GQB Me PDF

GATE QUESTION BANK
for
Mechanical Engineering
By
GATE QUESTION BANK
Contents
Contents
#1.
#2.
#3.
#4.
Subject Name
Mathematics
Topic Name
Page No.
1-148
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Linear Algebra
Probability & Distribution
Numerical Methods
Calculus
Differential Equations
Complex Variables
Laplace Transform
1 28
29 57
58 73
74 112
113 131
132 143
144 148
Engineering Mechanics
149 162
8
9
149 155
156 162
Strength of Materials
163 187
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
163 168
169 171
172 174
175 179
180 182
183 184
185
186 187
#6.
Simple Stress and Strain

Shear Force and Bending Moment
Stresses in Beams
Deflection of Beams
Torsion
Mohr's Circle
Strain Energy Method
Columns and Struts
Thermodynamics
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
#5.
Statics
Dynamics
188 225
Basic Thermodynamics
Irreversibility & Availability
Properties of Pure Substances
Work, Heat & Entropy
Psychrometrics
Power Engineering
Refrigeration
Internal Combustion Engines
188 195
196
197 198
199 204
205 209
210 217
218 222
223 225
Theory of Machines
226 248
26
27
28
29
226 233
234 237
238 240
241 248
Mechanisms
Gear Trains
Flywheel
Vibration
Machine Design
30
31
249 267
Design of Static Loading
Design for Dynamic Loading
th
249 251
252 254
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, Keshava Krupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
: 080-65700750, info@thegateacademy.com Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.com
Page I
GATE QUESTION BANK
32
33
34
35
36
#7.
255 258
259
260 -261
262 264
265 267
268 - 291
Fluid Properties
Fluid Statics
Fluid Kinematics
Fluid Dynamics
Boundary Layer
Flow through Pipes
Hydraulic Machines
268
269 270
271 275
276 279
280 282
283 286
287 291
Heat Transfer
44
45
46
47
#9.
Design of Joints
Design of Shaft and Shaft Component
Design of Bearing
Design of Brakes and Clutches
Design of Spur Gears
Fluid Mechanics
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
#8.
Contents
292 311
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Heat Exchanger
292 298
299 303
304 307
308 311
Manufacturing Engineering
312 350
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
312 314
315 320
321 325
326 329
330 343
344 347
348 350
Engineering Materials
Casting
Forming process
Joining Process
Machining and Machine Tool Operations
Metrology and Inspection
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
#10. Industrial Engineering

55
56
57
351 371
Production Planning and Control

Inventory Control
Operation Research
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351 353
354 359
360 371
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, Keshava Krupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
Page II
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Linear Algebra
ME 2005
1.
Which one of the following is an
Eigenvector of the matrix[
(A) [
(B) [ ]
2.
5.
]?
(C) [
(D) [
A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an

inconsistent system of equations. The
highest possible rank of A is
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
ME 2006
3.
Multiplication of matrices E and F is G.
Matrices E and G are
os
sin
E [ sin
] and
os
G
4.
sin
os
sin
(B) [ os
os
sin
os
(C) [ sin
sin
os
sin
(D) [ os
os
sin
7.
Eigenvectors of 0
1 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinite
If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,

then the Eigenvalues
(A) are always real
(B) are always real and positive
(C) are always real and non-negative
(D) occur in complex conjugate pairs
ME 2008
8.
The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0
1 are
written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is

a + b?
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
Eigen values of a matrix

0
ME 2007
6.
The number of linearly independent
]. What is the matrix F?
os
(A) [ sin
Match the items in columns I and II.

Column I
Column II
P. Singular
1. Determinant is not
matrix
defined
Q. Non-square
2. Determinant is
matrix
always one
R. Real
3. Determinant is
symmetric
zero
matrix
S. Orthogonal
4. Eigen values are
matrix
always real
5. Eigen values are
not defined
(A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2
(B) P - 2 Q - 3 R - 4 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 5 S - 4
(D) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 2 S - 1
9.
(C) 1
(D) 2
The matrix [
] has one Eigenvalue

p
equal to 3. The sum of the other two
Eigenvalues is
(A) p
(C) p 2
(B) p 1
(D) p 3
1are 5 and 1. What are the
Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS?

(A) 1 and 25
(C) 5 and 1
(B) 6 and 4
(D) 2 and 10
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, KeshavaKrupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
Page 1
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
For what value of a, if any, will the

following system of equations in x, y and z
have a solution
x
y
x y z
x
y z
(A) Any real number
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) There is no such value
11.
ME 2012
15.
For a matrix,M-
(B) ( )
1 is
(A) 2
(B) 2 3
(C) 2 3
(D) 2
ME 2011
13. Consider the following system
equations:
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
The system has
(A) A unique solution
(B) No solution
(C) Infinite number of solutions
(D) Five solutions
14.
of
Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix

are always
(A) Positive
(C) Negative
(B) Real
(D) Complex
(D) ( )
of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the

,M- . The value of x is
matrix ,Mgiven by
)
(A) (
(C)
( )
(B)
(D)
1 , one of the
(C) ( )
(A) ( )
+, the transpose
ME 2010
12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix
For the matrix A=0
normalized Eigenvectors is given as
16.
ME 2009
Mathematics
x + 2y + z =4
2x + y + 2z =5
xy+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given
above has
(A) a unique algebraic equation of x = 1,
y = 1 and z = 1
(B) only the two solutions of ( x = 1,
y = 1, z = 1) and ( x = 2, y = 1, z = 0)
(C) infinite number of solutions.
(D) No feasible solution.
ME 2013
17. The Eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix
are all
(A) Complex with non zero positive
imaginary part.
(B) Complex with non zero negative
imaginary part.
(C) Real
(D) Pure imaginary.
18.
Choose correct set of functions, which are

linearly dependent.
(A) sin x sin x n os x
(B) os x sin x n t n x
(C) os x sin x n os x
(D) os x sin x n os x
ME 2014
19. Given that the determinant of the matrix
[
] is
12 , the determinant of
the matrix [
(A)
th
] is
(B)
th
(C)
th
(D)
Page 2
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

0
21.
22.
2.
Consider a non-homogeneous system of

linear equations representing
mathematically an over-determined
system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) consistent having many solutions
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
(D) inconsistent having no solution
3.
Consider the matrices

,
- . The order of , (
1 is
(A) { }
(C) 2
(B) { }
(D) 2 3
Consider a 33 real symmetric matrix S

such that two of its Eigenvalues are
with respective Eigenvectors
x y
[x ] [y ] If
then x y + x y +x y
x y
equals
(A) a
(C) ab
(B) b
(D) 0
Which one of the following equations is a
correct identity for arbitrary 33 real
matrices P, Q and R?
(A) (
)
)
(B) (
(
)
(C) et
et
et
)
(D) (
CE 2005
1.
Consider the system of equations (
)
is
s l r Let
(
)
(
) where
(
) e n Eigen -pair of an Eigenvalue
and its corresponding Eigenvector for
real matrix A. Let I be a (n n) unit
matrix. Which one of the following
statement is NOT correct?
(A) For a homogeneous n n system of
linear equations,(A
) X = 0 having
a nontrivial solution the rank of
(A
) is less than n.
(B) For matrix
, m being a positive
integer, (
) will be the Eigen pair for all i.
(C) If
=
then | | = 1 for all i.
(D) If
= A then is real for all i.
Mathematics
and
- will be
)
(C) (4 3)
(D) (3 4
(A) (2 2)
(B) (3 3
CE 2006
4.
Solution for the system defined by the set
of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x z = 2 and
3x + 2y = 5 is
(A) x = 0; y =1; z =
(B) x = 0; y = ; z = 2
(C) x = 1; y = ; z = 2
(D) non existent
5.
For the given matrix A = [
],
one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two

Eigen values are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
6.
The minimum and the maximum
Eigenvalue of the matrix [
]are 2
and 6, respectively. What is the other

Eigenvalue?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
7.
For what values of and the following

simultaneous equations have an infinite
of solutions?
X + Y + Z = 5; X + 3Y + 3Z = 9;
X+2Y+ Z
(A) 2, 7
(C) 8, 3
(B) 3, 8
(D) 7, 2
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Page 3
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
The inverse of the

(A)
(B)
1
1
m trix 0
(A)
(B)
is
(D)
( )
( )
( )
( )
11.
is
15.
(C)
(D)
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
CE 2012
1 are
and 8
and 5
The inverse of the matrix 0
The Eigenvalue of the matrix

[P] = 0
14.
(C)
CE 2008
9.
The product of matrices ( )
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) PQ
10.
1 is
Mathematics
n
n
The following simultaneous equation

x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
will NOT have a unique solution for k
equal to
(A) 0
(C) 6
(B) 5
(D) 7
CE 2009
12. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
CE 2011
13. [A] is square matrix which is neither
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and , is its transpose. The sum and difference of
these matrices are defined as
[S] = [A] + , - and [D] = [A] , - ,
respectively. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C) [S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is
symmetric
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skew
symmetric
The Eigenvalues of matrix 0

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1 are
2.42 and 6.86

3.48 and 13.53
4.70 and 6.86
6.86 and 9.50
CE 2013
16. There is no value of x that can
simultaneously satisfy both the given
equations. Therefore, find the le st
squares error solution to the two
equations, i.e., find the value of x that
minimizes the sum of squares of the
errors in the two equations.
2x = 3 and 4x = 1
17.
What is the minimum number of

multiplications involved in computing the
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows
and 2 columns, matrix Q has 2 rows and
4 columns, and matrix R has 4 rows and 1
column. __________
CE 2014
18.
Given the matrices J = [

K
19.
] n
], the product K JK is
The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]

is, where [M] = [
(A) 915
(B) 1355
th
th
(C) 1640
(D) 2180
th
Page 4
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
20.
The determinant of matrix [
Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

5, 2, 1, 4. Which of the following is an
I
Eigenvalue of 0
1, where I is the 4x4
I
identity matrix?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
is ____________
21.
The
rank
of
the
matrix
] is ________________
CS 2005
1.
Consider the following system of
equations
in
three
real
variables x x n x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
This system of equation has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but a finite number of
solutions
(D) an infinite number of solutions
2.
What are the Eigenvalues of the following

2 2 matrix?
0
(A)
(B)
1
n
n
(C)
(D)
n
n
CS 2006
3.
F is an n x n real matrix. b is an n
real
vector. Suppose there are two nx1
vectors, u and v such that u v , and
Fu=b, Fv=b. Which one of the following
statement is false?
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) There are infinite number of
solutions to Fx=b
(C) There is an x 0 such that Fx=0
(D) F must have two identical rows
Mathematics
CS 2007
5.
Consider the set of (column) vectors
defined by X={xR3 x1+x2+x3=0, where
XT =[x1, x2, x3]T }. Which of the following is
TRUE?
(A) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a basis for
the subspace X.
(B) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a linearly
independent set, but it does not span
X and therefore, is not a basis of X.
(C) X is not the subspace for R3
(D) None of the above
CS 2008
6.
The following system of
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Has unique solution. The only possible
value (s) for is/ are
(A) 0
(B) either 0 or 1
(C) one of 0,1, 1
(D) any real number except 5
7.
How many of the following matrices have

an Eigenvalue 1?
0
1 0
1 n 0
1 0
(A) One
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
CS 2010
8.
Consider the following matrix
A=[
]
x y
If the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then
(A) x = 4, y = 10
(C) x = 3, y = 9
(B) x = 5, y = 8
(D) x = 4, y = 10
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Page 5
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2011
9.
Consider the matrix as given below
[
13.
The value of the dot product of the

Eigenvectors corresponding to any pair of
different Eigenvalues of a 4-by-4
symmetric positive definite matrix is
__________.
14.
If the matrix A is such that
Which one of the following options

provides the CORRECT values of the
Eigenvalues of the matrix?
(A) 1, 4, 3
(C) 7, 3, 2
(B) 3, 7, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
CS 2013
11. Which one of
x x
equal [
y y
z z
x(x
y(y
(A) |
z(z
x
(B) |
y
z
x y
(C) |
y z
z
x y
(D) |
y z
z
15.
The product of the non zero Eigenvalues

of the matrix
is __________.
[
16.
the following does NOT

]
) x
) y
|
) z
x
|
y
z
x
y
y
z |
z
x
y
y
z |
z
],
Then the determinant of A is equal to

__________.
CS 2012
10. Let A be the 2
2 matrix with elements

and
.
Then the Eigenvalues of the matrix
are
(A) 1024 and
(B) 1024 and
(C) n
(D)
n
Mathematics
Which one of the following statements is

TRUE about every n n matrix with only
real eigenvalues?
(A) If the trace of the matrix is positive
and the determinant of the matrix is
negative, at least one of its
eigenvalues is negative.
(B) If the trace of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(C) If the determinant of the matrix is
positive, all its eigenvalues are
positive.
(D) If the product of the trace and
determinant of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
ECE 2005
1.
Given an orthogonal matrix
CS 2014
12. Consider the following system of
equations:
x
y
x
z
x
y
z
x
y
z
The number of solutions for this system is
__________.
A= [
]. ,
is
(A) [
th
th
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Page 6
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
(B) [
6.
The rank of the matrix [
(C) [
(A) 0
(B) 1
(D) [
2.
Let,
A=0
1 and
Then (a + b)=
(A)
(B)
3.
= 0
1.
(C)
(D)
Given the matrix 0
Eigenvector is
(C) 0
(B) 0 1
(D) 0
ECE 2006
4.
For the matrix 0

corresponding
0
the
ECE 2007
7.
It is given that X1 , X2 M are M nonzero, orthogonal vectors. The dimension
of the vector space spanned by the 2M
vector X1 , X2 XM , X1 , X2 XM is
(A) 2M
(B) M+1
(C) M
(D) dependent on the choice of X1 , X2
XM.
9.
All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

p
p
P = 0p
p 1 are non-zero, and one of
its Eigenvalues is zero. Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) p p
p p
(B) p p
p p
(C) p p
p p
(D) p p
p p
Eigenvector
1 is
(A) 2
(B) 4
5.
1 , the Eigenvalue
to
(C) 6
(D) 8
The Eigenvalues and the corresponding

Eigenvectors of a 2 2 matrix are given
by
Eigenvalue
Eigenvector
=8
v =0 1
=4
(C) 2
(D) 3
ECE 2008
8.
The system of linear equations
4x + 2y = 7, 2x + y = 6 has
(A) a unique solution
(B) no solution
(C) an infinite number of solutions
(D) exactly two distinct solutions
1 the
(A) 0 1
v =0
ECE 2009
10. The Eigen values of the following matrix
are
[
The matrix is
(A) 0
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0
(A) 3, 3 + 5j, 6 j
(B) 6 + 5j, 3 + j, 3 j
(C) 3 + j, 3 j, 5 + j
(D) 3, 1 + 3j, 1 3j
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Page 7
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2010
11. The Eigenvalues of a skew-symmetric
matrix are
(A) Always zero
(B) Always pure imaginary
(C) Either zero or pure imaginary
(D) Always real
ECE 2011
12. The system of equations
x y z
x
y
z
x
y
z
has NO solution for values of
given by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Mathematics
ECE 2014
16. For matrices of same dimension M, N and
scalar c, which one of these properties
DOES NOT ALWAYS hold?
(A) (M )
M
(M)
(B) ( M )
(C) (M N)
M
N
(D) MN NM
17.
A real (4 4) matrix A satisfies the

equation
I where is the (4 4)
identity matrix. The positive Eigenvalue
of A is _____.
18.
Consider the matrix
J
ECE\EE\IN 2012
13.
Given that A = 0
1 and I = 0
the value of A3 is
(A) 15 A + 12 I
(B) 19A + 30
(C) 17 A + 15 I
(D) 17A +21
ECE 2013
14. The minimum Eigenvalue of the following
matrix is
[
19.
The determinant of matrix A is 5 and the

determinant of matrix B is 40. The
determinant of matrix AB is ________.
20.
The system of linear equations
(A) 0
(B) 1
15.
[
]
Which is obtained by reversing the order
of the columns of the identity matrix I .
Let
I
J where
is a nonnegative real number. The value of for
which det(P) = 0 is _____.
1,
(C) 2
(D) 3
Let A be a m n matrix and B be a n m

matrix. It is given that
) determinant
Determinant(I
(I
) where I is the k k identity
matrix. Using the above property, the
determinant of the matrix given below is
(A) 2
(B) 5
)h s
(A) a unique solution

(B) infinitely many solutions
(C) no solution
(D) exactly two solutions
21.
)4 5
]
(C) 8
(D) 16
th

NOT true for a square matrix A?
(A) If A is upper triangular, the
Eigenvalues of A are the diagonal
elements of it
(B) If A is real symmetric, the Eigenvalues
of A are always real and positive
th
th
Page 8
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and

are always the same
(D) If all the principal minors of A are
positive, all the Eigenvalues of A are
also positive
22.
The maximum value of the determinant

among all 22 real symmetric matrices
with trace 14 is ___.
EE 2005
1.
5.
If R = [
] , then top row of
(A) ,
(B) ,
2.
(C) ,
(D) ,
(B) [
] [
] [
(C) [
] [
] [
(D) [
] [
] [
(A) [ ]
(B) [
(C) [
(B) [
(D) [ ]
In the matrix equation Px = q, which of

the following is necessary condition for
the existence of at least one solution for
the unknown vector x
(A) Augmented matrix [P/Q] must have
the same rank as matrix P
(B) Vector q must have only non-zero
elements
(C) Matrix P must be singular
(D) Matrix P must be square
] ,R=[
(C) [ ]
]
(D) [
EE 2007
6.
X = [x , x . . . . x - is an n-tuple non-zero
vector. The n n matrix V = X
(A) Has rank zero (C) Is orthogonal
(B) Has rank 1
(D) Has rank n
7.
The linear operation L(x) is defined by

the cross product L(x) = b x, where
b =[0 1 0- and x =[x x x - are three
dimensional vectors. The
matrix M
of this operation satisfies
x
L(x) = M [ x ]
x
Then the Eigenvalues of M are
(A) 0, +1, 1
(C) i, i, 1
(B) 1, 1, 1
(D) i, i, 0
8.
Let x and y be two vectors in a 3

dimensional space and <x, y> denote
their dot product. Then the determinant
xx
xy
det 0 y x
yy 1
(A) is zero when x and y are linearly
independent
(B) is positive when x and y are linearly
independent
(C) is non-zero for all non-zero x and y
(D) is zero only when either x or y is zero
EE 2006
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 4
and 5.
4.
is
] , one of
(A) [
] ,Q=[
] [
For the matrix p = [
P=[
(A) [
The following vector is linearly

dependent upon the solution to the
previous problem
the Eigenvalues is equal to 2 . Which of

the following is an Eigenvector?
3.
Mathematics
] are
three vectors
An orthogonal set of vectors having a
span that contains P,Q, R is
th
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Page 9
GATE QUESTION BANK
Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10.

Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a
square matrix satisfies its own
characteristic equation. Consider a
matrix.
A=0
A satisfies the relation

(A) A + 3 + 2
=0
2
(B) A + 2A + 2 = 0
(C) (A+ ) (A 2) = 0
(D) exp (A) = 0
10.
equals
(A) 511 A + 510
(B) 309 A + 104
(C) 154 A + 155
(D) exp (9A)
EE 2008
11. If the rank of a (
) matrix Q is 4, then
which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and four linearly independent
columns
(B) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and five linearly independent
columns
(C) Q will be invertible
(D)
Q will be invertible
12.
13.
(A) A A+ A = A
(B) (AA+ ) = A A+
14.
The characteristic equation of a (

)
matrix P is defined as
() = | P| =
=0
If I denotes identity matrix, then the
inverse of matrix P will be
(A) (
I)
(B) (
I)
(C) (
I)
(D) (
I)
(C) A+ A =
(D) A A+ A = A+
Let P be a
real orthogonal matrix. x
is a real vector [x x - with length
x
(x
x ) . Then, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(A)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(B)
x
x for all vectors x
(C)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(D) No relationship can be established
between x and
x
9.
Mathematics
EE 2009
15. The trace and determinant of a
matrix are known to be 2 and 35
respe tively Its Eigenv lues re
(A) 30 and 5
(C) 7 and 5
(B) 37 and 1
(D) 17.5 and 2
EE 2010
16. For the set of equations
x
x
x
x =2
x
x
x
x =6
The following statement is true
(A) Only the trivial solution
x
x
x
x = 0 exists
(B) There are no solutions
(C) A unique non-trivial solution exists
(D) Multiple non-trivial solutions exist
17.
An Eigenvector of
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
] is
-
EE 2011
18.
The matrix[A] = 0
1 is decomposed
into a product of a lower triangular

matrix [L] and an upper triangular matrix
[U]. The properly decomposed [L] and [U]
matrices respectively are
A is m n full rank matrix with m > n and

is an identity matrix. Let matrix
A+ = (
)
, then, which one of the
following statements is FALSE?
(A) 0
th
th
1 and 0
1
th
Page 10
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) 0
(C) 0
(D) 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
23.
1
1
1
EE 2013
19.
The equation 0
x
1 0x 1
0 1 has
0 1.
Eigenvector of the matrix A = 0
(C) Non zero unique solution

(D) Multiple solution
20.
(A) [ 1 1]T
(B) [3 1]T
A matrix has Eigenvalues 1 and 2. The

corresponding Eigenvectors are 0
0
1 respectively. The matrix is
(A) 0
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0

true for all real symmetric matrices?
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive.
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct.
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
1?
(C) [1 1]T
(D) [ 2 1]T
Let A be a 3 3 matrix with rank 2. Then

AX = 0 has
(A) only the trivial solution X = 0
(B) one independent solution
(C) two independent solutions
(D) three independent solutions
2.
1 and
EE 2014
21. Given a system of equations:
x
y
z
x y
z
Which of the following is true regarding
its solutions?
(A) The system has a unique solution for
any given and
(B) The system will have infinitely many
solutions for any given and
(C) Whether or not a solution exists
depends on the given and
(D) The system would have no solution
for any values of and
22.
Two matrices A and B are given below:

p
q pr qs
p q
[
]
0
1
r s
pr qs r
s
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank
of matrix B is
(A) N
(C) N
(B) N
(D) N
IN 2005
1.
Identify which one of the following is an
(A) No solution
x
(B) Only one solution 0x 1
Mathematics
IN 2006
and 4
A
system of linear simultaneous
equations is given as Ax=B where
[
] n
[ ]
3.
The rank of matrix A is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
4.
Which of the following statements is true?

(A) x is a null vector
(B) x is unique
(C) x does not exist
(D) x has infinitely many values
5.
For a given
that
0
matrix A, it is observed
0
1 n
Then matrix A is
th
th
th
Page 11
GATE QUESTION BANK
2 1 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 2 1 2
10.
(A) A
1 1 0 2
1 1
(B) A
1 2 0 2 1 1
(C) A
1 2 0
02 1
2 1 1
0 2
(D) A
1 3
IN 2007
6.
Let A = [ ]
i j n with n
= i. j. Then the rank of A is
(A)
(C) n
(B)
(D) n
7.
Let A be an nn real matrix such that

= I and y be an n- dimensional vector.
Then the linear system of equations Ax=Y
has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but finitely many
independent solutions
(D) Infinitely many independent
solutions
The matrix P =[
12.
9.
The Eigenvalues of a (2 2) matrix X are

2 and 3. The Eigenvalues of matrix
(
I) (
I) are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
)(
(D) n
IN 2011
13.
The matrix M = [
] has
Eigenvalues
. An Eigenvector
corresponding to the Eigenvalue 5 is
,
- . One of the Eigenvectors of
the matrix M is
(A) ,
(C) ,
(B) ,
(D) ,
] rotates a vector
(C)
(D)
A real n n matrix A = [ ] is defined as

i
i j
follows: {
otherwise
The summation of all n Eigenvalues of A is
(A) n(n
)
(B) n(n
)
(C)
about the axis[ ] by an angle of

(A)
(B)
Let P 0 be a 3 3 real matrix. There exist

linearly independent vectors x and y such
that Px = 0 and Py = 0. The dimension of
the range space of P is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
IN 2010
11. X and Y are non-zero square matrices of
size n n. If
then
(A) |X| = 0 and |Y| 0
(B) |X| 0 and |Y| = 0
(C) |X| = 0 and |Y| = 0
(D) |X| 0 and |Y| 0
IN 2009
8.
Mathematics
IN 2013
14. The dimension of the null space of the
15.
matrix [
] is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
One of Eigenvectors corresponding to the

two Eigenvalues of the matrix 0
(A) [
] 0
(B) 0 1 0
th
th
1 is
(C) [ ] 0 1
j
j
(D) [ ] 0 1
j
1
1
th
Page 12
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
IN 2014
16. For the matrix A satisfying the equation
given below, the eigenvalues are
, -[
(A) (
,)
(B) (1,1,0)
]
(C) (
)
(D) (1,0,0)
Answer Keys and Explanations

ME
1.
and G = [
[Ans. A]
[
Now E F = G
h r teristi equ tions is |

I|
(
)(
)(
)
Real eigenvalues are 5, 5 other two are
complex
Eigenvector corresponding to
is (
I)
(or)
( )
Verify the options which satisfies relation
(1)
Option (A) satisfies.
[Ans. B]
Given
in onsistent
4.
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. B]
1 Eigenv lues re 2, 2
I)
I)
No. of L.I Eigenvectors

(
(no of v ri les)
( )
7.
matrix be A = 0
sin
os
/
I)
[Ans. A]
(
I)
.
olving for , Let the symmetric and real
[Ans. C]
os
Given , E = [ sin
matrix, if Eigenvalues are

then for
matrix,
the Eigenvalues will be , ,
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are 1 and 5

then for
matrix, the Eigenvalues are 1
and 25.
No (
3.
sin
os
[Ans. A]
For S
( )
n ( )
( (
)
minimum of m n)
For inconsistence
( )
( )
he highest possi le r nk of is
os
[ sin
,E-
2.
th
Now |
Which gives (
th
th
Page 13
GATE QUESTION BANK
Hence real Eigen value.

8.
Mathematics
x
[
][
[Ans. B]
Let
eigenv lues re
12.
Eigen vector corresponding to

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
By simplifying
K
. / . / y t king K
Equating the elements x
[Ans. A]
0
1 Eigenv lues re
Eigenve tor is x
13.
Eigen vector corresponding to =2

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
K
By simplifying
(
) 4
5 by
[Ans. C]
[
taking K
x verify the options
( )
infinite m ny solutions
9.
10.
[Ans. C]
Sum of the diagonal elements = Sum of
the Eigenvalues
1 + 0 + p = 3+S
S= p 2
[Ans. B]
Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix
are always real
15.
[Ans. B]
0
If
1 eigenv lues v lue
Eigen vector will be .
Norm lize ve tor
[Ans. B]
( )
11.
14.
( )
[( )
) ]
16.
system will h ve solution
[Ans. A]
iven M
MM
th
[Ans. C]
The given system is
x
y z
x y
z
x y z
Use Gauss elimination method as follows
Augmented matrix is
th
th
Page 14
GATE QUESTION BANK
, | -
| ]
[
So, |
[Ans. C]
Suppose the Eigenvalue of matrix A is
(
i )(s y) and the Eigenvector is
x where s the onjug te p ir of
Eigenvalue and Eigenvector is n x.
So Ax = x
and x x
king tr nspose of equ tion
x
x
[( )
n is s l r ]
x
x x x
x x x x ,
x x x x
(x x) (
re s l r )
(x x)
20.
[Ans. C]
We know that
os x
os x sin x
( ) os x
sin x ( ) os x
Hence 1, 1 and 1 are coefficients. They
are linearly dependent.
1 eigen v lues
Eigenve tor is
verify for oth

n
21.
[Ans. D]
We know that the Eigenvectors
corresponding to distinct Eigenvalues of
real symmetric matrix are orthogonal.
x
y
x
y
[ ][ ] x y
x y
x y
y
x
22.
[Ans. D]
(
)
In case of matrix PQ
CE
1.
QP (generally)
[Ans. C]
If
=
i.e. A is orthogonal, we can
only s y th t if is n Eigenv lue of
then
also will be an Eigenvalue of A,
which does not necessarily imply that

| | = 1 for all i.
2.
[Ans. A]
In an over determined system having
more equations than variables, it is
necessary to have consistent unique
solution, by definition
3.
[Ans. A]
With the given order we can say that
order of matrices are as follows:
34
Y 43
33
[Ans. A]
|
[Ans. D]
0
nnot e zero )
Hence Eigenvalue of a symmetric matrix

are real
19.
(Taking 2 common from each row)

(
)
( x x re Eigenve tors they

i
i
i
0
18.
nk ( )
nk ( | )
So, Rank (A) = Rank (A|B) = 2 < n (no. of
variables)
So, we have infinite number of solutions
17.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 15
GATE QUESTION BANK
(
) 33
P 23
32
P(
)
(23) (33) (32)
22
( (
)
) 22
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to

an upper triangular matrix to find its
rank
| ]
4.
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for given system is
[
| ]
| ]
| ]
8.
| ]
( )
( )
( )
( )
olution is non existent for above
system.
5.
6.
7.
[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + = Trace (A)
= 2 + ( 1) + 0 = 1
Now = 3
3+ + =1
Only choice (B) satisfies this condition.

[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + =1+5+1=7
Now = 2, = 6
2+6+ =7
=3
1 is
(
)
0
9.
10.
1
1
[Ans. B]
( ) P=(
(
)(
)
=(
) (I) =
)P
[Ans. B]
A=0
Characteristic equation of A is
|
|=0
(4
)( 5
) 2 5 =0
+
30 = 0
6, 5
11.
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. A]
Inverse of 0
Now for infinite solution last row must be

completely zero
ie 2=0 n
7=0
Then by Gauss elimination procedure

[
Mathematics
| ]
th
[Ans. D]
x
[
| ] 6y7 [ ]
z
k
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its rank
th
th
Page 16
GATE QUESTION BANK
| ]
17.
[Ans. 16]
, , M trix , The product of matrix PQR is
, - , - , The minimum number of multiplications
involves in computing the matrix product
PQR is 16
18.
[Ans. 23]
k
[
| ]
| ]
Now if k
Rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 3
Unique solution
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 2
which is less than number of variables
When K = 7, unique solution is not
possible and only infinite solution is
possible
12.
[Ans. A]
A square matrix B is defined as skewsymmetric if and only if
= B
13.
[Ans. D]
By definition A +
is always symmetric
is symmetri
is lw ys skew symmetri
is skew symmetri
Mathematics
][
K JK
-[
,
]
-
19.
[Ans. A]
Sum of Eigenvalues
= Sum of trace/main diagonal elements
= 215 + 150 + 550
= 915
20.
[Ans. 88]
The determinant of matrix is
[
14.
[Ans. B]
1 =(
15.
,(
=
i)(
i
i
1
i -
i)
i
i
i
i
i
i
1
Interchanging Column 1& Column 2 and
taking transpose
Sum of the Eigenvalues = 17

Product of the Eigenvalues =
From options, 3.48 + 13.53 = 17
(3.48)(13.53) = 47
16.
[Ans. B]
0
[Ans. 0.5]
0.5
th
th
th
Page 17
GATE QUESTION BANK

* (
= (
21.
)+
= 1, 6
The Eigenvalues of A are 1 and 6
[Ans. 2]
]
3.
[Ans. D]
Given that Fu =b and Fv =b
If F is non singular, then it has a unique
inverse.
Now, u =
b and v=
b
Since
is unique, u = v but it is given
th t u
v his is contradiction. So F
must be singular. This means that
(A) Determinant of F is zero is true. Also
(B) There are infinite number of
solution to Fx= b is true since |F| = 0
(C) here is n
su h the
is
also true, since X has infinite number
of solutions., including the X = 0
solution
(D) F must have 2 identical rows is false,
since a determinant may become
zero, even if two identical columns
are present. It is not necessary that 2
identical rows must be present for
|F| to become zero.
4.
[Ans. C]
It is given that Eigenvalues of A is
5, 2, 1, 4
I
Let P = 0
1
I
Eigenvalues of P : |
I|
I
|
|
I
(
)
I
I
I
Eigenvalue of P is
( 5 +1 ), ( 2+ 1), (1+ 1), (4+1 ),
( 5 1 ), ( 2 1 ),(1 1), (4 1)
= 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 3,0,3
5.
[Ans. B]
|x
X= {x
x
x
= ,x x x - then,
[
( )
( )
]
( )
( )
]
( )
no. of non zero rows = 2
[Ans. B]
The augmented matrix for the given
system is [
| ]
Using elementary transformation on above

matrix we get,
[
| ]
|
]
Rank ([A B]) = 3

Rank ([A]) = 3
Since
Rank ([A B]) = Rank ([A]) = number of
variables, the system has unique solution.
2.
[Ans. B]
0
The characteristic equation of this matrix

is given by
|
I|
|
CS
1.
)(
Mathematics
|
th
th
th
Page 18
GATE QUESTION BANK
{ [1, 1, 0]T , [1,0, 1 ]T } is a linearly

independent set because one cannot be
obtained from another by scalar
multiplication. However (1, 1, 0) and
(1,0, 1) do not span X, since all such
combinations (x1, x2, x3) such that
x1+ x2+ x3 =0 cannot be expressed as
linear combination of (1, 1,0) and
(1,0, 1)
6.
7.
Only one matrix has an Eigenvalue of 1

which is 0
| ]
Correct choice is (A)

8.
[Ans. D]
|
|
x
y
(
)(
y)
When
(
y)
x
y
x
When
(
y)
x
y
x
x
y
Solving (1) & (2)
x
y
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for above system
is
[
Mathematics
| ]
| ]
( )
( )
Now as long as 5 0,
rank (A) =rank (A|B) =3
can be any real value except 5. Closest
correct answer is (D).
9.
[Ans. A]
The Eigenvalues of a upper triangular
matrix are given by its diagonal entries.
Eigenvalues are 1, 4, 3 only
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. D]
Eigenvalues of 0
|
| =0
Eigenvalues of 0
|
Eigenvalues of the matrix (A) are the

roots of the characteristic polynomial
given below.
=0,1
1
| =0
=0
( )
)(
) =0
= 1, 1
n ( )
n
| =0
(
(
)
)
Eigenvalues of A are
respectively
So Eigenvalues of
)
=0
)
= i or 1
= 1 i or 1 + i
Eigenvalues of 0
)(
)(
|= 0
(
(
= 0, 0
Eigenvalues of 0
|
) =0
th
th
th
Page 19
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
[Ans. A]
p
q
nd
Since 2
& 3rd columns have been
swapped which introduces a ve sign
Hence (A) is not equal to the problem
16.
(
)
( )
no of v ri
nique solution exists
14.
[
]
x
x
Let X = x
e eigen ve tor
x
[x ]
By the definition of eigenvector, AX =
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
[
] [x ]
[x ]
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
n x
x
x
x
x
x
(I) If
s yx
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
(2) If
Eigenv lue
Three distinct eigenvalues are 0, 2, 3
Product of non zero eigenvalues = 2 3 = 6
les
[Ans. 0]
The Eigenvectors corresponding to distinct
Eigenvalues of real symmetric matrix are
orthogonal
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. A]
If the trace or determinant of matrix is
positive then it is not necessary that all
eigenvalues are positive. So, option (B), (C),
(D) are not correct
[Ans. C]
Since, ,
]
(
=I
16
[Ans. A]
We know,
[Ans. 0]
| |
[Ans. 6]
Let A =
[Ans. 1]
x
y
x
z
x y z
x
y
z
ugmente m trix is [
13.
15.
Mathematics
7=0
1
1
1
1
b
, a
60
10
1 1 21 7
a+b =
3 60 60 20
Or 2a 0.1b=0, 2a
th
th
th
Page 20
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. C]
8.
[Ans. B]
Approach 1:
Given 4x + 2y =7
and 2x + y =6
(A I)=0
( 4 ) (3 ) 2 4=0
2 + 20=0 = 5, 4
4 2 x 7
2 1y 6

0 0 x 5
2 1y 6
x1
x2
Putting = 5, 0
1 =0
x + 2x = 0 x = 2x
On comparing LHS and RHS

0= 5, which is irrelevant and so no
solution.
Approach 2:
4x + 2y =7
x
x
1= 2
2 1
Hence, 0
4.
1 is Eigenvector.
[Ans. C]
Then Eigenvector is x
Verify the options (C)
5.
or 2x y=
1 We know th t it is Eigenvalue
We know
|I A|=0
2 I2 +32 =0
= 4, 8 (Eigenvalues)
For
= 4, ( I
)=0
)=0
9.
[Ans. C]
Matrix will be singular if any of the
Eigenvalues are zero.
|
|= 0
For = 0, P = 0
p
p
|p
p | =0
p p
p p
10.
[Ans. D]
Approach1: Eigenvalues exists as complex
conjugate or real
Approach 2: Eigenvalues are given by
v =0 1
For
= 8, ( I
v =0
6.
[Ans. C]
[
]
[
[Ans. C]
There are M non-zero, orthogonal vectors,
so there is required M dimension to
represent them
| =0
( )
7.
7
2
2x+y=6
Since both the linear equation represent
parallel set of straight lines, therefore no
solution exists.
Approach 3:
Rank (A)=1; rank (C)=2,
As Rank (A)
rank (C) therefore no
solution exists.
[Ans. A]
or m trix
Mathematics
11.
th
)((
,
)=0
)
j
[Ans. C]
Eigenvalue of skew symmetric matrix is
either zero or pure imaginary.
th
th
Page 21
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
13.
[Ans. B]
Given equations are x y z
x
y
z
and x
y
z
If
and
,
then x
y
z
have Infinite solution
If
and
, then
x
y
z
(
) no solution
x
y
z
If
n
x
y
z
will have solution
x
y
z
and
will also give solution
et of , -
et of [
16.
[Ans. D]
Matrix multiplication is not commutative
in general.
17.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

Let e Eigenv lue of hen
e Eigenv lue of
A.
=I=
Using Cauchey Hamilton Theorem,
[Ans. B]
0
Mathematics
will
Characteristic Equations is
18.
By Cayley Hamilton theorem
I
(
I)
I
14.
I
| |
[
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. *] Range 199 to 201

From matrix properties we know that the
determinant of the product is equal to the
product of the determinants.
That is if A and B are two matrix with
determinant | | n | | respectively,
then | | | | | |
| | | | | |
20.
[Ans. B]
)
]
19.
| |
| | Product of Eigenvalues = 0
Minimum Eigenv lue h s to e
15.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

I
J
I
J
[Ans. B]
,
Let
[ ]
Then AB = [4]; BA
Here m = 1, n = 4
)
And et(I
th
les
[Ans. B]
onsi er
( )
( | )
no of v r
Infinitely many solutions
21.
et(I
th
1
th
Page 22
GATE QUESTION BANK
whi h is re l symmetri m trix

h r teristi equ tion is |
I|
(
)
(not positive)
( ) is not true
(A), (C), (D) are true using properties of
Eigenvalues
22.
EE
1.
2.
[Ans. B]
]
j( )
| |
=[
Top row of
=,
[Ans. D]
Since matrix is triangular, the Eigenvalues
are the diagonal elements themselves
namely = 3, 2 & 1.
Corresponding to Eigenvalue = 2, let
us find the Eigenvector
[A - ] x = 0
x
[
][x ]
[ ]
x
Putting
in above equation we get,
x
[
][x ] [ ]
x
Which gives the equations,
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
3x = 0
. . . . . (iii)
Since eqa (ii) and (iii) are same we have
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
Putting x = k, we get
x = 0, x = k and 5x
k
=0
[Ans. *] Range 48.9 to 49.1

Real symmetric matrices are diagnosable
Let the matrix be
x
0
1 s tr e is
x
So determinant is product of diagonal
entries
So | |
x x
M ximum v lue of etermin nt
x
x
| |
R= [
Mathematics
, of tor( )| |
x = k
| |=|
Eigenvectorss are of the form

x
k
x
[ ] * k +
x
= 1(2 + 3) 0(4 + 2) 1 (6 2) = 1
Since we need only the top row of
, we
need to find only first column of (R)
which after transpose will become first
row adj(A).
cof. (1, 1) = + |
|=2+3=5
cof. (2, 1) =
|= 3
cof. (2, 1) = + |
i.e. x x x = k : k : 0
= :1:0
=2:5:0
x
x
[ ]=[ ] is an Eigenvector of matrix p.
x
|= +1
3.
cof. (A) = [
[Ans. A]
Rank [P|Q] = Rank [P] is necessary for
existence of at least one solution to
x q.
Adj (A) =, of ( )=[
Dividing by |R| = 1 gives

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Page 23
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
[Ans. A]
We need to find orthogonal vectors, verify
the options.
Option (A) is orthogonal vectors
(
)(
[Ans. B]
The vector (
) is linearly
dependent upon the solution obtained in
- and ,
Q. No. 4 namely ,
We can easily verify the linearly
dependence as
|
6.
7.
[Ans. B]
xy
xx
| yx
xy
xx
x n xy yx
xy
x xy
y y | |y x y |
(x y)
x y
= Positive when x and y are linearly
independent.
Option (B), (C), (D) are not orthogonal

5.
)
i
8.
Mathematics
9.
[Ans. A]
A=0
|A | = 0
[Ans. B]
hen n
n m trix
xx
x x
x x
x x
x x x x
x x
*
+
x x x x
x x
Take x common from 1st row,
x common from 2nd row
x common from nth row.
It h s r nk
| =0
A will satisfy this equation according to

Cayley Hamilton theorem
i.e.
I=0
Multiplying by
on oth si es we get
I=0
I
=0
10.
[Ans. A]
To calculate
Start from
derived above
I = 0 which has
I
[Ans. D]
k
L(x) = |
|
x
= (x )
I)(
x
(
(
k
x )
I)
I
x
= x
=[
x k
x
L(x) = M [x ]
x
Comparing both , we get,
I)
(
I)
I
|
(
I)
I)
I
Hence Eigenvalue of M : | M
I)(
I
]
x
M=[
I)
I
)
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Page 24
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
13.
[Ans. A]
If rank of (5 6 ) matrix is 4,then surely
it must have exactly 4 linearly
independent rows as well as 4 linearly
independent columns.
= A is correct
=A[(
)
-A
= A[(
)
Put
=P
Then A [
] = A. = A
Choice (C)
= is also correct since
=(
)
=
I
14.
os
x in )
|| x || = x
(x in
[Ans. C]
Trace = Sum of Principle diagonal
elements.
16.
[Ans. D]
On writing the equation in the form of
AX =B
, *
nk ( )
nk( )
Number of variables = 4
Since, Rank (A) = Rank(C) < Number of
variables
Hence, system of equations are consistent
and there is multiple non-trivial solution
exists.
17.
[Ans. B]
Characteristic equation |
|
I|
(1 ) (
)(
)
Eigenve tors orrespon ing to

(
I)
x
[
] [x ] [ ]
x
2x
x
x
x
At x
x
x
x
x
x
At x
,x
is
Eigenvectors = c[ ]{Here c is a constant}
os )
18.
[Ans. D]
, - ,L-, - Options D is correct
19.
[Ans. D]
x
x
(i)
} (i) n (ii) re s me
x
x
(ii)
x
x
So it has multiple solutions.
|| x || = || x|| for any vector x

15.
* +
Argument matrix C =*
[Ans. B]
Let orthogonal matrix be
os
in
P=0
1
in
os
By Property of orthogonal matrix A
I
x os
x in
So, x = [
]
x in
x os
|| x || =
(x
x
x
+ *x +
x
[Ans. D]
If characteristic equation is
=0
Then by Cayley Hamilton theorem,
I=0
=
Multiplying by
on both sides,
=
I = (
I)
[Ans. D]
Choice (A)
Since
Mathematics
th
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Page 25
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
[Ans. D]
Eigen value
|A
Eigenvectors 0
1 n 0
Let matrix 0
x
x
10
10
I|= |
i.e., (1 ) (2 )
2
Thus the Eigenvalue are 1, 2.
If x, y, be the component of Eigenvectors
corresponding to the Eigenv lues
we
have
x
[A- I- 0
1 0y1=0
Mathematics
For =1, we get the Eigenvector as 0

Hence, the answer will be ,
21.
22.
23.
IN
1.
[Ans. B]
AX=0 and (A) = 2
n=3
No. of linearly independent solutions
= n r
= 3
=1
3.
[Ans. C]
There are 3 non-zero rows and hence
rank (A) = 3
4.
[Ans. C]
Rank (A) = 3 (This is Co-efficient matrix)
Rank (A:b) =4(This is Augmented matrix)
s r nk( ) r nk (
) olution oes
not exist.
5.
[Ans. C]
We know
Hen e from the given
problem, Eigenvalue & Eigenvector is
known.
[Ans. B]
Since there are 2 equations and 3 variables
(unknowns), there will be infinitely many
solutions. If
if
then
x
y
z
x y
z
x z y
For any x and z, there will be a value of y.
Infinitely many solutions
[Ans. A]
For all real symmetric matrices, the
Eigenvalues are real (property), they may
be either ve or ve and also may be same.
The sum of Eigenvalues necessarily not be
zero.
[Ans. C]
p q
0
1
r s
( pplying p
q
r
s element ry tr nsform tions)
p
q pr qs
[
]
pr qs r
s
hey h ve s me r nk N
1
X1 , X2
1
1
2 , 1 1, 2 2

We also know that
, where
1 1
P X1 X2
1 2
1 0 1 0
0 2 0 2
[Ans. B]
Given:
2.
Solving
0
& D=
0
1
Hence
Characteristic equation is,
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Page 26
GATE QUESTION BANK
1 1 1 0 2 1
A

1 2 0 2 1 1
6.
12.
[Ans. B]
A= [
]=[
A=[
[Ans. B]
Given
I
Hence rank (A) = n
Hence AX= Y will have unique solution
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. C]
Approach 1:
13.
14.
Assume,
10
Now | I
[Ans. B]
Dim of null space [A]= nullity of A.
|
)(
Apply row operations

1
- is also vector
For given A = [
I)
0
[Ans. B]
If AX =
From this result [1, 2,
for M
|
(
I)
n
For diagonal matrix Eigenvalues are
diagonal elements itself.
n(n
)
Hence, rank (A) =1

7.
[Ans. A]
A=[ ]
i if i j
= 0 otherwise.
For n n matrix
Using elementary transformation

[
Mathematics
)=0
[Ans. D]
11.
[Ans. C]
A null matrix can be obtained by
multiplying either with one null matrix or
two singular matrices.
]
]
( )
By rank nullity theorem
Rank [A]+ nullity [A]= no. of columns[A]
Nullity [A]= 3
Nullity , -
Approach 2:
Eigenvalues of (
I) is = 1, 1/2
Eigenvalues of (X+5I) is = 3, 2
Eigenvalues of (
I) (X+5I) is =
,
10.
15.
[Ans. A]
A=|
Characteristics equation |
|
I|
|
j
j
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Page 27
GATE QUESTION BANK
x
] 0x 1
Mathematics
0 1
x
x
j
j
j
j
x
] 0x 1
0 1
x
16.
[Ans. C]
A[
]=[
| | |
]
|
| |
(
| two rows ounter lose thus | |
| |)
=Product of eigenvalues
Verify options
Options (C) correct answer
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Page 28
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Probability and Distribution

ME - 2005
1.
A single die is thrown twice. What is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor
9?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2008
6.
A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the
probability of getting heads exactly 3
times?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
ME - 2009
7.
The standard deviation of a uniformly
distributed random variable between 0
and 1 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items

are chosen randomly from this lot. The
probability that exactly 2 of the chosen
items are defective is
(A) 0.0036
(C) 0.2234
(B) 0.1937
(D) 0.3874
ME - 2006
3.
Consider a continuous random variable
with probability density function
f(t) = 1 + t for 1 t 0
= 1 t for 0 t 1
The standard deviation of the random
variable is:
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
4.
A box contains 20 defective items and 80

non-defective items. If two items are
selected at random without replacement,
what will be the probability that both
items are defective?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2007
5.
Let X and Y be two independent random
variables. Which one of the relations
between expectation (E), variance (Var)
and covariance (Cov) given below is
FALSE?
(A) E (XY) = E (X) E (Y)
(B) Cov (X, Y) = 0
(C) Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y)
(D)
(X Y )
( (X)) ( (Y))
8.
If three coins are tossed simultaneously,

the probability of getting at least one head
is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/8
(D) 7/8
ME - 2010
9.
A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4
bolts. Items are drawn from the box at
random one at a time without
replacement. The probability of drawing
2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
(A) 2/315
(C) 1/1260
(B) 1/630
(D) 1/2520
ME - 2011
10. An unbiased coin is tossed five times. The
outcome of each toss is either a head or a
tail. The probability of getting at least one
head is________
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2012
11. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black
balls. Three balls are selected randomly
from the box one after another, without
replacement. The probability that the
selected set has one red ball and two
black balls is
(A) 1/20
(C) 3/10
(B) 1/12
(D) 1/2
th
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Page 29
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME - 2013
12. Let X be a normal random variable with
mean 1 and variance 4. The probability
(X
) is
(A) 0.5
(B) Greater than zero and less than 0.5
(C) Greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0
(D) 1.0
13.
The probability that a student knows the

correct answer to a multiple choice
the probability of obtaining red colour on

top face of the dice at least twice is _______
17.
A group consists of equal number of men

and women. Of this group 20% of the men
and 50% of the women are unemployed.
If a person is selected at random from this
group, the probability of the selected
person being employed is _______
18.
A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective

pieces in a day with associated
probability of 1/6, 2/3 and 1/6,
respectively. The mean value and the
variance of the number of defective pieces
produced by the machine in a day,
respectively, are
(A) 1 and 1/3
(C) 1 and 4/3
(B) 1/3 and 1
(D) 1/3 and 4/3
19.
A nationalized bank has found that the

daily balance available in its savings
accounts follows a normal distribution
with a mean of Rs. 500 and a standard
deviation of Rs. 50. The percentage of
savings account holders, who maintain an
average daily balance more than Rs. 500
is _______
20.
The number of accidents occurring in a

plant in a month follows Poisson
distribution with mean as 5.2. The
probability of occurrence of less than 2
accidents in the plant during a randomly
selected month is
(A) 0.029
(C) 0.039
(B) 0.034
(D) 0.044
question is . If the student dose not know

the answer, then the student guesses the
answer. The probability of the guessed
answer being correct is . Given that the
student has answered the questions
correctly, the conditional probability that
the student knows the correct answer is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2014
14. In the following table x is a discrete
random variable and P(x) is the
probability density. The standard
deviation of x is
x
1
2
3
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
(A) 0.18
(C) 0.54
(B) 0.3
(D) 0.6
15.
16.
Box contains 25 parts of which 10 are

defective. Two parts are being drawn
simultaneously in a random manner from
the box. The probability of both the parts
being good is
( )
( )
( )
( )
Consider an unbiased cubic dice with

opposite faces coloured identically and
each face coloured red, blue or green such
that each colour appears only two times
on the dice. If the dice is thrown thrice,
Mathematics
CE - 2005
1.
NOT true?
(A) The measure of skewness is
dependent upon the amount of
dispersion
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Page 30
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) In a symmetric distribution the value

of mean, mode and median are the
same
(C) In a positively skewed distribution
mean > median > mode
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution
mode > mean > median
CE - 2006
2.
A class of first years B. Tech students is
composed of four batches A, B, C and D
each consisting of 30 students. It is found
that the sessional marks of students in
Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
respectively. It is decided by the course
instruction to normalize the marks of the
students of all batches to have the same
mean and standard deviation as that of
the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a
student in batch C are changed from 8.5
to
(A) 6.0
(C) 8.0
(B) 7.0
(D) 9.0
3.
There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of

them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection (i.e.
each has the same chance of being
selected). What is the probability that
only one of the defective calculators will
be included in the inspection?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2007
4.
If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and
the mean speed of the vehicles is
33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in
speed is
(A) 0.1517
(C) 0.2666
(B) 0.1867
(D) 0.3646
Mathematics
CE - 2008
5.
If probability density function of a random
variable x is
x for
x
nd
f(x) {
for ny other v lue of x
Then, the percentage probability
P.
/ is
(A) 0.247
(B) 2.47
6.
(C) 24.7
(D) 247
A person on a trip has a choice between

private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45.
While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro out of
which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
probability, (rounded upto two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively
would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
CE - 2009
7.
The standard normal probability function
can be approximated as
(x )
|x | )
exp(
Where x = standard normal deviate. If
mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
respectively, the probability that the
annual precipitation will be between
90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7%
(C) 33.3%
(B) 50.0%
(D) 16.7%
CE - 2010
8.
Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The
probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/6
(D) 1/2
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Page 31
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2011
9.
There are two containers with one
containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls.
One ball is drawn at random from each
container. The probability that one of the
balls is red and the other is blue will be
(A) 1/7
(C) 12/49
(B) 9/49
(D) 3/7
CE - 2012
10. The annual precipitation data of a city is
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000mm and
200 mm, respectively. The probability
that the annual precipitation will be more
than 1200 mm is
(A) < 50 %
(C) 75 %
(B) 50 %
(D) 100 %
11.
14.
A traffic office imposes on an average 5

number of penalties daily on traffic
violators. Assume that the number of
penalties on different days is independent
and follows a poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4
penalties in a day is ____.
15.
A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four

times in succession and resulted in the
following outcomes:
(i) Head
(iii) Head
(ii) Head
(iv) Head
The prob bility of obt ining T il when
the coin is tossed again is
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D)
16.
An observer counts 240 veh/h at a

specific highway location. Assume that
the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a
30-second time interval is ____________
In an experiment, positive and negative

values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2013
12. Find the value of such that the function
f(x) is a valid probability density function
____________________
(x
)(
f(x)
x)
for
x
otherwise
CE - 2014
13. The probability density function of
evaporation E on any day during a year in
a watershed is given by
f( )
mm d y
Mathematics
CS - 2005
1.
Box P has 2 red balls and 3 blue balls and
box Q has 3 red balls and 1 blue ball. A
ball is selected as follows: (i) select a box
(ii) choose a ball from the selected box
such that each ball in the box is equally
likely to be chosen. The probabilities of
selecting boxes P and Q are 1/3 and 2/3
respectively. Given that a ball selected in
the above process is red, the probability
that it comes from box P is
(A) 4/19
(C) 2/9
(B) 5/19
(D) 19/30
2.
Let f(x) be the continuous probability

density function of a random variable X.
The probability that a X b , is
(A) f(b a)
(C) f(x)dx
otherwise
The probability that E lies in between 2
and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed
is (in decimal) ______
(B) f(b)
th
th
f( )
(D) x f(x)dx
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Page 32
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2006
3.
For each element in a set of size 2n, an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coin
tosses are independent. An element is
chosen if the corresponding coin toss
were head. The probability that exactly n
elements are chosen is
(A) ( n )
(C) ( n )
(D)
(B) ( n )
CS - 2007
Linked Data for Q4 & Q5 are given below.
Solve the problems and choose the correct
answers.
Suppose that robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step it is easy to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
i.e if it is at (i,j) then it can move to either
(i+1,j) or (i,j+1)
4.
How many distinct paths are there for the
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting
from the initial position (0,0)?
(C) 210
(A)
20
(D) None of these
(B) 2
5.
Suppose that the robot is not allowed to

traverse the line segment from (4,4) to
(5,4). With this constraint, how many
distinct paths are there for the robot to
reach (10,10) starting from (0,0)?
(A) 29
(B) 219
(C) . / .
(D) .
6.
/
. / .
Suppose we uniformly and randomly

select a permutation from the 20!
ermut tions of
Wh t is
the probability that 2 appears at an
earlier position than any other even
number in the selected permutation?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) none of these
Mathematics
CS - 2008
7.
Let X be a random variable following
normal distribution with mean +1 and
variance 4. Let Y be another normal
variable with mean of 1 and variance
unknown
If (X
)
(Y ) the
standard deviation of Y is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 2
(D) 1
8.
Aishwarya studies either computer

science or mathematics every day. If she
studies computer science on a day, then
the probability that she studies
mathematics the next day is 0.6. If she
studies mathematics on a day, then the
probability that she studies computer
science the next day is 0.4. Given that
Aishwarya studies computer science on
Monday, what is the probability that she
studies computer science on Wednesday?
(A) 0.24
(C) 0.4
(B) 0.36
(D) 0.6
CS - 2009
9.
An unbalanced dice (with 6 faces,
numbered from 1 to 6) is thrown. The
probability that the face value is odd is
90% of the probability that the face value
is even. The probability of getting any
even numbered face is the same. If the
probability that the face is even given that
it is greater than 3 is 0.75, which one of
the following options is closest to the
probability that the face value exceeds 3?
(A) 0.453
(C) 0.485
(B) 0.468
(D) 0.492
CS - 2010
10. Consider a company that assembles
computers. The probability of a faulty
assembly of any computer is p. The
company
therefore
subjects
each
computer to a testing process. This
testing process gives the correct result for
any computer with a probability of q.
What is the probability of a computer
being declared faulty?
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Page 33
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
12.
pq+(1 p)(1 q)
(1 q)p
(1 p)q
pq
What is the probability that a divisor of

is a multiple of
?
(A) 1/625
(C) 12/625
(B) 4/625
(D) 16/625
If the difference between the expectation
of the square if a random variable ( ,x -)
and the square if the exopectation of the
random variable ( ,x-) is denoted by R,
then
(A) R = 0
(C) R
(B) R< 0
(D) R > 0
CS - 2011
13. A deck of 5 cards (each carrying a distinct
number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed
one at a time from the deck. What is the
probability that the two cards are
selected with the number on the first card
being one higher than the number on the
second card?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
14.
Consider a finite sequence of random

values X = [x1, x2 xn].Let
be the
me n nd x be the standard deviation of
X. Let another finite sequence Y of equal
length be derived from this as yi, a*xi+b,
where a and b are positive constants. Let
y be the me n nd y be the standard
deviation of this sequence. Which one of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Index position of mode of X in X is
the same as the index position of
mode of Y in Y.
(B) Index position of median of X in X is
the same as the index position of
median of Y in Y.
(C) y
x + b
(D) y
x + b
15.
Mathematics
If two fair coins flipped and at least one of

the outcomes is known to be a head, what
is the probability that both outcomes are
heads?
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(D) 2/3
CS - 2012
16. Suppose a fair six sided die is rolled
once. If the value on the die is 1,2, or 3 the
die is rolled a second time. What is the
probability that the some total of value
that turn up is at least 6?
(A) 10/21
(C) 2/3
(B) 5/12
(D) 1/6
17.
Consider a random variable X that takes

values +1 and 1 with probability 0.5
each. The values of the cumulative
distribution function F(x) at x =
and
+1 are
(A) 0 and 0.5
(C) 0.5 and 1
(B) 0 and 1
(D) 0.25 and 0.75
CS - 2013
18. Suppose p is the number of cars per
minute passing through a certain road
junction between 5 PM and 6 PM, and p
has a Poisson distribution with mean 3.
What is the probability of observing
fewer than 3 cars during any given
minute in this interval?
e
(A) e
(C)
e
(B) e
(D)
CS - 2014
19. Suppose you break a stick of unit length
at a point chosen uniformly at random.
Then the expected length of the shorter
stick is ________ .
20.
th
Four fair six sided dice are rolled. The

probability that the sum of the results
being 22 is x/1296. The value of x is
____________
th
th
Page 34
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
The security system at an IT office is

composed of 10 computers of which
exactly four are working. To check
whether the system is functional, the
officials inspect four of the computers
picked at random (without replacement).
The system is deemed functional if at
least three of the four computers
inspected are working.
Let the
probability that the system is deemed
functional be denoted by p. Then 100p =
_____________.
22.
Each of the nine words in the sentence

The quick brown fox jumps over the l zy
dog is written on
sep r te piece of
paper. These nine pieces of paper are kept
in a box. One of the pieces is drawn at
random from the box. The expected
length of the word drawn is _____________.
(The answer should be rounded to one
decimal place.)
23.
The probability that a given positive

integer lying between 1 and 100 (both
inclusive) is NOT divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is
__________.
24.
Let S be a sample space and two mutually

exclusive events A and B be such that
S If ( ) denotes the prob bility

of the event, the maximum value of
P(A) P(B) is _______
ECE - 2006
3.
A probability density function is of the
).
form (x)
e || x (
The value of K is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.5a
(B) 1
(D) A
4.
Three Companies X, Y and Z supply

computers to a university. The percentage
of computers supplied by them and the
probability of those being defective are
tabulated below
Company
% of
Probability
computers
of being
supplied
defective
X
60%
0.01
Y
30%
0.02
Z
10%
0.03
Given that a computer is defective, the
probability that it was supplied by Y is
(A) 0.1
(C) 0.3
(B) 0.2
(D) 0.4
ECE - 2007
5.
If E denotes expectation, the variance of a
random variable X is given by
(A) E[X2] E2[X]
(C) E[X2]
(B) E[X2] + E2[X]
(D) E2[X]
6.
An examination consists of two papers,

Paper1 and Paper2. The probability of
failing in Paper1 is 0.3 and that in Paper2
is 0.2.Given that a student has failed in
Paper2, the probability of failing in
paper1 is 0.6. The probability of a student
failing in both the papers is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.12
(B) 0.18
(D) 0.06
ECE - 2005
1.
A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability
that an odd number will follow an even
number is
2.
( )
( )
( )
( )
Mathematics
The value of the integral
x2
1
exp
dx is
2 0
8
(A) 1
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
th
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Page 35
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE - 2008
7.
The probability density function (PDF) of
a random variable X is as shown below.
(x)
exp( |x|)
exp( |x|) is
the probability density function for the
real random variable X, over the entire x
axis. M and N are both positive real
numbers. The equation relating M and N
is
8.
PDF
PDF
Mathematics
(A)
1
(B) 2M
x
11
The -1
corresponding
cumulative
0
distribution function (CDF) has the form
(A)
(C) M + N = 1
(D) M + N = 3
ECE - 2009
9.
Consider two independent random
variables X and Y with identical
distributions. The variables X and Y take
value 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
CDF
N=1
and respectively. What is the

1
(B)
conditional probability
(x y
)
|x y|
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
CD
F
C
D
F
10.
0
1
-1
(C)
(B)
11.
1
1
1
1
0
0
1
1
2
(C)
2
(D)
10
1
2
(A)
CDF 1
A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the

probability that ONLY the first two tosses
will yield heads?
CDF
1
1
th
10
10
1
C2
2
(D)
10
1
C2
2
A discrete random variable X takes values

from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in
the table. A student calculates the mean of
X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the
following statements is true?
k
P(X=k)
1
0.1
2
0.2
3
0.4
4
0.2
5
0.1
th
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Page 36
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Both the student and the teacher are

right
(B) Both the student and the teacher are
wrong
(C) The student is wrong but the teacher
is right
(D) The student is right but the teacher is
wrong
ECE - 2010
12. A fair coin is tossed independently four
times. The prob bility of the event the
number of times heads show up is more
th n the number of times t ils show up is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE - 2011
13. A fair dice is tossed two times. The
probability that the second toss results in
a value that is higher than the first toss is
(A) 2/36
(C) 5/12
(B) 2/6
(D) 1/2
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
14. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for
the first time probability that the number
of required tosses is odd , is
(A) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 3/4
ECE - 2013
15. Let U and V be two independent zero
mean Gaussian random variables of
variances and respectively. The
probability ( V U) is
(A) 4/9
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 5/9
16.
Consider two identically distributed zeromean random variables U and V . Let the
cumulative distribution functions of U
and 2V be F(x) and G(x) respectively.
Then, for all values of x
(x))
(A) ( (x)
(B) ( (x)
(C) ( (x)
(D) ( (x)
Mathematics
(x)) x
(x)) x
ECE - 2014
17. In a housing society, half of the families
have a single child per family, while the
remaining half have two children per
family. The probability that a child picked
at random, has a sibling is _____
18.
Let X X nd X , be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X is the largest} is _____
19.
Let X be a random variable which is

uniformly chosen from the set of positive
odd numbers less than 100. The
expectation, E[X], is __________.
20.
An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite

number of times. The probability that the
fourth head appears at the tenth toss is
(A) 0.067
(C) 0.082
(B) 0.073
(D) 0.091
21.
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both

head and tail appear at least once. The
average number of tosses required is
_______.
22.
Let X X and X be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X
X
X } is ______.
23.
Let X be a zero mean unit variance

Gaussian random variable. ,|x|- is equal
to __________
24.
Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass

sequentially through two post-offices.
Each post-office has a probability
of
losing an incoming parcel, independently

of all other parcels. Given that a parcel is
lost, the probability that it was lost by the
second post-office is ____________.
(x))
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2005
1.
If P and Q are two random events, then
the following is TRUE
(A) Independence of P and Q implies that
probability (P Q) = 0
(B) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
+Probability (Q)
(C) If P and Q are mutually exclusive,
then they must be independent
(D) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
2.
A fair coin is tossed three times in

succession. If the first toss produces a
head, then the probability of getting
exactly two heads in three tosses is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
EE - 2006
3.
Two f ir dice re rolled nd the sum r
of the numbers turned up is considered
(A) Pr (r > 6) =
(B) Pr (r/3 is an integer) =
(C) Pr (r = 8|r/4 is an integer) =
(D) Pr (r = 6|r/5 is an integer) =
EE - 2007
4.
A loaded dice has following probability
distribution of occurrences
Dice Value
Probability
1
2
6
If three identical dice as the above are
thrown, the probability of occurrence of
values, 1, 5 and 6 on the three dice is
(A) same as that of occurrence of 3, 4, 5
(B) same as that of occurrence of 1, 2, 5
(C) 1/128
(D) 5/8
Mathematics
EE - 2008
5.
X is a uniformly distributed random
variable that takes values between 0 and
1. The value of E{X } will be
(A) 0
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/8
(D) 1/2
EE - 2009
6.
Assume for simplicity that N people, all
born in April (a month of 30 days), are
collected in a room. Consider the event of
atleast two people in the room being born
on the same date of the month, even if in
different years, e.g. 1980 and 1985. What
is the smallest N so that the probability of
this event exceeds 0.5?
(A) 20
(C) 15
(B) 7
(D) 16
EE - 2010
7.
A box contains 4 white balls and 3 red
balls. In succession, two balls are
randomly selected and removed from the
box. Given that the first removed ball is
white, the probability that the second
removed ball is red is
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/7
(D) 4/7
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
8.
Two independent random variables X and
Y are uniformly distributed in the interval
,
-. The probability that max ,
- is
less than 1/2 is
(A) 3/4
(C) 1/4
(B) 9/16
(D) 2/3
EE - 2013
9.
A continuous random variable x has a
probability density function
+ is
f(x) e
x
. Then *x
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
th
th
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Page 38
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2014
10. A fair coin is tossed n times. The
probability that the difference between
the number of heads and tails is (n 3) is
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
11.
12.
13.
14.
IN - 2005
1.
The probability that there are 53 Sundays
in a randomly chosen leap year is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
A mass of 10 kg is measured with an

instrument and the readings are normally
distributed with respect to the mean of
10 kg. Given that
Consider a dice with the property that the

probability of a face with n dots showing
up is proportional to n. The probability of
the face with three dots showing up is
_______________
Let x be a random variable with
probability density function
for |x|
f(x)
{
|x|
for
otherwise
The probability P(0.5 < x < 5) is_________
Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random
variable with density f(x) kx , where x
is measured in years. If the minimum and
maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2
years respectively, then the value of k
is__________
The mean thickness and variance of
silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and
0.02 respectively. The varnish insulation
is applied on both the sides of the
laminations. The mean thickness of one
side insulation and its variance are
0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the
transformer core is made using 100 such
varnish coated laminations, the mean
thickness and variance of the core
respectively are
(A) 30 mm and 0.22
(B) 30 mm and 2.44
(C) 40 mm and 2.44
(D) 40 mm and 0.24
Mathematics
exp .
/ d =0.6
and that 60per cent of the readings are

found to be within 0.05 kg from the mean,
the standard deviation of the data is
(A) 0.02
(C) 0.06
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.08
3.
The measurements of a source voltage are

5.9V, 5.7V and 6.1V. The sample standard
deviation of the readings is
(A) 0.013
(C) 0.115
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.2
IN - 2006
4.
You have gone to a cyber-cafe with a
friend. You found that the cyber-caf has
only three terminals. All terminals are
unoccupied. You and your friend have to
make a random choice of selecting a
terminal. What is the probability that
both of you will NOT select the same
terminal?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
5.
Probability density function p(x) of a

random variable x is as shown below. The
value of is
p(x)
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 39
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
Mathematics
Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The

probability that the sum of digits on the
top surface of the two dices is even is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.167
(B) 0.25
(D) 0.125
measurements, it can be expected that the

number of measurement more than 10.15
mm will be
(A) 230
(C) 15
(B) 115
(D) 2
IN - 2007
7.
Assume that the duration in minutes of a
telephone conversation follows the
IN - 2011
12. The box 1 contains chips numbered 3, 6,
9, 12 and 15. The box 2 contains chips
numbered 6, 11, 16, 21 and 26. Two chips,
one from each box, are drawn at random.
The numbers written on these chips are
multiplied. The probability for the
product to be an even number is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
exponential distribution f(x) =
e ,x
The probability that the conversation will

exceed five minutes is
(A)
e
(C)
(B)
e
(D)
e
IN - 2008
8.
Consider a Gaussian distributed random
variable with zero mean and standard
deviation . The value of its cummulative
distribution function at the origin will be
(A) 0
(C) 1
(B) 0.5
(D)
9.
A random variable is uniformly

distributed over the interval 2 to 10. Its
variance will be
(A)
(C)
(B) 6
(D) 36
IN - 2013
13. A continuous random variable X has
probability density f(x) =
.
Then P(X > 1) is
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
IN - 2014
14. Given that x is a random variable in the
r nge ,
- with
prob bility density
function
the value of the constant k is
___________________
IN - 2009
10. A screening test is carried out to detect a
certain disease. It is found that 12% of the
positive reports and 15% of the negative
reports are incorrect. Assuming that the
probability of a person getting a positive
report is 0.01, the probability that a
person tested gets an incorrect report is
(A) 0.0027
(C) 0.1497
(B) 0.0173
(D) 0.2100
15.
IN - 2010
11. The diameters of 10000 ball bearings
were measured. The mean diameter and
standard deviation were found to be
10 mm and 0.05mm respectively.
Assuming Gaussian distribution of
The figure shows the schematic of

production process with machines A,B
and C. An input job needs to be preprocessed either by A or by B before it is
fed to C, from which the final finished
product comes out. The probabilities of
failure of the machines are given as:
Assuming independence of failures of the

machines, the probability that a given job
is successfully processed (up to third
decimal place)is ______________
th
th
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Page 40
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
4.
[Ans. D]
The number of ways coming 8 and 9 are
(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2),(3,6),(4,5),
(5,4),(6,3)
Total ways =9
So Probability of coming 8 and 9 are
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. D]
X and Y are independent
( ) ( ) ( ) re true
Only (D) is odd one
6.
[Ans. A]
Number of favourable cases are given by
HHHT
HHTH
HTHH
THHH
Total number of cases
= 2C1 2C1 2C1 2C1 =16
So probability of not coming these
2.
[Ans. B]
Probability of defective item =
Probability of not defective item = 1 0.1
= 0.9
So, Probability that exactly 2 of the
chosen items are defective
=
( ) ( )
3.
[Ans. B]
Probability =
7.
[Ans. A]
A uniform
function
Mean (t) = t f(t) dt

t(
t
6
t)dt
t
t
6
t(
t)dt
t)dt
= (t
=0
t )dt
1
density
Density function
f(x) b a
0
t (
t)dt
a,x b
a x,x b
Mean E(x)=
t)dt
x(F(x))
x a
ab
2
Variance = F(x)2 f(x)
x F(x) xF(x)
x a
x a
=
Standard deviation = v ri nce
=
and
0,x a
x a
f(x) f x dx
, axb
0
b a
xb
0,
t (
distribution
Variance = t f(t)dt
= t (
( oth defective)
S mple sp ce
( oth defective)
Put the value of F(x), we get
1
1
b
dx x.
dx
Variance x
ba
x a
x a b a
b
th
th
th
Page 41
GATE QUESTION BANK

b
x3 xL

3(b a) a 2 b a
Mathematics
3
1 7
(3 3 1)
2 8
b3 a3 (b2 a2 )2
3(b a) 4 b a 2
(b a)(b2 ab a2 ) (b a)2(b a)2
2
3(b a)
4 b a
4b2 4ab 4a2 3a2 3b2 6ab

12
b2 a2 2ab
12
9.
[Ans. C]
Probability of drawing 2 washers, first
followed by 3 nuts, and subsequently the
4 bolts
10.
[Ans. D]
Required probability =
(b a)2
12
. / . /
Standard deviation = v ri nce
(b a)2
12
(b a)
12
11.
[Ans. D]
Given 4R and 6B
,
-
12.
[Ans. C]
Given: b=1, a=0
Standard deviation =
8.
10
1
12
12
[Ans. D]
Let probability of getting atleast one head
= P(H) then
P (at least one head) = 1 P(no head)
P(H)=1 P(all tails)
But in all cases, 23=8
1 7
8 8
X=0
P (H) = 1
(X
) is
Below X
(X
) has to be less than 0.5 but
greater than zero
Alternately
Probability of getting at least one head
( ) ( )
13.
1 7
1
8 8
Alternately
From Binomial theorem
Probability of getting at least one head
pq
( )
( )
X=1
[Ans. D]
A
event that he knows the correct
answer
B
event that student answered
correctly the question P(B) = ?
( )
( )
th
th
th
Page 42
GATE QUESTION BANK
( )
he knows
correct nswer
)
(
( )
14.
No. of employed men = 80% of men = 80

No. of employed women
= 50% of women = 50
Probability if the selected one person
being employed
= probability of one employed women
+probability of one employed man
e does not know

correct nswer
so he guesses
( ) ( )
)
( )
[Ans. D]
x
1
2
P(x) 0.3
0.6
(x)
(x)
x
18.
V(x)
x
(
(x )
[Ans. A]
3
0.1
So from figure
Mean value = 1
V ri nce : me n x defective pieces
(x )
)
n(n
(
)
(
) (
)
(
)
(x)
x (x)
Mathematics
, (x)-
(x) ( x (x))
) ( )
( )
15.
[Ans. A]
19.
16.
[Ans. *](Range 49 to 51)
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.27

p
orm l distribution
Given that
x x
z
ere x
, s x gre ter th n
z
)
ence prob bility (z
Using Binomial distribution

(x )
17.
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
e
dz
of s ving ccount holder
[Ans. *] Range 0.64 to 0.66

Let number of men = 100
Number of women = 100
th
th
th
Page 43
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
[Ans. B]
Mean m = np = 5.2
me
(x
) e
25 Calculators
23 Non-defective
2 Defective
5 Calculators
e
(x
Mathematics
)
4 Non-defective
1 Defective
CE
1.
2.
[Ans D]
A, B, C are true
(D) is not true. Since in a negatively
skewed distribution
mode > median > mean
[Ans. D]
Let the mean and standard deviation of
the students of batch C be and
respectively and the mean and standard
deviation of entire class of first year
students be and respectively
Now given,
and
In order to normalise batch C to entire

class, the normalize score must be
equated
since Z =
Z =
Now Z =
p( defective in c lcul tors)
4.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = x for
x
= 0 else where
(
f(x)dx
x dx
=0 1
The probability expressed in percentage
P=
= 2.469% = 2.47%
6.
[Ans. A]
Given
P(private car) = 0.45
P(bus 1 public transport) = 0.55
Since a person has a choice between
private car and public transport
P(public transport) = 1 P(private car)
= 1 0.45 =0.55
P(bus) = P(bus public transport)
(bus public tr nsport)
(public tr nsport)
= 0.55 0.55
= 0.3025 0.30
Now P(metro)
= 1 [P(private car) + P(bus)]
= 1 (0.45 + 0.30) = 0.25
Equation these two and solving, we get

=
x = 8.969 9.0
3.
[Ans. B]
Since population is finite, hypergeometric
distribution is applicable
th
th
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Page 44
GATE QUESTION BANK
P(private car) = 0.45

P(bus) = 0.30
and P(metro) = 0.25
7.
12.
[Ans. D]
ere
cm;
(
x 102)
=P.
[Ans. 6]
f(x)dx
( x
f(x)
( x
cm
6
Mathematics
)dx
x
otherwise
x7
/
[
=P(
x
)
This area is shown below:
)]
-0.44
The shades area in above figure is given

by F(0) F ( 0.44)
=
( )
)(
= 0.5 0.3345
= 1.1655 16.55%
Closest answer is 16.7%
8.
13.
[Ans. 0.4]
(
f( )d
[Ans. C]
( )|
P(2 heads) =
9.
[Ans. C]
P(one ball is Red & another is blue)
= P(first is Red and second is Blue)
14.
=
10.
[Ans. A]
Given = 1000, = 200
We know that Z
When X= 1200, Z
Req. Prob = P (X
(Z
)
(
Z
Less than 50%
11.
[Ans. D]
(X
)
( )
(X
[Ans. *] Range 0.26 to 0.27

Avg= 5
Let x denote penalty
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
e
ew (x n)
x
e
e
e
)
p(x
e
(X
15.
[Ans. B]
S * T+
n( )
( )
n(S)
16.
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.28

( t)
e
(n t)
n
( )
th
th
th
Page 45
GATE QUESTION BANK
no of vehicles
(
veh km
m ke ex ctly moves nd U moves

in any order.
Similarly to reach (10, 10) from (0,0) the
robot h s to m ke
moves nd
U
moves in any order. The number of ways
this can be done is same as number of
permutations of a word consisting of 10
s nd
Us
Applying formula of permutation with
limited repetitions we get the answer
as
= 2.e
= 0.2707
CS
1.
[Ans. A]
P: Event of selecting Box P,
Q: Event of selecting Box P
P(P)=1/3, P(Q)=2/3
P(R/P)=2/5, P(R/Q)=3/4
P(R/P).P(P)
P(R/P).P(P) P(R/Q)P(Q)
2/51/3
4/19
2/51/3 3/ 4 2/3
P(P/R)=
2.
5.
[Ans. D]
The robot can reach (4,4) from (0,0) in
8C ways as argued in previous problem.
4
Now after reaching (4,4) robot is not
allowed to go to (5,4)
Let us count how many paths are there
from (0,0) to (10,10) if robot goes from
(4,4) to (5,4) and then we can subtract
this from total number of ways to get the
answer.
Now there are 8C4 ways for robot to reach
(4,4) from (0,0) and then robot takes the
U move from ( ) to ( ) ow from
(5,4) to (10,10) the robot has to make 5
U moves nd moves in ny order
which can be done in 11! ways
= 11C5 ways
Therefore, the number of ways robot can
move from (0,0) (10,10) via (4,4) (5,4)
move is
[Ans. C]
If f (x) is the continuous probability
density function of a random variable X
then,
(
x b) P(
x b)
b
= f x dx
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen
=The probability of getting n heads out of
2n tosses
=
) . /
=
=
) (
Mathematics
(Binomial formula)
)
8C
4
[Ans. A]
Consider the following diagram
(3,3)
11C
5
8 11
4 5
No. of ways robot can move from (0,0) to

(10,10) without using (4,4) to (5,4) move
is
20 8 11
ways
10 4 5
(0,0)
The robot can move only right or up as
defined in problem. Let us denote right
move by nd up move by U ow to
reach (3, 3), from (0,0) , the robot has to
which is choice (D)
th
th
th
Page 46
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. D]
umber of permut tions with in the
first position =19!
Number of permutations with in the
second position = 10 18!
(Fill the first space with any of the 10 odd
numbers and the 18 spaces after the 2
with 18 of the remaining numbers in 18!
ways)
umber of permut tions with in rd
position =10 9 17!
(Fill the first 2 place with 2 of the 10 odd
numbers and then the remaining 17
places with remaining 17 numbers)
nd so on until is in th place. After
that it is not possible to satisfy the given
condition, since there are only 10 odd
numbers v il ble to fill before the
So the desired number of permutations
which satisfies the given condition is
8.
[Ans. C]
Let C denote computes science study and
M denotes maths study.
P(C on Monday and C on Wednesday)
= P(C on Monday, M on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
+ P(C on Monday, C on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
=1 0.6 0.4+ 1 0.4 0.4
= 0.24 + 0.16 = 0.40
9.
[Ans. B]
It is given that
P (odd) = 0.9 P (even)
Now since P(x) = 1
P (odd) + P (even) = 1
0.9 P (even) + P (even) = 1
P(even) =
P(2) = P(4) = P(6) = P(even)

)
Which are clearly not choices (A), (B) or (C)

7.
/ = P (z
.z
/ = P (z
(z
) = P (z
10.
_____(i)
P(f ce
)
)
(
)
(
(0.5263)
= 0.1754
It is given that
P(even | face > 3) = 0.75
[Ans. A]
Given = 1, = 4
=2
and = 1,
is unknown
Given, P(X
) = P (Y 2 )
Converting into standard normal variates,
.z
= 0.5263
Now, it is given that P(any even face) is same

i.e. P(2) = P(4) = P(6)
Now since,
P(even) = P(2) or P(4) or P(6)
= P(2) + P(4) + P(6)
Now the probability of this happening is

given by =
(
Mathematics
= 0.75
= 0.75
( )
( )
=1
decl red f ulty
f ulty
q
p
=3
not
f ulty
decl red not f ulty

decl red f ulty
decl red not f ulty
From above tree

(decl red f ulty)
th
=0.468
[Ans. A]
The tree diagram of probabilities is
shown below
q
Now since we know that in standard

normal distribution
P (z
) = P (z 1)
_____(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii) we can say that
th
pq
th
q)(
p)
Page 47
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
[Ans. A]
If
b c
Then, no. of divisors of
(x
)(y
)(z
)
iven
o of ivisors of
(
)(
(
)(
)
which are multiples
13.
14.
15.
[Ans. C]
(x ) , (x)V(x)
Where V(x) is the variance of x,
Since variance is and hence never
negative,
( t le st one he d)
TT )
So required prob bility
equired rob bility

12.
( )
16.
No. of divisors of
of
o of divisors of
(
)(
)
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Required Probability
= P (getting 6 in the first time)
+ P (getting 1 in the first time and getting
5 or 6 in the second time)
4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
3 or 4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
( )
( )
( )
17.
[Ans. C]
The p.d.f of the random variable is
x
+1
P(x) 0.5 0.5
The cumulative distribution function F(x)
is the probability upto x as given below
x
+1
F(x) 0.5 1.0
So correct option is (C)
18.
[Ans. C]
e
(k)
[Ans. A]
+
The five cards are *
Sample space
ordered pairs
st
nd
P (1 card = 2 card + 1)
)( )( )( )+
*(
k
P is no. of cars per minute travelling.
[Ans. D]
y = a x is the correct expression
Since variance of constant is zero.
For no cars. (i.e. k = 0)

For no cars. P(0) e
So P can be either 0,1,2. (i.e. k = 0,1,2)
For k = 1, p(1)=e
[Ans. A]
Let A be the event of head in one coin. B
be the event of head in second coin.
The required probability is
*
) ( )+
(
)| )
( )
(
)
( )
(
)
(both coin he ds)
For k = 2 , P(2)=
Hence
( )
e
e
th
( )
( )
e
4
th
e
5
th
Page 48
GATE QUESTION BANK
e
(
20.
equired prob bility is

(
(
)
( )
(
[Ans. *] Range 0.24 to 0.27

The smaller sticks, therefore, will range in
length from almost 0 meters upto a
maximum of 0.5 meters, with each length
equally possible.
Thus, the average length will be about
0.25 meters, or about a quarter of the
stick.
24.
[Ans. 10]
22 occurs in following ways
6 6 6 4
w ys
6 6 5 5
w ys
[Ans. 0.25]
( ) P(S) = 1
( )
( )
(
)
utu lly exclusive (
)
( )
( )
et ( ) x; ( )
x
P(A) P(B) = x(
x)
Maximum value of y = x (
x)
dy
(
x) x
dx
= 2x = 1
x
equired prob bility
(max)
x
21.
( )
)
e
19.
( )
Mathematics
ximum v lue of y
[Ans. *] Range 11.85 to 11.95

For functioning 3 need to be working
(function)
ECE
1.
[Ans. D]
3 1
6 2
3 1
P(even number )
6 2
Since events are independent, therefore
1 1 1
P(odd/even)
2 2 4
P(Odd number)
p
22.
[Ans. *] Range 3.8 to 3.9

Expected length = Average length of all
words
2.
[Ans. A]
I
omp ring with

(
23.
ut
[Ans. *] Range 0.259 to 0.261

Let A = divisible by 2, B = divisible by 3
and C = divisible by 5, then
n(A) = 50, n(B) = 33, n(C) = 20
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
P( )
rom
x
th
th
dx
dx
dx
nd
x
th
Page 49
GATE QUESTION BANK
Put
3.
in
Probability of failing in paper 2,

P (B) = 0.2
Probability of failing in paper 1, when
equ tion
A
0.6
B
A P A B
We know that, P
PB
B
student has failed in paper 2, P
[Ans. C]
P x.dx 1
Ke
Mathematics
.dx 1
ax
e dx
dx
x x,for x 0
x for x 0
K K
1
a a
( )
= 0.6 0.2
= 0.12
or
( )
7.
[Ans. A]
CDF: F x
PDF
dx
For x<0, F x
x 1
dx
4.
[Ans. D]
. / ( )
P (Y/D) =
. / ( )
. / ( )
=
5.
. / ( )
=0.4
F0
1
2
conc ve upw rds
For x>0, F x F0
x 1
dx
[Ans. A]
var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
Where, x=E[x]
x= expected or mean value of X defining
1 x2

x concave downwards
2 2
Hence the CDF is, shown in the figure (A).
E[X] =
xf xdx
x
8.
[Ans. A]
Given: Px x Me2|x| Ne3|x|
x P xi x xi dx
P xdx 1
x
xiP xi
Variance is a measure of the spread of

the values of X from its mean x.
Using relation , E[X+Y]= E[X]+E[Y]
And E[CX]=CE[X]
On var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
= ,Xx2
= E[X2] [ ,X-]
6.
Me2|x| Ne3|x| dx 2 Me2|x| Ne3|x| dx 1

0
By simplifying
2
3
M N 1
9.
[Ans. B]
x+y=2
x y=0
=> x =1, y = 1
P(x=1,y=1) =
[Ans. C]
Probability of failing in paper 1,
P (A) = 0.3
th
th
= 1/16
th
Page 50
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. C]
14.
Probability of getting head in first toss =

Probability of getting head in second toss
=
[Ans. C]
P(no. of tosses is odd)
(no of tosses is
P(no. of toss is 1) = P(Head in 1st toss)
and in all other 8 tosses there should
P(no. of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail

in second toss and head in third toss)
be tail always.
So probability of getting head in first two
tosses
(
)(
)(
) (
)
= (1/2)10
P(no. of toss is 5) = P(T,T,T,TH)

. /
11.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Both the teacher and student are wrong
Mean =
k
= 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 0.5
= 3.0
E(x2) =
k
etc
So,
P(no. of tosses in odd)
Variance(x)= E(x2) * (x)+ =10.2 9=1.2

12.
[Ans. D]
P(H, H, H, T) +P (H, H, H, H )
=
13.
. /
. /
15.
[Ans. B]
( V V)
( V
V )
*z
v
v+ Linear combination of
Gaussian random variable is Gaussian
(z )
and not mean till zero
because both random variables has mean
zero hence ( )
Hence Option B is correct
16.
[Ans. D]
F(x) = P{X x}
(x)
* X x+
x
2X
3
. / =
[Ans. C]
Total number of cases = 36
Favorable cases:
(1, 1)
(2, 1)
(3, 1)
(4, 1)
(5, 1)
(6, 1)
(1, 2)
(2, 2)
(3, 2)
(4, 2)
(5, 2)
(6, 2)
(1, 3)
(2, 3)
(3, 3)
(4, 3)
(5, 3)
(6, 3)
(1, 4)
(2, 4)
(3, 4)
(4, 4)
(5, 4)
(6, 4)
(1, 5)
(2, 5)
(3, 5)
(4, 5)
(5, 5)
(6, 5)
(1, 6)
(2, 6)
(3, 6)
(4, 6)
(5, 6)
(6, 6)
Total number of favorable cases
For positive value of x,

(x)
(x) is always greater than zero
For negative value of x
(x)
(x)is ve
ut , (x)
(x)- x
Then probability
th
th
th
Page 51
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
18.
[Ans. *] Range 0.65 to 0.68

et be different types of f milies nd S
be there siblings.
S
S S (siblings)
Probability that child chosen at random
having sibling is 2/3
(x)
et S
x f(x)
[Ans. C]
21.

Let the first toss be head.
Let x denotes the number of tosses(after
getting first head) to get first tail.
We can summarize the even as
Event(After
x
Probability
getting first H)
T
1
1/2
HT
2
1/2 1/2=1/4
HHT
3
1/8
nd so on
II)gives
)S
(x)
i.e. The expected number of tosses (after
first head) to get first tail is 2 and same
can be applicable if first toss results in
tail.
Hence the average number of tosses is
22.
20.
(I
(II)
(I)
f(x)
(x)
[Ans. *] Range 0.32 to 0.34

This is a tricky question, here, X X X
independent and identically distributed
random variables with the uniform
distribution
, -.
So,
they
are
equiprobable. So X X or X have chances
being largest are equiprobable.
So, [P {X is largest}] or [P {X is largest}]
or [P {X is largest}] =1
and P {X is largest} = P {X is largest} =
P {X is largest}
[Ans. *] Range 49.9 to 50.1

Set of positive odd number less than 100
is 50. As it is a uniform distribution
x (x)
*X is l rgest +
19.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.15 to 0.18

X
X
X
X
X
X
et z X
X
X
(X
)
X
X
(z
)
Pdf of z we need to determine. It is the
convolution of three pdf
(z
23.
th
dz
[Ans. *] Range 0.79 to 0.81

|x|
,|x|-
e dx
th
th
Page 52
GATE QUESTION BANK
|x| exp 4
x
x
x exp 4
pr(P Q) pr(P) + pr(Q)

(D) is true
since P Q P
n(P Q) n(P)
pr(P Q) pr(P)
5 dx
5 dx
5 dx
2.
x exp 4
x exp 4
[ exp (
,
24.
|x| exp 4
[Ans. B]
P(A|B) =
5 dx
5 dx
x ) dx]
( he d in tosses nd first toss in he d)

= P(HHT) + P(HTH)
4/5
Parcel is
sent to R
Required probability =
R
3.
1/5
Parcel is lost
Parcel is lost
parcel
is
[Ans. C]
If two fair dices are rolles the probability
distribution of r where r is the sum of the
numbers on each die is given by
r
P(r)
4/5
that
)
( )
Also, P(first toss is head) =
Parcel is sent to
Probability
P(2 heads in 3 tosses | first toss is

head)
( he ds in tosses nd first toss in he d)
(first toss is he d)
[Ans. *] Range 0.43 to 0.45

Pre flow diagram is
1/5
Mathematics
lost
2
Probability that parcel is lost by
3
Probability that parcel is lost by
provided that the parcel is lost
4
5
EE
1.
6
[Ans. D]
(A) is false since of P & Q are
independent
pr(P Q) = pr(P) pr(Q)
which need not be zero.
(B) is false since
pr(P Q)
= pr(P) + pr(Q) pr(P Q)
(C) is false since independence and
mutually exclusion are unrelated
properties.
7
8
9
10
11
12
th
th
th
Page 53
GATE QUESTION BANK
The above table has been obtained by

taking all different all different ways of
obtaining a particular sum. For example, a
sum of 5 can be obtained by (1, 4), (2, 3),
(3, 2) and (4, 1).
P(x = 5) = 4/36
Now let us consider choice (A)
Pr(r > 6) = Pr(r 7)
P(1, 5, 6) =
P(3, 4, 5) =
P(1, 2, 5) =
Choice (C) P(1, 5 and 6) =

5.
is correct.
[Ans. C]
x is uniformly distributes in [0, 1]
Probability density function
=
=
Mathematics
f(x) =
Choice (A) i.e. pr(r > 6) = 1/6 is wrong.

Consider choice (B)
pr(r/3 is an integer)
= pr(r = 3) + pr (r = 6) + pr (r = 9)
+ pr (r = 1)
=1
f(x) = 1 0 < x < 1

Now E(x ) = x f(x)dx
x
dx
=
=
6.
[Ans. B]
Let N people in room. So no. of events that
at least two people in room born at same
date
Choice (B) i.e. pr (r/3) is an integer

= 5/6 is wrong.
Consider choice (C)
Now,
pr(r/4 is an integer) = pr(r = 4)
+ pr (r = 8) + pr (r = 12)
=
=
Solving, we get N = 7
7.
[Ans. C]
(II is red|I is white)
(II is red nd I is white)
(I is white)
(I is white nd II is red)
(I is white)
8.
[Ans. B]
pr(r = 8) =
pr(r = 8 | r/4 is an integer) =
=
Choice (C) is correct.
4.
[Ans. C]
Dice value
1
2
Probability
and
is the entrie
rectangle
The region in which maximum of {x, y} is
less than
is shown below as shaded
region inside this rectangle
5
6
th
th
th
Page 54
GATE QUESTION BANK

y
(
12.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.35 to 0.45

(
dx
x|
dx
dx
x|
13.
p .m x,x y-
f(x)dx

f(x) dx
by property
kx dx
k
9.
14.
[Ans. A]
(x
)
,e
10.
e dx
e -
, e -
[Ans. B]
Let number of heads = x,
Number of tails n x
ifference x (n x)or (n
x n or n
x
If x n n
x
n
x
If n
IN
1.
[Ans. D]
=52 weeks and 2 days are extra. Out of

x)
7, (SUN MON) (or) (SAT SUN) are

favorable.
So, Probability of this event=
2.
or x
[Ans. C]
Since the reading taken by the instrument
is normally distributed, hence
P(x
x )
Where,
[Ans. *] Range 0.13 to 0.15
Let proportionality constant = k
( dot) k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
( dots)
k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
rob bility of showing dots
[Ans. D]
Since leap chosen will be random, so, we
assume it being the case of uniform
probability distribution function.
Number of days in a leap year=366 days
As x and n are integers, this is not

possible
Probability 0
11.
Now
.dx
e n of the distribution
St nd rd devi tion of the
distribution.
exp(
)dx
where, n=x 10 (
kg)
and from the data given in question
dx
On equating, we get 0.05=0.84

k
th
th
th
Page 55
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. D]
Mean=
8.
[Ans. B]
By definition of Gaussian distribution,
total area under the curve =1. Hence half
of the area =0.5
9.
[Ans. A]
=5.9 V.
(
V
(closest answer is 0.2)
P(x)=
4.
[Ans. C]
( )
Mean =
( )
x (x)dx =
Var(x)= (x
1 2
3 3
5.
Mathematics
[Ans. A] ]
(x
(x)dx
) dx =
10.
[Ans. C]
Probability of incorrect report
11.
[Ans. C]
mm
mm
Then probability
P(x)dx 1
x dx = 6
Area under triangle =
c
1
2
6.
[Ans. A]
Probability that the sum of digits of two
dices is even is same either both dices
shows even numbers or odd numbers on
the top of the surface
( )
( )
( )
Where
( )
Probability of occurring even
number of both the dices
( )
Probability of occurring odd
number of both the dices
(
(X
where x
mm
( )
So, number of measurement more than

10.15mm
P Total number of measurement
nd (
( )
12.
7.
[Ans. A]
f(x) dx=P
or
or e
.dx =P
[Ans. D]
For the product to be even, the numbers
from both the boxes should not turn out
to be odd simultaneously.
( )
( )( )
or P = .
th
th
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Page 56
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. A]
f(x)dx
e |
14.
15.
e dx
[Ans. 2]
For valid pdf
Mathematics
dx
pdf dx
;k
[Ans. *] Range 0.890 to 0.899

Probability that job is successfully
processed = (
)(
)
th
th
th
Page 57
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Numerical Methods
ME 2005
1.
Starting from x = 1, one step of Newton
Raphson method in solving the equation
x +3x 7=0 gives the next value (x) as
(A) x=0.5
(C) x = .5
(B) x= . 0
(D) x=2
2.
With a 1 unit change in b, what is the

change in x in the solution of the system
of equation
= 2 .0
0.
=
(A) Zero
(C) 50 units
(B) 2 units
(D) 100 units
ME 2006
3.
Column I
Column II
(P) Gauss-Seidel
(1) Interpolation
method
(Q) Forward
(2) Non-linear
Newton-Gauss
differential
method
equations
(R) Runge-Kutta
(3) Numerical
method
integration
(S) Trapezoidal
(4) Linear algebraic
Rule
equation
(A)
2
(B)
2
(C)
2
(D)
2
4.
Equation of the line normal to function

)
f(x) = (x
(A) y = x 5
(B) y = x 5
at (0 5) is
(C) y = x
(D) y = x
5
5
ME 2007
5.
A calculator has accuracy up to 8 digits
2
after decimal place. The value of
sinxdx
0
when evaluated using this calculator by

trapezoidal method with 8 equal
intervals, to 5 significant digits is
(A) 0.00000
(C) 0.00500
(B) 1.0000
(D) 0.00025
ME 2010
6.
Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle
is listed in the table. Flywheel energy (in
J per unit cycle) using impsons rule is
Angle (degree)
Torque (N-m)
0
0
60
1066
120
323
180
0
240
323
300
55
360
0
(A) 542
(C) 1444
(B) 992.7
(D) 1986
ME 2011
7.
The integral
dx, when evaluated by
using impsons / rule on two equal

subintervals each of length 1, equals
(A) 1.000
(C) 1.111
(B) 1.098
(D) 1.120
ME 2013
8.
Match the correct pairs.
Numerical
Order of Fitting
Integration Scheme
Polynomial
. impsons
/
1. First
Rule
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
. impsons /
3. Third
Rule
(A) P 2 , Q 1, R 3
(B) P 3, Q 2 , R 1
(C) P 1, Q 2 , R 3
(D) P 3, Q 1 , R 2
ME 2014
9.
Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing
the interval of integration into three equal
sub intervals, the definite integral
|x|dx is ____________
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Page 58
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
The value of .
( )
value approximate
estimate?
calculated using
the Trapezoidal rule with five sub

intervals is _______
11.
The definite integral
12.
The real root of the equation

5x
2cosx
= 0 (up to two decimal
accuracy) is _______
13.
Consider
an
equation
= t
.If x =x at t = 0 , the
CE 2005
Linked Answer Question 1 and 2
Give a>0, we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
Raphson Method for f(x) = 0.
2.
The Newton Raphson algorithm for the

function will be
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
= (x
x )
(C) x
= 2x
ax
(D) x
=x
in
the
(C)
(D)
CE 2007
4.
The following equation needs to be
numerically solved using the NewtonRaphson method
x3 + 4x 9 = 0 the iterative equation for
the purpose is (k indicates the iteration
level)
differential
increment in x calculated using RungeKutta fourth order multi-step method

with a step size of t = 0.2 is
(A) 0.22
(C) 0.66
(B) 0.44
(D) 0.88
1.
(A)
(B) 0
value)
is evaluated
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of

1. The correct answer is _______
ordinary
Mathematics
For a = 7 and starting with x = 0.2 the

first two iteration will be
(A) 0.11, 0.1299
(C) 0.12, 0.1416
(B) 0.12, 0.1392
(D) 0.13, 0.1428
CE 2006
3.
A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of
1, 4 and 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2 respectively.
5.
(A) x
(B) x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
Given that one root of the equation

x
10x + 31x 30 = 0 is 5, the other
two roots are
(A) 2 and
(C) and
(B) 2 and
(D) 2 and
CE 2008
6.
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in
a straight line in the form y = a + bx by
the method of least squares. Given
x = 6, y = 2 x =
and xy =
the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 1
(B) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 2
CE 2009
7.
In the solution of the following set of
linear equation by Gauss elimination
using partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34;
4y 3z = 12; and 10x 2y + z = 4; the
pivots for elimination of x and y are
(A) 10 and 4
(C) 5 and 4
(B) 10 and 2
(D) 5 and 4
The integral f(x) dx is to be estimated

by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data. What is the error (define as true
th
th
th
Page 59
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
8.
The table below given values of a function
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals
of 0.25.
x
0 0.25
0.5 0.75 1.0
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to using impsons
rule is
(A) 0.7854
(C) 3.1416
(B) 2.3562
(D) 7.5000
CE
9.
2011
The square root of a number N is to be
obtained by applying the Newton
Raphson iterations to the equation
x
= 0. If i denotes the iteration
index, the correct iteration scheme will be
(A) x
(B) x
= (x
= (x
CE 2013
12. Find the magnitude of the error (correct
to two decimal places) in the estimation
of following integral using impsons
Rule. Take the step length as 1.___________
(x
1.
Consider
(D) x
= (x
he error in
xe dx
is 2
1
R
xn1 xn can be used to compute
2
xn
the
(A) square of R
(B) reciprocal of R
(C) square root of R
(D) logarithm of R
0 .
CE 2012
The estimate of .
1
3
to an accuracy of at least 106
The Newton-Raphson iteration
for a continuous
The values of
and ( ) are 19.78 and
500.01, respectively. The corresponding
error in the central difference estimate
for h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) .
0
(C) .5
0
(B) .0
0
(D) .0
0
11.
function estimated with h=0.03 using the

central difference formula
f(x)|
using the trapezoidal rule is

(A) 1000e
(C) 100e
(B) 1000
(D) 100
f(x)|
series
CS 2008
2.
The minimum number of equal length
subintervals needed to approximate
3.
10.
the
= 0.5 obtained from the NewtonRaphson method. The series converges to

(A) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.4
(B) 2
= (x
0) dx
CS 2007
(C) x
Mathematics
obtained using
impsons rule with three point function

evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235
(C) 0.024
(B) 0.068
(D) 0.012
CS 2010
4.
Newton-Raphson method is used to
compute a root of the equation
x
13 = 0 with 3.5 as the initial value.
The approximation after one iteration is
(A) 3.575
(C) 3.667
(B) 3.677
(D) 3.607
th
th
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Page 60
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2012
5.
The bisection method is applied to
compute a zero of the function
f(x) = x
x
x
in the interval
[1,9]. The method converges to a solution
after ___________ iterations.
(A) 1
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 7
CS 2013
6.
Function f is known at the following
points:
x
f(x)
0
0
0.3 0.09
0.6 0.36
0.9 0.81
1.2 1.44
1.5 2.25
1.8 3.24
2.1 4.41
2.4 5.76
2.7 7.29
3.0 9.00
he value of f(x)dx computed using
the trapezpidal rule is
(A) 8.983
(C) 9.017
(B) 9.003
(D) 9.045
CS 2014
7.
The function f(x) = x sin x satisfied the
following equation:
( ) + f(x) + t cos x = 0.
The value of t is _________.
8.
In the Newton-Raphson method, an initial

guess of
= 2 made and the sequence
x x x
.. is obtained for the function
0.75x
2x
2x
=0
Consider the statements
(I) x = 0.
(II) The method converges to a solution
in a finite number of iterations.
Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Only I
Mathematics
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
9.
With respect to the numerical evaluation

of the definite integral,
= x dx
where a and b are given, which of the
following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) The value of K obtained using the
trapezoidal rule is always greater
then or equal to the exact value of
the defined integral
(II) The value of K obtained using the
impsons rule is always equal to the
exact value of the definite integral
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
ECE 2005
1.
Match the following and choose the
correct combination
Group I
Group II
(A) Newton1. Solving nonRaphson
linear equations
method
(B) Runge-Kutta
2. Solving linear
method
simultaneous
equations
(C) impsons
3. Solving ordinary
Rule
differential
equations
(D) Gauss
4. Numerical
elimination
integration
method
5. Interpolation
6. Calculation of
Eigen values
(A) A-6, B-1, C-5, D-3
(B) A-1, B-6, C-4, D-3
(C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(D) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
th
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Page 61
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2007
2.
The equation x3 x2+4x 4=0 is to be
solved using the Newton-Raphson
method. If x=2 is taken as the initial
approximation of the solution, then the
next approximation using this method
will be
(A) 2/3
(C) 1
(B) 4/3
(D) 3/2
(A) 2
sin x
..
2 cos x
..
(C) 2
..
(D) 2
..
8.
The series
eXn
1 eXn
X2 eXn 1 Xn 1
(D) Xn1 n
Xn -eXn
ECE 2014
6.
The Taylor expansion of
is
Match the application to appropriate

numerical method.
Application
Numerical
Method
P1:Numerical
M1:Newtonintegration
Raphson Method
P2:Solution to a
M2:Runge-Kutta
transcendental
Method
equation
P3:Solution to a
M : impsons
system of linear
1/3-rule
equations
P4:Solution to a
M4:Gauss
differential equation
Elimination
Method
(A) P1M3, P2M2, P3M4, P4M1
(B) P1M3, P2M1, P3M4, P4M2
(C) P1M4, P2M1, P3M3, P4M2
(D) P1M2, P2M1, P3M3, P4M4
(C) Xn1 1 Xn
ECE 2013
5.
A polynomial
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
with all coefficients positive has
(A) No real root
(B) No negative real root
(C) Odd number of real roots
(D) At least one positive and one
negative real root
(B) 2
7.
ECE 2008
3.
The recursion relation to solve x=
using Newton-Raphson method is
(A)
=e
(B)
=
e
ECE 2011
4.
A numerical solution of the equation
f(x) = x x
= 0 can be obtained
using Newton Raphson method. If the
starting value is x = 2 for the iteration,
the value of x that is to be used in the next
step is
(A) 0.306
(C) 1.694
(B) 0.739
(D) 2.306
Mathematics
converges to
(A) 2 ln 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) e
EE 2007
1.
The differential equation
is
discretised using Eulers numerical

integration method with a time step
T > 0. What is the maximum permissible
value of T to ensure stability of the
solution of the corresponding discrete
time equation?
(A) 1
(C)
(B) /2
(D) 2
EE 2008
2.
Equation e
= 0 is required to be
solved using ewtons method with an
initial guess x =
. Then, after one
th
th
th
Page 62
GATE QUESTION BANK
step of ewtons method estimate x of

the solution will be given by
(A) 0.71828
(C) 0.20587
(B) 0.36784
(D) 0.00000
3.
A differential equation dx/dt = e u(t)

has to be solved using trapezoidal rule of
integration with a step size h = 0.01 sec.
Function u(t) indicates a unit step
function. If x(0)= 0, then value of x at
t = 0.01 s will be given by
(A) 0.00099
(C) 0.0099
(B) 0.00495
(D) 0.0198
EE 2009
4.
Let x
7 = 0. The iterative steps for
the solution using Newton aphsons
method is given by
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
=x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
=x
EE 2013
7.
When the Newton Raphson method is
applied
to
solve
the
equation
f(x) = x
2x
= 0 the solution at the
end of the first iteration with the initial
guess value as x = .2 is
(A) 0.82
(C) 0.705
(B) 0.49
(D) 1.69
EE 2014
8.
The function ( ) =
is to be
solved using Newton-Raphson method. If
the initial value of is taken as 1.0, then
the absolute error observed at 2nd
iteration is ___________
IN 2006
1.
For k = 0
2
. the steps of
Newton-Raphson method for solving a
non-linear equation is given as
2
5
xk 1 xk xK2 .
3
3
(x
Starting from a suitable initial choice as k

tends to , the iterate tends to
(A) 1.7099
(C) 3.1251
(B) 2.2361
(D) 5.0000
EE 2011
5.
Solution of the variables
and
for the
following equations is to be obtained by
employing the Newton-Raphson iterative
method
equation(i) 0x inx
0. = 0
equation(ii) 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
Assuming the initial values
= 0.0 and
= .0 the jacobian matrix is
0
0.
0
0.
(A) *
(C) *
+
+
0
0.
0
0.
0 0
0
0
(B) *
(D) *
+
+
0
0
0
0
6.
Mathematics
IN 2007
2.
Identify the Newton-Raphson iteration
scheme for finding the square root of 2.
3.
(A) x
(x
(B) x
= (x
(C) x
(D) x
= 2
The polynomial p(x) = x + x + 2 has

(A) all real roots
(B) 3 real and 2 complex roots
(C) 1 real and 4 complex roots
(D) all complex roots
Roots of the algebraic equation

x
x
x
= 0 are
)
(A) (
(C) (0 0 0)
(B) (
j j)
(D) (
j j)
th
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Page 63
GATE QUESTION BANK
IN 2008
4.
It is known that two roots of the
nonlinear equation x3 6x2 +11x 6 = 0
are 1 and 3. The third root will be
(A) j
(C) 2
(B)
j
(D) 4
IN 2013
8.
While numerically solving the differential
equation
with
x(0) = 0 and the constant

0 is to be
numerically integrated using the forward
Euler method with a constant integration
time step T. The maximum value of T such
that the numerical solution of x converges
is
(C)
(A)
(B)
2xy = 0 y(0) =
using
Eulers predictor corrector (improved

Euler Cauchy )method with a step size
of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is
(A) 1.00
(C) 0.97
(B) 1.03
(D) 0.96
IN 2009
5.
Mathematics
IN 2014
9.
The iteration step in order to solve for the
cube roots of a given number N using the
Newton- aphsons method is
(D) 2
(A) x
=x
(B) x
= (2x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
= (2x
x )
)
x )
)
IN 2010
6.
The velocity v (in m/s) of a moving mass,
starting from rest, is given as
=v
t.
Using Eulers forward difference method

(also known as Cauchy-Euler method)
with a step size of 0.1s, the velocity at 0.2s
evaluates to
(A) 0.01 m/s
(C) 0.2 m/s
(B) 0.1 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
IN 2011
7.
The extremum (minimum or maximum)
point of a function f(x) is to be
determined by solving
( )
= 0 using the
Newton-Raphson method.
Let f(x) = x
x and x = 1 be the initial
guess of x. The value of x after two
iterations (x ) is
(A) 0.0141
(C) 1.4167
(B) 1.4142
(D) 1.5000
th
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Page 64
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
y = sin ( ) =
2
[Ans. C]
By N-R method ,
=x
f(x) = x
f( ) =
x =x
( )
( )
y = sin (
x =
y = sin( ) = 0
5
y = sin ( ) =
y = sin (
f (x) = x
f ( )= ,
=1
) = 0.70 0
)=
7
y = sin ( ) =
[Ans. C]
Given x y = 2
(i)
.0 x 0.0 y = b
(ii)
Multiply 0.99 is equation (i) and subtract
from equation (ii); we get
( .0
0. )x = b (2 0. )
0.02x = b
.
0.02x = b
x =
0.02
[Ans. D]
4.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = (x
2
)
f (x) = (x
f(x)dx = [(y
0.70 0
6.
y )
[(0
0)
0.70 0
0.70 0
[(0
y )]
7.
[Ans. C]
x
y=
( 0
0)
2(
2.7 /unit cycle.
Slope of normal = 3
( roduct of slopes = 1)
Slope of normal at point (0, 5)
y 5 = (x 0)
y= x 5
[Ans. A]
b a 2
0
h=
=
=
n
y = sin(0) = 0
0=0
[Ans. B]
ower = = Area under the curve.
h
(y
= [(y
y )
y
y )
Slope of tangent at point (0, 5)

2
) / =
m = (0
2(0.70 0
2(y
2(y
)]
sinx dx =
5.
)=0
Trapezoidal rule
= 50 units
3.
0.70 0
(0.5) = .5
y = sin (
2.
0.70 0
1
1
x
dx = (y
= (
55)
2 )]
2
h
y
2
y )
= .
8.
[Ans. D]
By the definition only
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
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Page 65
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. *] Range 1.10 to 1.12
By intermediate value theorem roots lie

be between 0 and 1.
et x = rad = 57. 2
By Newton Raphson method
f(x )
x
=x
f (x )
2x sin x
2 cos x
x
=
5 2 sin x
x = 0.5 2
x = 0.5 25
x = 0.5 2
|x|dx is
h
ydx = [y
2
2(y
0.33
y ]
0.33
|x|dx =
.)
0.33
0.333
2(0.
0.
)]
13.
= . 0
10.
[Ans. *] Range 1.74 to 1.76

2.5
h=
= 0.
5
y
2y
2y
. ln (x)dx = [
2y
y
=
[ln(2.5)
2ln( . )
= .75
11.
2(ln2. )
2y
2 ln( . )
CE
1.
[Ans. *]Range 1.1 to 1.2
t|
x = 0.0
0. = 0.
= 2t
t|
Set up the equation as x =

i.e. = a
f(x)dx = [y
2(y
iven in question
0
1
1
2
1
0.5
dx = [y
x
2
t
x =
2
To calculate using N-R method
rapezoidal rule
x
y
)dt
[Ans. C]
dx by trapezoidal rule
x
h=
[Ans. D]
The variation in options are much, so it
can be solved by integrating directly
dx
= t
dt
dx = ( t
ln( )]
2ln( .7)
Mathematics
..y
)]
a=0
i.e. f(x) =
2
3
0.33
a=0
Now f (x) =
f(x ) =
f (x ) =
2(y )]
For N-R method

= [
2
= .
0.
0.5]
=x
x
12.
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.56

Let f(x) = 5x 2 cos x
f (x) = 5 2 sin x
f(0) =
f( ) = 2.
=x
)
(
Simplifying which we get

x
= 2x
ax
th
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Page 66
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
[Ans. B]
For a = 7 iteration equation
Becomes x
= 2x
7x
with x = 0.2
x = 2x
7x = 2 0.2 7(0.2) = 0.12
and x = 2x
7x = 2 0.12 7(0. 2)
= 0.1392
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 1, 4, 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2
respectively
f(x)dx = (f
2f
=x
x
5.
f )
f(x)dx = (1 + 2(4) + 15) = 12
and
4.
= 30
= 5
5 =
5 ( ) =
ince = from (i)
5 ( )
=
=5
=
olving for and
(5 ) =
5
=0
= 2 and =
Alternative method
5
1
0
31
0
0
5
25
30
1
5
6
0
(x 5)(x
)=0
5x
(x 5)(x 2)(x
)=0
x=2 5
x )dx
+ =
2=
[Ans. A ]
Given f(x) = x
x
=0
f (x) = x
Newton Raphson formula is
= (i)
Also
Error = exact Approximate value

=
= 5
Now exact value f(x)dx
= *x
2x
x
Approximate value by rapezoidal ule

= 12
Since f(x) is second degree polynomial, let
f(x) = a0 + a x + a x
f(0) = 1
a
0 0=
a =
f(1) = 4
a
a
a =
1+ a
a =
a
a =
f(2) = 15
a
2a
a = 5
2a
a = 5
2a
a =
Solving (i) and (ii) a =
and a =
f(x) = 1 x + 4 x
x
[Ans. A]
Given
x 10 x + 31x 30 = 0
One root = 5
Let the roots be and of equation
ax + bx + cx + d = 0
(3 points Trapezoidal Rule)

Here h = 1
= (
f(x )
f (x )
(x
x
)
( x
)
x
x
x
( x
)
=x
x
3.
Mathematics
6.
[Ans. D]
Y = a + bx
Given
n= x =
and xy =
th
th
y = 2 x = 14
th
Page 67
GATE QUESTION BANK
Normal equations are

y = na bx
xy = ax bx
Substitute the values and simply
a= b=2
7.
9.
5
[0
0
| 2]
2
0
[0
5
f(x )
f(x )
=x
=x
2x
2x
[x
10.
[Ans. D]
Error in central difference formula is
(h)
This means, error
If error for h = 0.03 is 2
0
then
Error for h = 0.02 is approximately
(0.02)
2
0
0
(0.0 )
11.
[Ans. D]
Exact value of .
| 2]
2
So the pivot for eliminating x is a = 10

Now we eliminate x using this pivot
as follows :
0
2
[0
| 2]
5
2
5
0
2
0
2]
[0
0
2
/2
Now to eliminate y, we need to compare
the elements in second column at and
below the diagonal element Since a = 4
is already larger in absolute value
compares to a = 2
The pivot element for eliminating y is
a = 4 itself.
The pivots for eliminating x and y are
respectively 10 and 4
8.
[Ans. A]
x
[Ans. A]
The equation is
5x + y + 2z = 34
0x + 4y 3z = 12
and 10x 2y + z =
The augmented matrix for gauss
elimination is
5
2
[0
| 2]
0
2
Since in the first column maximum
element in absolute value is 10 we need
to exchange row 1 with row 3
Mathematics
dx = .0
Using impsons rule in three point

form,
b a
.5 0.5
h=
=
= 0.5
n
2
So,
x 0.5 1 1.5
y 2
1 0.67
=
=
0.5
]
[2
0. 7
= .
So, the estimate exceeds the exact value by
Approximate value Exact value
= 1.1116 1.0986
=0.012(approximately)
12.
[Ans. *](Range 0.52 to 0.55)

Using impsons ule
X
0
1
2
3
Y
10
11
26
91
4
266
[Ans. A]
I = h(f
=
0.
= 0.7 5
2f
0.25(
0.
0.
0.5)
(x
f )
2
= [( 0
0)dx
2
2(2 )
)]
= 2 5.
The value of integral
th
th
th
Page 68
GATE QUESTION BANK
(x
0) dx = *
=2
x
5
0x+
3.
[Ans. A]
+
, x = 0.5
2 =
=x =
2 = + R
=R
=
So this iteration will compute the square
root of R
= +
=
8 = 4 +9
=
4.
= = 1.5
[Ans. A]
Here, the function being integrated is
f(x) = xe
f (x) = xe + e = e (x + 1)
f (x) = xe + e + e = e (x + 2)
Since,
both
are
increasing
functions of x, maximum value of f ( ) in
interval 1
2, occurs at = 2 so
(
)|
(2
max |f
=e
2) = e
Truncation Error for trapezoidal rule
= TE (bound)
[Ans. D]
y=x
dy
= 2x
dx
f(x)= x
x
= .5
5.
(b a) max |f ( )| 1
(2 1) [e (2 + 2)]
Now putting
= 57 7
)=5
f(x )
2
oot lies between and
x =(
)=2
f(x ) 0
2
After ' ' interations we get the root
x =(
=
max |f ( )|
[Ans. B]
f( ) = 5
f( ) = 5
72
)
)
f(
0 f(
0
is number of subintervals
= . 07
max |f ( )|
Where
(x
2=+
=
when the series converges x
= 1000 e
At convergence
x
=x =
=
Given x
2.
)/
[Ans. C]
5
Magnitude of error
= 2 5.
2 . = 0.5
CS
1.
Mathematics
6.
[Ans. D]
h
f(x)dx = [f(0)
2
=
0
[
.
.
0.
f( )
2(0.0
0.
. . 7.2 )
2(f )]
]
5 . ]
= 9.045
h=
Now, No. of intervals,
=
th
th
th
Page 69
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. ]
Given (x) + f(x) + t cos x = 0
and f(x) = x sin x
f (x) = x cos x + sin x
f (x) = x ( sin x) + cos x + cos x
= 2 cos x x sin x
= 2 cos x f (x)
2 cos x f (x) + f(x) +t cos x = 0
2 cos x = tcos x t = 2
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 0.75x
2x
2x
f (x) = 2.25x
x 2
x =2 f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
f = f = 2
f
x =x
=2
f
f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
Also, root does not lies between 0 and 1
So, the method diverges if x = 2
nly ( )is true.
x1 2
3.
1 x n
4.
x1 x0
e
e
e xn
1 exn
[Ans. C]
x
f(x )
f (x )
=x
f(2) = (2
) = 2
f (2) =
=2
and
= .
5.
[Ans. D]
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
If the above equation have complex roots,
then they must be in complex conjugate
pair, because its given all co-efficients are
positive ( they are real )
So if complex roots are even no. (in pair)
then real roots will also be even.
ption ( )is wrong
From the equation
( 0)
roduct of roots =
As no. of roots = 4,
Product of roots < 1
either one root 0
(or)
Product of three roots < 0
ption ( )is rong.
Now, take option (A),
Let us take it is correct .
Roots are in complex conjugate pairs
=
Product of roots
0
| | | |
0 which is not possible
ption (A) is wrong
orrect answer is option ( )
[Ans. C]
By definition (& the application) of
various methods
4=0
Next approximation x1 x0
8 4
12 3
[Ans. C]
Given : f(x)= x e
By Newton Raphson method,
f(x )
x
x
=x
=x
f (x )
[Ans. C]
For value of K if trapezoidal rule is used
then the value is either greater than
actual value of definite integral and if
impsons rule is used then value is exact
Hence both statements are TRUE
[Ans. B]
y(t) =x3 x2 + 4x
x0 = 2
Mathematics
f x0
f ' x0
x03 x02 4x0 4

3x02 2x0 4
th
th
th
Page 70
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
sin x 2 cos x
x
= (x
)
7.
[Ans. B]
8.
[Ans. D]
2(
x
2
Put x =
as given,
x = [e ( 2)
]/e
= 0.71828
[Ans. C]
=e
.. = e
u(t)
x
2
. . x in
t
[Ans. D]
Here,
x = e u(t) dt = f(t) dt
At t = 0.01, x = Area of trapezoidal
=
x
f(x y) =
=(
)x
h
4.
5.
=[
=*
( )
f(x ) = e
f(x ) = e
6.
0x cos x
0x sinx
20x
0sinx
]
0cosx
0
0
is
0
+
0
[Ans. D]
x
x
x
=0
(x
)(x
)=0
x
=0 x
=0
x=
x= j
=x
(
The matrix at x = 0 x =
( )
[Ans. B]
u(x x ) = 0x sin x
0. = 0
v(x x ) = 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
The Jacobian matrix is
u
u
x
x
v
v
[ x
x ]
[Ans. A]
Here
f(x) = e
f (x) = e
The Newton Raphson iterative equation is
=x
= *x
2
o maximum permissible value of is 2 .
i.e. x
[Ans. A]
since h = here
= x
=x
= 0.0099
or stability |
f(0.0 )] =
= [f(0)
Eulers method equation is

x = x h. f(x y )
x
x
= x h(
)
2.
i=0
x =
as e =
EE
1.
Now put
3.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 71
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
x =x
=
.2
Hence, it will have atleast 5 (0+1)= 4

complex roots.
f(x )
f (x )
( .2)
2( .2)
( .2)
2
4.
[Ans. C]
Approach- 1
Given, x3 6x2 + 11x 6 = 0
Or (x 1)(x 3)(x 2) = 0
x= 1, 2, 3.
= 0.705
8.
[Ans. *] Range 0.05 to 0.07

Clearly, x = 0 is root of the equation
f(x) = e
=0
f (x) = e and x = .0
Using ewton raphson method
(e .
)
f(x )
x =x
=
=
f (x )
e.
e
and x = x
f(x )
=
f (x ) e
=
(e
Approach- 2
For ax3 +bx2 + cx +d = 0
If the three roots are p,q,r then
Sum of the roots= p+q+r= b/a
Product of the roots= pqr= d/a
pq+qr+rp=c/a
)
e
5.
[Ans. D]
dx
x
=
dt
f(x, y) =
e
= 0. 7 0.
= 0.0
Absolute error at 2nd itteration is
|0 0.0 | = 0.0
IN
1.
=x
h
=(
[Ans. A]
As k xk+1 xk
xk = x
h (x y ) = x
)x
2.
3.
h(
or stability |
x = x
x =5
x =5
Mathematics
= 1.70
[Ans. A]
Assume x =
f(x) = x
=0
f(x )
x
=x
= [x
f (x ) 2
6.
[Ans. A]
dv
=v t
dt
t
v dv
=v t
dt
0 0 0 0+0 0. = 0
0.1 0 0+0.1 0. = 0.0
7.
[Ans. C]
f(x) = x
x
f (x) = x
= g(x)
x = initial guess
g (x) = x
g (x )
x =x
g (x )
2
]
x
[Ans. C]
Given p(x) = x + x + 2
There is no sign change, hence at most 0
positive root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
p( x) = x
x+2
There is one sign change, hence at most 1
negative root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
th
th
th
Page 72
GATE QUESTION BANK
=
x =x
= .5
= .
= .5
g(x )
g (x )
0.75
7
8.
[Ans. D]
dy
= 2xy x = 0 y = h = 0.2
dx
y =y
h. f(x y )
(0.2)f(0 ) =
=
and y = y
[f(x y ) f(x y )]
(0. )[f(0 ) f(0.2 )]
=
= 0.
is the value of y after first step, using
Eulers predictor corrector method
9.
[Ans. B]
For convergence
x
Mathematics
= x =x x=
x =
(2x
x=
th
th
th
Page 73
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Calculus
ME 2005
1.
ME 2006
The line integral of the vector

function ( ) 2xyz + xz +
ky from
the origin to the point P (1,1,1)
(A) is 1
(B) is Zero
(C) is 1
(D) cannot be determined without
specifying the path
2.
be
(A)
(B)
8.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Changing the order of the integration in

the double integral I =
What is q?
(A)
(C) X
(D) 8
)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
10.
(A) 0
(B)
is equal to
11.
(C)
(D) 1
The area of a triangle formed by the tips

of vectors a , b and c is
(A)
)(
(D) Zero
(B)
|(
Stoke theorem connects

(A) A line integral and a surface integral
(B) Surface integral and a volume
integral
(C) A line integral and a volume integral
(D) Gradient of function and its surface
integral
(C)
(D)
(C) 2 (
ME 2007
(B) 2
6.
1 and t is a real number,
Let x denote a real number. Find out the

INCORRECT statement
+ represents the set if all
(A) S *
real numbers greater then 3
+ represents the empty
(B) S *
set
+ represents the
(C) S *
union of set A and set B
+ represents the set
(D) S *
of all real umbers between a and b,
where and b are real number
leads to
(A) 4y
(B) 16y
(C) 0
(D)
dt is:
9.
4.
By a change of variables
x(u,v) = uv, y(u,v) = v/u is double
integral, the integral f(x,y) changes to
f(uv, u/v) ( ). Then, ( )
(A) 2 v/u
(C) v
(B) 2 u v
(D) 1
I = (
2x2 7x 3
, then limf(x) will
x 3
5x2 12x 9
Assuming i =
The right circular cone of largest volume

that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m
radius has a height of
3.
5.
If f( x ) =
7.
th
th
)
(
)|
|
)
th
Page 74
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
If
y (2) =
(A) 4 or 1
(B) 4 only
13.
, then
14.
20.
The divergence of the vector field

) (
) is
(x y) (
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
21.
Let
(C) 1
(D) 1/ln2
y2 4x and x2 4y is
(A)
(B) 8
23.
(C)
(D) 16
The distance between the origin and the

point nearest to it on the surface
The directional derivative of the scalar
z2 1 xy is
function f(x, y, z) = x2 2y2 z at the
(A) 1
point P = (1, 1, 2) in the direction of the

vector
is
(A) 4
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 1
at x=2, y=1?
ME 2009
22. The area enclosed between the curves
Which of the following integrals is

unbounded?
(C)
(A)
(D)
What is
(A) 0
(B) ln2
The length of the curve
(B)
16.
In the Taylor series expansion of ex about

x = 2, the coefficient of (x 2)4 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The minimum value of function y = x2 in

the interval [1, 5] is
(A) 0
(C) 25
(B) 1
(D) Undefined
between x = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 0.27
(C) 1
(B) 0.67
(D) 1.22
15.
19.
(C) 1 only
(D) Undefined
ME 2008
Mathematics
(C)
(D) 2
(B)
24.
A path AB in the form of one quarter of a

circle of unit radius is shown in the figure.
Integration of x y on path AB
2
17.
Consider the shaded triangular region P

shown in the figure. What is xydxdy?
y
18.
The value of
(A)
(B)
x+2y=2
0
(A)
(B)
traversed in a counter-clockwise sense is
(C)
(D) 1
(C)
(D)
25.
is
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1

at a point (1,1,1) is
equal to
(A) 7
(C) 3
(B) 4
(D) 0
th
th
Page 75
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2010
26. Velocity vector of a flow field is given as
. The vorticity vector at

(1, 1, 1) is
(A) 4
(B) 4
27.
The function
(A)
o
o
(C)
(D)
(B)
o
o
except at x = 3/2
(C)
o
o
except at x = 2/3
(D)
o
o
28.
29.
ME 2012
33. Consider the function ( )
in the
interval
. At the point x = 0,
f(x) is
(A) Continuous and differentiable.
(B) Non continuous and differentiable.
(C) Continuous and non differentiable.
(D) Neither continuous nor
differentiable.
R
R
R
R
34.
R
R
ME 2011
30. If f(x) is an even function and is a positive
real number, then ( )dx equals
31.
What is
(A)
(B)
32.
36.
For the spherical surface

the unit outward
normal vector at the point
is
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
is
(A)
(B)
has
(C)
(D)
37.
equal to?
A series expansion for the function

(A)
( )
(C) 0
(D) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
At x = 0, the function f(x) =

(A) A maximum value
(B) A minimum value
(C) A singularity
(D) A point of inflection
R except at x = 3
(D)
/ is
35.
The parabolic arc

is
revolved around the x-axis. The volume of

the solid of revolution is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) 0
(B)
.
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2

(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The area enclosed between the straight

line y = x and the parabola y = in the
x y plane is
(A) 1/6
(C) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(D) 1/2
ME 2013
38. The following surface integral is to be
evaluated over a sphere for the given
steady velocity vector field
defined with respect to a
cartesian coordinate system having i, j and
k as unit base vectors.
(
(D)
th
th
)
th
Page 76
GATE QUESTION BANK
Where S is the sphere,

and n is the outward unit normal vector to
the sphere. The value of the surface
integral is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
39.
45.
If a function is continuous at a point,

(A) the limit of the function may not exist
at the point
(B) the function must be derivable at the
point
(C) the limit of the function at the point
tends to infinity
(D) the limit must exist at the point and
the value of limit should be same as
the value of the function at that point
The value of the definite integral

( )
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
46.
Divergence of the vector field

(
) is
(A) 0
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 6
(C) 3
(D)Not defined
47.
ME 2014
40.
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
41.
Which one of the following describes the

relationship among the three vectors
(A) The vectors are mutually

perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
(D) The vectors are unit vectors
42.
/ is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
43.
)
)
)
(
(A) 3
(B) 0
48.
(C) 1
(D) 2

is
(
(C) (
(B) (
(D) .
(A)
)
/
).
Where, c is the square cut from the first

quadrant by the lines x = 1 and y = 1 will
(
G
h o
o h
h
line integral into double integral)
(A)
(C)
(B) 1
(D)
(
(
CE 2005
1.
Value of the integral (
(C) 1
(D) 2
Curl of vector
(A) (
(B) (
(C)
(D)
44.
Mathematics
2.
A rail engine accelerates from its

stationary position for 8 seconds and
travels a distance of 280 m. According to
the
Mean
Value
theorem,
the
speedometer at a certain time during
acceleration must read exactly.
(A) 0 kmph
(C) 75 kmph
(B) 8 kmph
(D) 126 kmph
The best approximation of the minimum

value attained by
(100x) for
is _______
th
th
th
Page 77
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2006
3.
What is the area common to the circles
o
2
(A) 0.524 a
(C) 1.014 a2
(B) 0.614 a2
(D) 1.228 a2
4.
The directional derivative of

f(x, y, z) = 2 + 3 + at the point
P (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the vector
a=
k is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
5.
Potential function is given as
=
. When will be the stream
function () with the condition
= 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy
(C)
(B)
+
(D) 2
6.
Evaluate
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
7.
10.
12.
transformed to
(A)
(B)
9.
(C)
(D) 18
parabola is y = 4h
(A)
(D)
(C)
= 0 by substituting
(C)
where x is the
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical

coordinate with the origin at the centre of
the cable. The expression for the total
length of the cable is
= 0 can be
(D)
14.
The
is
(A) 2/3
(B) 1
The inner (dot) product of two vectors

and is zero. The angle (degrees)
between in two vectors is
(A) 0
(C) 90
(B) 30
(D) 120
(C) 40.5
(D) 54.0
(B) 2
is
CE 2010
13. A parabolic cable is held between two
supports at the same level. The horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag at
the mid-span is h. The equation of the
CE 2008
+
For a scalar function

f(x, y, z) =
the directional
derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in the
is
direction of a vector
(A)
(B)
A velocity is given as
= 5xy + 2 y2 + 3yz2 . The divergence
The equation
The value of (
(A) 13.5
(B) 27.0
CE 2009
11. For a scalar function
f(x, y, z) = + 3 + 2 the gradient at
the point P (1, 2, 1) is
(A) 2 + 6 + 4
(C) 2 + 12 + 4
(D)
(B) 2 + 12 4
of this velocity vector at (1 1 1) is

(A) 9
(C) 14
(B) 10
(D) 15
8.
Mathematics
15.
th
(C) 3/2
(D)
Given a function
( )
The optimal value of f(x, y)
th
th
Page 78
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3

(B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3
(D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3
CE 2013
21.
CE 2011
16.
22.
(C) a
(D) 2a
magnitudes a and b respectively. | |

will be equal to
(A)
( )
(C)
+ ( )
(B) ab
(D) ab +
CE 2012
19. For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
sketch,
and
R
.
The area of the parallelogram is
Q
(C) 1
(D)
24.
A particle moves along a curve whose

parametric equation are :
and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y
and z show variations of the distance
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in cm ) at t = 0 is
___________
25.
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random

variable defined over the interval
(
) and its occurrence is defined
by the density function given as:
(C) 1
(D)
If and are two arbitrary vectors with
R
P
( )
wh
the statistical attributes of the random

variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) ad bc
(B) ac+bd
With reference to the conventional

Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the
vertices of a triangle have the following
coordinates:
(
)
( ) (
)
( )
(
)
( ). The area of the
triangle is equal to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) 0
(B)
(C) ad + bc
(D) ab cd
dx is
(A) 1
(B) 0.5
The infinity series
(A) sec
(B)
(C) 1
(D) 8/3
23.
20.
(A)
(B)
Wh ho
h
o such that
the function defined below is continuous
?
f(x)={
18.
The value of
(A) 0
(B) 1/15
CE 2014
(A) 0
(B) a/2
17.
Mathematics
26.
(C) o
(D)
(C)
(D)
The expression
(A) log x
(B) 0
th
th
(C) x log x
(D)
th
Page 79
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2005
1.
Let G(x)
CS 2010
1
g(i)xi where |x|<1.
2
(1 x) i0
What is g(i)?
(A) i
(B) i+1
(C) 2i
(D) 2i
CS 2007
2.
Consider the following two statements
about the function f(x) =|x|:
P: f(x) is continuous for all real values of x
Q: f(x) is differentiable for all real values
of x
Which of the following is true?
(A) P is true Q is false
(B) P is false Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true
(D) Both P and Q are false
CS 2008
3.
4.
x sinx
equals
Lim
x x cosx
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
Let
P=
7.
What is the value of

(A) 0
(B)
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
(D) 1
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) i
(D) i
CS 2012
9.
Consider the function f(x)= sin(x) in the
interval x , -. The number and
location(s) of the local minima of this
function are
(A) One , at
(B) One , at
(C) Two , at and
(D) Two , at and
CS 2013
10. Which one the following function is
continuous at x =3?
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
CS 2014
11. Let the function
( )
CS 2009
6.
/ ?
A point on a curve is said to be extreme if

it is a local minimum or a local maximum.
The number of distinct extrema for the
4
3
2
curve 3x 16x 24x 37 is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
CS 2011
8.
Given i = , what will be the
evaluation of the definite integral
where k is a positive integer. Then

(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
5.
Mathematics
(
(
Where
evaluates to
o
o (
o (
)
)
)
)
(
(
)|
)
1 and ( ) denote the
derivation of f with respect to . Which of

the following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) There exists
(C) ln2
(D)
ln 2
.
th
th
h h
th
( )
Page 80
GATE QUESTION BANK
(II) There exists

.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
13.
14.
(A)
h h
( )
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
(B)
A function f (x) is continuous in the

interval [0, 2]. It is known that
f(0) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = 1. Which one
of the following statements must be true?
(A) There exists a y in the interval (0,1)
such that f(y) = f(y + 1)
(B) For every y in the interval (0, 1),
f(y) = f(2 y)
(C) The maximum value of the function
in the interval (0, 2) is 1
(D) There exists a y in the interval (0, 1)
such that f(y)
(
)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2006
2.
As x is increased from
function f x
If and are 4 dimensional subspace

of a 6 dimensional vector space V, then
the smallest possible dimension of
is ____________.
If
dx = , then the value of k
e
1 ex
3
The integral sin d is given by
3.
1
2
2
(B )
3
(A)
(B)
, the
The value of the integral given below is
to
(A) monotonically increases

(B) monotonically decreases
(C) increases to a maximum value and
then decreases
(D) decreases to a minimum value and
then increases
is equal to_______.
15.
Mathematics
4
3
8
(D)
3
(A)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2005
1.
The derivative of the symmetric function
drawn in given figure will look like
(C)
P ds , where P is a vector, is
4.
equal to
(A) P dl
(C) P dl
(B) P dl
(D)
Pdv
P , where P is a vector, is equal to
5.
th
2
(A) P P P
(C) 2P P
2
(B) P P
(D) P 2P
th
th
Page 81
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2007
6.
For the function
, the linear
approximation around = 2 is
(A) (3 x)
(B) 1 x
ECE 2008
12. Consider points P and Q in the x y plane,
with P=(1,0) and Q=(0,1). The line
Q
integral 2 xdx ydy along the
(C) 3 2 2 1 2 x e
semicircle with the line segment PQ as its

diameter
(A) is 1
(B) is 0
(C) is 1
(D) depends on the direction (clockwise
or anticlockwise) of the semicircle
(D)
7.
8.
9.
10.
For x <<1, coth(x) can be

approximated as
(A) x
(C)
(B) x2
(D)
In the Taylor series expansion of

exp(x)+sin(x) about the point x= the
coefficient of (x )2 is
()
(A)
()
(C)
()
()
(B)
(D)
14.
Which of the following functions would

have only odd powers of x in its Taylor
series expansion about the point x=0?
(A) sin(x3)
(C) cos(x3)
2
(B) sin(x )
(D) cos(x2)
15.
The value of the integral of the function

g(x, y)=4x3+10y4 along the straight line
segment from the point (0,0) to the point
(1,2) in the x y plane is
(A) 33
(C) 40
(B) 35
(D) 56
16.
For real values of x, the minimum value of

the function f(x)=exp(x)+ exp( x) is
(A) 2
(C) 0.5
(B) 1
(D) 00
17.
Consider points P and Q in the x-y plane,

with P=(1, 0) and Q= (0, 1).
Which one of the following function is

strictly bounded?
2
(A)
(C) x
x
(B) e
(D)
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
11.
13.
Consider the function f(x) =
x 2.
The maximum value of f(x) in the closed
interval [ 4,4] is
(A) 18
(C) 2.25
(B) 10
(D) Indeterminate
sin /2
lim
is
0
(C) 2
(D) not defined
The following Plot shows a function y

which varies linearly with x. The value of
2
the integral I ydx is

1
Y
3
2
) along
(
the semicircle with the line segment PQ as
its diameter
(A) Is
(B) Is 0
(C) Is 1
h
1
1
Mathematics
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.0
(D) 5.0
th
th
th
Page 82
GATE QUESTION BANK
(D) Depends on the direction

(clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the
semicircle
21.
ECE 2009
18. The Taylor series expansion of
sinx
at x is given by
x
(A) 1
x 2 .....
3!
(B)
2
x
1
.....
(C)
2
x
1
.....
the value of the integral

(A) 3V
(B) 5V
3!
19.
3!
.....
If a vector field is related to another

, which
vector field through =
of the following is true? Note: C and
refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A) =
(B) =
(C)
(D)
ECE 2010
20. If
, then over the

path shown in the figure is
(A) 0
(B)
is
(C) 10V
(D) 15V
ECE\IN 2012
23. The direction of vector A is radially
outward from the origin, with
where
and K is
constant. The value of n for which
. A = 0 is
(A) 2
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 0
ECE\EE 2012
24. The maximum value of
( )
in the interval
[1,6] is
(A) 21
(C) 41
(B) 25
(D) 46
ECE 2013
25. The maximum value of unit which the
approximation
holds to within
10% error is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
26.
, then has a
maximum at
minimum at
maximum at
minimum at
ECE 2011
22. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a
volume V. If is the position vector of a
point inside S, with the unit normal of S,
3!
(D) 1
If
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Mathematics
is
(A) 0
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 83
GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
Consider a vector field ( ) The closed

loop line integral can be expressed
as
) over the closed
(A) (
surface boundary by the loop
(B) ( )dv over the closed volume
bounded by the loop
(C) ( )dv over the open volume
bounded by the loop
) over the closed surface
(D) (
bounded by the loop
Mathematics
34.
The magnitude of the gradient for the

function (
)
at the
point (1,1,1) is_______.
35.
The directional derivative of

( )
(
) ( )in the direction
of the unit vector at an angle of with

y axis, is given by ________________.
EE 2005
1.
For the scalar field u =
, magnitude
of the gradient at the point (1, 3) is

ECE 2014
28. The volume under the surface
z(x, y) = x+y and above the triangle in
the x-y plane defined by
{0 y x and 0 x 12} is______
29.
30.
For
function ( )
(A)
o
(B)
o
The value of
the maximum value of the

occurs at
(C)
(D)
o
.
(A)
(B)
(B)
2.
For the function f(x) =

, the
maximum occurs when x is equal to
(A) 2
(C) 0
(B) 1
(D) 1
3.
If S =
/ is
31.
The maximum value of the function

( )
(
)
(wh
)
occurs at x =____.
32.
The maximum value of

( )
0 x 3 is ______.
in the interval
EE 2006
4.
A surface S(x, y) = 2x + 5y 3 is
integrated once over a path consisting of
the points that satisfy
(x+1)2+ (y 1)2 = . The integral
evaluates to
(A) 17
(C) /17
(D) 0
(B) 17/
5.
33.
, then S has the value

(C)
(D) 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
The expression V = R (
for the volume of a cone is equal to
For a right angled triangle, if the sum of

the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side
is kept constant, in order to have
maximum area of the triangle, the angle
between the hypotenuse and the side is
(A) 12
(C) 60
(B) 36
(D) 45
th
(A) R (
(B) R (
(C)
(D)
th
R) h
R )
th
Page 84
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2007
6.
EE 2010
The integral
equals
(A)
(B) 0
) o
EE 2009
8.
f(x, y) is a continuous function defined
over (x, y) [0, 1] [0, 1]. Given the two
constraints, x > and y > , the
volume under f(x, y) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
9.
10.
11.
a minimum
a discontinuity
a point of inflection
a maximum
Divergence of the three-dimensional

radial vector field is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 1/r
(D)
(
)
13.
The value of the quantity P, where
(A) 0
(B) 1
, is equal to
(C) e
(D) 1/e
EE 2011
14. The two vectors [1, 1, 1] and [1, a,
where a = .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A cubic polynomial with real coefficients

(A) can possibly have no extrema and no
zero crossings
(B) may have up to three extrema and
upto 2 zero crossings
(C) cannot have more than two extrema
and more than three zero crossings
(D) will always have an equal number of
extrema and zero crossings
has
12.
)
(
At t = 0, the function ( )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C) (1/2) o
(D) (1/2)
EE 2008
7.
Consider function f(x)= (
) where
x is a real number. Then the function has
(A) only one minimum
(B) only two minima
(C) three minima
(D) three maxima
(D)
Mathematics
15.
],
/, are
orthonormal
orthogonal
parallel
collinear
The function f(x) = 2x

has
(A) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x=5
(B) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x= 5
(C) only a maxima at x = 1
(D) only a minima at x = 1
EE 2013
16. Given a vector field
, the line integral
F(x, y) = (
)
(
)
line integral over the straight line from

(
) = (0, 2) to (
) = (2, 0)
evaluates to
(A) 8
(C) 8
(B) 4
(D) 0
evaluated along a segment on the x

axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
(A) 2.33
(C) 2.33
(B) 0
(D) 7
17.
th
The curl of the gradient of the scalar field

defined by
(A)
th
th
Page 85
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B)
(C) (
(
(D)
19.
20.
21.
23.
( )
Where f and
v are scalar and vector fields respectively.
If
h
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
The minimum value of the function

( )
0 in the
interval ,
- is
(A) 20
(C) 16
(B) 28
(D) 32
EE 2014
18. Let ( )
. The maximum value of
the function in the interval (
) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The line integral of function
, in the
counterclockwise direction, along the
circle
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Minimum of the real valued function
(
) occurs at x equal to
( )
(A)
(C) 1
(B)
(D)
IN 2005
1.
A scalar field is given by f = x2/3 + y2/3,
where x and y are the Cartesian
coordinates. The derivative of f along the
line y = x directed away from the origin,
at the point (8, 8) is
To evaluate the double integral

.
( )
substitution u = (
/ dy, we make the

) and
2.
( ) (
( ) (
( ) (
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B) 0
3.
( )
is
(C) f(1)
(D) f(0)

(A) 2
(B) does not exist
(C)
(D)
is
2
(t) has a constant magnitude,

If a vector R
then
4.
A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s,

is traveling along x-axis with velocity
o . /
(D)
f(t) defined over [0,1],
(A) R
22.
(C)
Given a real-valued continuous function
. The
integral will reduce to

( ) (
Mathematics
(B) R
5.
(C) R
(D) R
If f =
+
+
where ai (i = 0 to n) are constants,
At t = 3 s, the difference between the

distance covered by the particle and the
magnitude of displacement from the
origin is _________
then
is
(A)
(B)
th
th
(C) nf
(D) n
th
Page 86
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
The plot of a function f(x) is shown in the

following figure. A possible expression for
the function f(x) is
f(x)
(B) once differentiable but not twice

(C) twice differentiable but not thrice
(D) thrice differentiable
11.
0
(A)
(C)
(B)
. /
(D)
. /
IN 2006
7.
The function
(
) is
approximated as
where is in
radian. The maximum value of for
which the error due to the approximation
is within
(A) 0.1 rad
(C) 0.3 rad
(B) 0.2 rad
(D) 0.4 rad
()
( )
(A) (
()
))
(B) (
()
))
()
))
()
))
()
(D) (
) ( )
( ))
( ))
13.
The expression
(A)
(B) x
14.
Given y =
(A)
(B)
10.
(C)
(D)
Consider the function f(x) =

, where x
is real. Then the function f(x) at x = 0 is
(A) continuous but not differentiable
+ 2x + 10, the value of
(C) 12
(D) 13
15.
(A) Indeterminate
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D)
IN 2009
16. A sphere of unit radius is centered at the
origin. The unit normal at a point (x, y, z)
on the surface of the sphere is
(A) (x, y, z)
(C) .
/
IN 2007
9.
dx dy is.
for x > 0 is equal to

(C)
(D)
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 4
(B) .
(C)
(D)
is.
IN 2008
12. Consider the function y = x2 6x + 9. The
maximum value of y obtained when x
varies over the interval 2 to 5 is
(A) 1
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 9
The solution of the integral equation

()
(C)
For real x, the maximum value of

(A) 1
(B) e 1
8.
Mathematics
(D) .
IN 2010
17. The electric charge density in the region
R:
is given as
( )
, where x and y are in
meters. The total charge (in coulomb)
contained in the region R is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 0
th
th
th
Page 87
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
The integral
evaluates to
(A) 6
(B) 3
19.
/ sin(t) dt
23.
A scalar valued function is defined

as ( )
, where A is a
symmetric positive definite matrix with
dimension n n ; b and x are vectors of
dimension n1. The minimum value of
( ) will occur when x equals
)
(A) (
(C) .
/
)
(B) (
(D)
24.
Given
()
()
o .
(C) 1.5
(D) 0
The infinite series

( )
converges to
(A) cos (x)
(B) sin(x)
(C) sinh(x)
(D)
IN 2011
20.
The series
for
(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The
o w
(A) A circle
(B) A multi-loop closed curve
(C) Hyperbola
(D) An ellipse
converges
(C)
(D)
IN 2013
21. For a vector E, which one the following
statement is NOT TRUE?
(A)
E
E
o o
(B) If
E
E is called conservative
(C) If
E
E is called irrotational
(D)
E
E
-rotational
IN 2014
22. A vector is defined as
are unit vectors in

Where
Cartesian (
) coordinate system.
The surface integral f.ds over the
closed surface S of a cube with vertices
having the following coordinates:
(0,0,0),(1,0,0),(1,1,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1),
(1,0,1),(1,1,1),(0,1,1) is________
th
th
th
Page 88
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
=
=
Since, potential function of is xyz

(
) (
)
(
)
2.
0 o
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
o
9.
[Ans. B]
10.
[Ans. B]
(
For V to be max
This is of the form . /
Hence, h
Applying L hospital rule

(
3.
[Ans. A]
. /
=
(
=
=
11.
4.
[Ans. A]
(
After changing order

5.
[Ans. A]
I= (
=2
[Ans. B]
Let the vectors be
)
( )( )( )
= 2
6.
[Ans. A]
A Line integral and a surface integral is
connected by stokes theorem
7.
[Ans. B]
Now Area vector will be perpendicular to

plane of
i.e.
will be the required unit vector.
And option (A), (D) cannot give a vector
product
)|
|( ) (
12.
[Ans. B]
Applying Hospital rule, we get

I=
8.
[Ans. A]
Given:
I=
For
0 1
]
th
th
th
Page 89
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
14.
But y is always greater than x.

Hence y= 4 only.
[Ans. B]
Since interval given is bounded, so
minimum value of functions is 1.
= 0
Now by partial fractions,

(a3 8) = (a 2)(a2+2a+4)
) |
L=
[Ans. D]
To see whether the integrals are bounded
or unbounded, we need to see that the
o
h
h
interval of integration. Let us write down
the range of the integrands in the 4
options,
Thus, (D) , i.e.,
[Ans. B]
h
19.
o
(
). (
( )
( )
( )
( )
Coefficient of (x- )
Now f(x)= ex
(x)= ex
(a)= ea
( )
Hence for a=2,

20.
[Ans. D]
div {(
(
Hence directional derivative is

(grad (x2+2y2+z)).
[Ans. C]
Taylor series expansion of f(x) about a is
given by
( )
dx is unbounded.
along a vector
(2x
(
(
A (0,1); B (0,1); C (0, ); D (0, )
16.
[Ans. B]
Let x= a3 a=2
=1.22
15.
).dx
= (
L=
L = (
=
18.
= (
[Ans. D]
h
Mathematics
)
(
)}
(
)
=3
21.
[Ans. C]
=
Hence at (1,1,2),
Directional derivative =
17.
[Ans. A]
I = .dx dy
The limit of y is form 0 to
and limit
of x from 0 to 2
I =
( )
(
(
)(
)
)
/
th
th
th
Page 90
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
[Ans. A]
Given:
23.
y2 4x
x2 4y
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Short method:
Take a point on the curve z = 1, x = 0,
y=0
Length between origin and this point
)
(
)
(
) =1
(
This is minimum length because all
options have length greater than 1.
(4,4)
(0,0)
24.
x4
4x
16
[Ans. B]
Y
or x4 64x
or x(x 64) 0
3
or x3 64
or x 4
x = cos
y=sin
y 4
Required area = .
Path is x2 y2 1
R e
(x y)2 1 2sin cos
2 x3
2 x3 2
3 120
4
64
(4)3 2
3
12
32 16 16

3 3 3
cos2
(1 sin2)d
2 0
0
=
Alternately
For point where both parabolas cut each
other
1 1
1
2 2 2 2
Alternately
Given: x2 y2 1
Put x=cos , and y=sin
y2 4x, x2 4y
x y 2 cos2 sin2 2sincos
x 4 4x
2
= 1 sin2
or x2 8 x
or x4 64x
or x3 64
x 4,0 ,(4,0)
x2
dx
0 4

1
2
4x
0
cos2
1 1

2 0 2 2 2
Required area
4
2 x3 16
2 x3 2
3 120 3
25.
[Ans. C]
F 3xzi 2xyj yz2k

th
th
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Page 91
GATE QUESTION BANK
3z 2x 2yz
At point (1, 1, 1), divergence =3+2 2=3

26.
30.
||
31.
(
27.
( )
[Ans. D]
Standard limit formulae
32.
[Ans. B]
33.
[Ans. C]
The function is continuous in [ 1, 1]
It is also differentiable in [ 1, 1] except at
x = 0.
Since Left derivative = 1 and
Right derivative = 1 at x = 0
34.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. C]
y is continuous for all x

differentiable for all x
since at
R, and
R, except at
Using this standard limit, here a = 1 then

= ( ) /2 =1/2
value towards the left and right side of
35.
[Ans. D]
( )
( )
( )
( )
f(x) has a point of inflection at x =0.
36.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
,
29.
( )
28.
[Ans. D]
If f(x) even function
||
* +
[Ans. D]
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
Volume from x = 1 to x = 2,
th
th
)
th
Page 92
GATE QUESTION BANK
38.
37.
[Ans. A]
By Gauss Divergence theorem,
( )
The unit outward normal vector at point

P is
(
Mathematics
(Surface Integral is transformed to

volume Integral)
( )
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed is shown below as
shaded
( )
( )
(
The coordinates of point P and Q is

obtained by solving
y = x and y = simultaneously,
i.e. x =
)
(
Now, x = 0
which is point Q(0,0)
and x = 1
which is point
P(1,1)
So required area is
39.
[Ans. C]
( ) ( )
Using Integration by parts
Here,
f=ln(x) and dg=
and g=
* +
o
( ) ( )
* +
[
th
th
( )
]
)
th
Page 93
GATE QUESTION BANK
40.
[Ans. A]
o
So the minimum value is
[Differentiating both
o
o
Hospital method]
o w
. /
45.
41.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
o
o
o
( )
( )
( )
otherwise it is said to be discontinuous.

So the most appropriate option is D.
[Ans. B]
G
o
46.
[Ans. C]
Div
Vectors are linearly dependent

42.
[Ans. B]
(
)
)
( )
,
o ( )( )
( )
o ( )( )
43.
47.
-
ho
[Ans. B]
Let
(
o (
[Ans. A]
[
[
]
)
48.
)]
()
[
,
(
44.
)
(
(
)
)
)]
(
,
(
[Ans. B]

)]
,
)
[
[Ans. *] Range 1.00 to 0.94

h
o
th
th
]
-
th
Page 94
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
a =2a cos i.e, cos

[Ans C]
G
theorem is
((
( )
= y and
)-
( )
. /
. /
[Ans. D]
Since the position of rail engine S(t) is
continuous and differentiable function
according to Lagranges mean value
theorem more
)
o )
o
(t) = v(t) =
*
(
( )
)+
m/sec
kmph
4.
[Ans. C]
f = 2 +3
= 126 kmph
Where v(t) is the velocity of the rail
engine.
3.
= 2y
h o
I=
= xy
Here I = (
2.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
h
o h
r=2acos
(i) r = a represents a circle with centre
(
)

(ii) r = 2acos represents a circle
symmetric about OX with centre at
( )

The circles are shown in figure below. At
h
o o
o

P
y Q
3
= 4xi + 6yj + 2zk

At P (2, 1, 3)
Directional derivation
(
)
(
)
( )
( )
( )
( )
5.
[Ans. A]
Potential function,
th
th
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Page 95
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Integrating
[Ans. D]
Put
wh
Mathematics
( )
Now given equation is

.. (ii)
6.
[Ans. B]
Let I()
= (
dx ( )
=
) [ from eqn(i)]
Then Integrating by parts we get,

=
o )1
=
dI =
Integrating, I =
( )
() ( )
+C=0
C=
()
( )
Now substitute in eqn (ii) we get

h
h
I(0) =
But from equation (i), I(0) =
dx
dx =
h
h
Which is the desired form

7.
[Ans. D]
=5 +2
+ 3y
( )
9.
[Ans. C]
=0

If = 0
= 5y + 4y + 6yz
At(1, 1, 1)
div ( ) = 5.1 + 4.1 + 6.1.1
= 15
is the correct transformation.
o
Since P and Q are non-zero vectors
o
0
th
th
th
Page 96
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. A]
Since the limit is a function of x. We first
integrate w.r.t. y and then w.r.t. x
)
[Ans. D]
Length of curve f(x) between x = a and
x = b is given by
13.
Mathematics
+
Here,
4h ( )
= 8h
Since
(
and y = h at x =
* ( )
*
(As can be seen from equation (i), by

substituting x = 0 and x = L/2)
( )+
(Length of cable)
ho
11.
[Ans. B]
f = + 3 +2
f = grad f = i
+j
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. A]
( )
+k
= i(2x) + j(6y) + k(4z)

The gradient at P(1, 2, 1) is
= i(21) + j(62) + k(4 ( ))
= 2i + 12j 4k
12.
14.
[Ans. B]
(
Putting,
o
(
Given,
/ is the only stationary point.
+
.
th
th
th
Page 97
GATE QUESTION BANK
Since the limit is in form of
+
.
ho
and get
+
.
Since,
We have either a maxima or minima at
o ()
18.
Also since, r=0

)
[Ans. A]
= 8 > 0, the point
19.
o -
[Ans. A]
Area = | |

R (
So the optimal value of f(x, y) is a
)
o
The minimum value is

(
, we can use
Since,
Mathematics
minimum equal to
16.

R

R
[Ans. B]
Let I =
Since ( )
I=
( )
20.
[Ans. B]
21.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
( )
(i) + (ii) 2I =
2I =
2I = |
I = a/2
17.
[Ans. C]
For a function f(x) to be continuous,
at x=a
( )
( )
o
(
If f(x) is continuous at x=
. /
th
th
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Page 98
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Substituting the values we get

(
)
(
)
(
)
|
|
24.
[Ans. 12]
o )
( )
o ( )
( )
[
22.
Magnitude of acceleration
[Ans. C]
(
)
(
25.
[Ans. B]
We have
)
( )
, ow
( )
=1+0=1
Hence correct option is (C)
23.
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
(4, 3)
a
(2, 2)
b
( )
0.5
(1, 0)
0.5
o wh
o ordinate points are
given is given by
th
th
th
Page 99
GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
[Ans. A]
Use L hospital Rule
=
4.
=1
[Ans. A]
P=
= log x
1
n 1 r
Cr xr
n
1 x r0
r 0
r 0
r 0
i 0
5.
= 12
g(i) =i+1
24
48
+ 37
48 x = 0
x=
=2
[Ans. A]
f(x)= |x|
Continuity: In other words,
f(x) = x o
x for x< 0
Since,
=
=0 ,
f (x) is continuous for all real values of x
Differentiability:
96x
48
= 36
Now at x = 0
=
48
At 2 also
0 (using
calculator)
There are 3 extrema in this function
( )
6.
( )
[Ans. D]
Since ( )
R h
So |x| is continuous but not differentiable
at x=0
3.
x (12 48x 48 ) = 0
x = 0 or 12 48x 48 = 0
4x 4 = 0
()
[Ans. D]
y = 3 16
(since r is a dummy variable, r can be

replaced by i)
r 1 xr i 1 xi
1)
w h
(
r1 Cr xr r1 C1xr
1
21 r
Cr xr
1 x 2 r0
Putting n=2,
2.
=
Q=
[Ans. B]
w h a =1, l=2k 1
P= (
CS
1.
Mathematics
I =
=
= (
)
(
Since tan (A B) =
[Ans. A]
=
th
th
th
Page 100
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
9.
[Ans. B]
f(x) = sin x
( )
o
( )
o

(
(
)
)
(
(
)
)
( )
At
. /
gives maximum
value
=,
)-
At
= ln ( sec ) ln (sec 0)
= ln ( )
= ln (
. /
value
( )
10.
)0=
[Ans. A]
For x =
7.
[Ans. B]
(
8.
) [
*(
) +
) +
.
11.
[Ans. C]
By Mean value theorem
12.
[Ans. A]
Define g(x) = f(x) f(x + 1) in [0, 1]. g(0)
is negative and g(1) is positive. By
intermediate value theorem there is
(
)
h h g(y) = 0
That is f(y) = f(y + 1)
Thus Answer is (A)
13.
[Ans. 2]
*
w
+
*
w +
For min
maximum non common
elements must be there
*
+
must be common to any 2 elements
of V1
(
)minimum value = 2
o
o
+
[
-(
, f(x) =
For x = , f(x) = 3 1 = 2
For x = 3, f(x) = 2
(
) (
) = f(3)
[Ans. D]
gives minimum
th
th
th
Page 101
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
Mathematics
[Ans. 4]
(
)
o
o ()
Hence option (A) is correct
o
o
)
ECE
1.
[Ans. C]
dy
0 for x< 0
dx
dy
0 for x> 0
dx
o
Substituting the limits
o ()
o ( )
2.
[Ans. A]
Given,
f x
f ' x
1 e .e e
1 e
3.
= x cos
x 2
2x
ex
1 ex
Let cos = t
At
o
o
o
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
= o ( ) o
=
LHS = I + II =
15.
ex
1 ex
th
th
th
Page 102
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given, f x x2 x 2
df x
0
dx
4.
2x 1=0
[Ans. A]
o h o
)
1
2
d2f x
= 2 ve
dx2
So it shows only minima for interval
[ 4, 4], it contains a maximum value that
will be at x= 4 or x=4
f( 4)=18 and f(+4)=10
5.
6.
[Ans. D]
From vector triple product
(
)
(
)
(
)
Here,
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
( )
[Ans. D]
y f x ; x 0,
[Ans. A]
( )
f x0
For strictly bounded, 0 limy
2
x x0 f' x0 x x0 f'' x0
......
e (x 2)(e
2
x0
or 0 lim y
x 2
)
x
2
So, y e x is strictly bounded
e ......
2
x 22 ......
e2 3 x
(Neglecting higher power of x)
7.
9.
10.
lim
0
ex e x
ex ex
x x2 x3
e 1 ..........
1 2 3
11.
ex 1
[Ans. B]
Two points on line are ( 1, 0) and (0, 1)
Hence line equation is,
y y
y 2 1 x c
x2 x1
y x c
y x 1 ( )
x x2 x3
..........
1 2 3
x2 x4
..........
ex ex
2 4
x x
e e
x3 x5
x ..........
3 5
1
or cot h (x)=
sin /2
1 sin /2
lim
0 2
/2
1 sin /2 1
= lim
2 0 /2 2
[Ans. C]
coth (x)=
[Ans. A]
2
2
5
I ydx x 1dx 2.5
2
1
1
1
x
(Since at x=1,y=2)
(Neglecting x2 and higher order)
th
th
th
Page 103
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. B]
Taking f(x, y)= xy, we can show that,
xdx+ydy, is exact. So, the value of the
integral is independent of path
15.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given : g x,y 4x3 10y 4

The straight line can be expressed as
y=2x
Then g(x,y)=4x3+ 10 (2x)4
(0, 1)
4
I 4x3 10 2x dx 4x3 160x4 dx
0
0
1
4x4 160 5
=
x 33
5 0
4
(1, 0)
[Ans. A]
f(x)= +
(x)=
=0 x=0
(x)= +
>0 x R.
Hence minimum at x=0
f(0)=1+1=2
Alternatively:
For any even function the maxima &
minima can be found by
A.M. >= GM
=> exp(x) + exp( x) 2
Hence minimum value = 2
17.
[Ans. B]
[ |
13.
16.
| ]
[Ans. B]
Let f(x) ex sinx
o
2
x a
f x f a x a f'a
f''a
2!
where, a=
2
x
f x f x f'
f''
2!
Coefficient of (x )2 is
f ''
2
f'' ex sinx |at x e
Coefficient of (x )2=0.5 exp ()

14.
[Ans. A]
o
Thus, (
( )w
o ( )w
o ( )w
)w
h
h
h
[ |
| ]
o
ow
ow
ow
ow
th
th
th
Page 104
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
21.
[Ans. D]
sinx = x
= (x )
y=
or
19.
sin x = (x )
or
=1
)
(
= 1
)
(
....
(
)
...
....
( )
....
Therefore, at
22.
( )
and is the position vector)
23.
has a maximum.
[Ans. D]
Apply the divergence theorem
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
. /
* +
)
)
25.
[Ans. B]
( )
)]
(
(
)]
[Ans. C]
( )
, ( )
( )
( )
are the stationary points

( )
( )
( )
and f(2) = 25 and f(4)=21
M
o ( ) , f(6)=41
. /
24.
]
]
. /
along PQ y =1 dy =0]
= [
Since
[Ans. D]
o h o
=
According Stokes Theorem

=
20.
[Ans. A]
....
sin (x )
or
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 105
GATE QUESTION BANK
30.
[Ans. C]
E o
E o
31.
[Ans. *] Range
( )
(
)
( )
=1+1+1
=3
[Ans. D]
o h o
h
integral of a
vector around a closed path L is equal

to the integral of curl of over the open
32.
33.
)
)
)
)
[Ans. C]
Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side)
and z (hypotenuse side) of a right angled
triangle
29.

Maximum value is 6
( )
( )
(
(
(
(

Volume under the surface
(
)
( )
h
28.
to 0.01
( )
[Ans. D]
27.
26.
Mathematics
Given
)(
[Ans. A]
o
( )
( )
( )
Since ( ) is negative, maximum value of
f(x) will be where ( )
o
0(
o
( )
( )
( )
oh
( (
(
th
th
)(
))
)
th
Page 106
GATE QUESTION BANK
By trial and error method using options
34.
Now at x = 2
(2) =
(
)
=
(
)
= 2
<0
At x = 2 we have a maxima.
3.
[Ans. *] Range 2.99 to 3.01
At (1, 1),
Given unit vector,
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. D]
We consider options (A) and (D) only
because which contains variable r.
By integrating (D), we get
, which is volume of cone.
6.
[Ans. D]
By property of definite integral
)
)
=3
)
( )
(
On simplification we get option (D)
[Ans. C]
Grad u =
At (1, 3) Grad u =
,( )
7.
[Ans. B]
f(x) = (
)
(x) = 2(
)
=4x(
) =0
x = 0, x = 2 and x = 2 are the stationary
points.
(x) = 4[x(2x) +(
) ]
= 4[2
= 4 [3
= 12
(0) =
< 0, maxima at x = 0
(2) =(12)
= 32 > 0, minima at x =
( 2) =12(
)
= 32 > 0; minima at x =
There is only one maxima and only two
minima for this function.
=
2.
4.
So, directional derivative

(
)
(
EE
1.
[Ans. C]
At (1, 1, 1)
| |
35.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
f(x) =
(x) =
( )
=
(
)
Putting ( (x) = 0
(
)=0
(
)=0
x = 0 or x = 2 are the stationary points.
Now,
(
) (
(x) =
)(
)
=
(
(
))
=
(
)
(
)=2
At x = 0,
(0) =
Since (x) = 2 is > 0 at x = 0 we have a
minima.
th
th
th
Page 107
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
= ,
=, (
= (
[Ans. A]
))
) =1
14.
[Ans. B]
Dot product of two vectors
=1+a+ =0
So orthogonal
15.
[Ans. C]
f(x) =
( )
( )
So the equation f(x) having only maxima
at x = 1
16.
[Ans. B]
9.
10.
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
[Ans. D]
=(
)
(
(
) = (0, 2)
(
) = (2, 0)
Equation of starting line
11.
)
y = 2 x and dy = dx
17.
o
( )
.(
||
(
(
=0
||
) /
is undefined
[Ans. A]
Div ( )
=.
Discontinuous
/(
18.
= 1+1+1= 3
13.
[Ans. D]
But at
12.
[Ans. B]
(
Along x axis ,y=0,z=0

The integral reduces to zero.
y = 2 x , dy = dx
=(
(
)
Putting

[Ans. B]
P=
th
[Ans. A]
( )
o
M
th
) (
) (
(
( )
th
) (
) (
)
(
Page 108
)
)
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
/1
)( )(
23.
[Ans. A]
( )

( )
( )
24.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
)(
(
( )
( )
( )
)
)
20.
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
(
)
For number of values of
)
o
( ) (
( ) (
( )
( )
)
( )
( )
M
21.
[Ans. B]
IN
1.
G
o
[Ans. A]
Unit vector along y = x is

G
(
(
22.
[Ans. 2]
(
o .
/.
2.
[Ans. D]
Using L Hospital Rule., numerator
becomes =
From the graph, distance at
th
th
()
= ( )
th
Page 109
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. B]
Mathematics
When
Given integral is, I=
( )
Let f(x) = so curve of 1/
will be
And when
f(x)
( )
The possible expression for f(x) is

1
.
7.
-1
[Ans. B]
Error,
This curve will be discontinuous at x=0

o
w
o
For error to be minimum

(
4.
[Ans. A]
(t) =x (t) +y (t) +
Let R
z (t)
( ) =K (constant)
|R
i.e., (t) + (t) + (t) = constant.
On analyzing the given (A) option, we find
(t)
that R
( )
[Ans. C]
Given :
f=
+
where,
will give constant magnitude,
+
(i=0 to n) are constant.
+(n 1)
+
and
so first differentiation of the integration will

be zero.
5.
=0+
(n 1)
+n
+
= ,
= nf
6.
[Ans. B]
( )
8.
[Ans. B]
()
When
( )
( )
( )
Differentiating the above equation
When
( )
th
th
th
Page 110
GATE QUESTION BANK
()
14.
()
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Given y = x2 + 2x + 10
= 2x + 2
( ) -
|
From equation (i)
()
()
()
()
This is Leibnitz linear equation

Integrating factor I.F =
the solution is
()
15.
[Ans. C]
By definition
16.
[Ans. A]
()
Unit vector=
=xi+yj+zk
and
17.
[Ans. C]
R:
Y
( )
1
1
,
[Ans. D]
10.
[Ans. A]
This is a standard question of
differentiability & continuity
Area =
[Ans. C]
y=
=(
- o
9.
11.
+1
( )
Total charge =
=
=
18.
).(cos x + sin x) = 0
tan x = 1
Or x =
coulomb.
[Ans. B]
We know that
() (
( )wh
. /
y will be maximum at x =
y=
19.
=
12.
13.
[Ans. C]
y(2) =
y(5) =
[Ans. B]
Expansion of sin x
........
( )
( )
20.
[Ans. B]
In a G.P
For a G.P to converge
[Ans. C]
y=
y=
th
th
th
Page 111
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
[Ans. D]
.E=0 is not irrational (it is solenoidal)
22.
[Ans. 1]
From Gauss divergence theorem, we have

/dxdydz
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
24.
[Ans. D]
o .
23.
th
th
th
Page 112
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Differential Equations
ME 2005
1.
If x
xy
n y
what is y
(A) e
(B) 1
then
(C)
(D)
(B) degree 1 order 1

(C) degree 2 order 1
(D) degree 2 order 2
ME 2007
7.
2.
3.

and 3.
The complete solution of the ordinary
y
y
p
qy
s
x
x
y
Then, p and q are
(A) p =3, q = 3
(C) p =4, q = 3
(B) p =3, q = 4
(D) p =4, q = 4
Which of the following is a solution of the
y
y
p
q
y
x
x
(A)
(C) x
(B) x
(D) x
The solution of
For
ME 2008
8.
It is given that
+ 2y + y = 0, y (0) = 0,
y(1) = 0. What is y (0.5)?
(A) 0
(C) 0.62
(B) 0.37
(D) 1.13
9.
Given that x + 3x = 0, and x(0) = 1,

x (0) = 0, what is x(1)?
(A) 0.99
(C) 0.16
(B) 0.16
(D) 0.99
ME 2009
10.
+ 3y =
, the particular
integral is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
The solution of x
with the
(A) y
(C) y
(B) y
(D) y
ME 2010
11.
+
The solution of the differential equation
(A) (1+ x)
(C) (1 x)
(B) (1+ x)
(D) (1
The Blasius equation,
, is a
(A) second order non-linear ordinary

(B) third order non-linear ordinary
(C) third order linear ordinary
(D) mixed order non-linear ordinary
2
dy
2xy ex with y (0) = 1 is:
dx
6.
(D) 2 x 2
(B) x 1
condition y
+4
with initial value
y (0) = 1 is bounded in the interval

(C) x 1,x 1
(A) x
ME 2006
4.
x)
The partial differential equation

(
)= 0 has
(A) degree 1 order 2

th
th
th
Page 113
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2011
12. Consider
the
differential
x
,yt
x
,yt
equation
y x. The general solution with

constant c is
(A) y
t n
(B) y
t n (
(C) y
t n ( )
(D) y
t n(
17.
18.
differential
y
equation
with the boundary
(B) s n ( )
(D)
partial
u
15.
19.
s n( )
differential
equation
is a
linear equation of order 2

non linear equation of order 1
linear equation of order 1
non linear equation of order 2
subjected to the boundary conditions

u(0) = 0 and u(L) = U, is
(A) u
(C) u
(
)
(
(D) u
y and
x
,y-
x
+ ,y-
x
+ ,y-
y is
20.
with
t
__________
The general solution of the differential

os x
constant, is
(A) y s n x
(B) t n (
(C)
os (
(D) t n (
y with c as a
x
Consider two solution x(t) = x t and

x t
x t of the differential equation
x t
x t
t
su t t
t
x t
x
|
t
x t
|
t
t
s
(A) 1
(B) 1
x t
x t
| t
(C) 0
(D)
The solution of the initial value problem

xy y
ME 2014
16. The matrix form of the linear system
x
,yt
at x
The wronskian W(t) =|
where k is a constant,
x
+ ,y-
If y = f(x) is the solution of
The solution to the differential equation
(B) u
conditions of y(0) =0 and y(1) = 1. The

complete solution of the differential
equation is
(A) x
(C)
s n( )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
x
+ ,y-
the boundary conditions y
the
ME 2013
14. The
equation
ME 2012
13. Consider
x
t n
Mathematics
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2005
1.
Transformation to
substituting v = y
linear form by
of the equation
+ p(t)y = q(t)y ; n > 0 will be

(A)
th
+ (1 n)pv = (1 n)q
th
th
Page 114
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
(B)
+ (1 n)pv = (1+n)q
(C)
+ (1+n)pv = (1 n)q
(D)
+ (1+n)pv = (1+n)q
CE 2007
6.
The degree of the differential equation
+ 2x = 0 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
in the range
(A)
(B)
y
x
( os x
( os x
(C)
( os x
(D)
( os x
( )
7.
The solution for the differential equation

= x y with the condition that y = 1 at
is given by
x = 0 is
s n x)
(B) In(y) =
s n x)
s n x)
8.
xy
+4
(D) y =
A body originally at 600C cools down to

C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of 250C. What will be the
temperature of the body at the end of 30
minutes?
(A) 35.20C
(C) 28.70C
0
(B) 31.5 C
(D) 150C
CE 2008
9.
The general solution of

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

x
(C) In(y) =
(A) y =
s n x)
CE 2006
3.
A spherical naphthalene ball expanded to
the atmosphere losses volume at a rate
proportional to its instantaneous surface
area due to evaporation. If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months,
the ball completely evaporates in
(A) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(B) 9 months
(D) Infinite time
+ y = 0 is
y = P cos x + Q sin x
y = P cos x
y = P sin x
y=Psn x
given that at x = 1,
10.
y = 0 is
5.
(C) 2
(D) 3
The solution of
y
4.
Mathematics
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
= 0.25 y is to be
solv us ng t b w r
mpl t Eul rs
method with the boundary condition y = 1 at
x = 0 and with a step size of 1. What would
be the value of y at x = 1?
(A) 1.33
(C) 2.00
(B) 1.67
(D) 2.33
Solution of
(A) x
(B) x
at x = 1 and y = is
y
y
(C) x
(D) x
y
y
CE 2009
11. Solution of the differential equation
3y
+ 2x = 0 represents a family of
(A) Ellipses
(B) Parabolas
(C) circles
(D) hyperbolas
CE 2010
12. The order and degree of the differential
equation
+ 4 ( )
respectively
(A) 3 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
th
th
= 0 are
(C) 3 and 3
(D) 3 and 1
th
Page 115
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
The solution to the ordinary differential

equation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14.
y=
y=
y=
y=
The following differential equation has

3
d2y dy
4 y2 2 x
dt2
dt
(A) degree=2, order=1
(B) degree=1, order=2
(C) degree=4, order=3
(D) degree=2, order=3
6y = 0 is
+
+
+
+
The partial differential equation that can

be formed from z = ax + by + ab has the
form (w t p
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
n q
Mathematics
ECE 2006
3.
For the differential equation
z = px + qy
z = px + pq
z = px + qy + pq
z = qx + pq
the boundary conditions are

(i) y=0 for x=0 and
(ii) y=0 for x=a
The form of non-zero solutions of y
(where m varies over all integers) are
m x
y
sn
CE 2011
15. The solution of the differential equation
+ = x, with the condition that y = 1 at
x = 1, is
(A) y =
(D) y =
CE 2012
16. The solution of the ordinary differential
y=0 for the boundary
condition, y=5 at x = 1 is
(A) y
(C) y
(B) y
(D) y
CE 2014
17. The
os
m x
(C) y = +
(B) y = +
equation
d2y
k2y 0
2
dx
integrating
for
the
equation
(A)
(B)
ECE 2007
4.
d2y
y y 2 under the boundary
dx2
conditions
(i) y=y1 at x=0 and
(ii) y=y2 at x=, where k, y1 and y2 are
constants, is
(A) y
y
y
xp( x ) y
(B) y
y
y
xp x
y
(C) y
y
y s n x
y
(D) y
y
y
xp x
y
k2
differential
s
(C)
(D)
ECE 2005
1.
A solution of the following differential
equation is given by
d2y
dy
5 6y 0
dx
dx2
ECE 2008
5.
Which of the following is a solution to the
2x
3x
(A) y e e
2x
3x
(C) y e e
2x
3x
(B) y e e
2x
3x
(D) y e e
(A)
t
(B) x t
th
th
x t
x t
(C) x t
(D) x t
th
t
t
Page 116
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2009
6.
The order of the differential equation
ECE 2011
10. The solution of the differential equation
d2y dy
y4 et is
dt 2 dt
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
7.
Match each differential equation in Group

I to its family of solution curves from
Group II.
Group I
Group II
1. Circles
dy y
P.
dx x
dy
y
Q.
dx
x
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. Hyperbolas
dy
x
dx
y
y x
(C) y
(D) y
ECE\EE\IN 2012
11. With initial condition x(1) = 0.5, the
solution of the differential equation,
t
t is
(A) x
(C) xt
(B) x
(D) x
ECE\IN 2012
12. Consider the differential equation
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
wt y t |
n
|
num r
l v lu o
(A)
(B)
x with the initial condition
y
s ng Eul rs rst or r m t o
with a step size of 0.1, the value of y
is
(A) 0.01
(C) 0.0631
(B) 0.031
(D) 0.1
A function n x satisfies the differential
equation
is
(A) x
(B) x
P-2, Q-3, R-3, S-1

P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-1
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-3
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-2
ECE 2010
8.
Consider a differential equation
9.
y y
2. Straight Lines
dy x
R.
dx y
S.
Mathematics
where L is a
constant. The boundary conditions are:

n
and n
. The solution to
this equation is
(A) n x
xp x
(B) n x
xp x
(C) n x
xp x
(D) n x
xp x
y
|
t
(C)
(D) 1
ECE 2013
13. A system described by a linear, constant
coefficient,
ordinary,
first
order
differential equation has an exact solution
given by y t or t
when the forcing
function is x(t) and the initial condition is
y(0). If one wishes to modify the system
so that the solution becomes 2y(t) for
t > 0, we need to
(A) Change the initial condition to y(0)
and the forcing function to 2x(t)
(B) Change the initial condition to 2y(0)
and the forcing function to x(t)
(C) Change the initial condition to
j y(0) and the forcing function to
j x(t)
(D) Change the initial condition to
2y (0) and the forcing function to
2x(t)
th
th
th
Page 117
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2014
14. If the characteristic equation of the
y
t
15.
has two equal roots,
n t v lu s o
(A) 1
(B) 0,0
r
(C) j
(D) 1/2
xy
(C)
(B)
xy
(D)
(B) x t
(C) x t
(D) x t
EE 2011
3.
With K as a constant, the possible solution
for the first order differential equation
is
Which ONE of the following is a linear

non-homogeneous differential equation,
where x and y are the independent and
dependent variables respectively?
(A)
Mathematics
xy
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
EE 2013
4.
A function y
x
x is defined over
an open interval x = (1,2). At least at one
point in this interval ,
16.
17.
18.
If z
xy ln xy then
(A) x
(C) x
(B) y
(D) y
If a and b are constants, the most general

solution of the differential equation
x
x
x
s
t
t
(A)
(C)
bt
(B)
bt
(D)
(A) 20
(B) 25
tx
6.
x
x
(A) x t
with initial conditions

|
t
, the solution is
(B) s n t
os t
(C) s n t
os t
(D) os t
Consider
the
EE 2005
1.
The solution of the first order differential
qu t on x t
3x(t), x (0) = x is
(A) x (t) = x
(C) x (t) = x
(B) x (t) = x
(D) x (t) = x
EE 2010
2.
For the differential equation
(C) 30
(D) 35
EE 2014
5.
x
x w t n t l on t ons x
t
x
n
|
s
t
(A) t
t
With initial values y(0) = y (0) = 1, the

solution of the differential equation
y
is exactly
differential
equation
Which of the following is a solution to this

differential equation for x > 0?
(A)
(C) x
(D) ln x
(B) x
IN 2005
1.
The general solution of the differential
equation (D2 4D +4)y = 0, is of the form
(given D = d/dx), and C1 and C2 are
constants
(A) C1e2x
(C) C1e2x + C2 e2x
2x
(B) C1e + C2
(D) C1e2x + C2x
th
th
th
Page 118
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
urv s or w
t
urv tur t
3
any point is equal to cos w r s t
angle made by the tangent at that point
with the positive direction of the x-axis,
r
gv n
, where y and y
are the first and second derivatives of y

with respect to x)
(A) circles
(C) ellipses
(B) parabolas
(D) hyperbolas
IN 2006
3.
For an initial value problem
y
y
y
y
n y
various solutions are written in the
following groups. Match the type of
solution with the correct expression.
Group 1
Group 2
P. General solution
1. 0.1ex
of homogeneous
equations
Q. Particular integral 2.
(A cos 10 x
+ B sin 10 x)
R. Total solution
3.
cos 10 x +
x
satisfying boundary 0.1e
conditions
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1
4.
A linear ordinary differential equation is

given as
d2y
dy
3 2y (t)
2
dt
dt
Where (t) is an impulse input. The
solut on s oun by Eul rs orw r difference method that uses an
integration step h. What is a suitable
value of h?
(A) 2.0
(C) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(D) 0.2
Mathematics
IN 2007
5.
The boundary-value problem y
y
y
y
w ll
v non-zero
solut on
n only t v lu s o r
(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)
IN 2008
6.
Consider the differential equation
= 1 + y2. Which one of the following
can be a particular solution of this
differential equation?
(A) y = tan (x + 3) (C) x = tan (y + 3)
(B) y = tan x + 3
(D) x = tan y + 3
IN 2010
7.
Consider
y
the
differential
equation
with y(0)=1. The value of
y(1) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
IN 2011
8.
y
y y
with boundary conditions
y(0) = 1, y(1) = 0. The value of y(2) is
(A) 1
(C)
(B)
(D)
IN 2013
9.
The type of the partial differential
equation
is
(A) Parabolic
(B) Elliptic
10.
th
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Nonlinear
The maximum value of the solution y(t) of

the differential equation y t
y t
with initial conditions y
and
y
, for t
is
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 2
(D)
th
th
Page 119
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
IN 2014
11. The figure shows the plot of y as a
function of x
The function shown is the solution of the

differential equation (assuming all initial
conditions to be zero) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
|x|
th
th
th
Page 120
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
4.
[Ans. D]
x y
y
lnx
x
xy
x
lnx
x
omp r ng w g t
ow
y(I.F.) =
x y
olv ng bov
utt ng x
x
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
The given differential equation may be
written as
y
y
y
ux l ry qu t on s
lnx
x
Substituting D=2, we get
x
x
n t v lu o
t n n t v lu o y t
5.
[Ans. B]
First order equation,
sy
dy
Py Q,
dx
Where P = 2x and Q =
Since P and Q are functions of x, then
Integrating factor,
[Ans. C]
Given equation is
y
p
qy
x
x
p
q y
p
q
ts solut on s
y
um o roots p
p
ro u t o roots q
q
[Ans. C]
Given equation is
y
y
p
q
x
x
p
q
ut p
n q
y
I.F. = e Pdx e x
Solution is
y
yex x c
,c=1
Since, y
x2
(1 + x) e
y
6.
[Ans. A]
Order: The order of a differential equation
is the order of the highest derivative
appears in the equation
Degree: The degree of a differential
equation is the degree of the highest
order differential coefficient or derivative,
when the differential coefficients are free
from radicals and fraction.
The general solution of differential
qu t on o or r n must nvolv n
arbitrary constant.
th
th
th
Page 121
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
y
( )y x
x
x
Standard form
y
y
x
Where P and Q function of x only and
solution is given by
[Ans. C]
y
x
v n
y
y
x
nt gr t ng
y
x
nx
olut on y x
x
and x
Given condition
y
m ns t x
r or yx
y
[Ans. D]
x
x
Auxiliary equation is
m2 + 3 = 0
i.e. m =
x
os t
sn t
x
os t
s n t
At t = 0
1=A
0=B
x = os t
x
11.
[Ans. B]
is third order (
is linear, since the product
) and it
is not
allowed in linear differential equation

12.
os t
[Ans. D]
y
x
y
y
t n
10.
y
9.
x x x
yx
[Ans. A]
y
y y
A.E is, D2+2D+1 =0
2=0
m 1
The C.F. is (C1+C2x)e-x
P.I. = 0
ow y
n y
x
x
8.
Where, integrating factor (I.F)

r
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given differential equation is
y
x
y x
x
th
y
t n.
th
y x
x
x
x
th
Page 122
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. A]
17.
y
y
x
x
y
x
x
y
n y
Choice (A) satisfies the initial condition as
well as equation as shown below
y x
y
n y
y
lso
x
x
y
x
18.
y
y
x
x
y
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
o y x is the solution to this equation with
given boundary conditions
14.
[Ans. D]
15.
[Ans. B]
m
m
u
u
At x=0,
At x=L,
(
y
x
y
x
y
x
tx
y
y
tx
x
y
x
tx
y
[Ans. D]
y
os x y
x
Let x y z
y
z
x
x
z
os z
x
z
os z
x
z
s
( ) z
x
z
os ( )
Integrating
z
t n( )
x
z
t n( )
x
x
t n(
)
n
19.
u x
Solving we get u = U(
16.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
x
x
y
t
y
x
y
t
So by observation it is understood that,
x
x
,y- *
+ ,yt
y
)
[Ans. A]
Since the determinant of wronskian
matrix is constant values for, therefore it
is same for both t=0 and t=
t
20.
x t
x t
t
[Ans. B]
y
x x
y
y
ln ( )
x
y
x t
t
x t
ln y
ln
v ny
n
th
y
th
th
Page 123
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
y
tx
x
[Ans. A]
Given
+ p(t)y = q(t) y
n
y
3.
Multiplying by (1 n) y we get
v
p t
n y
q t
t
Now since y
= v we get
v
n pv
n q
t
Where p is p (t) and q is q(t)
t
Where, V =
4 r
sn x
os
x
sn
x
os x
sn x
os x
r )
t
utt ng r
r
t
dr = kdt
Integration we get
r = kt + C
At t = 0, r = 1
1= k0+C
C=1
r = kt + 1
Now at t = 3 months r = 0.5 cm
0.5 = k 3 + 1
r
r
t
t
Substituting in (i) we get
os x
sn x)
y
(
( os x
[Ans. A]
[Ans. A]
y
y
y
x
x
y
y
( )
x
This is a linear differential equation
+ p(t) y = q(t) y ; n > 0
Given, v = y
v
y
n y
t
t
y
v
t
n y
t
Substitution in the differential equation
we get
2.
Mathematics
n solv ng g v s
t
sn x
t = 6 months
y
os
sn
4.
sn x
os x
[Ans. A]
Given
y
x
xy x
x
y
x
xy x
x
Dividing by x
os x
sn x
sn x
os x
th
th
th
Page 124
GATE QUESTION BANK
y
x
( )y (
)
x
x
x
Which is a linear first order differential of
the form
y
y
x
Integrating factor = I.F =
=
y I.F = .(I.F)dx
x
yx
(
)x x
x
Now at x = 1, y = 0
Hence, here the degree is 1, which is

power of
7.
[Ans. D]
y
x y
x
This is variable separable form
= x dx
y
y
tx
log y
C
x y
5.
x
x
[Ans. B]
=
0C
=
Now at t = 30 minutes
y =2
6.
ln = kt +

C.

C.
Given = 250C
Now t t
60 = 25 + C.e0
C = 35
At t
m nut s
40 = 25 + 35
y +1=0
t
=
y
y
y
0.25hy
y
+y =0
Putting k = 0 in above equation
0.25h y
y +y =0
Since, y = 1 and h = 1
0.25 y
0) (Newtons law of cooling)
[Ans. C]
y
y y
tx
x
h=1
Iterative equation for backward (implicit)
Euler methods for above equation would
be
y
y
x
8.
y
log y
i.e. 0
Mathematics
= 25 + 35 (
= 25 + 35 ( ) (s n
[Ans. B]
Degree of a differential equation is the
power of its highest order derivative after
the differential equation is made free of
radicals and fractions if any, in derivative
power.
= 31.
th
th
th
Page 125
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
12.
[Ans. A]
+y=0
10.
13.
x x
C=2
Solution is
y
x
[Ans. D]
y y
x n y
x x
This is a linear differential equation of the
form
y
y
wt
n
x
x
x
IF = Integrations factor
x x
y
x
( )
( )
x
(
x x
Solution is
y (IF) =
x
y. x = xx x
yx = x x
y
)
15.
x
x
y
[Ans. C]
y
y
x
x
Auxiliary equation is
+D6=0
(D 2) = 0
D = 3 or D = 2
Solution is y =
[Ans. C]
Z = ax + by + ab
z
p
x
z
q
b
y
Substituting a and b in (i) in terms of p
and q we get z = px + qy + pq
[Ans. A]
y y
y
y
/
0( )
y 1
x
x
The order is 3 since highest differential
14.
x +y =4
y
x
y y
is
3y
y
)
x
Removing radicals we get
At x = 1, y =
11.
The degree is 2 since power of highest

differential is 2
[Ans. D]
y
x
x
y
y dy = x dx
y y
[Ans. A]
y
x
+1=0
E sm
m
General solution is
y=
[ cos (1 x) + sin (1 x)]
= cosx + sinx
= P cosx + Q sinx
Where P and Q are some constants
Mathematics
Which is the equation of a family of ellipses
yx =
th
th
+C
th
Page 126
GATE QUESTION BANK
y=
sin ka=0
m x
Now y(1) = 1
ot
solut on s y
17.
m x
[Ans. D]
k2D2y= y
y2
y2
2 1
D k2 y k2
1
m1 =
k
x/k
x/k
C.F. = C1e C2 e
[Ans. D]
x/k
x/k
y2
y= C1e C2 e
At y=y1, x=0
y1 = C1+ C2+y2
At y=y2 , x= Hence C1 must be zero
y1 = C2+y2
C2 =y1 - y2
[Ans. B]
d2y
dy
5 6y 0
dx
dx2
A.E. is D2 5D 6 0
D=2,3
2x
3x
Hence, solution is y e e
2.
sn
[Ans. D]
y
y
x
y
y
y
Particular integral (P.I) =

=
ECE
1.
x
4.
16.
Mathematics
x
y=(y1 y2) exp + y2
k
5.
[Ans. B]
x t
x t
t
(D +3) x(t) = 0
[Ans. B]
3
d2y dy
4 y2 2 x
dt2
dt
Order of highest derivative=2
Hence, most appropriate answer is (B)
3
3.
[Ans. A]
Given, Differential equation,
d2y
k2y 0
dx2
Auxilary equation is
y
Let y
os x
sn x
At x=0, y = 0 A=0
y
sn x
At x=a, y=0 B sin ka=0
B0 otherwise y=0 always
So, x t ke3t ,
Hence x t 2e3t is one solution (for
some boundary / initial condition)
6.
[Ans. B]
The order of a differential equation is the
order of the highest derivative involving
in equation, so answer is 2.
The degree of a differential equation is
the degree of the highest derivative
involving in equation, so answer is 1.
7.
[Ans. A]
P.
log y log x log

y
xw
s qu t on o str g t l n
th
th
th
Page 127
GATE QUESTION BANK
Q.
log y
y
log x
y y
y
8.
yp rbol
x x
9.
t
t t
xt
xt
12.
[Ans. D]
Approach 1:
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
Converting to s-domain
s y s
sy
y
sy s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
n nv rs
pl
tr ns orm
y t
t
u t
y t
t
t
y t
|
t
[Ans. D]
Approach 2:
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
Applying Laplace Transform on both
sides
y
s y s
sy
|
t
(sy s
y
) y s
s y s
s
sy s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
s
s
n x
m
Auxiliary equation m
olut on n x
Since, n
Since, n
must be zero)
Therefore
(hence
The solution is, n x

10.
r l
y
old y +0.1 ( ) new
x
y
x y
0 0
0+0
0+0.10=0
=0
0. 0
0.1+0
0+0.10.1=0.01
1 =0.1
0. 0.0 0.2+0.01 0.01+0.210.1
2 =0.21
1
=0.031
The value of y at x= 0.3 is 0.031.
x
x=1
Using initial condition, at t = 1, x = 0.5
ypr bol
Equ t on o
[Ans. B]
y x
y x
x
x y
ol s xt
qu t on o
y y
x
x x
S.
[Ans. C]
t
log
qu t on o
R.
11.
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
Given y
ln y
When
y
y
and
x
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
t
t
th
th
th
Page 128
GATE QUESTION BANK
z
y
x ln xy
ox
z
x
y t
|
t
13.
[Ans. D]
Let the differential equation be
y t
y t
x t
t
Apply Laplace transform on both sides
y t
{x t }
2
y t 3
t
sy s
y
y s
x s
s
y s
x s
y
x s
y
y s
s
s
Taking inverse Laplace on both sides
x s
{y s }
2
3 y
{
}
s
s
y t
x t
y
So if we want
y t as a solution both
x(t) and y(0) has to be multiplied by
.
Hence change x(t) by
x t and y(0) by
y
14.
[Ans. A]
y
y
y
x
x
The auxiliary equation is
m
m
then either
m
or m
i.e., roots of the equation are equal to
or
z
y
18.
EE
1.
xy ln xy
xy
[Ans. C]
z xy ln xy
z
y ln xy
x
y ln xy
x (t)
x
t
x
lnx =
t
x
Putting
x
Now putting initial condition x(0) = x
x
x
Solution is x = x
i.e. x(t) = x
0 is a first order linear
xy
omog n ous
xy
xy
equation (homogeneous)
r non l n r qu t ons
16.
xy
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.55

E m
m
m
olut ons s y
bx
y
bx
b
s ng y
y
n
gv s
n b
y
x
tx
y
[Ans. A]
v n x t
is a first order linear
equation non
x ln xy
[Ans. B]
x
x
x
t
t
Pre auxiliary equation is
m
m
Pre roots of AE are m
Repeated roots are present.
So, most general solution in
n t
bt
[Ans. A]
xy
xy
z
y
i.e.
15.
xy
xy ln xy
z
x
ox
17.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 129
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
[Ans. B]
x
x
x
t
t
Auxiliary equation m
m
m
m
(m+4)(m+2)=0
m= 2, 4
x(t) =
6.
[Ans. C]
x y
xy
y
y
x
nx
On solving (1) & (2), we get
IN
1.
x(
s ts
[Ans. C]
y
and
x(t)= 2
3.
(1)
y
y
x
w subst tut y
n
x(0) = 1 1=
Mathematics
Since there is double root at 2, so general

solution of the given differential equation
would be
+
[Ans. A]
y
Integrate on both sides

2.
y
4.
5.
[Ans. B]
v n
os
y
n
y
now y t n
Equating equations (i) and (ii) and using

equation (iii) in equation (ii), we get
y os = os
[Ans. B]
y
x
x
p n nt rv l
x
y
x
x
y
x
x
Value is in between 20 and 30
So it is 25
[Ans. C]
x
x
gv n
t
x
os t
sn t
x
n
x
sn t
os t
t
x
|
t
x
os t
y= .x
Which is equation of a parabola.
3.
[Ans. A]
A.E.
D= 1+ 10i
C.F =
(A cos10 x + B sin 10 x)
x
4.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. C]
sn t
th
th
th
Page 130
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
Given
Hyperbolic if
El ps
Compare the given differential equation
with standard from A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
= 1 + y2
Integrating
= x
Or t n y = x + c
Or y = t n x
7.
Parabolic
[Ans. C]
y
y
x
Auxiliary equation, m + 1 = 0
m= 1
C.F =
10.
[Ans. C]

is
y
x
Now, y
and y
, placing these
values
We get,
and
y
s nx
s nx
os x
So, y
os x s n x
or m x m
y
s nx
os x
s nx
os x
x
y
os x s n x
y
or x
m xm
y m x
os
sn
11.
[Ans. A]
Given partial differential equation is
x
os x
y
y
9.
[Ans. D]
y t
y t
y
y
y=
8.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
By back tracking, from option (D)
y
|x| x or x
x
= x or x
Integrating
y
x x or x
x
x x or x
x
t
We know that
y
(x y
or
x
or x
is said to be
Parabolic if
th
th
th
Page 131
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Complex Variables
ME 2007
1.
If
x y and (x, y) are functions with
continuous second derivatives, then
x y + i (x, y)
can be expressed as an analytic function
of x + i (i = ), when
(A)
ME 2014
6.
The argument of the complex number

where i =
7.
+
(D)
(A) 2i
(B) 4i
An analytic function of a complex variable

z x + i y is expressed as
z
u x y +iv x y
where i
f u(x,y)= 2xy, then
v(x,y) must be
(A) x + y + onst nt
(B) x
y + onst nt
(C) x + y + onst nt
(D) x
y + onst nt
9.

z = x + i y is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y),
where i =
. If u (x, y) = x y , then
expression for v(x, y) in terms of x, y and
a general constant c would be
(A) xy +
(C) 2xy +
ME 2009
3.
z = x + iy is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) +iv(x, y) where i = 1 .
If u = xy, the expression of v should be
y
2
y
(C)
(D)
x2
2
x y 2 k
2
ME 2010
4.
The modulus of the complex number
(B)
) is
(A) 5
(B)
(C) 1/
(D) 1/5
traversed in
8.
(C) 2i
(D) 0
x y 2 k
is evaluate
counter clock wise direction. The integral

is equal to
(A) 0
4
4
ME 2008
2.
The integral z z evaluated around
the unit circle on the complex plane for
z
is
x y
along the circle x + y
(C)
(B)
The integral y x
(B)
(A)
, is
10.
(D)
If z is a complex variable, the value of

is
(A)
i
(B)
0.511+1.57i
(C)
i
(D) 0.511+1.57i
ME 2011
5.
The product of two complex numbers
1 + i and 2 5i is
(A) 7 3i
(C) 3 4i
(B) 3 4i
(D) 7 + 3i
th
th
th
Page 132
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2005
1.
Which one of the following is NOT true for
complex number and ?
(A)
(B) |
(C) |
(D) |
2.
=|
|| |+| |
|| | | |
| +|
|
2| | + 2| |
+
+
CE 2011
6.
For an analytic function,
f(x + iy) = u(x, y)+iv(x, y), u is given by
u = 3x 3y . The expression for v
considering K to be a constant is
(C) 6x 6y+k
(A) 3y
3x + k
(D) 6xy +k
(B) 6y 6x + k
CE 2014
Consider likely applicable of

u hys
integral theorem to evaluate the following
integral counter clockwise around the
unit circle c.
s
z z
7.
i
i
ECE 2006
1.
The value
of
2.
/2: singul riti s s t

{ n n
2
}
(D) None of the above
dz is
(A)
4i
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
(C)
(D)
the
contour
i
i
integral
z in positive sense is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
For the function of a complex variable

W = In Z (where, W = u + jv and
Z = x + jy), the u = constant lines get
mapped in Z-plane as
(A) set of radial straight line
(B) set of concentric circles
(C) set of confocal hyperbolas
(D) set of confocal ellipses
(C) I
CE 2006
3.
Using Cauchys is integral theorem, the
value of the integral (integration being
taken in counter clockwise direction)
can be expressed as
(A)
(B)
z being a complex variable. The value of I

will be
(A) I = 0: singularities set =
(B) I = 0: singularities set
=,
Mathematics
ECE 2007
3.
If the semi-circular contour D of radius 2
is as shown in the figure, then the value of
the integral
is
CE 2009
4.
The analytic function f(z) =

singularities at
(A) 1 and 1
(B) 1 and i
5.
has
j2
(C) 1 and i
(D) i and i
j2
dz
(A) j
(B) j
(where C is a closed curve given by

|z| = 1) is
(A) i
(C)
(B)
(D) i
th
th
(C)
(D)
th
Page 133
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2008
4.
The residue of the function
f z
5.
z 2 z 22
2
(A)
(B)
at z=2 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D) 2
) z is
(A) 4
(B) 4
The equation sin(z)=10 has

(A) no real or complex solution
(B) exactly two distinct complex
solutions
(C) a unique solution
(D) an infinite number of complex
solutions
12.
+ j2
j2
(C) 4
(D) 4
+ j2
j2
The real part of an analytic function z

where z x + jy is given by
cos().
The imaginary part of z is
(A)
os x
(C)
sin x
(B)
sin x
(D)
sin x
EE 2007
If f(z) =
is given by
(A) 2
(B) 2 +
, then
(C) 2j
(D) 2j
z
and 1
and
(C)
(D)
The value of
at its poles are
(A)
1.
where C is the
contour |z-i/2| = 1 is
(A) 2i
(C) t n z
(B)
(D) i t n z
ECE 2010
7.
The residues of a complex function
(B)
ECE 2014
11. C is a closed path in the z-plane given by
|z|=3. The value of the integral
ECE 2009
6.
Mathematics
EE 2011
2.
A point z has been plotted in the complex
plane, as shown in figure below.
nit ir l
and
z
and
ECE 2011
8.
ECE\EE\IN 2012
9.
If x =
then the value of x is
(C) x
(A)
(D) 1
(B)
10.
Given f (z)
nit ir l
lm
where is the circle |z|

is given by
(A) 0
(C) 4/5
(B) 1/10
(D) 1
lm
nit ir l
lm
nit ir l
y
y
lmlm
. If C is a
nit ir l
counterclockwise path in the z plane

such that |z+1| =1, the value of
z z is
th
th
th
Page 134
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2013
3.
z evaluated anticlockwise around
the circle |z
(A) 4
(B)
4.
i|
2 where i
(C) 2 +
(D) 2 +2i
Square roots of i, where i =

(A) i, i
(B)
os (
) + i sin (
, is
, are
IN 2005
1.
Consider the circle |
| 2 in the
complex plane (x, y) with z = x + iy. The
minimum distant form the origin to the
circle is
(C) 4
(A) 2 2
(B) 4
(D) 2
2.
Let
, where z is a complex number
not equal to zero. The z is a solution of
(C) z
(A) z
(D) z
(B) z
os ( ) + i sin ( )
(C)
os ( ) + i sin ( )
os ( ) + i sin ( )
(D) os ( ) + i sin (
os (
) + i sin ( )
EE 2014
5.
Let S be the set of points in the complex
plane corresponding to the unit circle.
{z: |z|
} . Consider the
(That is,
function f(z)=zz* where z* denotes the
complex conjugate of z. The f(z) maps S to
which one of the following in the complex
plane
(A) unit circle
(B) horizontal axis line segment from
origin to (1, 0)
(C) the point (1, 0)
(D) the entire horizontal axis
IN 2006
3.
The value of the integral of the complex
function
3s 4
f(s)
(s 1)(s 2)
Along the path s 3is
(A) 2j
(B) 4j
7.
All the values of the multi-valued complex

function , where i
are
(A) purely imaginary.
(B) real and non-negative.
(C) on the unit circle.
(D) equal in real and imaginary parts.
Integration of the complex function
z
, in the counter clockwise
(C) 6j
(D) 8j
IN 2007
4.
For the function
of a complex variable
z, the point z=0 is

(A) a pole of order 3
(B) a pole of order 2
(C) a pole of order 1
(D) not a singularity
5.
6.
Mathematics
Let j =
(A) j
(B) 1
.Then one value of

(C)
is
(D)
IN 2008
6.
A complex variable
x+j
has its
real part x varying in the range
to + . Which one of the following is
the locus (shown in thick lines) of 1/Z in
the complex plane?
direction, around |z 1| = 1, is
(A) i
(C) i
(B)
(D) 2i
th
th
th
Page 135
l xis
(Note:
j
m gin ry
xis
m gin ry
xis
l xis
IN 2009
The value of
where the contour
of integration is a simple closed curve

around the origin, is
(A) 0
(C)
(D)
(B) 2j
8.
If z = x+jy, where x and y are real. The

value of | | is
(A) 1
(C)
(D)
(B)
9.
One of the roots of the equation =j,

where j is positive square root of 1, is
(A) j
(C)
j
+j
(D)
pl n
l xis
(B)
z is.
l xis
7.
Mathematics
IN 2010
10. The contour C in the adjoining figure is
described by x + y
. The value of
m gin ry
xis
m gin ry
xis
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) 2j
(B) 2j
(C) 4j
(D) 4j
IN 2011
11. The contour integral /
with C as
the counter-clockwise unit circle in the zplane is equal to
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 2
(D)
th
th
th
Page 136
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
2.
4.
[Ans. B]
By definition C-R equation holds
[Ans. A]
f(z)=
has simple pole at z = 0
Residue of f(z) at z = 0
lim
z z
lim
os z
z z 2i (residue at z = 0)
2i
2i
3.
[Ans. B]
+ 4i
+ 2i
2i
+ 2i
+ i + 4i
+4
Modulus =
[Ans. C]
Given u=xy
For analytic function
u v
x y
and
[Ans. A]
+i
2
2
i + 2i
6.
dw u v
i
dz x x
7.
y x
Replacing x by z and y by 0, we get
8.
+ 2i + i
i
r os
x
r sin
r sin
r os
[Ans. C]
u
v
x
y
v
2y
y
2y
+ x
v
2
y + x
v
u
v
y
x
2x
x
2x
+
x
2
x
x
z2
C
2
Where C is a constant,
z
v
m0 i + 1
2
Integrating, w i
(x2 y2 2ixy)
mi
or v
x y
y = r sin x
y r os
dw
y ix
dz
Where, z = x + iy
dw = izdz
[Ans. C]
u u
i
x y
dw
0 iz
dz
[Ans. C]
+i
+i
i
i
+i
2i
i
+ i
2
+i
rg (
) t n ( )
i
u
v
y
x
By Milne Thomson method

Let w = u + iv
or
5.
+ 2i
y 2 x2
2
th
th
th
Page 137
GATE QUESTION BANK
y
y
9.
10.
[Ans. B]
z
ln z|
z
[Ans. B]
s
z
os z
The poles are at z = n + /2
=
/2 /2 + /2
None of these poles lie inside the unit
circle |z| =1
Hence, sum of residues at poles = 0
Singularities set = and
2i [sum o r si u s o t z t th
poles]
2 i
[Ans. C]
iv n u x
y
v
v
v
x+
y
x
y
v
u v
u
y
x x
y
u
u
v
x+
y
y
x
2y x + 2x y
rm ont ing y t rms only llow
v 2 xy +
3.
z z
ln i
ln
ln + ln i
ln
ln
z
os
z i
z
i
ln i ln z
i
(
2
ln
+ ln i
+ i sin
i sin /2
=|
z=
pplying
z
z
u hys int gr l th or m, using

i
.2i ( )/
2i
Now,
ln
i.e.
[Ans. C]
(A) is true since
[Ans. A]
u hys int gr l th or m is
f(a) =
CE
1.
2.
x
x + onst nt
Mathematics
i
.2i 0( )
1/
i
.2i 0( )
1/
4i
(B) is true by triangle inequality of

complex number
(C) is not true since |
|| | | |
(D) is true since
| + |2 = ( + )
+
= ( + ) (z + z )
= z + z + z + z
i
And |
|2 = ( + )
4.
4i
[Ans. D]
z
z
z
z + z
z i z+i
The singularities are at z = i and i
5.
[Ans. C]
= ( + ) (z z )
= z + z
z + z
ii
Adding (i) and (ii) we get
| + |2 + |
|2 = 2 z + 2 z
= 2| | + 2| |
os 2z
2z
z
*
th
th
+
*z
th
Page 138
GATE QUESTION BANK
in
is point with in |z|=1(the
los
urv
w
n us
integral theorem and say that
7.
[Ans. B]
2
i
z
+i
Multiplying by conjugates
2
i
i
+i
i
2i + i
2 +
+ i
2
+
i
u hys
os 2z
[2i ( )] wh r z
2
2
z
[Notice that f(z) is analytic on all points
inside |z|
]
2
[2i
os 2
/2
)
Mathematics
2i
6.
[Ans. D]
f = u + iv
u = 3x2 3y2
For f to be analysis, we have CauchyRiemann conditions,
u
v
i
x
y
u
v
ii
y
x
From (i) we have
u
v
x
x
y
v
ECE
1.
Given ,
2.
x +
z +4
j| 2
|z
2j
2j 2j 2
[Ans. B]
iv n
log
1
y
u iv loge x iy log x2 y2 i tan1
2
x
Since, u is constant, therefore
x
v
+ x
2
i.e. v = 3x2 + f(x) iii
Now applying equation (iii) we get
u
v
y
x
[ x+
1
1
z 4 z 2jz 2j
2
Pole (0, 2) lies inside the circle |z j|=2

y u hys nt gr l ormul
x y
[Ans. D]
1
log x2 y2 c
2
x +y
Which is represented set
of concentric circles.
3.
[Ans. A]
s
y
x
x
By integrating,
f(x) = 6yx 3x2 + K
Substitute in equation (iii)
v= 3x2 + 6yx 3x2 + K
v
yx + K
2j sum o r si u
Singular points are s =

Only s= +1 lies inside the given contour
lims 1 f s
Residues at s= +1 = S1
lims 1
S1
th
th
1
1
S 1 2
th
2j ( )
2
Page 139
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
[Ans. A]
Residue of z=2 is
Mathematics
d
2
z 2 f z
z2 dz
d 1
2
1
lim
lim
2
3
z2 dz
z
z 2 32
z 2
z+
lim
5.
(z
+
F(z
2j
7.
[Ans. C]
X(z) =
[Ans. D]
sin z
Poles are Z= 0, Z =1, Z=2

Residue at Z=0 is lim
2i
Residue at Z =1 is lim
2 i
Residue z =2 is lim
2 i
(
2 i
ut m
m
8.
[Ans. A]
z+4
z + 4z +
2 im
2 i
m
2 i
iz
log
2
2 i + i
2
2 i
9.
log i + log(
iz log + i (
2n)
2
+log
iz i (
2n) + log
2
z (
2n) ilog(
2
[Ans. D]
f(z) = +
+ z
z
z
log y
i log i
i i
2
x log x
i log
10.
z+
z
F z
2 j r si u o
Residue at z = 0 ( 2- order )
[Ans. C]
z z
2j
z+
z+
where f (z) =1
11.
+
z
log y
z
+
ty
log y
(
2
infinite number of complex solutions
sin z
has infinite no. of complex
solutions
6.
z + 4z +
z+2 +
2 j will be outside the unit circle
o th t int gr tion v lu is z ro
[Ans. A]
iz
[Ans. C]
s z
lim
2j
z + 2j
4+ j
2j[ 4 + j
th
th
th
+ 2j
Page 140
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
EE
1.
[Ans. B]
Suppose that z
u x y + iv x y is
analytic then, u and v satisfy the Cauchy
Riemann equation
u
v
u
v
n
x
y
y
x
r u xy
os x
u
v
sin x
x
y
u
v
os x
y
x
v
sin x
z +
2 i
2.
+
o / is outside the unit circle is IV
quadrant
3.
[Ans. A]
z
4
z +4
|z i| 2
z +4
z
4
z
2i
For z
2i
Residue at z +2i
4 4
+2i
z + 2i
+4i
t z 2i li insi
tz
2i li outsi
z
4
o
2i sum o r si u
z +4
2i 2i
4
4.
[Ans. B]
Let + i
i
Squaring both sides we get
+2 i
i
Equating real and imaginary parts
[Ans. B]
Pole (z=i) lies inside the circle. |z-i/2|=1.
Hence
z+i z
2 i i , wh r
z
z
2i
[Ans. D]
Let
+ i
Since Z is shown inside the unit circle in I
quadrant, a and B are both +ve and
+
ow
+ i
i
+
Since
Mathematics
wh n
i
2
wh n
+
o
+i
in
qu
r nt
wh n
| |
in
) +(
2
2
i
i
+i ( )
2
2
i
i
i
2
2
2
i
i
i
+i
+ i( )
+
2
2
2 2
i
+( )
2
2
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4
4
th
th
th
Page 141
GATE QUESTION BANK
or
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4
4
5.
[Ans. C]
z
zz
}
n s {z: |z|
z
All point of s will be mapped on the
point (1, 0)
6.
[Ans. B]
z
log z i log
z
r l n Non-negative
7.
[Ans. C]
x x
lim z
IN
1.
2.
int gr tion
2i
z+
2
2
o |z |
king
z |z|
|z|
z
uis o th ir l
y
4
[Ans. C]
z
z
Multiply both the side by z, we get
z
z z
|z|
z
|z|
|z| wh r is ngl o z
|z|
since
is a real quantity so in order to
satisfy above equation
has to be real
quantity = 1 and
, (where n =
+2 )
z
z
r
+
2 x
z
lim
z+
quir
2i r s (f(a)) where a is a
singularity in contour c
|z
|
r
n
pol s o z
z
nly z
li s insi |z
s(
y
x
x
|z|
Mathematics
/2
z
3.
[Ans. C]
X X
-2 -1
Cx y y
(Cx (
-3
[Ans. A]
|
+ i | 2
Radius of the circle is 2 and centre is at
+ i
3
Cx
y(n) n n
y(n)
)y(n))
3s
4
1
2
C3 =
F(s)
C3
.
CC3
(sC 1)(s 2) s 1 s 2
y(n) 3 3
y(n)
dz y(n)
2
+ i
By Formula,
y y
( (
Since, both
n n
contour,
) )
xy
z a 2j
the poles are enclosed by
therefore
Value of integral=2j + 2 2j
For distance to be min. The point P will be
on the line passes through origin and
centre of the circle.
Slope of line OP = Slope of line OC
4.
[Ans. B]
Expand by Laurent series
th
th
th
Page 142
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. D]
10.
tx
log
log
2j
11.
2j
[sum o r si
2
o pol
4j
x +
x +
( + +
+
+ ) z
z 2z
z
The only pole of z is at z
, which lies
within |z|
z z 2i (residue)
Note: Residue of z at z
is coefficient
of z i.e. 1, here.
x j
x +
x
j
j
x +
lim {
x +
j
ption
z
j
j 2[ j
[Ans. C]
z
x+j
[Ans. B]
x+j
7.
log (
j
2
j j
2
log
6.
log (
z=
Pole z
j
Residue at z
log x
[Ans. D]
Mathematics
s tis y th
ov
on itions
[Ans. A]
u hys int gr l ormul is
Here a = 0, then f(0) = sin 0 = 0
8.
[Ans. D]
z x + iy
p | |= |
= |
9.
|
|=
|=
[Ans. B]
Given x3 = j = e+j/2
x
os
+ j sin
+j
2
2
th
th
th
Page 143
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Laplace Transform
ME 2007
1.
If F (s) is the Laplace transform of
function f (t), then Laplace transform of
t
f (t) dt is
0
(A)
F (s)
(C) sF (s) f (0)
(B)
F (s) f (0)
(D)
CE 2009
1.
Laplace transfrm of the function
f(x) = cosh(ax) is
(A)
(C)
ME 2009
2.
The inverse Laplace transform of

is
(A)
(B)
1
s s
2
(B)
(C) 1
(D)
ME 2010
3.
The Laplace transform of a function
. The function
is
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2012
4.
The inverse Laplace transform of the
function F(s)
is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
ECE - 2005
1.
In what range should Re(s) remain so
that the Laplace transform of the function
exists.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE 2006
2.
A solution for the differential equation
x(t)+2x(t)= (t) with initial condition
x( )=0 is
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
ECE 2008
ME 2013
5.
The function
equation
3.
Consider the matrix P = *
satisfies the differential
value of eP is
and the auxiliary
conditions,
+ . The
(A) *
(B) [
. The
Laplace transform of
is given by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2014
6.
Laplace transform of
The Laplace transform of
(C) [
(D) [
is
ECE - 2010
4.
The trigonometric Fourier series for the
waveform f(t) shown below contains
th
th
th
Page 144
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
ECE 2013
9.
A system is described by the differential
equation
=x(t). Let x(t)
be a rectangular pulse given by

,
Assuming that y(0) = 0 and
(A) Only cosine terms and zero value for
the dc component
(B) Only cosine terms and a positive
value for the dc component
(C) Only cosine terms and a negative
value for the dc component
(D) Only sine terms and a negative value
for the dc component.
5.
the Laplace transform of y(t) is
Given
[
10.
then the value of K is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
ECE 2011
6.
If
then the initial
and final values of f(t) are respectively

(A) 0, 2
(C) 0, 2/7
(B) 2, 0
(D) 2/7, 0
The maximum value of the solution y(t) of

the differential equation y(t) +
with initial condition
and
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 2
(D)
ECE 2014
11. The unilateral Laplace transform of
. Which one of the following
is the unilateral Laplace transform of
?
ECE/EE/IN 2012
7.
The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is
. The unilateral Laplace transform
8.
of t f(t) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The numerical value of

(A)
(B)
EE 2005
12. For the equation
(t) + 3 (t) + 2x(t) = 5, the solution
x(t) approaches which of the following
values as t
?
(A) 0
(C) 5
(D) 10
(B)
EE 2014
is
13.
(C)
(D)
Let
be
the
transform of signal x(t). Then,

(A) 0
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 21
th
th
th
Laplace
is
Page 145
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
Mathematics
[
Let g: [
be a function
[ ] where [x]
defined by g(x)
represents the integer part of x. (That is,
it is the largest integer which is less than
or equal to x). The value of the constant
term in the Fourier series expansion of
g(x) is_______

ME
1.
5.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
From definition,
We know
2.
Taking Laplace transformation on both

sides
[
]
[ ]
( )
( )
[Ans. C]
1
1
1
1

(s s) s(s 1) s (s 1)
2
3.
( )
)
(
[Ans. A]
[
6.
4.
s and constant
[Ans. B]
It is the standard result that
L (cosh at) =
ECE
1.
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. D]
{
[Ans. D]
CE
1.
Matching coefficient of
in numerator we get,
}
2.
{
[Ans. A]
(t) + 2x (t) = (t)
Taking Laplace transform of both sides ,
we get
th
th
th
Page 146
GATE QUESTION BANK
sX(s) X(0) + 2X(s) = 1

1
X(s) =
s2
From Inverse Laplace transform gives, we
get
[
]
3.
[Ans. D ]
eP=
[
Mathematics
cosine terms and a negative value of the

dc component.
5.
[Ans. D]
]
[
0 1
and P=
2 3
s 1
Where
=
2 s+3
s 3 1
1
s 1s 2 2 s
s 3
s 1 s 2
=
1
s 2

1
s
s
s 1s 2
6.
[Ans. B]
Using initial value theorem:
eP
2
1
s 1 s 2
2 2
s 1 s 2
1
1
s 1 s 2
2
1
s 2 s 1
=[
]
=2
4.
[Ans. C]
Since f(t) is an even function, its
trigonometric Fourier series contains
only cosine terms
7.
[Ans. D]
+
t
)]
8.
[Ans. D]
Therefore, the trigonometric Fourier

series for the waveform f(t) contains only
Taking Laplace transform on both the

sides. We have,
th
th
th
Page 147
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
By Laplace transform property,

[
]
[
]
12.
9.
[Ans. B]
=5
By taking Laplace transform
[Ans. B]
Writing in terms of Laplace transform
X(s) =
(
)
13.
[Ans. B]
(
(
10.
[Ans. D]
14.
[Ans. 0.5]
For t =
Value of constant term = 0.5

+ sin
th
th
th
Page 148
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
EM
Statics
ME
1.
ME
2.
2005
Two books of mass 1 kg each are kept on
a table, one over the other. The coefficient
of friction on every pair of contacting
surfaces is 0.3. The lower book is pulled
with a horizontal force F. The minimum
value of F for which slip occurs between
the two books is
(A) zero
(C) 5.74 N
(B) 1.06 N
(D) 8.83 N
2006
If point A is in equilibrium under the
action of the applied forces, the values of
tensions
and
are respectively
(A) 0.5 F
(B) 0.63 F
ME
5.
(C) 0.73 F
(D) 0.87 F
2009
A block weighing 981N is resting on a
horizontal surface. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the
horizontal surface is = 0.2. A vertical
cable attached to the block provides
partial support as shown. A man can pull
horizontally with a force of 100N. What
will be the tension, T (in N) in the cable if
the man is just able to move the block to
the right?
T
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
ME
4.
600 N
520 N and 300 N
300 N and 520 N
450 N and 150 N
150 N and 450 N
If a system is in equilibrium and the

position of the system depends upon
many
independent
variables,
the
principle of virtual work states that the
partial derivatives of its total potential
energy with respect to each of the
independent variable must be
(A)
(C) 1.0
(B) 0
(D)
100N
(A) 176.2
(B) 196.0
ME
6.
2011
A 1 kg block is resting on a surface with
coefficient of friction
. A force of
0.8 N is applied to the block as shown in
the figure. The friction force is
0.8 N
2008
Consider a truss PQR loaded at P with a
force F as shown in the figure.
The tension in the member QR is
(C) 481.0
(D) 981.0
1 kg
(A) 0
(B) 0.8 N
th
th
(C) 0.98 N
(D) 1.2N
th
Page 149
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
2012
Common Data for Q 7 and Q8:
Two steel truss member, AC and BC, each
having cross sectional area of 100 mm ,
are subject to a horizontal force F as
shown in figure. All the joints are hinged.
10.
A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at

to the horizontal as shown in the
figure. The magnitude and direction of
velocity
and the direction of velocity
are given. The magnitude of (in
m/s) at this instant is
m s
(A) 2.14
(B) 1.89
7.
If F =1kN, magnitude of the vertical

reaction force developed at the point B in
kN is
(A) 0.63
(C) 1.26
(B) 0.32
(D) 1.46
8.
The maximum force F in kN that can be

applied at C such that the axial stress in
any of the truss members DOES NOT
exceed 100 MPa is
(A) 8.17
(C) 14.14
(B) 11.15
(D) 22.30
ME
9.
2014
A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a
block S of mass 150 kg as shown in the
figure. Block R is tied to the wall by a
massless and inextensible string PQ. If the
coefficient of static friction for all surface
is 0.4 the minimum force F(in kN) needed
to move the block S is
(A) 0.69
(B) 0.88
EM
11.
(C) 1.21
(D) 0.96
A two member truss ABC is shown in the

figure. The force (in kN) transmitted in
member AB is _______
12.
A body of mass (M) 10 kg is initially

stationary on a 45 inclined plane as
shown in figure. The coefficient of
dynamic friction between the body and
the plane is 0.5. The body slides down the
plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s.
The distance travelled (in meter) by the
body along the plane is _______
(C) 0.98
(D) 1.37
th
th
th
Page 150
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
friction
between the floor and the
wardrobe, respectively?
y
m
m
For the truss shown in the figure, the

forces
and
are 9 kN and 3 kN,
respectively. The force (in kN) in the
member QS is
All dimensions are in m
14.
In a statically determinate plane truss, the

number of joints (j) and the number of
members (m) are related by
(A) j
m
(C) m
j
(B) m
j
(D) m
j
EM
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
11.25 tension
11.25 compression
13.5 tension
13.5 compression
490.5 and 0.5

981 and 0.5
1000.5 and 0.15
1000.5 and 0.25
A ladder AB of length 5 m and weight (W)

600 N is resting against a wall. Assuming
frictionless contact at the floor (B) and
the wall (A), the magnitude of the force P
(in Newton) required to maintain
equilibrium of the ladder is _______
m
A wardrobe (mass 100 kg, height 4 m,

width 2 m, depth 1 m), symmetric about
the Y-Y axis, stands on a rough level floor
as shown in the figure. A force P is applied
at mid-height on the wardrobe so as to tip
it about point Q without slipping. What
are the minimum values of the force (in
newton) and the static coefficient of
th
th
th
Page 151
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
EM
Answer Keys & Explanations

1.
[Ans. D]
for each surface is same
Its free body diagram(m
olving equation (i and (ii , we get

and
m
1
2
3.
[Ans. B]
Total potential energy
= f(independentvariable)
Hence for a system in equilibrium,
Total potential energy =Constant
Thus, partial derivatives of its total
potential energy with respect to each of
independent variable must be zero
4.
[Ans. B]
N = mg= g N
mg
g
Equation of motion of 1
a
(i
a
g
towards right
Equation of motion of 2
F (
a
F( g
a
(ii
towards right
Now for relative motion between two
blocks
N
N
1
F
P
x
R
Q
x
x
b
tan
1.732 x
x
tan
Taking moment about Q
fx
x
b
mg
mg
a
F
g
g
F > 30.39.8
F > 8.82 N
F = 8.83N
2.
Let force in the member PQ is

sin
sin
Force in member
QR
cos
= 0.634 F
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. C]
T
100 N
600 N
cos
sin
cos
sin
(i
(ii
W=981 N
th
th
th
Page 152
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Net normal force on block

N = W T= 981 T
Frictional force, f
Under equilibrium, i.e. when man is just
able to move the block
[Ans. B]
g
As theoretical frictional force is more than

applied force P,
Hence, F = P = 0.8N.
10.
sin
[Ans. D]
cos
( )
( ( cos
(r sin
sin(
cos(
cos(
11.
sin(
*
sin(
100
cos
kN
(
sin
cos
sin
sin
sin
For F = 1kN
(
cos
kN
sin(
8.
(r
sin
y and
cos
g
g
[Ans. A]
cos
g
Using 2 & 3 in 1,
(
g
= g
g
7.
g
Body R
6.
EM
sin(
[Ans. B]
sin
cos
sin(
tan
9.
12.
[Ans. *]Range 56 to 59
FBD of body of mass M : -
[Ans. D]
g
g
( ody
( ody s
Body S
th
th
th
Page 153
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
EM
gsin
a
gcos
Body
is
in
equilibrium
along
perpendicular to the Inclined plane
g cos
acceleration of body along the plane (a
g sin
a
gsin
At joint S
g cos
a gsin
g cos
a
sin
cos
a
m sec
nitial velocity of body
u
final velocity of body
m s
a= 3.47 m/ sec
We know:u
as
(
(
s
m
13.
14.
[Ans. C]
m
j
Perfectly frame truss or
statically determinate plane truss
m
j
Deficient frame
m
j
Redundant frame
cos
cos
k
But direction and are different

Hence force in member QS = 11.25
tension
15.
[Ans. A]
m
m
[Ans. A]
At joint P
k
g
ree body diagram
g
sin
Now it can be solved by option checking

i.e,
and for
sin
sin
th
th
th
Page 154
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
EM
(
(moment at point
from equation
th
th
th
Page 155
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
EM
Dynamics
ME
1.
2005
A 1 kg mass of clay, moving with a
velocity of 10 m/s, strikes a stationary
wheel and sticks to it. The solid wheel has
a mass of 20 kg and a radius of 1 m.
assuming that the wheel and the ground
are both rigid and that the wheel is set
into pure rolling motion, the angular
velocity of the wheel immediately after
the impact is approximately.
20kg
10m/s
A shell is fired from cannon. At the instant

the shell is just about to leave the barrel,
its velocity relative to the barrel is 3m/s,
while the barrel is swinging upwards with
a constant angular velocity of 2 rad/s. The
magnitude of the absolute velocity of the
shell is
2rad/s
2m
1kg
1m
(A) Zero
(B) rad/s
2.
3.
(A) 3m/s
(B) 4m/s
(C) rad / s
rad / s
(D)
A elevator (lift) consists of the elevator

cage and a counter weight, of mass m
each. The cage and the counterweight are
connected by a chain that passes over a
pulley. The pulley is coupled to a motor. It
is desired that the elevator should have a
maximum stopping time of t seconds from
a peak speed v. If the inertias of the pulley
and the chain are neglected, the minimum
power that the motor must have is
4.
A simple pendulum of length 5m, with a

bob of mass 1 kg, is in simple harmonic
motion. As it passes through its mean
position, the bob has a speed of 5 m/s.
The net force on the bob at the mean
position is
(A) zero
(C) 5 N
(B) 2.5 N
(D) 25 N
5.
The time variation of the position of a

particle in rectilinear motion is given by
x
t
t
t. If v is the velocity and a
the acceleration of the particle in
consistent units, the motion started with
(A) v = 0, a = 0
(C) v = 2, a = 0
(B) v = 0, a = 2
(D) v = 2, a = 2
ME
6.
2007
A block of mass M is released from point P
on a rough inclined plane with inclination
angle shown in the figure below he co
efficient of friction is
f
tan then
the time taken by the block to reach
another point Q on the inclined plane,
where PQ = s, is
pulley
chain
m
cage
Counter weight
(A)
(B)
mv
(C) 5m/s
(D) 7m/s
(C)
(D)
th
th
th
Page 156
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
EM
mass of the counterweight, for static

balance, is
g
P
(A)
(B)
ME
8.
10.
(D)
During inelastic collision of two particles,

which one of the following is conserved?
(A) total linear momentum only
(B) total kinetic energy only
(C) both linear momentum and kinetic
energy
(D) neither linear momentum nor kinetic
energy
A straight rod of length L(t), hinged at one

end and freely extensible at the other end,
rotates through an angle (t about the
hinge. At time t, L(t)=1m, (t =1m/s,
(t =
rad and (t =1 rad/s.The
ME
11.
2009
A uniform rigid rod of mass M and length
L is hinged at one end as shown in the
adjacent figure. A force P is applied at a
distance of 2L/3 from the hinge so that
the rod swings to the right. The reaction
at the hinge is
(A)
(B)
9.
30
2L/3
(A) P
(B) 0
(C) V/2
(D) 2V/
A cantilever type gate hinged at Q is

shown in the figure. P and R are the
centers of gravity of the cantilever part
and the counterweight respectively. The
mass of the cantilever part is 75 kg. The
(C) 225 kg
(D) 300 kg
magnitude of the velocity at the other end

of the rod is
(A) 1 m/s
(C) m/s
(D) 2m/s
(B) m/s
2008
A circular disc of radius R rolls without
slipping at a velocity v. The magnitude of
the velocity at point P (see figure) is
2.0m
(A) 75 kg
(B) 150 kg
(C)
7.
0.5m
ME
12.
th
(C) P/3
(D) 2P/3
2010
There are two points P and Q on a planar
rigid body. The relative velocity between
the two points
(A) should always be along PQ
(B) can be oriented along any direction
th
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Page 157
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) should always be perpendicular to

PQ
(D) should be along QP when the body
undergoes pure translation
ME
13.
2011
A stone with mass of 0.1 kg is catapulted
as shown in the figure. The total force
(in N) exerted by the rubber band as a
function of distance x (in m) is given by
x . If the stone is displaced by
0.1 m from the un-stretched position
(x
) of the rubber band, the energy
stored in the rubber band is
16.
A circular solid disc of uniform thickness

20mm, radius 200mm and mass 20 kg is
used as a flywheel. If it rotates at 600
rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in
Joules is
(A) 395
(C) 1580
(B) 790
(D) 3160
ME
17.
2013
A link OB is rotating with a constant
angular velocity of 2 rad/s in counter
clockwisre direction and a block is sliding
radially outward on it with an uniform
velocity of 0.75 m/s respect to the rod , as
shown in the figure below. If OA = 1 m ,
the
magnitude
of
the
absolute
acceleration of the block at location A in
m/s is
B
Stone of
mass 0.1 kg
(A) 0.01 J
(B) 0.1 J
14.
ME
15.
(C) 1 J
(D) 10 J
The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly

plastic impact is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D)
(A) 3
(B) 4
18.
2012
A solid disk of radius r rolls without
slipping on a horizontal floor with angular
velocity and angular acceleration . The
magnitude of the acceleration of the point
of contact on a disc is
(A) zero
(B)
(C) (
(D) r
EM
(C) 5
(D) 6
A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight

W and length L is supported horizontally
by an external force F as shown in the
figure below. The force F is suddenly
removed. At the instant of force removal,
the magnitude of vertical reaction
developed at the support is
F
L
(
(A) Zero
(B) W/4
th
th
(C) W/2
(D) W
th
Page 158
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
19.
20.
2014
A circular object of radius r rolls without
slipping on a horizontal level floor with
the center having velocity V. The velocity
at the point of contact between the object
and the floor is
(A) Zero
(B) V in the direction of motion
(C) V opposite to the direction of motion
(D) V vertically upward from the floor
EM
21.
A truck accelerates up a 10 incline with a

crate of 100 kg. Value of static coefficient
of friction between the crate and the truck
surface is 0.3. The maximum value unit of
acceleration is (m/ ) of the truck such
that the crate does not slide down is
_______
22.
A mass m of 100 kg travelling with a

uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line
collides with astationary mass m of
1000 kg. After the collision, both the
masses travel together with the same
velocity. The coefficient of restitution is
(A) 0.6
(C) 0.01
(B) 0.1
(D) 0
A block weighing 200 N is in contact with

a level plane whose coefficients of static
and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.2,
respectively. The block is acted upon by a
horizontal force (in Newton) P=10t,
where t denotes the time in seconds. The
velocity (in m/s ) of the block attained
after 10 seconds is _______

1.
2.
[Ans. B]
By conservation of linear momentum,
mu = (m+M) v
v = 10/21 m/s
= v/r = 10/21 1/3 rad/s
= mv
Power =
[Ans. C]
r = 22 = 4m/sec
vnet =
4.
= 5 m/s
[Ans. A]
Force at mean position is zero.
rm s
mv
Final Kinetic energy = 0

Time duration it occurs = t
3.
[Ans. C]
mv
5m/s
v
m
Power =
(rate of doing work or rate of
change of K.E. energy of the system)

Initial Kinetic energy of the system
th
th
th
Page 159
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. D]
Given, x = t
v
t
t
[Ans. D]
For balancing the moments about the
hinge Q,
75
m
m = 300kg
10.
[Ans. D]
L(T) = 1m, (t) = 1m/s, (t) = rad
m s
and a
a
6.
9.
t
t
t
m s
EM
[Ans. A]
t=
sec
Increase in length of the rod

= L (T) t = m
Mg sin
New length = *
Tangential velocity
=*
+
*
Mg cos
Mg sin
a g sin
Now s
ut
g cos
g cos
7.
8.
+m s
Radial velocity = 1 m/s

Resultant velocity =
at
= 2 m/s
But u
t
+m
11.
[Ans. A]
In any collision, linear momentum is
conserved. Kinetic energy is conserved
only in elastic collision whereas in
inelastic collision, kinetic energy is
converted into heat, sound or other forms
of energy.
[Ans. B]
A
2L/3
L
G
Assume reaction at hinge is R,

orque
[Ans. A]
(
P
Linear acceleration,
a
Magnitude of velocity at point P
cos
Governing Equation,
= Ma
= M (P/M)
cos
cos
th
th
th
Page 160
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. C]
13.
[Ans. B]
16.
[Ans. B]
(
Energy stored = work done
EM
x dx
dx
x ]
rad sec
(
14.
15.
[Ans. A]
For, perfectly plastic collision,
co efficient of restitution = 0
17.
Total acceleration f f
f
f
radial acceleration
= r
(m s
f
tangential acceleration = 2v
(m s
[Ans. A]
18.
(m s
[Ans. B]
It undergoes fixed body rotation about 0
W
O
Pure translation
Pure
rotational
Motion of a body can be expressed as sum

of pure rotation and pure translation.
For no slip condition, translation
acceleration of centre of mass a
r
Velocity of centre of mass v
r
a
v
r
r
= O
CG
R
a
v
a
v
[Ans. C]
ma
orque
r
r
( )
r
r
________1
ma
Now superimposing the two motions.
m(
Io
m(r
2(W-R) = mL __________2
By 1 and 2,
(
a
Linear acceleration of bottom point

r
r
Velocity of bottom point
Centripetal acceleration of bottom point
=0
Net acceleration of bottom point = 0
19.
[Ans. A]
No slipping Zero Relative velocity
20.
[Ans. * ] (Range 4.8 to 5.0)

Maximum static friction, f
th
th
th
Page 161
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(
mg
f it starts sliding
EM
mg
rate
t
it starts sliding (just in equilibrium
t
f f
(
Using momentum principal
dt
f
f
dt
t
m(
m(
dt
t+
[(
m s
22.
m g
rate
f
f
Using 1&2,
m a m g sin (
m g cos (
a
g cos (
g sin (
[
]
a
cos (
sin (
a
a
m s
g
(
m a
m gsin(
m a
m a m g sin (
m gcos (
m cos (
f
21.
th
[Ans. D]
oefficient of restitution
elative velocity of separation
elative velocity of approach
After collision, both the masses travel
together with same velocity. So relative
velocity of separation will be zero.
Hence, coefficient of restitution will be
zero
th
th
Page 162
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Simple Stress & Strain

ME
1.
2005
A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made
of a homogeneous and isotropic material.
The rod rest on frictionless surface. The
rod is heated uniformly. If longitudinal
and thermal stress are represented by
nd respectively, then
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME
2.
2006
A bar having a cross-sectional area of 700
mm2 is subjected to axial loads at the
positions indicated. The value of stress in
the segment QR is:
63 kN
(A) 40 MPa
(B) 50 MPa
4.
6.
A steel rod of length L and diameter D,

fixed at both ends, is uniformly heated to
a temperature rise of T. The Youngs
modulus is E and the co efficient of linear
expansion is . The therm l stress in the
rod is
(A) 0
(C) E T
(B) T
(D) E TL
(C) 70 MPa
(D) 120 MPa
Linked Answer Questions: Q. 7 Q. 8

A machine frame shown in the figure
below is subjected to a horizontal force of
600 N parallel to z direction.
A steel bar of 40 mm 40 mm square

cross-section is subjected to an axial
compressive load of 200 kN. If the length
of the bar is 2m and E = 200 GPa, the
elongation of the bar will be:
(A) 1.25 mm
(C) 4.05 mm
(B) 2.70 mm
(D) 5.40 mm
y
500 mm
300 mm
3.
2007
A 200 100 50 mm steel block is
subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15
MPa.
The Youngs modulus nd Poissons r tio
of the material are 200 GPa and 0.3
respectively. The change in the volume of
the block in mm is
(A) 85
(C) 100
(B) 90
(D) 110
21 kN
35 kN 49 kN
ME
5.
According to Von-Mises distortion energy

theory, the distortion energy under three
dimensional state of stress is represented
by
30 mm
P
(A)
(B)
600N
N
7.
The normal and shear stresses in MPa at

point P are respectively
(A) 67.9 and 56.6
(C) 67.9 and 0.0
(B) 56.6and 67.9
(D) 0.0and 56.6
(C)
(D)
th
th
th
Page 163
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
The maximum principle stress in MPa and

the orientation of the corresponding
principle
plane
in
degrees
are
respectively
(A) 32.0 and 29.52
(B) 100.0and 60.48
(C) 32.0and 60.48
(D) 100.0and 29.52
ME
2008
and 10
A cylindrical container of radius R = 1 m,
wall thickness 1 mm is filled with water
up to a depth of 2 m and suspended along
its upper rim. The density of water is
1000kg/m3 and acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2. The self-weight of the
cylinder is negligible. The formula for
hoop stress in a thin walled cylinder can
be used at all points along the height of
the cylindrical container.
SOM
11.
A rod of Length L and diameter D is

subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the
following is sufficient to calculate the
resulting change in diameter?
(A) Youngs modulus
(B) Shear modulus
(C) Poissons r tio
(D) Both Youngs modulus nd she r
modulus
ME
12.
2011
A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm
and thickness 10 mm subjected to an
internal pressure of 5 MPa. The average
circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
(A) 100
(C) 500
(B) 250
(D) 1000
ME
13.
2012
A solid steel cube constrained on all six
face is heated so that the temperature
rises uniformly by T. If the thermal
coefficient of the material is youngs
modulus is E nd the Poissons r tio is ,
the thermal stress developed in the cube
due to heating is
1mm
2m
(A)
1m
(B)
(C)
(D)
2R
9.
The axial and circumferential stress

( , ) experienced by the cylinder wall
at mid-depth (1 m as shown) are
(A) (10, 10) MPa
(C) (10, 5) MPa
(B) (5, 10) MPa
(D) (5, 5) MPa
10.
If the Youngs modulus nd Poissons

ratio of the container material are 100GPa
and 0.3, respectively, the axial strain in
the cylinder wall at mid-depth is
(A) 2
(C)
(D) 1.2
(B) 6
14.
A thin walled spherical shell is subjected

to an internal pressure. If the radius of the
shell is increased by 1% and the thickness
is reduced by 1%, with the internal
pressure remaining the same, the
percentage change in the circumferential
(hoop) stress is
(A) 0
(C) 1.08
(B) 1
(D) 2.02
ME
15.
2013
A rod of length L having uniform cross
sectional area A is subjected to a tensile
force P as shown in the figure below. If
the Youngs modulus of the m teri l
varies linearly from E to E along the
th
th
th
Page 164
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
length of the rod, the normal stress

developed at the section SS is
S
19.
A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room

temperature is held between two
immovable rigid walls. The temperature
of the rod is uniformly raised by 250C. If
the Youngs modulus nd coefficient of
thermal expansion are 200 GPa and
1
/C, respectively, the magnitude
of the longitudinal stress (in MPa)
developed in the rod is ____________.
20.
A steel cube, with all faces free to deform,

h s Youngs modulus E Poissons r tio
nd coefficient of therm l exp nsion .
The pressure (hydrostatic stress)
developed within the cube, when it is
subjected to a uniform increase in
temper ture T is given by
T E
(A) 0
C
v
T E
T E
B
D
v
v
21.
If the Poisson's ratio of an elastic material

is 0.4, the ratio of modulus of rigidity to
Young's modulus is ____________.
22.
The number of independent elastic

constants required to define the stressstrain relationship for an isotropic elastic
solid is ____________.
23.
A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius

of 100 mm is subject to an internal
pressure of 10 MPa. The maximum
permissible working stress is restricted to
100 MPa. The minimum cylinder wall
thickness (in mm) for safe design must be
____________.
P
L/2
S
L
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
16.
A longh thin walled cylindrical shell,

closed at both the ends, is subjected to an
internal pressure. The ratio of the hoop
stress
(circumferential
stress)
to
longitudinal stress developed in the shell
is
(A) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(B) 1.0
(D) 4.0
ME
17.
2014
A circul r rod of length L nd re of
cross-section A h s
modulus of
el sticity E nd coefficient of therm l
exp nsion . One end of the rod is fixed
and other end is free. If the temperature
of the rod is incre sed by T then
(A) stress developed in the rod is E T
and strain developed in the rod is
T
(B) both stress and strain developed in
the rod are zero
(C) stress developed in the rod is zero
T
(D) stress developed in the rod is E T
zero
18.
SOM
A metallic rod of 500 mm length and 50

mm diameter, when subjected to a tensile
force of 100 KN at the ends, experiences
an increase in its length by 0.5 mm and a
reduction in its diameter by 0.015 mm.
The Poissons r tio of the rod material
is____________.
th
th
th
Page 165
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM

1.
2.
[Ans. A]
If a body is allowed to expand or contract
freely with rise or fall in temperature
then no stress are introduced in body.
i.e.
inst ed of
nd
(but strain is not zero)
Since rod is fixed at both ends, so thermal

strain will be zero but there will be
thermal stresses.
7.
[Ans. A]
Here, Twisting moment,
T = 600 500
= 300 Nm
Bending momentum,
M = 600300
=180 Nm
T = shear stress,
Normal stress.
[Ans. A]
63
kN
21 kN
35 kN 49 kN
R
kN
i. e.
d
T
d
kN
i. e.
kN
kN
Stress =
=
8.
N m
4.
[Ans. A]
PL
l
EA
. MP
[Ans. B]
Maximum principle stress
=4
N m
= 40MPa
3.
MP
M
d
(
.
mm
[Ans. C]
)
.
MP
5.
t n
[Ans. B]
WE know that
t n
t n
[
.
6.
9.
[Ans. C]
Since rod is free to expand, therefore
L elong tion Lt
str in
.
.
[Ans. B]
Pressure at mid-depth gh
= 10 10 1=104 N/m2
mm
a=
= 5 106 N/m2
=5MPa
c=
Thermal stress = E t
th
th
=10MPa
th
Page 166
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
Axi l str in t mid depth

.
12.
PD
tss
Change in hoop stress= 2.0202%
[Ans. A]
Axi l str in is given by
11.
[Ans. D]
For liner state of stress only two modulus
of elasticity is required. Independent
elastic const = E & from which others
can be derived
[Ans. B]
Circumferential hoop stress
Where P = pressure = 5 MPa
d = diameter = 1000 mm
t = thickness = 10mm
15.
[Ans. A]
Do the force balance. Force at section is P.
P
re ction
A Are of cross section
P
A
16.
[Ans. C]
pd t
t pd
17.
[Ans. C]
Strain = change in length T
Stress = 0 (free to expand, no restraint)
18.
[Ans. *] Range 0.29 to 0.31

l ter l str in
longitudi l str in
MP
13.
[Ans. A]
(
after
K(
K(
19.
L
K[
[Ans. D]
D
t
P . D
. t

E T
MP
20.
[Ans. A]
Free expansion. No restriction No stress
in any direction
21.
[Ans. *]Range 0.35 to 0.36

E
B
E
G
G
E
.
G
.
E
22.

Total number of elastic constant are 4 i.e.,
(E, G, K and )
E
K
Thermal stress are compressive so
T E
P
14.
T
]
L
exp nd by t ylor series
P K
T
T
P K T
E T
TE
P
P
l l
Let
SOM
th
th
th
Page 167
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
But total number of independent elastic

constants are 2 i.e., [E and ]
Other are inter related by the formula
KG
E
G
k
K G
23.

Yield stress (k) in pure shear (torsion)
according to von-Mises criteria
k
where
un xi l torsion here the yield strength
. MP
developed
F ctor of s fety n
MP
.
th
th
th
Page 168
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Shear Force and Bending Moment

ME
1.
2005
A cantilever beam carriers the anti
symmetric load shown, where w is the
peak intensity of the distributed load
.Qualitatively ,the correct bending
moment diagram for this beam is
ME
3.
2007
In a simply supported beam loaded as
shown below, the maximum bending
moment in Nm is
1000 mm
500 mm
100 N
B
A
100 mm
L
(A) 25
(B) 30
(A)
ME
4.
(B)
(C) 35
(D) 60
2011
A simple supported beam PQ is loaded by
a moment of 1 kN-m at the mid-span of
the beam as shown is the figure. The
reaction forces RP and RQ at supports P
and Q respectively are
1kN-m
P
(C)
1m
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
2.
A Beam is made up of two identical bars

AB and BC by hinging them together at B
.The end A is built in (cantilevered) and
the end C is simply supported .with the
load P acting as shown, the bending
moment at A is
ME
5.
P
A
(A) zero
(B) PL/2
C
L/2
1 kN downward, 1 kN upward
0.5 kN upward, 0.5 kN downward
0.5 kN downward, 0.5 kN upward
1 kN upward, I kN downward
2013
A simply supported beam of length L is
subjected to a varying distributed load
sin
xL Nm , where the distance x is
measured from the left support. The
magnitude of the vertical reaction force in
N at the left support is
(A) Zero
(C) L
(B) L
(D) L
(C) 3PL/2
(D) Indeterminate
th
th
th
Page 169
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM

1.
[Ans. C]
Here make hit and trial method.
Consider first option (A) of moment
diagram.
2.
[Ans. B]
MB = 0
x L P x L/2 = 0
= P/2
MA = x 2L P x 3L/2 = PL/2
3.
[Ans. B]
100 N
A
L
M = 10 Nm
0.5m
V=
At right end B, slope must be zero as there
is no shear force at B so option A wrong.
Now, consider option (B)
Due to symmetric load intensity at left
side too the shear force equal to zero so
slope at left side must be zero. So option
(B) wrong.
1m
Taking moment about A,

100 0.5 + 10 =
N
30 Nm
20 Nm
Now, consider option (C)

Here at both the ends, slope is zero means
shear force at both the end is zero and
also when we move from right to left, rate
of increase of shear force decrease due to
triangular shape of load intensity and at
middle slope should be maximum and
there after decreases so in option (C) all
these criterion fulfills. Here (C) is the
correct option.
BM diagram
Maximum bending moment =

=
.
V = 30 Nm
4.
[Ans. A]
1 kN-m
Assume direction as shown is in figure

o
.. i
T king momentum bout
M
t
As far as (D) option is concerned its

middle part slope and right most part
slope is strictly not agreeing with the load
shown.
Since direction of
is negative so our
assumed direction is wrong so
downward.
th
th
th
Page 170
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
SOM
[Ans. B]
As loading is symmetric, reactions are

going to be same.
2R = wdx
sin (
) dx
2R =
R=
th
th
th
Page 171
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Stresses in Beams
ME
1.
2005
A cantilever beam has the square cross
section 10 mm x 10mm. It carries a
transverse load of 10N. Considering only
the bottom fibers of the beam ,the correct
representation of the longitudinal
variation of the bending stress is
ME
4.
2008
For the component loaded with a force F
as shown in the figure, the axial stress at
the corner point P is
10N
L
10mm
1m
1m
F
L-b
10mm
(A)
L
60 MPa
2b
(B)
2b
(A)
60 MPa
400 MPa
The transverse shear stress acting in a

beam of rectangular cross-section,
subjected to a transverse shear load, is
(A) variable with maximum at the
bottom of the beam
(B) variable with maximum at the top of
the beam
(C) uniform
(D) variable with maximum at the
neutral axis
6.
An axial residual compressive stress due

to a manufacturing process is present on
the outer surface of a rotating shaft
subjected to bending. Under a given
bending load. The fatigue life of the shaft
in the presence of the residual
compressive stress is
(A) Decreased
(B) Increased or decreased, depending
on the external bending load
(C) Neither decreased nor increased
(D) Increased
400 MPa
3.
2006
Statement for Linked Answer Questions
2 & 3:
A simply supported beam of span length 6
m and 75 mm diameter carriers a
uniformly distributed load of 1.5kN/m
What is the maximum value of bending
moment?
(A) 9 kNm
(C) 81 kNm
(B) 13.5 kNm
(D) 125 kNm
(D)
5.
(D)
2.
(C)
2b
(B)
(C)
ME
2b
What is the maximum value of bending

stress?
(A) 162.98 MPa
(C) 625.95 MPa
(B) 325.95 MPa
(D) 651.90 MPa
th
th
th
Page 172
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
2010
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 7 & 8:
A massless beam has a loading pattern as
shown in the figure. The beam is of
rectangular cross section with a width
of 30 mm and height of 100mm
3000 N m
B
7.
8.
The maximum magnitude of bending

stress (in MPa) is given by
(A) 60.0
(C) 200.0
(B) 67.5
(D) 225.0
ME
9.
2014
Consider a simply supported beam of
length, 50h, with a rectangular crosssection of depth h, and width 2h. The
beam carries a vertical point load P, at its
mid-point. The ratio of the maximum
shear stress to the maximum bending
stress in the beam is
(A) 0.02
(C) 0.05
(B) 0.10
(D) 0.01
2000 mm
SOM
2000 mm
The maximum bending moment occurs at

(A) Location B
(B) 2675 mm to the right of A
(C) 2500 mm to the right of A
(D) 3225 mm to the right of A

1.
[Ans. A]
The bending moment varies from zero to
10 N-m along the length of the beam from
the centre of the beam.
3.
[Ans. A]
Bending stress
M ximum lo d
dist nce
or Bending moment
ection modulus
.
Nm
.
.
4.
[Ans. D]
M
I
y
F L b
b
b
F L b
b
due to bending
F
b
due to xi l force
Tot l xi l stress
F KL b
F
b
b
F L b
Fb
b
b
FL
Fb Fb F L
b
b
b
10N
B
A
M
10 N M
10 M
M
I
y
MP
Similarly
2.
MP
[Ans. *]
Bending moment (B.M)=w x
Where, w=weight /unit length
And L= length of rod
B. M
. . (x
.
Here, L=6m,
B. M
kN
th
th
th
Page 173
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
SOM
[Ans. D]
.
. MP
Maximum at the
central neutral axis
9.
[Ans. D]
P
6.
[Ans. D]
Shaft subjective to compressive load
P
h
For bending,
stress variation
Max shear stress will be at mid of depth

h:-h
h
NA
Strong in compression
7.
[Ans. C]
3000 N/m
B
M x. she r stress
A
y
S. F. equation at any section x from end A.
x
{for x > 2m}
x
. m
8.
tx
.x
h
h h
h
h
P
h
Max. Bending moment will be at middle of
Beam (m):
P
Ph
h
m
h
(y
)
.
N. m
bending stress
M
FA y
Ib
M x. she r stress
[Ans. B]
Maximum bending moment
BM
he r force
M x. Bending stress
Ph
h
h
P
h
M x. she r stress
M x. Bending stress
. bd
th
th
th
My
I
P
h
h
P
Page 174
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Deflection of Beams
ME
1.
2005
Two identical cantilever beams are
supported as shown, with their free ends
in contact through a rigid roller. After the
load P is applied, the free ends will have
ME
3.
(A) equal deflections but not

slopes
(B) equal slopes but not
deflections
(C) equal slopes as well as
deflections
(D) neither equal slopes nor
deflections
ME
2.
2009
A frame of two arms of equal length L is
shown in the below figure. The flexural
rigidity of each arm of the frame is EI. The
vertical deflection at the point of
application of load P is
equal
equal
equal
equal
2007
A uniformly loaded propped cantilever
beam and its free body diagram are
shown below. The reactions are
q
ME
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2011
Linked Data Question 4 and 5.
A triangular-shaped cantilever beam of
uniform-thickness is shown in the figure.
The youngs modulus if the m teri l of the
beam is E. A concentrated load P is
applied at the free end of the beam.
l
q
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
The maximum deflection of the beam is
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 175
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
ME
6.
ME
7.
8.
The area moment of inertia about the

neutral axis of a cross-section at a
distance x measure from the free end is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
9.
A force P is applied at a distance x from

the end of the beam as shown in the
figure. What would be the value of x so
th t the displ cement t A is equ l to
zero?
L
A
2012
A cantilever beam of length L is subjected
to a moment M at the free end. The
moment of inertia of the beam cross
section about the neutral axis is I and the
youngs modulus is E. the m gnitude of
the maximum deflection is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
SOM
(A) 0.5L
(B) 0.25L
10.
2014
A cantilever beam of length, L, with
uniform cross-section and flexural
rigidity, EI, is loaded uniformly by a
vertical load, w per unit length. The
maximum vertical deflection of the beam
is given by
wL
wL
A
C
EI
EI
wL
wL
D
B
EI
EI
(C) 0.33L
(D) 0.66L
The flexural rigidity (EI) of a cantilever

beam is assumed to be constant over the
length of the beam shown in figure. If a
load P and bending moment PL/2 are
applied at the free end of the beam then
the value of the slope at the free end is
P
PL
PL
EI
PL
B
EI
A
C
D
PL
EI
PL
EI
A frame is subjected to a load P as shown

in the figure. The frame has a constant
flexural rigidity EI. The effect of axial load
is neglected. The deflection at point A due
to the applied load P is
L
A
L
P
A
B
PL
EI
PL
EI
PL
EI
PL
D
EI
C
th
th
th
Page 176
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM

1.
[Ans. A]
Alternately
A
2.
[Ans. A]
L
For BC
M
P x
Strain energy,
M dx P L
EI
EI
For AB,
M
P L
Strain energy,
M dy P L
EI
EI
Total strain energy,
P L
P L
P L
EI
EI
EI
+ = qL
..
This is equal to UDL cantilever
Plus cantilever having lo d t
So Deflection at 2 due to UDL
qL
EI
L
EI
For zero deflection at 2 point two
deflections should equal
qL
L
EI
EI
qL
P
From (i)
qL
M
3.
[Ans. D]
d y
EI
dn
or M
EI
deflection
qL
Moment M =
qL
Or Deflection
qL
qL
4.
M
x
P L
M dx
M
El
P. x dx
E
LP L
.
Ebt
L
PL
EI
P L
EI
[Ans. D]
Strain Energy,
P L
5.
Px
LP
. xdx
Ebt
LP
Ebt
L
PL
p
Ebt
Ebt
[Ans. B]
At any distance x
h= x
Integrating two time and putting x=L, we

get
y=
th
th
th
Page 177
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
P
h
l
L
Area moment of inertia,

= x.
6.
B
P
[Ans. A]
M = PL
M
L
BMD
Deflection
EI
ML
EI
EI
Chapter Name: Stresses in beams
M
d
dx
PL
dy
dx
PL
x
EI
dy
dx
PL
x tx
EI
slope
(Moment of area of BMD)
7.
PL
EI
9.
tx
8.
d
dx
dy
dx
dy
PL
|
dx
EI
dy
PL
|
L
dx
EI
PL
EI
PL
EI
P(L x)
wL
EI
EI
[Ans. C]
After transferring force P to A
We get
[Ans. A]
t nd rd deriv tion
Displacement at A only due to point load

P
[Ans. D]
Net deflection
PL
EI
A moment will act at point
B due to load P at A
is given by
(Downward)
Displacement at A only due to bending

moment
(P(L-x) is given by : _________________
.
P L
.
L
A
Are moment method
moment of B. M. D. re t A
EI
P L x
L
upw rd
EI
Resultant displacement at A is zero
when B l nces
th
th
th
Page 178
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
PL
P L
L
EI
EI
L L
x
10.
L
L
L
.
SOM
x
L
[Ans. B]
P
PL
b
PL
EI
ML
PL L
lope t free end in b is
( )
EI
EI
PL
EI
PL
PL
slope
slope
slope
EI
EI
PL
EI
lope t free end in
is
th
th
th
Page 179
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Torsion
ME
1.
2.
2005
A weighing machine consists of a 2 kg pan
resting on spring. In this condition, with
the pan resting on the spring, the length
of the spring is 200mm. When a mass of
20 kg is placed on the pan, the length of
the spring becomes 100 mm. For the
spring, the un-deformed length and the
spring constant k(stiffness) are
(A) l
mm k
N m
(B) l
mm k
N m
(C) l
mm k
N m
(D) l
mm k
N m
Coupling
(A) T
(B) T
L
B
The maximum shear stress in the shaft is

T
T
A
C
d
d
T
T
D
B
d
d
T
T
ME
6.
(C) T
(D) T
3L/4
L/4
C
B
L
2009
A solid shaft of diameter, d and length L is
fixed at both the ends. A torque, T0 is
applied at a distance, L/4 from the left
end as shown in the figure given below.
T0
2d
ME
4.
ME
5.
The two shafts AB and BC , of equal length

and diameter d and 2d, are made of the
same material they are joined at B
through a shaft coupling, while the ends A
and C are built in (cantilevered). A
twisting moment T is applied to the
coupling .If T and T represent twisting
moments at the ends A and C respectively,
then
d
ME
3.
diameter is 20mm, free length is 40mm

and the number of active coils is 10. If the
mean coil diameter is reduced to 10mm,
the stiffness of the
spring is
approximately
(A) decreased by 8 times
(B) decreased by 2 times
(C) increased by 2 times
(D) increased by 8 times
T
T
2006
For a circular shaft of diameter d
subjected to torque T, the maximum value
of the shear stress is:
T
T
A
C
d
d
T
T
B
D
d
d
2011
A torque T is applied at the free end of a
stepped rod of circular cross-section as
shown in the figure. The shear modulus of
the material of the rod is G. the
expression of d to produce an angular
twist t the free end is
L/2
T
2d
2008
A compression spring is made of music
wire of 2mm diameter having a shear
strength and shear modulus of 800 MPa
and 80 GPa respectively. The mean coil
th
(A) (
(C) (
(B) (
(D) (
th
th
)
)
Page 180
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
7.
2012
A solid circular shaft needs to be designed
to transmit a torque of 50N.m. If the
allowable shear stress of the material is
140MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2,
the minimum allowable design diameter
in mm is
(A) 8
(C) 24
(B) 16
(D) 32
ME
8.
SOM
2014
Two solid circular shafts of radii
and
are subjected to same torque. The
maximum shear stresses developed in the
two shafts are
nd . If
then
is

1.
2.
[Ans. B]
Let initi l length is without lo d nd
stiffness is k
s
F Km
g k
.
i
g k
.
ii
Solving equ i nd ii ,
we get
mm nd k
N m
[Ans. B]
T0
1
T1
T
T
l
T
TL
T
G
L
L
T2
.. i
TL
T (
T
T
ii
From equation (i) and (ii)
T
T
T
T
T
T
T
T
[Ans. C]
Let T = torque; d = diameter of shaft and
m ximum v lue of she r stress
nd T
m x
4.
T0
T ( )
3L/4
L2
L/4
L1
[Ans. C]
Angular deflection in bot shafts are same
T
3.
5.
T
T
she r stress T
Therefore maximum shear stress in the
shaft will be due to torque
T
r
l
[Ans. D]
Gd
k
D N
k
D
( )
k
D
k
( )
k
(
d
)
d
T
d
th
th
th
Page 181
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. B]
2
T
J
{
G
r
L
TL
GJ
T L
d
TL
d
T
d
TL
d
TL
G
d
7.
SOM
TL
]
G
[ Ans. B]
T
d
T
d
d
.
So closest = 16 mm
8.

Given
Maximum shear stress developed
T
in sh ft is given by
d
T
T
o
d
d
T
d
d
d
T
d
(
th
th
th
Page 182
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Mohrs Circle
ME
1.
2005
The Mohrs circle of pl ne stress for
point in a body is shown .The design is to
be done on the basis of the maximum
shear stress theory for yielding. Then,
yielding will just begin if the designer
chooses a ductile material whose yield
strength is
MP
5.
If the principal stresses in a plane stress

problem, are
the magnitude of the maximum shear
stress (in MPa) will be
(A) 60
(C) 30
(B) 50
(D) 20
ME
6.
2010
The state of plane
given by x =
nd xy = 100 MPa.
stress (in MPa) is
(A) 111.8
(B) 150.1
MP
(A) 45 MPa
(B) 50 MPa
(C) 90 MPa
(D) 100MPa
ME
2.
2008
A two dimensional fluid element rotates
like a rigid body. At a point within the
element, the pressure is 1 unit. Radius of
the Mohrs circle ch r cterizing the st te
of stress at the point, is
(A) 0.5 unit
(C) 1 unit
(B) 0 unit
(D) 2 unit
3.
A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm

is subjected to an axial stress of 50 Mpa. It
is further subjected to a torque of 10
kNm. The maximum principal stress
experienced on the shaft is closest to
(A) 41 MPa
(C) 164 MPa
(B) 82 MPa
(D) 204 MPa
ME
4.
2009
A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a combined bending moment
M and torque, T. The material property to
be used for designing the shaft using the
relation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
stress at a point is
MP
y = 100 MPa
The maximum shear
(C) 180.3
(D) 223.6
ME
7.
2012
The state of stress at a point under plane
stress condition is
MP
MP nd
MP .
The r dius of the Mohrs circle
representing the given state of stress in
MPa is
(A) 40
(C) 60
(B) 50
(D) 100
ME
8.
2014
The state of stress at a point is given by
MP
MP nd
MP . The maximum tensile
stress (in MPa ) at the point is ________
T is
ultimate tensile strength (Su)

tensile yield strength (Sy)
torsional yield strength (Ssy)
endurance strength (Se)
th
th
th
Page 183
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM

1.
[Ans. C]
4.
[Ans. C]
Material subjected to torsion fails by
shear stresses (Ssy)
5.
[Ans. C]
Maximum shear stress,
MP
MP
2.
[Ans. B]
Since the pressure in fluid is of
hydrodynamic type
p
p
p
normal stress in all directions is same and
shear stress on any plane is zero.
Hence r dius of Mohrs circle is zero.
MP
6.
[Ans. C]
MP
MP
MP
)
. MP .
7.
[Ans. B]
(
3.
[Ans. B]
)
)
8.
.
Maximum principal stress
( )
(
(
)
MP
.
.
.
.
th
th
MP
th
Page 184
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Strain Energy Methods

ME
1.
2007
A stepped steel shaft shown below is
subjected to 10 Nm torque. If the modulus
of rigidity is 80 GPa, the strain energy in
the shaft in N mm is
T = 10 Nm
50 mm
25 mm
100 mm
100 mm
(A) 4.12
(B) 3.46
ME
2.
ME
3.
(C) 1.73
(D) 0.86
2013
Two threaded bolts A and B of same
material and length are subjected to
identical tensile load. If the elastic strain
energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of
bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is
12 mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in
mm is
(A) 16
(C) 36
(B) 24
(D) 48
2008
The strain energy stored in the beam with
flexural rigidity EI and loaded as shown in
the figure is
P
P
2L
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)

1.
[Ans. C]
Strain energy =
T L
(
Gj J
[(
.
2.
P
x dx
EI
)]
[
N
mm
3.
PL
L
EI
P L
EI
P
EI
P L
EI
[Ans. B]
(
[Ans. C]
PL
EI
Px dx
EI
P L E re s me
PL
EI
mm
Total strain energy stored is given by
th
th
th
Page 185
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM
Columns & Struts

ME
1.
ME
2.
2006
A pin-ended column of length L, modulus
of elasticity E and second moment of the
cross-sectional area I is loaded centrically
by a compressive load P. The critical
bucking load( ) is given by
(A) P =
(C) P =
(B) P =
(D) P =
2008
The rod PQ of length L with flexural
rigidity EI is hinged at both ends. For
what minimum force F is it expected to
buckle?
p
Q
F
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME
3.
2011
A column has a rectangular cross- section
of 10 mm 20 mm and a length of 1m.
the slenderness ratio of the column is
close to
(A) 200
(C) 477
(B) 346
(D) 1000
ME
4.
2012
For a long slender column of uniform
cross section, the ratio of critical buckling
load for the case with both ends clamped
to the case with both ends hinged is
(A) 1
(C) 4
(B) 2
(D) 8
th
th
th
Page 186
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
SOM

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
The critical buckling load P for a
column having length L, modulus of
elasticity E and second moment of cross
sectional area I is loaded centrically.
Condition: Both ends are having pin joint.
i.e., hinged
So n = 1
EI
EI
P
n
L
L
lenderness r tio
4.
[Ans. C]
Eulers buckling lo d
n El
PE
L
n = 4 for both end clamped (fixed)
n= 1 for both end hinged
tio
[Ans. B]
Since both ends hinged, therefore Le=L
Buckling load, W =
F
Also
W=Fcos 45
EI l
EI
EI
cos
L
L
F
3.
[Ans. B]
lenderness r tio
Effective length
Le st r dius of gyr tion
Least radius of gyration will be along the
major axis
20
10
l
A
but l
bh
mm
th
th
th
Page 187
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Basic Thermodynamics
ME 2005
1.
A reversible thermodynamic cycle
containing only three processes and
producing work is to be constructed. The
constraints are
(i) there must be one isothermal
process,
(ii) there must be one isentropic process,
(iii) the maximum and minimum cycle
pressures and the clearance volume
are fixed, and
(iv) polytropic processes are not allowed.
Then the number of possible cycles
are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
2.
The following four figures have been

drawn
to
represent
a
fictitious
thermodynamic cycle, on the P-V and T-S
planes.
P
V
Figure 1
T
S
Figure 4
According to the first law of

thermodynamics,
equal
areas
are
enclosed by
(A) Figures 1 and 2 (C) Figures 1 and 4
(B) Figures 1 and 3 (D) Figures 2 and 3
ME 2006
3 & 4:
A football was inflated to a gauge
pressure of
1 bar when the ambient
temperature was
C. When the game
started next day, the air temperature at
the stadium was C. Assume that the
volume of the football remains constant at
2500 cm3.
3.
The amount of heat lost by the air in the
football and the gauge pressure of air in
the football at the stadium respectively is
(A) 30.6 J, 1.94 bar (C) 61.1J , 1.94 bar
(B) 21.8J , 0.93 bar (D) 43.7J ,0.93 bar
4.
Gauge pressure of air to which the ball

must have been originally inflated so that
it would equal 1 bar gauge at the stadium
is
(A) 2.23 bar
(C) 1.07 bar
(B) 1.94 bar
(D) 1.00 bar
S
Figure 2
P
V
Figure 3
ME 2007
5.
Which of the following relationships is
valid only for reversible processes
undergone by a closed system of simple
compressible substance (neglect changes
in kinetic and potential energy)?
(A) Q
U
W
(C) T S
U
W
(B) T S
U p V
(D) Q
U p V
th
th
th
Page 188
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
of the following statements is TRUE at the

end of above process?
(A) The internal energy of the gas
decreases from its initial value, but
the enthalpy remains constant
(B) The internal energy of the gas
increases from its initial value, but
the enthalpy remains constant
(C) Both internal energy and enthalpy of
the gas remain constant
(D) Both internal energy and enthalpy of
the gas increase
ME 2008
6.
In a steady state flow process taking place
in a device with a single inlet and a single
outlet, the work done per unit mass flow
v p , where
v is the specific volume and p is the

pressure. The expression for w given
above
(A) is valid only if the process is both
reversible and adiabatic
(B) is valid only if the process is both
reversible and isothermal
(C) is valid for any reversible process
(D) is incorrect; it must be
rate is given by w =
w =
7.
p v
A rigid, insulated tank is initially

evacuated. The tank is connected with a
supply line through which air (assumed
to be ideal gas with constant specific
heats) passes at 1 MPa, 350C . A valve
connected with the supply line is opened
and the tank is charged with air until the
final pressure inside the tank reaches 1
MPa. The final temperature inside the
tank
Air supply line
valve
Tank
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8.
is greater than
is less than
is equal to
may be greater than, less than, or
equal to
, depending on the
volume of the tank
Thermodynamics
ME 2009
9.
A compressor undergoes a reversible,
steady flow process. The gas at inlet and
outlet of the compressor is designated as
state 1 and state 2 respectively. Potential
and kinetic energy changes are to be
ignored. The following notation are used:
v = specific volume and P = pressure of
the gas.
The specific work required to be supplied
to the compressor for this gas
compression process is
(C) v P
P
(A) P v
(D) P v
v
(B) v p
ME 2011
10. Heat and work are
(A) Intensive properties
(B) Extensive properties
(C) Point functions
(D) Path functions
11.
A balloon containing an ideal gas is

initially kept in an evacuated and
insulated room. The balloon ruptures and
the gas fills up the entire room. Which one
th
The contents of a well insulated tank are

heated by a resistor of 23 in which 10 A
current is flowing. Consider the tank
along
with
its
contents
as
a
thermodynamic system. The work done
by the system and the heat transfer to the
system are positive. The rates of heat (Q),
work (W) and change in internal energy
U uring the process in kW are
th
th
Page 189
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q = 0, W = 2. , U
Q
2. , W
, U
Q = 2. , W
, U
Q
,W
2. , U
2.
2.
2.3
2.3
ME 2012
Statement for linked answer Questions
12 & 13:
Air enters an adiabatic nozzle at 300kPa,
500K with a velocity of 10 m/s. It leaves
the nozzle at 100kPa with a velocity of
180m/s. The inlet area is 80cm . The
specific heat of air is 1008 J/kg. K
12. The exit temperature of the air is
(A) 516K
(C) 484 K
(B) 532 K
(D) 468 K
13.
The exit area of the nozzle in cm is

(A) 90.1
(C) 4.4
(B) 56.3
(D) 12.9
ME 2013
14. A cylinder contains 5 m3 of an ideal gas at
a pressure of 1 bar. This gas is
compressed in a reversible isothermal
process till its pressure increases to 5 bar.
The work in kJ required for this process is
(A) 804.7
(C) 981.7
(B) 953.2
(D) 1012.2
15.
Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at

inlet and exit of a steam turbine running
under steady state , are as given below :
Specific
Velocity(m/s)
enthalpy
(kJ/kg)
Inlet
3250
180
steam
condition
Exit
2360
5
stean
condition
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per
kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting
changes in potential energy of steam, the
Thermodynamics
power developed in kW by the steam

turbine per kg of steam flow rate, is
(A) 901.2
(C) 17072.5
(B) 911.2
(D) 17082.5
16.
The pressure , temperature and velocity

of air flowing in a pipe are 5 bar , 500 K
and 50 m/s , respectively. The specific
heats of air at constant pressure and at
constant volume are 1.005 kJ/kgK and
0.718 kJ/kgK, respectively. Neglect
potential energy. If the pressure and
temperature of the surrounding are 1 bar
300 K, respectively , the available energy
in kJ/kg of the air stream is
(A) 170
(C) 191
(B) 187
(D) 213
ME 2014
17. The
maximum
theoretical
work
obtainable, when a system interacts to
equilibrium with a
reference
environment, is called
(A) Entropy
(C) Exergy
(B) Enthalpy
(D) Rothalpy
18.
In a power plant, water (density = 1000

kg/m ) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa.
The pump has an isentropic efficiency of
0.85. Assuming that the temperature of
the water remains the same, the specific
work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(A) 0.34
(C) 2.92
(B) 2.48
(D) 3.43
19.
1.5 kg of water is in saturated liquid state

at 2 bar V
.
m kg,
u
. kJ kg, h
kJ kg .Heat is
added in a constant pressure process till
the temperature of water reaches 400C
(v = 1.5493 m /kg, u = 2967.0 kJ/kg,
h = 3277.0 kJ/kg). The heat added (in kJ)
in the process is _______
th
th
th
Page 190
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of

heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a
certain amount of heat from a reservoir at
800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir
at 400 K. The net work output (in kJ) of
the cycle is
(A) 0.8
(C) 1.4
(B) 1.0
(D) 2.0
21.
A pure substance at 8 MPa and 400 C is

having a specific internal energy of
2864 kJ/kg and a specific volume of
0.03432 m /kg. Its specific enthalpy (in
kJ/kg) is _______
22.
Which one of the following pairs of

equations describes an irreversible heat
engine?
(A)
an
(B)
an
(C)
an
(D)
an
Thermodynamics
23.
A source at a temperature of 500 K

provides 1000 kJ of heat. The
temperature of environment is 27C. The
maximum useful work (in kJ) that can be
obtained from the heat source is _______
24.
A certain amount of an ideal gas is

initially at a pressure p and temperature
T . First, it undergoes a constant pressure
process 1-2 such that T = T /4. Then, it
undergoes a constant volume process 2-3
such that T = T /2. The ratio of the final
volume to the initial volume of the ideal
gas is
(A) 0.25
(C) 1.0
(B) 0.75
(D) 1.5
25.
An amount of 100 kW of heat is

transferred through a wall in steady state.
One side of the wall is maintained at
127C and the other side at 27C. The
entropy generated (in W/K) due to the
heat transfer through the wall is _______
th
th
th
Page 191
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics

1.
2
2
. KPa
Gauge pressure on the day of play
=194.33 101.325
= 93kPa = 0.93bar
[Ans. B]
One cycle having constant volume process
(i) and one cycle having constant
pressure process (ii) can be formed.
P
3
2
4.
[Ans. C]
We know that
P V
mRT
PV
mRT
V
V
P
T
P
T
P
2.08 bar (absolute)
Gauge pressure =2.08 1.
=1.07 bar
5.
[Ans. C]
For reversible processes, by I law
Q
U
W
(i)
3
1
V
(ii
)
Thermodynamic
Note
cycle producing
work is always clockwise cycle.
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed by cycle on P-V
diagram give net work transfer where as
the area enclosed by cycle on T-S diagram
gives net heat transfer
According to first law of thermodynamics
for cycle.
Net heat transfer = Net work transfer
[Ans. D]
P
. 2
2 . 2 kPa
T
2 K, V
2
.
PV
m
RT
2 . 2
2
2
2
.
kg
As volume is constant, dW =0
Q
U m
T
.
.
. J
P
. 2
Also by definition of entropy, S

Hence, T s
6.
[Ans. C]
For steady flow,
W=
v p
The expression is valid only for reversible

process.
7.
[Ans. A]
The fixed temperature inside the tank is
given by
T1 = 1.4 (350 +273)
= 872.2 K = 599.2 C
8.
[Ans. C]
Room is insulated so dQ = 0
Room is evacuated so the expansion is
free expression.
for free expansion dW = 0
According to first law of thermodynamics
dQ = dU +dW
pressure on the ay o play

T
P
T
th
th
th
Page 192
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
U
According to joules law for ideal gas
U = f(T)
So T
T
We know
H = U + Pv
H = U + mRT
H = f(T)
dH = 0
So both internal energy and enthalpy are
constant.
9.
11.
12.
15.
P v ln
P
P
ln
ln
. kJ
[Ans. A]
Applying steady flow energy equation,
Q
gz
2
w
16.
[Ans. A]
Heat added to the contents of the system.
Q=I R
2
2
W 2. kW
Wall is insulated Q = 0
Work done on the system, W = 2.3 kW
According first law
dQ = dU + dW
dU = +2.3 kW
[Ans. B]
Available energy
availability
h
gz
is
(
T
2
kWkg
A= h
V
2
V
2
difference
)
T S
in
.
2
kJ kg
.2 kJ kg
T
P
R In ]
T
P
= 15.44 kJ/kg
A = 201 +1.25 15.44 = 187 kJ/kg
T S
[Ans. C]
kPa
K
ms
[Ans. A]
W
[Ans. D]
Heat and work are path functions.
P
T
V
V
2
[Ans. D]
V
v P
P
V
T
V
(
T
V
(
T
13.
V
2
h
T
14.
h
v P Q
v P
P.
K.
W
Since K.E. and P.E are constant
10.
V
2
R
2. cm
[Ans. B]
h u Pv
h
u P v v P
But dQ = du + Pdv
u
Q P v
h
Q p v P v v P
h
Q v P
Thermodynamics
kPa
ms
17.
[Ans. C]
18.
[Ans. D]
W
T [
In
V p
JkgK
th
th
th
Page 193
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
2. 2 kJ kg
W
19.
22.
[Ans. A]
For an irreversible heat engine
Q
,
Also, entropy change for irreversible heat
engine
Q
s
T
s
, ecause its point unction
Q
Q
T
T
23.

For maximum work, engine should be
reversible,
So,
Efficiency of reversible engine
2. 2
.
kJ kg
[Ans. *] Range 4155 to 4160
u P v
h v p
s pressure
,
Q
h
h
Q
20.
m h
Q
h
2 .
2 2 kJ kg
. 2 2
=n
T
T
kJ
K
2
[Ans. C]
Q =2 kJ
W
Q
Q =?
Q =1 kJ
K
We know that for reversible heat engine

change in entropy is always zero
that is S
Q
Q
Q
(
)
T
T
T
2
Q
Q
. kJ
W = Q
Q
Q = 2
W
24.
21.
Thermodynamics
= . kJ
kJ
Q
kJ
[Ans. B]
or constant pressure proces
V
V T
(
)
T
T T
V
V
or constant volume process 2

V
V
V
V
V
V
25.
2
[Ans. *]Range 3135 to 3140

h u pv
2
.
2
. kJ kg
K
T
T
th
th
kw
th
Page 194
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Entropy change of face 1 of wall:

Q
S
.2
T
ntropy change o ace 2 o wall
Q
S
.
T
Entropy change of wall will be zero , due
to steady state
S
S
S
S
S
.2
.
.
S
,means process of heat flow
through finite temperature difference is
irreversible irreversibility is responsible
for entropy generation
So, S
.
W K
th
th
th
Page 195
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Irreversibility & Availability

r.
The work done by a closed system in

an adiabatic process is a point
function.
s. A liquid expands upon freezing when
the slope of its fusion curve on
Pressure-Temperature diagram is
negative.
(A) R and S
(C) Q, R and S
(B) P and Q
(D) P,Q and R
ME 2005
1.
Nitrogen at an initial state of 10 bar,
1m and 300 K is expanded isothermally
to a final volume of 2m .
The p - v - T
relation is p
v = RT, where a
.
The final pressure
(A) will be slightly less than 5 bar
(B) will be slightly more than 5 bar
(C) will be exactly 5 bar
(D) cannot be ascertained in the absence
of the value of a.
ME 2007
2.
Which combination of the following
statements is correct?
p. A gas cools upon expansion only
when its Joule-Thomson co-efficient
is positive in the temperature range
of expansion.
q. For a system undergoing a process,
its entropy remains constant only
when the process is reversible.
ME 2010
3.
Consider the following two processes;
a. A heat source at 1200 K loses 2500
kJ of heat to a sink at 800 K
b. A heat source at 800 K loses 2000 kJ
of heat to a sink at 500 K
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Process I is more irreversible than
Process II
(B) Process II is more irreversible than
Process I
(C) Irreversibility associated in both the
processes are equal
(D) Both the processes are reversible

1.
[Ans. B]
(p
3.
[Ans. B]
for irreversible process
)V=RT
For Isothermal Process

a
a
(P
)V
(P
)V
V
V
V
a
a
P
P
V
VV
V
a
a
a
2
2 2
2.
i. e.
Process I
Q
2
2
. 2
T
2
Process II
Q
2
2
.
.
T
process II is more irreversible than
process I
[Ans. A]
th
th
th
Page 196
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Properties of Pure Substances

ME 2006
1.
Given below is an extract from steam
tables.
Temperature
in
(bar)
Specific volume(
Enthalpy (kJ/kg)
Saturated
liquid
Saturated
vapour
Saturated
liquid
Saturated
vapour
45
0.09593
0.001010
15.26
188.45
2394.8
342.24
150
0.001658
0.010337
1610.5
2610.5
Specific enthalpy of water in kJ/kg at 150

bar and 45 C is
(A) 203.60
(C) 196.38
(B) 200.53
(D) 188.45
ME 2014
3.
A spherical balloon with a diameter of
10 m, shown in the figure below is used
for advertisements. The balloon is filled
with helium ( R = 2.08 kJ/kg.K) at
ambient conditions of 15C and 100 kPa.
Assuming no disturbances due to wind,
the maximum allowable weight (in
newton) of balloon material and rope
required to avoid the fall of the balloon
(R = 0.289 kJ/kg.K) is _______
G T
2
ME 2007
2.
Water has a critical specific volume of
0.003155 m3/kg. A closed and rigid steel
tank of volume 0.025 m3 contains a
mixture of water and steam at 0.1 MPa.
The mass of the mixture is 10 kg. The tank
is now slowly heated. The liquid level
inside the tank
(A) will rise
(B) will fall
(C) will remain constant
(D) may rise or fall depending on the
amount of heat transferred
th
th
th
Page 197
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics

1.
2.
[Ans. A]
Specific volume in compressed liquid
region does not change with pressure as
water is incompressible.
U
h
P V
= 188.45 9.593 x 0.0010
= 188.44 kJ/kg
h
U
P V
= 188.44 + 150 x 100 x 0.00101
= 203.6 kJ/kg
[Ans. A]
V
.
m kg
V
. 2 m
m
kg
Rigid means volume
Specific Vol.
()=
3.
[Ans. *] Range 5300 to 5330
w
w
upwar thrust
w
w
w
is
w
Vg
Vg
constant.
P
R
) Vg
PVg
[
T R
= . 2 m kg
We are given initially a mixture of water
and steam at 0.117Pa.
After that it is a constant vol.Process.
Since it is a constant vol heating process.
Point (2) will touch the saturated liquid
line and hence the liquid level will rise.
) Vg
R
g
[
R
R
.
.2
2.
(2)
. 2N
N
0.1MPa
(1)
th
th
th
Page 198
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Work, Heat & Entropy

ME 2006
1.
Match items from groups 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Group 1
Group 2
Group 3
When added Differential
to the system,
is
E-Heat G Positive
I Exact
F Work H Negative
J Inexact
3.
The above cycle is represented on T-S

plane by
(A) T
Group 4
Group 5
Function Phenomenon
K Path
L Point
M Transient
N Boundary
2.
(A) F G J K M
EGIKN
(B) E G I K M
FHIKN
(C) F H J L N
EHILM
(D) E G J K N
FHJKM
(B)
1
S
(C) T
A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in

a 2.5 m 3 m 3 m size thermally
insulated room having a temperature of
2
. The room temperature at the end of
24 hours will be
(A) 2
(C)
(B)
(D)
1
2
(D)
S
T
ME 2007
Common Data Questions: 3 & 4
A thermodynamic cycle with an ideal gas
as working fluid is shown below.
P
100 kPa
4.
If the specific heats of the working fluid

are constant and the value of specific heat
ratio is . , the thermal e iciency % o
the cycle is
(A) 21
(C) 42.6
(B) 40.9
(D) 59.7
5.
A heat transformer is a device that

transfers a part of the heat, supplied to it
at an intermediate temperature, to a high
temperature reservoir while rejecting the
remaining part to a low temperature heat
sink. In such a heat transformer, 100 kJ of
PV = Constant
2
100 kPa
m
1
V
th
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Page 199
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
heat is supplied at 350 K. The maximum

amount of heat in kJ that can be
transferred to 400 K, when the rest is
rejected to a heat sink at 300 K is
(A) 12.50
(C) 33.33
(B) 14.29
(D) 57.14
ME 2008
Common Data for Questions 6, 7 and 8:
In the figure shown, the system is a pure
substance kept in a piston- cylinder
arrangement. The system is initially a twophase mixture containing 1 kg of liquid and
0.03 kg of vapour at a pressure of 100 kPa.
Initially, the piston rests on a set of stops, as
shown in the figure. A pressure of 200kPa is
required to exactly balance the weight of
the piston and the outside atmospheric
pressure. Heat transfer takes place into the
system until its volume increases by 50%.
Heat transfer to the system occurs in such a
manner that the piston, when allowed to
move, does so in a very slow (quasi static
/ quasi equilibrium) process. The thermal
reservoir from which heat is transferred to
the system has a temperature of
.
Average temperature of the system
boundary can be taken as
. The heat
transfer to the system is 1kJ, during which
its entropy increase by 10 J/K.
6.
At the end of the process, which one of

the following situations will be true?
(A) superheated vapour will be left in the
system
(B) no vapour will be left in the system
(C) a liquid + vapour mixture will be left
in the system
(D) the mixture will exist at a dry
saturate vapour state
7.
The work done by the system during the

process is
(A) 0.1 kJ
(C) 0.3 kJ
(B) 0.2 kJ
(D) 0.4 kJ
8.
The net entropy generation (considering

the system and the thermal reservoir
together) during the process is closest to
(A) 7.5 J/K
(C) 8.5 J/K
(B) 7.7 J/K
(D) 10 J/K
9.
A gas expands in a frictionless

piston
cylinder arrangement. The
expansion process is very slow, and is
resisted by an ambient pressure of
100kPa. During the expansion process,
the pressure of the system (gas) remains
constant at 300kPa. The change in volume
of the gas is 0.01m3. The maximum
amount of work that could be utilized
from the above process is
(A) 0 kJ
(C) 2 kJ
(B) 1 kJ
(D) 3 kJ
10.
2 moles of oxygen are mixed adiabatically

with another 2 moles of oxygen in mixing
chamber, so that the final total pressure
and temperature of the mixture become
same as those of the individual
constituents at their initial states. The
universal gas constant is given as R. The
change in entropy due to mixing, per
mole of oxygen, is given by
(A) R ln2
(C) R ln2
(B) 0
(D) R ln4
Atmospheric
pressure
Piston
Stop
System
Specific volume of liquid (vf) and vapour

(vg) phases, as well as values of saturation
temperatures, are given below.
Pressure
(kPa)
Vf(m3/kg)
Vg
(m3/kg)
100
Saturation
Temperature,
Tsat )
100
0.001
0.1
200
200
0.0015
0.002
Thermodynamics
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Page 200
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
conditions maintained at P and Q. The

condition at the P is 150 kPa and 350 K.
The temperature at station Q is 300 K.
The following are the properties and
relations pertaining to air:
Specific heat at constant pressure,
.
kJ kgK
Specific heat at constant volume,
.
kJ kgK
Characteristic gas constant,R
.2 kJ/kgK.
Enthalpy, h
T.
Internal energy, u
T.
ME 2009
11. A frictionless piston-cylinder device
contains a gas initially at 0.8MPa and
0.015 m3. It expands quasi-statically at
constant temperature to a final volume of
0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ) during
this process will be
(A) 8.32
(C) 554.67
(B) 12.00
(D) 8320.00
12.
If a closed system is undergoing an

irreversible process, the entropy of the
system
(A) Must increase
(B) Always remains constant
(C) Must decrease
(D) Can increase, decrease or remain
constant
ME 2010
13. A mono atomic i eal gas
. ,
molecular weight = 40) is compressed
adiabatically from 0.1 MPa, 300 K to 0.2
MPa. The universal gas constant is
8.314 kJ k mol K . The work of
compression of the gas (in kJ kg ) is
(A) 29.7
(C) 13.3
(B) 19.9
(D) 0
14.
One kilogram of water at room

temperature is brought into contact with
a high temperature thermal reservoir.
The entropy change of the universe is
(A) equal to entropy change of the
reservoir
(B) equal to entropy change of water
(C) equal to zero
(D) always positive
ME 2011
Common Data Question 15 and 16
In an experimental set-up, airflows
between two station P and Q
adiabatically. The direction of flows
depends on the pressure and temperature
Thermodynamics
15.
If the air has to flow from station P to

station Q, the maximum possible value of
pressure in kPa at station Q is close to
(A) 50
(C) 128
(B) 87
(D) 150
16.
If the pressure at station Q is 50 kPa, the

change in entropy (S
S ) in kJ/kgK is
(A)
.
(C) 0.160
(B)
(D) 0.355
ME 2012
17. An ideal gas of mass m and temperature
T undergoes a reversible isothermal
process from an initial pressure P to final
pressure P . The heat loss using the
process is Q. the entropy change S o the
gas is
(A) mRln( )
(C) mRln( )
(B) mRln( )
(D) Zero
ME 2014
18. A closed system contains 10 kg of
saturated liquid ammonia at 10C. Heat
addition required to convert the entire
liquid into saturated vapour at a constant
pressure is 16.2 MJ. If the entropy of the
saturated liquid is 0.88 kJ/kg.K, the
entropy (in kJ/kg.K) of saturated vapour
is_______
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Page 201
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics

1.
2.
3.
4.
[Ans. D]
When added
to the
system
Differential
Function
Phenomenon
Heat
P
P
Work
. (
Positive
Inexact
Path
Boundary
Negative
Inexact
Path
Transient
5.
Where
[Ans. D]
Consider maximum heat transfer to 400K
is Q kJ
400
Q
Q=100
350
Q
300
Q Q Q
Q
Q
Apply Clausicus equality
Q Q
Q
T T
T
Q [
Q
6.
]
kJ
[Ans. A]
Given data:
Mass of liquid mw = 1kg
Mass of vapour mv = 0.03kg
Pressure of two-phase mixture = 100 kPa
Dryness
fraction
of
the
steam
x1 =
x1 =
.
.
= 0.029
Dryness fraction of the steam at 200 kPa

(x2)
x v
x v
. 2
.
x
. 2
x
.
that means, superheated vapour will be
left in the system.
[Ans. A]
The given cycle is Lenoir cycle for which
thermal efficiency is given by
(
2 .
[Ans. D]
Heat generated by bulb
= 100 24 60 60 Joule.
Density of the air =1.2 kg/m3
Heat issipate
V
(T 20)
Volume of the room 2.
Cv of air = .717 kJ/kgK
100 24 60 60 = 27 0.717
1000 (T 20)
T2 =
[Ans. C]
Since 3 1 is adiabatic process, it will be
represented by a straight line on T s
plane. 1 2 is isobaric process, so with
decrease of volume, temperature will also
decrease.
We can observe in the pv diagram that
temperature is not constant during any
stage hence options (b) & (d) are rejected
as temperature is constant during the
stage 3 1 in both the options which is
not possible option (a) is rejected
because clockwise process in P v diagram
cannot have anticlockwise T-s diagram.
Hence the correct option is (c)
= specific heat ratio = 1.4
th
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Page 202
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
[Ans. D]
W. D. by the system W = W. D. in constant
volume process + W.D. in constant
pressure process
W
P v
P v
v
. Pv since v
. v
Where v
m
v
v
v xv
.
. 2
.
.
.
m kg
v
.
.
m kg
w
.
2
. kJ
[Ans. C]
Net entropy (S)univ = (S)system +
(S)surrounding
(S)univ= 10
9.
10.
R
P
T
P
v p
.
.
.
.
14.
[Ans. D]
The entropy change of the universe is
always positive.
15.
[Ans. B]
Since it talks about maximum possible
value of pressure hence we take it case of
reversible case.
T s
h v p
T
P
s
In ( ) R In ( )
T
P
Since it is adiabatic reversible process for
the maximum possible value of pressure
at station Q.
T
P
In ( ) R In ( )
T
P
1.005 In (
P
16.
13.
. 2
= 2 . kJkg
Negative sign shows compression work.
= 8.317 8.32 kJ
Work output
. 2 kJ
12.
Work done/kg =
[Ans. A]
In isothermal process
V
W
P V ln
V
103 0.015 ln (
kPa
k
kPa
[Ans. B]
= 0.8
kJ/kg K
mR T
T
T
P
( )
T
P
T
Since, Q = 0, therefore S =
11.
.2
Work done
8.5 J/K
[Ans. C]
Maximum amount of work =
= 0.01 (300 100)
= 0.01 200 = 2 kJ
Thermodynamics
[Ans. D]
If a closed system is undergoing an
irreversible process, the entropy of the
system can increase, decrease or remain
constant.
.2
S )
.
kPa
[Ans. C]
By using Tds
we get:
(S
In (
ln (
V p, after simplify
T
ln ( )
T
P
R ln ( )
P
ln (
.2
=0.160
[Ans. A]
Gas constant R
R
.
R
M
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Page 203
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
Thermodynamics
[Ans. B]
Q=U+W
U=0
Since isothermal process by ideal gas
Q=W
W = mRT ln ( )
Q
T S
T S
S
18.
mRT ln ( )
mRln ( )

Q
T S
m
.2
2
S
S
.
kJ kgK
. kJ kgK
th
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Page 204
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Psychrometrics
moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be
approximately
(A) 0.002
(C) 0.25
(B) 0.027
(D) 0.75
ME 2005
1.
Various psychrometric processes are
shown in the figure below.
W(kg/kg)
4
0
1
2
Process
in Figure
P. 0 1
Name of the process

1.
Chemical
dehumidification
Q. 0 2
2. Sensible heating
R. 0 3
3. Coooling and
dehumidification
S. 0 4
4. Humidification
with steam
injection
T. 0 5
5. Humidification
with water
injection
The matching pairs are
(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4, T 5
(B) P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 5, T 4
(C) P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 4, T 5
(D) P 3, Q 4, R 5, S 1, T 2
2.
Water at 42 is sprayed into a stream of

air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb
temperature of 40 C and a wet bulb
temperature of 20 C. The air leaving the
spray humidifier is not saturated. Which
of the following statements is true?
(A) Air gets cooled and humidified
(B) Air gets heated and humidified
(C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
(D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
3.
For a typical sample of ambient air (at

35 , 75% relative humidity and standard
atmospheric pressure), the amount of
ME 2006
4.
The statement concern psychrometric
chart.
1. Constant relative humidity lines are
uphill straight lines to the right
2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines
are downhill straight lines to the
right.
3. Constant specific volume lines are
downhill straight lines to the right.
4. Constant
enthalpy
lines
are
coincident with constant wet bulb
temperature lines.
Which of the statements are correct?
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 4
5.
Dew
point
temperature
is
the
temperature at which condensation
begins when the air is cooled at constant
(A) volume
(C) pressure
(B) entropy
(D) enthalpy
6.
A thin layer of water in a field is formed

after a farmer has watered it. The
ambient air conditions are: temp 2 C
and relative humidity 5%.
An extract of steam table is given below
Temperature
Saturation
pressure (kPa)
0.10
0.26
0.40
.
0.61
0.87
1.23
1.71
2
2.34
Neglecting the heat transfer between the
water and the ground, the water
th
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Page 205
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
temperature in the field after phase

equilibrium is reached equals
(A)
.
(C)
.
(B)
.
(D)
.
ME 2007
7.
Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s
(on dry basis) enters a cooling and
dehumidifying coil with an enthalpy of
85 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of
19 grams/kg of dry air. The air leaves the
coil with an enthalpy of 43 kJ/kg of dry
air and a humidity ratio of 8 grams/kg of
dry air. If the condensate water leaves the
coil with an enthalpy of 67 kJ/kg, the
required cooling capacity of the coil in kw
is
(A) 75.0
(C) 128.2
(B) 123.8
(D) 159.0
8.
A building has to be maintained at 2 C

(dry bulb) and . C (wet bulb). The
dew point temperature under these
conditions is
.
C. the outside
temperature is 2 C (dry bulb) and an
internal and external heat transfer
coefficients are 8 W/ m K and 23 W/m K
respectively. If the building wall has the
thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK. The
minimum thickness(in m) of wall
required to prevent condensation is
(A) 0.471
(C) 0.321
(B) 0.407
(D) 0.125
ME 2008
9.
Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry
bulb temperature of 40C and wet bulb
temperature of 20C is humidified in an
air washer operating with continuous
water recirculation. The wet bulb
depression (i.e. the difference between
the dry and wet bulb temperature) at the
exit is 25% of that at the inlet. The dry
bulb temperature at the exit of the air
washer is closest to
(A) 10 oC
(C) 25 oC
(B) 20 oC
(D) 30 oC
10.
Thermodynamics
Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is

compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled
to 35C in an after cooler. The air at the
entry to the after cooler is unsaturated
and becomes just saturated at the exit of
the after cooler. The saturation pressure
of water at 35C is 5.628 kPa. The partial
pressure of water vapour (in kPa) in the
moist air entering the compressor is
closest to
(A) 0.57
(C) 2.26
(B) 1.13
(D) 4.52
ME 2010
11. A moist air sample has dry bulb
temperature o
an
speci ic
humidity of 11.5 g water vapour per kg
dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as
28.93. If the saturation vapour pressure
o water at
is .2 kPa an the total
pressure is 90 kPa, then the relative
humidity (in %) of air sample is
(A) 50.5
(C) 56.5
(B) 38.5
(D) 68.5
ME 2011
12. If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel
is heated to a higher temperature, then
(A) specific humidity of the air increases
(B) specific humidity of the air decreases
(C) relative humidity of the air increases
(D) relative humidity of the air decreases
ME 2012
13. A room contains 35kg of dry air & 0.5kg
water vapor. The total pressure and
temperature of air in the room are
100kPa and 2
respectively. Given that
the saturation pressure for water at 2 .
is 3.17kPa, the relative humidity of the air
in the room is
(A) 67%
(C) 83%
(B) 55%
(D) 71%
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Page 206
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2013
14. The pressure , dry bulb temperature and
relative humidity of air in a room are 1
bar ,
C and 70% , respectively. If the
saturated steam pressure at
C is
4.25kPa, the specific humidity of the room
air in kg water vapour /kg dry air is
(A) 0.0083
(C) 0.0191
(B) 0.0101
(D) 0.0232
Thermodynamics
relative humidity of 65%, the absolute

humidity (in gram) of water vapour per
kg of dry air is _______
16.
ME 2014
15. A sample of moist air at a total pressure of
85 kPa has a dry bulb temperature of
30C (saturation vapour pressure of
water = 4.24 kPa). If the air sample has a
Moist air at 35C and 100% relative

humidity is entering a psychrometric
device and leaving at 25C and 100%
relative humidity. The name of the device
is
(A) Humidifier
(B) Dehumidifier
(C) Sensible heater
(D) Sensible cooler

1.
[Ans. B]
Now
2.
[Ans. B]
Here,
t
=
, t
=2
Water sprayed at temperature = 2
Since,
twater spray >tDBT so heating and
humidification
From table
P
2. kPa
P
.
2.
P
.
kPa
Now we have to find the temperature at
which P becomes saturated pressure by
interpolation method
3.
[Ans. B]
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
.2
2
.
.
[Ans. C]
Constant
pressure line
7.
[Ans. B]
m .h
Q
Q m h
T dpt
2 .
Dew point
temp
m .h
m .
h
m
.
kW
kJ
kg
Air is cooled at constant pressure to make

unsaturated air to saturated one.
h
h
.
kJkg
6.
Given
[Ans. C]
P
Partial pressure of water vapour at
temperature 2
th
th
.
kJ
at
kg
th
Page 207
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. B]
To avoid condensation in the building, the
inside wall temp should be greater than
or equal to DPT
.
11.
Thermodynamics
[Ans. B]
. 22
P
P
. 22
.01847=
h
h
T
18.1849 P
P
.2
H.T from inside air to inside wall = H.T

from inside wall surface to outside air
2
.
.
2
.
.
.
.2
9.
10.
2
.
[Ans. D]
R H Decreases
13.
P
.
2
. 22
P
. 22
. 22
14.
[Ans. C]
p
p
. 22
p
p
. 22
. 22
.
.
.
th
kPa
or
p
pp
. 22
th
. 22
1.13kPa
. 22
. 22
. 22
P
2.2
. 22
P
2.2
RH
.
P
.
at 2
P
. kPa
3
1
[Ans. D ]
Specific humidity
=
2 5.628kPa
or
Heating
[Ans. B]
Assuming that compression is isentropic
in air compressors, the process can be
described on the T-s diagram. The
process in the intercooler is constant
pressure.
But
kPa.
.2
.
12.
.
.
[Ans. C]
Wet Bulb Depression at the exit = 0.25
Wet Bulb Depression at the inlet
(DBT - WBT)exit = 0.25 ( DBT - WBT)inlet
Texit = 0.25(40-20) + 20 = 25
p
p
p
P
P
.
.
P
p
.2
.2
th
Page 208
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
Total pressure = P =85 kPa
Saturation vapour pressure of water at
dry bulb temperature of
P
.2 kPa
Relative humidity = RH = 65%= 0.65
P
R. H.
P
P
.
.2
2.
kPa
P
solute humi ity w
. 22
P P
2.
w
. 22
2.
. 2 kg o water vapour per kg o ry air
w
. 2
2 . gram o water vapour per kg o ry air
16.
[Ans. B]
It is a dehumidifier
RH
Thermodynamics
T
Psychrometric chart
th
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Page 209
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Power Engineering
(D)
ME 2005
1.
In the velocity diagram shown below,
u=blade velocity, C=absolute fluid
velocity and w=relative velocity of fluid
and the subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet
and outlet. This diagram is for
u
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
an impulse turbine
a reaction turbine
a centrifugal compressor
an axial flow compressor
A p-v diagram has been obtained from a

test on a reciprocating compressor.
Which of the following represents that
diagram?
(A)
p
P
ME 2006
3.
Determine the correctness or otherwise
of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: Condenser is an essential
equipment in a steam power plant.
Reason [r]: For the same mass flow rate
and the same pressure rise, a water pump
requires substantially less power than a
steam compressor.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is
NOT the correct reason for [a].
(C) [a] is true but [r] is false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true.
4.
(B)
Determine the correctness or otherwise

of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: In a power plant working on
a Rankine cycle, the regenerative feed
water heating improves the efficiency of
the steam turbine.
Reason [r]: The regenerative feed water
heating raises the average temperature of
heat addition in the Rankine cycle.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is
NOT the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true.
p
P
P
v
v
(C)
P
v
th
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Page 210
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2007
5.
statements is correct?
The incorporation of reheater in a steam
power plant:
P: always increases the thermal efficiency
of the plant.
Q: always increases the dryness fraction
of steam at condenser inlet.
R: always increases the mean
temperature of heat addition.
S: always increases the specific work
output.
(A) P and S
(C) P, R and S
(B) Q and S
(D) P,Q,R and S
ME 2008
6.
A thermal power plant operates on a
regenerative cycle with a single open feed
water heater, as shown in the figure. For
the state points shown, the specific
enthalpies are: h1 = 2800 kJ/kg and
h2 = 200 kJ/kg. The bleed to the feed
water heater is 20% of the boiler steam
generation rate. The specific enthalpy at
state 3 is
Boiler feed
pump
Boiler
Turbine
Condenser
1
3
2
Open
feedwater
heater
(A) 720 kJ/kg

(B) 2280 kJ/kg
Condensate
extraction pump
(C) 1500 kJ/kg

(D) 3000 kJ/kg
ME 2009
The inlet and the outlet conditions of
steam for an adiabatic steam turbine are
as indicated in the notations are as
usually followed
Thermodynamics
h = 3200kJ/kg
V = 160m/s
= 10m
P = 3MPa
h = 2600kJ/kg
V = 100m/s
= 6m
P = 70kPa
7.
If mass flow rate of steam through the

turbine is 20kg/s, the power output of the
turbine (in MW ) is
(A) 12.157
(C) 168.001
(B) 12.941
(D) 168.785
8.
Assume the above turbine to be part of a

simple Rankine cycle. The density of
water at the inlet to the pump is
1000kg/m3.
Ignoring
kinetic
and
potential energy effects, the specific work
(in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(A) 0.293
(C) 2.930
(B) 0.351
(D) 3.510
ME 2010
In a steam power plant operating on the
Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at
4MPa, 350 and exits at a pressure of 15
kPa. Then it enters the condenser and
exits as saturated water. Next, a pump
feeds back the water to the boiler. The
adiabatic efficiency of the turbine is 90%.
The thermodynamic states of water and
steam are given in the table.
State
Steam: 4MPa, Water: 15 kPa
350
h
225.94
3092.5
h (kJ kg )
h
2599.1
s
s(kJ kg K ) 6.5821
0.7549
s
8.0085
v
0.06645
v (m kg )
0.001014
v
10.02
th
th
th
Page 211
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
10.
Thermodynamics
h is specific enthalpy, s is specific entropy

and v the specific volume; subscripts f and
g denote saturated liquid state and
saturated vapour state.
The net work output (kJ kg ) of the cycle
is
(A) 498
(C) 860
(B) 775
(D) 957
13.
The values of enthalpy of steam at the

inlet and outlet of a steam turbine in a
Rankine cycle are 2800 kJ/kg and
1800 kJ/kg respectively. Neglecting pump
work, the specific steam consumption in
kg/kW-hour is
(A) 3.60
(C) 0.06
(B) 0.36
(D) 0.01
Heat supplied (kJ kg ) to the cycle is

(A) 2372
(C) 2863
(B) 2576
(D) 3092
14.
A pump handing a liquid raises its

pressure form 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the
density of the liquid as 990 kg/ . The
isentropic specific work done by the
pump in kJ/kg is
(A) 0.10
(C) 2.50
(B) 0.30
(D) 2.93
15.
An ideal Brayton cycle, operating between

the pressure limits of 1 bar and 6 bar, has
minimum and maximum temperatures of
300 K and 1500 K. The ratio of specific
heats of the working fluid is 1.4. The
approximate final temperatures in Kelvin
at the end of the compression and
expansion processes are respectively
(A) 500 and 900
(C) 500 and 500
(B) 900 and 500
(D) 900 and 900
ME 2011
Statement for linked answer questions: 11
& 12
The temperature and pressure of air in a
large reservoir are 400k and 3 bar
respectively. A converging-diverging
nozzle of exit area 0.005m2 is fitted to the
wall of reservoir shown in figure. The
static pressure of air at the exit section for
isentropic flow through the nozzle is
50kPa. The characteristic gas constant
and the ratio of specific heats of air are
0.287 kJ/kgK and 1.4 respectively.
Flow from
the reservoir
reservoir
Nozzle exit
11.
The density of air in kg/

at the nozzle
exit is
(A) 0.560
(C) 0.727
(B) 0.600
(D) 0.800
12.
The mass flow rate of air through the

nozzle in kg/s is
(A) 1.30
(C) 1.85
(B) 1.77
(D) 2.06
ME 2012
16. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine
operating at steady state with an enthalpy
of 3251.0kJ/kg and leaves as a saturated
mixture at 15 kPa with quality (dryness
fraction) 0.9. The enthalpies of the
saturated liquid and vapour at 15 kPa are
hf = 225.94kJ/kg and hg = 2598.3 kJ/kg
respectively. The mass flow rate of steam
is 10kg/s. Kinetic and potential energy
changes are negligible. The power output
of the turbine in MW is
(A) 6.5
(C) 9.1
(B) 8.9
(D) 27.0
th
th
th
Page 212
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
ME 2013
Statement for linked answer questions
17 & 18:
In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure
ratio is 8 and temperature at the entrance
of compressor and turbine are 300 K and
1400 K, respectively. Both compressor
and gas turbine isentropic efficiencies
equal to 0.8 for the gas , assume a
constant value of
(specific heat at
constant pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kg K and
ratio of specific heat as 1.4. Neglect
changes in kinetic and potential energies.
17. The power required by the compressor in
kW/kg of gas flow rate is
(A) 194.7
(C) 304.3
(B) 243.4
(D) 378.5
20.
21.
In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air

(ratio of specific heats,
= 1.4,
specific heat at constant pressure = 1.005
kJ/kg.K) at 1 bar and 300 K is compressed
to 8 bar. The maximum temperature in
the cycle is limited to 1280 K. If the heat is
supplied at the rate of 80 MW, the mass
flow rate (in kg/s) of air required in the
cycle is _______
18.
22.
For a gas turbine power plant, identify the

correct pair of statements.
P. Smaller in size compared to steam
power plant for same power output
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam
power plant
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle
S. Good compatibility with solid fuel
(A) P, Q
(C) Q, R
(B) R, S
(D) P, S
23.
Steam with specific enthalpy (h) 3214

kJ/kg enters an adiabatic turbine
operating at steady state with a flow rate
10 kg/s. As it expands, at a point where h
is 2920 kJ/kg, 1.5 kg/s is extracted for
heating purposes. The remaining 8.5 kg/s
further expands to the turbine exit, where
h = 2374 kJ/kg. Neglecting changes in
kinetic and potential energies, the net
power output (in kW) of the turbine is
_______
24.
In a compression ignition engine, the inlet

air pressure is 1 bar and the pressure at the
end of isentropic compression is 32.42 bar.
The expansion ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of
speci ic heats as . , the air stan ar
efficiency (in percent) is _______
The thermal efficiency of the cycle in

percentage (%) is
(A) 24.8
(C) 44.8
(B) 38.6
(D) 53.1
ME 2014
19. An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates
between the pressure limits of 10 kPa and
8 MPa, with reheat being done at 4 MPa.
The temperature of steam at the inlets of
both turbines is 500C and the enthalpy of
steam is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high
pressure turbine and 2247 kJ/kg at the
exit of low pressure turbine. The enthalpy
of water at the exit from the pump is 191
kJ/kg. Use the following table for relevant
data.
Superheated
Steam temperature
500
500
(C)
Pressure (Mpa)
4
8
0.08644
0.04177
( /kg)
h(kJ/kg)
3446
3399
s(kJ/kg.K)
7.0922
6.7266
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle
efficiency (in percentage) is _______
th
The thermal efficiency of an air-standard

Brayton cycle in terms of pressure ratio
and c c is given by
th
th
Page 213
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
As
u2 and w2>>w1
Velocity of flow is constant throughout the
stage and the diagram is symmetrical hence
it is diagram of reaction turbine.
[Ans. D]
At the time of intake, intake valve operates
only when the pressure inside the cylinder
is lower than the atmospheric pressure. And
appreciable large pressure difference at the
time of suction starting, causing fluttering at
initial.
At the time of compression, process
followed is polytropic and continues till
pressure exceeds the delivery line pressure
for opening the delivery valve.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. B]
Reheater always increases the dryness
fraction of steam at condenser inlet. Always
increases the specific work output.
7.
z g
= 2600 103+ 6 9.81+
W = 600 103+ 39.24 +

= 607839.24 20 J/s
= 12.156 MW.
8.
[Ans. C]
Pump work
hinlet+q = houtlet+Wpump
here, q=0
Wpump = hinlet houtlet
W = hpump
Reversible adiabatic
dq = dh Vdp
dh=Vdp WP= v p
[Ans. B]
Condenser is on essential equipment in a
steam turbine because it is not economical
to feed steam directly to the boiler.
For same mass flow rate and the same
pressure rise, a water pump require very
less power because the specific volume of
liquid is very less as compare to specific
volume of vapour.
4.
6.
c
c
h
z g
2
2
3
(or) 3200 10 + 10 9.81 +
h
V p
p
kPa
= 2.930 kPa
Alternately
1
T
Boiler
Turbine
Condenser
V=
kg
Pump work = p
[Ans. A]
h3 =0.2h1 +h2 0.8
= 560 + 160
= 720 kJ/kg
p V
kJ kg
= 2.930kJ/kg
[Ans. A]
c
Q
h
z g
2
For adiabatic process , Q = 0
h
z g
c
2
th
th
th
Page 214
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. C]
13.
[Ans. A]
Specific steam consumption in
Thermodynamics
kg/kw hr
Boiler
2
4
3
14.
15kPa
[Ans. D]
Work done
Turbine work.
h
h
2.
2 2.
.2kJ kg
Actual work=theoretical work x adiabatic
= .
.2
.2 kJ/kg
Pump work =Vdp
.
. kJ/kg
Net work Tur ine work pump work
.2
.
. kJkg.
10.
11.
P
P
[Ans. C]
Heat supplie Q h
h
h
h
pump work
2.
22 .
.
2 2. kJ kg
[Ans. C]
P
kPa, T
Pressure at exit, P
[Ans. A]
ar
ar
.
Bar
T ( )
P
( )
P
( )
16.
2 h
( )
[Ans. B]
V
m *h
2
V
V
. m s
Mass flow rate,
m
V
. 2
2. kg s
.
.
. 2 kg m
.
V
th
z g
m *h
2
.
.
. K
T
T
Velocity at exit, V
2
Bar
T
T
[Ans. D]
V
T
2 . K
Density at exit,
P
RT
.2
12.
T
T
kJ kg
kJ kg
K
kPa
Temperature at exit, T
T
2.
15.
z g
Q
+
h
th
kJ
kg
x hg
h
th
Page 215
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
22 .
2
W
17.
. 2
kJ
kg
h
m h
. MW
22 .
Thermodynamics
T
T
T
T
.
2
T
.
.
2 . %
[Ans. C]
19.
MPa
T
MPa
kPa
T
T
T
T
h
h
h
h at pump exit
kJ kg
h at MPa ,
kJ kg
enthalpy at exit o high pressure tur ine
kJ kg
h
enthalpy at exit of low pressure
turbine 22 kJ kg
h
h at MPa ,
kJ kg
work one
heat supplie
h
h
h
h
h
h
h
h
22
P
( )
P
T
h
h
h
h
.
T
T
T
T
k
.
T
.
T
P
P
m
18.
m h
.2 2 K
h
T
.2 2
. kJ kg
[Ans. A]
T
P
( )
T
P
T
.
.
2.
.
.
h
h
T
T
T
T
h
h
2 K
[Ans. D]
Direct thermal efficiency formula
21.

In Compression,
T
h
h
h
h
.
.
mc T
m
.
W
h
th
( )
Q
2
kg
.
s
kg s
q
h
20.
.
T
2. 2
.2 K
W
th
th
Page 216
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
[Ans. A]
Gas turbine plant is smaller in size as
compared to steam power plant that is why
gas turbine is also used in aircraft. It starts
very quickly because the highly flammable
fuel is used in combustor chamber, after
compression process in chamber fuel is
supplied to burner.
23.
[Ans.*]Range 7580 to 7582

Net power output
=m h
h
m h
h
2
2 2
. 2 2
Net Power output
kW
24.
Thermodynamics
2
r
r
r
V
V
,r
,r
V
V
r
r
V
P
, ( )
V
P
V
V
(
2. 2
r
r
.
r
r
r
.
.
.
.
Hence air st e iciency
.
.
th
th
th
Page 217
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Refrigeration
ME 2005
and 2:
The following table of properties was
printed out for saturated liquid and
saturated vapour of ammonia. The titles
for only the first two columns are
available. All that we know is that the
other columns (columns 3 to 8) contain
data on specific properties, namely,
internal energy(kJ/kg), enthalpy (kJ/kg)
and entropy(kJ/kg.k).
P
(kPa)
2
0
20
40
190.2
429.6
587.5
1554.9
88.76 0.3657
179.69 0.7114
272.89 1.0408
368.74 1.3574
89.05
180.36
274.30
371.43
5.6155
5.3309
5.0860
4.8662
1299.5
1318.0
1332.2
1341.0
1418.0
1442.2
1460.2
1470.2
1.
The specific enthalpy data are in columns

(A) 3 and 7
(C) 5 and 7
(B) 3 and 8
(D) 5 and 8
2.
When saturated liquid at

C is throttled
to 2
the quality at exit will be
(A) 0.189
(C) 0.231
(B) 0.212
(D) 0.788
3.
the evaporator. The coordinate system

used in the figure is
2
3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2008
5.
A cyclic device operates between three
thermal reservoirs, as shown in the
figure. Heat is transferred to/from the
cyclic device. It is assumed that heat
transfer between each thermal reservoir
and the cyclic device takes place across
negligible
temperature
difference.
Interactions between the cyclic device
and the respective thermal reservoirs that
are shown in the figure are all in the form
of heat transfer.
300K
500K
1000K
50kJ
100kJ
A vapour absorption refrigeration system

is a heat pump with three thermal
reservoirs as shown in the figure. A
refrigeration effect of 100W is required at
250 K when the heat source available is at
400 K. Heat rejection occurs at 300K. The
minimum value of heat required (in W) is
Cyclic
device
60kJ
The cyclic device can be

(A) a reversible heat engine
(B) a reversible heat pump or a
reversible refrigerator
(C) an irreversible heat engine
(D) an irreversible heat pump or an
irreversible refrigerator
400K
300K
ME 2009
6.
An irreversible heat engine extracts heat

from a high temperature source at a rate
of 100kW and rejects heat to a sink at a
rate of 50kW. The entire work output of
the heat engine is used to drive a
reversible heat pump operating between
a set of independent isothermal heat
reservoirs at
C and
. The rate
250K
(A) 167
(B) 100
4.
(C) 80
(D) 20
The vapour compression refrigeration

cycle is represented as shown in the
figure below, with state 1 being the exit of
th
th
th
Page 218
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
(in kW) at which the heat pump delivers

heat to its high temperature sink is
(A) 50
(C) 300
(B) 250
(D) 360
9.
The power required for the compressor in

kW is
(A) 5.94
(C) 7.9
(B) 1.83
(D) 39.5
In an ideal vapour compression

refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy
of refrigerant (in kJ/kg) at the following
states is given as:
Inlet of condenser:
283
Exit of condenser:
116
Exit of evaporator:
232
The COP of this cycle is
(A) 2.27
(C) 3.27
(B) 2.75
(D) 3.75
ME 2014
10. Which one of the following is a CFC
refrigerant?
(A) R744
(C) R502
(B) R290
(D) R718
11.
ME 2012
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9:
A refrigerator operates between 120kPa
and 800kPa in an ideal vapor
compression cycle with R - 134 a as the
refrigerant. The refrigerant enters the
compressor as saturated vapor and leaves
the condenser as saturated liquid. The
mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.2
kg/s. properties for R - 134 a are as
follows.
Saturated
R-134a
P(kPa)
T
h kJkg
h kJkg
120
22.32
22.5
237
800
31.31
95.5
267.3
s kJkg . K
s kJkg . K
0.093
0.95
0.354
0.918
Superheated R-134a
P(kPa)
800
T
40
h kJkg
276.45
s kJkg . K
0.95
8.
Thermodynamics
A heat pump with refrigerant R22 is used

for space heating between temperature
limits o
2
an 2 . The heat
required is 200 MJ/h. Assume specific
heat of vapour at the time of discharge as
0.98 kJ/kg.K. Other relevant properties
are given below. The enthalpy (in kJ/kg)
of the refrigerant at isentropic
compressor discharge is _______
Saturation
20
25
temperature
Pressure
0.2448 1.048
P MN m
Specific
h kJ kg
177.21 230.07
enthalpy
h kJ kg
397.53 413.02
Specific
entropy
s kJ kg. K
s kJ kg. K
0.9139
1.7841
1.1047
1.7183
12.
A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator

maintains a temperature o
. The
ambient air temperature is 35C. The heat
gained by the refrigerator at a continuous
rate is 2.5kJ/s. The power (in watt)
required to pump this heat out
continuously is _______
13.
Two identical metal blocks L and M

(specific heat = 0.4 kJ/kg.K), each having
a mass of 5 kg, are initially at 313 K. A
reversible refrigerator extracts heat from
block L and rejects heat to block M until
the temperature of block L reaches 293 K.
The final temperature (in K) of block M is
_______
The rate at which heat is extracted, in kJ/s

from the refrigerated space is
(A) 28.3
(C) 34.4
(B) 42.9
(D) 14.6
th
th
th
Page 219
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. D]
h = u + pv; h is always greater than u, but
just greater than s.
h 5 & 8; u 3 and 7; s 4 and 6
6.
[Ans. C]
High
50 kW
low
300K
Q1= 300 kW
Alternately
Work output irreversible heat engine,
W=
= 100 50 =50 kW
Reversible heat pump
(348K)
Q3
Q2
C.O.P
2 W
400 K
W =Q1 Q2
=100 50
=50kW
[Ans. C]
From question, since refrigeration effect of
100 W is required
2
So,
Work o taine
2
2
Pump
Q
Engine
[Ans. B]
When saturated liquid at 40 is throttled to
-20 . The enthalpy remains same.
i.e. 37.43 = 89.05 + x(1418 89.05)
x = 0.212
Work o taine
QK
100 kW
W = 50 KW
HP
Q
WORK
Q1
1
(290 K)
250K
Also for irreversible heat engine

Q
W
Q
T S
T S
or ( T
T S
or (348 -2
S
Now for this amount of work, heat is

absorbed from reservoir 3 and rejected to
sink 2.
W
Q
Q
W
2 W
W
4.
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. A]
Since heat is taken from the high
temperature sources and rejected to low
temperature sink, hence the device is a heat
engine not heat pump. Since, the
temperature differences are negligible, the
engine is reversible.
S=
Rate of heat rejection,
Q
T S
= 348
th
th
kW
th
Page 220
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. C]
R-744 R
2
2
2 work done by the compressor

2
condenser heat rejected at constant
pressure
throtlling
heat addition in evaporator
Given: h2 = 283 kJ/kg
h3 = 116 kJ/kg = h4 (from ph curve)
h1 = 232 kJ/kg
We know
esire e ect
OP
work input
cooling e ect
work one y compressor
h
h
h
h
2 2
2.2
2
2 2
9.
[Ans. C]
O
2
R 2
R
m
n
P
m
2 n
|
P
m
n
n + p + q=2 m+2
q
H
l
q
H
so no chloro loro car on
R 2 R
m
n
P
n
m
|
P 2
n
m
n p q 2m 2
2 q
2 2
q
So p & q is present so H
l
So chlorine and Fluorine is present
So best option is C
[Ans. A]
M. W
700 + 44
8.
Thermodynamics
11.

T
2
2a
T
3
Process 2-3 is isobaric (constant process)

T s
h v p
T s
h
h
s
T
Applying between 2 and 2a ,
h
s
T
1
S
.2kgsec
h
2 kJkg m
s
. kJkgK
h
h
. kJkgK s
s
. kJkgK
h
2 . kJkgK
NRE(kW) m kgsec h
h kJkg
= 0.2(273 95.5) = 28.3 kW
W KW
m kgsec h
h kJkg
.2 2 .
2
. kW
(Assume vapour as ideal
gas between 2 and 2a)

T
S
S
p ln
T
S
S
S at 2
th
th
th
kJ kg. K
Page 221
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
S at 2
.
T
h
h
h
12.
kJ kg. k
T
. ln
T
T
. ln
2
2
.
T
. 2 kJ kg
.
2
.
k
h
p T
h at 2
. 2
.
. kJ kg

OP
=
2
2
Power
13.
Thermodynamics
2
Watt
2.
Power input

M
to
to 2
Heat rejected by block L = heat gained by

block M
M
2
M
T
M
M
2
T
T
K
th
th
th
Page 222
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thermodynamics
Internal Combustion Engines

ME 2005
Common Data for Questions 1 & 2:
In two air standard cycles - one operating
on the Otto and the other on the Brayton
cycle - air is isentropically compressed
from 300 to 450 K. Heat is added to raise
the temperature to 600K in the Otto cycle
and to 550K in the Brayton cycle.
1.
If
and
are the efficiencies of the
Otto and Brayton cycles, then
(A)
=0.25, =0.18
(B)
= =0.33
(C)
=0.5, =0.45
(D) it is not possible to calculate the
efficiencies unless the temperature
after the expansion is given
2.
If
and
are work outputs per unit
mass, then
(A) W >W
(B) W <W
(C) W = W
(D) it is not possible to calculate the
work outputs unless the temperature
after the expansion is given.
ME 2006
3.
Group I shows different heat addition
processes in power cycles. Likewise,
Group II shows different heat removal
processes. Group III lists power cycles.
Match items from Groups I, II and III.
Group I
Group II
Group III
P. Pressure
S. Pressure
1. Rankine
constant
constant
cycle
Q. Volume
T. Volume
2. Otto
constant
constant
cycle
R.
U.
3. Carnot
Temperature Temperature cycle
constant
constant
4. Diesel
cycle
5. Brayton
cycle
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
P S 5, R U 3, P S 1, Q T 2
P S 1, R U 3, P S 4, P T 2
R T 3, P S 1, P T 4, Q S 5
P T 4, R S 3, P S 1, P S 5
ME 2007
4.
The stroke and bore of a four stroke spark
ignition engine are 250 mm and 200 mm
respectively. The clearance volume is
0.001 m3. If the specific heat ratio 1.4,
the air-standard cycle efficiency of the
engine is
(A) 46.40%
(C) 58.20%
(B) 56.10%
(D) 62.80%
ME 2008
5.
Which one of the following is NOT a
necessary assumption for the airstandard Otto cycle?
(A) All processes are both internally as
well as externally reversible.
(B) Intake and exhaust processes are
constant volume heat rejection
processes.
(C) The combustion process is a constant
volume heat addition process.
(D) The working fluid is an ideal gas with
constant specific heats.
ME 2009
6.
In an air-standard Otto cycle, the
compression ratio is 10. The condition at
the beginning of the compression process
is 100kPa and 2 C. Heat added at
constant volume is 1500 kJ/kg, while
700 kJ/kg of heat is rejected during the
other constant volume process in the
cycle. Specific gas constant for air
= 0.287kJ/kgK. The mean effective
pressure (in kPa) of the cycle is
(A) 103
(C) 515
(B) 310
(D) 1032
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Page 223
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2010
7.
A turbo charged four stroke direct
injection diesel engine has a displacement
volume of 0.0259
(25.9 litres). The
engine has an output of 950 kW at
2200 rpm. The mean effective pressure(in
MPa)is close to
(A) 2
(C) 0.2
(B) 1
(D) 0.1
ME 2011
8.
The crank radius of a single cylinder I. C.
engine is 60 mm and the diameter of the
cylinder is 80 mm. The swept volume of
the cylinder in
is
(A) 48
(C) 302
(B) 96
(D) 603
Thermodynamics
ME 2014
9.
In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is
supplied at 0.1 MPa and 308 K. The ratio
o the speci ic heats an the speci ic
gas constant (R) of air are 1.4 and
288.8 J/kg.K, respectively. If the
compression ratio is 8 and the maximum
temperature in the cycle is 2660 K, the
heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the engine is
_______
10.
A diesel engine has a compression ratio of

17 and cut-off takes place at 10% of the
stroke. Assuming ratio of specific
heats
as 1.4 the air-standard efficiency
(in percent) is ________

1.
[Ans. B]
Efficiency of both the cycle i.e. for otto
and brayton is given by
5.
[Ans. B]
Intake process is the constant volume
heat addition process
Hence (B) is not the right assumption
6.
[Ans. D]
Here , P1 = 100kPa
T1 = 27
.
Q
4
1
= 10
Const.
Volum
e
Cp =0.287 kJ/kgK
Pm (V1 V2) = work done = h1 h2
= 1500 700 = 800 kJ
Q
S
2.
1500kJ
3
[Ans. A]
W
kJ
kg
kJ kg
P
700kJ
3.
[Ans. A]
4.
[Ans. C]
Here, = 0.001 m3
= d2 l=
(0.2)2 (0.25)=7.85
Compression ratio, r = 1+
Now P1V1 =mRT1

or 100 103 V1 = 1 0.287 103 300
or V1 = 0.861
V2 = 0.0861
Now Pm(0.861-0.0861) = 800
Pm =1032 kPa
= 8.85
= 58.20%
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Page 224
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Alternately
Air standard otto cycle
3
Thermodynamics
TV
TV
V
( )
V
T
T
T
.
P
T
.
K
T
T
2
Heat supplied,
Q
V V
R
T
T
2 .
2
.
=
. kJ kg
Given:
10.
K
T
P
.86
.
Now V
V
V
Work one, h
.
m kg
kJ kg
P
=
7.
2.
kPa
Cutoff = V
V
Stroke V
V
cut o
% o stroke
V V
.
V
V
V
V
.
V
V
[Ans. A]
Power =
kw
As four stroke
n = = 1100rpm
P =
=2
8.
106 N/m2 = 2MPa
[Ans. D]
Swept volume
o ratio
V
V
.2
2
r
r
9.
cut
ompression ratio
V
V
.
[Ans. *]Range 1400 to 1420
2.
r
.
2.
. 2.
.
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Page 225
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
Mechanisms
ME 2005
Common Data for Questions 1. 2& 3:
An instantaneous configuration of a fourbar mechanism, whose plane is horizontal,
is shown in the figure below. At this
instant, the angular velocity and angular
acceleration of link O A are =8 rad/s
and = , respectively, and the driving
torque( )is zero. The link O A is balanced
so that its centre of mass falls at O .
Match the items in columns I and II

Column I
Column II
(P) Higher kinematic (1) Grublers
pair
equation
(Q) Lower kinematic (2) Line contact
pair
(R) Quick return
( ) Eulers
mechanism
equation
(S) Mobility of a
(4) Planer
linkage
(5) Shaper
(6) Surface
contact
(A) P 2 Q 6 R 4 S 3
(B) P 6 Q 2 R 4 S 1
(C) P 6 Q 2 R 5 S 3
(D) P 2 Q 6 R 5 S 1
7.
The number of inversions for a slider

crank mechanism is:
(A) 6
(C) 4
(B) 5
(D) 3
8.
For a four-bar linkage in toggle position,

the value of mechanical advantage is:
(A) 0.0
(C) 1.0
(B) 0.5
(D)
mm
o
mm
Which kind of 4 bar mechanism is the

O2ABO4?
(A) Double crank mechanism
(B) Crank rocker mechanism
(C) Double rocker mechanism
(D) Parallelogram mechanism
2.
At the instant considered, what is the

magnitude of the angular velocity of O B?
(A) 1 rad/s
(C) 8 rad/s
(B) 3 rad/s
(D)
rad/s
4.
6.
mm
1.
3.
ME 2006
5.
In a four-bar linkage, S denotes the
shortest link length, L is the longest link
length, P and Q are the lengths of other
two links. At least one of the three moving
links will rotate by
if
(A) S + L P + Q
(C) S + P L + Q
(B) S + L > P + Q
(D) S + P > L + Q
At the same instant, if the component of

the force at joint A along AB is 30 N, then
the magnitude of the joint reaction at O2
(A) is Zero
(B) is 30 N
(C) is 78 N
(D) Cannot be determined from the given
data
The number of degrees of freedom of a
planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple
revolute joints is
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
ME 2007
Linked Answer Questions: Q.9 - Q.10
A quick return mechanism is shown
below. The crank OS is driven at 2 rev/s
in counter clockwise direction.
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Page 226
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
freedom of the mechanism,

Grublers criterion is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
S
O
500 mm
If the quick return ratio is 1:2, then the

length of the crank in mm is
(A) 250
(C) 500
(B) 250
(D) 500
10.
The angular speed of PQ in rev/s when

the block R attains maximum speed
during forward stroke (stroke with
slower speed) is
(A)
(C) 2
(B)
(D) 3
11.
using
ME 2009
13. Match the approaches given below to
perform stated kinematics / dynamics
analysis of machine
Analysis
Approach
P. Continuous
relative rotation
Q. Velocity and
acceleration
R. Mobility
S. Dynamic-static
analysis
(A) P
Q
(B) P
Q
(C) P
Q
(D) P
Q
9.
Theory of Machines
14.
The input link O2P of a four bar linkage is

rotated at 2 rad/s in counter clockwise
direction as shown below. The angular
velocity of the coupler PQ in rad/s, at an
instant when O4O2P = 1800, is
1.
R
R
R
R
D Alemberts
principle
2. Grublers
criterion
3. Grashoffs law
4. Kennedys
theorem
S
S
S
S
A simple quick return mechanism is

shown in the figure. The forward to
return ratio of the quick return
mechanism is 2:1. If the radius of the
crank O1P is 125mm, then the distance
d(in mm) between the crank centre to
lever pivot centre point should be
Q
O
P
PQ = O4Q = a
O2P = O2O4 = a
d
O
P
O2
(A) 4
(B) 2
(A) 144.3
(B) 216.5
(C) 240.0
(D) 250.0
(C) 1
(D)
ME 2008
12. A Planar mechanism has 8 links and 10
rotary joints. The number of degrees of
ME 2010
15. For the configuration shown, the angular
velocity of link AB is 10 rad/s
counterclockwise. The magnitude of the
relative sliding velocity (in ms ) of
slider B with respect to rigid link CD is
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Page 227
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
D
B
(A) 0
(B) 0.86
16.
AB = 250
BC = 250
AC = 500
60
ME 2011
19. For the four-bar linkage shown in the
figure, the angular velocity of link AB is
1 rad/s. The length of link CD is 1.5 times
the length of link AB. In the configuration
shown, the angular velocity of link CD in
rad/s is
C
B
(C) 1.25
(D) 2.50
Which of the following statements is

INCORRECT
(A) Grashofs rule states that for a planar
crank rocker four bar mechanism,
the sum of the shortest and longest
link lengths cannot be less than the
sum of the remaining two link
lengths.
(B) Inversions of a mechanism are
created by fixing different links one
at a time.
(C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent
motion mechanism.
(D) Grueblers
criterion
assumes
mobility of a planar mechanism to be
one.
17.
Mobility of a statically indeterminate

structure is
(A)
(C) 1
(B) O
(D)
18.
There are two points P and Q on a planar

rigid body. The relative velocity between
he two points
(A) should always be along PQ
(B) can be oriented along any direction
(C) should always be perpendicular to
PQ
(D) should be along QP when the body
undergoes pure translation
Theory of Machines
1 rad/s
(A)
20.
(C) 1
(B)
(D)
A double parallelogram mechanism is

shown in the figure. Note that PQ is a
single link. The mobility of the mechanism
is
P
(A)
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2
ME 2012
21. A solid disc roll without slipping on a
horizontal floor with angular velocity
and angular acceleration
. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the point
of contact on the disc is
(A) Zero
(B) r
(C) (r) + (r)
(D) r
22.
th
In the mechanism given below, if the

angular velocity of the eccentric circular
disc is 1 rad/s, the angular velocity
(rad/s) of the follower link for the
instant shown in the figure is
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Page 228
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Note :All dimensions are in mm
fixed link, the input link, the coupler and

output link respectively. Which one of the
following statements is true about the
input and output links?
(A) Both links can execute full circular
motion
(B) Both links cannot execute full
circular motion
(C) Only the output link cannot execute
full circular motion
(D) Only the input link cannot execute
full circular motion
25
45
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.1
(C) 5.0
(D) 10.0
ME 2013
23. A planar closed kinematic chain is
formed with rigid linksPQ =2.0 m,
QR = 3.0 m, RS =2.5 m and SP =2.7 m
with all revolute joints. The link to be
fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker
rocker ) mechanism is
(A) PQ
(B) QR
(C) RS
(D) SP
ME 2014
24. A slider crank mechanism has slider mass
of 10 kg, stroke of 0.2 m and rotates with
a uniform angular velocity of 10 rad/s.
The primary inertia forces of the slider
are partially balanced by a revolving mass
of 6 kg at the crank, placed at a distance
equal to crank radius. Neglect the mass of
connecting rod and crank. When the
crank angle (with respect to slider axis) is
30, the unbalanced force (in Newton)
normal to the slider axis is _______
25.
An offset slider-crank mechanism is

shown in the figure at an instant.
Conventionally, the Quick Return Ratio
(QRR) is considered to be greater than
one. The value of QRR is _______
mm
27.
A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about

the pinned end Q with a constant angular
acceleration of 12 rad/ s . When the
angular velocity of the link is 4 rad/s, the
magnitude of the resultant acceleration
(in m/s ) of the end P is _______
28.
Consider a rotating disk cam and a

translating roller follower with zero
offset. Which one of the following pitch
curves, parameterized by t, lying in the
interval
to is associated with the
maximum translation of the follower
during one full rotation of the cam
rotating about the center at (x, y)=(0, 0) ?
(A) x (t ) = cos t y (t ) = sin t
(B) x (t ) = cos t y (t ) = sin t
(C) x(t) = + cost y (t) =
sin t
(D) x(t) = + cos t y (t) = sin t

29.
mm
mm
26.
Theory of Machines
A slider-crank mechanism with crank

radius 60 mm and connecting rod length
240 mm is shown in figure. The crank is
rotating with a uniform angular speed of
10 rad/s, counter clockwise. For the given
configuration, the speed (in m/s) of the
slider is _______
A 4-bar mechanism with all revolute pairs

has link lengths l = 20 mm, l = 40 mm,
l = 50 mm and l = 60 mm. The
suffixes 'f', 'in', 'co' and 'out' denote the
th
th
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Page 229
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
30.
Theory of Machines
A uniform slender rod (8m length and

3kg mass) rotates in a vertical plane
about a horizontal axis 1m from its end as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of the
angular acceleration (in rad/S ) of the
rod at the position shown is

1.
[Ans. B]
Length of link AB =
3.
[Ans. B]
30 N
) + (
)
IAB = 260mm
I
+ I
I + I
Since O2O4 is fixed link.
Hence it will act as crank rocker
mechanism.
If s + l < p +q and link adjacent to
shortest link is fixed, then it is a crank
rocker mechanism.
(
2.
O2
I24
O = 144mm
I I
=
=
(
I I
=
I1
O
44
+
8
=
8
ma = mr
5.
[Ans. A]
According to Grashoffs riteria.
S + L P +Q
6.
[Ans. D]
7.
[Ans. C]
There are four number of inversions for
slider crank mechanism.
8.
[Ans. D]
Mechanical advantage
Load (output force)
=
Effort (input force)
For a four bar linkage on toggle position,
effort= 0
Mechanical Advantage =
I2
I12
[Ans. C]
Number of degree of freedom,
n = (l
)
J h
)
=(
) (
=
O
R
4.
3
A
=
R = mr
30-R = 0
(Since centre of mass is at O r = )
R = 30
[Ans. B]
I3
rads
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Page 230
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. A]
Theory of Machines
Angular velocity of coupler

Wop =
12.
r o
N
[Ans. B]
y Grublers criterion
)
F = (L
j
(8
)
=
13.
[Ans. B]
14.
[Ans. D]
cos =
r
cos =
OP
r
Q
Q
r = 250mm
10.
11.
[Ans. B]
Maximum speed in forward stroke occurs
when QR an QS are perpendicular
V = 250
2 = 750
i.e PO2O1 =
In PO2O1
tan
=
=
O2, O4
for
the
15.
tan
And sin
diagram
Or =
or =
=
O2
The
velocity
configuration is
[Ans. C]
At the instant i.e,
O4O2P = 8
The linkage is shown in figure
O
[Ans. D]
B
450
O
2a
250
250
60
30
450
P
500
Angle ABC is
, hence,
= r. = .
= . m/s
Velocity of coupler OP is
OP = 2a cos
=
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Page 231
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
[Ans. A]
Grashofs rule states that the sum of the
shortest and longest link for a planar
Crank rocker four bar mechanism can
not be greater than the sum of the
remaining two link lengths
17.
[Ans. A]
Mobility or degree of freedom for a
statically indeterminate structure is
always less than zero.
i.e
F<0
only option (A) is negative value
22.
Theory of Machines
[Ans. B]
I Should be in the line joining I and I .
Similarly the link 3 is rolling on link 2.
So the I center I will be on the line
perpendicular to the link 2 .
So the point C is the intersection of these
of two loci. Which is the center of the disc.
So (I I ) = (I I )
=
= . rad/sec
Locus of
I
18.
25
[Ans. C]
23.
Planar rigid body
= Relative velocity between P and Q.

=
Always perpendicular to PQ.
Locus of
I
45
[Ans. C]
According to Grashof condition
As, we have shortest + longest link < sum
of intermediate lengths
2 + 3 < 2.5 +2.7
5 < 5.2
We get double rocker by fixing link
opposite to shortest link (PQ)
S
.
19.
[Ans. D]
Velocity of link AB = Velocity of link CD
A
= D
Fix RS
20.
[Ans. C]
21.
[Ans. D]
Acceleration at point O
a =a +a +a
a and a are linear accelerations
With same magnitude and opposite in
direction.
a =a
24.
Crank radius(r) =
=
= . m,
Ang. velocity () =
rad/s
Crank angle ( ) =
Revolving mass for balance, m = 6 kg,
So, unbalanced force normal to slider axis
= m r sin
=
.
sin
=
N
= r
th
th
th
Page 232
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
25.
[Ans. *] Range 1.2 to1.3
29.
Theory of Machines
[Ans. *]Range 0.54 to 0.68

A
mm
mm
(position A)
Sin
mm
rad/sec
= .
= r =
=
mm/sec
= . m/sec
= elocity of slider
elocity diagram of current configuration
mm
mm
.
Sin
(Position )
=
A
= .
return
+ 8
+ 8
=
.
A forward
. =
t
Q
.
QRR = =
=
= .
t
.
26.
[Ans. A]
l+s p+q
=8
=( ) +( )
)
=
+(
=
+
+
=
=
= . m/sec
8
So at least one link goes full revolution
Also shortest link is fixed.
So both input and output execute full
revolution
30.

I . = mg. x.
x = 3m,
I =
=
27.
a
= .
.
= .
mL + m
( )
8 + m
m kg m
m =m
rad/s
.8
Q
a = r = ( ) = m/s
a = r = ( ) = m/s
a = a + a =
28.
m/s
[Ans. C]
In this question we have to find maximum
translation of the follower so this can be
found choosing the option which has
highest value of x and y so we can observe
and on the basis of common sense. The
most appropriate answer is C.
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Page 233
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
Gear Trains
ME 2005
1.
In a cam - follower mechanism, the
follower needs to rise through 20 mm
during
of cam rotation, the first
with a constant acceleration and then
with a deceleration of the same
magnitude. The initial and final speeds of
the follower are zero. The cam rotates at a
uniform speed of 300 rpm. The maximum
speed of the follower is
(A) 0.60 m/s
(C) 1.68 m/s
(B) 1.20 m/s
(D) 2.40 m/s
ME 2006
Common Data for Questions 2, 3:
A planetary gear train has four gears and
one carrier. Angular velocities of the
gears are , ,
and
respectively.
The carrier rotates with angular
velocity .
4.

Column I
Column II
(P) Addendum
(1) Cam
(Q) Instantaneous
(2) Beam
Centre of velocity
(R) Section modulus
(3) Linkage
(S) Prime circle
(4) Gear
(A) P - 4 Q 2 R 3 S - 1
(B) P - 4 Q 3 R - 2 S - 1
(C) P 3 Q 2 R 1 S - 4
(D) P 3 Q 4 R 1 S - 2
ME 2008
5.
In a cam design, the rise motion is given
by a simple harmonic motion (SHM)
s= (
cos ) where h is total rise,
is camshaft angle is the total angle of
the rise interval. The jerk is given by
(A) (
cos )
Gear 3
20T
Gear 2
45T
(B)
sin ( )
(C)
cos ( )
(D)
Carrier 5
Gear 1
15T
2.
3.
Gear 4
40T
What is the relation between the angular

velocities of Gear 1 and Gear4?
(A)
=
(B)
(C)
(D)
( )
sin ( )
ME 2009
6.
An epicyclic gear train is shown
schematically in the adjacent figure
The sun gear 2 on the input shaft is a 20
teeth external gear. The planet gear 3 is a
40 teeth external gear. The ring gear 5 is a
100 teeth internal gear. The ring gear 5 is
fixed and the gear 2 is rotating at 60 rpm
ccw (ccw = counter-clockwise and cw =
clockwise).
The arm 4 attached to the output shaft
will rotate at
3
For 1 = 60 rpm clockwise (cw) when

looked from the left, what is the angular
velocity of the carrier and its direction so
that Gear 4 rotates in counterclockwise
(ccw) direction at twice the angular
velocity of Gear 1 when looked from the
left?
(A) 130 rpm, cw
(C) 256 rpm, cw
(B) 223 rpm, ccw
(D) 156 rpm, ccw
5
2
(A) 10 rpm ccw

(B) 10 rpm cw
th
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(C) 12 rpm cw
(D) 12 rpm ccw
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Page 234
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
of the gear R is 2 mm, the center distance

in mm between gears P and S is
ME 2010
7.
For the epicyclic gear arrangement shown
in the figure, =
rad/s clockwise
(CW) and
= 8 rad/s counter
clockwise (CCW). The angular velocity
(in rad/s) is
5
3
N = Number of
teeth
for gear i
N =
N =
N =
N =8
arm
(A) 0
(B) 70 CW
8.
Shaft axis
(C) 140 CCW

(D) 140 CW
Tooth interference in an external involute

spur gear pair can be reduced by
(A) Decreasing center distance between
gear pair
(B) Decreasing module
(C) Decreasing pressure angle
(D) Increasing number of gear teeth
Theory of Machines
P
+
+
R
(A) 40
(B) 80
(C) 120
(D) 160
ME 2014
11. For the given statements:
I. Mating spur gear teeth is an example
of higher pair
II. A revolute joint is an example of lower
pair
Indicate the correct answer.
(A)Both I and II are false
(B) I is true and II is false
(C) I is false and II is true
(D) Both I and II are true
12.
A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm

and a center distance of 450 mm is used
for a speed reduction of 5:1. The number
of teeth on pinion is _______
13.
Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter

clockwise direction and engages with
Gear 3. Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on
the same shaft. Gear 5 engages with Gear
4. The numbers of teeth on Gears 2, 3, 4
and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30, respectively.
The angular speed of Gear 5 is
ME 2012
9.
The following are the data for two
crossed helical gears used for speed
reduction:
Gear I: pitch circle diameter in the plane
of rotation 80mm and helix angle
Gear II: pitch circle diameter in the plane
of rotation 120mm and helix angle .
If the input speed is 1440 rpm. The output
speed in rpm is
(A) 1200
(C) 875
(B) 900
(D) 720
ME 2013
10. A compound gear train with gears P,Q, R
and S has number of teeth 20, 40 , 15, and
20, respectively. Gears Q and R are
mounted on the same shaft as shown in
the figure below. The diameter of the gear
Q is twice that of the gear R. If the module
(A) 300 rpm counterclockwise

(B) 300 rpm clockwise
(C) 4800 rpm counterclockwise
(D) 4800 rpm clockwise
th
th
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Page 235
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
Which one of the following is used to

convert a rotational motion into a
translational motion?
(A) Bevel gears
(B) Double helical gears
(C) Worm gears
(D) Rack and pinion gears
15.
It is desired to avoid interference in a pair

of spur gears having a 20 pressure angle.
Theory of Machines
With increase in pinion to gear speed

ratio, the minimum number of teeth on
the pinion
(A)Increases
(B) Decreases
(C)First increases and then decreases
(D)Remains unchanged

1.
[Ans. B]
Angular velocity =
Time taken to move
=
=
=
=
=
Jerk is given by
6.
[Ans. A]
T =
T =
sec
Condition
1. Arm fixed
gear 2
rotates with
+1 rotation
2. Arm
fixed-gear 2
rotates with
+x
rotations
3. Adding +
y rotations
0.01 = +
a * +
a = 0.01 2 (60)2
= 72 m/sec2
Vmax = U + at = 0 + 72
= 1.20 m/sec
Given
carrier 5)
= (with respect to carrier 5)
3.
7.
[Ans. B]
5.
[Ans. D]
S= *
Arm
2
3
4
5
cos
Gear 2
+1
+x
y+x
Gear 3
T
T
T
T
Gear 4
T
T
T
T
T
T
y x
[Ans. C]
[Ans. D]
1 = 60 rpm (Clockwise)
4 = 120 rpm (Counter clockwise)
5 = 156 i.e counter clockwise

i.e, =
rpm cc
4.
T =
Arm
0
x = y ( )
and
y+x=
.. ( )
Solving (1) and (2), we get
y + 5y = 60
y = 10 rpm ccw
[Ans. A]
= (with respect to arm 5 or
As 3 = 2
sin
Where = t
During this time, follower moves by

distance 20mm with initial velocity
u=0
now;
= Ut + at
2.
+
th
th
1. Give +
x rotation
CW to
gear 2.
0
+x
N
x
N
N
x
N
N
N
N
x
N
2. Give y
rotataion
CW to
arm.
y
y
y
y
y
th
Total
y
x+y
N
y
x
N
N
y
x
N
N
y
N
N
x
N
Page 236
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
( )
x+y=
y= 8
Speed of gear 5,
=
12.
8
=
8.
[Ans. D]
9.
[Ans. B]
Gear
8 =
Gear
=
d = d cos = 8
d = d cos =
=
.8 mm
N
d
=
N
d
.8
=
N
N =
rpm
10.
.
cos
=
cos .
mm
13.
N =
=
rpm anticlock wise
14.
[Ans. D]
Rack and pinion gears is used to
rotational motion into translational
motion
15.
[Ans. A]
d +d
+
[Ans. A]
N
T
=
N
T
=
N =
rpm clock wise
N
Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on the
same shaft
Then,N = N =
rpm clock wise .
N
T
=
N
T
= 80
11.
t=
t=
d +d
= (
/N
( t) =
)=
entre distance =
[Ans. * ] Range 29 to 31
( )
R+r=
D
R
( )
m= =
T
T
d
r
( )
m= =
t
t
Using (2) &(3) in (1)
mT mt
+
=
m
(T + t) =
T
T
= ( =N
t
t
m
( t + t) =
[Ans. B]
d
m = = mm
T
Module of meshing gear pair are equal.
d
d
d
d
=
=
T
T
d
d
d
d
= =
=
=
T
T
d =
d =
d = d = ( )=
Using 3 in 1,
d = (
Theory of Machines
[Ans. D]
Spur Gear has a line contact. Lower pair
has surface contact
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Page 237
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
Flywheel
ME 2005
1.
A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two
eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of
50 mm and 60 mm at angular positions of
and
, respectively. A balancing
mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to balance the
rotor. What is the radial position of the
balancing mass?
(A) 50mm
(C) 150mm
(B) 120mm
(D) 280mm
2600 J. Assuming that the engine runs at

an average speed of 200 rpm, the polar
mass moment of inertia (in kg.m ) of a
flywheel to keep the speed fluctuation
within 0.5% of the average speed is
_______
7.
Consider a flywheel whose mass M is

distributed almost equally between a
heavy, ring-like rim of radius R and a
concentric disk-like feature of radius R/2.
Other parts of the flywheel, such as
spokes, etc, have negligible mass. The best
approximation for if the moment of
inertia of the flywheel about its axis of
rotation is expressed as MR , is _______
8.
An annular disc has a mass m, inner

radius R and outer radius 2R. The disc
rolls on a flat surface without slipping. If
the velocity of the center of mass is v, the
kinetic energy of the disc is
ME 2006
2.
If is the coefficient of speed fluctuation
of a flywheel then the ratio of max / min
will be:
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2007
3.
The speed of an engine varies from
210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During a cycle the
change in kinetic energy is found to be
400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel in
kgm2 is
(A) 0.10
(C) 0.30
(B) 0.20
(D) 0.40
4.
9.
(A)
mv
( )
mv
( )
mv
(D)
mv
Torque and angular speed data over one

cycle for a shaft carrying a flywheel are
shown in the figures. The moment of
inertia (in kg.m ) of the flywheel is _______
A circular solid of uniform thickness 20

mm, radius 200mm and mass 20 kg , is
used as a fly wheel. If it rotates at 600
rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in
joules is
(A) 395
(C) 1580
(B) 790
(D) 3160
Torque
N
ME 2013
5.
A flywheel connected to a punching
machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm
while running at a mean angular speed of
20 rad/s. if the total fluctuation of speed
is not exceed to
, the mass moment
of inertia of the flywheel in kg
is
(A) 25
(C) 100
(B) 50
(D) 125
/
m
rad/s
Angular speed
rad/s
rad/s
ME 2014
6.
Maximum fluctuation of kinetic energy in
an engine has been calculated to be
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Page 238
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines

1.
[Ans. C]
= (
1m
=
5.
)(
=+ .
= I( ) ( . )
Let x and y is position of balancing mass

along x and y direction. Resolving forces
along x-axis
. (
cos +
cos
)
= .
x
x=
.8 mm
.
(
sin )
+ . (
sin ) = . y
y=
mm
Position of balancing mass
6.
2.
I=
7.
. kg
8
(
[Ans. A]
e know E = I Cs
Here =
E =
CS =
8.
= .
mR =
4.
R
)
A
P
We know that
E = I
=
mR
[Ans. C]
[Ans. B]
mr
mR
= .
E = 400N m
I=
m r
m ( )
mR
=( ) = [
]=
m
m
= ( )R + R
+I
MR =
3.
other half as disc of radius R/

I
)= .
[Ans. *] Range 0.55 to 0.57

Half of mass is distributed as ring like rim of
radius R
m
I
= m R = ( )R
I=I
[Ans. D]

E = I
. + .
=I (
) (
)
r = x + y
= ( .8) + (
=
. mm
[Ans. A]
E=I
I=
Kinetic energy = I
And = r
= R.
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Page 239
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
R
Moment of Inertia about center
I = m (R + R )
= m ( R + R ) = mR
moment of inertia at periphery at point P
I = mR + m( R) =
=
Kinetic energy =
K. E =
9.
mR + mR
mR
mR
This is a case of only driving torque acting
on shaft. We do not have anything else on
shaft except fly wheel. So increase in
torque would just go as increase in kinetic
energy of flywheel.
In the part where torque is constant, we
apply
T = I
As torque is constant is constant. we
can apply
)
= (
I(
)
T=
(
)
T(
)=
I(
In to
(
) = I(
= I(
=I
I = 10(3.1415)
= 31.415 kg-m2
In to , (Just for verification)
(
) = I(
I=
= 31.415 kg- m
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Page 240
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
Vibrations
ME 2005
1.
In a spring mass system, the mass is
0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is
1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the
frequency of oscillation is found to be
90% of the original value. What is the
damping coefficient of the damper?
(A) 1.2 N.s/m
(C) 8.7 N.s/m
(B) 3.4 N.s/m
(D) 12.0 N.s/m
2.
There are four samples P, Q, R, and S, with

natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz,
respectively. These are mounted on test
setups
for
conducting
vibration
experiments. If a loud pure note of
frequency 144 Hz is produced by some
instrument, which of the samples will show
the most perceptible induced vibration?
(A) P
(C) R
(B) Q
(D) S
ME 2006
3 & 4:
A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5
kg, a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m, and a
dashpot with damping coefficient of 15
Ns/m.
3.
The value of critical damping of the
system is:
(A) 0.223 Ns/m
(C) 71.4 Ns/m
(B) 17.88 Ns/m
(D) 223.6 Ns/m
4.
The value of logarithmic decrement is

(A) 1.35
(C) 0.68
(B) 1.32
(D) 0.66
5.
A machine of 250 kg mass is supported on

springs of total stiffness 100 kN/m. Machine
has an unbalanced rotating force of 350 N at
speed of 3600 rpm. Assuming a damping
factor of 0.15, the value of transmissibility
ratio is:
(A) 0.0531
(C) 0.0162
(B) 0.9922
(D) 0.0028
6.
The differential equation governing the

vibrating system is:
y
x
k
m
C
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
mx + cx + k (x y) =
m(x y ) + c(x y ) + kx =
mx + c(x y ) + kx =
m(x y ) + c(x y ) + k(x y) =
ME 2007
7.
The equation of motion of a harmonic
oscillator is given by
x = 0,and the initial conditions at
are
( )=
( ) =
. The
amplitude of ( ) after n complete cycle is

(A) Xe
(B) Xe
8.
(
(
(D) X
(C) Xe
The natural frequency of the system

shown below is
k/2
k
m
k/2
9.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
For an under damped harmonic oscillator,

resonance
(A) occurs when excitation frequency is
greater than undamped natural
frequency
(B) occurs when excitation frequency is
less
than
undamped
natural
frequency
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Page 241
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) occurs when excitation frequency is

equal
to
undamped
natural
frequency
(D) never occurs
ME 2008
10. A uniform rigid rod of mass m = 1kg and
length L = 1m is hinged at its centre and
laterally supported at one end by a spring
of spring constant k = 300 N/m. The
natural frequency
in rad/s is
(A) 10
(C) 30
(B) 20
(D) 40
11.
The natural frequency of the spring mass

system shown in the figure is closest to
m=1.4 kg
k =
(A) 8 Hz
(B) 10 Hz
N/m k =
The rotor shaft of a large electric motor

supported between short bearings at both
the end shows a deflection of 1.8mm in
the middle of the rotor. Assuming the
rotor to be perfectly balanced and
supported at knife edges at both the ends,
the likely critical speed (in rpm) of the
shaft is
(A) 350
(C) 2810
(B) 705
(D) 4430
ME 2010
15. A mass m attached to a spring is subjected
to a harmonic force as shown in figure.
The amplitude of the forced motion is
observed to be 50 mm. The value of m
(in kg) is
K = 3000
N
N/m
(C) 12 Hz
(D) 14 Hz
ME 2009
12. A vehicle suspension system consists of a
spring and a damper. The stiffness of the
spring is 3.6kN/m and the damping
constant of the damper is 400Ns/m. If the
mass is 50kg, then the damping factor (d)
and damped natural frequency ( f ),
respectively, are
(A) 0.471 and 1.19Hz
(B) 0.471 and 7.48Hz
(C) 0.666 and 1.35Hz
(D) 0.666 and 8.50Hz
13.
14.
Theory of Machines
An automotive engine weighing 240kg is

supported on four springs with linear
characteristics. Each of the front two
springs have a stiffness of 16MN/m while
the stiffness of each rear spring is
32MN/m. The engine speed (in rpm), at
which resonance is likely to occur, is
(A) 6040
(C) 1424
(B) 3020
(D) 955
F(t) = 100 cos(100 t)

m
(A) 0.1
(B) 1.0
16.
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.5
The natural frequency of a spring mass

system on earth is . The natural
frequency of this system on the moon
(g
=g
/ ) is
(A)
(C) 0.204
(B) 0.408
(D) 0.167
ME 2011
17. A mass of 1 kg is attached to two identical
springs each with stiffness k =
kN/m
as shown in the figure. Under frictionless
condition, the natural frequency of the
system in Hz is close to
x
k
kg
k
(A) 32
(B) 23
th
th
(C) 16
(D) 11
th
Page 242
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
A disc of mass m is attached to a spring of

stiff-ness k as shown in the fig. The disc
rolls without slipping on a horizontal
surface. The nature frequency of vibration
of the system is
k
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2012
19. A concentrated mass m is attached at the
centre of a rod length 2L as shown in the
figure. The rod is kept in a horizontal
equilibrium position by a spring of
stiffness k. For very small amplitude of
vibration, neglecting the weights of the
rod and spring, the un-damped natural
frequency of the system is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2013
20. If two nodes are observed at a frequency
of 1800 rpm during whirling of a simply
supported long slender rotating shaft, the
first critical speed of the shaft in rpm is
(A) 200
(C) 600
(B) 450
(D) 900
21.
Theory of Machines
magnitude 5 kN for
seconds. The
amplitude in mm of the resulting free
vibration is
(A) 0.5
(C) 5.0
(B) 1.0
(D) 10.0
ME 2014
22. Critical damping is the
(A) Largest amount of damping for which
no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(B) Smallest amount of damping for
which no oscillation occurs in free
vibration
(C) Largest amount of damping for which
the motion is simple harmonic in free
vibration
(D) Smallest amount of damping for
which the motion is simple harmonic
in free vibration
23.
Consider a cantilever beam, having

negligible mass and uniform flexural
rigidity, with length 0.01 m. The
frequency of vibration of the beam, with a
0.5 kg mass attached at the free tip, is 100
Hz. The flexural rigidity (in N. m ) of the
beam is _______
24.
In vibration isolation, which one of the

following statements is NOT correct
regarding Transmissibility (T)?
(A) T is nearly unity at small excitation
frequencies
(B) T can be always reduced by using
higher damping at any excitation
frequency
(C) T is unity at the frequency ratio of
(D) T is infinity at resonance for
undamped system
25.
What is the natural frequency of the

spring mass system shown below? The
contact between the block and the
inclined plane is frictionless. The mass of
the block is denoted by m and the spring
A single degree of freedom system having

mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially
at rest is subjected to an impulse force of
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Page 243
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines
cos (
F=
constants are denoted by k and k as

shown below.
t)
k
k
k +k
(A)
m
( )
k +k
m
(D)
( )
26.
29.
A point mass is executing simple

harmonic motion with an amplitude of
10 mm and frequency of 4 Hz. The
maximum acceleration (m/ s ) of the
mass is _______
30.
A single degree of freedom system has a

mass of 2 kg, stiffness 8 N/m and viscous
damping ratio 0.02. The dynamic
magnification factor at an excitation
frequency of 1.5 rad/s is _______
31.
A rigid uniform rod AB of length L and

mass m is hinged at C such that AC = L/3,
CB = 2L/3. Ends A and B are supported
by springs of spring constant k. The
natural frequency of the system is given
by
m
k +k
m
Consider a single degree-of-freedom

system with viscous damping excited by a
harmonic force. At resonance, the phase
angle (in degree) of the displacement
with respect to the exciting force is
(A) 0
(C) 90
(B) 45
(D) 135
27.
The damping ratio of a single degree of

freedom spring-mass-damper system
with mass of 1 kg, stiffness 100 N/m and
viscous damping coefficient of 25 N.s/m is
28.
A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass

m = 10 kg, spring constant k = 6250 N/m
is excited by a harmonic excitation of
10 cos(25t) N. At the steady state, the
vibration amplitude of the mass is 40 mm.
The damping coefficient (c, in N.s/m) of
the dashpot is _______
A
L/
(A)
( )
th
L/
k
m
k
m
th
th
( )
k
m
(D)
k
m
Page 244
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Theory of Machines

1.
[Ans. C]
Given = .
We know that
=
. =
= .
Now =
8.
[Ans. A]
Equivalent K, k
2.
3.
4.
5.
.
N
9.
[Ans. B]
Resonance occurs when,
[Ans. D]
For critical damping,
= mk = .
=223.6 Ns/m
[Ans. *]
Logarithmic decrement =
10.
[Ans. C]
= 0.42
[Ans. C]
rad/s
rad/s
O
+*
T=
*
+ + *
K = 300 N/m
Transmissibility ratio = 0.0163
Applying torque about hinge O

mI
+ k[ ]
=
[Ans. C]
Differential equation governing the above
vibration system is given by
+
+ (
7.
s/m
[Ans. C]
Since the natural frequency of R (128Hz)
is close to the frequency produce by any
instrument(144Hz) therefore sample R
will show the most perceptible induced
vibration.
= =
6.
c=
= 8.
= +
]+
) +
k
=
m
Angular frequency =
=
=
[Ans. A]
= 30 rad/s
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Page 245
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
[Ans. B]
14.
keq = k1+k2 = 5600 N/m

k
=
m
12.
[Ans. A]
Damping factor =
=
=
i.e.
Hz
=
.
= .
15.
16.
.
.
= .
[Ans. A]
=
As g changes will also change by same

factor.
17.
[Ans. A]
Natural frequency of the system
=
k2
k2
k1
k1
At resonance = n =
18.
k = k + k
= 2(k +k )
= 2(32+16)
=96 106 N/m
where ke = k + k = 2k
= 2 20
= 40 kN/m
f=
= rad/s
) m=
m = . kg
240 kg
N=
.8
[Ans. A]
k m = F/
(
[Ans. A]
k1=16MN/m
k2=32MN/m
rpm
.
.
= .8 8
N=
N=
= 705 rpm
=
( .
= 8. 8
= 7.48
Now, = N
Therefore N =
=
13.
.8
=
Alternately
When speed of the shaft ( ) is equal to
natural speed of vibration, it is called
critical speed ( n )
f=
[Ans. B]
.
=
=
k1
k1
Theory of Machines
k
=
m
Hz
[Ans. C]
I + Kxr =
mr
(
+ mr ) + K(r. )r =
mr + Kr
K
+
=
m
=200 rad/s
Natural frequency =
. rpm
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Page 246
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. D]
Equation of motion = mL + k( L)
k L
+
=
mL
k
+( ) =
m
w =
20.
21.
25.
=
k
rad/sec
m
[Ans. D]
System in parallel. Inclination does not
matter
=
26.
K
k +k
=
m
m
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
f=n f
n = node
As 2 nodes are observed, n=3
1800 = f
8
f
=
=
[Ans. C]
F = ma
a=
m/s
= u + at
= +
= . m/sec
Now equating the K.E of mass with P.E of
spring
mv =
kx
( . ) =
.
x=
m=
[Ans. B]
23.
[Ans. * ] Range 0.064 to 0.067

f=
The phase difference

to
when
= for all value of
27.
22.
mm
(EI)
g( EI)
=
=
(mg)L
mL
=
28.
EI =
=
(EI)
mL
( f) mL
[ (
)]
()
is
equal
[Ans. *] Range 1.24 to 1.26

m =1kg
k=100N/m
c=25Ns/m
we know
= mw
( f) =
= .
m= 10 kg
k=6250 N/m
k
=
=
rad/sec
m
F =
N
=
rad /sec
Vibration amplitude = A=40 mm
= 0.040 m
F /k
A=
[
( ) ]+(
)
=
= .
.
24.
Theory of Machines
[Ans. B]
At
=
T is always irrespective of damping
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Page 247
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
= .
c = m
c=
.
c=
Ns/m
29.
mL
K
)
m
k
=
m
=(
.(
= .
30.
kL

x = a sin t
x = a cos t
x = a sin t
Maximum value = a
= a. ( f)
=
Theory of Machines
k
m
m/s

s
8
= = =
m
rads
= . rads
Magnification factor
= .
=
(
( ) ] +(
) ) +(
=
.
= . 8
31.
[Ans. D]
A
F
G
m =I
L
F ( )
L
mL
F ( )=*
+ m( G) +
( )
k(
)(
( )=[
)
k(
+ m( ) ]
L
mL
)( ) =
Q
th
th
th
Page 248
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Static Loading

ME
1.
2006
According to Von-Mises distortion energy
theory, the distortion energy under three
dimensional stress state is represented by
M.
(A)
(
(B)
N.
(C)
(
(D)
(
ME
2.
ME
3.
2007
The piston rod of diameter 20 mm and
length 700 mm in a hydraulic cylinder is
subjected to a compressive force of 10 kN
due to the internal pressure. The end
conditions for the rod may be assumed as
guided at the piston end and hinged at the
other end. The Youngs modulus is
200 GPa. The factor of safety for the
piston rod is
(A) 0.68
(C) 5.62
(B) 2.75
(D) 11.0
2011
Match the following criteria of material
failure, under biaxial stresses and
and yield stress , with their
corresponding graphic representations:
P. Maximum normal stress criterion
Q. Maximum distortion energy
criterion
R. Maximum shear stress criterion
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME
4.
P M, Q L, R N
P N, Q M, R L
P M, Q N, R L
P N, Q L, R M
2012
The homogeneous state of stress for a
metal part undergoing plastic
deformation is
T
Where the stress component values are in

MPa. Using von Mises yield criterion, the
value of estimated shear yield stress, in
MPa is
(A) 9.50
(C) 28.52
(B) 16.07
(D) 49.41
ME
5.
L.
th
2013
For a ductile material , toughness is a
measure of
(A) Resistance to scratching
(B) Ability to absorb energy up to
fracture
(C) Ability to absorb energy till elastic
limit
(D) Resistance to indentation
th
th
Page 249
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
6.
2014
Consider the two states of stress as
shown in configurations I and II in the
figure below. From the standpoint of
distortion energy (von-Mises) criterion,
which one of the following statements is
true?
I
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
Machine Design
II
I yields after II
II Yields after I
Both yield simultaneously
Nothing can be said about their
relative yielding
Which one of following is NOT correct?

(A) Intermediate principal stress is
ignored when applying the maximum
principal stress theory
(B) The maximum shear stress theory
gives the most accurate results
amongst all the failure theories
(C) As per the maximum strain energy
theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a
critical value
(D) As per the maximum distortion energy
theory, failure occurs when the
distortion energy per unit volume
exceeds a critical value
th
th
th
Page 250
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design

1.
[Ans. C]
From Von Mises distortion theory,
Estim te v lue of she r stress

.
(
2.
3.
[Ans. C]
P M, Q N, R L.
4.
[Ans. B]
Given,
[Ans. B]
Area of stress-strain under curve till
fracture
6.
[Ans. C]
Von Mises yield criteria,
(
.
So,
(C) Both yield simultaneously
According to von Mises yield criterion,

permissible value of tensile yield
strength,
For case - II
Similarly, minimum principle stress,
For case I
nd
Maximum principle stress,
5.
= 0.68
(
[Ans. A]
Factor of safety =
7.
[Ans. B]
)
(
( .
th
th
th
Page 251
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design for Dynamic Loading

ME
1.
ME
2.
2006
A cylindrical shaft is subjected to an
alternating stress of 100 MPa. Fatigue
strength to sustain 1000 cycles is
490 MPa. If the corrected endurance
strength is 70 MPa, estimated shaft life
will be
(A) 1071 cycles
(C) 281914 cycles
(B) 15000 cycles
(D) 928643 cycles
2007
A thin spherical pressure vessel of
200 mm diameter and 1 mm thickness is
subjected to an internal pressure varying
from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the yield,
ultimate, and endurance strength of
material are 600, 800 and 400 MPa
respectively. The factor of safety as per
Goodm ns rel tion is
(A) 2.0
(C) 1.4
(B) 1.6
(D) 1.2
ME
3.
2008
An axial residual compressive stress due
to a manufacturing process is present on
the outer surface of a rotating shaft
subjected to bending. Under a given
bending load, the fatigue life of the shaft
in the presence of the residual
compressive stress is
(A) decreased
(B) increased or decreased, depending
on the external bending load
(C) neither decreased nor increased
(D) increased
ME
4.
2009
A forged steel link with uniform diameter
of 30mm at the centre is subjected to an
axial force that varies from 40kN in
compression to 160kN in tension. The
tensile ( ), yield ( ) and corrected
endurance ( ) strengths of the steel
material are 600MPa, 420MPa and
240MPa respectively. The factor of safety

against fatigue endurance as per
oderbergs criterion is
(A) 1.26
(C) 1.45
(B) 1.37
(D) 2.00
ME
5.
2013
A bar is subjected to fluctuating tensile
load from 20 kN to 100 kN. The material
has yield strength of 240 MPa and
endurance limit in reversed bending is
160 MPa. According to the soderberg
principle , the area of cross section in
mm of the bar for a factor of safety of 2 is
(A) 400
(C) 750
(B) 600
(D) 1000
ME
6.
2014
In a structure subjected to fatigue loading,
the minimum and maximum stresses
developed in a cycle are 200 MPa and
400 MPa respectively. The value of stress
amplitude (in MPa) is _______
th
th
th
Page 252
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design

1.
[Ans. C]
3.
[Ans. D]
As we c n see from the Gerbers p r bol
the endurance strength remains constant
at maximum value irrespective of the
compressive load. Where as for tensile
load it decreases sharply with increases
in
and stress in the shaft, its strength
in fatigue increase.
log
C
B
log
Equation of straight line connecting

( log
) and ( log
)
y
.
.
.
x
)
Y .
. (x
At y log
.
. (x
)
x = 5.43
log
.
N = 268269
2.
Endurance strength
Compression
4.
[Ans. B]
Stress induced
pr
t
[Ans. A]
Dia .d = 30mm
(Tesion)
(compression)
Tensile strength
Yield strength
Maximum stress,
A
.
Minimum stress,
A
Equivalent Stresses
) mm
(Tensile)
(
.
) mm
(Compression)
Stress amplitude,
e n stress
Goodman equation
)
(
Similarly,
strength
yield
(
(
)
)
et . . be n
n
. n
n
.
n
equ tion of soderberg
th
th
th
Page 253
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
.
.
5.
[Ans. D]
(
6.
mm
th
th
th
Page 254
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Joints
ME
1.
ME
2.
2006
A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld
carries a steady load of 15 kN along the
weld. The shear strength of the weld
material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor
of safety is
(A) 2.4
(C) 4.8
(B) 3.4
(D) 6.8
4.
The resultant shear stress on bolt P is

closest to
(A) 132 MPa
(C) 178 MPa
(B) 159 MPa
(D) 195 MPa
ME
5.
2010
A bracket (shown in figure) is rigidly
mounted on wall using four rivets. Each
rivet is 6 mm in diameter and has an
effective length of 12 mm.
2007
A bolted joint is shown below. The
maximum shear stress, in MPa, in the
bolts at A and B, respectively are
holes of
20
32
32
20
1000 N
mm bolts
10
6 mm thick
40
75
25
40
F = 10 kN
20
12
(All dimensions in the figure are in mm)
(A) 242.6, 42.5

(B) 42.5, 242.6
ME
(C) 42.5, 42.5

(D) 242.6,242.6
2008
Statement for Linked data Question 3 & 4
A steel bar of
mm is cantilevered
with two M 12 bolts (P and Q) to support
a static load of 4 kN as shown in the
figure.
100
40
12
Direct shear stress (in MPa) in the most

heavily loaded rivet is
(A) 4.4
(C) 17.6
(B) 8.8
(D) 35.2
150
ME
6.
100
1.7m
400
2012
A fillet welded joints is subjected to
transverse loading F as shown in the
figure. Both legs of the fillets are of 10mm
size and the weld length is 30mm. if the
allowable shear stress of the weld is
94MPa, considering the minimum throat
area of the weld, the maximum allowable
transverse load in kN is
F
4 kN
3.
The primary and secondary shear loads

on bolt P, respectively, are
(A) 2 kN, 20 kN
(C) 20 kN, 0 kN
(B) 20 kN, 2 kN
(D) 0 kN, 20 kN
(A) 14.44
(B) 17.92
th
th
(C) 19.93
(D) 22.16
th
Page 255
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
2013
Common data for questions 7 & 8:
A single riveted lap joint of two similar
plates as shown in the figure below has
the following geometrical and material
details.
w
7.
8.
Machine Design
(A) 83
(B) 125
ME
9.
(C) 167
(D) 501
2014
For the three bolt system shown in the
figure, the bolt material has shear yield
strength of 200 MPa. For a factor of safety
of 2, the minimum metric specification
required for the bolt is
Width of the plate w =200 mm, thickness

of the plate t = 5 mm, number of rivets
n =3, diameter of the rivet dr = 10mm,
diameter of the rivet hole dh= 11mm,
allowable tensile stress of the plate
allowable shear stress of
the rivet
and allowable
bearing stress of the rivet
.
If the rivets are to be designed to avoid
crushing
failure,
the
maximum
permissible load P in kN is
(A) 7.50
(C) 22.50
(B) 15.00
(D) 30.00
(A) M8
(B) M10
10.
(C) M12
(D) M16
A bolt of major diameter 12 mm is

required to clamp two steel plates. Cross
sectional area of the threaded portion of
the bolt is 84.3mm .The length of the
threaded portion in grip is 30 mm,while
the length of the unthreaded portion in
grip is 8mm.Young's modulus of material
is 200 GPa.The effective stiffness
(inMN/m) of the bolt in the clamped
zone is
If the plates are to be designed to avoid

tearing failure , the maximum permissible
load P in kN is
th
th
th
Page 256
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design

1.
[Ans. B]
Factor of safety
trength of m teri l
Actu l lo d or strength on m teri l
(in
)
(in
(in
. (in
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
100
[Ans. *]
d
. d
= 0.84 (10)
= 8.4 mm
1.7m
mm bolts
6 mm thick
(P)
4 kN
e
rim ry she r due to
40
A
P = 10 kN
Now for secondary load effect of P &

T
e
mm
s r
s r
e
150
rim ry force
n
T
20
100
40
400
holes of
20
(d )
.
.
x stress t A
o stress
r
s
r
s
.
.
( . )
.
( x stress t )
(Primary force will act equally in all both)
{And in bolt B secondary shear force will
not act}
{so in bolt B stress is due to only primary
S.F.}
econd ry she r force (due to P and )
s
s (r
r )
e
)
s (
r
r
s
s
At point A
(
. )
s
r
(
s
.
4.
[Ans. B]
Resultant shear strain on bolt P
= 18 kN (here d = 12 mm)
(
.
th
th
th
Page 257
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. B]
Direct shear stress will be same in all the
rivets.
( )
d
6.
A
A
[Ans. C]
S = 10mm, l= 30mm,
Maximum allowable transverse load,

(in KN), F = 0.707S
d
.
This is minimum diameter so nearest
diameter greater is M10
.
.
.
7.
8.
9.
Machine Design
10.
kN
[Ans. C]
Crushing failure
p
dt
)(
=3 (
= 22.5 kN
)( )
[Ans. C]
Tearing of plates
(
p
d )t
= 200 [200 3(11)]

stiffness of thre ded portion
A E
.
l
m
stiffness of unthre ded portion
A E
l
.
m
the connection is in series.
o effective stiffness
kN
.
[Ans. B]
he r lo d on e ch bolt
.
m .
th
th
th
Page 258
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Shaft and Shaft Component

ME
1.
ME
2.
2012
A solid circular shaft needs to be designed
to transmit a torque of 50N.m. If the
allowable shear stress of the material is
140MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2,
the minimum allowable design diameter
in mm is
(A) 8
(C) 24
(B) 16
(D) 32
ultimate and corrected endurance

strength of the shaft material are 300
MPa, 500 MPa and 200 MPa, respectively,
then the factor of safety for the shaft is
_______
3.
A shaft is subjected to pure torsional

moment. The maximum shear stress
developed in the shaft is 100 MPa. The
yield and ultimate strengths of the shaft
material in tension are 300 MPa and 450
MPa, respectively. The factor of safety
using maximum distortion energy (vonMises) theory is _______
2014
A rotating steel shaft is supported at the
ends. It is subjected to a point load at the
center. The maximum bending stress
developed is 100 MPa. If the yield,

1.
[Ans. B]
T
d (Torsion of shaft Equation)
T
Its fatigue loading case. So we will

compare Alternating stain (100MPa) with
endurance strength (200MPa).
endur nce strength
ctor of s fety
Altern ting str in
Factor of safety = 200/100 = 2
) d (T is in N mm, d in mm
and in N/mm2)
d
d
2.
mm
3.

Yield stress (k) in pure shear (torsion)
according to von-Mises criteria

Due to rotation of shaft , same point will
have +100 MPa bending stress as well as
bending stress.
o m x Altern ting st in will be
)
(
.
where
un xi l torsion (here the yield strength)
th
.
developed
ctor of s ferty n
th
th
Page 259
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Bearing
ME
1.
ME
2.
2005
Which one of the following is a criterion
in the design of hydrodynamic journal
bearings?
(A) Sommerfield number
(B) Rating life
(C) Specific dynamic capacity
(D) Rotation factor
2007
A natural feed journal bearing of diameter
50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20
revolution/s and carries a load of 2 kN.
The viscosity of the lubricant is 20 mPa-s,
the radial clearance is 50 m . The
Sommerfield number for the bearing is
(A) 0.062
(C) 0.250
(B) 0.125
(D) 0.785
3.
A ball bearing operating at a load F has

8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing,
in hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
(A) 8000
(C) 4000
(B) 6000
(D) 1000
ME
4.
2008
A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of
40mm and a length of 40 mm. the shaft is
rotating at 20 rad/s and the viscosity of
the lubricant is 20mPa-s. the clearance is
0.020 mm. the loss of torque due to the
viscosity
of
the
lubricant
is
approximately:
(A) 0.040 Nm
(C) 0.400 Nm
(B) 0.252 Nm
(D) 0.6562 Nm
ME
5.
2010
A lightly loaded full journal bearing has
journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of
50.05 mm and bush length of 20 mm. If
rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm
and average viscosity of liquid lubricant is
0.03 Pa s, the power loss (in W) will be
(A) 37
(C) 118
(B) 74
(D) 237
ME
6.
2011
Two identical ball bearing P and Q are
operating at loads 30 kN and 45 kN
respectively. The ratio of the life of bearing
P to the life of bearing Q is
(A) 81/16
(C) 9/4
(B) 27/8
(D) 3/2
ME
7.
2014
A hydrodynamic journal bearing is
subject to 2000 N load at a rotational
speed of 2000 rpm. Both bearing bore
diameter and length are 40 mm. If radial
cle r nce is
m nd be ring is
lubricated with an oil having viscosity
0.03 Pa.s, the Sommerfeld number of the
bearing is _______
8.
Ball bearings are rated by a manufacturer

for a life of
revolutions. The catalogue
rating of a particular bearing is 16 kN. If
the design load is 2 kN, the life of the
bearing will be p
revolutions, where
p is equal to _______
th
th
th
Page 260
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design

1.
[Ans. A]
Sommerfield Number, also known as
Bearing Characteristic Number,
(
2.
[Ans. D]
Life
(
6.
p
.
or
) ommerfeld umber
( )
w
. ( mm )
d
.
(
)
( )
.
.

Life of bearing p
revolution
= p million resolution
( )
for b ll be ring
( )
.
m.
[Ans. *] Range 0.75 to 0.85
8.
here
ife of be ring
P = Load
( o d)
( ife)
( ife)
( o d)
[
( )
=1000 hrs
.
.
[Ans. B]
A
= 2.0096 N
(
. dl)
Torque =
.
( torque
r)
.
. v.
(
( )
m s
.
.
mm
[Ans. A]
v
c
force
.
dv
dy
7.
New life =
4.
.125
3.
[Ans. A]
).( )
[Ans. B]
Sommerfield number
r
( )
p
Where, r is radius of journal
is viscosity of lubricant, N is number of
revolution per second
p is bearing pressure on projected Area
C is radial clearance
Therefore.
p
5.
( )
million resolution
million resolution
th
th
th
Page 261
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Brakes and Clutches

2005
1 & 2:
A band brake consists of a lever attached
to one end of the band. The other end of
the band is fixed to the ground. The wheel
has a radius of 200 mm and the wrap
angle of the band is
. The braking
force applied to the lever is limited to
100N, and the coefficient of friction
between the band and the wheel is 0.5. No
other information is given.
(A) 30
(B) 40
100N
1.
The maximum tension that can be

generated in the band during braking is
(A) 1200 N
(C) 3224 N
(B) 2110 N
(D) 4420 N
The maximum wheel torque that can be
completely braked is
(A) 200 N.m
(C) 604 N.m
(B) 382 N.m
(D) 844 N.m
ME
3.
2006
A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW
at 2000 rpm. The disk has a friction lining
with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25.
Bore radius of friction lining its equal to
25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure
of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of
the friction lining is
(A) 39.4 mm
(C) 97.9 mm
(B) 49.5 mm
(D) 142.9 mm
(C) 45
(D) 60
ME
5.
2008
A clutch has outer and inner diameters
100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming
a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient
of friction of liner material 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
(A) 148 Nm
(C) 372 Nm
(B) 196 Nm
(D) 490 Nm
ME
6.
2010
A band brake having band width of
80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm,
coefficient of friction of 0.25 and angle of
wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a
friction torque of 1000 N m. The
maximum tension (in kN) developed in
the band is
(A) 1.88
(C) 6.12
(B) 3.56
(D) 11.56
ME
7.
2012
Force of 400N is applied to the brake
drum of 0.5m diameter in a band brake
system as shown in the figure, where the
wrapping angle is 1800. If the coefficient
of friction between the drum and the
band is 0.25, the braking torque applied,
in N.m is.
1m
2.
ME
4.
mm
450
200mm
1m
mm
mm
mm
ME
2007
A block-brake shown below has a face
width of 300 mm and a mean co-efficient
of friction of 0.25. For an activating force
of 400 N, the braking torque in Nm is
400N
(A) 100.6
(B) 54.4
th
th
(C) 22.1
(D) 15.7
th
Page 262
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
8.
9.
Machine Design
2014
A disc clutch with a single friction surface
has coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The
maximum pressure which can be imposed
on the friction material is 1.5 MPa. The
outer diameter of the clutch plate is 200
mm and its internal diameter is 100 mm.
Assuming uniform wear theory for the
clutch plate, the maximum torque (in
N.m) that can be transmitted is _______
A drum brake is shown in the figure. The
drum is rotating in anticlockwise
direction. The coefficient of friction
between drum and shoe is 0.2. The
dimensions shown in the figure are in
mm. The braking torque (in N.m) for the
brake shoe is _______
rum
10.
A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg

moves uniformly in a straight line with
the wheels revolving at 10 rad/s. The
wheels are identical, each with a radius of
0.2 m. Then a constant braking torque is
applied to all the wheels and the vehicle
experiences a uniform deceleration. For
the vehicle to stop in 10 s, the braking
torque (in N.m) on each wheel is _______

1.
[Ans. B]
200 mm
100 N
(r
T
1m
1m
4.
[Ans. C]
200 mm
3.
150 mm
[Ans. B]
(T
T
(
re
A
N
Taking moment about A,
[Ans. A]
According to uniform pressure theory,
P = 1 MPa
Power transmitted
400 mm
400 N
T
T
e
e .
T
T
Maximum tension produced in band is
2110 N
r
) .
. mm
T )
.
Taking moment about O,
2.
5.
ing torque
[Ans. B]
Using uniform pressure theory torque
carrying capacity of clutch is given by
r
T
(
)
r
th
th
th
Page 263
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
r )(
p(
r )
r )
Machine Design
)
of rum
((
) )
= 195936 Nmm = 195.936 Nm.

6.
7.
T(
T (
).
10.

r
r
T
( r)dr r
r
rdr
*
(
.
.
c(r
r )
r )(r
.
m
.m
.
m
[Ans. B]
T
e
e .
T
T
T
.
r ing torque pplied in .m
(T
T
T)
.
(
. )
9.
Breaking Torque =
T (Frictional Torque)
.
8.
mm
[Ans. D]
(T
T)
T
e
T
( .
m=mass of vehicle =1000 kg
=Angular velocity of wheel = 10 rad/sec
R = Radius of wheel = 0.2m
linear velocity of wheel = linear velocity
of vehicle
u
.
m sec
final velocity of vehicle v
t = 10 sec
V = u + at
0 = 2+a10
. m sec
After application of brake, vehicle moves:
u
s
( )
.
s
s
m
.
let braking force at each wheel=B
Total braking force = 4B
Change in K.E of vehicle = work done
against braking force
r )
mu
( )
50 = B
Braking torque at each wheel =
m
FBD of lever plus shoe: .
mm
th
th
th
Page 264
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machine Design
Design of Spur Gears

ME
1.
ME
2.
2006
Twenty degree full depth involute
profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth
gear are in mesh. If the module is 5 mm,
the center distance between the gear pair
will be
(A) 140 mm
(C) 280 mm
(B) 150 mm
(D) 300 mm
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
Match the type of gears with their most

appropriate description.
Type of
Description
gear
P
Helical
1 Axes non parallel
and non intersecting
Q
Spiral
2 Axes parallel and
Bevel
teeth are inclined to
the axis
R
Hypoid
3 Axes are parallel and
teeth are parallel to
the axis
S
Rack and 4 Axes are
pinion
perpendicular and
intersecting, and
teeth are inclined to
the axis
5 Axes are
perpendicular and
used for large speed
reduction
6 Axes parallel and
one of the gears has
infinite radius
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
A spur gear has a module of 3 mm,

number of teeth 16, a face width of
36 mm and a pressure angle of 20. It is
transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/s.
Taking a velocity factor of 1.5, and a form
factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is
about
(A) 32MPa
(C) 58MPa
(B) 46 MPa
(D) 70 MPa
2007
Common Data Questions 2, 3 & 4
A gear set has a pinion with 20 teeth and
a gear with 40 teeth. The pinion runs at
30 rev/s and transmits a power of 20 kW.
The teeth are on the
full depth
system and have a module of 5 mm. The
length of the line of action is 19 mm.
The center distance for the above gear set
in mm is
(A) 140
(C) 160
(B) 150
(D) 170
3.
The contact ratio of the contacting tooth is

(A) 1.21
(C) 1.29
(B) 1.25
(D) 1.33
4.
The resultant force on the contacting gear

tooth in N is
(A) 77.23
(C) 225.80
(B) 212.20
(D) 289.43
ME
5.
2008
One tooth of a gear having 4 module and
32 teeth is shown in the figure. Assume
that the gear tooth and the corresponding
tooth space make equal intercepts on the
pitch circumference. The dimension
nd b respectively re closest to.
a
Pitch circle
6.08 mm, 4 mm
6.48 mm, 4.2 mm
6.28 mm, 4.3 mm
6.28 mm, 4.1 mm
th
th
th
Page 265
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME
8.
9.
2009
Statement for Linked data Question 8 & 9
A
full depth involute spur pinion of 4
mm module and 21 teeth is to transmit 15
kw at 960 rpm. Its face width is 25 mm
The tangential force transmitted (in N ) is
(A) 3552
(C) 1776
(B) 2611
(D) 1305
ME
10.
Given that the tooth geometry factor is

0.32 and the combined effect of dynamic
load and allied factors intensifying the
stress is 1.5; the minimum allowable
stress (in MPa) for the gear material is
(A) 242.0
(C) 121.0
(B) 166.5
(D) 74.0
Machine Design
2014
A spur pinion of pitch diameter 50 mm
rotates at 200 rad/s and transmits 3 kW
power. The pressure angle of the tooth of
the pinion is 20. Assuming that only one
pair of the teeth is in contact, the total
force (in newton) exerted by a tooth of
the pinion on the tooth on a mating gear
is _______

1.
[Ans. A]
Centre distance =
=
2.
[Ans. B]
Centre distance =
(
3.
4.
5.
(
(T
[Ans. D]
Given m = 4 and T = 32
So D = m T
=
= 128 mm
= 140mm
T)
.
mm
But
(because tooth thickness = tooth space)
2a = 12.566
a = 6.28 mm
and b = 4.1 mm
= 150 mm
[Ans. C]
Length of line of action = 19 mm
Length of arc of contact
mm
. mm
cos
d
circul r pitch
mm
z
length of rc
cont ct r tion
circul r pitch
.
.
Pitch circle
F
E
64
A
[Ans. *] (Answer key is not matching with

IIT keys)
P=T
3
T.
T = 106.1 Nm
Now, T = Ft.
Here
mm
. m
=
.
A
cos .
.
b m
A A
m (
. )
b
. mm
Addendum = module
Dedendum = .
module
.
.
esult nt force
th
th
th
Page 266
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
Machine Design
Power = Torque Angul r speed

P = Tw =
r
P = Tangential force Radius
Radius, r =
mm
P=
r
Helical
.
9.
[Ans. B]
Tooth geometry factor, Y = 0.32
Combined effect of dynamic load and
allied factor intensifying the stress is
f
.
bYm
f
Spiral bevel
Pinion
)( .
.
10.
)(
Rack
7.
[Ans. C]
Lewis equation is given as
d b ym
F can be calculated as
D = mZ = 3 16 = 48 mm
= 1.5, b = 36, y= 0.3, m = 3
F=
=
1.5
36
ower
ower
0.3 3
65
Nearest stress in gear tooth taking in
ccount some . . .
8.
T
(
r)
d
.
T ngeti l force
cos
[Ans. A]
Module, m = 4 mm
Number of teeth, T = 21
Speed, N = 960 rpm
Pressure angle,
Face width, b = 25 mm
Full depth involute spur pinion
Transmission of power,
P = 15 kW at 960 rpm
cos(
th
th
cos(
th
Page 267
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Properties
ME
1.
ME
2.
2006
For a Newtonian fluid
(A) Shear stress is proportional to shear
strain
(B) Rate of shear stress is proportional
to shear strain
(C) Shear stress is proportional to rate of
shear strain
(D) Rate of shear stress is proportional
to rate of shear strain
3.
Match Group A with Group B:

Group
Group B
P: Biot
number
Q: Grashof
number
R: Prandtl
number
S: Reynolds
number
1: Ratio of buoyancy to
viscous force
2: Ratio of inertia force to
viscous force
3: Ratio of momentum to
thermal diffusivities
4: Ratio of internal
thermal resistance to
boundary layer thermal
resistance
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
2014
Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid
through a circular pipe of diameter, D.
Identify the correct pair of statements.
I. The fluid is well-mixed
II. The fluid is unmixed
III.
< 2300
IV.
> 2300
(A) I, III
(C) II, III
(B) II, IV
(D) I, IV

1.
[Ans. C]
For a Newtonian fluid, shear stress is
proportional to rate of shear strain.
3.
[Ans. A]
=
( )
( )
2.
uoy n y or
s ous or
v
om ntum d us v ty
= =
rm l d us v ty
n rt or
=
s ous ro
=
[Ans. D]
We know for turbulent flow of a fluid
ylonds numb r =
Also, due to turbulent nature of flow, fluid
will be well mixed.
th
th
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Page 268
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Statics
ME 2005
1.
A U - tube manometer with a small
quantity of mercury is used to measure
the static pressure difference between
two locations A and B in a conical section
through which an incompressible fluid
flows. At a particular flow rate, the
mercury column appears as shown in the
figure. The density of mercury is
13600 kg/
and g =9.81 m/ .Which of
the following is correct?
A
below. Density of water is 1000 kg/ .

The minimum mass of the gate in kg per
unit width (perpendicular to the plane of
paper ), required to keep it closed is
5m
(A) 5000
(C) 7546
(D) 9623
ME
4.
2014
Water flows through a pipe having an
inner radius of 10 mm at the rate of
36 kg/hr at 25C. The viscosity of water at
25C is 0.001 kg/m.s. The Reynolds
number of the flow is _______
5.
For a completely submerged body with

ntr o gr v ty nd
ntr o
buoy n y , t
ond t on o st b l ty
will be
(A) G is located below B
(B) G is located above B
(C) G and B are coincident
(D) Independent of the locations of G & B
6.
A siphon is used to drain water from a

large tank as shown in the figure below.
Assume that the level of water is
maintained constant. Ignore frictional
effect due to viscosity and losses at entry
and exit. At the exit of the siphon, the
velocity of water is
150mm
(A) Flow direction is A to B and

p
p =20 kPa
(B) Flow direction is B to A and
p
p =1.4 kPa
(C) Flow direction is A to B and
p
p =20 kPa
(D) Flow direction is B to A and
p
p =1.4 kPa
(B) 6600
ME 2010
2.
For the stability of a floating body, under
the influence of gravity alone, which of
the following is TRUE?
(A) Metacentre should be below centre
of gravity.
(B) Metacentre should be above centre
of gravity.
(C) Metacentre and centre of gravity
must lie on the same horizontal line.
(D) Metacentre and centre of gravity
must lie on the same vertical line.
tum
(A) g(
ME 2013
3.
A hinged gate of length 5 m, inclined at
with the horizontal and with water
mass on its left, is shown in the figure
(B) g
(C) g
(D) g
th
th
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Page 269
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. A]
x = centroid of prism
=
= =
Taking moments about hinge)
F(x
mg ( ) os
=
m = 9612.88 Kg
B
A
150m
4.

=
PA-PB = g.
=13600 9.81 0.15

= 20 kPa
As pressure is decreasing from A to B,
So flow direction is A to B.
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
For stable equilibrium meta centre should
be above centre of gravity.
m =
=
(
=
5.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
mg
t bl
B has to be located above
6.
[Ans. B]
s p on
mg
tum
Let us solve it by
Pressure diagram (here it is triangular
prism)
P and R are open to atmosphere, so gauge

pressure at P and R will be zero
y pply ng rnoull s pr n pl , t
nd
R:
=
nd
g
= g
= g
At exist of siphon,
velocity of water = g
g sn
F = volume of diagram
=
g sn
= 61312.5
th
th
th
Page 270
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Kinematics
ME 2005
1.
A leaf is caught in a whirlpool. At a given
instant, the leaf is at a distance of 120 m
from the center of the whirlpool. The
whirlpool can be described by the
following velocity distribution:
=
) m/s and
m/s, where r (in meters) is the distance

from the center of the whirlpool. What
will be the distance of the leaf from the
center when it has moved through half a
revolution?
(A) 48 m
(C) 120 m
(B) 64 m
(D) 142 m
2.
The velocity components in the x and y

directions of a two dimensional potential
flow are u and v, respectively. Then
is
equal to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2006
3.
A two-dimensional flow field has
velocities along the x and y directions
given by u = x t and v =
2xyt
respectively, where t is time. The
equation of streamlines is:
(A)
= constant
(B)
= constant
(C)
= constant
(D) not possible to determine
4.
In a two-dimensional velocity field with

velocities u and v along the x and y
directions respectively, the convective
acceleration along the x-direction is given
by
(A) u
(C) u
(B) u
(D) v
ME 2007
5.
statements about steady incompressible
forced vortex flow is correct?
P: Shear stress is zero at all points in the
flow.
Q: Vorticity is zero at all points in the flow.
R: Velocity is directly proportional to the
radius from the centre of the vortex.
S: Total mechanical energy per unit mass
is constant in the entire flow field.
(A) P and Q
(C) P and R
(B) R and S
(D) P and S
ME 2008
6 and 7:
The gap between a moving circular plate
and a stationary surface is being
continuously reduced, as the circular plate
comes down at a uniform speed V towards
the stationary bottom surface, as shown in
the figure. In the process, the fluid
contained between the two plates flows out
radially. The fluid is assumed to be
incompressible and inviscid.
R
r
Moving circular
plate
Stationary
surface
6.
The radial velocity v at any radius r,

when the gap width is h, is
7.
(A) v =
(C) v =
(B) v =
(D) v =
The radial component of the fluid

acceleration at r = R is
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 271
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
For a continuity equation given by

= to be valid, where is the
velocity vector, which one of the following
is a necessary condition?
(A) steady flow
(B) irrotational flow
(C) inviscid flow
(D) incompressible flow
ME 2009
9.
You are asked to evaluate assorted fluid
flows for their suitability in a given
laboratory application. The following
three flow choices, expressed in terms of
the two-dimensional velocity fields in the
x-y plane, are made available.
P. u = 2y, v = -3x
Q. u = 3xy, v = 0
R. u = 2x, v = 2y
Which flows(s) should be recommended
when the application requires the flow to
be incompressible and irrotational?
(A) P and R
(C) Q and R
(B) Q
(D) R
Fluid Mechanics
ME 2014
12. Consider the following statements
regarding streamline(s):
(i) It is a continuous line such that the
tangent at any point on it shows the
velocity vector at that point
(ii) There is no flow across streamlines
(iii)
s the differential
equation of a streamline, where u, v

and w are velocities in directions x, y
and z, respectively
(iv) In an unsteady flow, the path of a
particle is a streamline
Which one of the following combinations
of the statements is true?
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
13.
Consider a velocity field

= (y x ), where K is a constant.
The vorticity,
, is
C
/
(B) K
(D) K /2
ME 2010
10. Velocity vector of a flow field is given
as = xy x z . The vorticity vector at
(1, 1, 1) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2011
11. A streamline and an equipotential line in
a flow field
(A) Are parallel to each other
(B) Are perpendicular to each other
(C) Intersect at an acute angle
(D) An identical
th
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Page 272
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. B]
Given data:
Radial distance(r) = 120m
Radial velocity distribution
=
i.e.
=
of
leaf,
3.
+ m/s
[Ans. A]
Given data:
=x t
=
xyt
Angular velocity distribution of leaf,

V0 = *
+ m/s
Let = Angle turned by a leaf from 0

For
= revolutions
(i.e.
= radians). The radial
distance of leaf from centre?
We know, Vr =
=
Integrating both sides
ln x = ln y
ln x y = ln
x y = onst nt
= Rate of change of
radial distance of leaf

=r
=r
= Rate of change of
angular displacement of leaf

Given
=*
+=
-------- (1)
+=r
-------(2)
4.
[Ans. A]
Two dimensional velocity field with
velocities u, v and along x and y direction.
Acceleration along x direction,
=
Dividing Eq(1) and Eq(2)

=
=
=
2.
Convective acceleration+ temporal

acceleration
dr
=
d
r
Integrating both sides, we get boundary
limits
dr
=
d
r
log *
[log r ]
[ ]
+=
Since,
therefore
Convective acceleration = u
5.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. A]
Given data:
Let V = Downward velocity of circular
plate (in m/sec)
R = Radius of circular plate (m)
h = Gap (width) between the moving
plate and stationary plate.
Vr = Radial v lo ty t r d us r
According to continuity
Eq(law of conservation of mass)
m = constant
=
=
= 0 for 2-dimensional field,
[Ans. D]
For two dimensional flow, continuity
equation should be satisfied
th
th
th
Page 273
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
=
=
8.
n ompr ss bl
r
=
=
[Ans. D]
The basic equation of continuity for fluid
flow is given by
lu d
Radial velocity at r = R
=
7.
Now if remains constant, then only we

can write
. =0
or
[Ans. C]
let ar = Radial component of acceleration
at r = R.
according to law of conservation of
energy
m (mass flow rate) = constant (c)
=C
For incompressible fluid
A.V = constant ( )
Volume flow rate = C
For given instance,
Volume of matter = constant (fixed)
r
= onst nt
Here r and h are variable.
Differentiate w.r.t time(t)
d
r
=
dt
r
* r
+=
* r
i.e,
9.
[Ans. D]
Incompressible flow satisfy continuity
equation
u
v
=
x
y
P. u = y, v =
x
y
x
x
y
Incompressible flow
=
Q. u = xy, v =
xy
x
y
Compressible flow
y
R. u =
x, v = y
x
y
x
y
Incompressible flow
=
For irrotational flow condition is
v
u
w = (
)=
x
y
For P: u = y, v =
x
x
y
w = *
+
x
y
+=
* +
* +
Differentiate Vr w.r.t t
=
Hence incompressible flow
Where V = velocity of circular plate

moving down
d
=
dt
r
r
=
=
Fluid Mechanics
=
=
=
, *
+
=
* +=
(Rotational flow)
For Q: u = xy, v =
w = *
=
For R: u =
th
th
xy
+
y
ot t on l low
x, v = y
th
Page 274
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
w =
y
x
x
y
Fluid Mechanics
rrot t on l low
10.
[Ans. D]
Velocity vector
=|
|
xy
= [
x z
x z ]
[
[
=
= x
t , ,
=
x
zx
x z
xy ]
xz
11.
[Ans. B]
12.
[Ans. D]
(i), (ii), (iii) are correct but (iv) in an
unsteady flow, the path of particle is not
streamline
13.
[Ans. A]
= (y
x ),
vort ty = w =
=[
xy ]
u
]
y
y ]=
th
th
th
Page 275
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Dynamics
ME 2005
1.
A venturimeter of 20 mm throat diameter
is used to measure the velocity of water in
a horizontal pipe of 40 mm diameter. If
the pressure difference between the pipe
and throat sections is found to be 30 kPa
then, neglecting frictional losses, the flow
velocity is
(A) 0.2 m/s
(C) 1.4 m/s
(B) 1.0 m/s
(D) 2.0 m/s
ME 2011
4.
Figure shows the schematic for the
measurement of velocity of air
(density =1.2 kg/m ) through a constant
- area duct using a pitot tube and a water tube manometer. The differential head of
water (density = 1000 kg/m ) in the two
columns of the manometer is 10 mm. take
acceleration due to gravity as
9.8 m/s . The velocity of air in m/s is
ME 2007
2.
In a steady flow through a nozzle, the flow
velocity on the nozzle axis is given by
) , where x is the distance
10 mm
v=u (
Flow
along the axis of the nozzle from its inlet

plane and L is the length of the nozzle.
The time required for a fluid particle on
the axis to travel from the inlet to the exit
lane of the nozzle is
(A)
(B)
(A) 6.4
(B) 9.0
(C)
ln
(D)
ME 2010
3.
A smooth pipe of diameter 200 mm
carries water. The pressure in the pipe at
section S1 (elevation: 10m) is 50 kPa. At
section S2 (elevation: 12m) the pressure
is 20 kPa and velocity is 2 ms . Density
of water is 1000 gm and acceleration
due to gravity is 9.8 ms . Which of the
following is TRUE
(A) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is
0.53 m
(B) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is
0.53 m
(C) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is
1.06 m
(D) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is
1.06 m
(C) 12.8
(D) 25.6
ME 2012
5.
A large tank with a nozzle attached
contains three immiscible , inviscid fluids
as shown. Assuming that the changes in
h1 , h2 and h3 are negligible, the
instantaneous discharge velocity is
(A) g
(B) g
(C) g (
(D) g (
th
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Page 276
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2013
6.
Water is coming out from a tap and falls
vertically downwards. At the tap opening ,
the stream diameter is 20mm with
uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration
due to gravity is 9.81 m/s . Assuming
steady, inviscid flow, constant
atmospheric pressure everywhere and
neglecting curvature and surface tension
effects, the diameter in mm of the stream
0.5 m below the tap is approximately
(A) 10
(C) 20
(B) 15
(D) 25
ME 2014
7.
In a simple concentric shaft-bearing
arrangement, the lubricant flows in the
2 mm gap between the shaft and the
bearing. The flow may be assumed to be a
plane Couette flow with zero pressure
gradient. The diameter of the shaft is
100 mm and its tangential speed is
10 m/s. The dynamic viscosity of the
lubricant is 0.1 kg/m.s. The frictional
resisting force (in Newton) per 100 mm
length of the bearing is _______
Fluid Mechanics
For an incompressible flow field, , which

one of the following conditions must be
satisfied?
=
(A)
(C) =
8.
(B)
(D)
9.
A fluid of dynamic viscosity

2
kg/ms and density 1 kg/m flows
with an average velocity of 1 m/s through
a long duct of rectangular
(25 mm 15 mm) cross-section.
Assuming laminar flow, the pressure drop
(in Pa) in the fully developed region per
meter length of the duct is _______
10.
A flow field which has only convective

acceleration is
(A) a steady uniform flow
(B) an unsteady uniform flow
(C) a steady non-uniform flow
(D) an unsteady non-uniform flow

1.
[Ans. D]
We know,
A1V1 =A2V2
=4
=
m/s
So velocity of flow is 2.0 m/sec
2.
20mm
40mm
V1,P1
=
pply ng
+
=
[Ans. B]
=
=
rnoull s Equ t on
+ z1 =
=
=
=u (
+ z2
=u (
)
)
(for horizontal pipe)

th
th
th
Page 277
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Integrating
*ln (
=
3.
z =z
=
=
= dt
Fluid Mechanics
= dt
=
g
)+ =
ln
,
g
ln
=
g
[Ans. C]
pply rnoull s t
g
g
or m
=
As area is constant. Velocity head will be
same
= g
=
=
m =1.06m
Heat loss occurs in the direction 1-2
flow is from s1 to s2 and heat loss is
1.06m
4.
6.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. C]
Given data
Density of air,
=
g/m
Density of water,
=
g/m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) =9.8 m/s
Manometer reading,
= mm =
m
z =
=
Velocity of air =C = g
Where Cv = 1
=
w
=
=
5.
v =
v =
(
=
d =d
m t rs o
=v
v
d v
v
=
v
=
mm
v
=
=
=
y
=
=
=
=
m/s
g
nd
r
7.
=
=
[Ans. A]
=
g
g
rnoull s qu t on b tw n
g
d v =
)
)=
z =
=
g
g
),
8.
[Ans. A]
=
th
th
d v rg n
th
/m
o v lo ty v tor
Page 278
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
Fluid Mechanics

Given,
=
g/ms, = g/m ,
u = m/s
Duct area = 25 mm 15 mm
=
Here
=
= Friction factor
=
= r ,
mm _____________(2)
u
=
=
rm t r
=
=
______________(3)
Substituting eqn. (2) & (3) in (1)
=
10.
Pa/m.
[Ans. C]
Convective acceleration is that having
acceleration with respect to space
Temporal on local acceleration is that
having acceleration with respect to time
A flow field having only convective
acceleration is steady non uniform flow.
Since it does not depend on time.
th
th
th
Page 279
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Boundary Layer
ME 2006
1 & 2:
A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading
edge is placed along a gas stream flowing at
U = 10 m/s. The thickness of the
boundary layer at section r s is 10 mm,
the breadth of the plate is 1 m (into the
paper) and the density of the gas = 1.0
kg/m3. Assume that the boundary layer is
thin, two-dimensional, and follows a linear
velocity distribution, u = U (y/ ), at the
section r s, where y is the height from
plate.
q
the plate to the drag force on the rear half,

then
(A) F < 1/2
(C) F = 1
(B) F = 1/2
(D) F > 1
ME 2010
5.
Match the following
P: Compressible
flow
Q: Free surface flow
R: Boundary layer
flow
S: Pipe flow
r U
T: Heat convection
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Flat plate
1.
2.
The mass flow rate (in kg/s) across the

section q r is
(A) zero
(C) 0.10
(B) 0.05
(D) 0.15
4.
6.
A phenomenon is modeled using n

dimensional variables with k primary
dimensions. The number of non
dimensional variables is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The integrated drag force (in N) on the

plate, between p s, is:
(A) 0.67
(C) 0.17
(B) 0.33
(D) zero
ME 2007
3.
A model of a hydraulic turbine is tested at
a head of 1/4th of that under which the
full scale turbine works. The diameter of
the model is half of that of the full scale
turbine. If N is the RPM of the full scale
turbine, then the RPM of the model will be
(A) N/4
(C) N
(B) N/2
(D) 2N
Consider an incompressible laminar
boundary layer flow over a flat plate of
length L, aligned with the direction of an
oncoming uniform free stream. If F is the
ratio of the drag force on the front half of
U: Reynolds
number
V: Nusselt
number
W: Weber
number
X: Froude
number
Y: Mach number
Z: Skin friction
coefficient
ME 2012
7.
An incompressible fluid flows over a flat
plate with zero pressure gradient. The
boundary layer thickness is 1mm at a
location where the Reynolds number is
1000. If the velocity of the fluid alone is
increased by a factor of 4, then boundary
layer thickness at the same location, in
mm will be
(A) 4
(C) 0.5
(B) 2
(D) 0.25
th
th
th
Page 280
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
ME 2014
8.
Consider laminar flow of water over a flat
plate of length 1 m. If the boundary layer
thickness at a distance of 0.25 m from the
leading edge of the plate is 8 mm, the
boundary layer thickness (in mm), at a
distance of 0.75 m, is _______

1.
[Ans. B]
m =
= d u
=
dy
3.
[Ans. C]
Applying similarity condition,
( ) =( )
ydy
* +
=
=
=
=
=
2.
g/s
[Ans. C]
Integrated drag force (FID)
=
Where
4.
[Ans. D]
Drag force
=C
=
dx
Where = momentum thickness

=
+ dy
+ dy
=*
Now Drag force on front half
Drag force on rear half

/
/ =
=
=
s y
=(
Now
th
th
)
/
/
th
Page 281
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. D]
6.
[Ans. C]
By Buckingham pie theorem,
Nondimensional variables, = n k.
Fluid Mechanics
8.
mm
[Ans. *] Range 13.5 to 14.2

x
x
th
th
th
Page 282
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Flow through Pipes

ME 2006
1.
A siphon draws water from a reservoir
and discharges it out at atmospheric
pressure. Assuming ideal fluid and the
reservoir is large, the velocity at point P
in the siphon tube is:
velocity profile at section B downstream

is
y
y
,
u=
y
y
3.
The ratio
(A)
/u is
(C)
(B) 1
4.
2.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
The ratio
(where
and
are the
pressures at section A and B, respectively,

nd s t d ns ty o t
lu d s
(A)
(B)
The velocity profile in fully developed

laminar flow in a pipe of diameter D is
given by u = u
r /
, where r is
the radial distance from the center. If the
viscosity of the fluid is , the pressure
drop across a length L of the pipe is:
(A)
ME 2007
Linked Answer Questions: Q.3 Q.4
Consider a steady incompressible flow
through a channel as shown below.
y
5.
(C)
(D)
Consider steady laminar incompressible

axi-symmetric fully developed viscous
flow through a straight circular pipe of
constant cross sectional area at a
Reynolds number of 5. The ratio of inertia
force to viscous force on a fluid particle is
(A) 5
(C) 0
(D)
(B)
ME 2009
6.
The velocity profile of a fully developed
laminar flow in a straight circular pipe, as
shown in the figure, is given by the
expression u (r) =
where
( )(
is a constant. The average
velocity of fluid in the pipe is

u(r)
The velocity profile is uniform with a

value of u at the inlet section A. The
th
th
th
Page 283
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
(A)
( )
(C)
( )
(B)
( )
(D)
( )
Water at
C is flowing through a 1.0 km
long G.I pipe of 200mm diameter at the
rate of 0.07 /s. If value of Darcy friction
factor for this pipe is 0.02 and density of
water is 1000 kg/ , the pumping power
(in kW) required to maintain the flow is
(A) 1.8
(C) 20.5
(B) 17.4
(D) 41.0
Fluid Mechanics
ME 2014
11. For a fully developed flow of water in a
pipe having diameter 10 cm, velocity
0.1 m/s and kinematic viscosity
m /s, the value of Darcy friction
factor is _______
12.
ME 2010
8.
The maximum velocity of a one
dimensional
incompressible
fully
developed viscous flow, between two
fixed parallel plates, is 6 ms . The mean
velocity ( in ms ) of the flow is
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
Water flows through a 10 mm diameter

and 250 m long smooth pipe at an
average velocity of 0.1 m/s. The density
and the viscosity of water are 997 kg/m
and 855
N.s/ m
respectively.
Assuming fully-developed flow, the
pressure drop (in Pa) in the pipe is _______
ME 2012
9.
Oil flows through a 200 mm diameter
horizontal cast iron pipe
(friction factor, f = 0.0225) of length 500
m. The volumetric flow rate is 0.2 m /s .
The head loss (in m) due to friction is
(assume g = 9.81 m/s )
(A) 116.18
(C) 18.22
(B) 0.116
(D) 232.36
ME 2013
10. For steady, fully developed flow inside a
straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting
gr v ty
ts, t pr ssur drop p ov r
a length L and the wall shear stress
are
related by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
th
Page 284
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. C]
* u=u (
u [
p
r
x
]=
h1
p=u [
)+
][
]=
h2
3.
[Ans. A]
Assume width of channel is b. applying
continuity equation at A and B.
Q
By energy conservation,
velocity at point Q = g
As there is a continuous and uniform flow,
so velocity of liquid at point Q and P is
same (i.e. Vp=VQ)
i.e. kinetic energy of water = potential
energy
H
u
= mg
=
4.
[Ans. D]
By Hagen Poiseuille law, for steady
laminar flow in circular pipes
wtons l w o v s os ty ross s t on
b
=
[Ans. C]
pply ng
= g
b =
u
= mg
Vm
mv = mg
2.
H 2
rnoull s qu t on t
g
=
nd
g
g
-----------------(1)
= [
Shear stress across a section varies

w t r s
=
d
[u *
dr
Using the value of
-----------------(2)
For fully developed laminar flow

Eq (1) = Eq (2)
du
p r
=
dr
x
du
p
=
[ ]r
dr
x
r
+] =
]
from first part of the
question, we get,
=
*
5.
[Ans. A]
ynolds numb r =
p
r
x
th
th
th
Page 285
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
u=
9.
( )(
d =u
=
=
[Ans. A]
=
=
=
g=
d=
rdr
rdr
dp
)(
dx
) rdr
or u
7.
=
=
v=
11.
=
m/s
= g
=
= 17.4 kW
)=
[Ans. *] Range 0.06 to 0.07

=
Head loss,
[Ans. C]
=
p
)
x
8.
[Ans. A]
=(
[Ans. B]
10.
dp
( )
dx
Solving, we get
dp
=
(
)
dx
Now Q = Area x average velocity
u
Fluid Mechanics
n m t
( )
v s os ty
=
=
12.
064
[Ans. *] Range 6800 to 6900

=
m s
=
=
=
= m s
th
th
th
Page 286
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Hydraulic Machines
ME 2006
1.
A horizontal shaft centrifugal pump lifts
water at 65 . The suction nozzle is one
meter below pump centerline. The
pressure at this point equal 200 kPa
gauge and velocity is 3 m/s. Steam tables
show saturation pressure at 65 is
25 kPa, and specific volume of the
saturated liquid is 0.001020 m3/ kg. The
pump Net Positive suction Head (NPSH)
in meters is:
ME 2007
4.
Column I
Column II
P : Centrifugal
1 : Axial flow
compressor
Q : Centrifugal pump
2 : Surging
R : Pelton wheel
3 : Priming
S : Kaplan turbine
4 : Pure impulse
(A)
,
,
,
(B)
,
,
,
(C)
,
,
,
(D)
,
,
,
5.
The inlet angle of runner blades of a

Francis turbine is 90. The blades are so
shaped that the tangential component of
velocity at blade outlet is zero. The flow
velocity remains constant throughout the
blade passage and is equal to half of the
blade velocity at runner inlet. The blade
efficiency of the runner is
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 89%
P
1m
(A) 24
2.
3.
(B) 26
(C) 28
(D) 30
A large hydraulic turbine is to generate

300 kW at 1000 rpm under a head of
40 m. For initial testing, a 1:4 scale model
of the turbine operates under a head of
10 m. The power generated by the model
(in kW) will be
(A) 2.34 (B) 4.68 (C) 9.38 (D) 18.75
In a Pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral
speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is
25 m/s and volumetric flow rate of the jet
is 0.1
/ . If the jet deflection angle is
and the flow is ideal, the output
developed is:
(A) 7.5 kW
(C) 22.5 kW
(B) 15.0 kW
(D) 37.5 kW
ME 2008
6.
Water, having a density of 1000 kg/m ,
issues from a nozzle with a velocity of 10
m/s and the jet strikes a bucket mounted
on a Pelton wheel. The wheel rotates at
10 rad/s. The mean diameter of the wheel
is 1 m. The jet is split into two equal
streams by the bucket, such that each
stream is deflected by 120, as shown in
the figure. Friction in the bucket may be
neglected. Magnitude of the torque
exerted by the water on the wheel, per
unit mass flow rate of the incoming jet, is
Deflected jet
120
Incoming jet
120
Deflected jet
th
th
th
Page 287
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
0 (N.m)/(kg/s)
1.25 (N.m)/(kg/s)
2.5(N.m)/(kg/s)
3.75(N.m)/(kg/s)
ME 2009
7.
Consider steady, incompressible and
irrotational flow through a reducer in a
horizontal pipe where the diameter is
reduced from 20cm to 10cm. The
pressure in the 20cm pipe just upstream
of the reducer is 150 kPa. The fluid has a
vapour pressure of 50kPa and a specific
weight of 5 kN/m3. Neglecting frictional
effects, the maximum discharge (in m3/s)
that can pass through the reducer without
causing cavitation is
(A) 0.05
(C) 0.27
(B) 0.16
(D) 0.38
ME 2010
8.
A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW
power for a head of 40m. If the head is
reduced to 20m, the power developed (in
kW) is
(A) 177
(C) 500
(B) 354
(D) 707
ME 2011
9.
A pump handling a liquid raises its
pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the
density of a liquid as 990 g/m . The
isentropic specific work done by the
pump in kJ/kg is
(A) 0.10
(C) 2.50
(B) 0.30
(D) 2.93
Fluid Mechanics
V2
W1
W2
V1
U
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.25
ME 2013
11. In order to have maximum power from a
pelton turbine , the bucket speed must be
(A) Equal to the jet speed
(B) Equal to half of the jet speed
(C) Equal to twice the jet speed
(D) Independent of the jet speed
ME 2014
12. An ideal water jet with volume flow rate
of 0.05 m /s strikes a flat plate placed
normal to its path and exerts a force of
1000 N. Considering the density of water
as 1000 kg/m , the diameter (in mm)of
the water jet is _______
13.
Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the

impulse turbine stage with symmetrical
blading having blade angle 30. The
enthalpy drop in the stage is 100 kJ. The
nozzle angle is 20. The maximum blade
efficiency (in percent) is _______
14.
At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine

rotor, the blade linear speed is 25 m/s,
the magnitude of absolute velocity is
100 m/s and the angle between them is
25. The relative velocity and the axial
component of velocity remain the same
between the inlet and outlet of the blades.
The blade inlet and outlet velocity
triangles are shown in the figure.
Assuming no losses, the specific work
(in J/kg)
ME 2012
10. The velocity triangles at the inlet and exit
of the rotor of a turbomachine are shown.
V denotes the absolute velocity of the
fluid. W denotes the relative velocity of
the fluid and U denotes the blade velocity.
Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet and outlet
respectively. If =
and =
, then
the degree of reaction is
m/s
m/s
m/s
/
m/s
th
th
th
Page 288
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
Fluid Mechanics
Kaplan water turbine is commonly used

when the flow through its runner is
(A) axial and the head available is more
than 100 m
(B) axial and the head available is less
than 10 m
(C) radial and the head available is more
than 100 m
(D) mixed and the head available is about
50 m

1.
[Ans. A]
Given data
Gauge
reading,
= g
=
/m
Velocity,
=
=
=
=
g ug
=
=
=
m / g
os
os
[Ans. A]
(P) Centrifugal compressor Surging
(Q) Centrifugal pump Priming
(R) Pelton wheel Pure impulse
(S) Kaplan turbine Axial flow
5.
[Ans. C]
/m
g/m
4.
= m/s
Velocity head at inlet,
Vw1 = u1
NPSH= Pressure at centre line (gauge

reading) + static head (Hs) + Velocity
Vf1 =Vf2=
V1
Inlet Triangle
head * +
= 20.387+1+0.46+2.6 = 24m
2.
Vf2
[Ans. A]
For similar turbines specific power will be
same.
=
=
=
Vf2 = v2
u1
* +
* +
* +
* +
Outlet Triangle
Given, v = v =
v =v =
=
3.
v = v
=u
[Ans. C]
=
=
Power developed by pelton wheel
v
* + = u
Blade efficiency =
th
th
th
Page 289
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
or
u
u
=
r=
orqu / g/s =
nd
Upstream
2
Reducer
Q
m
1
d =
8.
d
/ g
11.
[Ans. B]
=
v u u
To find speed maximum power
= ;
=
v = u
u=
12.
m
Also, discharge
Q= ( d ) v = ( d ) v
or
[Ans. C]
For symmetrical velocity, Base of reaction is
0.5.
or
( )
10.
But w = w = 5 (incompressible flow)
[Ans. D]
Work done =
=
=
or
( )
downstream
d =
= ( d )v
[Ans. B]
m g/s
=C
rg ,
m/s
= 0.16 m /s
9.
[Ans. B]
Considering potential head difference= 0,
i.e
z =z
pply rnoull s t or m
r=
=
7.
[Ans. D]
Force exerted by the jet of water on the
bucket per unit mass flow rate
= v u
v u os
=
/ g/s
When v = absolute velocity of jet
= 10 m/s
u = velocity of the plate
=
= 20
or v =
=
6.
Fluid Mechanics
= ( ) =( )
or v =
Force exerted by jet normal to the plate
=
Q= AV
(2)
From equation (1) and (2)
d =
d=
d=
th
th
m
mm
th
Page 290
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. *]Range 85.1 to 89.9

Nozzle angle, =
Maximum blade efficiency = os
= os
=
14.
[Ans. *]Range 3250 to 3300

=
=
m/s
m/s
m/s
=
u=
Fluid Mechanics
m/s
m/s
Given =
sn = sn
sn =
sn
=
=
=
=
now
=
os
os
=
os =
os
=
m/sec
sp wor =
u=
=
J/kg.
15.
[Ans. B]
Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction
turbine. It is of low head, high discharge
and high specific speed turbine
th
th
th
Page 291
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer
Conduction
ME 2005
1.
A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at
500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose
temperature is 300 K. The thermal
conductivity of copper is 400 W/m.K, its
density 9000 kg/
and its specific heat
385 J/kg.K. If the heat transfer coefficient
is 250 W/ .K and lumped analysis is
assumed to be valid, the rate of fall of the
temperature of the ball at the beginning
of cooling will be, in K/s,
(A) 8.7
(C) 17.3
(B) 13.9
(D) 27.7
2.
(B) convection decreases, while that due

to conduction increases
(C) convection and conduction decreases
(D) convection and conduction increases
5.
In a composite slab, the temperature at

the interface (
) between two
materials is equal to the average of the
temperature at the two ends. Assuming
steady one-dimensional heat conduction,
which of the following statement is true
about
the
respective
thermal
conductivities?
Heat flows through a composite slab, as

shown below. The depth of the slab is 1m.
The k values are in W/m.K. The overall
thermal resistance in K/W is
2b
k = 0.02
k= 0.10
0.5m
k= 0.04
0.25m
(A) 17.2
(B) 21.9
3.
1m
In a case of one dimensional heat

conduction in a medium with constant
properties, T is the temperature at
position
x,
at
time
t.
Then
is
proportional to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(B)
0.5m
(C) 28.6
(D) 39.2
ME 2006
4.
With an increase in the thickness of
insulation around a circular pipe, heat
loss to surroundings due to
(A) convection increases, while that due
to conduction decreases
(C)
(D)
ME 2007
Linked Answer Questions: Q. 6 Q. 7
Consider steady one-dimensional heat
flow in a plate of 20 mm thickness with a
uniform heat generation of 80 MW/m3.
The left and right faces are kept at
constant temperatures of 1600C and
1200C respectively. The plate has a
constant thermal conductivity of 200
W/mK.
6.
The location of maximum temperature
within the plate from its left face is
(A) 15 mm
(C) 5mm
(B) 10mm
(D) 0mm
7.
The maximum temperature within the

plate in 0C is
(A) 160
(C) 200
(B) 165
(D) 250
th
th
th
Page 292
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2008
8.
Steady two dimensional heat conduction
takes place in the body shown in the
figure below. The normal temperature
gradients over surfaces P and Q can be
considered
to
be
uniform.
The
temperature gradient
of 0.1 W/m.K. The values of
at
surface P are
y
surface Q,0 C
2m
1m
Surface P, 100 C
x
(A)
= 20 K/m,
(B)
= 0K/m,
(C)
= 10 K/m,
(D)
= 0K/m,
= 0 K/m
=10K/m
=10 K/m
= 20 K/m
ME 2009
9.
Consider steady-state heat conduction
across the thickness in a plane composite
wall (as shown in the figure) exposed to
convection conditions on both sides.
h
Given: h
and
Assuming negligible contact resistance
between the wall surfaces, the interface
temperature, T (i C), of the two walls
will be
(A) 0.50
(C) 3.75
(B) 2.75
(D) 4.50
at surface Q is
equal to 10 K/m. Surfaces P and Q are

maintained at constant temperatures as
shown in the figure, while the remaining
part of the boundary is insulated. The
body has a constant thermal conductivity
Heat Transfer
ME 2010
10. A fin has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm
length. The thermal conductivity of fin
material is 400 W/mK. One end of the fin
is
i t i ed t
d its re i i g
surf ce is exposed to
bie t ir t
If the convective heat transfer coefficient
is 40 W/m2K, the heat loss (in W) from
the fin is
(A) 0.08
(C) 7.0
(B) 5.0
(D) 7.8
ME 2011
11. A pipe of 25 mm diameter carries steam.
The heat transfer coefficient between the
cylinder and surrounding is 5 W/ K. it
is proposed to reduce the heat loss from
the pipe by adding insulation having a
thermal conductivity 0f 0.05 W/mK.
Which one of the following statements are
TRUE?
(A) The outer radius of the pipe is equal
to the critical radius.
(B) The outer radius of the pipe is less
than the critical radius.
(C) Adding the insulation will reduce the
heat loss.
(D) Adding the insulation will increase
the heat loss.
ME 2012
12. Which one of the following configurations
has highest effectiveness?
(A) Thin, closely spaced fins
(B) Thin, widely spaced fins
(C) Thick, widely spaced fins
(D) Thick, closely spaced fins
th
th
th
Page 293
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2013
13. Consider one dimensional steady state
heat conduction, without heat generation,
in a plane wall; with boundary conditions
as shown in the figure below. The
conductivity of the wall is given by
k=
b ; where and b are positive
constants , and T is temperature.
where
As x increases, the temperature gradient

(dT/dx) will
(A) Remain constant
(B) Be zero
(C) Increase
(D) Decrease
14.
and specific heat c = 600 J/kgK. The time

required in seconds to cool the steel ball
in air from
to
is
(A) 519
(C) 1195
(B) 931
(D) 2144
ME 2014
16. Biot number signifies the ratio of
(A) Convective resistance in the fluid to
conductive resistance in the solid
(B) Conductive resistance in the solid to
convective resistance in the fluid
(C) Inertia force to viscous force in the
fluid
(D) buoyancy force to viscous force in the
fluid
17.
Consider one dimensional steady state

heat conduction along x xis ( x )
through a plane wall with the boundary
surface (x=0 and x = L) maintained at
temperatures of
and 100oC. heat is
generated uniformly throughout the wall.
Choose the CORRECT statement.
(A) The direction of heat transfer will be
from the surface at
C to the
surface at C.
(B) The maximum temperature inside
the wall must be greater than
C.
(C) The temperature distribution is
linear within the wall.
(D) The temperature distribution is
symmetric about the mid plane of
the wall.
Consider one dimensional steady state

heat conduction across a wall (as shown
in figure below) of thickness 30 mm and
thermal conductivity 15 W/m.K.
At x
, a constant heat flux,
q" = 1
W/
is applied. On the
other side of the wall, heat is removed
from the wall by convection with a fluid at
25C and heat transfer coefficient of 250
W/ .K. The temperature (in C), at x = 0
is _______
x
x
18.
15.
Heat Transfer
A steel ball of diameter 60mm is initially

in thermal equilibrium at
C in a
furnace. It is suddenly removed from the
furnace and cooled in ambient air at
C
, with convective heat transfer coefficient
h =20 W/
K. the thermo physical
properties of steel are ; density
kg/ , conductivity k = 40 W/mK
th
A material P of thickness 1 mm is
sandwiched between two steel slabs, as
shown in the figure below. A heat flux 10
kW/
is supplied to one of the steel
slabs
as
shown.
The
boundary
temperatures of the slabs are indicated in
the figure. Assume thermal conductivity
of this steel is 10 W/m.K. Considering
one-dimensional steady state heat
th
th
Page 294
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
conduction for the configuration, the

thermal conductivity (k, in W/m.K) of
material P is _______
21.
As the temperature increases, the thermal

conductivity of a gas
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) increases up to a certain temperature
and then decreases
22.
A plane wall has a thermal conductivity of

1.15 W/m.K. If the inner surface is at
1100C and the outer surface is at 350C,
then the design thickness (in meter) of
the wall to maintain a steady heat flux of
2500 W/
should be _______
20
in mm
20
All dimensions
STEEL SLAB
STEEL SLAB
19.
Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner

and outer radii, r and r , respectively,
length, L and thermal conductivity, k. Its
inner and outer surfaces are maintained
at
and o
, respectively( >
).
Assuming one-dimensional steady state
heat conduction in the radial direction,
the thermal resistance in the wall of the
tube is
r
r
( )
( )
( )
( )
r
r
r
( )
( )
( )
r
r
20.
Heat transfer through a composite wall is

shown in figure. Both the sections of the
wall have equal thickness (l). The
conductivity of one section is k and that of
the other is 2k. The left face of the wall is
at 600 K and the right face is at 300 K.
Heat Transfer
e t f ow
The interface temperature

composite wall is _______
(in K) of the
th
th
th
Page 295
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer

1.
[Ans. C]
K = 400
= 9000
3.
[Ans. D]
One dimensional
equation is,
h = 250
heat
conduction
=8.33
T=
d
|
dt
(
h
[Ans. A]
As the insulation thickness increases, the
surface area exposed for H.T by
convection increases and wall thickness
also increases hence the convection H.T
increases and conduction H.T reduces.
5.
[Ans. D]
)e
(
)e
(
) magnitude
|
2.
4.
[Ans. C]
Resistance diagram
Q=
6.
[Ans. C]
Now,
x =0
x=20mm
=0
By integrating twice
x2 + C1x + C
(1)
At x
, T=433K
2 = 433
At x
10-3m, T = 393K.
1 = 2000
For maximum temperature,
Equivalent resistance between B and C
=0
Total resistance
=
=25+3.6
=28.6
th
+ C1=0
10-3 = 5mm
th
th
Page 296
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
[Ans. B]
=
[putting x
equation (1)]
11.
10-3
in
surface P1,
[Ans. C]
r
h
/
r
[Ans. D]
Direction of heat flow is always normal to
surface of constant temperature. So for
Heat Transfer
r
r
addition
reduce heat loss
= 0 k/m
From energy conservation,

Heat rate at P = Heat rate at Q
d
d
( )
( )
dy
dx
of
insulation
will
= 20 K/m
9.
12.
[Ans. A]
Fin effectiveness,
he t tr sfer with fi
he t tr sfer without fi
And this is highest with thin closely
spaced fins.
13.
[Ans. D]
From energy equation
d
dt
(
)
dx dx
dt c
c
dx
bt
As x increases, T increases from
Under steady state conditions,

(
t) t
( )
t
or
or 20
t =
(t
or 20 t
or 3.826 t
(t
and
)
)
to
decreases
14.
[Ans. B]
General profile is
15.
[Ans. D]
or t
10.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. B]
m=
(t
t )t
h(
)
t
h(
u ped
= 5.008W
th
th
ysis
th
r
r
Page 297
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
exp (
20.
t)
exp (
Heat Transfer
t)
Apply log,
x
t = 2144 s
16.
[Ans. B]
iot
17.
( )

By energy balance:
(
)
q
h (
t
(1)
(2)
usi g
)
q
h(
q
h
usi g
(
)
qt
qt
Heat transfer through section 1 =heat

transfer through section 2
her
her
(3)
ce of sectio
esist
ce of sectio
21.
18.
esist
[Ans. A]
Thermal conductivity of gas
Hence if temperature increase,

increases
[Ans. *]Range 0.09 to 0.11

q
q
22.
[Ans. *] Range 0.33 to 0.35

x
19.
[Ans. C]
1D heat conduction through long
cylindrical tube in radial direction is given
by :
(
)
e t tr sfer r te
( )
her
her
resist
ce
x
Hence thickness of wall = 0.345 m
resist ce
r
( )
r
th
th
th
Page 298
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer
Convection
ME 2005
1 and 2:
An un-insulated air conditioning duct of
rectangular cross section 1m 0.5 m,
carrying air at
C with a velocity of
10 m/s, is exposed to an ambient air of
C. Neglect the effect of duct
construction material. For air In the range
of 20C, data are as follows:
Thermal conductivity = 0.025 W/m.K:
viscosity
s r dt u ber
density=1.2 kg/m3. The laminar flow
Nusselt number is 3.4 for constant wall
temperature conditions and, for turbulent
flow, Nu =0.023 Re0.8Pr0.33
1.
The Reynolds number for the flow is
(A) 444
(C) 4.44
(B) 890
(D) 5.33 105
2.
The heat transfer per metre length of the

duct , in watts, is
(A) 3.8
(C) 89
(B) 5.3
(D) 769
ME 2007
3.
The average heat transfer co-efficient on a
thin hot vertical plate suspended in still
air can be determined from observations
of the change in plate temperature with
time as it cools. Assume the plate
temperature to be uniform at any instant
of time and radiation heat exchange with
the surroundings is negligible. The
ambient temperature is
the plate has
a total surface area of 0.1
and a mass of
4 kg. The specific heat of the plate material
is 2.5 kJ/kgK. The convective heat transfer
co-efficient in W/ K, at the instant when
the plate temperature is
c and the
change in plate temperature with time
dT/dt = 0.02 K/s, is
(A) 200
(C) 15
(B) 20
(D) 10
4.
The temperature distribution within the

thermal boundary layer over a heated
isothermal flat plate is given by
( )
( )
where
are the
temperatures of plate and free stream

respectively, and y is the normal distance
measured from the plate. The local
Nusselt number based on the thermal
boundary layer thickness is given by
(A) 1.33
(C) 2.0
(B) 1.50
(D) 4.64
ME 2008
5.
For the three-dimensional object shown
in the figure below, five faces are
insulated. The sixth face (PQRS), which is
not insulated, interacts thermally with the
ambient, with a convective heat transfer
coefficient of 10 W/m2.K. The ambient
temperature is
C. Heat is uniformly
generated inside the object at the rate of
100 W/m3. Assuming the face PQRS to be
at uniform temperature, its steady state
temperature is
Q
G
R
2m
2m
S
1m
(A)
(B)
th
(C)
(D)
th
th
Page 299
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the

following fluid properties are known
Viscosity = 0.001 Pa.s; specific heat at
constant pressure = 1kJ/kg.K;
thermal conductivity = 1 W/mK.
The hydrodynamic boundary layer
thickness at a specified location on the
plate is 1 mm. The thermal boundary
layer thickness at the same location is
(A) 0.001 mm
(C) 1 mm
(B) 0.01 mm
(D) 1000 mm
ME 2009
7.
A coolant fluid at
C flows over a
heated flat plate maintained at a constant
temperature of
C. The boundary
layer temperature distribution at a given
location on the plate may be
approximated as T = 30 + 70 exp ( y)
where y (in m) is the distance normal to
the plate and T is in C. If thermal
conductivity of the fluid is 1.0W/mK, the
local convective heat transfer coefficient
(in W/ K) at that location will be
(A) 0.2
(C) 5
(B) 1
(D) 10
ME 2011
8.
A spherical steel ball of 12 mm diameter
at initially 1000 K. It is slowly cooled in
surrounding 300 K. the heat transfer
coefficient between steel ball and the
surrounding is 5 W/
. The thermal
conductivity of steel is 20 W/mK. The
temperature difference between center
and the surface of steel ball is
(A) Large because conduction resistance
is far higher than the convective
resistance.
(B) Large because conduction resistance
is far less than the convective
resistance.
(C) Small because conduction resistance
is far higher than convective
resistance.
Heat Transfer
(D) Small because conduction resistance

is far less than convective resistance.
9.
The ratios of the laminar hydrodynamic

boundary layer thickness to thermal
boundary layer thickness of flows of two
fluids P and Q on a flat plate are and 2
respectively. The Reynolds numbers are
based on the plate length for both flows
is
. The Prandtl and Nusselt numbers
for P are 1/8 and 35 respectively. The
prandtl and nusselt numbers for Q are
respectively.
(A) 8 and 140
(C) 4 and 70
(B) 8 and 70
(D) 4 and 35
ME 2013
Common data for questions 10 and 11:
Water (specific heat , c
kJ/kg
K)enters a pipe at a rate of 0.01 kg/s and
a temperature of
the pipe , of
diameter 50 mm and length 3m, is
subjected to a wall heat flux q in W/ .
10. If q =2500x, where x is in m and in the
direction of flow (x=0 at the inlet ), the
bulk mean temperature of the water
leaving the pipe in is
(A) 42
(C) 74
(B) 62
(D) 104
11.
If q
and the convection heat
transfer coefficient at the pipe outlet is
1000 W/m2K, the temperature in
at
the inner surface of the pipe at the outlet
is
(A) 71
(C) 79
(B) 76
(D) 81
ME 2014
12. The non dimensional fluid temperature
profile near the surface of convectively
cooled flat plate is given by
c( )
Where y is measured perpendicular to

the plate, L is the plate length and a, b and
th
th
th
Page 300
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
c are arbitrary constants.

d
are
wall
and
ambient
temperatures,
respectively . If the thermal conductivity
of the fluids is k and thewall flux is q'', the
Nusselt
number
u
(A) a
(B) b
13.
14.
is equ to
(C) 2c
(D) (b
Heat Transfer
=7.25
Ns/
k=0.625W/mK,
Pr= 4.85.
Using Nu=0.023 e
r the
convective heat transfer coefficient
(in W/ .K) is _______
15.
c)
For laminar forced convection over a flat

plate, if the free stream velocity increases
by a factor of 2, the average heat transfer
coefficient
(A) Remains same
(B) Decreases by a factor of
(C) Rises by a factor of
(D) Rises by a factor of 4
Consider a two dimensional laminar

flow over a long cylinder as shown in the
figure below.
The free stream velocity is

and the free
stream temperature is lower than the
cylinder surface temperature . The local
heat transfer coefficient is minimum at
point
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
Water flows through a tube of diameter

25 mm at an average velocity of 1.0 m/s.
The properties of water are
=1000 kg/
Answer Keys & Explanation

1.
[Ans. C]
Equivalent length of duct,
b
b
(
b)
b
3.
[Ans. D]
From heat balance equation,
h (T T0)=mc
where, T0= Ambient temperature
4.
[Ans. B]
h
u
2.
We know that Reynolds number
Where
[Ans. D]
Because Re> 2000, the flow is turbulent
Nu = 0.023
= 0.023 (4.46 105 )0.8 (0.73)0.33
= 685.6 =
And
y
Where Tw is surdace temperature and T is
free-stream temperature.
Nu
( )| y
y |y
= 1.5
H.T /m length = hA. T = h.p.1.

= 25.58 (2
) 1( 30 20)
= 769 W
th
th
th
Page 301
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. D]
Heat generated throughout the volume
q
v
q
q
Heat
transfer through PQRS =Heat
generated
(
[Ans. D]
Biot number
(
9.
[Ans. A]
h
(
Nusselt Number =
( r)
( r
( )
her
bou d ry yer thickness at the
same location = 1 mm.
7.
Prandtl Number =
( r
( r)
For P:
[Ans. C]
Pr=
Since value of biotnumber is very less

hence conduction resistance is far less
than convective resistance.
q(
6.
8.
Heat Transfer
For Q, Prandtl Number ( )

Since value of Reynold Number is same
for both the number P and Q hence:
(pr)
( u)
( u)
( r)
( )
( u)
[Ans. B]
/mK
10.
Under steady state conditions
Heat transfer by conduction = Heat
transfer by convection
d

h
dy
d
(or)
h
dy
d
(
)
(or)
e )
h(
dy
d
(or) (
e )
h
y
ut y
(
e )
h
or
h
ut
h
[Ans. B]
h
dx
)dx
) xdx
x(
(
( )(
[ ]
(
(
th
th
th
)
)
Page 302
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
[Ans. D]
Heat Transfer
13.
[Ans. C]
h v
14.
[Ans. *] Range 4600 to 4625
Convection does not matter as we take

outlet section just convection in
)= h
h
q (
)
q (
(h
h )
( )(
)( ) (
)(
)
(
)
q
h(
where
)
w
temperature at the outlet
q
h
[Ans. B]
q
d
[ ]
dy
d
(
dy
d
[ ]
dy
15.
[Ans. B]
r bou d ry
yer
ep r tor
by
)(
b
)[
cy
For e
separation effect are
negligible and conductors are dominated
by friction drag, so the local heat transfer
co-efficient is minimum at point 2
)b
h
Hence convective heat transfer coefficient
= 4613.67
Where h = heat transfer coefficient at the

pipe outlet
= 76 + 5 = 81
12.
)b
)b
(
u
u
q
(
b
)
)
th
th
th
Page 303
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer
Radiation
radiating surfaces are diffuse and the
medium in the enclosure is nonparticipating. The fraction of the thermal
radiation leaving the larger surface and
striking itself is
ME 2005
1.
A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the
centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The
diameter of the sphere is 1 m, while the
cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m
each. The radiation configuration factor
is
(A) 0.375
(C) 0.75
(B) 0.625
(D) 1
2.
Surface-1
The following figure was generated from

experimental data relating spectral black
body emissive power to wavelength at
three temperatures
,
and (
)
( )
The conclusion is that the measurements

are
(A) correct because the maxima in
show the correct trend
(B) correct bec use
c s
w is
satisfied
(C) wrong because the Stefan Boltzmann
law is not satisfied
(D) wrong because ie s disp ce e t
law is not satisfied
ME 2008
3.
A hollow enclosure is formed between
two infinitely long concentric cylinders of
radii 1m and 2m, respectively. Radiative
heat exchange takes place between the
inner surface of the larger cylinder
(surface-2) and the outer surface of the
smaller
cylinder
(surface-1).
The
Surface-2
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1
ME 2009
Radiative heat transfer is intended
between the inner surfaces of two very
large isothermal parallel metal plates.
While the upper plate (designated as
plate 1) is a black surface and the warmer
one being maintained at
, the lower
plate ( plate 2) is a diffuse and gray
surface with an emissivity of 0.7 and is
kept at
. Assume that the surfaces
are sufficiently large to form a twosurface enclosure and steady state
conditions to exist. Stefan Boltzmann
constant is given as
5.67
.
4.
The irradiation (in kW/ ) for the upper
plate (plate 1) is
(A) 2.5
(C) 17.0
(B) 3.6
(D) 19.5
5.
If plate 1 is also a diffuse and gray surface

with an emissivity value of 0.8, the net
radiation heat exchange (in kW/
)
between plate 1 and plate 2 is
(A) 17.0
(C) 23.0
(B) 19.5
(D) 31.7
th
th
th
Page 304
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2012
6.
For an opaque surface, the absorptivity
( ), transmissivity ( ) and reflectivity ( )
are related by the equation:
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
7.
Consider two infinitely long thin

concentric tubes of circular cross section
as shown in figure. If
d
are the
diameters of inner and outer tubes
respectively, then the view factor
is
given by
Heat Transfer
ME 2014
9.
A hemispherical furnace of 1 m radius has
the inner surface emissivity, (
) of its
roof maintained at 800 K, while its floor
(
) is kept at 600 K.
Stefan Boltzmann constant is
. The net radiative

heat transfer (in kW) from the roof to the
floor is _______
10.
A solid sphere of radius r = 20 mm is

placed concentrically inside a hollow
sphere of radius r = 30 mm as shown in
the figure.
r
r
(A) ( )
(C) ( )
The view factor

transfer is
for radiation heat
(B)
(D)
( )
( )
( )
( )
ero
( )
ME 2013
8.
Two large diffuse gray parallel plates
separated by a small distance , have
surface temperature of 400 K and 300 K.
If the emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8
and the Stefan Boltzmann constant is
W/
, the net radiation
heat exchange rate in kW/
between
the two plates is
(A) 0.66
(C) 0.99
(B) 0.79
(D) 3.96
th
th
th
Page 305
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer

1.
[Ans. C]
Irradiation for body 1

(
)
et
1
2
=2.5
F21+F22 =1
Since, F22=0, therefore F21=1
Now,
A1F12=A2F21
Now, F11+F12 =1
=(
1
2.
3.
5.
[Ans. D]
,
,
Net heat exchange between A and B
(
)
)
) (
*(
)+
[Ans. D]
ie s disp ce e t law is not satisfied,
i.e., maxT=C
Which tells lower
for higher
temperature.
[Ans. B]
F11+F12 =1
F21+F22 =1
F11 =0 due to concave surface
F12 =1
Now A1F12 = A2F21
6.
[Ans. C]
7.
[Ans. D]
f
f
f
f
Also
f
f
And
f
f
( )
(f )
F21 = 0.5
F22=1 F21 =0.5
4.
= 31.7 kW/
F12=1
F21 =
F21 = F12
[Ans. A]
(
f
)
(
th
th
th
Page 306
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. A]
(
)
(
=0.66
9.
Heat Transfer
[Ans. *] Range 24.0 to 25.2

Roof (1)
r
Floor (2)
r
,
From observation
r
r
(
)
r
)
(
Watt
(
10.
[Ans. B]
r
r
r
By summation rule :
For current configuration,
So,
By Reciprocity Theorem :
r
r
r
r r
(
th
th
th
Page 307
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer
Heat Exchanger
enters the heat exchanger at 102C, while
the cold fluid has an inlet temperature of
15C. The overall heat transfer coefficient
for the heat exchanger is estimated to be
and the corresponding heat

transfer surface area is 5 . Neglect heat
transfer between the heat exchanger and
the ambient. The heat exchanger is
characterized by the following relation:
exp(
).
The exit temperature (in C) for the
cold fluid is
(A) 45
(C) 65
(B) 55
(D) 75
ME 2005
1.
Hot oil is cooled from 80 to
C in an oil
cooler which uses air as the coolant. The
air temperature rises from 30 to
C.
The designer uses a LMTD value of
C.The type of heat exchanger is
(A) parallel flow
(C) counter flow
(B) double pipe
(D) cross flow
ME 2007
2.
In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid
e ters t
d co d f uid e ves t
M ss f ow r te of the hot f uid is
1 kg/s and that of the cold fluid is 2 kg/s.
Specific heat of the hot fluid is 10kJ/kgK
and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ /kgK. The
Log Mean Temperature Difference
( M ) for the he t exch ger i is
(A) 15
(C) 35
(B) 30
(D) 45
ME 2008
3.
The logarithmic mean temperature
difference (LMTD) of a counterflow heat
exchanger is
C. The cold fluid enters at
C and the hot fluid enters at
Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is twice
that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at
constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice
that of the cold fluid. The exit
temperature of the cold fluid
(A) is
(B) is
(C) is
(D) cannot be determined
ME 2009
4.
In a parallel flow heat exchanger
operating under steady state, the heat
capacity rates (product of specific heat at
constant pressure and mass flow rate) of
the hot and cold fluid are equal. The hot
fluid, flowing at 1 kg/s with Cp= 4kJ/kgK,
ME 2011
5.
In a condenser of a power plant, the
steam condenser at a temperature of
C. the cooling water enters at
C and
leaves at
C. the logarithmic mean
temperature difference (LMTD) of the
condenser is
(A)
C
(C)
C
(B)
C
(D)
C
ME 2012
6.
Water (
g ) at
C enters
a counterflow heat exchanger with a mass
flow rate of
g s. Air (
kJ/kg.K)
enters at
C with a mass flow rate of
2.09 kg/s. If the effectiveness of heat
exchanger of the heat exchanger is 0.8,
the LMTD (i
) is
(A) 40
(C) 10
(B) 20
(D) 5
ME 2014
7.
In a concentric counter flow heat
exchanger, water flows through the inner
tube at 25C and leaves at 42C. The
engine oil enters at 100C and flows in the
annular flow
passage.
The exit
temperature of the engine oil is 50C.
th
th
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Page 308
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mass flow rate of water and the engine oil

are 1.5 kg/s and 1 kg/s, respectively. The
specific heat of water and oil are
4178
J/kg.K
and
2130
J/kg.K,
respectively. The effectiveness of this heat
exchanger is ________
8.
Heat Transfer
(A) a condenser
(B) an evaporator
(C) a counter flow heat exchanger
(D) a parallel flow heat exchanger
9.
A double-pipe counter
flow heat
exchanger transfers heat between two
water stream. Tube side water at 19
liter/s is heated from
to
. Shell
side water at 25 liter/s entering at
Assume constant properties of water:
density is 1000 kg/
and specific heat is
4186 J/kgK. The LMTD(in ) is _________
In a heat exchanger, it is observed that

=
, where
is the temperature
difference between the two single phase
f uid stre s t o e e d
d
is the
temperature difference at the other end.
This heat exchanger is

1.
[Ans. D]
Which is greater than considered LMTD i.e

Hence cross flow is better for given
problem.
2.
Parallel Flow
For parallel flow

(
( )
)
)
[Ans. B]
Heat capacity of hot fluid = 1 10
= 10 kJ/K sec
Heat capacity of cold fluid = 2 5
= 10 kJ/K sec
Since heat capacity is same, so LMTD is
difference of temperature at either end
i.e. LMTD =
Which is less than consider LMTD i.e

hot
cold
3.
[Ans. C]
Counter Flow
For counter Flow

(
( )
)
(
)
)
( )
th
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Page 309
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Heat Transfer
The heat exchanger is characterized by the

following relation
c
By energy balance
c (
)
c(
We know for parallel flow

[
)]
if
Let,
(
)
[
then
LMTD
NTU
x
(x
i
)
x
(x
)(
s)
exp(
)
)
exp(
si ce
The maximum possible heat transfer rate is

(
)
)
=(4 )(
Actual rate of heat transfer is
ow pp yi g hospit ru e
give
=(0.46)(348)=160kW
(
)
(
)(
4.
[Ans. B]
1: Inlet
2: Outlet
h
5.
[Ans. B]
Parallel Flow Heal Exchanger
h
gs
g
Overall transfer coefficient U=1kW/m2K
Heat transfer surface area A=5m2
Given:
kJ/s.K.
Neglect heat transfer between the heat
exchanger and the ambient.
6.
[Ans. C]
(
)
th
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Page 310
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Shell side water stream:Volume flow rate of water,
iter s
s
ss f ow r te of w ter
Now effectiveness
7.
Heat Transfer
te of he t ost by she side w ter stre

)
c(
)
c
(
(
(
)
[Ans. * ]Range 0.65 to 0.67
( c )
( c )
Ideal case would be oil reaching 25
outlet
( c) (
)
( c) (
)
at
8.
[Ans. C]
Can happen only in counter flow heat
exchanger
9.
[Ans. * ]Range 10.8 to11.2
Tube side water stream:Volume flow rate of water,
iter s
s
Mass flow rate of water,
de sity ( )
epecific he t
g
Rate of heat transferred to tube side water
(
)
Stream=
th
th
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Page 311
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Engineering Materials
ME 2005
1.
When the temperature of a solid metal
increases.
(A) strength of the metal decreases but
ductility increases
(B) both strength and ductility of the
metal decreases
(C) both strength and ductility of the
metal increases
(D) strength of the metal increases but
ductility decreases
ME 2006
2.
Column I
Column II
(P) Charpy test
(1) Fluidity
(Q) Knoop test
(2) Microhardness
(R) Spiral test
(3) Formability
(S) Cupping test
(4) Toughness
(5) Permeability
(A) P 4 Q 5 R 3 S 2
(B) P 3 Q 5 R 1 S 4
(C) P 2 Q 4 R 3 S 5
(D) P 4 Q 2 R 1 S 3
3.
4.
The ultimate tensile strength of a material

is 400 MPa and the elongation up to
maximum load is 35%. If the material
obeys power law of hardening, then the
true stress-true strain relation (stress in
MPa) in the plastic deformation range is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2007
5.
If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less
than 0.83% carbon, it is called
(A) high speed steel
(B) hypoeutectoid steel
(C) hypereutectoid steel
(D) cast iron
ME 2009
6.
The effective number of lattice points in
the unit cell of simple cubic, body
centered cubic, and face centered cubic
space lattices, respectively, are
(A) 1,2,2
(C) 2,3,4
(B) 1,2,4
(D) 2,4,4
ME 2010
7.
The material property which depends
only on the basic crystal structure is
(A) fatigue strength
(B) work hardening
(C) fracture strength
(D) elastic constant
ME 2011
8.
The operation in which oil is permeated
into the pores of a powder metallurgy
product is known as
(A) mixing
(B) sintering
(C) impregnation
(D) infiltration
9.
The crystal structure of austenite is

(A) body centered cubic
(B) face centered cubic
(C) hexagonal closed packed
(D) body centered tetragonal
The main purpose of spheroidising

treatment is to improve
(A) hardenability of low carbon steels
(B) machinability of low carbon steels
(C) hardenability of high carbon steels
(D) machinability of high carbon steels
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Page 312
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Point on
the graph
P
Q
ME 2012
10. During normalizing process of steel, the
specimen is heated
(A) between the upper and lower critical
temperature and cooled in still air
(B) Above the upper critical
temperature and cooled in furnace
(C) Above the upper critical temperature
and cooled in still air
(D) Between the upper and lower critical
temperature and cooled in furnace
ME 2014
11. The process of reheating the martensitic
steel to reduce its brittleness without any
significant loss in its hardness is
(A) normalizing
(C) quenching
(B) annealing
(D) tempering
12.
Description of the Point
1. Upper Yield Point

2. Ultimate Tensile
Strength
R
3. Proportionality Limit
S
4. Elastic Limit
T
5. Lower Yield Point
U
6. Failure
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6
14.
The relationship between true strain

and engineering strain
in a uniaxial
tension test is given as
(D)
The stress-strain curve for mild steel is
shown in the figure given below. Choose
the correct option referring to both figure
and table.
Match the heat treatment processes

(Group A) and their associated effects on
properties (Group B) of medium carbon
steel
Group
Group B
P: Tempering
I: Strengthening and
grain refinement
Q: Quenching
II: Inducing toughness
R: Annealing
III: Hardening
S: Normalizing
IV: Softening
(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
(B) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(D) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
tr ss
13.
tr
th
th
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Page 313
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. A]
2.
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. B]
But at UTS n=
Hence n= = 0.3
Also
= 400(1+0.35)
= 540 MPa
Now,
540 = K
K = 774.97
Where,
4.
[Ans. C]
During normalizing process of steel. The
specimen in heated upto
above the
upper critical temperature and is then
cooled is still air.
11.
[Ans. A]
12.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. B]
For a simple cubic unit cell
8 corners have 8 atoms and each atom at
one corner contributes to 8 unit cells.
u
( )
(
[(
13.
[Ans. C]
Point on the
Graph
P
Q
R
S
T
For body centred cubic,

effective number = 8 corners + 1 centre
tru str ss
tru str
[Ans. D]
Spheroidising improves machinability of
high carbon steels.
tv
10.
U
14.
For FCC,
effective number = 8 corner + 6 faces
)
)
Description of the
Point
Proportionality Limit
Elastic Limit
Upper Yield Point
Lower Yield Point
Ultimate Tensile
Strength
Failure
[Ans. B]
Tempering Toughness
Quenching Hardening
Annealing stress reliving thus softening
Normalizing strengthening and grain
refinement
Hence answer is (1, 2, 4)

7.
[Ans. C]
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. B]
Austenite has FCC Crystal structure.
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Page 314
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Casting
ME 2005
1.
A mould has a downsprue whose length is
20 cm and the cross sectional area at the
base of the downsprue is 1 c . The
downsprue feeds a horizontal runner
leading into the mould cavity of volume
1000 c . The time required to fill the
mould cavity will be
(A) 4.05s
(C) 6.05s
(B) 5.05s
(D) 7.25s
2.
Match the items of List I (Equipment)

with the items of List II (Process) and
select the correct answer using the given
codes.
List I (Equipment)
List II (Process)
P Hot Chamber
1 Cleaning
Machine
Q Muller
2 Core making
R Dielectric
3 Die casting
Baker
S Sand Blaster
4 Annealing
5 Sand mixing
(A) P 2 Q 1 R 4 S 5
(B) P 4 Q 2 R 3 S 5
(C) P 4 Q 5 R 1 S 2
(D) P 3 Q 5 R 2 S 1
ME 2006
3.
In a sand casting operation, the total
liquid head is maintained constant such
that it is equal to the mould height. The
time taken to fill the mould with a top
gate is t . If the same mould is filed with a
bottom gate, then the time taken is t .
Ignore the time required to fill the runner
and
frictional
effects.
Assume
atmospheric pressure at the top molten
metal surfaces. The relation between t
and t is:
(A) t = t
(C) t =
(B) t = 2 t
(D) t = t
4.
An expandable pattern is used in

(A) slush casting
(B) squeeze casting
(C) centrifugal casting
(D) investment casting
ME 2007
5.
A 200 mm long down sprue has an area of
cross section of 650
where the
pouring basin meets the down sprue (i.e. at
the beginning of the down sprue). A
constant head of molten metal is
maintained by the pouring basin. The
molten metal flow rate is 6.5
/s.
Considering the end of down sprue to be
open to atmosphere and an acceleration
due to gravity of
mm/s , the area of the
down sprue in
at its end (avoiding
aspiration effect) should be
Pouring
Basin
650
200 mm
Area of down
sprue at its end
(A) 650.0
(B) 350.0
6.
(C) 290.7
(D) 190.0
Vo u
o
u o s
l and volume of
sph r o r us r r qu
oth th
cube and the sphere are solid and of same
material. They are being cast. The ratio of
the solidification time of the cube to the
same of the sphere is
th
(A) ( ) ( )
(C) ( ) ( )
(B) ( ) ( )
(D) ( ) ( )
th
th
Page 315
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
Which of the following engineering

materials is the most suitable material
for hot chamber die casting?
(A) low carbon steel
(B) titanium
(C) copper
(D) tin
ME 2008
8.
While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40
mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume
shrinkage during the liquid state, phase
transition and solid state, respectively.
The volume of metal compensated from
the riser is
(A) 2%
(C) 8%
(B) 7%
(D) 9%
ME 2009
9.
Match the items in Column I and Column
II.
Column I
Column II
P. Metallic Chills
1. Support for the core
Q. Metallic
2. Reservoir of the
Chaplets
molten metal
R. Riser
3. Control cooling of
critical sections
S. Exothermic
4. Progressive
Padding
solidification
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
Two streams of liquid metal, which are

not hot enough to fuse properly result
into a casting defect known as
(A) cold shut
(C) sand wash
(B) swell
(D) scab
ME 2010
11. In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4
represents
(A) sprue base area : runner area : ingate
area
(B) pouring basin area : ingate area :
runner area
(C) sprue basin area : ingate area :
casting area
(D) runner area : ingate area : casting
area
ME 2011
12. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes
volumetric solidification shrinkage and
volumetric solid contraction of 4% and
6% respectively. No riser is used. Assume
uniform cooling in all directions. The side
of the cube after solidification and
contraction is
(A) 48.32 mm
(C) 49.94 mm
(B) 49.90 mm
(D) 49.96 mm
13.
Green sand mould indicates that

(A) polymeric mould has been cured
(B) mould has been totally dried
(C) mould is green in colour
(D) mould contains moisture
ME 2013
14. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 min.
The solidification time in min for a cube of
the same material, which is 8 times
heavier than the original casting , will be
(A) 10
(C) 24
(B) 20
(D) 40
ME 2014
15. An aluminum alloy (density 2600 kg/ )
casting is to be produced. A cylindrical
hole of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm
length is made in the casting using sand
core (density 1600 kg/
). The net
buoyancy force (in Newton) acting on the
core is _______
th
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Page 316
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
Match the casting defects (Group A) with

the probable causes (Group B):
Group A
Group B
P: Hot tears
1: Improper fusion of
two streams of liquid
metal
Q: Shrinkage 2: Low permeability of
the sand mold
R: Blow
3: Volumetric
holes
contraction both in
liquid and solid stage
S: Cold Shut 4: Differential cooling
rate
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
17.
The hot tearing in a metal casting is due

to
(A) high fluidity
(B) high melt temperature
(C) wide range of solidification
temperature
(D) low coefficient of thermal expansion
18.
A cylinder blind riser with diameter d and

height h, is placed on the top of the mold
cavity of a closed type sand mold as
shown in the figure. If the riser is of
constant volume, then the rate of
solidification in the user is the least when
the ratio h:d is
pru
A cylindrical riser of 6 cm diameter and 6 cm

height has to be designed for a sand casting
would for producing a steel rectangular plate
casting of 7 cm 10 cm 2 cm dimensions
having the total solidification time of 1.36
minute. The total solidification time (in
minute) of the riser is _______
s r
o
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
19.
h
v ty
(C) 1:4
(D) 4:1
th
th
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Page 317
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. B]
5.
[Ans. C]
vat base= h=
=1.9797 m.sec =197.98 cm/sec
Area at base =1 cm2,
and volume to be filled = 1000 cm3
Time required =
2.
3.
V
h
= 5.05sec
200mm
[Ans. D]
P-3, Q- 5, R -2, S-1
g=
Here, Flow rate = 6.5
V
[Ans. B]
Time taken to fill the mould with top gate
t
Where
r o ou
H = Height of mould
r o
t
h
t h ht
Given that, h
so q
o
h
t
Time taken to fill the mould with bottom

gate
t
t
(h
At down, V
= 2236.06 mm/s
V
6.
[Ans. D]
V
V
Solidification time = ( ) ,
qu r
[Ans. D]
Expandable pattern is used in investment
casting.
h = 50 mm
From equation (ii) & (iii)

t
t
t
t
4.
r to
r
) ( )
7.
[Ans. D]
8.
[Ans. B]
The riser can compensate for volume
shrinkange only in the liquid stage and
transition stage and not in the solid state.
Hence volume of metal that needs to be
compensated from the riser = 3 + 4 = 7%
9.
[Ans. D]
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Page 318
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. A]
16.
11.
[Ans. A]
12.
[Ans. A]
Volume of cube after solidification and
contraction
V
[Ans. D]
Green sand mould indicates that mould is
not baked or dried. i.e., it contains
moisture
14.
[Ans. B]
v
t
( )
[Ans. C]
Hot tearing : During solidification of
molten metal in mold cavity due to nonuniform working different contraction
stresses can be developed inside the
casting and due to insufficient of
collapsibility of mold sand some
contraction stress can be developed in
casting these stresses can be relieved by
forming hot earns and cracks. So from
above the most suitable option is C
18.
[Ans. A]
( )
v
V
Group B
Differential cooling rate
Volumetric contraction
both in liquid and solid
stage
Low permeability of the
sand mold
Improper fusion of two
streams of liquid metal
17.
Weight is 8 times heavier
[Ans. B]
Group A
P: Hot tears
Q: Shrinkage
R: Blow
holes
S: Cold Shut
side of cube after contraction
13.
pru
t
t
t
s r
o
ur
u
15.
s r
Volume (V) of Riser =
o s
Buoyancy force
v
h
v ty
h
h
for least solidification time, surface area

should b
u
or
u
th
th
th
Page 319
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
V
V
V
h
h
19.

s r vo V
st
st
vo V
sur
[
s r sur
r
]
r
h
ow
t
t
t
(
[(
V
) (
V
)]
th
th
th
Page 320
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Forming Process
interface is 0.1. The minimum possible
thickness of the sheet that can be
produced in a single pass is:
(A) 1.0 mm
(C) 2.5 mm
(B) 1.5 mm
(D) 3.7 mm
ME 2005
1.
A 2 mm thick metal sheet is to be bent at
an angle of one radian with a bend radius
of 100 mm If the stretch factor is 0.5, the
bend allowance is
2mm
1 radian
(A) 99mm
(B) 100mm
(C) 101mm
(D) 102mm
ME 2006
2.
Column I
Column II
(P) Wrinkling
(1) Yield point
elongation
(Q) Orange peel
(2) Anisotropy
(R) Stretcher strains (3) Large grain size
(S) Earing
(4) Insufficient
blank holding force
(5) Fine grain size
(6) Excessive blank
holding force
(A) P 6 Q 3 R 1 S 2
(B) P 4 Q 5 R 6 S 1
(C) P 2 Q 5 R 3 S 4
(D) P 4 Q 3 R 1 S 2
3.
4.
In a wire drawing operation, diameter of

a steel wire is reduced from 10 mm to 8
mm. The mean flow stress of the material
is 400 MPa. The ideal force required for
drawing (ignoring friction and redundant
work) is:
(A) 4.48 kN
(C) 20.11 kN
(B) 8.97 kN
(D) 31.41 kN
ME 2007
5.
The force requirement in a blanking
operation of low carbon steel sheet is
5.0 kN. The thickness of the sheet ist and
diameter of the blanked part is . For the
same work material, if the diameter of the
blanked part is increased to 1.5 d and
thickness is reduced to 0.4 t, the new
blanking force in kN is
(A) 3.0
(C) 5.0
(B) 4.5
(D) 8.0
6.
Match the correct combination for

following metal working processes.
Processes
Associated state of stress
P : Blanking
1. Tension
Q : Stretch
2. Compression
Forming
R : Coining
3. Shear
S : Deep
4. Tension and
Drawing
Compression
5. Tension and Shear
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
The thickness of a metallic sheet is

reduced from an initial value of 16 mm to
a final value of 10 mm in one single pass
rolling with a pair of cylindrical rollers
each of diameter of 400 mm. The bite
angle in degree will be
(A) 5.936
(C) 8.936
(B) 7.936
(D) 9.936
A 4 mm thick sheet is rolled with 300 mm

diameter rolls to reduce thickness
without any change in its width. The
friction coefficient at the work-roll
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Page 321
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
In open die forging, a disc of diameter

200 mm and height 60 mm is compressed
without any barreling effect. The final
diameter of the disc is 400 mm. The true
strain is
(A) 1.986
(C) 1.386
(B) 1.686
(D) 0.602
ME 2008
9.
In the deep drawing of cups, blanks show
a tendency to wrinkle up around the
periphery (flange).
The most likely cause and remedy of the
phenomenon are, respectively,
(A) Buckling due to circumferential
compression; Increase blank holder
pressure
(B) High blank holder pressure and high
friction; Reduce blank holder
pressure and apply lubricant
(C) High temperature causing increase in
circumferential length; Apply coolant
to blank
(D) Buckling due to circumferential
compression; decrease blank holder
pressure
10.
In a single pass rolling operation, a 20

mm thick plate with plate width of 100
mm, is reduced to 18 mm. The roller
radius is 250 mm and rotational speed is
10 rpm. The average flow stress for the
plate material is 300 MPa. The power
required for the rolling operation in kW is
closest to
(A) 15.2
(C) 30.4
(B) 18.2
(D) 45.6
ME 2010
11&12:
In shear cutting operation, a sheet of 5
mm thickness is cut along a length of
200 mm. The cutting blade is 400 mm
long (see figure) and zero shear (S = 0)
is provided on the edge. The ultimate
shear strength of the sheet is 100 MPa

and penetration to thickness ratio is 0.2.
Neglect friction.
400
11.
Assume force vs displacement curve to be

rectangular, the work done (in J) is
(A) 100
(C) 250
(B) 200
(D) 300
12.
A shear of 20 mm (S = 20 mm) is now

provided on the blade. Assuming force vs
displacement curve to be trapezoidal, the
maximum force (in kN) exerted is
(A) 5
(C) 20
(B) 10
(D) 40
ME 2011
13. The shear strength of a sheet metal is
300MPa. The blanking force required to
produce a blank of 100 mm diameter
from a 1.5 mm thick sheet is close to
(A) 45 kN
(C) 141 kN
(B) 70 kN
(D) 3500 kN
14.
The maximum possible draft in cold

rolling of sheet increases with the
(A) increase in coefficient of friction
(B) decrease in coefficient of friction
(C) decrease in roll radius
(D) increase in roll velocity
ME 2012
15. Match the following metal forming
processes with their associated stresses
in the workpiece.
Metal forming process
A. Coining
B. Wire Drawing
C. Blanking
D. Deep Drawing
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Page 322
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Type of Stress
1. Tensile
2. Shear
3. Tensile and compressive
4. Compressive
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(A)
4
1
2
3
(B)
4
1
3
2
(C)
1
2
4
3
(D)
1
3
2
4
16.
A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and

height 50 mm is forged between two
frictionless flat dies to a height of 25 mm.
The percentage change in diameter is
(A) 0
(C) 20.7
(B) 2.07
(D) 41.4
17.
In a single pass rolling process using

410mm diameter steel rollers, a strip of
width 140mm and thickness 8mm
undergoes 10% reduction of thickness.
The angle of bite in radians is
(A) 0.006
(C) 0.062
(B) 0.031
(D) 0.600
18.
Calculate the punch size in mm, for a

circular blanking operation for which
details are given below
Size of blank
25mm
Thickness of the sheet
2mm
Radial clearance between 0.06mm
punch and die
Dia allowance
0.05mm
(A) 24.83
(C) 25.01
(B) 24.89
(D) 25.17
ME 2014
20. With respect to metal working, match
Group A with Group B:
Group A
Group B
P: Defect in
I: alligatoring
extrusion
Q: Defect in rolling
II: scab
R: Product of skew
III: fish tail
rolling
S: Product of rolling IV: seamless tube
through cluster mill
V: thin sheet with
tight tolerance
VI: semi-finished
balls of ball bearing
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-VI, S-V
(B) P-III, Q-I, R-VI, S-V
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-VI
(D) P-I, Q-II, R-V, S-VI
ME 2013
19. In a rolling process, the state of stress of
the material undergoing deformation is
(A) pure compression
(B) pure shear
(C) compression and shear
(D) tension and shear
th
th
th
Page 323
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. C]
We know that
Bend allowance =
t
Where R = inside radius of the bend
=100mm
bend angle = 1 radian
t = thickness of metal sheet
k = Location of neutral axis from the bottom
= 0.33 where
R < 2t
= 0.50 where
R > 2t
Bend allowance
6.
[Ans. D]
Blanking Shear
Stretch Forming Tension
Coining Compression
Deep drawing tension and compression
7.
[Ans. D]
Here, h = initial thickness = 16 mm
h = final thickness = 10 mm
Roll diameter = D = 400 mm
t
2.
3.
Where
angle of bite
9.826
[Ans. D]
Wrinkling Insufficient blank holding
force
Orange peel large grain
Stretcher strains yield point elongation
Earing Anisotropy
8.
[Ans. C]
Since volume of disc remains constant
during the process, Hence
[Ans. B]
Given
h
Ignoring friction and redundant work

means
Hence
th
( )
=2
( )
= 178.51 MPa
Ideal force = 178.51
4.
ru str
r
9.
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
=
t =2.5mm
5.
[Ans. A]
t th sh r str ss
F=
t 5.0 kN
w
or
t
= 3 kN
rp
th
th
th
Page 324
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ro
ot pow r
11.
15.
[Ans. A]
1. Coining Compressive
2. Wire drawing Tensile
3. Blanking Shear
4. Deep drawing Tensile and compressive
16.
[Ans. D]
Since volume remains constant
V
V
[Ans. A]
tx
Work done =
t
J
17.
12.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. B]
400
20
os
So 10mm punch should travel to cut the

sheet of 5 mm thickness for 400 mm,
shear is 20mm. so only 200mm is the
effective length that a punch should travel
to cut 5 mm thick sheet
t
s
t p
13.
[Ans. C]
Blanking Force,
os
os
18.
[Ans. A]
Diameter of punch
= Diameter of blank
radian clearance
die allowance
19.
[Ans. C]
20.
[Ans. B]
Fish tail is an extrusion defect. (P III)
Product of skew rolling is semi finished
balls of ball bearing. (R VI)
So, P III, R VI
3 kN
14.
[Ans. A]
Maximum possible draft
h
h
th
th
th
Page 325
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Joining Process
each sheet is formed. The properties of
the metallic sheets are given as:
ambient temperature = 293 K
melting temperature = 1793 K
density = 7000 kg/
latent heat of fusion = 300 kJ/kg
specific heat = 800 J/kg K
Assume:
1) Contact resistance along sheet
sheet interface is 500 micro-ohm and
along electrode sheet interface is
zero;
2) No conductive heat loss through the
bulk sheet materials; and
3) The complete weld fusion zone is at
the melting temperature.
The melting efficiency (in %) of the
process is
(A) 50.37
(C) 70.37
(B) 60.37
(D) 80.37
ME 2005
1.
Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of
steel (density=8000kg/ ) is carried out
successfully by passing a certain amount
of current for 0.1 second through the
electrodes. The resultant weld nugget
formed is 5 mm in diameter and 1.5 mm
thick. If the latent heat of fusion of steel is
1400 kJ/kg and the effective resistance in
the welding operation in 200 ,the
current passing through the electrodes is
approximately
(A) 1480 A
(C) 4060 A
(B) 3300A
(D) 9400A
2.
The strength of a brazed joint

(A) decreases with increase in gap
between the two joining surfaces
(B) increases with increase in gap
between the two joining surfaces
(C) decreases up to certain gap between
the two joining surfaces beyond
which it increases
(D) increases up to certain gap between
the two joining surfaces beyond
which it decreases
5.
A direct current welding machine with a

linear power source characteristic
provides open circuit voltage of 80 V and
short circuit current of 800 A. During
welding with the machine, the measured
arc current is 500 A corresponding to an
arc length of 5.0 mm and the measured
arc current is 460 A corresponding to an
arc length of 7.0 mm.
The linear voltage (E) arc length (L)
characteristic of the welding arc can be
given as (where E is in Volt and L is in
mm)
(A) E = 20 + 2L
(C) E = 80 + 2L
(B) E = 20 + 8L
(D) E = 80 + 8L
6.
Which one of the following is a solid state

joining process?
(A) gas tungsten arc welding
(B) resistance spot welding
(C) friction welding
(D) submerged arc welding
ME 2006
3.
In an arc welding process, the voltage and
current are 25 V and 300 A respectively.
The arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85
and welding speed is 8 mm/sec. The net
heat input (in J/mm) is:
(A) 64
(C) 1103
(B) 797
(D) 79700
ME 2007
4.
Two metallic sheets, each of 2.0 mm
thickness, are welded in a lap joint
configuration by resistance spot welding
at a welding current of 10 kA and welding
time of 10 milli second. A spherical fusion
zone extending up to the full thickness of
th
th
th
Page 326
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2008
7.
In arc welding of a butt joint, the welding
speed is to be selected such that highest
cooling rate is achieved. Melting efficiency
and heat transfer efficiency are 0.5 and
0.7, respectively. The area of the weld
cross section is 5
and the unit
energy required to melt the metal is
10 J/
. If the welding power is 2 kW,
the welding speed in mm/s is closest to
(A) 4
(B) 14
(C) 24
(D) 34
ME 2010
8.
Two pipes of inner diameter 100 mm and
outer diameter 110 mm each are joined
by flash butt welding using 30 V power
supply. At the interface, 1 mm of material
melts from each pipe which has a
r s st
o
th u t
t
energy is 64.4MJ
, then time required
for welding (in s) is
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 20
ME 2011
9.
Which one among thefollowing welding
processes used non consumable
electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding
(B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas tungsten arc welding
(D) Flux coated arc welding
ME 2012
10. In a DC arc welding operation, the
voltage-arc length characteristic was
obtained as V
where the arc
length was varied between 5 mm and 7
mm. Here V denotes the arc voltage in
Volts. The arc current was varied from
400 A to 500 A. Assuming linear power
source characteristic, the open circuit
voltage and the short circuit current for
the welding operation are
(A) 45 V, 450 A
(B) 75 V, 750 A
(C) 95 V, 950 A
(D) 150 V, 1500 A
ME 2013
11. Match the correct pairs.
Processes
Characteristics /
Applications
P. friction
1. non consumable
welding
electrode
Q. gas metal arc
2. joining of thick
welding
plates
R. Tungsten inert 3. consumable
gas welding
electrode wire
S. electroslag
4. joining of
welding
cylindrical dissimilar
materials
(A) P 4, Q 3, R 1, S 2
(B) P 4, Q 2, R 3, S 1
(C) P 2, Q 3, R 4, S 1
(D) P 2, Q 4, R 1, S 3
ME 2014
12. In solid-state welding, the contamination
layers between the surfaces to be welded
are removed by
(A) alcohol
(B) plastic deformation
(C) water jet
(D) sand blasting
13.
The major difficulty during welding of

aluminum is due to its
(A) high tendency of oxidation
(B) high thermal conductivity
(C) low melting point
(D) low density
14.
For spot welding of two steel sheets (base

metal) each of 3 mm thickness, welding
current of 10000 A is applied for 0.2 s.
The heat dissipated to the base metal is
1000 J. Assuming that the heat required
for melting 1 m
volume of steel is 20 J
and interfacial contact resistance between
sh ts s
th vo u
)
of weld nugget is _______
th
th
th
Page 327
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
Within the Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) in a

fusion welding process, the work material
undergoes
(A) Microstructural changes but does not
melt
(B) Neither melting nor microstructural
changes
(C) Both melting and microstructural
changes after solidification
(D) Melting and retains the original
microstructure after solidification
16.
A butt weld joint is developed on steel

plates having yield and ultimate tensile
strength of 500 MPa and 700 MPa,
respectively. The thickness of the plates is
8 mm and width is 20 mm. Improper
selection of welding parameters caused
an undercut of 3 mm depth along the
weld. The maximum transverse tensile
load (in kN) carrying capacity of the
developed weld joint is _______

1.
[Ans. C]
H.G = H.U
t Vo o
tot h t or
= mL + m
3.
Efficiency
[Ans. D]
Strength increases upto some certain gap
and beyond this strength decreases.
= 70.38%
5.
[Ans. A]
From power source characteristics,
[Ans. B]
Power generated = VI
t
V = 80
put
[Ans. C]
Given,
Current,
Time,
t
s
Resistance, R=500
Ambient temperature,
a + bL
Here, L = 5, I = 500
But at L = 7, I = 460
v
From (iii) and (iv), we get b = 2, a = 20
Voltage charge = 20 + 2L
Melting temperature,
Total heat supplied.
t
ss
Arc voltage Characteristics

V = a + bL
Equating (i) and (ii), we get
sp
= 797 J/mm
4.
)
[
]
I = 4060 A
2.
t
(
6.
[Ans. C]
Friction welding is clearly solid state
welding.
7.
[Ans. B]
Welding power applied = Heating power
needed
th
th
th
Page 328
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
2
f = 14 mm/sec
8.
[Ans. C]
V
V
Heat energy required for welding
V
( )

t
t
Heat dissipated to base metal= 1000J
Heat requiring for melting
; Volume of weld nugget =?
ot h t supp
t
t put to th
h t put
u
Vo u
9.
[Ans. C]
Gas tungsten arc welding uses a non
consumable electrode made of tungsten.
10.
[Ans. C]
V
V
V
V
s
t
V
V
15.
[Ans. A]
Heat affected zone (HAZ) is the area of
base material, either a metal or a
thermoplastic, which is not melted and
has had its microstructure and properties
altered by welding or heat intensive
cutting operations
16.
p
r u t vo t
hort r u t urr t
V
V
V
V
V
Vo ts
p
11.
[Ans. A]
12.
[Ans. B]
Contamination layer between the surface
is removed by friction between the solids
and due to which material will get
localized plastic deformation. So best
option is B.
13.
There is an undercut of 3mm

r
Maximum transverse load activity on this
area = 700 MPa
x u tr sv rs t s
o
[Ans. A]
The major difficulty during welding of
aluminum is due to higher tendency of
oxidation of aluminum. The feature of Al
th ox t o st t s
th ts why
has higher tendency of oxidation.
th
th
th
Page 329
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Machining and Machine Tool Operations

ME 2005
1.
A zigzag cavity in a block of high strength
alloy is to be finish machined. This can be
carried out by using
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D) tool changing cost, non-productive

cost, machining cost
4.
A 600mm 30mm flat surface of a plate is

to be finish machined on a shaper. The
plate has been fixed with the 600 mm side
along the tool travel direction. If the tool
over-travel at each end of the plate is 20
mm, average cutting speed is 8 m/min,
feed rate is 0.3mm/stroke and the ratio of
return time to cutting time of the tool is
1 : 2, the time required for machining will
be
(A) 8 minutes
(C) 16 minutes
(B) 12 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
5.
Two tools P and Q have signatures

5- 5- 6-6- 8- 30- 0 and
5- 5- 7- 7- 8- 15- 0
(both ASA) respectively. They are used to
turn components under the same
machining conditions. If h and h denote
the peak-to-valley heights of surfaces
electric discharge machining

electro-chemical machining
laser beam machining
abrasive flow machining
2.
When 3-2-1 principle is used to support

and locate a three dimensional work-piece
during machining, the number of degrees
of freedom that are restricted is
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
3.
The figure below shows a graph, which

qualitatively relates cutting speed and cost
per piece produced.
produced by the tools P and Q, the ratio

will be
Cost per piece
Total Cost
2
1
Cutting Speed
The three curves, 1, 2 and 3 respectively

represent
(A) machining cost, non-productive cost,
tool changing cost
(B) non-productive cost, machining cost,
tool changing cost
(C) tool changing cost, machining cost,
non-productive cost
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME 2006
6.
If each abrasive grain is viewed as a
cutting tool, then which of the following
represents the cutting parameters in
common grinding operations?
(A) Large negative rake angle, low shear
angle and high cutting speed
(B) Large positive rake angle, low shear
(C) Large negative rake angle, high shear
(D) Zero rake angle, high shear angle and
high cutting speed
th
th
th
Page 330
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
Arrange the processes in the increasing

order of their maximum material removal
rate.
Electrochemical Machining (ECM)
Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
Electron Beam Machining (EBM)
Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and
Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(A) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM
(B) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(C) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(D) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
Common Data for Questions 8, 9, 10:
In an orthogonal machining operation:
Uncut thickness = 0.5mm
Cutting speed = 20m/min
Width of cut = 5 mm
Chip thickness = 0.7 mm
Thrust force = 200N
Cutting force = 1200 N
Rake angle = 15
ssu
r h ts th ory
8.
The values of shear angle and shear strain,

respectively, are
(A) 30.3 and 1.98
(B) 30.3 and 4.23
(C) 40.2 and 2.97
(D) 40.2 and 1.65
9.
The coefficient of friction at the tool-chip

interface is
(A) 0.23
(C) 0.85
(B) 0.46
(D) 0.95
10.
The percentage of total energy dissipated

due to friction at the tool-chip interface is:
(A) 30 %
(C) 58 %
(B) 42 %
(D) 70 %
depth of cut is 2 mm. The chip thickness

obtained is 0.48mm. If the orthogonal rake
angle is zero and the principle cutting edge
angle is 90 , the shear angle in degree is
(A) 20.56
(C) 30.56
(B) 26.56
(D) 36.56
12.
In electro discharge machining (EDM), if

the thermal conductivity of tool is high and
the specific heat of work piece is low, then
the tool wear rate and material removal
rate are expected to be respectively
(A) high and high
(C) high and low
(B) low and low
(D) low and high
13.
In orthogonal turning of medium carbon

steel, the specific machining energy is
2.0 J/
. The cutting velocity, feed and
depth of cut are 120 m/min, 0.2 mm/rev
and 2 mm respectively. The main cutting
force in N is
(A) 40
(C) 400
(B) 80
(D) 800
14.
In orthogonal turning of low carbon steel

pipe with principle cutting edge angle of
90, the main cutting force is 1000 N and
the feed force is 800 N. The shear angle is
25 and orthogonal rake angle is zero.
p oy
r h ts th ory th r t o o
friction force to normal force acting on the
cutting tool is
(A) 1.56
(C) 0.80
(B) 1.25
(D) 0.64
15.
Match the most suitable manufacturing

processes for the following parts.
Parts
Manufacturing Processes
P : Computer chip 1. Electrochemical
Machining
Q : Metal forming 2. Ultrasonic Machining
dies and molds
R : Turbine blade 3. Electrodischarge
Machining
S : Glass
4. Photochemical
Machining
ME 2007
11. In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel
bar of diameter 150 mm with uncoated
carbide tool, the cutting velocity is 90
m/min. The feed is 0.24 mm/rev and the
th
th
th
Page 331
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
17.

& 17:
A low carbon steel bar of 147 mm
diameter with a length of 630 mm is being
turned with uncoated carbide insert. The
observed tool lives are 24 min and 12 min
for cutting velocities of 90 m/min and
120 m/min respectively. The feed and
depth of cut are 0.2 mm/rev and 2 mm
respectively.
Use
the
unmachined
diameter to calculate the cutting velocity.
When tool life is 20 min, the cutting
velocity in m/min is
(A) 87
(C) 107
(B) 97
(D) 114
20.
A researcher conducts electrochemical

machining (ECM) on a binary alloy
(density 6000 kg/ ) of iron (atomic
weight 56, valency 2) and metal P (atomic
w ht
v
y
r
ys o st t
= 96500 coulomb/mole. Volumetric
material removal rate of the alloy is 50
/sec at a current of 2000 A. The
percentage of the metal P in the alloy is
closest to
(A) 40
(C) 15
(B) 25
(D) 79
21.
The figure shows an incomplete schematic

of a conventional lathe to be used for
cutting threads with, different pitches. The
speed gear box
is shown and the feed
gear box is to be placed. P, Q, R and S
denote locations and have no other
significance. Changes in
should NOT
affect the pitch of the thread being cut and
changes in
should NOT affect the
cutting speed.
Neglect over travel or approach of the

tool. When tool life is 20 min, the
machining time in min for a single pass is
(A) 5
(C) 15
(B) 10
(D) 20
Spindle
Work piece
Motor
Cutting tool
R S
Half
Nut
ME 2008
18. Internal gear cutting operation can be
performed by
(A) milling
(B) shaping with rack cutter
(C) shaping with pinion cutter
(D) hobbing
19.
Lead screw
The correct connections and the correct

placement of are given by
(A) Q and E are connected. is placed
between P and Q.
(B) S and E are connected. is placed
between R and S.
(C) Q and E are connected. is placed
between Q and E.
(D) S and E are connected. is placed
between S and E.
In a single point turning tool, the side rake

angle and orthogonal rake angle are equal.
is the principle cutting edge angle and its
r
s

h h p ows
the orthogonal plane. The value of is
closest to
(A) 0
(C) 60
(B) 45
(D) 90

& 23:
Orthogonal turning is performed on a
cylindrical workpiece with shear strength
of 250 MPa. The following conditions are
used: cutting velocity is 180 m/min, feed is
0.20 mm/rev, depth of cut is 3 mm, chip
th
th
th
Page 332
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
23.
thickness ratio = 0.5. The orthogonal rake

s pp y
r h ts th ory or
analysis.
The shear plane angle (in degrees) and the
shear force respectively are
(A) 52; 320N
(C) 28 ; 400 N
(B) 52; 400N
(D) 28 ; 320 N
The cutting and frictional forces,
respectively, are
(A) 568 N ; 387 N
(C) 440 N ; 342 N
(B) 565 N ; 381 N
(D) 480 N ; 356 N
ME 2009
24. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be
reduced by
(A) decreasing the rake angle
(B) increasing the depth of cut
(C) decreasing the cutting speed.
(D) increasing the cutting speed.
25.
26.
Minimum shear strain in orthogonal

turning with a cutting tool of zero rake
angle is
(A) 0.0
(B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0
Electrochemical machining is performed
to remove material from an iron surface of
20mm 20mm under the following
conditions:
Inter electrode gap= 0.2mm
Supply voltage (DC)= 12V
Specific resistance of electrolyte
Atomic weight of Iron= 55.85

Valency of Iron = 2
r
ys o st t = 96540 Coulombs
The material removal rate (in g/s) is
(A) 0.3471
(C) 34.71
(B) 3.471
(D) 347.1
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 27
& 28
In a machining experiment, tool life was
found to vary with the cutting speed in the
following manner:
Cutting speed
(m/ min)
Tool life
(minutes)
60
90
81
36
27.
The exponent (n) and constant (k) of the

y ors too
qu t o r
(A) n = 0.5 and k = 540
(B) n = 1 and k = 4860
(C) n = 1 and k = 0.74
(D) n = 0.5 and k = 1.155
28.
What is the percentage increase in tool life

when the cutting speed is halved?
(A) 50%
(C) 300%
(B) 200%
(D) 400%
ME 2010
29.
or too
y ors too
xpo
t
s
0.45 and constant (K) is 90. Similarly for
tool B, n = 0.3 and K = 60. The cutting
speed (in m/min) above which tool A will
have a higher tool life than tool B is
(A) 26.7
(C) 80.7
(B) 42.5
(D) 142.9
ME 2011
30. Match the following non traditional
machining
processes
with
the
corresponding
material
removal
mechanism:
Machining
Mechanism of
process
material removal
P. Chemical
1. Erosion
machining
Q. Electro
2. Corrosive reaction
chemical
machining
R. Electro
3. Ion displacement
discharge
machining
S. Ultrasonic
4. Fusion and
machining
vaporization
(A) P 2, Q 3, R 4, S 1
(B) P 2, Q 4, R 3, S 1
(C) P 3, Q 2, R 4, S 1
(D) P 2, Q 3, R 1, S 4
th
th
th
Page 333
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
31.
A single point cutting tool with 12 rake

angle is used to machine a steel work
piece. The depth of cut, i.e. uncut thickness
is 0.81 mm. The chip thickness under
orthogonal machining condition is 1.8 mm.
The shear angle is approximately
(A) 22
(C) 56
(B) 26
(D) 76
ME 2012
32. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance
between the nozzle tip and the work
surface increases, the material removal
rate
(A) Increases continuously
(B) Decreases continuously
(C) Decreases, becomes stable and then
increases
(D) Increases, becomes stable and then
decreases
33.
In a single pass drilling operation, a

through hole of 15 mm diameter is to be
drilled in a steel plate of 50 mm thickness.
Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm, feed is
0.2 mm/rev and drill point angle is
.
Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and
exit, the total drill time (in seconds) is
(A) 35.1
(C) 31.2
(B) 32.4
(D) 30.1
34.
Details pertaining to and orthogonal metal

cutting process are given below:
Chip thickness ratio
0.4
Undeformed
0.6 mm
thickness
Rake angle
+10
Cutting speed
2.5 m/s
Mean thickness of 25 microns
Primary shear zone
The shear strain rate in s during the
process is
(A) 0.1781
(C) 1.0104
(B) 0.7754
(D) 4.397
cut of 4mm. The rotational speed of the

workpiece is 160 rpm. The material
removal rate in
/s is
(A) 160
(C) 1600
(B) 167.6
(D) 1675.5
36.
Two cutting tools are being compared for a

machining operation. The tool life
equations are
Carbide tool :
HSS tool :
Where V is the cutting speed in m/min and
T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool
will provide higher tool life if the cutting
speed in m/min exceeds
(A) 15.0
(C) 49.3
(B) 39.4
(D) 60.0
37.
During the electrochemical machining

(ECM) of iron (atomic weight = 56,
valency =2) at current of 1000A with 90%
current efficiency, the material removal
rate was observed to be 0.26 gm/s. If
Titanium (atomic weight = 48, valency=3)
is machined by the ECM precess at the
current of 2000 A with 90% current
efficiency , the expected material removal
rate in gm/s will be
(A) 0.11
(C) 0.30
(B) 0.23
(D) 0.52
Statement for linked answer questions 38 &
39:
In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm
diameter with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev,
depth of cut of 4mm and cutting velocity of
90 m/min, it is observed that the main
(tangential) cutting force is perpendicular
to the friction force acting at the chip tool
interface. The main (tangential) cutting
force is 1500 N.
38.
The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting

tool in degree is
(A) Zero
(C) 5
(B) 3.58
(D) 7.16
ME 2013
35. A steel bar 200 mm in diameter is turned
at a feed of 0.25 mm/ rev with a depth of
th
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Page 334
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
39.
The normal force acting at the chip tool

interface in N is
(A) 1000
(C) 2000
(B) 1500
(D) 2500
ME 2014
40. Which one of the following instruments is
widely used to check and calibrate
geometric features of machine tools during
their assembly?
(A) Ultrasonic probe
(B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
(C) Laser interferometer
(D) Vernier calipers
41.
The main cutting force acting on a tool

during the turning (orthogonal cutting)
operation of a metal is 400 N. The turning
was performed using 2 mm depth of cut
and 0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific
cutting pressure (in N/m ) is
(A) 1000
(C) 3000
(B) 2000
(D) 4000
42.
th
y ors tool life exponent n is 0.2,
and the tool changing time is 1.5 min, then
the tool life(in min) for maximum
production rate is _______
43.
A metal rod of initial length is subjected

to a drawing process. The length of the rod
at any instant is given by the expression,
t
t where t is the time in
minutes. The true strain rate (in
) at
the end of one minute is ___________
44.
During pure orthogonal turning operation

of a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found that
the thickness of the chip produced is
0.5 mm. The feed given to the zero degree
rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear
strain produced during the operation is
_______
45.
Match the Machine Tools (Group A) with

the probable Operations (Group B):
Group A
Group B
P:Centre Lathe
1:Slotting
Q:Milling
2: Counter-boring
R:Grinding
3:Knurling
S:Drilling
4:Dressing
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
46.
The following four unconventional

machining processes are available in a
shop floor. The most appropriate one to
drill a hole of square cross section of 6 mm
6 mm and 25 mm deep is
(A) Abrasive Jet Machining
(B) Plasma Arc Machining
(C) Laser Beam Machining
(D) Electro Discharge Machining
47.
A mild steel plate has to be rolled in one pass

such that the final plate thickness is
of
the initial thickness, with the entrance speed
of 10 m/min and roll diameter of 500 mm. If
the plate widens by 2% during rolling, the
exit velocity (in m/min) is ______
48.
A hole of 20 mm diameter is to be drilled in

a steel block of 40 mm thickness. The
drilling is performed at rotational speed of
400 rpm and feed rate of 0.1 mm/rev. The
required approach and over run of the drill
together is equal to the radius of drill. The
drilling time (in minute) is
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.25 (C) 1.50 (D) 1.75
49.
A rectangular hole of size 100 mm 50 mm

is to be made on a 5 mm thick sheet of steel
having ultimate tensile strength and shear
strength of 500 MPa and 300 MPa,
respectively. The hole is made by punching
process. Neglecting the effect of clearance,
the punching force (in kN) is
(A) 300
(C) 600
(B) 450
(D) 750
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Page 335
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
The process utilizing mainly thermal

energy for removing material is
(A) Ultrasonic Machining
(B) Electrochemical Machining
(C) Abrasive Jet Machining
(D) Laser Beam Machining
A straight turning operation is carried out
using a single point cutting tool on an AISI
1020 steel rod. The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and
the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. The tool has a
side cutting edge angle of 60. The uncut
chip thickness (in mm) is _______
A Cutting tool is much harder than the
work piece. Yet the tool wears out during
the tool-work interaction, because
(A) extra hardness is imparted to the work
piece due to coolant used
(B) oxide layers on the work piece surface
impart extra hardness to it
(C) extra hardness is imparted to the work
piece due to severe rate of strain
(D) vibration is induced in the machine
tool
Which pair of following statements is
correct for orthogonal cutting using a
single-point cutting tool?
P. Reduction in friction angle increases
cutting force
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases
cutting force
R. Reduction in friction angle increases
chip thickness
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases
chip thickness
(A) P and R
(C) Q and R
(B) P and S
(D) Q and S
twice that in operation 1. The other cutting

parameters are identical. The ratio of
maximum uncut chip thicknesses in
operations 1 and 2 is ________
55.
The principle of material removal in

Electrochemical machining is
(A) Fick's law
(C) Kir hho 's ws
(B) Faraday's laws
h s w
56.
Better surface finish is obtained with a

large rake angle because
(A) The area of shear plane decreases
resulting in the decrease in shear
force and cutting force
(B) The tool becomes thinner and the
cutting force is reduced
(C) Less heat is accumulated in the
cutting zone
(D) The friction between the chip and the
tool is less
57.
In a rolling process, the maximum possible

draft, defined as the difference between
the initial and the final thickness of the
metal sheet, mainly depends on which pair
of the following parameters?
P: Strain
Q: Strength of the work material
R: Roll diameter
S: Roll velocity
T: Coefficient of friction between roll and
work
(A) Q, S (B) R, T (C) S, T (D) P, R
58.
A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being

shaped in a shaping machine with a depth
of cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/stroke
and the tool principal cutting edge angle of
30. Number of cutting strokes per minute
is 60. Using specific energy for cutting as
1.49 J/m
, the average power
consumption (in watt) is ______
Two separate slab milling operations, 1

and 2, are performed with identical milling
cutters. The depth of cut in operation 2 is
th
th
th
Page 336
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
For making complex shape for higher
strength
alloy,
electro-chemical
machining is used because in it no
mechanical force is exerted as well as tool
left its impression surfaced.
5.
[Ans. B]
We know that
h
t
where,
[Ans. C]
3-2-1 principle is also known as six point
location of a three dimensional body. The
bottom is supported against 3 point, the
rear face against 2 point and the side of
the block rest against single (1) point. So
3-2-1 principle.
[Ans. A]
Matching cost= [Matching time Direct
Labour Cost]
So as cutting speed increases, matching
time decreases and so matching cost
decreases
So as matching cost decreases.
h
h
Cost/piea
t
t
t
ot
ot
ot
7.
[Ans. D]
ECM 104 mm3/min
EDM 5 x 103 mm3/min
USM 180 mm3/min
EBM 10 mm3/min
LBM 5 mm3/min
8.
[Ans. D]
Here, cutting ratio, r
r os
t
rs
Where, = shear angle
r
angle=
Shear strain = cot +tan
stro
9.
1.65
[Ans. B]
ro
r h ts th ory

,
stro
Cutting time required for 100 stroke
for returning stroke
ot
[Ans. A]
Large negative rake angle, low shear
angle and high cutting speed.
[Ans. B]
Time required for 1 stroke
utt
utt
6.
Cutting
speed
No of stroke
t
h
Non- productive cost
4.
r t
s
Given,
Tool cost
Tool changing
cost
Machine cost
ot
wh r r t o
total time
th
th
th
Page 337
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. A]
Total heat generated,
Q1 =
V = 24000 J/min
V
V
s
s
V
s
V
s
14.
[Ans. C]
ortho o
or ortho o
t
Frictional force,
F = Fc s
os
s
or ortho o
os t
utt
s t
Uncut chip thickness for turning = s

s
t
h p th
ss r t o
r
t
h r
t
12.
13.
15.
[Ans. A]
Computer
chip
photochemical
machining
Metal forming dies and mold electro
discharge machining
Turbine blade electro chemical
machining
Glass ultrasonic machining
16.
[Ans. B]
Here, D = 147 mm, L = 630 mm, f= 0.2
mm/rev, d = 2 mm
Tool life equation, V
o st t
Now, V
V
[Ans. B]
Given
t
s t
os
s
os
Heat dissipated due to friction,

V
Q2 = 7193.69 J/min
11.
os s
s
os
r os
rs
os
s
[Ans. A]
Material removal rate
Thermal
conductivity of tool
Tool wear material removal rate
[Ans. D]
Cutting force;
V= Cutting velocity
Specific machining energy = 2.0 J/
V
V = 97.07 m / min
17.
[Ans. C]
V
N = 210.2 rpm
Matching time, t
min.
t
18.
th
[Ans. C]
Internal gear cutting is performed by
shaping with a pinion cutter.
th
th
Page 338
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. D]
Given,
Also for orthogonal cutting
t
s
t
os t
When
s
Now, shear force = shear stress

F =250 AB width of cut
s
area
20.
[Ans. B]
For Iron,
Atomic weight,
V
yr
For Metal P,
Atomic weight,
V
yr
For alloy,
density,
0.2
C
where AC is incut chip thickness

Now width depth of cut = 3 mm
F= 250 0.426 3
320 N
23.
[Ans. B]
[
ow y
os
]
os
r h ts th ory
+ = 320 1.77
*
Now, let % of P in alloy= x
x V
(
)
(
= 565N
Now
x
21.
22.
[Ans. D]
Taking the engineering of a conventional
lathe,
is the back gear arrangement
and is the feed gear box(a) and (b) are
then completely wrong.
Now if (c) is true then, if gear ratio of
is changed the relative velocity of spindle
with respect to load source in changed
and hence pitch is changed. Hence (D) is
correct.
[Ans. D]
r os
rs
Fv = 565 tan 34 = 381 N

Frictional force F from the figure can be
written as,
F= FH sin +Fv os = 68+ 381 = 447N
Hence none of the options seems to be
correct.
= tan (
os
s
24.
[Ans. D]
=
th
th
th
Page 339
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
25.
[Ans. D]
During orthogonal machining.
Shear strain,
ot
t
Cutting tool having rake angle
Then
ot
t
For minimum value of shear strain
ot
s
os
os
M= molecular weight
v= valency
M.R.R(gm/sec) =
= 0.3471
os
27.
s
os
s
os
os
os
os
os
ot
s
os
ot
|
Therefore is minimum at
Therefore minimum shear strain is
given by
ot
26.
[Ans. A]
or
to y ors qu t o
V =C
where , V = cutting speed in m/min
T = tool life (min)
C = constant (Taylors constant)
V
V
or
or
or
o o oth s s
o
o
o
o
y ors o st t
V
28.
[Ans. C]
When cutting speed is halved
60
[Ans. A]
We know, R = l/A
where, = resistivity
= special resistance of electrolyte
cm
R = resistance of electrolyte between
electrodes
l = inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm = 0.02 cm
A = electrodes cross- section area
(or) ( )
(or)
(or)
% change in tool life =
=
=3
29.
= 300 %
[Ans. A]
V
Current, I = V/R
= 12/0.01
= 1200A
Faraday law of electricity, E = M/v
where, E = equivalent weight
( )
( )
V
th
th
th
Page 340
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
30.
31.
[Ans. A]
P 2, Q 3, R 4, S 1
h r str
r t
V os
os
t
os
os
0104
/sec
[Ans. B]
t
t
os
r s
os
os
35.
[Ans. D]
t r
32.
[Ans. D]
In abrasive jet machining the variation is
as shown
ov r t
s
36.
[Ans. B]
Carbide
HSS
MRR
NTD
Equate tool life from both equation after

eliminating cutting speed V
MRR=Metal removal rate

NTD= Nozzle tip distance
33.
[Ans. A]
Substitute in one of equation,
x = 4.5
Drill bit
V
37.
[Ans. C]
V
7.5
15
ou
Work piece
r
st
st
ov r
p
38.
ov r
[Ans. A]
=35.1 sec
34.
[Ans. C]
r=0.4
t
V
t
t
r os
rs
th
th
th
Page 341
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
It is observed that cutting force is

perpendicular to the friction force acting
at the chip-tool interface then = 0.
sh r or
= orthogonal rake angle
sh r
r to
39.
[Ans. C]
Ultrasonic probe - Used a sensor which
generates a constant signal and also
detect return signals
Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM) Used to measure physical geometrical
characteristics of an object
Laser interferometer - Used to check and
calibrate geometric features
Vernier calipers used to measure
dimension of an object.
41.
[Ans. B]
r v
p
utt
r y pr su
44.
(
43.
t
t
ot
ot
r v
t
t
y
45.
[Ans. C]
P: Centre Lathe knurling (diamond
shape is formed on the cylindrical work
piece)
Q: Milling slotting (this operation
performed only in milling machine)
R: Grinding Dressing (Dressing is a
procedure to remove a layer of abrasive
from the surface of
grinding wheel)
S: Drilling Counter boring (is like an
enlarging the dia of already drilled hole)
46.
[Ans. D]
The most appropriate choice is EDM as by
taking a
square tool it can be
done with lesser time and loss.
47.
[Ans. *] Range 14.6 to 14.8
Volume flow rate should be equal

t
w
v
t w v
ru st

t
r os
rs

n= 0.2, T=1.5 min
Tool life for maximum production
[(
42.
[Ans. B]
From the previously described diagram
we can get the relation
N=
os
s
N normal force acting at the chip tool
interface
40.
w v
r t
th
th
th
Page 342
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
48.
[Ans. B]
t
With increase in shear angle,

cutting force decreases (Q)
chip thickness decreases (S)
So, Q and S
54.
49.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. *]Range 0.70 to 0.72

Max. uncut chip thickness
F=Feed , Z=Number of teeth

N= rotational speed
d= depth of cut,
D= cutter dia
so
Force =
50.
51.
[Ans. *] Range 0.08 to 0.12

Given
r v,
t
55.
[Ans. B]
The principle of material removal in ECM
s r
ys ws
56.
[Ans. A]
As rake angle increase, lip angle
decreases, shear plane area decreases and
hence shear force and cutting force
reduced.
57.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. D]
Ultrasonic machining and Abrasive jet
machining utilizing mechanical energy.
Electrochemical
machining
utilizing
electrochemical energy
Laser Beam machining utilizing thermal
energy .
t
t
Maximum possible draft
coefficient of friction between roll and

work
R = Roll radius
58.

Material removal rate,
s
s
t
52.
[Ans. C]
Extra hardness is imparted to work piece
due to server rate of strain
53.
[Ans. D]
Reduction in friction angle increases
shear angle.
s
Average power consumption,
s
tt
th
th
th
Page 343
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Metrology and Inspection

ME 2005
1.
In order to have interference fit, it is
essential that the lower limit of the shaft
should be
(A) greater than the upper limit of the
hole
(B) lesser then the upper limit of the
hole
(C) greater than the lower limit of the
hole
(D) lesser then the lower limit of the hole
Drill
spindle
Drill table
If Rp = RQ> 0, which one of the following

would
be
consistent
with
the
observation?
(A) The drill spindle rotational axis is
coincident with the drill spindle
taper hole axis
(B) The drill spindle rotational axis
intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point P
(C) The drill spindle rotational axis is
parallel to the drill spindle taper hole
axis
(D) The drill spindle rotational axis
intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point Q.
ME 2007
A hole is specified as
mm. The
mating shaft has a clearance fit with
minimum clearance of 0.01 mm. The
tolerance on the shaft is 0.04 mm. The
maximum clearance in mm between the
hole and the shaft is
(A) 0.04
(C) 0.10
(B) 0.05
(D) 0.11
ME 2008
4.
A displacement sensor (a dial indicator)
measures the lateral displacement of a
mandrel mounted on the taper hole inside
a drill spindle. The mandrel axis is an
extension of the drill spindle taper hole
axis and the protruding portion of the
mandrel surface is perfectly cylindrical.
Measurements are taken with the sensor
placed at two positions P and Q as shown
in figure. The readings are recorded as Rx
= maximum deflection minus minimum
deflection, corresponding to sensor
position at X, over one rotation.
sensor
Q
ME 2006
2.
A ring gauges is used to measure
(A) outside diameter but not roundness
(B) roundness but not outside diameter
(C) both outside diameter and
roundness
(D) only external threads
3.
mandrel
ME 2009
5.
What are the upper and lower limits of
the shaft represented by 60 ?
Use the following data:
Diameter 60 lies in the diameter step of
50 -80mm.
Fundamental tolerance unit,
i = in m = 0.45
, where D
is the representative size in mm;
Tolerance value for IT8 = 25i.
u
t
v t o or
shaft = 5.5
(A) Lower limit = 59.924mm, Upper
Limit = 59.970mm
(B) Lower limit = 59.954mm, Upper
Limit = 60.000mm
(C) Lower limit = 59.970mm, Upper
Limit = 60.016mm
(D) Lower limit = 60.00mm, Upper Limit
= 60.046mm
th
th
th
Page 344
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2010
6.
A taper hole is inspected using a CMM,
with a probe of 2 mm diameter. At a
height, Z = 10 mm from the bottom, 5
points are touched and a diameter of
circle (not compensated for probe size) is
obtained as 20 mm. Similarly, a 40 mm
diameter is obtained at a height Z = 40
mm. The smaller diameter (in mm) of
hole at Z = 0 is
ME 2013
10.
Cylindrical pins of
mm diameter
are electroplated in a shop. Thickness of
the plating is
micron. Neglecting
gauge tolerances, the size of the GO gage
in mm to inspect the plated components
is
(A) 25.042
(C) 25.074
(B) 25.052
(D) 25.084
11.
A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread

angle
is inspected for its pitch
diameter using 3 wire method. The
diameter of the best size wire in mm is
(A) 0.866
(C) 1.154
(B) 1.000
(D) 2.000
Z = 40
Z = 20
Z=0
(A) 13.334
(B) 15.334
7.
(C) 15.442
(D) 15.542
sh t h s
so
. The
respective
values
of
fundamental
deviation and tolerance are
(A) 0.025, 0.008
(B) 0.025, 0.016
(C) 0.009, 0.008
(D) 0.009, 0.016
ME 2014
12. For the given assembly: 25 H7/g8, match
Group A with Group B
Group A
Group B
P. H
I.
Shaft Type
Q. IT8
II. Hole Type
R. IT7
III. Hole Tolerance Grade
S. g
IV. Shaft Tolerance Grade
(A) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
(B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
13.
The flatness of a machine bed can be

measured using
(A) Vernier calipers
(B) Auto collimator
(C) Height gauge
oo
rs
ros op
14.
The diameter of a recessed ring was

measured by using two spherical balls of
diameter
mmand
mm as
shown in the figure.
ME 2011
8.
A hole is of dimension
mm. The
corresponding shaft is of dimension
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
mm. The resulting assembly has

loose running fit
close running fit
transition fit
interference fit
ME 2012
9.
In an interchangeable assemble, shafts of
size
mm mate with holes of
size
mm. The maximum
interference (in microns) in the assembly
is
(A) 40
(C) 20
(B) 30
(D) 10
Recessed
ring
t r
th
th
th
Page 345
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
The
distance
and
. The diameter (D, in, mm)
of the ring gauge is _______________
15.
condition, the dimension (in mm) of the

GO plug gauge as per the unilateral
tolerance system is
(A)
A GO-No GO plug gauge is to be designed

for measuring a hole of nominal diameter
25 mm with a hole tolerance of 0.015
mm. Considering 10% of work tolerance
to be the gauge tolerance and no wear
(B)
(C)
(D)

1.
[Ans. A]
For making interference fit, seeing the
figure it is essential that lower limit of
shaft should be greater than upper limit
of hole.
5.
[Ans. A]
D=
= 63.25 mm
i = 0.45 (D)1/3 + 0.001Dm
= 1.856
m=
Tolerance = 25i = 46.4
m
Fundamental deviation
(5.5) D 0.41
= 30.113 10-6
= 0.030 mm (absolute)
High limit = Basic size Fundamental
deviation
= 60 0.030 = 59.97
Lower limit = High limit Tolerance
= 59.77 0.0464 = 59.924mm
6.
[Ans. A]
Diameter d = 2 mm.
Upper limit of Shaft
Lower limit of shaft

Upper limit of hole
Lower limit of hole
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. C]
Minimum clearance
= Minimum hole size Maximum shaft size
x u sh t s z
= 40.00 0.01 = 39.99 mm
Tolerance on shaft= 0.04mm
Minimum shaft size= 39.99 0.04 = 39.95
Maximum clearance
= Maximum hole size Minimum shaft size
= 40.05 39.95
= 0.10
4.
Z=
40
=
40
Z=
20
=
20
Z=0
10
[Ans. C]
Equal deflection in both sensors means
eccentricity parallel to the axis.
t
x
x
th
th
th
Page 346
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
t z
Z= 40
13.
[Ans. B]
Auto collimator flatness of machine bed
like lathe
14.
40mm
30
40
20mm
Z= 10
A x
10
h suppos
Z=0
7.
8.
9.
[Ans. D]
Tolerance = (35 0.009) (35 0.025)
= 0.016
Fundamental deviation is the deviation
close to zero line = 0.009,
H=
h
h
h
[Ans. C]
Size of shaft =
+0.030
Hole
+0.020
Shaft
0.010
Maximum interference
=0.040
15.
[Ans. D]
Maximum thickness of plating = 0.03 +
0.002=0.032 mm
Size of Go gauge = 25.02+0.032 = 25.084mm
[Ans. C]
For
thr
12.
[Ans. D]
P. H
Q. IT8
R. IT7
S. g
mm
+0.040
11.
mm
Size of hole =
10.
so
[Ans. C]
Transition fit.
25 mm
st w r s v
[Ans. D]
o
Given
Work tolerance = 0.015 (0.015)
Given gauge tolerance = 10% of work
tolerance
It is asked in unilateral tolerance system
ow r
to
u
Hole Type (this symbol made

for hole type shafts)
Represent shaft tolerance
Represents cut hole tolerance
Shaft Type (small letter used for
shaft).
th
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Page 347
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

ME 2005
1.
The tool of an NC machine has to move
along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10)
while performing an operation. The
center of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one
of the following NC tool path commands
performs
the
above
mentioned
operation?
(A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
2.
ME 2008
and 6:
In the feed drive of a Point to point
open loop CNC drive, a stepper motor
rotating at 200 steps/rev drives a table
through a gear box and lead screw nut
mechanism (pitch = 4mm, number of
starts =1).
The gear ratio = (
given by U = . The stepper motor (driven

by voltage pulses from a pulse generator)
executes 1 step/ pulse of the pulse
generator. The frequency of the pulse
train from the pulse generator is f =
10,000 pulses per minute.
Which among the NC operations given

below are continuous path operations?
Arc Welding (AW) Milling (M)
Drilling (D)
Laser Cutting of
Sheet Metal (LC)
(A) AW, LC and M
(B) AW, D, LC and M
(C) D, LC, P and SW
(D) D, LC and SW
Punching in Sheet
Metal (P)
Spot Welding
(SW)
ME 2006
3.
NC contouring is an example of
(A) continuous path positioning
(B) point-to-point positioning
(C) absolute positioning
(D) incremental positioning
) is
Pulse
Generator
Table
Steeper
motor
Gear
Box
Nut
Lead
screw
5.
The Basic Length Unit (BLU), i.e. , the

table movement corresponding to 1 pulse
of the pulse generator, is
(A) 0.5 microns
(B) 5 microns
(C) 50 microns
(D) 500 microns
6.
A customer insists on a modification to

change the BLU the CNC drive to 10
microns without changing the table
speed. The modification can be
accomplished by
ME 2007
4.
Which type of motor is NOT used in axis
or spindle drives of CNC machine tools?
(A) induction motor
(B) dc servo motor
(C) stepper motor
(D) linear servo motor
(A) changing U to and reducing f to

(B) changing U to and increasing f to 2f
(C) changing
U to
and keeping f
unchanged
(D) keeping U unchanged and increasing
f to 2f.
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.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
or
r t
oo s sur
w
require
(A) a set of grid points on the surface
(B) a set of grid control points
(C) four bounding curves defining the
surface
(D) two bounding curves and a set of
grid control points
ME 2009
8.
Match the following:
NC Code
Definition
P. M05
1. Absolute coordinate
system
Q. G01
2. Dwell
R. G04
3. Spindle stop
S. G90
4. Linear interpolation
(A)
(B)
2
(C)
(D)
9.
Which of the following is the correct data

structure for solid models?
(A) solid part faces edges vertices
(B) solid part edges faces vertices
(C) vertices
edges
faces
solid
parts
(D) vertices faces edges solid
parts
ME 2010
10. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91
X
r r to
(A) circular
interpolation
in
counterclockwise direction and
incremental dimension
(B) circular
interpolation
in
counterclockwise direction and
absolute dimension
(C) circular interpolation in clockwise
direction and incremental dimension
(D) circular interpolation in clockwise
direction and absolute dimension
ME 2012
11. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut
a straight slot of 10 mm width and 2 mm
depth by a cutter of 10 mm diameter
between points (0,0) and (100, 100) on
the XY plane (dimensions in mm). The
feed rate used for milling is 50 mm/min.
Milling time for the slot (in seconds) is
(A) 0
(C) 180
(B) 170
(D) 240
ME 2014
12. For machining a rectangular island
represented by coordinates P(0,0),
Q(100,0), R(100,50) and S(0,50) on a
casting using CNC milling machine, an end
mill with a diameter of 16 mm is used.
The trajectory of the cutter center to
machine the island PQRS is
(A) ( 8, 8), (108, 8), (108, 58),
( 8,58) , ( 8, 8)
(B) (8,8), (94,8), (94,44), (8,44), (8,8)
(C) ( 8,8), (94,0), (94,44), (8,44),
( 8,8)
(D) (0,0), (100,0), (100,50), (50,0), (0,0)
13.
A robot arm PQ with end coordinates

P(0,0) and Q(2,5) rotates counter
clockwise about P in the XY plane by 90.
The new coordinate pair of the end point
Q is
14.
For the CNC part programming, match

Group A with Group B:
Group A
Group B
P: circular interpolation,
I: G02
counter clock wise
Q: dwell
II: G03
R: circular interpolation,
III: G04
clock wise
S: point to point countering
IV: G00
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
(B) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV
(C) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
(D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV
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Page 349
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. D]
10.
[Ans. C]
2.
[Ans. A]
11.
[Ans. B]
to
3.
[Ans. A]
NC contouring is an example
continuous path of positioning.
=141.42mm
/mm
of
rt
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. A]
Stepper motor 200 steps /rev = 200
pulses/ rev
Pitch = 4mm, no. of start =1, Gear ratio =
12.
[Ans. A]
The best option is A because we have to
consider the dimension of cutting tool
also we have to take co-ordinate of
cutting tool from (-8,-8).
13.
[Ans. B]
os
[s
F=10,000 pulses / mim

pu s s
r v o
otor
rev of
lead screw
r
1 pulse =
st
= 5microns =
BLU ------- answer B

Feed =
pu s /min =
/min
For changing BLU = 10 micron
= 0.01 mm
GEAR ratio (U) has to be reduced to
pu s s /min
pu s s
= 5000
So F has to be reduced to F/2.
7.
[Ans. B]
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. C]
Correct data structure for solid models is
given by
vertices edges faces solid parts
s
os
th
]
X
X
X
s
14.
][
os
os
[Ans. A]
G00 Print to point movement
G01 Liner interpolation
G02 Circular interpolation clock wise
G03 Circular Interpolation counter clock
wise
G04 dwell for a specific time
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Industrial Engineering
Production Planning and control

ME 2005
1.
The distribution of lead-time demand for
an item is as follows:
Lead time demand Probability
80
0.20
100
0.25
120
0.30
140
0.25
The re-order level is 1.25 times the
expected value of the lead-time demand.
The service level is
(A) 25%
(C) 75%
(B) 50%
(D) 100%
2.
A welding operation is time-studied

during which an operator was pace-rated
as 120%. The operator took, on an
average, 8 minutes for producing the
weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances
are allowed for this operation, the
expected standard production rate of the
weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is
(A) 45
(C) 55
(B) 50
(D) 60
3.
The sales of a product during the last four

years were 860, 880, 870 and 890 units.
The forecast for the fourth year was 876
units. If the forecast for the fifth year,
using simple exponential smoothing, is
equal to the forecast using a three period
moving average, the value of the
exponential smoothing constant is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
4.
An assembly activity is represented on a

Operation Process Chart by the symbol
(A)
(C) D
(B) A
(D) O
ME 2006
5.
In an MRP system, component demand is:
(A) forecasted
(B) established by the master production
schedule
(C) calculated by the MRP system from
the master production schedule
(D) ignored
ME 2008
6.
A moving average system is used for
forecasting weekly demand.
t and
t are sequences of forecasts with
parameters m and m , respectively,
where m and m (m > m ) denote the
number of weeks over which the moving
averages are taken. The actual demand
shows a step increase from to at a
certain time. Subsequently,
(A) neither F1(t) nor F2(t) will catch up
with the value d2
(B) both sequences F1(t) and F2(t) will
reach d2 in the same period
(C) F1(t) will attain the value d2 before
F2(t)
(D) F2(t) will attain the value d2 before
F1(t)
ME 2009
7.
Which of the following forecasting
methods takes a fraction of forecast error
into account for the next period forecast?
(A) simple average method
(B) moving average method
(C) weighted moving average method
(D) exponential smoothening method
ME 2010
8.
Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an
example of
(A) product layout (C) manual layout
(B) process layout (D) fixed layout
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Page 351
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GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
The demand and forecast for February

are 12000 and 10275, respectively. Using
single exponential smoothening method
(smoothening coefficient = 0.25), forecast
for the month of March is
(A) 431
(C) 10706
(B) 9587
(D) 11000
ME 2014
11. In exponential smoothening method,
which one of the following is true?
(A) 0 an high value of is use
for stable demand
(B) 0 an high value of is use
for unstable demand
(C) an high value of is use for
stable demand
(D) 0 an high value of is use for
unstable demand
ME 2012
10. Which one of the following is NOT a
decision taken during the aggregate
production planning stage?
(A) Scheduling of machines
(B) Amount of labour to be committed
(C) Rate at which production should
happen
(D) Inventory to be carried forward
12.
The actual sales of a product in different

months of a particular year are given
below:
September 180
October
280
November 250
December 190
January
240
February
?
The forecast of the sales, using the 4month moving average method, for the
month of February is _______

1.
[Ans. C]
Expected value of lead time demand
X
00
0
Z 0
Service level = 0.74
0
2.
[Ans. A]
Rating factor = 1.2
Normal time = 1.2 8 = 9.6 minute
X
Reorder level
Standard time = 9.6 + 9.6
= 140
00
= 10.56 minute/piece
Total time available = 860 minute
So, production rate =
wel joint
ROL
3.
[Ans. C]
0
Reorder level = X
0
Z
4.
[Ans. D]
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Page 352
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
6.
[Ans. C]
In a MRP system, component demand is
calculated by the MRP system from the
master Production Schedule.
Responsibility and stability
eman
fore ast
[Ans. D]
Since (m2 < m1), weightage of the latest
demand would be more in F2 (t)
Hence it will attain the actual value
earlier.
7.
[Ans. D]
8.
[Ans. A]
9.
[Ans. C]
time
ta le
esponsiveness
And we know that
i e um er of o servation is more in
Smoothed average forecast

period t.
Previous Period forecast
Smoothing Constant
Previous Period demand
0
0 25 (12000-10275)
= 10706.5
10.
[Ans. A]
11.
[Ans. B]
We know that
for
Responsiveness indicates that forecast

have a fluctuating or swing pattern used
for new product and for this value of n is
kept low stability means that forecast
pattern is level or flat, so best option is B.
12.

month moving average
0
0
0
0
Fore cast of Sale, For month of February
= 240
Where N = number of observation
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Inventory Control
ME 2006
1.
Consider the following data for an item.
Price quoted by a supplier
Order quantity Unit price
(units)
(Rs.)
< 500
10
500
9
4.
In a machine shop, pins of 15 mm

diameter are produced at a rate of 1000
per month and the same is consumed at a
rate of 500 per month.
The production and consumption
continue simultaneously till the maximum
inventory is reached. Then inventory is
allowed to reduced to zero due to
consumption. The lost size of production
is 1000. If backlog is not allowed, the
maximum inventory level is
(A) 400
(C) 600
(B) 500
(D) 700
5.
The maximum level of inventory of an

item is 100 and it is achieved with infinite
replenishment rate. The inventory
becomes zero over one and half month
due to consumption at a uniform rate.
This cycle continues throughout the year.
Ordering cost is Rs. 100 per order and
inventory carrying cost is Rs. 10 per item
per month. Annual cost (in Rs.) of the
plan, neglecting material cost, is
(A) 800
(C) 4800
(B) 2800
(D) 6800
6.
Capacities of production of an item over 3

consecutive months in regular time are
100, 100 and 80 and in overtime are
20, 20 and 40. The demands over those 3
months are 90, 130 and 110. The cost of
production in regular time and overtime
are respectively Rs. 20 per item and
Rs. 24 per item. Inventory carrying cost is
Rs. 2 per item per month. The levels of
starting and final inventory are nil.
Backorder is not permitted. For minimum
cost of plan, the level of planned
production in overtime in the third month
is
(A) 40
(C) 20
(B) 30
(D) 0
Annual demand: 2500 units per year

Ordering cost: Rs.100 per order
Inventory holding rate: 25% of unit price.
The optimum order quantity (in units) is:
(A) 447
(C) 500
(B) 471
(D) 600
2.
A manufacturing shop processes sheet

metal jobs, wherein each job must pass
through two machines (M1 and M2, in
that order). The processing time
(in hours) for these jobs is:
Machine Jobs
P
Q
R
S
T
U
M1
15 32 8
27 11 16
M2
6
19 13 20 14 7
The optimal make-span (in hours) of the
shop is:
(A) 120
(C) 109
(B) 115
(D) 79
ME 2007
3.
The net requirements of an item over 5
consecutive weeks are 50 0 15 20 20.
The inventory carrying cost and ordering
cost are Re. 1 per item per week and Rs. 100
per order respectively. Starting inventory is
zero Use Least Unit Cost Te hnique for
developing the plan. The cost of the plan (in
Rs.) is
(A) 200
(C) 255
(B) 250
(D) 260
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GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2008
7.
The product structure of an assembly P is
shown in the figure.
Estimated demand for end product P is as
follows
week Demand
1
1000
2
1000
3
1000
4
1000
5
1200
6
1200
Ignore lead times for assembly and subassembly. Production capacity (per week)
for component R is the bottleneck
operation. Starting with zero inventory,
the smallest capacity that will ensure a
feasible production plan up to week 6 is
P
Assembly
Q
ME 2009
9.
A company uses 2555 units of an item
annually. Delivery lead time is 8 days. The
recorder point (in number of units) to
achieve optimum inventory is
(A) 7
(C) 56
(B) 8
(D) 60
ME 2010
10. Annual demand for window frames is
10000. Each frame costs Rs. 200 and
ordering cost is Rs. 300 per order.
Inventory holding cost is Rs. 40 per frame
per year. The supplier is willing to offer
2% discount if the order quantity is 1000
or more, and 4% if order quantity is 2000
or more. If the total cost is to be
minimized, the retailer should
(A) order 200 frames every time
(B) accept 2% discount
(C) accept 4% discount
(D) order Economic Order Quantity
11.
Sub-Assembly
S
(A) 1000
(B) 1200
8.
(C) 2200
(D) 2400
A set of 5 jobs is to be processed on a

single machine. The processing time
(in days) table below. The holding cost for
each job is Rs. K per day
Job
Processing Time
P
5
Q
2
R
3
S
2
T
1
A schedule that minimizes the total
inventory cost is
(A) T S Q R P
(B) P R S Q T
(C) T R S Q P
(D) P Q R S T
Littles law is a relationship between

(A) stock level and lead time in an
inventory system
(B) waiting time and length of the queue
in a queuing system
(C) number of machines and job due
dates in a scheduling problem
(D) uncertainty in the activity time and
project completion time
ME 2011
12. The word kanban is most appropriately
associated with
(A) economic order quantity
(B) just in time production
(C) capacity planning
(D) product design
ME 2013
13. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a
rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in
the order of their arrival. The average
time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min.
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Page 355
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Assuming that customer arrivals form a

poisson process and service times are
exponential, the average waiting time in
queue in min is
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
14.
15.
In simple exponential smoothing forecasting,

to give higher weightage to recent demand
information, the smoothing constant must be
close to
(A) 1
(C) 0.5
(B) Zero
(D) 1.0
In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D
point P(5,10) is to be obtained about a
line which passes through the origin and
makes an angle of
counter clockwise
with the X axis. The coordinates of the
transformed point will be
(A) (7.5,5)
(C) (7.5, - 5 )
(B) (10, 5)
(D) (10, - 5)
Process
I
II
III
IV
(A) I
(B) II
18.
Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate

of 5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of the
jobs follows Poisson distribution. The
average service time of a job on the
facility is 40 minutes. The service time
follows exponential distribution. Idle time
(in hours) at the facility per shift will be
0
A component can be produced by any of
the four processes I, II, III and IV. The
fixed cost and the variable cost for each of
the processes are listed below. The most
economical process for producing a batch
of 100 pieces is
Fixed Cost
(in Rs.)
20
50
40
10
(C)
(D)
Variable cost per

piece in (in Rs.)
3
1
2
4
III
IV
19.
Consider the following data with

reference to elementary deterministic
economic order quantity model
Annual demand of an item
100000
Unit price of the item (in Rs.)
10
Inventory carrying cost per 1.5
unit per year (in Rs.)
Unit order cost (in Rs.)
30
The total number of economic orders per
year to meet the annual demand is ______
20.
A manufacturer can produce 12000

bearing per day. The manufacturer
received an order of 8000 bearing per day
from a customer. The cost of holding a
bearing in stock in stock is Rs.0.20 per
month. Setup cost per production run is
Rs. 500. Assuming 300 working days in a
year, the frequency of production run
should be
(A) 4.5 days
(C) 6.8 days
(B) 4.5 months
(D) 6.8 months
21.
Demand during lead time with associated

probabilities is shown below:
Demand Probability
50
0.15
70
0.14
75
0.21
80
0.20
85
0.30
Expected demand during lead time is ____
22.
At a work station, 5 jobs arrive every

minute. The mean time spent on each job
in the work station is 1/8 minute. The
mean steady state number of jobs in the
system is _______
ME 2014
16. The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in
a random manner. The probability
distribution of number of arrivals of jobs
in a fixed time interval is
(A) Normal
(C) Erlang
(B) Poisson
(D) Beta
17.
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Page 356
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. C]
Case I: Let EOQ is less than 500
C
0 0
3.
[Ans. B]
Weeks Qty
Carrying Cost
1
50
0
1 2
50
0
1 3
65
30
1 4
85
90
1 5
105
170
4
20
0
1 5
40
20
Order
Total Limit Cost
Cost
Cost
100
100
2
100
100
2
100
130
2
100
190
unit ost
100
270
2.57
100
100
5
100
120
Least ost
Weeks
1
2
3
4
Demand
50
0
15
20
Order Qty 65
0
0
40
Entering
15
15
0
20
inventory
Carrying
15
15
0
20
cost
Order cost 100 0
0
100
Total 115 115 130 130 250
Total ost for the plan
s
0
Case II: Let EOQ is greater than 500

C
0
=
471.40
which is against the assumption

When price break occurs
at Q = 447.21
at Q = 500
TIC = 1118.03
TIC = 1062.5
TIC at Q = 447.21
TC
C
0
C
0
00
= 1118.03
TIC at Q = 500
TIC = (average inventory)
(unit
inventory cost) + (No. of order per
year) (cost of order)
=
=
4.
[Ans. B]
t p
00
Hence, quantity to be ordered is 500.

2.
[Ans. B]
Using Johnsons algorithm
M1
M2
IN
OUT IN
OUT
R 0
8
8
21
T 8
19
21
35
S
19
46
46
66
Q 46
78
78
97
U 78
94
97
104
P 94
109
109 115
So optimum make span = 115
5
20
0
0
0
0
250
r
000
00 = 500 units
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Page 357
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
6.
7.
8.
[Ans. D]
Maximum inventory
00
Inventory cycle = 1.5 months
um er of y les require per year
month
y les
months
Ordinary cost = 8 100 = Rs 800
Average inventory per cycle = 100/2 = 50
Inventory carrying cost = Rs.10 per item
per month
0
per item percycle
Total Inventory carrying cost
= 50 8 15 = Rs. 6000
Total ost
00 6000 = 6800
[Ans. B]
For minimum total cost, the entire regular
time production capacity has to be used
Hence total over time capacity required
0
0
0
00
00
0
= 50
20 overtime units will be used up in the
first 2 months hence 30 overtime units
are needed to fulfill the 3rd month
demand
Since carrying costs are there, it is
obvious that to minimize costs, these 30
units shoul
e pro u e is month
using overtime capacity.
[Ans. C]
The M.R.P. for R is given by
Week Demand
Inventory
1
2000
P 2000
2
2000
2P 4000
3
2000
3P 6000
4
2000
4P 8000
5
2400
5P 10400
6
2400
6P 12800
If 6P 12800 0 then the capacity is
feasible
Minimization, 6P = 12800
P 2200
9.
[Ans. C]
Reorder point
2555
unit
x
365 days
or x= 56 units
Alternately
Reorder point = Safety stock + (delivery
lead time
0
10.
[Ans. C]
Total = purchase cost + holding cost +
ordering cost
It is a case of inventory with price breaks.
= 387 units
For Q = 387
T C
C
0000
C
00
00
= Rs. 2015492
For Q = 1000
T C
0000
00
0
00
= Rs.1983000
For Q = 2000.
0000
00
0
00
ept % is ount
11.
[Ans. A]
To minimize the total inventory cost, i.e.
the holding cost, the job with the least
processing time should be done first.
000
0
00
[Ans. B]
Littles Law is a relationship etween
L and W (also L &W )
L
W
L
W
L Expected no.of customers in System.
W
Expected waiting time in system.
th
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Page 358
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GATE QUESTION BANK
L
W
Expected no. of customers in queue

Expected Waiting time in queue.
12.
[Ans. B]
13.
[Ans. C]
14.
[Ans. D]
15.
[Ans. B]
y
18.
19.
000
No. of orders
20.
(5, 10)
y
x
(10, 5)
0
17.
Unit order cost = 30,
45
16.
[Ans. B]
Arrival pattern of customers: Although
arrival might follow any pattern the
frequency employed assumption which
support many real world situation is that
arrivals are poison distribution arrival is
random, and random arrival is best
es ri e y oissons istri ution
[Ans. B]
Average rate of providing facility 5 in 8 hrs.
The average service time = 40 minute
So total time required to provide service
= 0
00 mins
= 3.33 hrs.
Ideal time = 8 3.33 = 4.667
[Ans. B]
Cost
0
Cost
0
Cost
0
Cost
0
00
00
00
00
0
0
0
0
[Ans. C]
Manufacturer can produce 12,000
bearings /day
Received order from a customer is 8000
bearings/day
Carrying cost is Rs.0.20/month
s
year
Working days are 300/year
Set up cost is Rs. 500/production
Optimal production size is,
Consideration 366 days/years

D = 000
000
000
U
0
00
0
Frequency of the production run,
p
0
000
days
days
21.
Expected demand during lead time
0
0 0
0 0
0
0 0
22.
[Ans. *]Range 1.62 to 1.70

L
Mean steady state number of jobs in the
system L
Given, D = Total demand = 100000
C
Inventory carrying cost per unit per
year = 1.5
L
th
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.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Operations Research
ME 2005
1 & 2:
Consider a linear programming problem
with two variables and two constraints.
The objective function is: Maximize
X +X . The corner points of the feasible
region are (0, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0) & (
1.
2.
3.
4.
The number of activities that need to be

crashed to reduce the project duration by 1
day is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
5.
A component can be produced by any of

the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process
I has a fixed cost of Rs.20 and variable
cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a
fixed cost of Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re.
1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of
Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece.
Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs.10 and
variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the
company wishes to produce 100 pieces of
the component, from economic point of
view it should choose
(A) Process I
(C) Process III
(B) Process II
(D) Process IV
6.
Consider a single server queuing model

with Poisson arrivals ( = 4 / hour) and
exponential service ( = 4 / hour). The
number in the system is restricted to a
maximum of 10. The probability that a
person who comes in leaves without
joining the queue is
(A)
(C)
(B) 0
(D)
).
If an additional constraint X + X 5 is
added, the optimal solution is
(A) (
(C) (
(B) (
(D) (5,0)
Let Y and Y be the decision variables of

the dual and v and v be the slack variables
of the dual of the given linear programming
problem. The optimum dual variables are
(A) Y and Y
(C) Y and v
(B) Y and v
(D) v and v
A company has two factories S1, S2 and two
warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1
and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively.
Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20
units and a maximum of 40 units.
Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20
units and, over and above, it can take as
much as can be supplied. A balanced
transportation problem is to be formulated
for the above situation. The number of
supply points, the number of demand
points, and the total supply (or total
demand) in the balanced transportation
problem respectively are
(A) 2, 4, 90
(C) 3, 4, 90
(B) 2, 4, 110
(D) 3, 4, 110
A project has six activities (A to F) with
respective activity durations 7, 5, 6, 6, 8, 4
days. The network has three paths A B,
C D and E F. All the activities can be
crashed with the same crash cost per day.
ME 2006
7 & 8:
Consider a PERT network for a project
involving six tasks (a to f).
Task Predecessor Expected
Variance of
task time
the task time
(in days)
(in ays )
a
30
25
b
a
40
64
c
a
60
81
d
b
25
9
e
b, c
45
36
f
th
d, e
th
20
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Page 360
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
The expected completion time of the

project is:
(A) 238 days
(C) 171 days
(B) 224 days
(D) 155 days
Item
The standard deviation of the critical path

of the project is:
(C) 00 days
(A)
days
(D)
days
(B)
days
The table gives details of an assembly
line.
Work station
I II III IV V VI
Total task time 7 9 7 10 9 6
at the
workstation
(in minutes)
What is the line efficiency of the assembly
line?
(A) 70%
(C) 80%
(B) 75%
(D) 85%
10.
A stockist wishes to optimize the number

of perishable items he needs to stock in
any month in his store. The demand
distribution for this perishable item is:
Demand (in
2
3
4
5
units)
Probability
0.10 0.35 0.35 0.20
The stockist pays Rs.70 for each item and
he sells each at Rs.90. If the stock is left
unsold in any month, he can sell the item
at Rs.50 each. There is no penalty for
unfulfilled demand. To maximize the
expected profit, the optimal stock level is:
(A) 5 units
(C) 3 units
(B) 4 units
(D) 2 units
11.
A firm is required to procure three items

(P, Q and R). The prices quoted for these
items (in Rs.) by suppliers S1, S2 and S3
are given in table. The management policy
requires that each item has to be supplied
by only one supplier and one supplier
supply only one item. The minimum total
cost (in Rs.) of procurement to the firm is
Suppliers
S1
S2
S3
110
120
130
115
140
140
125
145
165
(A) 350
(B) 360
12.
(C) 385
(D) 395
The number of customers arriving at a

railway reservation counter is Poisson
distributed with an arrival rate of eight
customers per hour. The reservation clerk
at this counter takes six minutes per
customer on an average with an
exponentially distributed service time.
The average number of the customers in
the queue will be
(A) 3
(C) 4
(B) 3.2
(D) 4.2
ME 2008
Consider the Linear Programme (LP)
Max 4x + 6y
subject to
x
y
x
y
x y0
13. After introducing slack variables s and t,
the initial basic feasible solution is
represented by the table below (basic
variables are s = 6 and t = 6, and the
objective function value is 0).
4
6
0
0
0
S 3
2
1
0
6
T 2
3
0
1
6
x
y
s
t
RHS
After some simplex iterations, the
following table is obtained
0
0
0
2
12
S 5/3
0
1
1/3 2
Y 2/3
1
0
1/3
2
x
y
s
t
RHS
From this, one can conclude that
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) The LP has a unique optimal solution

(B) The LP has an optimal solution that
is not unique
(C) The LP is infeasible
(D) The LP is unbounded
14.
15.
The dual for the LP is

(A) Min 6u + 6v
subject to
u
v
u
v
u v0
(B) Max 6u + 6v
subject to
u
v
2u + 3v 6
u v0
(C) Max 4u + 6v
subject to
u
v
u
v
u, v 0
(D) Min 4u + 6v
subject to
u
v
2u + 3v 6
u v0
16.
For the standard transportation linear

program with m sources and n
destinations and total supply equaling
total demand, an optimal solution (lowest
cost) with the smallest number of nonzero xij values (amounts from source i to
destination j) is desired. The best upper
bound for this number is
(A) mn
(C) m + n
(B) 2(m + n)
(D) m + n 1
17.
In an M/M/1 queuing system, the number

of arrivals in an interval of length T is a
Poisson random variable (i.e. the
probability of there being n arrivals in an
interval of length T is
. The
probability density function f(t) of the

inter-arrival time is given by
(C)
(A)
(
)
(D)
(B)
ME 2009
Common Data Questions: 18 & 19:
Consider the following PERT network:
3
For the network below, the objective is to

find the length of the shortest path from
node P to node G. Let dij be the length of
directed arc from node i to node j.
Let sj be the length of the shortest path
from P to node j. Which of the following
equations can be used to find sG?
Q
P
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SG = Min(SQ, SR)
SG = Min (SQ dQG, SR dRG)
SG = Min(SQ+dQG, SR+dRG)
SG = Min(dQG,dRG)
The optimistic time, most likely time and

pessimistic time of all the activities are
given in the table below.
Activity Optimistic
Most likely
Pessimistic
time (days) time (days) time (days)
12
1
2
3
13
5
6
7
14
3
5
7
25
5
7
9
35
2
4
6
56
4
5
6
47
4
6
8
67
2
3
4
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GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
The critical path duration of the network

(in days) is
(A) 11
(C) 17
(B) 14
(D) 18
19.
The standard deviation of the critical path

is
(A) 0.33
(C) 0.77
(B) 0.55
(D) 1.66
20.
Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given

below:
Jobs
Processing Time (days)
I
4
II
9
III
5
IV
10
V
6
VI
8
Average flow time (in days) for the above
jobs using Shortest Processing Time rule is
(A) 20.83
(C) 125.00
(B) 23.16
(D) 139.00
21.
Consider
the
following
Linear
Programming Problem (LPP):
Maximum z
x
x
Subject to x
x
x
x
x 0 x 0
(A) The LPP has a unique optimal
solution
(B) The LPP is infeasible
(C) The LPP is unbounded
(D) The LPP has multiple optimal
solutions
22.
The expected time

of a PERT activity
in terms of optimistic time
,
pessimistic time ( ) and most likely time
is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2010
Four jobs to be processed on a machine as
per data listed in the table.
Job
Processing time (in days)
Due Date
1
4
6
2
7
9
3
2
19
4
8
17
23. If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used
to sequence the jobs, the number of jobs
delayed is
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
24.
Using the Shortest Processing Time (SPT)

rule, total tardiness is
(A) 0
(C) 6
(B) 2
(D) 8
25.
The project activities, precedence

relationships and durations are described
in the table. The critical path of the
project is
Activity Precedence
Duration (in
days)
P
3
Q
4
R
P
5
S
Q
5
T
R,S
7
U
R,S
5
V
T
2
W
U
10
(A)
T V
(C)
U W
(B)
T V
(D)
U W
26.
Simplex method of solving linear

programming problem uses
(A) All the points in the feasible region
(B) Only the corner points of the feasible
region
(C) Intermediate points within the
infeasible region
(D) Only the interior points in the
feasible region
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GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2011
Common Data for Question 27 and 28:
One unit of product P1 requires 3 kg of
resource R1 and 1 kg of resource R2. One
unit of product P2 requires 2 kg of
resource R1 and 2 kg of resource R2. The
profits per unit by selling product P1 and
P2 are Rs.2000 and Rs.3000 respectively.
The manufacturer has 90 kg of resource
R1 and 100 kg of resource R2.
27. The unit worth of resource
i.e. dual
price of resource
in Rs/kg is
(A) 0
(C) 1500
(B) 1350
(D) 2000
28.
The manufacturer can make a maximum

profit of Rs.
(A) 60000
(C) 150000
(B) 135000
(D) 200000
29.
Cars arrive at a service station according

to oissons istri ution with a mean rate
of 5 per hour. The service time per car is
exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At
steady state, the average waiting time in
the queue is
(A) 10 minutes
(C) 25 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(D) 50 minutes
ME 2012
Linked Answer Questions Q.30 and Q.31
For a particular project, eight activities
are to be carried out. Their relationships
with other activities and expected
duration are mentioned in the table
below.
Activity
Predecessors
Duration (days)
a
3
b
a
4
c
a
5
d
a
4
e
b
2
f
d
9
g
c, e
6
h
f, g
2
30.
The critical path for the project is

(A) a-b-e-g-h
(C) a-d-f-h
(B) a-c-g-h
(D) a-b-c-f-h
31.
If the duration of activity f alone is

changed from 9 to 10 days, then the
(A) Critical path remains same and the
total duration to complete the
project changes to 19 days.
(B) Critical path and the total duration to
complete the project remains the
same.
(C) Critical path changes but the
duration to complete the project
remains the same.
(D) Critical path changes and the total
duration to complete the project
changes to 17 days.
ME 2013
32. A linear programming problem is shown
below:
Maximize
Subject to
0
0
It has
(A) An unbounded objective function
(B) Exactly one optimal solution
(C) Exactly two optimal solutions
(D) Infinitely many optimal solutions
ME 2014
33. If there are m source and n destinations
in a transportation matrix, the total
number of basic variables in a basic
feasible solution is
(A) m n
(C) m n
(B) m n
(D) m
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Page 364
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GATE QUESTION BANK
34.
A project has four activities P, Q, R

as shown below.
Normal
Predecessor
Activity duration
(days)
and S
Cost
slope
(Rs./d
ay)
P
3
500
Q
7
P
100
R
4
P
400
S
5
R
200
The normal cost of the project is
Rs. 10,000/- and the overhead cost is
Rs. 200/- per day. If the project duration
has to be crashed down to 9 days, the
total cost (in Rupees) of the project is
_______
35.
A minimal spanning tree in network flow

models involves
(A) All the nodes with cycle/loop allowed
(B) All the nodes with cycle/loop not
allowed
(C) Shortest path between start and end
nodes
(D) All the nodes with directed arcs
36.
Consider the project network, where

numbers
along
various
activities
represent the normal time. The free float
on activity 4-6 and the project duration,
respectively, are
(A) 2, 13
(B) 0, 13
37.
Consider
an
objective
function
Z x x
x
x and the constraints
x
x
x
x
x 0 x 0
The maximum value of the objective
function is ________
38.
The total number of decision variables in

the objective function of an assignment
problem of size n n (n jobs and n
machines) is
C n
(A) n
(D) n
(B) 2n
39.
The precedence relations and duration

(in days) of activities of a project network
are given in the table. The total float (in
days) of activities e and f , respectively,
are
Activity Predecessor
Duration
(days)
a
2
b
4
c
a
2
d
b
3
e
c
2
f
c
4
g
d, e
5
(A) 0 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 1
(C) 2, 13
(D) 2, 12
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Page 365
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. B]
7.
[Ans. D]
b
(0, 5)
1
4
30
(0, 2)
d
25
60
c
45
e
20
Critical Path = a
e f
= 30 + 60 + 45 + 20 = 155
days
(0, 5)
Constant equation
on optimal region
Optimal solution, (
40
(4/3, 4/3)
(0, 2)
no effect
8.
[Ans. A]
Standard deviation
2.
[Ans. B]
3.
[Ans. C]
For balance transportation problem,
No. of supply points
=m+n1=2+
1 =3
No. of demand point = 4
Total demand = 50 + 40 = 90
9.
4.
[Ans. C]
Path
Duration
AB
7 + 5 = 12
CD
6 + 6 = 12
EF
8 + 4 = 12
There are three critical paths. So no.of
activities to be crashed = 3
5.
[Ans. B]
Total cost = fixed cost + (Number of
pieces variable cost)
Variable cost of process II is less.
6.
[Ans. A]
When
days =
[Ans. C]
Line efficiency
00
00
0%
Cycle time = max

10.
[Ans. B]
P(d ) = probability that the demand
for Q units or more
arginal profit per unit sol
= 0
0
s 0
=Marginal loss from each unit that is
left unsold
s 0
0
s 0
0
p
0
0
0
Demand Probability
Cumulative
that demand probability
at this level
2
0.1
0.1
0
3
0.35
0.45
0.35
0.8
0.20
1.00
th
th
th
0
0
0
0
0
0
Page 366
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Hence to maximize profit, optimal stock

level is 4.
11.
matrix now, as the revised opportunity

cost matrix
[Ans. C]
P 110 120 130
20
Q 115 140 140
10
35
Thus final assignment is

Item Suppliers Cost
P
120
Q
140
R
125
The minimum cost
= 120 + 140 +125 = Rs. 385
R 125 145 165

Step 1: Substract minimum entry in each
column from all the entries on the column.
20
10
R 15
25
12.
Step 2: Substract minimum entry in each

row of job opportunity cost matrix from
all the entries of the row
15
10
20
Step 3: Draw minimum number of

horizontal and vertical lines to cover all
zeros. This can be done in 2 line, which is
one less than the number of rows (which
is 3). Thus the solution is yet not fixed.
Hence go to steps 4
[Ans. B]
Average number of customer in queue
0
13.
[Ans. B]
Since the relative profit by varying any of
the non basic variable in the second table
does not show any increment, hence the
solution must be optimal. But a change in
the non- basic variable x, gives a relative
profit of zero. So, the LPP has an alternate
optima.
14.
[Ans. A]
In matrix form, the dual of the primal
Max Z = (4 6) ( )
1
0
15
10
20
i.e, Max z = cx
subject to Ax < =
b
Min
x>=0
W = yb
Step 4: From the uncovered entries, the

minimum is 5. Thus, substract 5 from all
the entries, which are uncovered. Add 5 at
junction of lines. We get the following
subject : y A > = C
is given
y > by
=0
The dual for the primal is
th
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Page 367
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Min 6u+6v
Subject 3u+2v 4
2u+3v 6
u, v 0
15.
16.
[Ans. C]
The only way to reach G is then by
reaching Q and QG or reaching R and then
RG.
SG = Min(SQ+ dQG, SR + dRG)
Path
I. 1-3-5-6-
II. 1-2-5-6-
III. 1- 4 -
Thus critical path is I
Critical path duration is 18.
19.
[Ans. D]
In such an L.P.P, m n variables are there
and m + n equations/constraints are
there (satisfying the demand supply
requirements). But one constraint is
removed as total supply equals total
demand. The best upper bound xij values
is (m+n-1).
17.
[Ans. C]
18.
[Ans. D]
Variance = (
Critical path
1-3
3-5
5-6
6-7
Total varian e
Variance
tan ar
15 15
6
5
10 10
18 18
7
20.
4
3
EST = earlisest start time

LFT = latest finish time
Path along which EST and LFT is equal
are called critical path.
Critical path duration is 18 days
Alternately
Activity t
t
t
t
1
5
3
5
2
4
4
2
2
6
5
7
4
5
6
3
3
7
7
9
6
6
8
4
( )
( )
erivation
( )
varian e
0
2 3
2 2 7
1-2
1-3
1-4
2-5
3-5
5-6
4-7
6-7
[Ans. *]
For any Poisson distribution, the
probability density function f(t) is given
by
( )
6 6
3
0 0
1
EST LFT
[Ans. A]
Jobs using
shortest
Possible
time rule
I
III
V
VI
II
IV
Processing
time
(days)
Cumulative
time
(days)
4
5
6
8
9
10
4
9
15
23
32
42
verage time flow
2
6
5
7
4
5
6
3
th
th
th
Page 368
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
[Ans. D]
By Graphical method
25.
[Ans. D]
T
4
1
Q
7
(2, 6) x2 =6
A = (4, 3)
5
7
V
2
W
6
7
10
PRUW (i) 3 + 5 + 5 + 10 = 23
QSTV (ii) 4 + 5 + 7 + 2 = 18
PRTV (iii) 3 + 5 + 7 + 2 = 17
QSUW (iv) 4 + 5 + 5 10 = 24
5 B
2
1
A
1 2
R
5
x2
9 x
1
Max.z = 3x1+2x2
At point B, z = 18x1=4
At point A, z=18
This means LPP has multiple optimal
solutions because both points have same
value.
26.
[Ans. B]
27.
[Ans. A]
28.
[Ans. B]
P1
P2
R1
3
2
R2
1
2
Profit per 2000 3000
unit
X
Y
Zmax = 2000x + 3000y
22.
[Ans. A]
23.
[Ans. C]
Job (j)
Processing time (t )
1
4
2
7
4
8
3
2
Completion time(C )
11
19
21
Due Date ( )
17
19
Availability
90
100
B(0, 45)
A(30, 0)
Lateness(L )
ve Lateness Job is completed after due
date
ve Lateness Job is completed before
due date
jo s elaye
24.
x
y
x
y
Subject to
x
y 0
y 00
x y0
x y0
Zmax = 2000x + 3000y
Corner points satisfying both the
constrains are A(30, 0) B(0, 45).
ZA = 2000 30+3000 0 = 60,000/ZB = 2000 0 + 3000 45 = 1,35,000/Solution is optimal at B; x =0; y = 45
3x + 2y + S1 = 90; 3 0 + 2 45 + S1
= 90 S1 = 0 i.e., R1 resource is fully
utilized.
[Ans. D]
Sequence by shortest processing Time
(SPT)
Job Process Job flow
Due Tardiness
time
time
date
3
2
0
19
0
1
4
6
0
2
7
6 + 7 =13
9
4
4
8
13+8=21 17
4
Total tardiness = 0 + 0 + 4 + 4 = 8
th
th
th
Page 369
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
y
00 0
00
0
i.e., R2 resource is un utilized at
optimality. Hence dual price of R2 is zero.
29.
Feasible region is inside line AD

Optimal solution occurs at either A or D
lets check
0 z
0
(0 ) z
[Ans. D]
Given data:
arrival rate
servi e rate
( )
So exactly one optimal solution at D

hour
hour
verage waiting time in queue
33.
[Ans. C]
34.
[Ans. *] Range 12490 to 12510
hr
0
30.
7 days
100/day
hr
0 minutes
R
4 days
400/day
Various path
A BEGH
days
A CGH
days
A DFH
days
a
f h is critical path.
31.
[Ans. A]
If the duration of activity F is changed
from 9 to 10 days, critical path remains
same and the project duration will
increase to 19 days.
32.
[Ans. B]
Plot constraints
x
y
0
x
y
(0, 10/7)
3x + 7y = 10
D
(0,1.33)
35.
I
II
A
4
S
5 days
200/day
From Heuristic model,

First find the critical path
ays
Crash the lowest cost slope from critical
path
Therefore,
Crashing a tivity y
ays
will be 10 days
Now there are 2 critical paths
i.e., P Q = 10 days
P R S = 10 days.
Crashing 2 activities from each critical
path
i e rashing a tivity y
ay
an rashing a tivity y
ay
Now the project duration is crashed to 9
days.
So, total cost of the project,
0 000
00
ays
00
ays
00
ay
00
ay
00
3 days
500/day
[Ans. C]
B(10/3,0)
A(2,0)
th
[Ans. B]
Spanning tree cyclic property
Cycle property is the basis for kruskals
algorithm
th
th
Page 370
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
1.
2.
36.
Sort all edges in increasing weight

order.
Consider the edges in order. If the
edges does not create a cycle , add it
to the spanning tree otherwise
discard it, stop , when n-1 edges have
been added, because then we must
have spanning tree. So best option
from above property is B.
z
x
x
onstraints
x
x
x
x
x 0 x 0
Co-ordinate
maximum values
(0, 0)
0
(4, 0)
12
(0, 2)
18
So the maximum value of objective
function is 18
[Ans. A]
T
T
T
T
2
3
T
T
0
0
3 T
T
2
4
38.
5
3
6
4
[Ans. A]
Jo
T
T
T
T
T
T
For free float activity on activity 4-6

Free float = (EFT EST) T
39.
n
njo s an n ma hines
Total number of decision variables
T
T
T
T
T
T
[Ans. B]
Project duration 13
37.
a hine
0 a
0
f
T
T
e
g
T
T
T
T
Total float for activity e =

Total float for activity f
th
th
th
Page 371

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