PCB3060

Take home test

1. Two true-breeding wingless Drosophila are crossed. All the offspring have wings. Which of the
following would be possible genotypes of the parents?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

+/+ w2/w2 and w1/w1 +/+

+/w1+/w2 and +/w1+/w2
+/w and ww
w1/w1 w2/w2 and w1/w1 w2/w2

2. A father with myotonic dystrophy has three daughters who are all carriers of the mutant allele
and two sons who are unaffected noncarriers. The three daughters have six sons, of which
four are affected and two are not, and four daughters, of which two are carriers and two are
not. From this description, what type of mutation is probably responsible for myotonic
dystrophy?

a.
b.
c.
d.

X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Y-linked
Autosomal recessive

3. A female is diagnosed with the X-linked recessive gene disorder, hemophilia. In checking her
medical history, the doctor will most likely discover that_______.
12.
12.
12.
12.

Her father had hemophilia and her mother was normal.

There is no family history of hemophilia.
All siblings also have hemophilia.
Her mother had hemophilia and her father was normal.

4. Bioinformatics is a discipline involved in the development of hardware and software for

processing, storing, and retrieving nucleotide and protein data.
a. True
b. False

5. In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100
primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
a. 100; 100
b. 200; 50
c. 50; 50
d. 200; 300
e. 100; 50
6. A recessive allele in tigers causes the white tiger. If two normally pigmented tigers are mated
and produce a white offspring, what percentage of their remaining offspring would be
expected to have normal pigmentation?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. about 66%
e. about 90%
7. The Chi-square test involves a statistical comparison between measured (observed) and
predicted (expected) values. One generally determines degrees of freedom as ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

the number of categories being compared

one less than the number of classes being compared
the sum of the two categories
ten minus the sum of the two categories
one more than the number of classes being compared

8. With which of the following would hemizygosity most likely be associated?

a.
b.
c.
d.

X-linked inheritance
sex-limited inheritance
codominance
trihybrid crosses

9. One result of X-linkage is a crisscross pattern of inheritance in which sons express recessive
genes of their fathers and daughters express recessive genes of their mothers.
a. True
b. False

10. Assume that regarding a particular gene, one scored 30 second-division ascospore
arrangements and 70 first-division arrangements in Neurospora. What would be the map
distance between the gene and the centromere?
a. 30
b. 15
c. 70
d. 60
e. None of these answers are correct.
Phenotype
Number
light-straw
22
wild
18
light
990
straw
970
Total 2000
11. Compute the map distance between the light and straw loci.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

10
15
22
2
Insufficient evidence is presented to be able to complete this task.

12. Assume that investigators crossed a strain of flies carrying the dominant eye mutation Lobe on
the second chromosome with a strain homozygous for the second chromosome recessive
mutations smooth abdomen and straw body. The F1 Lobe females were then backcrossed
with homozygous smooth abdomen, straw body males, and the following phenotypes were
observed:
smooth abdomen, straw body
820
Lobe
780
smooth abdomen, Lobe
42
straw body
58
smooth abdomen
148
Lobe, straw body
152
Give the gene order and map units between these three loci.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

straw body - Lobe - smooth abdomen

Lobe - smooth abdomen - straw body
smooth abdomen - Lobe - straw body
Lobe - straw body - smooth abdomen
smooth abdomen straw body Lobe

13. Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome #2 of Drosophila and that a
cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male. What
percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

100%
75%
50%
25%
0%

13. For the cross in the previous question, you get the following results. Calculate a chi square
value using an expectation of independent assortment and determine if the genes are likely to
be linked or not. Normal 350; variegated 63; colorless 57; variegated and colorless 330
a. The chi square value is greater than the critical value; these genes are likely to be linked.
b. The chi square value is greater than the critical value; these genes are unlikely to be
linked.
c. The chi square value is less than the critical value; these genes are likely to be linked.
d. The chi square value cannot help us predict linkage.
14. From the results in the previous question, calculate a map distance between these two genes.
a. 0.15 map units
b. 0.85 map units
c. 1.5 map units
d. 15 map units
15. What was unique about the chromosomes studied by Creighton and McClintock?
a. They carried different alleles for two linked genes.
b. They were unable to cross over.
c. These chromosomes were unable to synapse during meiosis I.
d. Physical structures of the chromosomes allowed them to be distinguished from each
other.
16. You calculate map distances between genes A, B, and C based on all pairwise dihybrid crosses.
When you perform the trihybrid cross to verify your results, you discover that, despite analysis
of a very large number of progeny, you have only about half as many double crossover
progeny as you expect. Which explanation is the most reasonable?
a. Your dihybrid cross data are an underestimate of the distance between the more widely
separated genes.
b. You are seeing an example of interference.
c. You are seeing an example of random sampling error.
d. None of these.

17. What is a convenient way to identify gene order in a trihybrid mapping cross?
a. Look for double crossover progeny and identify the gene that was flipped relative to
parentals.
b. Look for the largest class of single crossovers and the two genes are the ones on the
ends.
c. Look for the smallest class of single crossovers to identify the genes which are closest
together.
d. A and B only.
e. All of the above.
18. You set up a mapping cross involving your favorite gene (YFG) in Neurospora and determine
the following octad types: 4:4 arrangement 83; 2:4:2 arrangement 7; 2:2:2:2 arrangement 10.
What is the distance between your gene and the centromere?
a.
b.
c.
d.

7 cm
10 cm
17 cm
83 cm

19. You set up a mapping cross involving two genes of interest in Saccharomyces and determine
the following tetrad types: 8 nonparental ditype; 37 tetratype; 80 parental ditype. Calculate
the most accurate map distance between these two genes.
a.
b.
c.
d.

18.7mu
32.3mu
64.6mu
None of these is accurate.

20. Which method of gene transfer involves direct contact between the bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Conjugation.
Transduction.
Transformation.
All of these.
None of these

21. A researcher would like to map the location of galE and trpA genes in a new species of
bacterium that appears to be closely related to E. coli. He decides to use cotransduction, and
generates appropriate donor and recipient strains. He is disappointed when cotransduction is
not seen in his experiment. What is the most reasonable explanation for this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

His new bacterial species does not have galE or trpA genes.
His new bacterial species cannot survive galE or trpA mutation.
These two genes are too far apart to be mapped by cotransduction.
These two genes are too close together to be mapped by cotransduction.

22. What do transduction, transformation, and conjugation have in common?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

All require presence of an outside factor to facilitate gene transfer.

In all three processes, DNA is transferred as a single stranded molecule.
They all transfer large pieces of DNA into recipient cells.
All of the above.
None of the above.

23. Assume that genes C and D are located on the same chromosome. On one chromosome
alleles C and D are found, while the homologue contains alleles c and d. Which of the
following would be an example of a recombination event?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Alleles C and D together on one chromosome

Alleles c and d together on one chromosome
Alleles C and d together on one chromosome
Alleles c and D together on one chromosome
Both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one
chromosome

24. The visual proof that chromosomes exchange pieces of information during crossing over was
provided by __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bateson and Punnett

Morgan and Bridges
Creighton and McClintock
Watson and Crick

25. Uses a bacteriophage as an intermediary for the genetic information.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation
All of the answers are correct

26. Twin spotting provides evidence of what genetic event?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Meiotic recombination
Mitotic recombination
Linkage
Mutation
Biological evolution

27. A map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The genes are 23.6 millimeters apart

There are 23.6 other genes between the two genes of interest
23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes
23.6% of the offspring do not survive

28. A histidine, methionine auxotroph _________.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Can synthesis only histidine and methionine

Can only use histidine and methionine as nutrition sources
Cannot synthesize histidine and methionine
Is killed by histidine and methionine
Lacks proteins with histidine or methionine

29. The middle gene of a three gene mapping experiment can be determined by examining the
genotypes of which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Offspring that resemble the parents

Offspring that exhibit a double crossover event
Offspring that exhibit singlecrossover events
None of the answers are correct

30. During conjugation, one gene (A) is found to transfer to the recipient bacteria 26 minutes
following the start of conjugation, while a second gene (M) is found to transfer 37 minutes
following the start of conjugation. A third gene (T) transfers 45 minutes following the start of
conjugation. Based on this information, which of the following is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Genes A and M have a genetic distance of 11 minutes

Genes A and T have a genetic distance of 19 minutes
Genes M and t have a genetic distance of 8 minutes
The order of the genes is A M T
All of the answers are correct

31. In fungi, the structure in which the position of the four spores in the ascus is an indication of
their relationship to each other as they were produced during meiosis is called an ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Unordered tetrad
Unordered octad
Ordered octad
Ordered tetrad

32. A first division segregation (FDS) in the ordered octad ascus that has not had a crossover event
has which of the following arrangements of the spores?
a.
b.
c.
d.

3:1
4:4
2:4:2
9:3:3:1

33. phage that can carry a larger piece of a bacterial chromosome would have what type of effect
on cotransduction frequencies?
a. Raise the cotransduction frequency
b. Lower the cotransduction frequency
c. Have no effect on the cotransduction frequency
34. Based on the following data, what two genes are farthest apart?

a. a b
b. ca c
c. a c
35. Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in
the following numbers: 106 AaBb, 48 Aabb, 52 aaBb, 94 aabb. These results are consistent
with which arrangement of genes?
a. One of the homologs of the AaBb parent has both dominant alleles and the other has
both recessive alleles
b. One of the homologs of the AaBb parent has one dominant A and one recessive a while
the other has a dominant B and a recessive b
c. One of the homologs of the AaBb Parent is recessive for a and dominant for B while the
other is dominant for B and recessive for a.
d. Both homologs for the AaBb parent are herterozygous for both alleles
e. None of these is the correct answer.

36. The Ames test is used ________.

a. to determine if Salmonella can use the amino acid histidine
b. because animals cannot be used as models for studies of carcinogenicity
c. to determine if bacteria develop cancer
d. to verify that a chemical is carcinogenic
e. to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic
37. Your lab partner has mixed a dead tryptophan+ strain of Bacillus subtilis with a live
tryptophan- strain and observes that her B. subtilis culture is now tryptophan+. The most
likely explanation for this is
a. conjugation
b. mutation
c. generalized transduction
d. specialized transduction
e. Transformation
38. All of these statements are true of plasmids except:
a. They are small, circular molecules of DNA that can carry genes for heavy metal
resistance.
b. They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations.
c. They can be transferred between bacteria during conjugation.
d. They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
e. They may encode genes that enhance the pathogenicity of an organism.
39. In E. coli, Hfr cells ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

lack the genes typically carried on the F factor

typically pass the entire F factor to F- cells
do not form sex pili
fuse with gram-positive cells by way of sticky surface materials
can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell

40. Which of these statements is true about transduction?

a. Bacteria-bacteria contact is required.
b. Naked DNA is passed from bacterium to bacterium.
c. Segments of DNA move from one region of DNA to another.
d. Recombination does not occur.
e. A virus is required for transfer of genetic material.

41. Epigenetic inheritance is

a.
b.
c.
d.

process that turns on the transcription of a gene (or genes).

the semiconservative replication of DNA to be passed on to offspring.
turning genes off by methylation of certain nucleotides.
a process that inhibits gene expression.

42. Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

a. by a bacteriophage.
b. as naked DNA in solution.
c. by sexual reproduction.
d. by crossing over.
43. What provides a natural mechanism for the movement of genes from one region of a DNA
molecule to another?
a. operons
b. transposons
c. plasmids
d. d. R factors
44. Assume that the genes for tan body and bare wings are 15 map units apart on chromosome #2
in Drosophila. Assume also that a tan-bodied, bare-winged female was mated to a wild-type
male and that the resulting F1 phenotypically wild-type females were mated to tan-bodied,
bare-winged males. Of 1000 offspring, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what
numbers would they be expected?
a.
b.
c.
d.

wild type = 425; tan-bare = 425; tan = 75; bare = 75

wild type = 250; tan-bare = 250; tan = 250; bare =250
wild type = 450; tan-bare = 450; tan = 50; bare =50
wild type 50; tan-bare =50; tan= 425; bare = 25

45. In the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, a spineless (no wing bristles) female fly is mated to a
male that is claret (dark eyes) and hairless (no thoracic bristles). Phenotypically wild-type F1
female progeny were mated to fully homozygous (mutant) males, and the following progeny
(1000 total) were observed:
Phenotypes
Number Observed
spineless
321
wild
38
claret, spineless
130
claret
18
claret, hairless
309
hairless, claret, spineless 32
hairless
140
hairless, spineless
12
Which gene is in the middle?
a. Spineless
b. Claret
c. Hairless
46. In a three-point mapping experiment, which general classes of offspring are expected
(assuming crossovers occur)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Single crossovers, Double crossovers

Triple crossovers and Double crossovers
Non crossovers
A and C only
A and B only

47. Sister chromatid exchanges increase in frequency in the presence of X-rays, certain viruses,
ultraviolet light, and certain chemical mutagens. In which autosomal recessive disorder is
there an increase in sister chromatid exchanges?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cri du Chat
Blooms Syndrome
Down Syndrome
Tay Sachs

48. What is the relationship between the degree of crossing over and the distance between two
genes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Direct
Indirect
There is no relationship since everything is by chance alone
It is shown by a chi square test

49. The recombination frequency between gene A and gene B is 8.4%, the recombination
frequency between gene A and gene C is 6.8%, and the recombination frequency between
gene B and gene C is 15.2%. Which of these is the correct arrangement of these genes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

ABC
ACB
BCA
CAB
CBA

50. Given these chromosomes, which of the choices represents the possible recombinant
gametes?