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Theorem : A set is infinite iff it is equivalent to one of its proper

subsets.
Proof 1 : Let T be an infinite set. By Infinite Set has Countably
Infinite Subset, it is possible to construct a countably infinite
subset of T.
Let S={a1,a2,a3,} be such a countably infinite subset of T.
Create a Partition of S into: S1={a1,a3,a5,},S2={a2,a4,a6,}
Let a bijection be established between S and S1, by letting
ana2n1.
This is extended to a bijection between S(TS)=T and
S1(TS)=TS2 by assigning each element in TS to itself.
So a bijection has been demonstrated between T and one of its
proper subsets TS2.
That is, if T is infinite, it is equivalent to one of its proper subsets.
Now, let T0T be a proper subset of T, and f:TT0 be a bijection.
It follows from No Bijection between Finite Set and Proper Subset
that T must be infinite.
Proof 2 : Let S be a set. Suppose S is finite. From No Bijection
between Finite Set and Proper Subset we have that S can not be
equivalent to one of its proper subsets.
Suppose S is infinite. From Infinite Set has Countably Infinite
Subset, we can construct v:NS such that v is an injection.
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We now construct the mapping h:SS as follows.
h(x)={v(n+1)x:nN:x=v(n):xIm(v)
It is clear that h is an injection.
But we have that v(0)Im(h) and so Im(h)S.
The result follows from Injection to Image is Bijection.

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