) clear ice. 10368. (A
IR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) In which environment is aircraft structural ice most li
kely to have the highest rate of accumulation? A) Cirrus clouds. B) Freezing rai
n. C) Stratus clouds. D) Snow. 10373. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At what degree
of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude desirable recommendation
be followed? A) Light. B) Moderate. C) Severe. D) Extreme. 10376. (all) Atmosphe
ric soundings give the following temperature profile: 3.000 ft +15 C 6.000 ft +8 C
10.000 ft +1 C 14.000 ft -6 C 18.000 ft -14 C 24.000 ft -26 C At which of the follo
wing flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest? A) FL80 B
) FL150 C) FL180 D) FL220 10377. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clear ice forms as a
result of: A) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process.
B) water vapour freezing to the aircraft. C) ice pellets splattering on the air
craft. D) supercooled droplets freezing on impact. 10378. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI:
all) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of: A) water vap
our.
B) large supercooled water drops. C) small supercooled water drops. D) snow. 103
79. (all) How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2.000 ft AGL, when he
is unable to deice, nor land? A) He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeu
vrability. B) He descends to the warm air layer below. C) He ascends to the cold
air layer above. D) He continues to fly at the same altitude. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZ
ARDS 87 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10386 (C) 10391 (B) 10392 (A) 10430 (B) 10435 (A)
10442 (D) 15839 (C) 15873 (A) 15875 (D) 16327 (C) 16441 (C) 16442 (D) 16443 (A)
16444 (B) 10386. (all) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clea
r ice accretion to occur in a CB? A) Close to the freezing level. B) Between -20
C and -30 C. C) Between -2 C and -15 C. D) Between -30 C and -40 C. 10391. (AIR: atpl
, ir; HELI: all) Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are: A)
small and at a temperature just below freezing. B) large and at a temperature ju
st below freezing. C) small and freeze rapidly. D) of any size at temperatures b
elow -35 C. 10392. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) The type of icing that occurs in de
nse clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5 C is most l
ikely to be: A) clear ice. B) hoar frost. C) rime ice. D) cloudy ice. 10430. (AI
R: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At what degree of icing can ICAOs No change of course an
d altitude necessary recommendation be followed? A) Moderate B) Light C) Severe
D) Extreme 10435. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as
a result of: A) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft
surface. B) freezing rain striking the aircraft. C) droplets forming on the airc
raft and then freezing. D) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft. 10
442. (all) Which of the following statements is true regarding moderateto-severe
airframe icing? A) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capil
latus formation. B) It always occurs in altostratus cloud. C) It is unlikely to
occur in nimbostratus cloud.
D) It will not occur in clear-sky conditions. 15839. (all) Which of the followin
g statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing? A) It may occu
r in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation. B) It always o
ccurs in altostratus cloud. C) It may occur in nimbostratus cloud. D) It will oc
cur in clear-sky conditions. 15873. (all) During the formation of rime ice in fl
ight, water droplets freeze: A) rapidly and do not spread out. B) slowly and do
not spread out. C) slowly and spread out. D) rapidly and spread out. 15875. (all
) A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when
the temperature profile: A) coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) indica
tes temperatures below -40 C. C) indicates temperatures above 3 C. D) intersects t
he 0 C isotherm twice. 16327. (all) The icing in cloud which forms over hills is
likely to be more severe than in the same type of cloud over level terrain becau
se: A) orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the fr
ee water content of the cloud. B) increases the temperature inside the cloud by
forcing the release of latent heat so caousing the air to hold more water vapour
. C) enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retained in the cloud
by the increased upward components. D) adiablatic cooling lowers the freezing le
vel and the water content of the cloud. 16441. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which
one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is correct? A)
A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates. B) Rime ice forms wh
en large water drops freeze. C) Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze. D
) Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze. 16442. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI:
all) One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft
is? A) The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load. B) Lift be
coming too great as the aircraft becomes heavier. C) The lift coefficient increa
sing as the aircraft becomes heavier. D) The stalling speed increasing substanti
ally. 16443. (AIR: atpl, ir) Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:
A) the stalling speed to increase. B) the stalling speed to decrease. C) the int
erference drag to increase. D) the interference drag to decrease. 16444. (AIR: a
tpl, ir; HELI: all) A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:
A) B) C) D)
does not affect takeoff performance. has deleterious effects on the lift of the
wing. affects the aspect ratio of the wing. only affects stability.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 88 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16445 (C) 24226 (A) 24234 (A) 242
35 (D) 24267 (C) 24278 (C) 24286 (C) 24298 (C) 24334 (D) 24340 (B) 24360 (A) 243
64 (A) 16445. (all) Which one of the wollowing precipitation types gives the mos
t severe icing? A) Snowfall. B) Mixed rain and snow. C) Freezing rain. D) Ice pe
llets. 24226. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) After a prolonged VMC descent in very c
old air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter?
A) Hoar frost. B) Rime ice. C) Clear ice. D) Smooth icing. 24234. (all) An aircr
aft descents in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL60. At what
levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest? A) Between FL120 and F
L60. B) Between FL120 and FL180. C) Between FL60 and FL20. D) At FL140. 24235. (
AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) An aircraft flies into supercooled rain in an area wit
h a temperature below 0 C. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is: A)
granular frost. B) hoar frost. C) rime ice. D) clear ice. 24267. (all) For a VF
R aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are
: A) flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0 C, re
sulting in rime ice formation. B) flight into supercooled rain, resulting in rim
e ice formation. C) flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation.
D) flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear i
ce formation. 24278. (all) Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most ha
zardous at temperatures: A) between 0 C and -17 C in ST. B) between 0 C and -17 C in
AS. C) between 0 C and -23 C in large CU. D) below -40 C in CB. 24286. (all) In ma
ture Cb s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is
greatest in the following temperature
range: A) -23 C to -40 C. B) +5 C to 0 C. C) 0 C to -23 C. D) -40 C to -60 C. 24298. (
l) In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how woul
d it normally appear? A) Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures b
etween -20 C and 25 C. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surf
ace on which it freezes. B) Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperature
s between -10 C and -20 C. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into t
he air stream. C) Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between
0 C and -15 C. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing. D) S
tratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing. Appear
s opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge. 24334. (all)
The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely t
o be caused by the: A) relatively slow freezing of small supercooled water dropl
ets and ice crystals. B) instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water dropl
ets. C) instantaneous freezing of large supercooled water droplets and snow crys
tals. D) relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets. 24340. (a
ll) The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in: A) icy clouds at hig
h levels. B) supercooled precipitation. C) unstable clouds at medium levels. D)
zones where the air temperature is below -15 C. 24360. (all) What are the charact
eristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation?
A) Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating forward
into the air stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -0 C to -15 C are most
conducive to its formation. B) Opaque rough appearance, tending to spread back o
ver an aircraft surface. Most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at tem
peratures slightly below freezing. C) Smooth appearance and builds forward from
leading surfaces into a sharp edge. Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperat
ures of -20 C to -25 C. D) Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape o
f the surface on which it freezes. Stratiform clouds and temperatures only sligh
tly below freezing promote its formation. 24364. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What
intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL100 in a thunderst
orm, with the freezing level at 7.000 ft? A) Moderate to severe icing due to cle
ar ice. B) Light icing due to rime ice. C) Moderate to severe icing due to rime
ice. D) Light icing due to clear ice.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 89 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24365 (A) 24366 (C) 24428 (A) 244
33 (A) 25633 (A) 26315 (A) 27310 (B) 27451 (A) 27472 (A) 27473 (B) 27474 (A) 274
75 (A) 27476 (A) 27478 (A) 27479 (A) 24365. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What inte
nsity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descend r
apidly from FL320 (temp. -45 C) to FL60 in warm, moist clear air? A) Light or mod
erate hoar frost. B) Moderate opaque rime. C) Nil ice. D) Light opaque rime and
light clear ice. 24366. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What intensity and type of ai
rframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL170 in AS with the outside
air temperature at -20 C? A) Moderate - hoar frost. B) Severe - clear. C) Light
- rime. D) Moderate - clear. 24428. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the foll
owing statements is correct? A) Airframe icing can occur in clear air. B) Haze i
s a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour. C) Mountain wav
es are always accompanied by rotor clouds. D) Above the tropopause no turbulence
occurs. 24433. (all) Which of the following statements is true regarding modera
te to severe airframe icing? A) It will not occur in clear-sky conditions. B) It
always occurs in altostratus cloud. C) It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus
cloud. D) It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud. 25633. (all
) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that: A) temperatur
es are above freezing at some higher altitudes. B) a cold front has passed. C) t
here are thunderstorms in the area. D) after takeoffyou can climb to a higher al
titude without encountering more than light icing conditions. 26315. (AIR: atpl,
ir; HELI: all) An aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning depart
ure. The crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look cle
ar though. The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that: A) the air
craft should be sprayed with de-icing with fluid of the correct type. B) there i
s a slight risk of ice accretion. C) the aircraft will takeoff within the normal
runway length. D) nothing particular will happen during takeoff. 27310. (all) A
irframe icing: A) cannot occur outside cloud or precipitation. B) can occur outs
ide cloud or precipitation. C) can only occur if the Outside Air Temperature (OA
T) is bellow zero.
D) occurs only, when the temperature is below -15C. 27451. (all) In which cloud
type does moderate to severe airframe icing most probably occur? A) NS B) ST C)
CS D) AC 27472. (all) While forming rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze: A
) rapidly and do not spread out. B) rapidly and spread out extensively. C) slowl
y and do not spread out. D) on impact, at temperatures near the freezing level.
27473. (all) While forming clear ice in flight, water droplets freeze: A) rapidl
y and do not spread out. B) and spread out extensively. C) slowly and do not spr
ead out. D) on impact, at temperatures lower than -10 C. 27474. (all) When is cle
ar ice formed? A) When supercooled droplets are large and at a temperature just
below freezing. B) When supercooled droplets freeze rapidly and do not spread ou
t. C) When supercooled droplets are small and at a temperature just below freezi
ng. D) When supercooled droplets impact the structure and at a temperature well
below -10 C. 27475. (all) What can be said about supercooled water droplets? A) T
hey remain liquid at a below-freezing temperature. B) They don t contribute to c
lear ice. C) They only occur in CB clouds. D) They cool to a below-freezing temp
erature on impact. 27476. (all) Which aiframe icing is the most dangerous? A) Cl
ear ice. B) Rime ice. C) Hoar frost. D) Mixed ice. 27478. (all) Which cloud type
of the following is most prone to airframe icing? A) NS B) AC C) SC D) ST 27479
. (all) In which cloud type of the following does no airframe icing occur? A) CI
B) NS C) CB D) AS 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 90 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 27480 (A) 27662 (D) 27663 (B) 27665 (A) 28422 (C) 28425 (D) 284
26 (B) 28427 (D) 28429 (A) 28438 (A) 9603 (D) 9625 (D) 10360 (A) 27480. (all) Wh
at can be said if you encounter +FZRA during flight? A) Icing will most probably
occur. B) There is no significant icing to expect. C) Freezing rain consists of
water droplets which supercool to below-freezing temperatures on impact. D) Onl
y light rime ice has to be expected. 27662. (all) In which temperature range doe
s clear ice most commonly occur? A) 5 C to -10 C. B) -10 C to -15 C. C) -15 C. D) 0 C.
27663. (all) In which temperature range does rime ice most commonly occur? A) -
5 C to -10 C. B) 0 C. C) -15 C. D) 0 C to 6 C. 27665. (all) In which temperature range
does mixed ice most commonly occur? A) 0 C. B) -10 C to -15 C. C) -15 C. D) 0 C to 6
C. 28422. (all) Which conditions result in the formation of hoar frost? A) The t
emperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets
of moisture are falling. B) When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing
. C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding
air and the dew point is colder than freezing. D) None of the above is correct.
28425. (all) Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature
is: A) 0 C to minus 20 C. B) minus 5 C to minus 10 C. C) minus 5 C to plus 5 C. D) 0 C
to minus 5 C. 28426. (all) If you fly into rain which freezes on impact. A) You h
ave flown into an area of thunderstorms. B) Temperatures are above freezing at s
ome higher altitude. C) You have flown through a cold front. D) If you descend,
you will fly out of the icing condition. 28427. (all) Why is frost considered ha
zardous to flight? A) The increased weight requires a greater takeoff distance.
B) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift. C) Frost d
ecreases control effectiveness. D) All of the above.
28429. (all) The possibility of significant icing at altitude, should be expecte
d when on ground you observe: A) ice pellets. B) hail. C) snow. D) corn-snow. 28
438. (all) State in which type of front supercooled raindrops most frequently oc
cur? A) Warm front. B) Cold front. C) Occlusion. D) Stationary front. 050-09-02
Turbulence 9603. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is normally the most effectiv
e measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? A) Decrease of speed. B) Change of cou
rse. C) Increase of speed. D) Change of flight level. 9625. (all) A zone of stro
ng convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust
you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures? A) Inc
rease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents. B) Incre
ase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if aircraft
performance parameters allow. C) Decrease the speed / try to descend below the z
one of convective currents. D) Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone
of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow. 10360. (all) Th
e turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL250) is mainly of the t
ype Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulenc
e affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? A) The turbulence is a smal
l scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircra
ft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight
will be unpleasant. B) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the
aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfo
rt. C) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (sm
all scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but wil
l make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anythin
g of this turbulence. D) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpl
easent for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 91 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10369 (C) 10384 (D) 10420 (B) 157
95 (B) 15848 (C) 16324 (D) 16608 (A) 24177 (D)
24204 (A) 24212 (C) 24301 (C) 24318 (C) 24341 (B) 10369. (all) How does moderate
turbulence affect an aircraft? A) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude
occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily. B) Rapid and som
ewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude
or attitude. C) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains i
n positive control at all times. D) Continued flight in this environment will re
sult in structural damage. 10384. (all) The degree of clear air turbulence exper
iencied by an aircraft is proportional to the: A) intensity of the solar radiati
on. B) height of the aircraft. C) stability of the air. D) intensity of vertical
and horizontal windshear. 10420. (all) An aircraft is approaching a cold front
from the warm air mass side at FL270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbule
nce. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL310. The shortest way to get out of thi
s turbulence is by: A) Climbing. B) Descending. C) turn right. D) maintain FL270
. 15795. (all) The Jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes b
e visually identified in flight by: A) a high-pressure center at high level. B)
long streaks of cirrus clouds. C) dust or haze at high level. D) a constant outs
ide air temperature. 15848. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) All pilots encountering
Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which cause
s passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulde
rs straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficu
lt. This intensity of CAT should be reported as: A) severe B) extreme C) moderat
e D) light 16324. (all) Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is
likely to be: A) two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface. B) appro
ximately one wavelength down wind of, and approsimately level with, the top of t
he ridge. C) just below the tropopause above the ridge. D) down the lee side of
the ride and along the surface. 16608. (all) Conditions favourable for low-level
frictional turbulence are: A) strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rate. B)
strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate. C) light wind, rough terrain, sta
ble lapse rate. D) strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate.
24177. (all) (Refer to figure 050-62) Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1
800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turb
ulence on the climb out from Zurich? A) FL140 B) FL160 C) FL320 D) FL220 24204.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-64) On which of the following routes would you not ha
ve to worry about moderate and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level? A) Ke
flavik to Oslo at FL220. B) Lisbon-Paris at FL320. C) Beirut to Athens at FL310.
D) Madrid to Zurich at FL280. 24212. (all) A layer is conditionally unstable if
the air: A) becomes stable by lifting it. B) is stable for saturated air and un
stable for dry air. C) is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air. D)
is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air. 24301. (AIR: atpl; HELI: a
tpl, cpl) In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be e
xpected? A) Exactly in the center of the core. B) On the tropical air side of th
e core. C) On the polar air side of the core. D) About 12.000 ft above the core.
24318. (all) Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when: A) the wind speed is
greater than 10 kts and the condensation level is situated just above the turbu
lent layer. B) the wind speed is less than 10 kts and the air is heated by the e
arth s surface. C) in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the con
densation level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer. D) absolute in
stability exists at low level. 24341. (all) The most likely place to encounter c
lear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is: A) well below the core. B)
close below the core on the side facing the polar air. C) on the tropical side o
f the core. D) 5.000 feet or more above the core. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 92 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 24441 (D) 27153 (D) 28423 (C) 28430 (B) 28442 (B) 28444 (D) 284
80 (C) 9594 (D) 9605 (C) 10342 (A) 10356 (D) 10417 (D) 10431 (D) 24441. (all) Wh
ich statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence? A) Aircraf
t will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely necessary.
B) Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose object
s move around. C) Aircraft gets out of control and crashes. D) Aircraft may be o
ut of control for short periods, occupants are forced violently against seat bel
ts, loose objects are tossed around. 27153. (all) Wake turbulence is created by:
A) cumulonimbus clouds. B) behind high buildings less than 300 m from the runwa
y. C) wind forces greater than 50 kts. D) the wingtips of heavy aircraft during
takeoff and landing. 28423. (all) When CAT (clear air turbulence) conditions are
anticipated, the following procedure should be used as soon as turbulent air pe
netration speed is established: A) the airspeed indicator should be used as prim
ary flight instrument. B) the attitude indicator should be used as secondary fli
ght instrument. C) maintain wings level and control pitch attitude smoothly. D)
prepare the use of large control inputs to fight the excessive G-forces that may
occur. 28430. (all) Which clouds have the greatest turbulence? A) Towering cumu
lus. B) Cumulonimbus. C) Nimbostratus. D) Altocumulus castellanus. 28442. (all)
The expression mechanical turbulence means: A) wake turbulence . B) that the ter
rain or other obstructions interfering with the airflow. C) vertical movements i
n unstable air. D) that you experience finger trouble . 28444. (all) The mechani
cal turbulence will increase when: A) flying from land to sea. B) temperature fa
lls. C) pressure rises. D) the wind increases. 28480. (all) Clear air turbulence
(CAT) should be anticipated when: A) immediately after the passage of a thunder
storm. B) a sharp trough area aloft is present with wind speed considerably high
er than that of jetstream winds. C) a sharp trough area aloft is present, even t
hough the wind speeds may be considerably less than that of jetstream winds. D)
whenever a high pressure is present close to a thunderstorm area. 050-09-03 Wind
shear 9594. (all) Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to: A
) experience little or no change in speed and direction. B) change in speed but
not in direction. C) change in direction but not in speed. D) change significant
ly in speed and direction. 9605. (all)
Vertical windshear is: A) horizontal variation in the horizontal wind. B) vertic
al variation in the vertical wind. C) vertical variation in the horizontal wind.
D) horizontal variation in the vertical wind. 10342. (all) The most dangerous l
ow level windshears are encountered: A) when strong ground inversions are presen
t and near thunderstorms. B) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher
than 35 kts. C) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kts and ne
ar valleys. D) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains. 10356. (all)
Low level windshear is likely to be greatest: A) at the condensation level when
there is a strong surface friction. B) at the condensation level when there is n
o night radiation. C) at the top of the friction layer. D) at the top of a marke
d surface-based inversion. 10417. (all) Low level vertical windshear can be expe
cted during the night: A) and early morning only in summer. B) in unstable atmos
pheres. C) and early morning only in winter. D) in association with radiation in
versions. 10431. (all) What is the effect of a strong low level inversion? A) It
results in good visual conditions. B) It promotes extensive vertical movement o
f air. C) It prevents vertical windshear. D) It promotes vertical windshear. 050
-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 93 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16326 (D) 16386 (B) 24139 (C) 24288
(C) 24405 (A) 24489 (A) 28441 (A) 28443 (C) 28446 (A) 28461 (A) 9531 (B) 9538 (D
) 9539 (A) 16326. (all) An important characteristic of windshear is that: A) it
is encountered most grequently near mountain waves during winter months. B) it i
s an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of converge
nce. C) it only occurs with jet streams. D) it is an atmospheric condition that
may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream or a fron
tal zone. 16386. (all) An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in
or near a thunderstorm is: A) extra turbulence. B) windshear. C) compass error.
D) pilot disorientation. 24139. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) In which squares
are conditions most likely to cause the
occurrence of low level windshear? A) 3 B and 3 C. B) 3 A and 3 B. C) 3 A and 3
C. D) 3 B and 3 D. 24288. (all) In relation to the polar front jet stream, the g
reatest rate of windshear is most likely to occur: A) on the tropical side of th
e core. B) well below the core. C) close below the core on the polar side. D) 5.
000 ft or more above the core. 24405. (all) Where does windshear occur? A) At an
y level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind direction a
nd/or wind speed. B) windshear of any significance occurs only in connection wit
h jetstreams. C) windshear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity o
f mountain waves. D) windshear occurs only when there is a strong temperature in
version, or when the jetstream is associated with a strong depression. 24489. (a
ll) Vertical windshear is: A) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed
with height. B) a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance. C) a
change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance. D) a
horizontal shear of vertical wind. 28441. (all) What is meant by the expression
low level windshear ? A) A change of wind direction and force during a limited p
eriod of time within a small area. B) Turbulence containing whirling dust. C) Th
e effect of friction. D) The wind when blowing across the isobars. 28443. (all)
Windshear is experienced when: A) the wind has been forecasted to be light and v
ariable. B) neither wind direction nor force changes at altitude. C) there is a
ground inversion and strong winds above the inversion layer. D) rain have been f
orecasted or reported. 28446. (all) In a microburst you may experience strong wi
ndshear, the horizontal extension of this area being: A) 4 km B) 8 km C) 10 km D
) 15 km 28461. (all) What is meant by the expression windshear ? A) A change of
wind direction and/or speed in horizontal and/ or vertical direction. B) Whirlwi
nd. C) The retardation of wind at the friction layer. D) Interference when to wi
nd streams meet. 050-09-04 Thunderstorms
9531. (all) Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? A) Thunderstorms forme
d by lifting processes. B) Frontal thunderstorms. C) Thermal thunderstorms. D) O
rographic thunderstorms. 9538. (all) Where is a squall line to be expected? A) A
t the surface position of a warm front. B) Behind a cold front. C) Ahead of a co
ld occlusion at higher levels. D) In front of an active cold front. 9539. (all)
A microburst phenomenon can arise in the: A) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at th
e mature stage. B) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage. C) downdraug
ht of a cumulonimbus at the initial stage. D) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the
growth stage. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 94 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9547 (A) 9554 (D)
9555 (B) 9574 (C) 9575 (A) 9577 (B) 9583 (C) 9596 (C) 9607 (C) 9622 (B) 10343 (B
) 10359 (D) 10366 (D) 10381 (A) 9547. (all) Which of the following statements de
scribes a microburst? A) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower te
mperature than its surroundings. B) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher
temperature than its surroundings. C) An extremely strong wind gust associated w
ith a tropical revolving storm. D) A small low pressure system where the wind ci
rculates at high speed. 9554. (all) What is a microburst? A) A small low pressur
e system where the wind circulates with very high speeds. B) A concentrated down
draft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air. C) An
extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm. D) A concentrated down
draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air. 9555. (
all) A gust front is: A) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm. B)
formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm. C) characterized by heavy li
ghtning. D) another name for a cold front. 9574. (all) Continuous updraughts occ
ur in a thunderstorm during the: A) dissipating stage. B) mature stage. C) cumul
us stage. D) period in which precipitation is falling. 9575. (all) At which alti
tude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected
in connection with a CB? A) From the ground up to a maximum of FL450. B) From th
e ground up to about FL200. C) From the ground up to about FL100. D) From the ba
se of the clouds up to FL200. 9577. (all) What are squall lines? A) Unusual inte
nsive cold fronts. B) Bands of intensive thunderstorms. C) The surface weather a
ssociated with upper air troughs. D) The paths of tropical revolving storms. 958
3. (all) The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order
of: A) 8 km and 5-15 minutes. B) 4 km and 30-40 minutes. C) 4 km and 1-5 minute
s. D) 12 km and 5-10 minutes. 9596. (all) During which stage of thunderstorm dev
elopment are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur? A) D
issipating stage. B) Cumulus stage. C) Mature stage. D) Cumulus stage and mature
stage. 9607. (all) What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for
thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over land? A) Low temperatures, low
humidity. B) High air pressure (> 1.013 hPa), high temperatures. C) High tempera
tures, high humidity. D) Subsidence, inversion. 9622. (all) What weather conditi
on would you expect at a squall line? A) Strong steady rain. B) Thunderstorms. C
) Fog. D) Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels. 10343. (all) In additi
on to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm
formation? A) Stable conditions and high moisture content. B) Unstable conditio
ns and high moisture content. C) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure.
D) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure. 10359. (all) How long does
a typical microburst last? A) About 30 minutes. B) Less than 1 minute. C) 1 to
2 hours. D) 1 to 5 minutes. 10366. (all) Which thunderstorms generally develop i
n the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes? A) Occlusion thunders
torms. B) Warm front thunderstorms. C) Cold mass thunderstorms. D) Air mass thun
derstorms. 10381. (all) In central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for th
understorms
due to warm updrafts? A) Mid - afternoon. B) Around midnight. C) Early morning.
D) Late morning. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 95 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10383 (C) 10385
(A) 10394 (C) 10400 (C) 10402 (C) 10409 (C) 10410 (D) 10421 (D) 10425 (D) 10438
(B) 15817 (B) 15869 (B) 15870 (C) 15871 (D) 10383. (all) Aircraft struck by ligh
tning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuv
ring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following sta
tements is correct? A) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a
Faraday s cage , which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it
happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a sho
ck. B) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning,
but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused
. C) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be
blinded and temporarily lose the hearing. D) Aircraft made by composite material
can t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck. 10385. (all
) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predomin
antly by downdrafts? A) Dissipating stage. B) Initial stage. C) Mature stage. D)
Anvil stage. 10394. (all) What feature is normally associated with the initial
stage of a thunderstorm? A) Frequent lightning. B) Roll cloud. C) Continuous upd
raft. D) Rain or hail at the surface. 10400. (all) Thunderstorms reach their gre
atest intensity during the: A) dissipating stage. B) the initial stage. C) matur
e stage. D) period in which precipitation is not falling. 10402. (all) In which
stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and downdraf
ts simultaneously? A) Dissipating stage. B) Initial stage. C) Mature stage. D) I
n all stages. 10409. (all) A microburst: A) is always associated with thundersto
rms. B) has a life time of more than 30 minutes.
C) has a diameter up to 4 km. D) occurs only in tropical areas. 10410. (all) The
initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by: A) rain starting at surfac
e. B) continuous downdraughts. C) frequent lightning. D) continuous updraughts.
10421. (all) The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross
country flight is: A) cirrus B) stratocumulus C) cumulus D) cumulonimbus 10425.
(all) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level in
stability which may lead to thunderstorm development? A) Red cirrus. B) AC lenti
cularis. C) Halo. D) AC castellanus. 10438. (all) Which thunderstorms generally
produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds? A)
Warm front thunderstorms. B) Squall line thunderstorms. C) Nocturnal air mass t
hunderstorms. D) Daytime air mass thunderstorms. 15817. (all) Isolated thunderst
orms of a local nature are generally caused by: A) frontal occlusion. B) thermal
triggering. C) frontal lifting (warm front). D) frontal lifting (cold front). 1
5869. (all) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A) A
cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion. B) An adequ
ate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action. C) Water v
apour and high pressure. D) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. 1587
0. (all) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstor
ms encountered? A) Subtropical B) Temperate C) Tropical D) Polar 15871. (all) Th
understorms can occur on a warm front if the: A) cold air is moist and the envir
onmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) warm air is mo
ist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse
rate. C) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturate
d adiabatic lapse rate.
D) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adia
batic lapse rate. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 96 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16359 (C) 16367
(C) 16368 (B) 16369 (A) 16372 (D) 16373 (A) 16374 (D) 16375 (A) 16376 (A) 16377
(C) 16378 (A) 16379 (C) 16381 (D) 16383 (B) 16384 (B) 16359. (all) In general t
erms, an intense convective low will indicate: A) quiet settled weather. B) chan
geable weather but getting better. C) heavy rain, hail and thunderstorm. D) no c
hange to the weather. 16367. (all) Which of the following is considered to be on
e of the conditions necessary for thunderstorm develpomnet? A) A marked temperat
ure inversion extending well above the 0 isotherm. B) ELR less than the DALR exte
nding well above the 0 isotherm. C) Instability throughout a deep layer extending
well above the 0 isotherm. D) Stability throughout a deep layer extending well a
bove the 0 isotherm. 16368. (all) Which of the following conditions are necessary
for thunderstorms? A) Low surface temperatures and high moisture content. B) Hi
gh moisture content and a trigger action. C) Instability at night. D) Low upper
temperatures and a high 0 isotherm. 16369. (all) There are two principal types of
origin of thunderstorm. A) Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms. B)
Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms. C) Convection thunderstorms and
frontal thunderstorms. D) Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunder
storms. 16372. (all) Air mass thunderstroms are triggered off by: A) fronts and/
or orographic uplift. B) convection at air mass boundaries. C) standing waves in
the lee of hills. D) convection and/or orographic uplift. 16373. (all) Frontal
thunderstorms are triggered off by: A) rising air due to falling pressure at air
mass boundaries. B) convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving ov
er a warm surface. C) rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic up
lift. D) mass ascent over large areas or cold air moving over a Warm surface. 16
374. (all) A thunderstrom has the following stages in its life cycle: A) initial
, mature or building and declining. B) building, mature, declining and dissipati
ng. C) initial, declining and dissipating. D) initial, mature and dissipating. 1
6375. (all) The initial stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately: A) 20 mi
n.
B) 30 min. C) 20/30 min. D) 40 min. 16376. (all) In the initial stage of a thund
erstorm, which of the following is true? A) Only up-currents are present. B) Onl
y down-currents are present. C) Both up-currents and down-currents are present.
D) Up-currents and side-currents are present. 16377. (all) The mature stage of a
thunderstorm lasts for approximately: A) 15 min B) 30 min C) 20/30 min D) 40 mi
n 16378. (all) Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature
thunderstorm: A) both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently. B) the
cloud top assumes and anvil shape. C) water droplets, hail and snow are all pre
sent. D) the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively c
harged. 16379. (all) The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when: A) no fu
rther electrical charge is developed. B) the lower portion of the cloud dissipat
es. C) a well developed anvil can be seen. D) all of the above. 16381. (all) The
most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground are: A)
lighting and hail. B) heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls. C) turbulence an
d static. D) all of the above. 16383. (all) Which types of thunderstorm can be t
he most difficult to avoid? A) Mature thunderstorms because they spread over suc
h a wide area. B) Frontal thunderstorms. C) Air mass thunderstorms. D) Low-level
thunderstorms. 16384. (all) Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forec
ast and detect? A) Cumulus thunderstorms. B) Air mass thunderstorms. C) Frontal
thunderstorms. D) Umulus thunderstorms because they are smaller. 050-09 FLIGHT H
AZARDS 97 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16385 (D) 24180 (C) 24207 (B) 24215 (A) 24246 (B
) 24249 (A) 24261 (C) 24299 (C) 24358 (C) 24367 (A) 24373 (C) 24421 (B) 24423 (A
) 16385. (all)
If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to penetr
ate? A) The top. B) The middle. C) The bottom. D) The sides. 24180. (all) (Refer
to figure 050-63) At which position is the development of thunderstorms most li
kely, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC? A) Position C,
FL200. B) Position A, FL200. C) Position B, FL270. D) Position D, FL290. 24207.
(all) A CB with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is co
rrect? A) The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the clou
d. B) In temperatures lower than -23 C icing is still possible. C) If hail occurs
, it only occurs in downdrafts. D) Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but ha
rdly ever below the cloud. 24215. (all) A microburst with its damaging winds at
the surface: A) has a diameter up to 4 km. B) has a life time of more than 30 mi
nutes. C) is always associated with thunderstorms. D) occurs only in tropical ar
eas. 24246. (all) Assuming that an initial trigger force is present, the conditi
ons most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are: A) high surface
temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) high relative
humidity and instability throughout a deep layer. C) rapid orographic cooling of
cloud containing ice crystals. D) intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressur
e system and relatively high freezing level. 24249. (all) At the surface the lif
etime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging
winds are in the order of: A) 1-5 minutes and 4 km. B) 30-40 minutes and 4 km. C
) 5-15 minutes and 8 km. D) 5-10 minutes and 12 km. 24261. (all) Convective weat
her phenomena include: A) heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls,
light rain over a large area. B) thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gus
ts, advection fog. C) thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers,
lightning strikes. D) hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumul
us, low level wind maximum. 24299. (all)
In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms
the highest? A) Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface. B)
Advection of warm air over a cold land surface. C) Advection of maritime cold ai
r over a warm sea surface. D) Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea sur
face. 24358. (all) Thunderstorms are often preceded by: A) altostratus. B) nimbo
stratus. C) altocumulus castellanus. D) altocumulus lenticularis. 24367. (all) W
hat is a downburst? A) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower tem
perature than the surrounding air. B) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds
and a higher temperature than the surrounding air. C) An extremely strong wind g
ust in a tropical revolving storm. D) A small low pressure system where the wind
circulates with very high speeds. 24373. (all) What is the approximate maximum
diameter of a the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a mic
roburst? A) 20 km B) 400 m C) 4 km D) 50 km 24421. (all) Which of the following
sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms? A) E
xtensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just belo
w the freezing level and orographic lifting. B) Environmental lapse rate greater
than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical extent, high relat
ive humidity and an initial lifting process. C) Environmental lapse rate less th
an saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0 C and considerable surfa
ce heating. D) Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with
freezing level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface w
inds. 24423. (all) Which of the following situations favours the formation of he
avy thunderstorms? A) A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening.
B) The passage of a warm front in the morning. C) A cold front on the leeward si
de of a mountain range. D) A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground. 050-
09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 98 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24424 (A) 24436 (A) 24445 (B) 24455 (
C) 27039 (C) 27040 (A) 27135 (D) 27136 (B) 27139 (D) 27411 (A) 27413 (A) 27442 (
A) 27471 (A) 27498 (A) 27500 (A) 24424. (all) Which of the following statements
about lightnings and
lightning strikes is correct? A) The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightni
ng trajectory. B) Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft. C) Lightni
ng strikes always cause heavy damage. D) Compasses and electronics are always af
fected. 24436. (all) Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting
leading to air mass thunderstorms? A) Advection of cold air over a warm sea. B)
Mountain waves. C) Advection of warm air over a cold sea. D) Low level windshear
. 24445. (all) Which statement is correct for microbursts? A) They only develop
below convective clouds with heavy rain. B) The diameter of the affected area on
the surface does not exceed 4 km. C) They occur in the tropics only. D) Their d
owndraft is warmer than the surroundings. 24455. (all) With the development of a
thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air? A) Anvil stag
e. B) Mature stage. C) Initial stage. D) Dissipating stage. 27039. (all) What is
true about thunderstorms? A) They occur at cold fronts only. B) They only occur
, when a cold front occlusion is present. C) They can exceptionally occur at a w
arm front, when the warm air is conditional unstable. D) They occur only in the
summertime. 27040. (all) What conditions (amongst others) have to be met for the
development of CBs and thunderstorms? A) Moist air must be present. B) Warm air
has to move over a cold surface. C) There have to be significant pressure diffe
rences over a small area. D) A front has to be present. 27135. (all) What are th
e requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A) Sufficient water vapor an
d a lifting action. B) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. C) A cumulus cl
oud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate. D) Sufficient moisture,
an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action. 27136. (all) Which thunderstorms
generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive
winds? A) Warm front. B) Squall line. C) Air mass. D) Cold front. 27139. (all)
Where can windshear associated with a thunderstorm be found? (Choose the most co
mplete answer.)
A) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side). B) Ahead of the roll clouds o
r gust front. C) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
D) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell. 27411. (al
l) In which stage do roll clouds occur in a strong thunderstorm? A) Mature stage
. B) Dissipating stage. C) Cumulus stage. D) Rain stage. 27413. (all) What is a
squall line? A) A band of intense thunderstorms. B) A band of cumulus clouds. C)
Extended areas of nimbostratus clouds. D) Fog patches ahead of a warm front. 27
442. (all) What is the location of a squall line? A) Ahead of a cold front. B) A
head of a warm front. C) Between cold and warm front. D) On the rear side of a f
rontal system. 27471. (all) What type of thunderstorms develop in the afternoon
in summer over Iand in moderate latitudes? A) Air mass thunderstorms. B) Cold ma
ss thunderstorms. C) Warm front thunderstorms. D) Occlusion thunderstorms. 27498
. (all) Which air mass can be related to thunderstorms during summer in central
Europe? A) Maritime tropical air. B) Maritime polar air. C) Continental tropical
air. D) Continental equatorial air. 27500. (all) What is a microburst? A) A dow
ndraught of a CB in the mature stage. B) A downdraught, occurring when a warm fr
ont passes by. C) Severe windshear, caused by a low level jet stream. D) Up- and
downdraughls during a thunderstorm. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 99 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.
com 27501 (A) 27508 (A) 28419 (D) 28420 (B) 28445 (C) 28466 (D) 28478 (D) 9544 (
B) 9606 (A) 10413 (A) 24320 (A) 24321 (A) 27501. (all) What is the size of a mic
roburst? A) Approximately 4 km in diameter. B) Approximately 200 m in diameter.
C) A widespread area of approximately 10 km. D) A small, clearly defined area of
about 50 m in diameter. 27508. (all) Describe the microburst: A) a high speed d
ownburst of air with a generally lower temperature
than its surrounding. B) sinking air of higher temperature than its surroundings
. C) precipitation at the base of a cumulonimbus doud. D) horizontal movement of
air, generally colder than its surroundings. 28419. (all) Concerning the radar
reflectivity in relation to a thunderstorm, the following is true: A) reflectivi
ty decreases with severity and frequency of turbulence. B) reflectivity increase
s with severity and frequency of turbulence. C) reflectivity is a function of th
e number and size of water droplets in a given unit of volume. D) both B) and C)
are correct. 28420. (all) In a thunderstorm pilots should be on alert for hail
when radar echoes: A) show turbulence. B) are well defined. C) are ill-defined.
D) none of the above is correct. 28445. (all) Which type of clouds are associate
d with Microburst ? A) Stratus (st). B) Altocumulus (ac). C) Cumulonimbus (cb).
D) Cumulus (cu). 28466. (all) Which of the following weather factors will not ca
use the formation of thunderstorms? A) An occlusion. B) A warm front. C) A cold
front. D) Advection fog. 28478. (all) The weather associated with a cold front m
ay vary from a minor change of wind to a serious thunderstorm with low cloud bas
e, bad visibility and strong, gusty winds. The type of weather depends on: A) th
e amount of humidity in the warm air. B) the stability of the warm air. C) the s
peed and slope of the cold front. D) all answers are correct. 050-09-05 Tornadoe
s 9544. (all) The diameter of a typical tornado is: A) only a few metres. B) 100
to 150 metres. C) about 2 to 6 km. D) in the order of 10 km. 9606. (all) At wha
t time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America? A) Sprin
g, summer. B) Summer, autumn. C) Autumn, winter. D) Winter. 10413. (all) With wh
ich type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated? A) Cumulonimbus B) Cumulus
C) Stratus
D) Nimbostratus 050-09-06 Low and high level inversions 24320. (all) Surface tem
perature inversions are frequently generated by: A) terrestrial radiation on a c
alm clear night. B) an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing
of the atmosphere at lower levels. C) gusting winds increasing surface friction
during the day with consequent mixing at the lower levels. D) compression causin
g the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud. 24321. (all) Surfac
e-based temperature inversions are common during: A) cloud-free nights in winter
when the ground is dry. B) cloud-free days in summer when the ground is dry. C)
cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet. D) cloudy days in winter when the
ground is wet. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 100 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10352 (A) 10380
(B) 10398 (B) 15811 (D) 16325 (C) 16337 (B) 24305 (B) 24401 (D) 24434 (C) 24442
(C) 25632 (C) No Questions in this sub-chapter. No Questions in this sub-chapter
. 050-09-08 Hazards in mountainous areas 050-09-07 Stratospheric conditions 1035
2. (all) You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day
, when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this fli
ght? A) Morning. B) Mid-day. C) Afternoon. D) Early evening. 10380. (all) Which
of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is force
d to rise against a mountain range? A) Inversions. B) Stratified clouds. C) Show
ers and thunderstorms. D) Areas of severe turbulence. 10398. (all) You are flyin
g with an outside air temperature of -12 C and a TAS of 250 kts at FL150 through
8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable? A) In clouds pushed
up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice. B) In clouds pushed up ag
ainst the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice. C) Over flat terrain, away fr
om fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice. D) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar fro
st. 15811. (all) Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the fo
rmation of mountain waves? A) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind a
t least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
B) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge. C) Moist unstable air at mountain top a
nd wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge. D) Stable air at
mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain
ridge. 16325. (all) For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the leve
l of the ridge should: A) decrease or even reverse direction. B) increase inital
ly, then decrease. C) increase with little change in direction. D) increase and
then reverse in direction. 16337. (all) With reference to rotor circulation: A)
it can occur at levels up to 80.000 ft. B) it is a low level phenomenon. C) it i
s found at approximately the tropopause level. D) it is another name for the rot
or zones assocated with mountain waves. 24305. (all) Mountain waves should be ex
pected: A) when instability is high. B) on the downwind side of the mountain cha
in. C) directly over the mountain chain. D) on the upwind side of the mountain c
hain. 24401. (all) When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area
of most severe turbulence be located? A) Just below the tropopause. B) Just abov
e the cap cloud. C) On the windward side of the mountain range. D) In the rotor
zone. 24434. (all) Which of the following statements is true with regard to moun
tain waves? A) The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mo
untain waves. B) Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind fr
om initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground. C) Flight wit
h headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with ta
ilwind toward high ground. D) Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely
to be more hazardous than flight with headwind toward high ground. 24442. (all)
Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain w
ave has been reported? A) The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountai
n tops. B) There are always rotor clouds. C) Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is
an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of the
se clouds. D) The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountai
ns. 25632. (all) The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain wav
es are: A) wind direction parallel to the mountain range - wind speed
increasing with height - extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and
the tropopause. B) wind direction parallel to the general alignment of the mount
ain range - wind speed increasing with height - intense surface heating. C) wind
speed above 20 kts and wind direction at right angles to mountains - wind speed
increasing with height. D) wind direction approximately at right angles to the
mountain range - wind speed 30 kts and steadily increasing with height - an inve
rsion just above the crest level with less stable air above and below. 050-09 FL
IGHT HAZARDS 101 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27148 (D) 27437 (A) 28447 (A) 28448 (C) 2
8483 (D) 28484 (A) 9558 (C) 9572 (C) 9600 (B) 10390 (D) 10405 (C) 10422 (D) 1657
5 (D) 16576 (D) 16577 (D) 27148. (all) CAP clouds are one three groups of mounta
in wave clouds. A) They appear to be harmless. B) Downdrafts as great as 5.000 f
eet per minute can be expected on the leeward side. C) They cool adiabatically a
nd therefore evaporate. D) Both A) and B) are correct. 27437. (all) Which would
be the best time for nice weather conditions when flying in the Alps during summ
ertime? A) In the morning. B) In the afternoon. C) In the evening. D) Anytime du
ring the day. 28447. (all) Mention 3 types of weather phenomena associated with
mountain waves: A) rotor, cap and lenticular clouds. B) fog, lenticular and medi
um height clouds. C) low clouds, downdrafts and thunderstorms. D) turbulence, ad
vection and convection clouds. 28448. (all) Should a mountain wave situation occ
ur without creating mountain wave clouds, this would indicate: A) stable air mas
s. B) too strong winds. C) too dry air. D) too strong turbulence. 28483. (all) T
he meteorological conditions required to form mountain waves are among others: A
) the height of the mountain must be at least 3.000 ft. B) the air must be unsta
ble. C) wind velocity on top of the mountain must be 50 kts or more. D) a wind p
rofile whereby the wind velocity increases with increasing altitude and a strong
, steady wind flow at higher levels often extending to the tropopause. 28484. (a
ll) What is likely when mountain waves are observed? A) Strong wind and turbulen
ce in the mountains.
B) Unstable air. C) Rain on the leeward side of the mountain. D) Convection clou
ds. 050-09-09 Visibility reducing phenomena 9558. (all) In general, the meteorol
ogical visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is: A) less. B) the
same. C) greater. D) in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km. 9572. (
all) Visibility is reduced by haze when: A) a cold front just passed. B) a light
drizzle falls. C) dust particles are trapped below an inversion. D) small water
droplets are present. 9600. (all) In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is
most likely to affect surface visibility when: A) the surface wind is strong and
gusty. B) there is a low level inversion. C) cumulus clouds have developed in t
he afternoon. D) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area. 10390. (all
) Below a low level inversion visibility is often: A) moderate or poor due to he
avy snow showers. B) very good at night. C) very good in the early morning. D) m
oderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange. 10405. (all) Flight visib
ility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to mi
nimal: A) about 500 metres. B) about 200 metres. C) tens of metres. D) about 1.0
00 metres. 10422. (all) In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be
restricted by: A) low stratus. B) haze. C) drizzle. D) showers of rain or snow.
16575. (all) The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A) atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture. B) atmospheric pollution, v
olcanic fumes, dust and sand. C) atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray. D)
atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash. 16576. (all) The forms of v
isible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are: A) fog, spray, cloud
and hail (but only for short periods). B) cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitat
ion. C) cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog. D) cloud, fog, mist, spray or precipita
tion. 16577. (all) Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:
A) B) C) D)
precipitation precipitation precipitation precipitation
type and duration. duration and droplet size. intensity and duration. intensity
and type.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 102 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24296 (C) 24361 (B) 24400 (B) 24
402 (A) 27418 (A) 27438 (D) 24296. (all) In the weather pattern behind a cold fr
ont, the visibility outside precipitation is: A) low and the precipitation is sh
owers. B) good and the precipitation is steady rain. C) good and the precipitati
on is showers. D) low and the precipitation is steady rain. 24361. (all) What co
nditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported? A) It is always r
eported. B) Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the h
eight of the cloud base cannot be measured. C) Whenever the lowest ceiling is be
low 1.500 ft above ground. D) Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1.500 ft a
bove ground. 24400. (all) When fog is reported, the visibility is below: A) 0,8
km B) 1 km C) 1,5 km D) 3 km 24402. (all) When visibility is reduced by water dr
oplets to less than 1.000 metres it is classified as: A) fog B) dust fog C) haze
D) mist 27418. (all) Compare meteorological visibility: A) visibility is greate
r in RA than in DZ. B) visibility is lower in RA than in DZ. C) visibility is eq
ual in RA and in DZ. D) visibility is greater in FG than in DZ. 27438. (all) The
flight visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in a tropical downpour can de
crease to minimal: A) about 500 metres. B) about 1.000 metres. C) about 200 metr
es. D) tens of metres. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 103 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.c
om 9660 (A) 9663 (D) 9685 (C) 9710 (C) 9715 (A) 10464 (D) 10493 (C) 10558 (D) 15
796 (D) 15818 (B) 15847 (D) 16548 (B) 16561 (A)
050-10-01 Observation 9660. (all) What are the images of satellites provided dai
ly by the Weather Service used for? A) To locate fronts in areas with few observ
ation stations. B) To measure wind currents on the ground. C) To help provide 14
-day forecasts. D) To locate precipitation zones. 9663. (all) The wind indicator
for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where
is this instrument placed? A) On the roof of the weather station. B) 1 m above
the runway. C) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground. D) On a mast 6-1
0 m above flat terrain. 9685. (all) While approaching your target aerodrome you
receive the following message: RVR runway 23: 400 m This information indicates t
he: A) portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways wo
uld see, with runway 23 in service. B) meteorological visibility on runway 23. C
) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the
threshold of runway 23. D) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23
being the one in service. 9710. (all) What is the relationship between meteorolo
gical visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog? A) The met. vis. general
ly is the same as the RVR. B) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR. C
) The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR. D) There is no specific relation
ship between the two. 9715. (all) Which of the following causes echoes on meteor
ological radar screens? A) Hail. B) Water vapour. C) Fog. D) Any cloud. 10464. (
all) When is the RVR reported at most airports? A) When the RVR decreases below
2.000 m. B) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m. C) When th
e RVR decreases below 800 m. D) When the meteorological visibility decreases bel
ow 1.500 m. 10493. (all) An airborne weather radar installation makes it possibl
e to detect the location of: A) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this ty
pe is accompanied by falls of hail. B) all clouds. C) zones of precipitation, pa
rticulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity. D) stratocumulus
and its vertical development. 10558. (all)
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is: A) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway.
B) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2.000 m. C) reported in
TAF and METAR. D) usually better than meteorological visibility. 15796. (all) W
hich of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking ac
tion of a runway? A) MIFG B) FG C) HZ D) +FZRA 15818. (all) What is a SPECI? A)
An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours. B) A selected special aerodrome weat
her report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been
observed. C) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours. D) A warn
ing of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required. 15847.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-73) Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical te
mperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Shannon be fo
und? A) FL20 B) FL140 C) FL120 D) FL60 16548. (all) The meaning of RVR is: A) cr
oss-wind component. B) runway visual range. C) meteorological visibility. D) bra
king action. 16561. (all) Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height o
f ___ in a Stevenson screen. A) 2 m B) 4 m C) 10 m D) 40 cm 050-10 METEOROLOGICA
L INFORMATION 104 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16562 (C) 16564 (C) 16565 (D) 16569 (A)
16570 (B) 24159 (A) 24183 (A) 24192 (A) 24214 (A) 24277 (D) 24281 (D) 24282 (D)
24292 (C) 16562. (all) A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitt
ing head of the electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind directi
on and speed to be made on a moving chart. A) anemograph; anemometer B) anemomet
er; barograph C) anemometer; anemograph
D) barograph; anemometer 16564. (all) The three elements in a cloud report are:
A) amount, cover, height of base. B) type, cover, amount. C) amount, type, heigh
t of base. D) type, amount, cloud species. 16565. (all) Barometric pressure is m
easured on ___ and recorded on ___. A) an anemometer; an aneroid barometer B) an
anemograph; an anemometer C) barograph; aneroid barometer D) aneroid barometer;
barograph 16569. (all) LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 15
00 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 kts
9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the most likely vi
sibility for landing at 1345Z? A) 4.500 m B) 1.500 m C) 6.000 m D) 12.000 m 1657
0. (all) LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005
FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 kts 9999 NSW BKN02
0 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the lowest cloud base you may enc
ounter at 1345Z? A) 1.000 ft B) 500 ft C) 700 ft D) 12.000 ft 24159. (all) (Refe
r to figure 050-36) For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most ap
propriate to position E : A) 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004= B) 24020
KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002= C) 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000= D) 27030KT 80
00 SCT020 07/03 Q1004= 24183. (all) (Refer to figure 050-96) Which of the follow
ing METARs reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels airport (EBBR) at
1200 UTC? A) 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG= B) 28010KT 9999 B
KN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG= C) VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR= D) 19
022G46KT 1200 +TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG NSW= 24192. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-02) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low st
ratus: A) 3 B) 1 C) 2
D) 4 24214. (all) A METAR message is valid: A) at the time of observation. B) fo
r 2 hours. C) for the hour following the observation. D) for 9 hours. 24277. (al
l) How is a ceiling defined? A) Height above ground or water of the highest laye
r of cloud or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the sky.
B) Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on the
amount of clouds. C) Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud t
hat contributes to the overall overcast. D) Height above ground or water of the
lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft covering more than half of the sky. 24281.
(all) In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively: A) BR = mist HZ = widespr
ead dust. B) BR = fog HZ = haze. C) BR = mist HZ = smoke. D) BR = mist HZ = haze
. 24282. (all) In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means: A) wi
nd from 230 magnetic at 10 miles per hour. B) wind from 230 true at 10 miles per h
our. C) wind from 230 magnetic at 20 knots. D) wind from 230 true at 20 knots. 242
92. (all) In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates: A) volcanic ash. B) p
resent weather within the approach area. C) present weather within a range of 8
km, but not at the airport. D) present weather at the airport. 050-10 METEOROLOG
ICAL INFORMATION 105 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24293 (B) 24352 (C) 24356 (C) 24362 (
C) 24374 (B) 24378 (B) 24379 (A) 24381 (D) 24394 (D) 24413 (B) 24293. (all) In t
he METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means: A) an active duststorm. B) blowing
dust in the vicinity. C) an active sandstorm. D) an active dust- and sandstorm.
24352. (all) The temperature at the surface is given as +15 C and at 4.000 ft it
is +9 C, the state of this layer is said to be: A) absolutely unstable. B) condit
ionally unstable. C) stable. D) unstable. 24356. (all) The horizontal visibility
transmitted in a METAR report is:
A) given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1.500 metres. B) the ma
ximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360 scan at the horizon. C) the lowest o
bserved in a 360 scan from the meteorological station. D) measured by an observer
counting the number of lights visible on the runway. 24362. (all) What does the
code R24R/P1500 mean? A) Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, usable run
way length 1.500 metres. B) RVR RWY 24 right below 1.500 metres. C) RVR RWY 24 r
ight above 1.500 metres. D) RVR RWY 24 right 1.500 metres. 24374. (all) What is
the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250? A) By simple inte
rpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts. B) By i
nterpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts,
while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Wea
ther Chart. C) By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart. D) By
reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart. 24378. (all) What is t
he lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC? KCHS 2
80430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC
015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BE
CMG A) 3.000 feet. B) 1.000 feet. C) 1.300 feet. D) 1.500 feet. 24379. (all) Wha
t is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 V
RB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15
G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK A) 5.000 fee
t. B) 3.000 feet. C) 500 feet. D) 1.500 feet. 24381. (all) What is the lowest vi
sibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC? LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -R
A SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010= A) 10 km B) 6 NM C) 4 km D) 6 km
24394. (all) What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC? EDDF
272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40
TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CA
VOK A) 1.600 metres. B) 4.000 metres. C) 1.000 metres. D) 9.000 metres. 24413. (
all) Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance
with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK ? MSA minus airport elevation equals:
LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LSZH 26024G52KT 99
99 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA = B) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280
09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 BR = C) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG = D) L
FSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG = 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 10
6 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24427 (A) 24435 (A) 24453 (A) 26310 (D) 26329 (A) 27123
(C) 27124 (C) 27125 (B) 27127 (B) 27443 (A) 28468 (D) 24427. (all) Which of the
following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030
700/031100 LSZHSWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL260/380 S
TNR INTSF A) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the
Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380. B) Zone of mod
erate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260. C) Severe turbulence
observed below FL260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above
FL380. D) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be ex
pected north of the Alps. 24435. (all) Which of the following weather reports co
uld be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK ? A) 27019G37KT
9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG = B) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1
600 = C) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 = D) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN
025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG = 24453. (all) Why can the following METAR not be abbrevia
ted to CAVOK? DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08 Q1016 TEMPO 40
00 TS=
(Aerodrome elevation 1.000 ft, MSA for sector 000-190 5.800 ft, for sector 190-36
0 7.300 ft.) A) Because the cloud base is below the highest minimum sector altitu
de. B) Because there are gusts reported. C) Because towering cumulus are observe
d. D) Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours. 26310.
(all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the re
gulations, abbreviated to CAVOK ? MSA above ground: LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft
LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG = B)
LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA = C) LSZB 30004KT
9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG = D) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 B
ECMG 5000 = 26329. (all) (Refer to figure 050-94) Considering the route from Val
encia to Charleston, what is the highest flight level that is forecast to be aff
ected by cloud or clear air turbulence? A) FL430 B) FL350 C) FL380 D) FL400 2712
3. (all) What does a transmissiometer measure? A) Wind speed. B) Cloud base. C)
Visibility. D) Breaking action. 27124. (all) What does RVR stand for? A) Reduced
visibility range. B) Reduced vertical range. C) Runway visual range. D) Radio U
HF and range. 27125. (all) RVR is measured when meteorological visibility falls
below: A) 500 m B) 1.500 m C) 2.000 m D) 2.500 m 27127. (all) The average visibi
lity as seen from the cockpit in flight is called: A) cockpit visibility. B) fli
ght visibility. C) RVR. D) slant visibility. 27443. (all) Under what conditions
is RVR measured? A) When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1.500 metre
s. B) When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1.000 metres.
C) When fog is present. D) When the technical equipment for the measurement at a
n airport is avaitable. 28468. (all) A METAR from an airfield reporting visibili
ty 8 km. Added to the report is a BECMG 4000 . From this you will expect the vis
ibility to: A) Decrease to 4 km within 1 hour. B) Improve from 4 km to 8 km in t
he next 2 hours. C) Be variable between 4 and 8 km. D) Decrease to 4 km within t
he next 2 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 107 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 284
7 (C) 8989 (C) 9640 (B) 9644 (D) 9649 (C) 9658 (A) 9680 (D) 9703 (C) 9713 (A) 97
23 (A) 10449 (D) 10456 (B) 10472 (D) 10476 (A) 2847. (all) In what hPa range is
an upper weather chart for FL340 situated? A) 500 - 400 hPa. B) 600 - 500 hPa. C
) 300 - 200 hPa. D) 400 - 300 hPa. 8989. (all) (Refer to figure 050-82) On which
route of flight would you expect no icing at FL180? A) Zurich-Hamburg B) Zurich
-Madrid C) Hamburg-Stockholm D) Zurich-Athens 9640. (all) (Refer to figure 050-2
8) The cold front is indicated at position: A) A B) B C) C D) D 9644. (all) (Ref
er to figure 050-28) The warm sector is indicated by letter: A) A B) B C) D D) C
9649. (all) When planning a flight at FL110, which upper wind and temperature c
hart would be nearest your flight level? A) 300 hPa B) 850 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 500
hPa 9658. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following best describes
Zone B? A) Col. B) Ridge of high pressure. C) Depression. D) Trough of low press
ure.
9680. (all) If you are planning a flight at FL290, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level? A) 850 hPa B) 500 hPa C)
700 hPa D) 300 hPa 9703. (all) What positions are connected with contour lines
on the weather chart? A) Positions with the same air density. B) Positions with
the same thickness between two constant pressure levels. C) Positions with the s
ame height in a chart of constant pressure. D) Positions with the same wind velo
city. 9713. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indic
ates severe icing? A) 9 B) 7 C) 1 D) 13 9723. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Whi
ch of the following best describes Zone C? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Col. C)
Trough of low pressure. D) Depression. 10449. (all) Which constant pressure alt
itude chart is standard for a FL300? A) 500 hPa B) 200 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 300 hPa
10456. (all) If you are planning a flight at FL170, which of these upper wind a
nd temperature charts would be nearest your flight level? A) 300 hPa B) 500 hPa
C) 850 hPa D) 700 hPa 10472. (all) On which of the following aviation weather ch
arts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream? A) Upper air chart. B) Wind / tem
perature chart. C) Surface chart. D) Significant weather chart. 10476. (all) (Re
fer to figure 050-01) What does the symbol 15 indicate on a significant weather
chart? A) The center of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL400. B)
The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa. C) The upper limit of significant
weather at FL400.
D) The lower limit of the tropopause. 050-10-02 Weather charts 050-10 METEOROLOG
ICAL INFORMATION 108 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10498 (A) 10503 (C) 10504 (C) 10514 (
D) 10524 (D) 10532 (B) 10535 (D) 10538 (D) 10543 (C) 10544 (C) 15788 (A) 15799 (
B) 15802 (C) 10498. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symb
ol indicates a tropical cyclone? A) 4 B) 2 C) 12 D) 13 10503. (all) (Refer to fi
gure 050-27) Which of the following best describes Zone D? A) Anticyclone. B) Ri
dge of high pressure. C) Depression. D) Trough of low pressure. 10504. (all) Whi
ch constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL180? A) 200 hPa B) 300 h
Pa C) 500 hPa D) 700 hPa 10514. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is
standard for a FL390? A) 700 hPa B) 300 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 10524. (all) W
hich weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing
level? A) Surface chart. B) 500 hPa chart. C) 700 hPa chart. D) Significant weat
her chart. 10532. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a
FL100? A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 10535. (all) How are well se
parated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart? A) ISOL CB. B) EMB
D CB. C) FREQ CB. D) OCNL CB. 10538. (all) In which meteorological forecast char
t is information about
CAT regions found? A) 300 hPa chart. B) 24 hour surface forecast. C) 500 hPa cha
rt. D) Significant Weather Chart. 10543. (all) What information is given on a Si
gnificant Weather Chart? A) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before a
nd 3 hours after the time given on the chart. B) The significant weather that is
observed at the time given on the chart. C) The significant weather forecast fo
r the time given on the chart. D) The significant weather forecast for a period
6 hours after the time given on the chart. 10544. (all) How is the direction and
speed of upper winds described in forecasts? A) The direction is relative to ma
gnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour. B) The direction is relative to
magnetic north and the speed is in knots. C) The direction is relative to true
north and the speed is in knots. D) The direction is relative to true north and
the speed is in miles per hour. 15788. (all) Which constant pressure altitude ch
art is standard for a FL50? A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 15799. (
all) (Refer to figure 050-63) You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of
the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and ic
ing? A) FL140 B) FL260 C) FL320 D) FL300 15802. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) W
hat is the average wind at FL160 between Zurich and Rome? A) 020/50 B) 050/40 C)
200/45 D) 200/40 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 109 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15
834 (D) 15835 (D) 15842 (C) 15846 (A) 16356 (D) 16362 (C) 24100 (C) 24105 (D) 24
107 (B) 24108 (B) 24109 (B) 24110 (D) 24111 (D) 24112 (D) 15834. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-55) The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weathe
r development at Zurich Airport? A) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030T
CU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = B) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT
6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = C) TAF L
SZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
D) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECM
G 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = 15835. (all) The upper wind and temp
erature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about: A) 39.
000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 32.000 ft D) 34.000 ft 15842. (all) When planning a fligh
t at FL60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight l
evel? A) 500 hPa B) 300 hPa C) 850 hPa D) 700 hPa 15846. (all) (Refer to figure
050-73) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL11
0: A) 230/10 B) 200/30 C) 040/10 D) 250/20 16356. (all) The 500 hPa countour cha
rt is equivalent to: A) FL300 B) FL90 C) FL50 D) FL180 16362. (all) The lines on
a contour chart join points of: A) equal pressure. B) equal temperature. C) equ
al height. D) equal humidity. 24100. (all) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering
the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean height of the trop
ical tropopause during summer is approximately: A) 33.000 ft B) 39.000 ft C) 51.
000 ft D) 60.000 ft 24105. (all) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the sector
Rome to 25N on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL3
00 during winter?
A) Easterlies at 40 kts. B) Variable easterlies. C) Light westerlies. D) Westerl
y jet streams in excess of 70 kts. 24107. (all) (Refer to figure 050-50) The air
mass affecting position A is most likely to A) continental tropical. B) maritim
e polar. C) continental polar. D) maritime tropical. 24108. (all) (Refer to figu
re 050-48) The air mass affecting position C is most likely to A) continental tr
opical. B) maritime tropical. C) maritime polar. D) continental polar. 24109. (a
ll) (Refer to figure 050-49) The air mass affecting position S is most likely to
A) maritime polar and unstable. B) maritime tropical and stable. C) maritime po
lar and stable. D) continental tropical and unstable. 24110. (all) (Refer to fig
ure 050-44) The air mass affecting position P is most likely to A) maritime trop
ical. B) maritime polar. C) continental tropical. D) continental polar. 24111. (
all) (Refer to figure 050-45) The air mass affecting position R is most likely t
o A) maritime tropical. B) maritime polar. C) continental polar. D) continental
tropical. 24112. (all) (Refer to figure 050-58) The weather most likely to be ex
perienced at position is: A) little or no cloud - hazy. B) morning fog lifting t
o low stratus. C) OVC SC. D) frequent heavy showers of rain or snow.
be:
be:
be:
be:
be:
S
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 110 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24113 (C) 24117 (D)
24119 (C) 24120 (C) 24122 (D) 24123 (C) 24124 (C) 24125 (C) 24126 (D) 24127 (C)
24128 (D) 24132 (B) 24136 (A) 24113. (all) (Refer to figure 050-57) The weather
most likely to be experienced at position A is: A) advection fog. B) clear skies
- radiation fog forming overnight.
C) snow showers - gale force wind. D) continuous drizzle and hill fog. 24117. (a
ll) (Refer to figure 050-23) The occurrence of freezing rain at FL60 is most lik
ely in square: A) 2D B) 2A C) 3B D) 3C 24119. (all) (Refer to figure 050-43) The
weather most likely to be experienced at position A is: A) cumulus, cumulonimbu
s clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong winds. B) clear skies, go
od visibility in light winds. C) mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus a
nd drizzle, medium to strong winds. D) radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no m
edium or upper cloud, light wind. 24120. (all) (Refer to figure 050-49) The weat
her most likely to be experienced at position S is: A) increasing AS and NS with
moderate to heavy rain. B) scattered thunderstorms and good visibility. C) over
cast with drizzle and orographic fog. D) small amounts of CU with generally good
visibility. 24122. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) What flight conditions are mo
st likely to be experienced in square 2B by an aircraft at FL120? A) IMC in NS w
ith risk of light icing. B) VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth
air. C) IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icing
. D) VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions. 24123. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-23) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located
in square 3B, the most likely weather conditions are: A) showers of rain and ha
il. B) moderate continuous rain. C) low cloud, mist. D) scattered AC base 2000 f
t, good visibility. 24124. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) For an aircraft making
an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away from the vicinity of the
fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter are: A) generally overcast,
moderate continuous rain and risk of low level windshear. B) scattered SC and C
U, good visibility. C) poor visibility in mist and drizzle. D) prolonged periods
of heavy rain and hail. 24125. (all) (Refer to figure 050-50) The weather most
likely to be experienced near to position
A is: A) overcast layer cloud - rain later. B) advection fog and drizzle. C) fre
quent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation. D) clear
skies - radiation fog at night. 24126. (all) (Refer to figure 050-39) The weathe
r most likely to be experienced at position B is: A) early morning fog lifting t
o low stratus later. B) advection fog and drizzle. C) poor visibility in anticyc
lonic circulation. D) frequent showers of rain or snow. 24127. (all) (Refer to f
igure 050-40) The weather most likely to be experienced at position B is: A) mai
nly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle. B) scattered stratocumulus
with good visibility. C) frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outsi
de showers. D) clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility. 24128. (all) (Refer
to figure 050-41) The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near po
sition Q is: A) mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight. B) mainly over
cast with poor visibility. C) thundery showers particularly at night. D) showery
with generally good visibility. 24132. (all) (Refer to figure 050-42) The press
ure system at position D is a: A) secondary low. B) col. C) trough of low pressu
re. D) ridge of high pressure. 24136. (all) (Refer to figure 050-32) The dotted
line designated Z represents the: A) mean position of the intertropical converge
nce zone (ITCZ) during July. B) mean position of the intertropical convergence z
one (ITCZ) during January. C) northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream dur
ing July. D) northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January. 050-10 METEOR
OLOGICAL INFORMATION 111 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24137 (B) 24138 (D) 24140 (B) 241
41 (A) 24142 (B) 24143 (B) 24144 (D) 24145 (C) 24146 (A) 24147 (C) 24148 (B) 241
49 (C) 24151 (D) 24137. (all) (Refer to figure 050-32) The dotted line labelled
Y represents the: A) axis of the subtropical jet stream during January. B) mean
position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January.
C) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July. D) ax
is of the equatorial jet stream during July. 24138. (all) (Refer to figure 050-4
6) The weather most likely to be experienced at position R is: A) overcast with
drizzle and hill fog. B) early morning fog lifting to low stratus. C) increasing
amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain. D) fine and warm at first - AC castellanus a
nd CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms. 24140. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20
) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situated near h
igh ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard
exists in the form of: A) radiation fog. B) low level windshear. C) rotor cloud
s. D) clear air turbulence (CAT). 24141. (all) (Refer to figure 050-47) The fron
t at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is: A) an occlusion on the
surface. B) a warm front. C) an occlusion above the surface. D) a cold front. 24
142. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) The air mass at position A is most likely to
be: A) maritime polar. B) maritime tropical. C) continental polar. D) continent
al tropical. 24143. (all) (Refer to figure 050-17) The air mass type indicated b
y arrow number 4 is designated: A) continental polar. B) maritime tropical. C) m
aritime polar. D) continental tropical. 24144. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) Th
e air mass affecting position B is most likely to be: A) maritime tropical. B) c
ontinental polar. C) continental tropical. D) maritime polar. 24145. (all) (Refe
r to figure 050-22) For an aircraft at FL80, ahead of the front in square 2D, th
e expected flight conditions are: A) IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulenc
e with a risk of rime icing. B) overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence wit
h the possibility of thunderstorms. C) below AS type cloud, generally smooth air
with light precipitation. D) high CI and CS type cloud, light turbulence and po
or visibility.
24146. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) For an aircraft at FL40, approaching the f
ront (square 3C) from the direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists befor
e reaching the front in the form of: A) clear ice accretion to the airframe. B)
severe turbulence associated with CB. C) severe turbulence and windshear. D) sev
ere downdrafts from subsiding air. 24147. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) What co
nditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square 3B? A) Mai
nly overcast at 8.000 ft, visibility less than 5 km in continuous moderate rain.
B) Broken CU base 2.000 ft, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of ra
in or snow. C) 6 - 8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle. D)
Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good visibility
. 24148. (all) (Refer to figure 050-37) When front G passes position T the surfa
ce wind should: A) veer and decrease. B) veer and increase. C) back and increase
. D) back and decrease. 24149. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The pressure distr
ibution located mainly in square 2A is a: A) trough of low pressure. B) col. C)
ridge of high pressure. D) depression. 24151. (all) (Refer to figure 050-38) Fro
m indications shown on the chart, when front S passes position V the surface win
d should: A) back and decrease. B) veer and increase. C) back and remain more or
less at the same speed. D) veer and remain more or less at the same speed. 050-
10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 112 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24152 (A) 24153 (B) 2415
4 (A) 24155 (A) 24156 (A) 24157 (A) 24158 (B) 24160 (D) 24161 (C) 24162 (A) 2416
3 (A) 24164 (A) 24165 (B) 24166 (D) 24152. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) By the
time the front C has passed point D the surface wind will have: A) veered and i
ncreased. B) veered and decreased. C) backed and increased. D) backed and decrea
sed. 24153. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84)
The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest C) overhead Charleston at FL34
0 is: A) +3 B) +5 C) -5 D) -7 24154. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84) At 40N 70W, th
e forecast wind is: A) 270/95 kts. B) 320/40 kts. C) 240/90 kts. D) 280/70 kts. 2415
5. (all) (Refer to figure 050-86) On the track shown at 20 W, the forecast wind a
t FL390 is: A) 090/45 kts. B) 060/45 kts. C) 070/30 kts. D) 270/45 kts. 24156. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-45) The front located from 10W to 10E is most likely to be:
A) a quasi-stationary front. B) an active warm front moving north. C) an active
occlusion moving south. D) a cold front moving south. 24157. (all) (Refer to fig
ure 050-37) The front labelled E is a: A) cold front. B) warm front. C) warm occ
lusion. D) cold occlusion. 24158. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84) Considering the
route between Valencia and Charleston at FL340, the forecast mean temperature i
s: A) -45 C B) -50 C C) -55 C D) -40 C 24160. (all) (Refer to figure 050-83) What is
the average wind forecast for FL300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? A) 180/20 B)
300/45 C) 240/25 D) 280/30 24161. (all) (Refer to figure 050-83) What is the ave
rage temperature difference from ISA at FL300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? A) +
2 C B) +12 C C) -2 C D) -12 C 24162. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-85) The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dh
ahran at FL390 is: A) 270/50 B) 270/30 C) 320/70 D) 310/50 24163. (all) (Refer t
o figure 050-85) What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL390 be
tween Madrid and Dhahran? A) -1 C B) +5 C C) -5 C D) +2 C 24164. (all) (Refer to fig
ure 050-86) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). On the track shown at
20 W, the forecast wind at FL390 is: A) 0 C B) +6 C C) +2 C D) -2 C 24165. (all) (Ref
er to figure 050-86) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering t
he route segment between 60W and 70W, at FL390 the forecast mean temperature is: A
) -52 C B) -55 C C) -58 C D) -61 C 24166. (all) (Refer to figure 050-87) The mean wi
nd that may be expected to affect the route segment from the coast of SE England
to Geneva at FL270 is: A) 245/55 B) 240/90 C) 270/70 D) 220/70 050-10 METEOROLO
GICAL INFORMATION 113 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24167 (B) 24168 (A) 24169 (B) 24170
(A) 24172 (B) 24174 (D) 24178 (D) 24179 (B) 24181 (C) 24182 (D) 24185 (D) 24186
(A) 24191 (B) 24193 (C) 24167. (all) (Refer to figure 050-87) The mean temperatu
re that may be expected to affect that segment of the route from the coast of SE
England to Geneva at FL270 is: A) -34 C B) -38 C C) -30 C D) -42 C 24168. (all) (Re
fer to figure 050-87) At FL300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind
would be most likely? A) 245/50 B) 225/25 C) 265/40 D) 265/25 24169. (all) (Refe
r to figure 050-04) In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind char
t. The diagram representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is: A)
210/30 kts (diagram B). B) 030/30 kts (diagram A). C) 030/30 kts (diagram C). D) 21
0/30 kts (diagram D). 24170. (all) (Refer to figure 050-19) According to the extr
act of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction over the sea is approx
imately: A) 140 B) 110 C) 310 D) 220 24172. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) On a Sign
ificant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol: A) 1 B) 11 C) 2 D) 10 2417
4. (all) (Refer to figure 050-38) What is the classification of the air mass aff
ecting position Q ? A) Continental tropical. B) Maritime polar. C) Continental p
olar. D) Maritime tropical. 24178. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) What is the ap
proximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and Helsinki? A) FL360 B) FL
350 C) FL300 D) FL320 24179. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) At what flight level
is the jet stream core that is situated over northern Scandinavia? A) FL330 B)
FL280 C) FL360 D) FL300 24181. (all) (Refer to figure 050-64) At what approximat
e flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt? A) FL350 B) FL300 C) FL330
D) FL240 24182. (all) (Refer to figure 050-61) The temperature at FL330 overhead
London will be: A) -57 C B) -30 C C) -33 C D) -42 C 24185. (all) (Refer to figure 0
50-67) What is the average temperature at FL160 between Oslo and Paris? A) -25 C
B) -23 C C) -15 C D) -19 C 24186. (all) (Refer to figure 050-69) What is the speed
of the front located over France? A) 15 kts B) 25 kts C) 10 kts D) 30 kts 24191.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-03) Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfi
eld. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the
airfield concerned? A) Diagram 3. B) Diagram 4. C) Diagram 2. D) Diagram 1. 241
93. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) A convergence line is indicated by: A) C B) B
C) A D) D 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 114 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24194 (C)
24195 (C) 24197 (A) 24198 (B) 24199 (A) 24200 (D) 24201 (C) 24202 (A) 24203 (B)
24205 (D) 24308 (D) 25579 (A) 24194. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According t
o ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrum
ent flight rules (IFR)? A) 12 B) 14 C) 8 D) 16 24195. (all) (Refer to figure 050
-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying acco
rding to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 13 B) 10
C) 3 D) 2 24197. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) Select from the map the average
wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL170: A) 230/35 B) 200/50 C) 050/40 D) 0
30/35 24198. (all) (Refer to figure 050-77) If you are flying from Zurich to Lon
don at FL240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? A) Flight lar
gely in cloud; no turbulence. B) Moderate or severe turbulence and icing. C) Pro
longed severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight. D) CAT for the first h
alf of the flight. 24199. (all) (Refer to figure 050-78) Judging by the chart, w
hat wind speeds can you expect at FL310 above London? A) 90 kts B) 300 kts C) 14
0 kts D) 110 km/h 24200. (all) (Refer to figure 050-81) Which of these statement
s is true? A) Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL400 over Malaga (LEMG)
. B) Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL065. C) The front to th
e east of Paris (LFPO) is moving south. D) Local snow and severe aircraft icing
can be expected over Germany. 24201. (all) (Refer to figure 050-82) On which of
these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL170? A) Paris - Lisbon
. B) Madrid - Vienna. C) London - Stockholm. D) Zurich - Athens. 24202. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-34) This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May
23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airpo
rt? A) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA
BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030
BKN090 = B) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN01
8 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 = C) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SC
T030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCF
G
SCT100 = D) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999
SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 24203. (all) (Refer
to figure 050-78) Which of the following statements is true? A) The moderate ic
ing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer between FL140 and above t
he limit of the chart. B) The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bord
eaux (B) is about 80 kts. C) The west part of the front system over Spain moves
to the south with 10 kts and the eastern part of that front over Spain moves to
the north. D) On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry abo
ut moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL110. 24205. (all) (Refer to figure 050
-76) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL130 between 0600 and 0900 UTC,
what can you expect at cruising level? A) You will be out of clouds more of thr
ee quarters of your flight. B) A strong wind from the right with 90 kts at the c
rossing of the core of the jet stream. C) You will arrive at your destination be
fore you have to cross the warm front. D) Moderate icing about half way along th
e route. 24308. (all) On an upper wind and temperature chart: A) the wind increa
ses from south to north. B) the temperature is constant all over the chart. C) t
he height is constant all over the chart. D) the pressure is constant all over t
he chart. 25579. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) A convergence line is indicated
by: A) sector A. B) sector B. C) sector C. D) sector D. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL IN
FORMATION 115 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25580 (C) 25581 (A) 25582 (B) 25584 (D) 2558
5 (A) 25586 (C) 25588 (B) 25589 (C) 25595 (C) 25597 (B) 25601 (A) 25602 (D) 2560
3 (A) 25604 (A) 25605 (A) 25580. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) The warm sector
is indicated by: A) sector A. B) sector B. C) sector C. D) sector D. 25581. (all
) (Refer to figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone A? A) Trou
gh of low pressure.
B) Cold front. C) Ridge of high pressure. D) Depression. 25582. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone B? A) Ridge of high pr
essure. B) Cold front. C) Depression. D) Trough of low pressure. 25584. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone D? A) Ridge of
high pressure. B) Trough of low pressure. C) Anticyclone. D) Depression. 25585.
(all) (Refer to figure 050-28) What does zone A depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge
. C) The warm sector. D) The Cold front. 25586. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) W
hat does zone C depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sector. D) The Cold
front. 25588. (all) (Refer to figure 050-12) In which direction does the polar
front move in this picture? A) D B) C C) B D) A 25589. (all) (Refer to figure 05
0-51) Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC? A) LIRF B)
LEMD C) LFPO D) LOWW 25595. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport has th
e biggest probability for the formation of fog the following night? A) ENGM B) E
KCH C) LFPO D) EINN 25597. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) What does this picture
depict? A) A high pressure area over France. B) A westerly wave over central Eu
rope. C) South foehn.
D) North foehn. 25601. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) What is the mean temperatu
re deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL180? A) 4 C colder than
ISA. B) 4 C warmer than ISA. C) 10 C colder than ISA. D) 10 C warmer than ISA. 256
02. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the average temperature for the route
GenevaStockholm, FL260? A) -55 C B) -51 C C) -63 C D) -47 C 25603. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-61) Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the trop
opause according to the map? A) FL300 B) FL330 C) FL150 D) FL280 25604. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-75) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to
occur, on the basis of the chart? A) Hamburg - Oslo. B) Rome - Frankfurt. C) Tun
is - Rome. D) Copenhagen - Helsinki. 25605. (all) (Refer to figure 050-76) Looki
ng at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopaus
e to be located? A) FL350 B) FL310 C) FL250 D) FL280 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFOR
MATION 116 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25606 (D) 25608 (A) 25609 (A) 25610 (D) 25611 (
A) 25612 (B) 25614 (A) 25616 (B) 25617 (B) 25618 (A) 25619 (B) 25620 (B) 25623 (
C) 25624 (A) 25606. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) On which of these routes woul
d you not have to worry about turbulence at FL340? A) Rome - Berlin. B) Zurich -
Rome. C) Zurich - Athens. D) Shannon - Hamburg. 25608. (all) (Refer to figure 0
50-68) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Stand
ard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A) ISA -13 C B) ISA -2 C C) ISA +13 C D) ISA +2 C 25609. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
93) State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL140: A) 8 C colde
r than ISA. B) 4 C warmer than ISA. C) 8 C warmer than ISA. D) 12 C colder than ISA
. 25610. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicate
s danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 8
B) 1 C) 12 D) 3 25611. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) Which of the following sym
bols represents a thunderstorm? A) 3 B) 7 C) 10 D) 9 25612. (all) (Refer to figu
re 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flyin
g according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 2 B) 9 C) 16 D) 10 25614. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-66) What wind is forecast at FL390 over Paris? A) 210/40 B
) 240/20 C) 030/40 D) 190/40 25616. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) To what exten
t is Zurich covered by clouds? A) 3 to 5 oktas. B) 5 to 8 oktas. C) 1 to 4 oktas
. D) 5 to 7 oktas. 25617. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following
best describes Zone A? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Trough of low pressure. C)
Depression D) Cold front. 25618. (all) (Refer to figure 050-24) What pressure do
es an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
A) Rising pressure. B) Falling pressure. C) A pressure rise first, then an immed
iate pressure drop. D) No substantial pressure change. 25619. (all) (Refer to fi
gure 050-24) What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hou
r? A) Rising pressure. B) Falling pressure. C) A pressure rise first, then an im
mediate pressure drop. D) No substantial pressure change. 25620. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-24) What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the ne
xt hour? A) The temperature decreases. B) The temperature increases. C) The temp
erature first increases and then decreases. D) No substantial temperature change
. 25623. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) Which of the following symbols represent
s a severe squall line? A) 18 B) 17 C) 5 D) 4 25624. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
63) Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the
eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL220? A) Individual c
umulonimbus. B) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus. C) Scattered towering cumul
us. D) Scattered castellanus. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 117 2008 AVIATIO
NEXAM.com 25625 (A) 25627 (C) 25628 (D) 25629 (B) 26335 28411 (A) 9628 (B) 25625
. (all) (Refer to figure 050-71) To what extent is Munich covered by clouds? A)
5 to 8 oktas. B) 1 to 4 oktas. C) 5 to 7 oktas. D) 3 to 5 oktas. 25627. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-13) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B level conto
ur chart. The altimeter setting is Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind
speed at A is higher than at B. B) The true altitude will be higher at B than C
) The true altitude will be higher at A than D) Wind speed at Paris is higher th
an at B.
(B) 27130 (C) 27573 (A) 28385 (A)
on the upper 1.013,2 hPa. at A. at B.
25628. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport is most likely to have radia
tion fog in the coming night? A) ESSA B) ENGM C) EKCH D) LSZH 25629. (all) (Refe
r to figure 050-80) If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL340, where wil
l your cruising altitude be? A) Constantly in the troposphere. B) Constantly in
the stratosphere. C) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere. D)
In the stratosphere for part of time. 26335. (all) On a Low level Significant We
ather Chart, we see the following for the area where a VFR-flight will take plac
e: BKN CU SC If the flight is planned at FL85, we can estimate that: A) we will
be in solid clouds and consequently a VFR flight is not possible. B) we will pro
bably have to divert around some cumulus tops, the cloud cover being between 5 a
nd 7 oktas with most of the clouds below our cruising FL. C) we will fly above a
solid cloud cover. D) we will fly just below the cloud base where the cloud cov
er is between 5 and 7 oktas. 27130. (all) What units of measurement are used in
forecasts for winds aloft? A) Magnetic direction and knots. B) Magnetic directio
n and MPH. C) True direction and knots. D) True direction and MPH. 27573. (all)
Which upper level chart do you use when preparing a flight at a cruising altitud
e of FL170? A) 500 hPa B) 850 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 300 hPa 28385. (all) On a weathe
r chart an occlusion is indicated by a coloured line of: A) Violet B) Yellow C)
Black D) Green 28411. (all) On a weather chart fog is indicated by: A) three hor
izontal lines. B) a dot sign. C) two horizontal lines. D) a comma sign. 050-10-0
3 Information for flight planning 9628. (all) Runway visual range can be reporte
d in: A) a TAF.
B) a METAR. C) a SIGMET. D) both a TAF and a METAR. 100 023 050-10 METEOROLOGICA
L INFORMATION 118 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9632 (B) 9633 (A) 9637 (C) 9639 (D) 9642
(A) 9643 (C) 9646 (B) 9647 (A) 9651 (A) 9652 (D) 9657 (C) 9661 (C) 9632. (all)
You receive the following METAR: LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/
M02 Q1014 NOSIG = What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? A) 300 m. B) The RVR is unkn
own, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR. C) 700 m. D) 900 m. 9633. (all) Wh
en will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor? A) When gusts are at l
east 10 knots above the mean wind speed. B) When gusts are at least 15 knots abo
ve the mean wind speed. C) With gusts of at least 25 knots. D) With gusts of at
least 35 knots. 9637. (all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? A) 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU
16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG = B) 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4
000 = C) 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG = D) 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07
Q1024 NOSIG = 9639. (all) The following weather report is a: EDDM 241322 VRB03K
T 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 A) ME
TAR. B) 24 hour TAF. C) SPECI. D) 9 hour TAF. 9642. (all) (Refer to figure 050-5
9) Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL200? A)
Moderate turbulence, moderate icing. B) Moderate turbulence, light icing. C) Sev
ere turbulence, moderate icing. D) Severe turbulence, severe icing. 9643. (all)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the tim
e they are observed? A) TS B) SA
C) DZ D) SQ 9646. (all) What is the meaning of the expression FEW ? A) 3-4 oktas
cloud cover. B) 1-2 oktas cloud cover. C) 5-7 oktas cloud cover. D) 1-2 oktas o
f cloud cover. 9647. (all) In which of the following METAR reports, is the proba
bility of fog formation in the coming night the highest? A) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 S
CT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR = B) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSI
G = C) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG = D) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA
BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 = 9651. (all) (Refer to figure 050-74) Sel
ect from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL200:
A) -33 C B) -30 C C) -41 C D) -49 C 9652. (all) Marseille Information gives you the
following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajacc
io: wind 360/2 kts, visibility 2.000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1.000 ft, OVC
altostratus at 8.000 ft, QNH 1.023 hPa. Calvi: wind 040/2 kts, visibility 3.000 m
, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT stratocumulus at 2.000 ft, OVC altostratus at
9.000 ft, QNH 1.023 hPa. The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore: A) 1.0
00 ft at Ajaccio and 2.000 ft at Calvi. B) 1.000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at Cal
vi. C) 8.000 ft at Ajaccio and 9.000 ft at Calvi. D) 1.000 ft at Ajaccio and 9.0
00 ft at Calvi. 9657. (all) What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN? A) 6 -
8 oktas.. B) 3 - 4 oktas. C) 5 - 7 oktas. D) 8 oktas. 9661. (all) Compare the fo
llowing TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice: TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012K
T 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS = What can be concluded from the dif
ferences between the two reports? A) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also
likely to be as predicted in the TAF. B) That the weather conditions at 0920 we
re actually predicted in the TAF. C) That the weather at Nice is clearly more vo
latile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning. D) That the VOL
MET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest V
OLMET report could
be so different from the TAF. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 119 2008 AVIATIO
NEXAM.com 9662 (B) 9665 (A) 9666 (A) 9667 (D) 9668 (B) 9673 (C) 9674 (B) 9675 (A
) 9676 (B) 9678 (C) 9681 (C) 9683 (B) 9687 (C) 9662. (all) What units are used t
o report vertical windshear? A) kt B) kt/100 ft C) m/100 ft D) m/sec 9665. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-62) In what height range and at what intensity could you e
ncounter turbulence in CAT area n2? A) From FL220 to FL400, moderate. B) From FL2
40 to FL370, light. C) From below FL130 to FL270, light. D) From FL250 to FL320,
moderate. 9666. (all) What does the abbreviation NOSIG mean? A) No significant
changes. B) No report received. C) No weather related problems. D) Not signed by
the meteorologist. 9667. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of these route
s would you have to worry about turbulence at FL340? A) Rome - Berlin. B) Zurich
- Rome. C) Zurich - Athens. D) Shannon - Hamburg. 9668. (all) A SPECI is: A) an
aviation routine weather report. B) an aviation selected special weather report
. C) a warning for special weather phenomena. D) a forecast for special weather
phenomena. 9673. (all) What does the term METAR signify? A) A METAR is a flight
forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily. B) A METAR i
s a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR. C) A METAR sign
ifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-
hourly intervals. D) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather r
eport as a brief prognostic report. 9674. (all) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam a
irport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT
SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN02
0 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibil
ity forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
A) 5 km B) 3 km C) 5 NM D) 6 km 9675. (all) How may the correct wind speed be fo
und, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL2
50, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available). A) By interpolation o
f the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the
maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart. B) By simple i
nterpolation of wind information available from the two charts. C) By reading wi
nd direction and speed from the next higher chart. D) By reading wind direction
and speed from the 300 hPa chart. 9676. (all) (Refer to figure 050-77) If you ar
e flying from Zurich to London at FL220, what conditions can you expect at cruis
ing altitude? A) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus. B) Individual cumulonimbus
. C) Scattered towering cumulus. D) Scattered castellanus. 9678. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-65) Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL
280: A) 040/60 B) 250/80 C) 220/50 D) 160/90 9681. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35
) Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport
(LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? A) 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG
0800 = B) 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA = C) 21002KT 5000 HZ SC
T040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG = D) 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG = 9683. (al
l) What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT? A) 1 - 2 oktas. B) 3 - 4 oktas.
C) 5 - 7 oktas. D) 1 - 4 oktas. 9687. (all) Which of the following statements is
an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 EMBD TS OBS AND FCS
T IN W PART OF ATHINAI FIR / MOVE / INTST NC = A) Athens Airport is closed due t
o thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC. B)
Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly m
oving west. C) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens
FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant.
D) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stat
ionary above the western part of the Athens FIR. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATI
ON 120 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9688 (A) 9691 (B) 9692 (C) 9693 (C) 9694 (B) 9696 (
A) 9699 (C) 9704 (D) 9705 (B) 9706 (A) 9709 (A) 9712 (A) 9688. (all) Given the f
ollowing METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 1400 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC00
3 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG A) Visibility is reduced by water droplets. B) There is a di
stinct change in RVR observed. C) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR. D
) RVR on runway 26R is increasing. 9691. (all) (Refer to figure 050-88) What is
the deviation of the temperature at FL140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA? A) 4
C warmer than ISA. B) 9 C colder than ISA. C) 9 C warmer than ISA. D) 12 C colder t
han ISA. 9692. (all) ATIS information contains: A) operational information and i
f necessary meteorological information. B) only meteorological information. C) m
eteorological and operational information. D) only operational information. 9693
. (all) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at
the time they are observed? A) FZFG B) BCFG C) SN D) HZ 9694. (all) Which of th
e following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbrev
iated to CAVOK? MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft
LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG
= B) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 -RA = C) LSZH VRB02KT 9000
BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG = D) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
9696. (all) What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean? A) 5-7 Eights of the sk
y is cloud covered. B) 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered. C) 3-5 Eights of
the sky is cloud covered.
D) Nil significant cloud cover. 9699. (all) In which of the following circumstan
ces is a SIGMET issued? A) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome. B) Fog or a
thunderstorm at an aerodrome. C) Severe mountain waves. D) A sudden change in t
he weather conditions contained in the METAR. 9704. (all) Which of the four answ
ers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR? LSZH 050820Z 1
6003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 = A) Meteoro
logical visibility 1.000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds,
temperature 2 C. B) RVR for runway 16 1.000 m, meteorological visibility increasi
ng in the next 2 hours to 2.000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2 C. C
) RVR for runway 14 1.500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1.026 hPa, win
d 160 at 3 kts. D) Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1.000 m, de
w point -2 C, freezing fog. 9705. (all) What is the wind speed given in a METAR r
eport based on? A) The average speed of the previous 30 minutes. B) The average
speed of the previous 10 minutes. C) The strongest gust in the previous hour. D)
The actual speed at the time of recording. 9706. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51)
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC? A
) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG = B) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT0
40 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA = C) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB
18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW = D) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG = 9709.
(all) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely i
n the next few hours? A) 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24
018G30 TS = B) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG = C) 1350Z 34
003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG = D) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q10
22 BECMG 5000 = 9712. (all) (Refer to figure 050-70) Over Amsterdam, what amount
and general type of cloud is most likely at FL160? A) Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of st
ratiform cloud in layers. B) 4 oktas broken cumulus. C) Isolated cumulonimbus on
ly. D) 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence.
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 121 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9714 (B) 9716 (A) 97
17 (B) 9719 (B) 9721 (A) 9722 (B) 10445 (B) 10446 (A) 10447 (A) 10453 (A) 10454
(A) 9714. (all) (Refer to figure 050-52) Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the low
est probability of precipitation? A) ESSA B) LSZH C) ENFB D) EFHK 9716. (all) (R
efer to figure 050-63) Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximu
m speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London? A) 230/1
20 kts. B) 220/120 km/h. C) 050/120 kts. D) 230/120 m/sec. 9717. (all) What is a tr
end forecast? A) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours. B) A landing forecast
appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours. C) A route forecast valid for 24 hou
rs. D) A routine report. 9719. (all) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH
061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 B
ECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zuric
h (1200 UTC) is: A) 1.000 ft B) 1.500 ft C) 1.500 m D) 5.000 ft 9721. (all) If C
AVOK is reported then: A) no low drifting snow is present. B) FEW SC at 3.000 ft
are present. C) low level windshear has not been reported. D) any CU s have a b
ase above 5.000 ft. 9722. (all) How long from the time of observation is a TREND
in a METAR valid? A) 9 hours B) 2 hours C) 1 hour D) 30 minutes 10445. (all) In
the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight fro
m Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importan
ce at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 SIGMET 2 VALID 0800/1100 LOC SEV TURB FCST EINN FIR BLW FL050
SOUTH OF 53N WKN = LIMM MILANO 2809 SIGMET 2 VALID 0900/1500 MOD SEV CAT BTN FL2
50 AND FL430 FCST LIMM FIR STNR NC = EGLL LONDON 2808 SIGMET NR01 VALID 0800/120
0 FOR LONDON FIR ISOL CB EMBD IN LYR CLOUD FCST TOPS FL300 BTN 52N AND 54N EAST
OF 002E SEV ICE SEV TURB TS ALSO FCST MOVE WKN = Which decision is correct? A) Y
ou show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the rout
e to be flown. B) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level b
elow FL250. C) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of he
avy thunderstorms at planned FL310 you select a higher flight level (FL370). D)
You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the
route would demand too much of the passengers. 10446. (all) (Refer to figure 050
-89) Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found? A) FL100 B) FL20 C) FL180 D) FL260 10447. (
all) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6
000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC
010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA
2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast? A) 120/15 kts gusts 25
kts. B) 140/10 kts. C) 300/15 kts maximum wind 25 kts. D) 250/20 kts. 10453. (all)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the tim
e they are observed? A) +SHSN B) VA C) BR D) MIFG 10454. (all) (Refer to figure
050-74) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at F
L240: A) 230/15 B) 020/20 C) 200/20 D) 260/25 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
122 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10459 (C) 10460 (B) 10461 (B) 10463 (D) 10470 (D) 1047
1 (D) 10473 (C) 10479 (B)
10480 (B) 10481 (A) 10483 (D) 10485 (D) 10459. (all) Refer to the TAF for Amster
dam airport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G
25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW
BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base
is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam? A) 500 m B) 250 ft C) 500 ft D) 800 ft 10
460. (all) In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing
you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can
last in anyone instance? A) 120 minutes. B) 60 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 20 min
utes. 10461. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of the following routes can
you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? A) Rome - Frankfurt. B) H
amburg - Oslo. C) Tunis - Rome. D) Copenhagen - Helsinki. 10463. (all) A pilot i
s warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in: A)
TAF and SIGMET. B) TAF and METAR. C) METAR and SIGMET. D) SWC and SIGMET. 10470
. (all) Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport: TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV0
01 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 12
00 UTC? A) Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed
5 knots. B) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230, cloudbase 500 f
eet. C) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
. D) Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 k
nots. 10471. (all) Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquapl
aning? A) SA B) FG C) BCFG D) +RA 10473. (all) Refer to the following TAF extrac
t:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviatio
n VV001 mean? A) RVR greater than 100 m. B) RVR less than 100 m. C) Vertical vis
ibility 100 ft. D) Vertical visibility 100 m. 10479. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
68) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt? A) ISA -2 C. B) ISA -13 C. C) ISA +13 C. D
) ISA +2 C. 10480. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) Judging by the chart, what wind
speeds can you expect at FL340 above Rome? A) 340 kts B) 145 kts C) 95 kts D) 14
0 km/h 10481. (all) (Refer to figure 050-72) What OAT would you expect at FL200
over Geneva? A) -24 C B) -20 C C) -16 C D) -28 C 10483. (all) Refer to the TAF for B
ordeaux airport: FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 260
20G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UT
C. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast? A) 10 or more
km. B) 8 NM. C) 10 NM. D) 8 km. 10485. (all) SIGMET information is issued as a w
arning for significant weather to: A) heavy aircraft only. B) light aircraft onl
y. C) VFR operations only. D) all aircraft. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 12
3 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10488 (C) 10490 (D) 10491 (D) 10492 (B) 10494 (D) 10495
(A) 10499 (A) 10500 (A) 10501 (C) 10507 (A) 10510 (C) 10511 (D) 10512 (C) 10488.
(all) Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have exper
ienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequenc
e of these reports? A) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI.
B) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed. C) The competent aviati
on weather office will issue a SIGMET. D) The competent aviation weather office
will issue a storm warning. 10490. (all) In which weather report would you expec
t to find information about icing conditions on the runway? A) TAF B) SIGMET C)
GAFOR D) METAR 10491. (all) What does the term TREND signify? A) It is a flight
forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily. B) It is the
actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly in
tervals. C) It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions. D) It is a b
rief landing forecast added to the actual weather report. 10492. (all) (Refer to
figure 050-93) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens
- Geneva at FL150: A) -21 C B) -14 C C) -11 C D) -27 C 10494. (all) The cloud base,
reported in the METAR, is the height above: A) the highest terrain within a rad
ius of 8 km from the observation station. B) mean sea level. C) the pressure alt
itude of the observation station at the time of observation. D) airfield level.
10495. (all) (Refer to figure 050-81) Which of these statements is true? A) Turb
ulence is likely to be encountered at FL310 west of Madrid. B) Freezing level ab
ove Madrid is higher than FL120. C) The front to the north of London is moving s
outh. D) Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France. 10499. (all) Refer
to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG
VV001 What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean? A) Probability of 30%. B) Conditio
ns will last for at least 30 minutes. C) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3.000
ft. D) Change expected in less than 30 minutes. 10500. (all) Refer to TAF below:
EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB P
ROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010 KT From the TAF above you c
an assume that visibility at 2055Z
in Birmingham (EGBB) will be: A) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of
10 km. B) a maximum 5 km. C) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km. D) more
than 10 km. 10501. (all) On the European continent METARs of main airports are c
ompiled and distributed with intervals of: A) 2 hours. B) 1 hour. C) 0,5 hour. D
) 3 hours. 10507. (all) (Refer to figure 050-79) Judging by the chart, on which
of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate CAT at FL300? A) Zurich - A
thens. B) London - Zurich. C) Zurich - Stockholm. D) Madrid - Bordeaux. 10510. (
all) Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that coul
d be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight? A) SPECI B) ATIS C) SIGMET D)
TAF 10511. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) If you are flying from Zurich to Stock
holm at FL280, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? A) Out of cl
oud throughout the flight. B) Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT. C) Sc
attered thunderstorms. D) Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way al
ong the route. 10512. (all) (Refer to figure 050-73) Select from the map the ave
rage temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110: A) -6 C B) -12 C C) -9 C D)
+5 C 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 124 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10513 (B) 10515
(C) 10517 (A) 10521 (D) 10525 (A) 10529 (B) 10534 (A) 10536 (C) 10537 (A) 10539
(B) 10545 (D) 10513. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport is most likely
to have fog in the coming night? A) ENFB to ENGM B) LSZH C) EKCH D) ESSA
10515. (all) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probabilit
y of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? A) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/
M08 Q1035 NOSIG = B) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG = C) VRB01
KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR = D) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NO
SIG = 10517. (all) What does the term SIGMET signify? A) A SIGMET is a warning o
f dangerous meteorological conditions. B) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued
by the meteorological station several times daily. C) A SIGMET is a brief landin
g forecast added to the actual weather report. D) A SIGMET is an actual weather
report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals. 10521.
(all) Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines? A) Severe squall
lines always move from northwest to southeast. B) Severe squall lines only occur
in the tropics. C) For severe squall lines a TAF is issued. D) For severe squal
l lines a SIGMET is issued. 10525. (all) (Refer to figure 050-93) Select from th
e map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL160: A) 240/40 B) 210/
25 C) 260/45 D) 050/35 10529. (all) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich: LSZH
261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN0
30 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Z
urich 1430 UTC is: A) 6 NM B) 6 km C) 4 km D) 10 km 10534. (all) Which of these
four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours? A) 2
3015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 = B) 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100
m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG = C) 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 D) 05016
G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG = 10536. (all) Which of these statements bes
t describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? TAF LSZH 2112
00Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +
SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z = A) Visibility 10 kilometre
s or more, ceiling 1.200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
B) Visibility 4.000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18 C. C) Visibility
10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3.000 feet, wind 250, temperature 18 C. D) Severe
rainshowers, visibility 4.000 metres, temperature 15 C, gusts up to 35 knots. 105
37. (all) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 2
5020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW = A) Gusts of 38 knot
s, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18 C. B) Mean wind speed 20-38 knots,
meteorological visibility 1.200 metres, temperature 23 C. C) Broken, cloudbase 60
0 feet and 1.500 feet, temperature 18 C. D) Wind 250, thunderstorm with moderate h
ail, QNH 1.016 hPa. 10539. (all) (Refer to figure 050-60) What is the optimum fl
ight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart? A)
FL340 B) FL200 C) FL160 D) FL180 10545. (all) Which of the following statements
is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001
M03/ M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = A) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metr
es, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1.500 metres. B) Meteorolog
ical visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1.500 metres, temperature -3 C, ver
tical visibility 100 metres. C) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runw
ay 16 more than 1.500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost.
D) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorolog
ical visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGIC
AL INFORMATION 125 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10546 (C) 10547 (C) 10551 (C) 10552 (C)
10557 (A) 10578 (B) 15804 (C) 15819 (C) 15855 (C) 15856 (A) 15880 (C) 16529 (C)
10546. (all) Does the following report make sense? LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02
Q1015 NOSIG A) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a me
teorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported. B) The report would
never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological visib
ility is more than 2 km. C) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defin
ed as a thin layer of fog below eye level.
D) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2 C and a dew point
of 2 C there must be uniform fog. 10547. (all) The wind direction in a METAR is
measured relative to: A) the 0-meridian. B) magnetic north. C) true north. D) gr
id north. 10551. (all) In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the: A)
QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa. B) QFE rounded to the nearest hPa. C) QNH rou
nded down to the nearest hPa. D) QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa. 10552. (al
l) (Refer to figure 050-89) What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for
the Frankfurt - Roma route? A) 10 C colder than ISA. B) 4 C warmer than ISA. C) 4 C
colder than ISA. D) 10 C warmer than ISA. 10557. (all) Refer to the following TA
F extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the
BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame? A) The new conditions are
achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC. B) A quick change to new conditions between
1800 UTC and 1900 UTC. C) Many short term changes in the original weather. D) Ma
ny long term changes in the original weather. 10578. (all) (Refer to figure 050-
35) On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather situ
ation? Using the weather chart in appendix, valid at 1500 UTC in JUNE. TAF 1322
24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU S
CT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = A) ESSA
B) EINN C) LSZH D) EKCH 15804. (all) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR
31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BK
N015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of preci
pitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux? A) Light drizzle and fog. B) M
oderate snow showers. C) Heavy rain showers. D) Continuous moderate rain. 15819.
(all) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviatio
n BKN004 mean? A) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m. B) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m. C)
5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft. D) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft. 15855. (all) The va
lidity of a TAF is: A) between 6 and 9 hours. B) 9 hours from the time of issue.
C) statead in the TAF. D) 2 hours. 15856. (all) The RVR, as reported in a METAR
, is always the: A) value representative of the touchdown zone. B) average value
of the A-, B- and C-position. C) highest value of the A-, B- and C-position. D)
lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position. 15880. (all) A flight is to depart f
rom an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is r
eported at 300 feet with turbulence and windshear. The wind just above the inver
sion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? A) Depart runway 27 with
as steep an ascent as possible. B) Takeoff is not possible under these conditio
ns. C) Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind. D) Depart runway 27 with maximum thr
ottle, during the passage through the inversion. 16529. (all) The heights of clo
ud bases in TAFs are reported as being: A) AGL. B) AMSL. C) AAL. D) pressure atl
itude. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 126 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24176 (B) 241
87 (D) 24315 (A) 24316 (B) 24322 (D) 24323 (C) 24333 (D) 24351 (A) 24354 (D) 243
55 (C) 24363 (A) 24176. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) At which airport, is the
following weather development taking place? TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN2
40 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA S
CT030 OVC050 = A) LFPO B) EDDL C) LOWW D) LEMD 24187. (all) (Refer to figure 050
-56) To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable? TAF 230900Z 231019
24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BEC
MG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1517 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999
SCT030
A) EKCH B) LFPG C) LEMD D) LOWW 24315. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast
for 2400 UTC? A) 500 m. B) 2.000 m. C) Between 500 m and 2.000 m. D) Between 0 m
and 1.000 m. 24316. (all) Refer to the following TAF message. LFxx 180800Z 1809
18 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070= At 1400
UTC, the lowest cloud base will be: A) between 900 and 1.500 feet AMSL. B) at 90
0 feet AGL. C) between 900 and 1.500 feet AGL. D) at 1.500 feet AGL. 24322. (all
) TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG 0002 27015KT 4500 -SN
SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002 BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMP
O 0709 03015G25KT 1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB= What is the expected visibility at
0300 UTC? A) 4.500 m. B) Between 400 m and 10 km or more. C) Between 4.500 m and
10 km or more. D) Between 400 m and 4.500 m. 24323. (all) TAF LSZH 250600Z 2507
16 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005
TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather t
hat can be expected at 1200 UTC? A) Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibil
ity 200 feet, calm. B) Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230, cloud base 500
feet. C) Visibility 2,5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knot
s. D) Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots. 24333. (
all) The following weather message is a: EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC
004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 A) METAR. B) 24 ho
ur TAF. C) SPECI. D) 9 hour TAF. 24351. (all) The TAF weather messages are: A) a
irport forecasts. B) hourly or semi-hourly weather observations. C) special weat
her observations. D) landing forecasts of the trend type.
24354. (all) The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are: A) 9999, NSC, N
OSIG. B) 9000, SKC, NOSIG. C) 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIG. D) 9999, NSC, NSW.
24355. (all) The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability i
n percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical val
ues immediately following the term PROB, are: A) 25 or 35. B) 20 or 30. C) 30 or
40. D) 35 or 50. 24363. (all) What does the code TAF AMD mean? A) Revised TAF.
B) No change compared with the previous TAF. C) Weather conditions expected to a
ffect the safety of normal operations. D) Delayed issue of a TAF. 050-10 METEORO
LOGICAL INFORMATION 127 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24376 (D) 24377 (A) 24380 (D) 2438
2 (B) 24383 (B) 24384 (D) 24388 (B) 24389 (A) 24390 (B) 24391 (D) 24376. (all) W
hat is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC? TAF
VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN10
0 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= A) 1.8
00 feet. B) 1.200 feet. C) 1.400 feet. D) 900 feet. 24377. (all) What is the low
est cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 0
21019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1
018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= A) 500 ft B) 500 m C) 1.000 ft D) 1.000 m 2
4380. (all) What is the lowest probable cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at
Kingston? TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW0
15CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW0
25= A) 1.500 m B) 1.000 m
C) 1.500 ft D) 1.000 ft 24382. (all) What is the lowest visibility forecast for
approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020
BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT00
5 BKN015CB= A) 8 NM B) 8 km C) 6 NM D) 10 km 24383. (all) What is the lowest vis
ibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC? TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 12
00 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 T
SRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= A) 1.200 m B) 5 km C) 6 km D) 10 km
or more 24384. (all) What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during a
n approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC? TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK B
ECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA= A) 4.000 yards B) 10 km or more C)
7 km D) 4 km 24388. (all) What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienc
ed during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT C
AVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 A) 2.000 ft B) 1.500 ft C) 3.000 ft D) 800 ft 24389. (all
) What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 B
R SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TS
RA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK A) 260/10 kts. B) Variable
/05 kts. C) Variable/15 to 25 kts. D) Calm. 24390. (all) What surface wind is fo
recast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB B
ECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB
BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025= A) 360/10 kts. B) 140/20 kts gusts 34 kts.
C) 340/10 kts. D) 140/27 kts. 24391. (all) What type of meteorological hazard to s
afe flight is most likely to be experienced during the final approach to Geneva
(ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 80
00 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA A) Anabatic winds. B) Roll
cloud associated with standing waves. C) Radiation fog. D) Low level windshear.
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 128 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24392 (A) 24395 (C)
24416 (A) 24417 (B) 25577 (A) 25590 (D) 25591 (B) 25592 (C) 25593 (A) 25594 (D)
24392. (all) What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC? MKJP 160430Z 1
60606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 172
0 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2224 34010KT FEW025= A) Heavy rain showers. B
) Light drizzle. C) Continuous moderate rain. D) Intermittent light rain. 24395.
(all) What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into
Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020
SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 A) 6
.000 metres. B) 8.000 metres. C) 10 kilometres or more. D) Greater than 10 kilom
etres. 24416. (all) Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SI
GMET? A) Heavy duststorm. B) Strong inversion. C) Thick fog. D) Snow and ice on
the runway. 24417. (all) Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in
a SIGMET? A) Strong inversion. B) Heavy duststorm. C) Thick fog. D) Snow and ic
e on the runway. 25577. (all) (Refer to figure 050-96) The following TAF applies
best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010 A)
EBBR
B) LOWW C) LEMD D) LFPG 25590. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) Which weather situ
ation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC? A) 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1
002 NOSIG= B) 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000 = C) 28006KT 4000 -TSRA
SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG NSW = D) 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 1
2/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000 = 25591. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) At which airport i
s the following weather development most likely to be taking place? TAF 060716 2
5006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 2
3014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 = A) LFPO B) EDDL C) LEMD D) EPWA 25592. (all) (Ref
er to figure 050-51) On which airport do you expect the development of the follo
wing most likely weather situation? TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OVC180 BECMG 10
13 OVC090 TEMPO -RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN0
12 OVC020 = A) LFPO B) EGLL C) EDDL D) LOWW 25593. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35
) At which airport is the following weather development taking place? TAF 231322
24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU S
CT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220= A) EINN B
) LFPO C) LFML D) EKCH 25594. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) The attached chart
shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23. Which of the f
ollowing reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport? A) TAF LSZH 101
601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 = B) TAF LSZH 101
601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015
= C) TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN
020CB = D) TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618
00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = 050-10 METEORO
LOGICAL INFORMATION 129 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25599 (A) 26311 (A) 27072 (C) 2711
1 (A) 27462 (A) 27593 (A) 27594 (B) 27595 (C) 27667 (A) 27757 (A) 28380 (C) 2559
9. (all) (Refer to figure 050-55) The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at
1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather develop
ment at Zurich Airport (LSZH)? A) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BE
CMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = B) TA
F LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002
= C) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40K
T 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = D) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU T
EMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 26311. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75)
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart? A) Hamburg - Oslo. B) Rome - Frankfurt. C) Tunis - Rome. D) Copenhage
n - Helsinki. 27072. (all) Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport: TAF LSZH 211322
22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025
TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TI8152 TI6182 = Which of these statements best describes
the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? A) Meteorological visibil
ity 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1.200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots. B) M
eteorological visibility 4.000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18 C. C)
Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3.000 feet, win
d 250, temperature 18T. D) Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4.000 me
tres, temperature 15 C, gusts up to 35 knots. 27111. (all) At a weather station,
at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T=0,5 C, Td=-1,5
C In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the temperature group will b
e: A) 01/M01 B) M01/M02 C) 00/M01 D) M01/M01 27462. (all) A pilot observes thund
erstorm activity and severe icing along his flight path. Therefore he files a pi
lot report. What does it lead to?
A) It leads to a SIGMET. B) It leads to a METAR. C) An amended General Aviation
Forecast will be issued. D) No action will be taken. 27593. (all) A SIGMET: A) i
s a warning of meteorological hazards in the FIR for all aircraft. B) is a route
forecast, issued several times during the day by the Met Ofices. C) is added as
a short-term forecast to the actual weather report of an airport. D) reports th
e actual weather of an airport every 30 minutes. 27594. (all) TAF LSZH 1322 2201
8G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT BECMG 1820 4000 RA BKN025 BECMG
2022 25015KT TI8152 TI6182 = Which statement is true at 15 UTC? A) Met. vis. 4.0
00 metres, gusts of 25 kts, temperature 18 C. B) Met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling
3.000 ft, wind from 250, temperature 18 C. C) Met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 1.
200 ft, gusts of 45 kts. D) Strong rain showers, met. vis. 4.000 metres, tempera
ture 15 C, gusts of 35 kts. 27595. (all) Refer to the TAF below: What are the wea
ther conditions vou have to expect at 1200UTC on Zurich airport? TAF LSZH 0716 0
0000KT 0100FG VV001 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN 005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT 007= A)
Met. vis. 800 metres, vertical vis. 200 ft, calm. B) Met. vis. 6 km, ceiling 500
ft, wind from 230 degrees. C) Met. vis. 2,5 km, ceiling 500 ft, wind speed 5 kt
s. D) Met. vis. 800 m, wind direction 230, ceiling 500 ft. 27667. (all) For your
flight from Zurich to Rome you consult, amongst other information, the following
SIGMET: SIGMET VAL1D1214201121820 MOD TO SEV CAT OBS AND FCST S OF ALPS BTN FL2
60 AND FL380 / STNR / INTSF = A) You select a flight level below FL260 due to tu
rbulence. B) You select a flight level between FL260 and FL380 due to turbulence
. C) You delay your departure until 1820 LT to avoid the icing. conditions betwe
enFL260 and FL380. D) You disregard this SIGMET, because it does not affect on y
our flight. 27757. (all) (Refer to figure 050-62) Judging by the chart, on which
of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at
FL300? A) Zurich - Rome. B) London - Zurich. C) Zurich - Copenhagen. D) Paris -
Bordeaux. 28380. (all) The TAF validity in terms of time is usually: A) 3 hours.
B) 6 hours. C) 9 hours.
D) 12 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 130 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28386 (
C) 28404 (D) 28412 (C) 28413 (B) 28431 (B) 28432 (C) 28481 (C) 28386. (all) A SI
GMET is: A) a significant weather chart. B) a special METAR . C) a message about
observed or forecasted weather phenomena of special importance to aviation. D)
the same as a TAF -forecast. 28404. (all) Which of the following is a landing fo
recast? A) METAR. B) TAF. C) SPECI. D) METAR with TREND. 28412. (all) The horizo
ntal visibility given for VFR flight planning by a MET Office is: A) the average
flight visibility for the planned flight. B) meteorological visibility at an av
erage altitude of 500 meters. C) meteorological visibility on ground. D) vertica
l visibility. 28413. (all) The information about visibility to be used planning
a VFR flight is: A) observed horizontal visibility on ground. B) forecasted hori
zontal visibility on ground. C) observed vertical visibility. D) RVR. 28431. (al
l) SlGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous: A) particula
rly to light aircraft. B) to all aircraft. C) only to light aircraft operations.
D) particularly to heavy aircraft. 28432. (all) The function of a TAF is to be
a/an: A) area forecast. B) local forecast. C) forecast for an airfield. D) wind
forecast. 28481. (all) Among the ten groups of clouds, the following two are men
tioned specifically in MET reports and forecasts intended for aviation: A) altoc
umulus and stratus. B) cirrostratus and cumulonimbus. C) cumulonimbus and toweri
ng cumulus. D) cumulonimbus and nimbostratus. PICTURE SUPLEMENTS 132 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 133 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 1 2 10 11 3 4
5 6 7 8 9 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 H 400 2 km H T DP T 2 km H T DP T 2 km H T DP T
2 km H T DP T T = Temperature DP = Dewpoint 1 2 3 4 -10 C +10 C 0 C 1 km 2 km 0 C H
T 1 -10 C +10 C 0 C 1 km 2 km 0 C H T 2 -10 C +10 C 0 C 1 km 2 km 0 C H T 3 -10 C +10
1 km 2 km 0 C H T 4 45 S 45 S 2880 2920 2880 2920
2880 2920 2880 2920 N N isohypses A B D C FIGURE 050-01 A B C D FIGURE 050-02 FI
GURE 050-03 FIGURE 050-07 FIGURE 050-04 FIGURE 050-05 FIGURE 050-06 050 PICTURE
SUPPLEMENTS 134 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com A B A B A B A B A B 1 3 2 4 W E D A C B 50
N 20 W 10 W W E E A C B 50 N 20 W 10 W D 50N 10E 20W 10W 0 1 2 4 3 FIGURE 050-08 FIG
0-09 FIGURE 050-10 FIGURE 050-11 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 135 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.c
om 50N 10E 20W 10W 0 A B
C D A Paris B A London B FIGURE 050-12 FIGURE 050-13 FIGURE 050-14 A B Melbourne
FIGURE 050-16 A B Madrid FIGURE 050-15 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 136 2008 AVIATIO
NEXAM.com 6 5 4 3 2 1 A B C D 45 SOUTH 45 SUD 1000 hPa 995 hPa Tropopause 30.000 f
t 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0 C 0 C FIGURE 050-17
FIGURE 050-18 FIGURE 050-19 FIGURE 050-20 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 137 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com Tropopause 30.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C
D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0 C 0 C Tropopause 27.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E
A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0 C 0 C 0 C FIGURE 050-21 FIGURE 050-22 Tropopause 35.000 ft
18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0 C 0 C 0 C FIGURE 050-
23 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 138 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com B C A C A B R S
T U V W X Y Z NP SP 70S 40S 20S 0 20N 40N 70N D A A A A A B C C C C Zurich L A B
C D FIGURE FIGURE FIGURE FIGURE L H H FIGURE FIGURE
050-24 050-26 050-25 050-27 050-29 050-28
050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 139 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60
40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 40 20 0 20 40 60
80 60 RECIFE DAKAR Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator Arctic Circle FI
GURE 050-30 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 60 BOMBAY MELBOURNE A B C 20 0 80 100 120 20 40
60 140 160 180 Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator Arctic Circle 40 20
0 20 40 60 80 60 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 140 160 180 60 FIGURE 050-31 050 PICTURE
SUPPLEMENTS 140 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 140 160 180 40 20 0
20 40 60 Z Y R S T U V 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 6
0 40 20 0 20
40 60 80 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator BERMUD
A AZORES ROME NAIROBI FREETOWN LISBON Arctic Circle FIGURE 050-32 FIGURE 050-33
050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 141 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com LSGG H FIGURE 050-34 L L L H H
H LFML LFRO LSZH LGAT ESSA ENGM EKCH EINN FIGURE 050-35 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS
142 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H H L A L B C D E F H H L
L G T E FIGURE 050-36 FIGURE 050-37 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 143 2008 AVIATIONEXA
M.com L H L H V S Q 1024 1008 1016 1000 962 L H 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E MARCH B FIGUR
E 050-38 FIGURE 050-39 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 144 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H L 100
0 1008 1016 1024 1024 1016 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E APRIL B 1032 1016 1000 L H Q L 50
60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E MAY
FIGURE 050-40 FIGURE 050-41 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 145 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com D
1016 1008 1016 1000 1016 1000 H L H L 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E OCTOBER FIGURE 050-42 F
IGURE 050-43 1016 1016 1008 1000 1000 992 984L A 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JANUARY 050
PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 146 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com P 1000 1016 1032 1016 1000 H L 50N
60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E FEBRUARY H H L L 1016 1020 1020 1016 R
50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JULY FIGURE 050-44 FIGURE 050-45 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 147
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H H L L LOW LOW 1016 1020 1020 1016 R 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E J
ULY O 1000 1016 1032 1016 1000 H L 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JULY FIGURE 050-46 FIGURE
050-47 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 148 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H L 1000 1008 1016 1024
1024 1016 C 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JULY 1000 1016 1032 H
L S 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E NOVEMBER FIGURE 050-48 FIGURE 050-49 050 PICTURE SUPPLEME
NTS 149 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com A 1016 1000 984 968 1032 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JANU
Y L H L H LEMD EGLL LFPO EDDL EDDF EPWA LOWW LIRF SEPTEMBER 06:00 UTC FIGURE 050
-50 FIGURE 050-51 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 150 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com ENEV ESSA EF
HK LSZH H L 1200 UTC L L L H H FIGURE 050-52 FIGURE 050-53 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMEN
TS 151 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com H H L L FIGURE 050-54 LSZH H H H L FIGURE 050-55 050 PICTURE SU
PPLEMENTS 152 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com L L H H LEMD LEMD EKCH LOWW Z A 1024 1016 10
08 1000 992 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E JANUARY FIGURE 050-56 FIGURE 050-57 050 PICTURE S
UPPLEMENTS 153 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H L 1016 1000 S 50N 60N 30W 20W 10W 0 10E NOVEMB
FIGURE 050-58 FIGURE 050-59 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 154 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com F
IGURE 050-60
050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 155 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-61 050 PICTURE SUPP
LEMENTS 156 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-62 FIGURE 050-63 050 PICTURE SUPPLE
MENTS 157 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-64 FIGURE 050-65 050 PICTURE SUPPLEME
NTS 158 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-66 FIGURE 050-67 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENT
S 159 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-68 FIGURE 050-69 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS
160 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-70 FIGURE 050-71 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 16
1 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-72 FIGURE 050-73 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 162
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-74 FIGURE 050-75 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 163 20
08 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-76
FIGURE 050-77 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 164 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-78 FI
GURE 050-79 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 165 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-80 FIGU
RE 050-81 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 166 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-82 FIGURE
050-83 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 167 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-84 FIGURE 0
50-85 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 168 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-86 FIGURE 050
-87 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 169 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-88 FIGURE 050-8
9 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 170 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-90 FIGURE 050-91
050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 171 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-92 FIGURE 050-93 05
0 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 172
2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H H L LEMD LFPG LOWW EBBR L FIGURE 050-94 FIGURE 050-96 FI
GURE 050-95 Iintentionally not use

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