Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Page Ref: 2
Page Ref: 4
Page Ref: 5
Page Ref: 6
Page Ref: 7
Page Ref: 7
Page Ref: 7
decision.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 8
Page Ref: 9
Page Ref: 10
11) Accounts receivable and accounts payable processes are highly structured, which
makes them easy to program.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 11
12) Research and development (R & D) planning and social responsibility planning
are unstructured decisions, which cannot be supported by computerized decision
support systems.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 11
13) The first phase in the decision-making process is design which involves inventing,
developing, and analyzing possible alternative courses of action or solutions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 12
14) Automated decision systems (ADS) are rule-based systems that provide solutions
to repetitive managerial problems, usually in one functional area (e.g., finance,
manufacturing).
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 14
15) The term Decision Support Systems (DSS) can be used as an umbrella term to
describe any computerized system that supports decision making in an organization.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 16
16) The two major DSS types are the model-oriented DSS, in which quantitative
models are used to generate a recommended solution to a problem, and data-oriented
DSS, which support ad hoc reporting and queries.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 17
17) A BI system has three major components: a data warehouse with source data;
business performance management (BPM) for monitoring and analyzing performance;
and a user interface such as a dashboard.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 20
18) Most DSS are constructed to directly support specific decision making. In
contrast, BI systems, in general typically provide accurate and timely information to
support decision support indirectly. This difference is diminishing because decision
support tools are being added to BI software packages.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 24
Page Ref: 26
20) The objective of computerized decision support, regardless of its name or nature,
is to help managers solve problems and assess opportunities faster and better than
would be possible without computers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 27
21) Norfolk Southern Railroad built a ________ application that pulls data from the
data warehouse and then graphically depicts actual performance against planned
performance.
A) dashboard
B) graphical interface
C) transaction processing
D) forecasting
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 3
Page Ref: 3
23) Numerous types of business ________ result from today's business climate.
A) decisions
B) responses
C) support
D) pressures
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 5
24) Companies are facing each of the following impacts of globalization except:
A) Easier to find suppliers and customers in many countries
B) Less complex business environment
C) Cheaper materials
D) More and stronger competitors
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 5
Page Ref: 5
26) Business environment factors that create pressures on organizations include all of
the following except:
A) workforce that is younger and shrinking
B) need for real-time, on-demand transactions
C) booming electronic markets on the Internet
D) innovative marketing methods
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 6
27) One of the major objectives of ________ is to facilitate closing the gap between
the current performance of an organization and its desired performance, as expressed
in its mission, objectives, and goals.
A) business alliances
B) customer relationships
C) business models
D) computerized decision support
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 6
Page Ref: 7
29) Mintzberg's (1980) classic study of top managers suggests that managers perform
ten major roles that can be classified into three major categories. Each of the
following is one of those major categories except:
A) relational
B) interpersonal
C) decisional
D) informational
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
30) For years in the past, managers considered decision making a(n) ________, that
is, a talent acquired over a long period through experience and by using intuition.
A) science
B) strategy
C) art
D) methodology
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
31) According to Mintzberg's ten managerial roles, a ________ is responsible for the
motivation and activation of subordinates.
A) leader
B) figurehead
C) liason
D) spokesperson
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
Page Ref: 7
33) Today's computerized systems possess capabilities that can facilitate decision
support in a number of ways, including each of the following except:
A) Increased productivity of group members
B) Improved communication and collaboration
C) Agility support
D) Reduced environmental pressures
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 9
34) Decision-making processes fall along a continuum that ranges from ________ to
________.
A) highly structured; highly unstructured
B) semistructured; unstructured
C) managerial; strategic
D) ad hoc; nonprogrammed
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 11
35) Phases in the decision-making process include each of the following except:
A) intelligence
B) analysis
C) design
D) choice
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 12
Page Ref: 13
37) A(n) ________ is a rule-based system that provides a solution, usually in one
functional area, such as finance or manufacturing, to a specific repetitive managerial
problem.
A) decision support systems (DSS)
B) transaction processing system (TPS)
C) online analytical processing (OLAP) system
D) automated decision system (ADS)
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 14
38) Which of the following is one of the two major types of Decision Support
Systems?
A) Number-oriented
B) Text-oriented
C) Model-oriented
D) Application-oriented
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 17
Page Ref: 17
40) The major benefit of ________ to the company is the ability to provide accurate
information when needed.
A) data warehouse
B) analytical models
C) management information systems
D) business intelligence
41) Management is a process by which organizational goals are achieved using
________.
42) Making a decision means selecting the best alternative from two or more
________ solutions.
43) The level of organization's ________, or the success of management, depends on
the performance of managerial functions, such as planning, organizing, directing, and
controlling.
44) ________ indicates that an individual's problem-solving capability is limited
when a wide range of diverse information and knowledge is required.
45) ________ defines long-range goals and policies for resource allocation.
46) ________ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.
47) Gorry and Scott-Morton suggested, for example, that for semistructured decisions
and unstructured decisions, conventional ________ and management science (MS)
tools are insufficient.
48) ________ involves transforming the real-world problem into an appropriate
prototype structure.
49) Structured problems, which are encountered repeatedly, have a high level of
________.
50) ________ is the application of scientific approach and mathematical models to the
analysis and solution of managerial decision situations.
51) Automated Decision Systems (ADS) is a business ________ system that uses
intelligence to recommend solution to repetitive decisions (such as pricing).
52) Decision support systems are computer-based support systems for management
decision makers who deal with ________ problems.
53) ________ is the first component of the DSS architecture.
54) The process of business intelligence is based on the ________ of data to
information, then to decisions, and finally to actions.
55) Business intelligence's major objective is to enable ________ access to data,
enable manipulation of these data, and to provide business managers and analysts the
ability to conduct appropriate analysis.
Page Ref: 39
Page Ref: 39
3) When developers design and develop tools, the first guideline is to develop a
prototype to test the designs and get early feedback from the end users to see what
works for them and what needs to be changed.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 39
Page Ref: 39
5) Groupthink among decision makers can help lead to the best decisions.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 41
6) Experimentation with a real system is possible only for one set of conditions at a
time and can be disastrous.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 41
7) Collecting information and analyzing a problem are the fastest and least expensive
parts of decision-making.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 41
Page Ref: 41
Page Ref: 42
Page Ref: 42
11) Personality temperament tests are often used to determine decision styles.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 43
Page Ref: 48
Page Ref: 49
14) A problem exists in an organization only if someone or some group takes on the
responsibility of attacking it and if the organization has the ability to solve it.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 50
Page Ref: 51
16) "Humans are economic beings whose objective is to maximize the attainment of
goals" is one of the assumptions of rational decision makers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 52
17) The idea of "thinking with your gut" is a heuristic approach to decision making.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 52
18) Rationality is bounded only by limitations on human processing capacities but not
by individual differences.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 55
19) In general, people have a tendency to measure uncertainty and risk badly; for
example, people tend to be overconfident and have an illusion of control in decision
making.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 56
20) Web-based systems have clearly influenced how decision making is supported.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 63
Page Ref: 41
22) Decision making that involves too much information may lead to a condition
known as _______.
A) groupthink
B) information overload
C) experimentation
D) over assumption
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 41
23) Decisions are often made by ________, especially at lower managerial levels and
in small organizations.
A) groups
B) management teams
C) individuals
D) computerized systems
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 42
24) Different decision styles require different types of support. A major factor that
determines the type of required support is whether the decision maker is ________.
A) autocratic
B) consultative
C) an individual or a group
D) democratic
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 43
Page Ref: 44
26) Which of the following model behaves like the real system but does not look like
it?
A) Composite model
B) Analog model
C) Dense model
D) Iconic model
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 44
27) There is a continuous flow of activity from one phase to the next phase in a
decision making process, but at any phase there may be a return to a previous phase.
________ is an essential part of this process.
A) Testing
B) Trial-and-error
C) Experimenting
D) Modeling
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 46
Page Ref: 46
29) Which of the following involves finding or developing and analyzing possible
courses of action in a decision making phase?
A) Consultation phase
B) Communication phase
C) Intelligence phase
D) Design phase
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 46
Page Ref: 51
Page Ref: 51
32) Which of the following, by definition, requires a decision maker to consider the
impact of each alternative course of action on the entire organization because a
decision made in one area may have significant effects in other areas?
A) Satisfaction
B) Worst-case
C) Feasibility
D) Optimization
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 51
33) "Thinking with your gut" is a heuristic approach to decision making that would
work best for ________.
A) amateur chefs
B) payroll processors and accountants
C) experienced firefighters and military personnel on the battlefield
D) structured decision situations
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 52
34) With ________, the performance of the system is checked for a given set of
alternatives, rather than for all alternatives. Therefore, there is no guarantee that an
alternative selected is optimal.
A) analytical analysis
B) descriptive analysis
C) optimization analysis
D) quantitative analysis
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 54
35) The usual reasons for ________ are time pressures and recognition that the
marginal benefit of a better solution is not worth the marginal cost to obtain it
A) satisficing
B) settling
C) compromising
D) rationalizing
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 55
36) A ________ describes the decision and uncontrollable variables and parameters
for a specific modeling situation.
A) statement
B) model
C) program
D) scenario
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 57
37) Which of the following is a study of the effect of a change in one or more input
variables on a proposed solution?
A) Sensitivity analysis
B) Boundary analysis
C) Fish bone analysis
D) Input-output analysis
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 58
38) A ________ can help a decision maker sketch out the important qualitative factors
and their causal relationships in a messy decision-making situation.
A) mathematical map
B) cognitive map
C) qualitative map
D) narrative map
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 62
39) The ________ of a proposed solution to a problem is the initiation of a new order
of things or the introduction of change.
A) method
B) implementation
C) approach
D) style
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 62
40) The Museum of Natural History in Aarhus, Denmark uses ________ to collect
detailed information about visitors' use of the exhibits to help determine visitors'
behavior to identify high-demand exhibits.
A) group decision systems
B) algorithms
C) RFID
D) expert systems
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 71
58) ________ is the critical act of decision making when the actual decision and
commitment to follow a certain course of action are made.
59) A data warehouse can support the intelligence phase by continuously monitoring
both internal and
external information, looking for early signs of problems and opportunities through a
Web-based enterprise information portal called a(n) ________.
60) Much of the information used in seeking new opportunities is ________, or soft.
61) Discuss the importance of decision style.
62) Describe the three classifications of models.
63) List five benefits of using models.
Page Ref: 71
2) A key component of DSS is the ability to visualize the results. For example, it is
important for executives to visualize the results of modifying assumptions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 74
Page Ref: 78
4) All DSSs have common components that enable them to provide the same
capabilities and support to users.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 77
5) Business analytics (BA) implies the use of models and data to improve an
organization's performance or competitive posture
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 78
Page Ref: 80
7) The most common end-user tool for DSS development is Microsoft Access, which
includes statistical packages, a linear programming package, and financial and
management science models.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 80
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 84
9) A DSS database can include multimedia objects, e.g., pictures, maps, and sounds.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 91
10) XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is becoming more important in DSS due to
the growth of mobile commerce applications, on handheld devices, e.g., PDAs and
cell phones.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 91
Page Ref: 92
12) An effective database and its management can support many managerial activities;
however, the real power of a DSS occurs when data are integrated with its models.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 92
13) A key issue in data management is that of data quality. Poor quality data, which
leads to poor quality information leads directly to waste.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 93
Page Ref: 94
15) Planned models are used mainly by middle management to assist in allocating and
controlling the organization's resources.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 97
Page Ref: 98
17) Database directory is a catalog of all the models and other software in the model
base.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 99
18) User interface of a DSS includes not only the hardware and software but also
factors that deal with ease of use, accessibility, and human-machine interactions.
Diff: 2
19) A difficult user interface is one of the major reasons why managers do not use
computers and quantitative analyses as much as they could, given the availability of
these technologies.
Diff: 1
20) If the main user of a DSS is replaced by another, less knowledgeable user (in
terms of the decision-making problem and environment), the DSS will generally be
less effective.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 75
22) ________ implies the use of models and data to improve an organization's
performance or competitive posture.
A) Business applications
B) Business analytics
C) Business intelligence
D) Business rules
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 78
23) ________ systems have models embedded in them, but they are still not well
understood in practice.
A) Web analytics
B) Data mining and OLAP
C) XML
D) Data dictionary
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 78
Page Ref: 86
25) Which of the following subsystem can support any of the other subsystems or act
as an independent component? It also provides intelligence to augment the decision
maker's own?
A) Knowledge-base management subsystem
B) Intelligence-base subsystem
C) User interface subsystem
D) Expertise-base subsystem
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 86
26) A(n) ________ is a collection of interrelated data, organized to meet the needs and
structure of an organization that can be used by more than one person for more than
one application.
A) business intelligence
B) expert system
C) database
D) data repository
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 90
27) The operation of capturing data from several sources and loading it to a data
warehouse is called:
A) extraction.
B) loading.
C) mining.
D) storing.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 92
Page Ref: 92
29) Data directory is a catalog of all the data in the database. It contains ________,
and its main function is to answer questions about the availability of data items, their
source, and their exact meaning.
A) data foundations
B) data definitions
C) data names
D) data sources
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 93
30) The ________ is especially appropriate for supporting the intelligence phase of
the decision-making process by helping to scan data and identify problem areas or
opportunities.
A) intelligence facility
B) query facility
C) data directory
D) knowledge facility
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 93
31) A(n) ________ contains routine and special statistical, financial, forecasting,
management science, and other quantitative models that provide the analysis
capabilities in a DSS.
A) model base
B) application base
C) analytical base
D) query base
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 96
Page Ref: 97
33) When voice input with accompanying ________ software is used, verbal
instructions with accompanied actions and outputs can be invoked.
A) language recognition
B) accent recognition
C) voice recognition
D) speech recognition
Diff: 2
34) Most data mining applications include intelligent systems, such as artificial neural
networks (ANN) and rule induction methods for expert systems (ES), to search for
potentially profitable ________ in data.
A) samples
B) patterns
C) sections
D) trends
Diff: 2
35) ________ control and coordinate the use of software to support group work.
A) Expert tool users
B) Facilitators
C) Analyst
D) Managers
Diff: 2
36) The choice of hardware can be made ________ the design of the MSS software,
but it is often determined by what is already available in the organization.
A) before
B) during
C) after
D) all of the above
Diff: 2
37) The de facto DSS hardware standard is a(n) ________ through which the DBMS
provides data.
A) Web server
B) data center
C) mainframe
D) local area network
Diff: 3
41) ________ describes the business analytics method of forecasting problems and
opportunities rather than simply reporting them as they occur.
42) ________ are generally utilized to analyze decision-making situations and make a
DSS different from most MIS.
43) A database-oriented DSS features strong ________ capabilities.
44) ________ deal with specific problems that are usually neither anticipated nor
recurring.
45) ________ is the physical data repository organized to provide enterprise wide,
cleaned data in a standardized format.
46) A(n) ________ subsystem includes a database that contains relevant data for the
situation and is managed by software called the database management system.
47) Users of DSS communicate with and command the DSS through the ________
subsystem.
48) In building and using DSS, it is often necessary to access, manipulate, and query
data. The ________ performs these tasks.
Answer: query facility
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93
49) Selection and ________ are two important functions of a DSS query system.
50) As the size of the data to be stored and accessed increases, processing times and
storage space also grow, sometimes dramatically. Large databases present major
________ problems.
51) One key issue that DBMS must handle is data security. Data can be ________ so
that even in the case of unauthorized access, the viewed data is scrambled and
unintelligible.
52) ________ models are used to support the day-to-day working activities of the
organization. Typical decisions involve e-commerce transaction acceptance, approval
of personal loans by a bank, production scheduling, inventory control, maintenance
planning and scheduling, and quality control.
53) ________ are Web-based business analytics tools to assist in decision making.
54) Operational models mainly support first-line managers' decision making with a
daily to ________ time horizon.
55) The models in the model base can also be classified by functional areas or by
________.
56) ________ are preprogrammed software elements that can be used to build
computerized models. One example is the random-number generator that can be
employed in the construction of a simulation model.
57) Advanced DSS are equipped with a component called a(n) ________ subsystem.
This component can supply the required expertise for solving some aspects of the
problem and provide knowledge that can enhance the operation of other DSS
components.
58) An ________ allows the manager to benefit from the decision support system
without actually having to use the keyboard.
59) Distributed DSS runs on various types of networks, including the Internet,
intranets, and extranets. Access may be provided for mobile devices, e.g., notebook
PCs and mobile telephones. This ________ has become critical for deploying
decision-making capability in the field, especially for salespersons and technicians.
60) Planners Lab is a DSS ________ language.
61) Identify the key characteristics and capabilities of a DSS.
62) List the capabilities of institutional DSS and ad hoc DSS.
70) Discuss the advantages of developing a models for a DSS with Planners Lab
instead of traditional programming languages or spreadsheets?
Chapter 4 Modeling and Analysis
1) The use of an optimization model in the auction bidding process to award school
meal contracts in Chile has significantly decreased costs.
Diff: 1
3) All companies, except for those under financial stress, should invest in simulation
models to increase their efficiency.
Diff: 2
4) A DSS can be composed of several models, some standard and some custom built,
used collectively to support strategic decisions in the company.
Diff: 1
5) Modeling involves data analysis with trend lines and establishing relationships with
statistical methods.
Diff: 1
7) Models, like data, must be managed to maintain their applicability, and thus their
integrity.
Diff: 3
8) DSS uses mostly qualitative models, whereas expert systems use quantitative
models in their applications.
Diff: 2
9) To use models and solution techniques effectively, one needs to have gained
experience through developing and solving simple ones.
Diff: 2
10) One recent trend in modeling involves the development of model libraries and
solution technique libraries.
Diff: 1
11) There is a trend toward developing and using Web tools and software to access
and run software to perform modeling, optimization, and simulation, even though this
has complicated the application of many models to real-world problems.
Diff: 3
13) In decision making under uncertainty, the decision maker considers situations in
which several outcomes are possible for each course of action. In this case, the
decision maker can estimate the probability of occurrence of the possible outcomes.
Diff: 2
14) One of the assumptions of the linear programming allocation model is that not all
data are known with certainty.
Diff: 2
15) The pessimistic approach assumes that the best possible outcome of each
alternative will occur and then selects the best of the best.
Diff: 1
16) Today's management systems are designed to help managers attain simultaneous,
but at times, conflicting goals.
Diff: 2
18) Heuristics techniques are used mainly for solving structured problems, usually of
a tactical or operational nature, in areas such as resource allocation or inventory
management.
Diff: 2
19) Blind search techniques are arbitrary search approaches that are not guided.
Diff: 1
20) Continuous distributions are situations with unlimited numbers of possible events
that follow density functions, such as the normal distribution.
Diff: 2
21) Which of the following is a key element in most DSS and a necessity in a modelbased DSS?
A) Database
B) Analytical model
C) Modeling
D) Business intelligence
Diff: 1
22) ________ diagrams are graphical models of mathematical models, which can
facilitate the process of identifying the model's variables.
A) Decision
B) Tree
C) Fish bone
D) Influence
Diff: 2
23) E-commerce has created an immense need for ________ and an abundance of
available information for performing it.
A) nonlinear programming
B) forecasting
C) auction models
D) queuing
Diff: 2
24) Which of the following models takes a single snapshot of a situation where
everything occurs in a single interval?
A) Sliced model
B) Snapshot model
C) Stationary model
D) Static model
Diff: 2
25) Which of the following techniques is used to solve optimization problems that
have few alternatives?
A) Trial-and-error
B) Binary search
C) Expert systems
D) Decision trees
Diff: 3
26) ________ is a type of model that is used to find a good enough solution, or the
best solution among alternatives, using experimentation.
A) Simulation
B) Heuristics
C) Predictive
D) Deterministic
Diff: 2
27) Which of the following are factors that affect the result variables, but are not
under the control of the decision maker?
A) Parameters
B) Decision variables
C) Independent variables
D) Output variables
Diff: 1
28) The four components in a decision support mathematical model are linked
together by the ________ relationships, such as equations.
A) mathematical
B) cause-and-effect
C) analytical
D) data integration
Diff: 2
29) Decision situations are often classified on the basis of what the decision maker
knows about the forecasted results. Which of the following is one of the categories?
A) Indecision
B) Firmness
C) Ambiguity
D) Certainty
Diff: 1
31) A model builder makes predictions and assumptions regarding the input data,
many of which deal with the assessment of uncertain futures. Which of the following
attempts to assess the impact of a change in the input data or parameters on the
proposed solution?
A) Mathematical relationships
B) Decision analysis
C) Goal programming
D) Sensitivity analysis
Diff: 3
32) Which of the following calculates the values of the inputs necessary to achieve a
desired level of an output?
A) Goal seeking analysis
B) Decision analysis
C) Trial-and-error
D) Sensitivity analysis
Diff: 2
33) Decision situations that involve a finite and usually not-too-large number of
alternatives are modeled by an approach called ________.
A) exhaustive search
B) decision map
C) decision analysis
D) trial-and-error
Diff: 2
34) Which of the following is a step-by-step search process for obtaining an optimal
solution?
A) Analytic technique
B) Algorithm
C) Heuristic
D) Linear programming
Diff: 2
35) Which of the following are the informal, judgmental knowledge of an application
area that constitute the "rules of good judgment" in the field?
A) Binary search
B) Algorithm
C) Heuristic
D) Rule of thumb
Diff: 2
39) ________ uses animated computer graphic displays to present the impact of
different managerial decisions. It differs from regular graphics in that the user can
adjust the decision making process and see the results of the intervention.
A) Visual interactive simulation
B) Quantitative software
C) OLAP
D) Object-oriented model base
Diff: 2
40) Which of the following packages are preprogrammed (sometimes called ready-
made) models and optimization systems that sometimes serve as building blocks for
other quantitative models?
A) Quantitative software
B) Qualitative software
C) Development tool
D) Application
Diff: 2
57) If the simulation results do not match the intuition or judgment of the decision
maker, a ________ gap in the results can occur.
58) ________ is a simulation approach used in the decision-making process that
shows graphical animation in which systems and processes are presented dynamically
to the decision maker. It enables visualization of the results of different potential
actions.
59) A(n) ________ is a model based management system constructed in an objectoriented environment.
60) ________ is the relational approach to the design and development of a model
base management system.
61) Distinguish between a static model and a dynamic model.
62) Briefly describe three of the seven categories of models.
63) What is an influence diagram? Name a benefit of influence diagrams.
64) Distinguish between decision making under certainty, risk, and uncertainty.
68) List the type of relationships sensitivity analysis study can test.
69) List the steps involved in the simulation process.
70) Explain the value of visual interactive simulation (VIS).
Chapter 5 Data Mining for Business Intelligence
1) Data mining is a way for companies to develop business intelligence from their
data to gain a better understanding of their customers and operations and to solve
complex organizational problems.
2) Data mining is a prime candidate for better management of companies that are
data-rich, but knowledge-poor.
3) Business analytics cannot be conducted in real time because it includes components
such as metrics and reengineering tools.
Diff: 1
7) At the highest level of abstraction, all data can be divided into interval data and
ratio data.
Diff: 2
8) Two types of categorical data are nominal data and ordinal data.
Diff: 2
9) The variable marital status can be categorized using the codes (1) single, (2)
married, and (3) divorced. These codes are examples of ordinal data.
Diff: 2
11) Mass, length, time, plane angle, energy, and electric charge are examples of
physical measures whose data are represented in interval scales.
Diff: 2
12) Data types such as date/time, unstructured text, image, and audio need to be
converted into some form of categorical or numeric representation before they can be
processed by data mining algorithms.
Diff: 2
13) Associations are a type of pattern that discovers time-ordered events, such as
predicting that an existing banking customer who already has a checking account will
open a savings account followed by an investment account within a year.
Diff: 2
14) Predictions tells the nature of future occurrences of certain events based on what
has happened in the past, such as predicting the winner of the Super Bowl or
forecasting the absolute temperature of a particular day.
Diff: 1
15) Clustering partitions a collection of things, such as objects and events presented in
a structured dataset into segments whose members share similar characteristics.
Diff: 2
16) Cross-Industry Standard Process for Data Mining, or CRISP-DM, is one of the
most popular
nonproprietary standard methodologies for data mining.
Diff: 2
17) The first step in the data mining process is to understand the relevant data from
the available databases.
Diff: 2
18) Compared to the other steps in CRISP-DM, data preprocessing consumes the
most time and effort; most believe that this step accounts for roughly 80 percent of the
total time spent on a data mining project
Diff: 2
19) In order to be applied successfully, a data mining study must be viewed as a set of
automated software tools and techniques.
Diff: 2
21) In an article in Harvard Business Review, Thomas Davenport (2006) argued that
the latest strategic weapon for companies is ________.
A) customer relationship management
B) e-commerce
C) online auctions
D) analytical decision making
Diff: 2
23) Why has data mining gained the attention of the business world?
A) More intense competition at the global scale driven by customers' ever-changing
needs and wants in an increasingly saturated marketplace.
B) Consolidation and integration of database records, which enables a single view of
customers and vendors.
C) Significant reduction in the cost of hardware and software for data storage and
processing.
D) All of the above
Diff: 2
24) On the commercial side, the most common use of data mining has been in
________ sectors.
A) manufacturing and heath care
B) finance, retail, and health care
C) online retail and government
D) R&D and scientific
Diff: 3
25) Business analytics and data mining provided 1-800-Flowers with all of the
following benefits except:
A) More efficient marketing campaigns.
B) Increased mailings and response rates.
C) Better customer experience and retention.
D) Increased repeat sales.
Diff: 2
26) Data mining is tightly positioned at the intersection of many disciplines. Those
disciplines include all of the following except:
A) management science
B) statistics
C) information systems and databases
D) logistics
Diff: 2
28) A query that can be run by an end users and is not programmed in advance is
considered a(n) ________ query.
A) tailored
B) casual
C) informal
D) ad hoc
Diff: 1
29) At the highest level of abstraction, data can be classified as ________ and
________.
A) alpha; numeric
B) categorical; numerical
C) nominal; ratio
D) interval; ration
Diff: 2
30) Data that has a meaningful, or nonarbitrary, zero point is ________ data.
A) categorical
B) nominal
C) interval
D) ratio
Diff: 2
31) Numeric data represent the numeric values of specific variables, which are
________ variables that can take on an infinite number of fractional values.
A) discrete
B) continuous
C) interval
D) ratio
Diff: 2
32) Data mining seeks to identify patterns in the data. All of the following are major
types of patterns except:
A) associations
B) regression
C) predictions
D) clusters
Diff: 1
33) Predictive analysis uses sophisticated algorithms that can be designed to sift
through data and identify ________.
A) patterns of behavior
B) outlier
C) average statistics
D) minimum and maximum statistics
Diff: 2
34) ________, or supervised induction, is perhaps the most common of all data
mining tasks. Its objective is to analyze the historical data stored in a database and
automatically generate a model that can predict future behavior.
A) Association
B) Clustering
C) Prediction
D) Classification
Diff: 2
35) ________ are essentially a hierarchy of if-then statements. They are most
appropriate for categorical and interval data.
A) Neural nets
B) Clusters
C) Decision trees
D) Time-series
Diff: 3
36) ________ data mining begins with a proposition by the user, who then seeks to
validate the truthfulness of the proposition. For example, a marketing manager may
begin with the following proposition: "Are BluRay player sales related to sales of
HDTV sets?"
A) Hypothesis-driven
B) Theory-driven
C) Discovery-driven
D) Data-driven
Diff: 2
37) Because the data mining is driven by experience and experimentation, depending
on the problem situation and the analyst's knowledge, the whole process can be
________ and ________, i.e., one should expect to go back and forth through the
steps quite a few times.
A) simple; iterative
B) expensive; hypothetical
C) time consuming; iterative
D) time-consuming; hypothetical
Diff: 2
38) Because the latter steps in the data mining process are built on the outcome of the
former ones, one
should:
A) start with an understanding of the relevant data.
B) work quickly through the early steps and work in-depth on the latter steps.
C) start by cleaning the relevant data and storing it in a single data warehouse.
D) pay extra attention to the earlier steps in order not to put the whole study on an
incorrect path from the onset.
Diff: 3
39) The simple split methodology splits the data into two mutually exclusive subsets
called a ________ set and a ________ set.
A) training; test
B) positive; negative
C) holdout; training
D) matrix; test
Diff: 2
40) A good question to ask with respect to the patterns/relationships that association
rule mining can discover is "Are all association rules interesting and useful?" In order
to answer such a question, association rule mining uses two common metrics
________ and ________.
A) mean; median
B) support; confidence
C) standard deviation; confidence interval
D) regression; distance measure
Diff: 3
41) ________ means that discovered patterns in a dataset hold true on new data with a
sufficient degree of certainty.
42) Mass, length, time, energy, and electric charge are examples of ________ data
because their scales have a nonarbitrary zero value.
43) ________ data contains codes assigned to objects or events as labels that also
represent the rank order among them; for example, credit score.
60) The ________ algorithm is the most commonly used algorithm to discover
association rules.
61) List three of the major characteristics and objectives of data mining.
62) Sketch a simple taxonomy of data in data mining.
63) Identify and describe the two types of categorical data. Give an example of each.
64) Identify and describe the two types of numerical data. Give an example of each.
65) List and briefly describe three of the major types of patterns that data mining
attempts to identify.
66) List the six steps in the CRISP-DM Data Mining Process.
67) List the four data preprocessing steps.
68) List and briefly explain four of the factors to be considered when assessing a
model to be used for classification.
69) Explain the simple split methodology for classification. Explain the advantages of
the k-fold cross-validation methodology over the simple split methodology.
70) List five of the data mining mistakes often made in practice.
Chapter 6 Artificial Neural Networks for Data Mining
1) Neural network models are designed as exact replicas of how the human brain
actually functions.
Diff: 1
4) The human brain is composed of special cells called neurons. Neural networks are
composed of interconnected processing elements called artificial neurons.
Diff: 1
7) The processing elements (PE) of an ANN are artificial neurons, which receive
inputs, process them, and deliver outputs.
Diff: 1
8) Each ANN is composed of a collection of neurons that are grouped into three types
of layers: input, intermediate (or hidden), and output.
Diff: 1
9) Parallel processing resembles the way the brain and conventional computing
works.
Diff: 2
11) Several types of data, such as text, pictures, and voice, can be used as inputs in
network information processing.
Diff: 1
13) Weights are crucial in network information processing because they store learned
patterns of information; and it is through repeated adjustments of these weights that a
network learns.
Diff: 2
14) A threshold value is a hurdle value for the output of a neuron to trigger the next
level of neurons. If an output value is larger than the threshold value, it will not be
passed to the next level of neurons.
Diff: 3
15) Supervised learning uses a set of inputs for which the desired outputs are known.
For example, a dataset of loan applications with the success or failure of borrowers to
repay their loans has a set of input parameters and known outputs.
Diff: 2
16) In neural network, larger data sets increase processing time during training but
improve the accuracy of the training and often lead to faster convergence to a good set
of weights.
Diff: 3
17) Training of artificial neural networks is an iterative process and the iteration
continues until the error sum is converged to below a preset acceptable level.
Diff: 1
19) A general Hopfield network is a single large layer of neurons with total
interconnectivity.
Diff: 2
20) In general, ANN are suitable for problems whose inputs are both categorical and
numeric, and where the relationships between inputs and outputs are linear or the
input data are normally distributed.
Diff: 2
21) Which of the following is the reason why neural networks have been applied in
business classification problems?
A) Able to learn the data
B) Able to learn the models' nonparametric nature
C) Its ability to generalize
D) All of the above
Diff: 2
24) Pioneers McCulloch and Pitts built their neural network model using a large
number of interconnected ________ artificial neurons.
A) dual
B) binary
C) singular
D) serial
Diff: 1
25) There are about 50 to 150 billion neurons in the human brain and these neurons
are partitioned into groups called ________.
A) teams
B) sects
C) groups
D) networks
Diff: 2
26) ANN can also be used as simple biological models to test ________ about
biological neuronal information processing.
A) hypotheses
B) assumptions
C) theory
D) proposition
Diff: 3
28) The way that information is processed by the neural network is a function of its
________.
A) composition
B) formation
C) structure
D) makeup
Diff: 2
29) The output of neurons can be the final result or it can be ________ to other
neurons.
A) sources
B) contributions
C) keys
D) inputs
Diff: 1
30) In single, hidden-layer structured neural network, this hidden layer converts
inputs into a ________ combination.
A) continuous
B) linear
C) nonlinear
D) nonstop
Diff: 3
32) The connection weights express the ________ of the input data.
A) significance
B) value
C) mathematical value
D) worth
Diff: 2
33) The summation function computes the ________ sums of all the input elements
entering each processing element.
A) weighted
B) averaged
C) total
D) aggregated
Diff: 2
34) Sigmoid function is an S-shaped transfer function in the range of 0 to 1 and is also
a useful ________ transfer function.
A) integer
B) binary
C) linear
D) nonlinear
Diff: 3
35) Learning algorithms specify the ________ by which a neural network learns the
underlying relationship between input and outputs.
A) process
B) method
C) route
D) direction
Diff: 2
39) Which of the following procedure is used to break datasets into different pairs of
training and testing sets?
A) resampling
B) sampling
C) trial and error
D) random
Diff: 2
40) Because of their ability to capture and represent highly complex relationships, a
new and prosperous area of application for neural networks is in the field of
________.
A) health care and medicine
B) transportation and distribution
C) security
D) financial planning
Diff: 2
2) A vast majority of all business data are captured and stored in structured text
documents.
Diff: 2
4) The purpose and processes of text mining are different from those of data mining
because with text mining the input to the process are data files such as Word
documents, PDF files, text excerpts, and XML files.
Diff: 3
5) The benefits of text mining are greatest in areas where very large amounts of
textual data are being generated, such as law, academic research, finance, and
medicine.
Diff: 2
7) Stemming is the process of reducing inflected words to their base or root form.
Diff: 1
8) Stop words, such as a, am, the, and was, are words that are filtered out prior to or
after processing of natural language data.
Diff: 2
10) Two advantages associated with the implementation of NLP are word sense
disambiguation and syntactic ambiguity.
Diff: 2
12) Text mining can be used to increase cross-selling and up-selling by analyzing the
unstructured data generated by call centers.
Diff: 1
14) The corpus for the text mining process consists of organized ACII text files and
structured data.
Diff: 2
15) The main categories of knowledge extraction methods are recall, search, and
signaling.
Diff: 2
16) Web pages consisting of unstructured textual data coded in HTML or XML,
hyperlink information, and logs of visitors' interactions provide rich data for effective
and efficient knowledge discovery:
Diff: 3
17) Web crawlers are Web content mining tools that are used to read through the
content of a Web site automatically.
Diff: 1
18) Amazon.com leverages Web usage history usage dynamically and recognizes the
user by reading a cookie written by a Web site on the visitor's computer.
Diff: 1
19) The quality of search results is impossible to measure accurately using strictly
20) Customer experience management applications gather and report direct feedback
from site visitors by benchmarking against other sites and offline channels, and by
supporting predictive modeling of future visitor behavior.
Diff: 3
21) A vast majority of business data are stored in text documents that are ________.
A) mostly quantitative
B) virtually unstructured
C) semi-structured
D) highly structured
Diff: 1
22) Text mining is the semi-automated process of extracting ________ from large
amounts of unstructured data sources.
A) patterns
B) useful information
C) knowledge
D) all of the above
Diff: 2
23) All of the following are popular application areas of text mining except:
A) information extraction
B) document summarization
C) question answering
D) data structuring
Diff: 2
25) ________ is a branch of the field of linguistics and a part of natural language
processing that studies the internal structure of words.
A) Morphology
B) Corpus
C) Stemming
D) Polysemes
Diff: 2
26) Using ________ as a rich source of knowledge and a strategic weapon, Kodak not
only survives but excels in its market segment defined by innovation and constant
change.
A) visualization
B) deception detection
C) patent analysis
D) semantic cues
Diff: 2
27) It has been shown that the bag-of-word method may not produce good enough
information content for text mining tasks. More advanced techniques such as
________ are needed.
A) classification
B) natural language processing
C) evidence-based processing
D) symbolic processing
Diff: 2
28) Why will computers probably not be able to understand natural language the same
way and with the same accuracy that humans do?
A) A true understanding of meaning requires extensive knowledge of a topic beyond
what is in the words, sentences, and paragraphs.
B) The natural human language is too specific.
C) The part of speech depends only on the definition and not on the context within
which it is used.
D) All of the above.
Diff: 3
29) At a very high level, the text mining process consists of each of the following
tasks except:
A) Create log frequencies.
B) Establish the corpus.
C) Create the term-document matrix.
D) Extract the knowledge.
Diff: 2
31) The two main approaches to text classification are ________ and ________.
A) knowledge engineering; machine learning
B) categorization; clustering
C) association; trend analysis
D) knowledge extraction;
Diff: 2
33) Why does the Web pose great challenges for effective and efficient knowledge
discovery?
A) The Web search engines are indexed-based.
B) The Web is too dynamic.
C) The Web is too specific to a domain.
D) The Web infrastructure contains hyperlink information.
Diff: 2
34) A simple keyword-based search engine suffers from several deficiencies, which
include all of the following except:
A) A topic of any breath can easily contain hundreds or thousands of documents.
B) Many documents that are highly relevant to a topic may not contain the exact
keywords defining them.
C) Web mining can identify authoritative Web pages.
D) Many of the search results are marginally or not relevant to the topic.
Diff: 3
35) Which of the following is not one of the three main areas of Web mining?
A) Web search mining
B) Web content mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web usage mining
Diff: 2
36) Which of the following refers to developing useful information from the links
included in the Web documents?
A) Web content mining
B) Web subject mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web matter mining
Diff: 2
37) A ________ is one or more Web pages that provide a collection of links to
authoritative pages, reference sites, or a resource list on a specific topic.
A) hub
B) hyperlink-induced topic search
C) spoke
D) community
Diff: 2
38) All of the following are types of data generated through Web page visits except:
A) data stored in server access logs, referrer logs, agent logs, and client-side cookies
B) user profiles
C) hyperlink analysis
D) metadata, such as page attributes, content attributes, and usage data
Diff: 2
39) When registered users revisit Amazon.com, they are greeted by name. This task
involves recognizing the user by ________.
A) pattern discovery
B) association
C) text mining
D) reading a cookie
Diff: 1
40) Forward-thinking companies like Ask.com, Scholastic, and St. John Health
System are actively using Web mining systems to answer important questions of
"Who?" "Why?" and "How?" The benefits of integrating these systems:
A) are measured qualitatively in terms of customer satisfaction, but not measured
using financial or other quantitative measure.
B) can be significant in terms of incremental financial growth and increasing
customer loyalty and satisfaction.
C) have not yet outweighed the costs of the Web mining systems and analysis.
D) can be infinitely measurable.
Diff: 3
63) NLP has successfully been applied to a variety of tasks via computer programs to
automatically process natural human language that previously could only be done by
humans. List three of the most popular of these tasks.
64) Describe a marketing application of text mining.
65) What is the primary purpose of text mining within the context of knowledge
discovery?
2) A data warehouse differs from an operational database in that most data warehouses
have a product orientation and are designed to handle transactions that update the
database.
Diff: 1
3) A data warehouse maintains historical data that do not necessarily provide current
status, except in real-time systems.
Diff: 2
4) Once the data are entered into the data warehouse, users cannot change or update
the data.
Diff: 2
5) There are three main types of data warehouses, which are data marts, operational
data stores, and enterprise data warehouses.
Diff: 2
7) Operational data store is used for the medium- and long-term decisions associated
with the enterprise data warehouse (EDW).
Diff: 3
9) The design, creation, and use of metadata and its accompanying standards may
involve ethical issues, including privacy and intellectual property issues.
Diff: 1
10) There are five levels of metadata management maturity that can be used to
describe where an organization is in terms of how and how well it utilizes its
metadata.
Diff: 2
11) Data warehouses contain vast amounts of internal data but are limited because
they do not contain external data.
Diff: 2
12) There are many middleware tools that business users can use to access data stored
in the data repositories, including data mining, reporting tools, and data visualization.
Diff: 1
13) In a three-tier architecture, operational systems contain the data and the software
for data acquisition in the first tier, the data warehouse is a second tier, and the third
tier includes the DSS/BI/BA engine.
Diff: 2
14) An advantage of the hub-and-spoke data warehouse architecture is that they are
easy to build.
Diff: 3
15) The centralized data warehouse helps to simplify data management and
administration.
Diff: 2
16) Because of performance and data quality issues, most experts agree that federated
approaches work well to replace data warehouses.
Diff: 1
Diff: 2
18) ETL tools transport data between sources and targets, document how data
elements change as they move between source and target, exchange metadata with
other applications, and administer all runtime processes and operations.
Diff: 2
19) A hosted data warehouse has less functionality than an onsite data warehouse, but
it does not consume computer resources on client premises for computer upgrades,
software licenses, in-house development, and in-house support and maintenance.
Diff: 2
20) A data warehouse needs to support scalability, which pertains to the amount of
data in the warehouse, how quickly the warehouse is expected to grow, the number of
concurrent users, and the complexity of user queries.
Diff: 3
21) When DirectTV decided to implement an active data warehouse solution, the goal
of the new system was to send fresh data to the call center at least daily. Once the
capabilities of the solutions became apparent, that goal:
A) dropped to fresh data of less than 15 minutes to improve responsiveness.
B) dropped to fresh data every 12 hours to improve responsiveness.
C) increased to every 2 days to reduce maintenance costs.
D) increased to every 5 days to reduce maintenance costs.
Diff: 2
23) Once data are entered into the warehouse, users cannot change or update the data.
Obsolete data are discarded, and changes are recorded as new data. This ________
characteristic is one of the characteristics of data warehousing.
A) changeable
B) nonvolatile
C) nonperishable
D) static
Diff: 2
24) A data warehouse contains ________ about how data are organized and how to
use them effectively.
A) a data directory
B) a data index
C) data fields
D) metadata
Diff: 2
25) The high cost of data warehouses limits their use to large companies. As an
alternative, many firms use a lower-cost, scaled-down version of a data warehouse
referred to as (an) ________.
A) data mart
B) operational data store
C) dependent data mart
D) independent data mart
Diff: 2
26) Which of the following are created when operational data need to be analyzed
multidimensionally?
A) Oper marts
B) Customer information file
C) Dependent data marts
D) Independent data marts
Diff: 2
27) Which of the following is one of the components of data warehousing process that
enables users to access the data warehouse?
A) Middleware tools
B) Users interface
C) Query tools
D) OLAP
Diff: 2
29) The advantage of three-tier architecture for data warehousing is its separation of
the functions of the data warehouse, which eliminates resource constraints and makes
it possible to easily create data ________.
A) banks
B) cubes
C) bases
D) marts
Diff: 1
30) The ________ have inconsistent data definitions and different dimensions and
measures, making it difficult to analyze data across those marts.
A) enterprise data marts
B) operational data marts
C) dependent data marts
D) independent data marts
Diff: 2
31) Users demanding access via PDAs and through speech recognition and synthesis
is becoming more commonplace, further complicating ________ issues.
A) data extraction
B) data load
C) data integration
D) OLAP
Diff: 1
32) Which of the following is an evolving tool space that promises real-time data
integration from a variety of sources, such as relational databases, Web services, and
multidimensional databases?
A) Information integration
B) Data management integration
C) SQL data integration
D) Enterprise information integration (EII)
Diff: 2
33) ETL process consists of extract, transform, and load. Transformation occurs by
using ________ or lookup tables or by combining the data with other data.
A) rules
B) policies
C) strategies
D) procedures
Diff: 2
34) Karacsony indicates that there is a direct correlation between the extent of
________ data and the amount of ETL processes. When data are managed correctly as
an enterprise asset, ETL efforts are significantly reduced.
A) enormous
B) bad
C) redundant
D) wrong
Diff: 3
36) Guidelines that need to be considered when developing a vendor list include all of
the following except:
A) financial strength
B) trade shows
C) ERP linkages
D) market share
Diff: 2
38) Which of the following is not one of the failure factors in data warehousing as
identified by Turban et al.?
A) Cultural issues are ignored.
B) inappropriate architecture
C) unrealistic expectations
D) high levels of data summarization
Diff: 3
40) Which of the following is needed to determine how data are to be retrieved from a
data warehouse, and will assist in the physical definition of the warehouse by helping
to define which data require indexing?
A) Indexing modeling
B) Retrieval modeling
C) Access modeling
D) Tactic modeling
Diff: 2
41) Data often are fragmented in distinct operational systems, so managers often
make decisions with partial information at best. ________ cuts through this obstacle
by accessing, integrating, and organizing key operational data in a form that is
consistent, reliable, timely, and readily available where needed.
42) ________ is a subset that is created directly from the data warehouse. It has the
advantages of using a consistent data model and providing quality data.
43) An ________ is a large-scale data warehouse that is utilized across the enterprise
for decision support.
44) ________ provides a fairly recent form of customer information files (CIF). It is a
type of database often used as an interim staging area for a data warehouse.
45) ________ is a small data warehouse designed for a strategic business unit
(SBU)or a department.
46) In three-tier architecture for data warehouse, ________ contain the data and the
software for data acquisition in one tier, the data warehouse is another tier, and the
third tier includes the decision support and the client.
47) The ________ is a concession to the natural forces that undermine the best plans
for developing a perfect system. It uses all possible means to integrate analytical
resources from multiple sources to meet changing needs or business conditions.
48) ________ comprises three major processes that, when correctly implemented,
permits data to be accessed and made accessible to an array of ETL and analysis tools
and data warehousing environment.
49) EII (enterprise information integration) tools use predefined metadata to populate
views that make integrated data appear relational to end-users. ________ may be the
most important aspect of EII, because it allows data to be tagged either at the time of
creation or later.
50) One of the benefits of a well-designed data warehouse is that business rules can
be stored in a ________ repository and applied to the data warehouse centrally.
51) A data warehouse contains numerous ________ that define such things as how the
data will be used, summarization rules, standardization of encoded attributes, and
calculation rules.
52) The ________ is a scaled-down version of the data warehouse that centers on the
requests of a specific department, such as marketing or sales.
53) The data warehouse design is based upon the concept of ________ modeling,
which is a retrieval-based model that supports high-volume query access.
54) A(n) ________ contains the attributes needed to perform decision analysis,
descriptive attributes used for query reporting, and foreign keys to link to dimension
tables.
55) A(n) ________ data warehouse has nearly the same, if not more, functionality as
an on-site data warehouse, but it does not consume computer resources on client
premises.
56) It is important to identify the right level of ________ that will be needed during
the scoping of a data warehouse project. A low level of that will result in more data
being stored in the warehouse.
57) During data modeling, expertise is required to determine what data are needed,
define business rules associated with the data, and decide what ________ and other
calculations may be necessary.
58) The main issues pertaining to ________ are the amount of data in the warehouse,
how quickly the warehouse is expected to grow, the number of concurrent users, and
the complexity of user queries.
59) ________ is the process of loading and provides data via the data warehouse as
they become available.
60) ________ is the person responsible for the administration and management of a
data warehouse.
65) List 5 factors that potentially affect the architecture selection decision.
66) Describe various integration technologies that enable data and metadata
integration.
67) Describe various issues that affect whether an organization will purchase data
transformation tools or build the transformation process itself.
68) Describe a star schema.
3) During the strategic planning process, the time horizon is determined by the
company's market share; rate of technological innovation; and capital intensity of the
industry.
Diff: 2
5) The Palladium Group found that 75 percent of organizations tied their budgets to
their strategic plans.
Diff: 1
10) The average knowledge worker spent less than 20 percent of his or her time
focused on higher-value analytical and decision support tasks, according to the Saxon
Group's findings.
Diff: 2
12) Both balanced Scorecards and Six Sigma are performance management tools and
methodologies.
Diff: 1
17) To dramatically increase the success of Six Sigma, the Six Sigma results should
"pay as you go" and be confirmed by objective parties.
Diff: 2
18) Operational dashboards are used by managers and analysts to track, on weekly
basis, raw data generated from departmental processes and projects.
Diff: 2
19) The primary challenge of dashboard design is to display all the required
information to be displayed clearly and without distraction on a single screen in a
manner that can be assimilated quickly.
Diff: 1
21) What was the most important service provided by Harrah's Total Rewards
program?
A) It provided Harrah's with a vast collection of high volume, real-time transaction
data about its customers and their behaviors.
B) The program served to reward customers with cash for their gaming.
C) The program served to reward customers with comps for their gaming.
D) Opulent accommodations and surroundings for loyal customers.
Diff: 2
22) The term business performance management (BPM) encompasses three key
components, which include all of the following except:
A) A set of integrated, closed-loop management and analytic processes, supported by
technology, that address financial as well as operational activities
B) An enterprise-wide strategy that helps to optimize local business performance
C) Tools for businesses to define strategic goals and then measure and manage
performance against those goals
D) A core set of processes, including financial and operational planning, modeling,
analysis, and monitoring of key performance indicators (KPIs), linked to
organizational strategy
Diff: 3
24) BPM helps organizations translate a unified set of objectives into plans, monitor
execution, and deliver critical insight to improve financial and ________
performance.
A) strategic
B) tactical
C) operational
D) daily
Diff: 1
25) Which of the following identifies and prioritizes the key customer, market,
competitor, government, demographic, or actually impacting the company?
A) SWOT
B) SWAT
C) ROA
D) CSF
Diff: 1
26) A(n) ________ plan translates an organization's strategic objectives and goals into
a set of well-defined tactics and initiatives, resources requirements, and expected
results for some future time period.
A) business
B) operational
C) tactical
D) strategic
Diff: 1
27) Fundamentally, an operational plan is like a project plan that is designed to ensure
that an organization's ________ is realized.
A) business policy
B) plan
C) strategy
D) business rules
Diff: 1
28) Best practice organizations tend to utilize ________ operational planning, which
begins the operational planning process by defining the alternative tactics and
initiatives that can be used to reach a particular target.
A) tactic-centric
B) budget-centric
C) cost-centric
D) revenue-centric
Diff: 1
29) An organization's strategic objectives and key metrics should serve as ________
drivers for the allocation of an organization's tangible and intangible assets.
A) bottom-up
B) top-down
C) company wide
D) revenues
Diff: 1
33) Saxon Group's benchmarking results indicate that best practice organizations:
A) focus on competition instead of on cause-and-effect relationships between tactics
and objectives.
B) develop better predictions or plans.
C) are far better equipped to quickly identify changes or problems, diagnose the root
causes, and take corrective action.
D) are historic and internally focused.
Diff: 2
34) Which of the following is not what an effective performance measurement system
should do?
A) Align top-level strategic objectives and bottom-level initiatives.
B) Identify opportunities in a timely fashion.
C) Determine priorities and allocate resources based on those priorities.
D) Maintain measurement when the underlying processes and strategies change.
Diff: 2
35) Which of the following is the best-known and most widely used performance
management system?
A) Dashboard
B) Performance reengineering
C) Balanced scorecard (BSC)
D) Total quality management
Diff: 1
36) BSC translates an organization's vision and strategy into a set of interrelated
financial and nonfinancial objectives. All of the following are nonfinancial objectives
except:
A) Business rules
B) Customers
C) Internal business process
D) Learning and growth
Diff: 1
37) A ________ delineates the process of value creation through a series of causeand-effect relationships among the key organizational objectives for all four BSC
perspectives--financial, customer, process, and learning and growth.
A) balanced scorecard
B) strategic theme
C) strategy map
D) KPI
Diff: 2
38) Sigma, , is a Greek alphabet letter used by statisticians to measure the ________
in a process.
A) variance
B) mean
C) inconsistency
D) variability
Diff: 2
40) Logically speaking, a BPM system consists of three basic parts, or layers. Which
of the following is not one of those parts or layers?
A) BPM applications
B) Dashboards and scorecards
C) Information hub
D) Source systems
Diff: 2
5) A group may produce synergy during problem solving, which means that the time
to reach a high quality decision is greater for group decision making than for
independent individuals.
Diff: 2
9) Groupware products are either stand-alone products that support only one task,
such as videoconferencing, or are integrated kits consisting of several tools.
Diff: 1
10) Instant messaging, audio conferencing, and polling are asynchronous groupware
tools.
Diff: 1
11) Collaborators can work together on the same document, spreadsheet, or graphics
using the screen sharing software.
Diff: 1
12) Intraspect from Vignette Corp. allows employees to create Web sites, invite coworkers to join discussions and post documents.
Diff: 1
13) The Windows Meeting Space client is included in the Windows operating system.
Diff: 1
16) A major characteristic of GDSSs is that they contain built-in mechanisms that
discourage development of negative group behaviors, such as destructive conflict
miscommunication and groupthink.
Diff: 2
17) Voice over IP (VoIP) are communication systems that transmit voice calls over
circuit-based networks.
Diff: 1
18) In contrast with commercial portals such as Yahoo! and MSN, which are gateways
to general information on the Internet, corporate portals provide a single point of
access to information and applications available on the Internet, intranets, and
extranets of a specific organization.
Diff: 2
19) The idea of CPFR is achieve fewer out-of-stock situations and resultant lost sales
by increasing inventory levels in the supply chain.
Diff: 2
22) Which of the following refers to a group process wherein people begin thinking
alike and not being tolerant of new ideas?
A) Group brainwash
B) Group politics
C) Group gain
D) Groupthink
Diff: 1
23) Managers spend about ________ percent of their time in formal meetings of five
people or more; and up to ________ percent of their time communicating.
A) 10; 50
B) 20; 85
C) 50; 25
D) 50; 50
Diff: 2
25) Communication occurs when the receiver gets the information at a different time
than it was sent is called ________ communication.
A) deferred
B) delayed
C) time lagging
D) asynchronous
Diff: 1
26) With ________, group members can work on the same document which is shown
on the PC screen of each participant.
A) data conferencing
B) whiteboards
C) instant messaging
D) screen sharing
Diff: 1
27) The spread of instant messaging and Internet telephony has led to the idea of
linking people via both voice and audio, which is called ________.
A) audio-video conference
B) instant audio
C) instant video
D) conference
Diff: 1
28) Lotus Notes provides online ________ capabilities through Web conferencing on
demand.
A) collaboration
B) cooperation
C) partnership
D) teamwork
Diff: 1
29) Groove Workspace, used with Groove enterprise servers and ________, enables
spontaneous, online-offline collaboration that reduces project costs and speeds timeto-market for products and services.
A) blackboards services
B) whiteboards services
C) server services
D) hosted services
Diff: 1
30) The collaborative experience in Live Meeting is enhanced through added features
like ________.
A) mood indicators
B) opinion sharing
C) user participation
D) instant messaging
Diff: 2
31) GDSS supports group decision making by providing the automation of ________
using information technology tools.
A) participations
B) tasks
C) processes
D) subprocesses
Diff: 2
32) Which of the following is not an option for deploying GDSS/GSS technology?
A) Multiple users functions
B) Decision room
C) Multiple-use facility
D) Internet based or intranet-based groupware
Diff: 2
33) The term, wiki, refers to the collaborative software that facilitates the operation of
a wiki Web site;.and means ________ in the Hawaiian language.
A) slow
B) quick
C) integration
D) collaboration
Diff: 1
35) Which of the following is used for the members of a supply chain to help improve
effectiveness between manufacturing companies?
A) Supply chain hub
B) Collaboration hub
C) Member hub
D) Supplier hub
Diff: 2
36) Which of the following is a gateway to a corporate Web site that enables
communication, collaboration, and access to company information?
A) Corporate port
B) Web portal
C) Corporate gateway
D) Enterprise portal
Diff: 1
38) Retailers make their suppliers responsible for determining when to order and how
much to order by adopting ________.
A) VMM
B) SMM
C) SMI
D) VMI
Diff: 2
39) In order for collective intelligence (CI) to happen, four features are needed. Which
of the following is not one of those features?
A) acting locally
B) openness
C) peering
D) sharing
Diff: 2
41) ________ is a team whose members are in different places while in a meeting.
42) ________ are methods used to increase some of the benefits of meetings and
eliminate or reduce some of the losses.
43) ________ that is a qualitative forecasting methodology using anonymous
questionnaires.
44) ________ are computerized tools have been developed to provide group support.
45) ________ tools support synchronous communication of graphical and text-based
information. These tools are also being used in distance learning, virtual classroom,
personnel training, product demonstrations, customer support, e-commerce, and sales
applications.
46) In collaborative work, team members are frequently in different locations. By
using ________ software, group members can work on the same document, which is
shown on the PC screen of each participant.
47) ________, associated with asynchronous mode, allows users to collaborate on
projects but work at different times.
48) The advancement of Web-based systems allows ________ where members are in
different locations and even in different countries.
49) ________ is the use of electronic communication that allows two or more people
at different locations to have a simultaneous conference.
50) The Groove Outliner tool is an open-ended ________ tool that allows shared
space members to build structured hierarchical lists of videos and concepts.
51) WebEx Meeting Center integrates data, voice, and video within a standard
________ for real-time meetings over the Internet from any desktop, laptop, or
wireless handheld device.
52) A ________ is an interactive computer-based system that facilitates the solution of
semistructured and unstructured problems by a group of decision makers.
53) An ________ is a form of GSS that supports anytime/anyplace meetings.
54) A ________ is any combination of hardware and software that enhances
groupwork support in decision making, directly or in indirectly.
67) Describe the steps that managers must do in creating a work environment that
supports collaboration.
68) List the benefits of VoIP for business users.
69) List the benefits of VoIP for individual users.
70) Describe the steps in the process model for implementing a CPFR project.
Chapter 11 Knowledge Management
1) The goal of knowledge management is to identify, capture, store, maintain, and
deliver useful knowledge in a meaningful form to anyone who needs it, anyplace and
anytime, within an organization.
Diff: 2
3) Since knowledge management (KM) first appeared in the mid-1990s, almost all
organizations have invested in KM systems and reaped significant benefits.
Diff: 2
6) Knowledge is an important asset, but large companies have difficulties sharing it.
Diff: 1
Diff: 1
10) Knowledge has strong experiential and reflective elements that distinguish it from
information in a given context.
Diff: 1
12) Explicit knowledge deals with objective, rational, and technical knowledge.
Diff: 2
13) Tacit knowledge is usually in the domain of subjective, cognitive, and experiential
learning; it is highly personal and difficult to formalize.
Diff: 2
15) A learning organization is one that performs these four main activities well:
systematic problem solving, creative experimentation, learning from the best practices
of others, and transferring knowledge quickly and efficiently throughout the
organization.
Diff: 2
16) Organizational learning and memory depend more on technology than on the
people issues.
Diff: 2
17) Use of strong hierarchy, position-based status, and formal power contribute to
people wanting to share knowledge.
Diff: 2
20) The situation at Mrs. Fields illustrates that while organizations can achieve
significant short-term gains through KMS, they must not neglect the creative process
of new knowledge creation or they may find themselves applying yesterday's
solutions to tomorrow's problems.
Diff: 3
30) All of the following describe the practice approach to knowledge management
except:
A) It deals mostly with tacit knowledge.
B) It provides an environment to generate and transfer high-value tacit knowledge.
C) It uses formal controls and procedures with an emphasis on technology to transfer
and disseminate knowledge.
D) It relies on informal social groups.
Diff: 2
31) A knowledge management portal (KMP) consists of each of the following except:
A) knowledge portal
B) corporate culture
C) knowledge repository
D) information data sources
Diff: 1
36) Which of the following is not one of the key knowledge performance dimensions
that drives competitive advantage?
A) creating a corporate knowledge-driven culture
B) fostering innovation
C) providing customer service
D) facilitating organizational learning
Diff: 2
37) There are several essential "preconditions" for effective knowledge management
to succeed. Which of the following is a precondition?
A) a knowledge infrastructure consisting of technology, structure, and culture
B) a knowledge process architecture of acquisition, conversion, application, and
protection
C) economies of scale in obtaining information from external providers
D) A and B
Diff: 3
38) Lessons learned from the British Broadcasting Corporation's (BBC) knowledge
management system includes all of the following except:
A) High-tech and large budgets are necessary to attain knowledge management
success.
B) The BBC runs on knowledge.
C) Design the system to match the way the company functions, e.g., as a social
network.
D) Blogs and wikis have helped break down silos and spread knowledge.
Diff: 3
39) ________ are interactive computerized systems that help employees find and
connect with colleagues who have the expertise required for specific problems in
order to solve specific, critical business problems in seconds.
A) Expert location systems
B) Tacit knowledge systems
C) Knowledge sharing systems
D) Social networks
Diff: 2
40) Which of the following factors is not among the most important for KM success?
A) Quantity the expected and realized ROI of the KM before and after deployment.
B) Build the right team for knowledge capture and creation.
C) If the deployment appears to be falling behind schedule, it is better to focus on
finishing it on schedule rather than narrowing the scope of the knowledge base.
D) Maintain a flexible approach to information access to improve user adoption.
Diff: 2
41) ________ is the systematic and active managing of ideas, information, and
knowledge residing in an organization's employees.
42) A learning organization must have an organizational memory and a means to save,
represent, and ________ its organizational knowledge.
43) Knowledge evolves over time with ________, which puts connections among new
situations and events in context.
44) ________ are information technologies that together make knowledge
management available throughout an organization.
45) ________ refers to an organization's capability of learning from its past
experience.
46) The ability of an organization to learn, develop memory, and share knowledge is
dependent on its ________, which is a pattern of shared basic assumptions.
47) The process approach attempts to ________ organizational knowledge through
formalized controls, processes, and technologies.
48) The practice approach to knowledge management assumes that a great deal of
organizational knowledge is ________ in nature.
49) ________ are the activities and methods that the most effective organizations use
to operate and manage various functions.
50) ________ are software systems that learn how users work and provide assistance
in their daily tasks.
51) ________ enables standardized representations of data structures so that data can
be processed appropriately by heterogeneous systems without case-by-case
programming.
52) Collaboration tools, or ________, were the first tools used to enhance tacit
knowledge transfer within an organization.
53) ________ are the doorways into many knowledge management systems. They
have evolved from the concepts underlying EIS, GSS, Web browsers, and DBMS.
54) ________ systems allow users to access needed documents, generally via a Web
browser over a corporate intranet.
55) A(n) ________ is a group of people in an organization with a common
professional interest.
56) ________ are interactive computerized systems that help employees find and
connect with colleagues with expertise required for specific problems.
57) In order to measure the financial impact of knowledge management, experts
recommend focusing knowledge management projects on specific business problems
that can be easily ________.
58) The first step for companies in increasing the probability of success of knowledge
management projects is to access whether there is a ________ need for knowledge
management.
59) Knowledge management requires a major transformation in organizational
________ to create a desire to share knowledge.
60) Nontrivial ________ methods, such as rewards and recognition, to encourage
users to contribute and use knowledge.
61) Define tacit knowledge.
62) Define explicit knowledge.
63) Identify and list reasons why people do not want to share knowledge.
64) Distinguish between a process approach and a practice approach to knowledge
management.
4) Deep Blue is the first computer that demonstrated its intelligence in an area that
requires human intelligence.
Diff: 1
10) Expertise is often acquired from training, reading, and experience in practice, and
the level of expertise determines the performance of a decision.
Diff: 1
11) Expert systems (ES) must have the ability to examine their own reasoning and
provide proper explanations as to why a particular conclusion was reached.
Diff: 1
12) Expert systems allow knowledge to be transferred more easily at a lower cost.
Diff: 2
14) The knowledge base of an expert system and the knowledge base of an
organization are the same.
Diff: 2
15) The blackboard of an expert system is used for recording intermediate hypotheses
and decisions.
Diff: 2
16) The explanation subsystem of an expert system cannot trace responsibility for
conclusions to their sources and cannot explain the expert system behavior
interactively.
Diff: 2
17) Inference rules, or procedural rules, offer advice on how to solve a problem, given
that certain facts are known.
Diff: 2
18) In IF-THEN rules, the IF part indicates the condition for the rule to be activated,
and the THEN part shows the action or the conclusion if all IF conditions are
satisfied.
Diff: 2
19) The first step in developing an ES is to identify the nature of the problem and to
define who is the proper expert responsible for the solving the problem
Diff: 2
21) One does not have to rethink completely what to do every time a similar problem
is encountered, when using ________.
A) symbolic database
B) knowledge base
C) algorithms
D) rules of thumb
Diff: 2
22) Which of the following technology allows computer users the ability to
communicate with a computer in their native language?
A) NAP
B) NLP
C) NBP
D) XML
Diff: 1
24) In the traditional Boolean logic, a person's credit score is either good or bad. In
________, the credit record may be assessed as both good and bad, but with different
degrees.
A) genetic algorithms
B) artificial intelligence
C) language translation
D) fuzzy logic
Diff: 2
26) The basic rationale of artificial intelligence is to use ________ rather than
mathematical calculation.
A) mathematical calculation
B) symbolic reasoning
C) genetic algorithms
D) fuzzy logic
Diff: 2
27) A rule-based expert system contains rules in its knowledge base and the rules are
used to generate ________ for the user.
A) questions
B) solutions
C) questions and solutions
D) none of the above
Diff: 2
29) Which of the following is used by a nonexpert to obtain expert knowledge and
advice?
A) Query environment
B) Development environment
C) consultation environment
D) Blackboard
Diff: 3
30) Which of the following components appear in virtually every expert system?
A) User interface
B) Database management system
C) Statistical analysis module
D) Numeric data representation
Diff: 2
31) Which of the following is usually included in an expert system that interacts with
users?
A) Blackboard
B) Justifier
C) Knowledge acquisition subsystem
D) All of the above
Diff: 2
34) Which of the following is not a typical type of problems recorded on blackboard?
A) Plan
B) Agenda
C) Solution
D) Key
Diff: 2
35) A knowledge engineer helps the expert structure the problem area by doing all of
the following tasks except:
A) decoding the heuristics
B) interpreting and integrating human answers to questions
C) drawing analogies
D) posing counterexamples
Diff: 2
36) A major goal of ________ is to help experts articulate how they do what they do
and to document this knowledge in a reusable form.
A) heuristics
B) knowledge engineering
C) knowledge refinement
D) rule interpreting
Diff: 2
37) Which of the following is not an advantage of using multiple experts in the
development of an ES?
A) groupthink
B) fewer mistakes
C) enhanced quality
D) wider domain
Diff: 2
38) "If the stop light is red AND you have stopped, THEN a right turn is okay" is an
example of:
A) a heuristic
B) a knowledge base
C) an inference rule
D) a production rule
Diff: 2
39) The standard statistical methods are based on the assumption that an uncertainty is
the ________ that an event is true or false, whereas certainty theory is based on the
________ that an event is true or false.
A) estimated probability; calculated probability
B) probability; degrees of belief
C) calculated probability; estimated probability
D) degrees of belief; probability
Diff: 2
49) ________ are small programs that reside on computers to conduct certain tasks
automatically and it runs in the background, monitors the environment, and reacts to
certain trigger conditions.
50) A(n) ________ is a person who has the special knowledge, judgment, experience,
and methods, and the ability to apply these talents to give advice and solve problems.
51) The ________ is the foundation of an expert system, which includes the relevant
knowledge necessary for understanding, formulating, and solving problems.
52) The process of eliciting knowledge is called ________.
53) The ________ of an expert system is the rule interpreter.
54) ________ is a goal-driven approach in which you start from an expectation of
what is going to happen and then seek evidence that supports or contradicts your
expectation.
55) ________ is a data-driven approach that starts from available information or from
a basic idea, which is used to try to draw conclusions.
56) ________ express belief in an event, fact, or hypothesis based on the expert's
assessment and can be represented by values ranging from 0 to 100.
57) ________ is the process that ensures the resulting knowledge base contains the
knowledge exactly the same as that acquired from the expert.
58) In ________ expert systems, knowledge in the knowledge base is represented in
IF-THEN rules that combine the condition and the conclusion for handling a specific
situation.
59) An ________ is an expert system without the knowledge in the knowledge base.
60) The Web can greatly support the spread of multimedia-based ES. Such systems
are called ________ systems.
61) Describe abilities that are signs of intelligence.
4) Inductive learning allows the computer to use historical cases to solve new
problems.
Diff: 2
5) Case-based reasoning (CBR) is analogical reasoning that adapts solutions that had
been used to solve old problems to solve new problems.
Diff: 2
7) Genetic algorithms (GA) are a part of global search techniques that are used to find
or produce the best solution to a specific problem.
Diff: 2
10) The thinking behind fuzzy logic is that decision making is not always a matter of
crisp logic, e.g., black or white or true or false. It often involves tones of gray and
varying degrees of truth.
Diff: 2
11) Fuzzy logic systems can be used in conducting property appraisals since it is
necessary to use judgment, experience, and intuition to generate estimates.
Diff: 2
15) In SVM, kernel trick allows us to construct a decision surface that is 3D in the
feature space while it is inherently nonlinear in the original input space.
Diff: 3
16) In the SVM model development process, the main advantage of normalizing or
scaling the data is to avoid attributes in greater numeric ranges dominating those in
smaller numeric ranges.
Diff: 3
17) An advantage of SVM models is that they tend to take less time to develop
compared to other predictive models.
Diff: 3
18) A personal daemon must be able to make decisions on its own and alter its course
of behavior when it meets an obstacle and find ways around the impediment.
Diff: 2
21) Neural networks identify ________ in the data from which they generate
recommended courses of action.
A) patterns
B) outliers
C) movements
D) associations
Diff: 1
23) Which of the following is not a relevant observation on how learning relates to
intelligent systems?
A) Automated learning systems are anchored in a formal bedrock; thus, their
implications are well understood.
B) Automated learning systems demonstrate intriguing learning behaviors.
C) Although AI sometimes matches human-level learning capabilities, it is not able to
learn as well as humans or in the same way that humans do.
D) A common thread running through most AI approaches to learning is the
manipulation of symbols rather than numeric information.
Diff: 3
29) According to the Simplified Taxonomy of Machine Learning, all of the following
are types of learning except:
A) Supervised learning
B) Reinforcement learning
C) Unreiforced learning
D) Unsupervised learning
Diff: 2
30) ________ allows the computer to examine historical cases and generate rules that
can be used to solve new problems or that can be deployed for automating a decision
support process that repeatedly deals with a specific class of problems (e.g.,
evaluating loan applications).
A) Exploration learning
B) Case-based reasoning
C) Explanation-based learning
D) Inductive learning
Diff: 2
33) Which of the following are special cases that contain rich contents and special
features of deep implications?
A) Descriptive cases
B) Foundation cases
C) Special cases
D) Stories cases
Diff: 2
36) Crossover means choosing a random position in the string and exchanging the
segments ________ of this point with another string.
A) to the right
B) to the left
C) to both left and right
D) to either left or right
Diff: 2
40) Autonomy implies that an intelligent agent takes initiative and exercises control
over its own actions by having each of the following characteristics except:
A) An agent should accept high-level requests indicating what a human wants, and it
should be responsible for deciding how and where to satisfy the requests.
B) An agent should be able to dynamically choose which actions to invoke, and in
what sequence, in response to the state of its external environment.
C) The agent should obey commands and not be able to modify requests.
D) An agent should sense changes in its environment and decide when to act.
41) Human learning is a combination of many complicated ________ processes.
42) ________ is a process of inducing knowledge from a set of observations whose
outcomes are known.
43) ________ is used to discover knowledge from a set of data whose outcomes are
unknown.
44) ________ segmentation is one of the unsupervised machine learning methods
wherein data is put into several groups based on their similarity.
45) The basic principle of machine learning is that there are data that preserve
previous decision experience, and these experience-based records are called
________.
46) ________ allows computers to examine historical cases and generate rules that
can be chained to solve new problems.
47) Genetic algorithms are sets of computational procedures that conceptually follow
steps inspired by the biological processes of ________.
48) Genetic algorithms demonstrate self-organization and ________ in much the same
way that the fittest biological organisms survive and reproduce.
49) Genetic algorithms ________ by producing offspring that are better and better
measured by a fitness-to-survive function.
50) A genetic algorithm represents its candidate solutions as strings of genes called
________ and measures their viability with a fitness function.
51) ________ deals with the kind of uncertainty and partial information that is
inherently human in nature.
56) In machine learning, the ________ is a method for using a linear classifier
algorithm to solve a nonlinear problem
57) An ________ is an autonomous computer program that observes and acts upon an
environment and directs its activity toward achieving specific goals.
58) ________ is one of the unintended by-products of the information age
characterized by huge volumes of information that cross the desks of mangers and
decision makers.
59) ________ is the degree of autonomy and authority vested in an agent and can be
measured by the nature of the interaction between the agent and other entities in the
system.
60) ________ is the degree to which agents themselves travel through a network.
Some agents may be static, either residing on the client machine or initiated at the
server.
61) Describe case-based reasoning. What type of leaning is it?
62) Compare rule-based reasoning and case-based reasoning (CBR).
63) Define these three categories of cases--ossified cases, paradigmatic cases, and
stories--based on their different characteristics and the different ways of handling
them.
3) Active RFID tags have their own power source and can initiate the data
transmission process on their own, but need a reader to energize them.
Diff: 2
4) One of the applications of the massive amounts of data that are generated by RFID
is in supply-chain management.
Diff: 2
6) Just as RFID generates major data streams for further analysis through BI
technologies that can assist in decision making, another massive data source and
technologies to make sense of the data are emerging. This type of data mining is
called reality mining.
Diff: 2
9) Advantages of Second Life are that it operates around the clock and a day in
Second Life is four hours long.
Diff: 2
10) Virtual worlds are well-developed, interesting tools for businesses and consumers
and have gained widespread acceptance.
Diff: 2
11) Web 2.0 is not only changing what is on the Web, but also how it works.
Diff: 1
12) Wikia is an example of a new business model that has emerged from Web 2.0. It s
the accumulation of the "power of the crowd," but the potential of such a business
model remains limited because of competition.
Diff: 2
13) Virtual communities takes place over a computer network and parallel typical
physical communities,
such as neighborhoods, clubs, or associations.
Diff: 2
14) Social network analysis (SNA) software is used to identify, represent, analyze,
visualize, or simulate network nodes and edges from various types of input data.
Diff: 2
15) Mobile social networking refers to social networking where members converse
and connect with one another using cell phones or other mobile devices. It is much
more popular in Japan, South Korea, and China than it is in the West.
Diff: 1
16) Advertising and sales are the major EC activities in public social networks.
Diff: 1
18) Management support systems (MSS) are important factors in the information,
Web, and knowledge revolution. This revolution is a cultural transformation like the
Industrial Revolution, both of which took place slowly and affected every facet of our
lives.
Diff: 2
19) Although many jobs may be substantially enriched by MSS, other jobs may
become more routine and less satisfying.
Diff: 1
20) Because the government is acquiring personal data to detect suspicious patterns of
activity, there is the prospect of improper or illegal use of the data. Many see such
gathering of data as a violation of citizens' freedoms and rights.
Diff: 2
21) What is the difference between active and passive RFID tags?
A) Active tags have a battery as their own power source and do not need a reader to
energize them like passive tags do.
B) Active tags receive energy from the electromagnetic field created by the reader;
and passive tags receive energy from a battery.
C) Active tags are faster and less expensive than passive tags.
D) Passive tags are most frequently found in defense or military systems, and active
tags are used more frequently in retail.
Diff: 2
22) The most commonly used data representation for RFID technology is the:
A) Common Product Code (CPC)
B) Universal Product Code (UPC)
C) Electronic Product Code (EPC)
D) Standard Product Code (SPC)
Diff: 2
23) RFID tag data for products consist of the following information except:
A) manufacturer
B) carrier
C) product
D) serial number
Diff: 2
24) Gillette has used RFID to determine whether stores have stocked their shelves
with particular items for a particular promotion. They found that in those stores that
used RFID to move a product from the backroom to the shelf before a promotion
started, sales were ________ than those that did not move the product in a timely
manner.
A) 8 percent higher
B) 18 percent higher
C) 28 percent higher
D) 48 percent higher
Diff: 2
25) The success of today's highly volatile perishables supply chains depends on the
level and the timeliness of ________.
A) product visibility
B) product data
C) supply chain management
D) RFID
Diff: 2
26) RFID generates major data streams ready for analysis through BI technologies.
Another massive data source is emerging, along with the data mining technologies to
make sense of the data, which is referred to as ________.
A) triangulation
B) location-enabled services
C) reality mining
D) sensor mining
Diff: 2
27) By analyzing and learning from these large-scale patterns of movement, Sense
Networks is now adapting this general technology to help consumers find people with
similar interests. This application is called ________.
A) Citysense
B) Macrosense
C) AppleSense
D) Second Life
Diff: 2
29) Which is not a major advantage of using Second Life for decision support?
A) easy access and low cost
B) pranksters and spam are filtered out
C) experienced and dedicated designer/builders
D) encourages active participation and experiential learning
Diff: 2
30) Although virtual worlds are becoming interesting tools for businesses and
consumers, several factors have kept them from gaining widespread acceptance.
Which of the following is one of those factors? :
A) Requires downloading of a plug-in
B) Users get addicted
C) Costs are too high
D) Lack of technical staff
Diff: 2
31) One of the most significant differences between Web 2.0 and the traditional Web
is the ________ of Web 2.0:
A) enhanced privacy and security protection
B) opportunity to offer decision support capabilities in a novel way
C) greater collaboration among Internet users and other users, content providers, and
enterprises
D) All of the above.
Diff: 2
32) A ________ is a social network organized around a common interest, idea, task,
or goal; members interact across time, geographic location, and organizational
boundaries to develop personal relationships.
A) virtual community
B) Web 2.0
C) wiki
D) trade fair
Diff: 2
34) MySpace and Facebook, Wikipedia and YouTube are examples of ________.
A) Web logs
B) online social networks
C) social network analysis software
D) Live Spaces
Diff: 1
35) A primary reason why Facebook has expanded so rapidly is the ________, which
refers to the principle that more users means more value.
A) network effect
B) mobile effect
C) mobile media
D) connection effect
Diff: 2
36) The term cloud computing originates from a reference to the ________ as a cloud
and represents an evolution of all of previous shared/centralized computing trends.
A) server
B) client
C) Internet
D) network
Diff: 1
38) Which of the following is not an impact of management support systems (MSS)
technologies?
A) organizational
B) governmental
C) individual
D) societal
Diff: 2
39) Which of the following is not an impact of automated decision systems (ADS)?
A) Reduction of upper management
B) Empowerment of customers
C) Improved customer service
D) Increased productivity
Diff: 2
64) List four major disadvantages of using Second Life for decision support.
65) Describe three representative characteristics of the Web 2.0 environment.
66) Describe social network analysis (SNA) software.
67) What is Twitter and how can it add business value to marketers?
68) Computer technology has already changed our world, and much more change is
anticipated. What are some of the major areas of social impact?
69) What are some of the potential positive and negative impacts of MSS on
managers' jobs?
70) What is privacy? Why is it difficult to enforce privacy regulations?