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Chapter one-HRM

Chapter Two-HRP AND Job Analysis


1. Employment planning ultimately translates organizational goals into
A. Quantities and types of workers.
B. Locations of new production facilities.
C. Retirement policies.
D. Product modifications for new kinds of families.
E. Strategic plans.
2. Diane is vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing firm. When should
she become involved in strategic planning for her organization?
A. She should do all of it as part of her job.
B. She should never be involved in it. That function should be performed in financial
management and marketing areas.
C. She should never be involved in it. Globalization and technology have made strategic planning
obsolete.
D. As a senior manager, she needs to show other managers the best way to take charge of the new
workplace.
E. Her real contribution comes after organizational downsizing.
3. Andrew was finishing up his first major executive presentation. He summarized with a c
hart that identified strengths and weaknesses of his organization, such as training and dev
elopment, numbers of patents, and worker skills, as well as an external assessment of opp
ortunities and threats. What was Andrew doing?
A. Competitive intelligence.
B. Employment plan.
C. SWOT analysis.
D. Critical evaluation.
E. Core competence outline.

4. The steps of the strategic planning process, in order, are


A. Mission, people, strategy, structure.
B. Goals, structure, mission, people.
C. Goals, strategy, structure, people.
D. Structure, people, goals, mission.
E. Needs, goals, strategy, vision.

5. All of these functions are part of the strategic planning process except
A. Establishing competitive intelligence.
B. Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom.
C. Setting goals and objectives.
D. Determining how goals and objectives will be attained.
E. Determining what business the organization will be in.

6. Don, an HR executive, is involved in employment planning for the first two months of each
year. Why?
A. To identify strategic goals for the company.
B. To meet the requirements set during the strategic planning process.
C. To reduce corporate espionage.
D. To replace gap analysis activities.
E. To find replacement workers.

7. Don needs new employees in a production area. Potential new workers can come from a
any of these sources except.

A. New hires.
B. Contingent workers.
C. Transfers in.
D. Sabbaticals.
E. Individuals returning from leave.

8. Daniel, the vice-president of human resource, is involved in a corporate initiative to right


size his organization. He is involved in all of these activities except
A. Dividing the organization into smaller, more flexible units.
B. Balancing staff to meet changing needs.
C. Serving as corporate liaison across the marketing and research divisions.
D. Outsourcing.
E Increasing staff to add value to the organization.

9. Dee works in the human resources area of a large organization. As part of her duties, she

identifies the required tasks, knowledge and skills necessary for performing jobs in her or
ganization. What does she do?
A. Job identification.
B. Job clarification.
C. Job analysis.
D. Position description.
E. Position strategy description.

10. During a job analysis, all of these tasks are performed except
A. Promotion patterns and succession plans are identified.
B. A description of what happens on a job is provided.
C. Skills and knowledge necessary to perform a job are precisely identified.
D. Duties and responsibilities of a job are defined.
E. Conditions under which a job should be performed are described.

11. Jill is attending a workshop on the steps in conducting a job analysis. Which of these steps
should she perform first?
A. Develop a draft.
B. Benchmark positions.
C. Determine how to collect job analysis information.
D. Understand the role of jobs in the organization.
E. Evaluate competitive position options.

12.Job analysis is directly related to all of the following organizational issues except
A. Compensation.
B. Product quality.
C. Training.
D. Recruiting.
E. Retention.

13. Vital Resources, a strategic development firm mentioned in your text, attributed a client problem
(65% turnover of sales professionals over the past eighteen months) to which of the following?

A. Promotion levels were too low.


B. The job analysis process was lacking.
C. Pay rates werent competitive.
D. Benchmarking was not used for production scheduling.
E. Management training practices were old fashioned.

14. Frank, a college intern in human resources management at a large service organization,
recently completed a job analysis for the 600 jobs in the east coast operations center. Most
of the jobs were thought to be the same as they were 5 years ago when the previous job
analysis was conducted. When Lloyd, his boss, reviewed Franks work, he found that a lot
of known job activities were not included. Further, some odd, even bizarre, activities we
re reported. What technique did Frank use?
A. Observation.
B. Individual interview.
C. Structured questionnaire.
D. Group interview.
E. Technical Conference.

15. Michelle has gathered job analysis data with a structured questionnaire for jobs in Plant #
101. She wants to use an additional collection technique to make sure she does not miss
details. Much of the work is done collectively, and she is skilled in dealing with issues
related to group dynamics. Which job analysis method should she use?
A. Observation.
B. Structured questionnaire.
C. Group interview.
D. Diary.
E. Cyber data.

16. Lena has gathered job analysis data with individual interviews for managerial jobs in remote
locations of her large manufacturing firm. There has been high turnover in recent years
Exit interviews have produced comments like, "You should have told me what was really
expected." She wants to use an additional collection technique to avoid future job
misrepresentation in job descriptions. The technique should not require a lot of time, but it
should be comprehensive. Which method should she use?
A. Observation.
B. Structured questionnaire.

C. Group interview.
D. Diary.
E. Gap analysis.

17. Monique, the director of job analysis, must write job descriptions for new managers in a
new plant for her large manufacturing firm. The new robotics line will make this location
comparable to an existing site in Buffalo. She has time (at least 6 months) to go to Buffal
o to gather information from the current managers in that facility. Which job analysis
method should she use?
A. Observation.
B. Structured questionnaire.
C. Benchmark.
D. Diary.
E. Technical conference.

18. Rhona, a junior job analyst, needs to use several techniques for some new positions in a
new facility. How should she select the techniques?
A. Use the cheapest techniques.
B. Use techniques she has had the best experience with in other situations.
C. Use techniques that meet her goals (money and quality) and timetables.
D. Use new techniques that the organization has never experienced before.
E. If she thinks she needs to use multiple techniques, then she should use only the
diary method. Even though it takes the longest, it will give her the comprehensive
results that she needs.

19. Trudy, the director of job analysis for a large manufacturing firm, has hired an assistant.
Which "good advice" is the best advice for her assistant?
A. Pick only one job analysis technique. Get to be an expert in it.
B. The most important perspective to collect for any job is your own. Make sure you
observe the work.
C. The most important perspective to collect for any job is from the manager.
D. Dont benchmark positions in a large firm. It takes too much time.
E. If a job has no linkage to the strategic direction of the organization, that job may
not be needed.

20. Supervisors are typically involved in all of these stages of job analysis except
A. writing the first draft of the job description.
B. clarifying information collected for job analysis.
C. being a source for data collection.
D. identifying benchmark positions.
E. reviewing a draft of the job description.

21.A typical job description would include all of these items except
A. job title.
B. benefits and perquisites.
C. duties and responsibilities.
D. environmental conditions.
E. functions.

22. Which statement best compares job specifications and job descriptions?
A. Job description and job specification have both been made obsolete by job evaluation
B. Job description focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job specification focuses on
what the jobholder does.
C. Job specification focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job description focus
on what the jobholder does.
D. Job description is the same as job specification.
E. Job specification occurs after job analysis. Job description occurs before job analysis

23. Your text gives a sample job description for a benefits manager. Which section gives the
job specification?
A. Functions.
B. Knowledge, skills, and abilities.
C. Core competencies.
D. Job characteristics.
E. Occupational code.

24. How does job evaluation link to the compensation system of an organization, according to
your text?
A. There is no link.
B. Job evaluation is performed by senior human resources professionals.
C. Job evaluation is the same as compensation.
D. Job evaluation specifies the relative value of each job in an organization.
E. Job evaluation identifies the market value of most jobs in an organization.

25.Stan is vice-president of human resources in a medium- sized manufacturing firm. He is


trying to explain why job descriptions are an important organizational resource to the rest
of the executive board. He could use all of the following as examples except
A. The job description can be used to describe the job during interviews with
prospective job candidates.
B. The job description can be used to describe the job in written advertisements.
C. The job description can be used to identify essential job functions for ADA
compliance requirements.
D. The job description can be used to identify potential jobs for the Family and
Medical Leave Act.
E. The job description can be used to help newly hired employees understand what
they are specifically expected to do.

26.How important is job analysis to the contemporary y organization? Your text makes all of
these assertions except
A. Job analysis is the starting point of sound human resource management.
B. Job analysis has replaced other aspects of strategic human resource manag
management.
C. If an organization doesnt do its job analysis well, it probably doesnt perf
orm many of its human resource activities well.
D. If employees of an organization understand human resource activities, the
y should understand the fundamental importance of job analysis.
E. Job analysis permeates most of an organizations activities.

27.The most frequently cited HR functions directly affected by job analysis include all of the
following except
A. Compensation.
B. Recruiting.

C. Selection.
D. Performance appraisal
E. Labor relations processes.

28. Recruiting
A. Should be performed before employment planning.
B. Should be performed after employment planning.
C. Is an alternative to selection.
D. Is used only for IT jobs.
E. Is a danger signal in a benchmarked organization.

29. Gloria is the vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing organization.
She is concerned that there are 40% fewer applicants for jobs this year than last year. She
should talk to the director of
A. Selection.
B. Career planning.
C. Benefits.
D. Recruiting.
E. Location.

30. Jane is the director of recruiting for a large corporation. Which of the following is a
warning signal that her efforts are not effective?
A. Recruiting costs have increased 10% over the last 3 years.
B. The applicant pool is increasing in size.
C. Janes secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses from overqualified
applicants than she did a year ago.
D. Jane's secretary y spends less time acknowledging ad responses from under qualified
applicants than she did a year ago.
E. The applicant pool is becoming increasingly diverse.

31. In the recruiting process, positive self-removal happens when


A. Human resources gets out of the hiring loop. Working divisions advertise for and inter

view their own job candidates.


B. There is a streamlined human resources office arrangement. Candidates can escort
themselves out, thus reducing the need for receptionists and security personnel.
C. Job requirements are communicated clearly enough that potential applicants who are
not qualified do not apply.
D. All applicants are encouraged to apply for jobs.
E. Women and minority applicants are encouraged to apply.

32. Successful recruiting efforts are indicated by all of these outcomes except
A. Turnover decreases.
B. Training costs go down.
C. More job seekers know about available jobs.
D. The applicant pool is increasingly diverse.
E. The skill levels of applicants for any given job are increasingly diverse.

33. Why do organizations want unqualified applicants to apply for jobs?


A. The applicants may be suitable for other jobs in the organization.
B. They dont. It increases time and money to remove these candidates from the
applicant pool.
C. The informational process is a good way to get a company known.
D. They dont. Organizations are frequently sued for allowing unqualified applicants
to apply.
E. The tax write-off is a major financial incentive.

34. Pat, director of human resources at a medium-sized east coast university, has been unable
to fill the last three vacancies for dean of a college or school. After checking with friends
who have talked to candidates and potential candidates, she found that the jobs are low pa
id, boring, and very stressful, compared to the same job at other institutions. Faculty
recruiting has not been a problem. What constraint is affecting her organization?
A. Organizational image.
B. Attractiveness of the job.
C. Internal organizational policies.
D. Governmental influence.
E. Recruiting costs.

35.A manufacturing organization needs to hire a Chief Information Officer to bring the com
company into the 21st century for computer usage and technology. The human resources area
has been directed to promote someone from within the organization, but no one has the te
technical skills or abilities needed. These recruiting efforts are constrained by
A. Organizational image.
B. Attractiveness of the job.
C. Internal organizational policies.
D. Governmental influence.
E. Recruiting costs.

36. A petroleum manufacturer has difficulty hiring project engineers. The hours are long, but
the money is great. Last year, the firm started doing airport interviews in major cities to
screen the applicant pool. Only the most promising candidates are then invited to the
company site for a lengthier interview process. An HR representative went to an industry
business luncheon last week and found that no competitors are having similar recruiting
problems. None of them were conducting airport interviews, and three of his associates com
commented that the project engineers really needed to see the facility to make up their minds.
The companys recruiting is being constrained by
A. Organizational image.
B. Attractiveness of the job.
C. Internal organizational policies.
D. Governmental influence.
E. Recruiting costs.

37. Luz, a large pharmaceutical firm recruiter, cant get any college recruits because the firm
has lost three major product safety lawsuits in the last year and now has a reputation for
being uncaring and unethical. Her recruiting efforts were constrained by
A. Organizational image.
B. Attractiveness of the job.
C. Internal organizational policies.
D. Governmental influence.
E. Recruiting costs.

38. What issues related to diversity are important to the recruiter responsible for newspaper
advertisements?
A. Job qualifications must be general to avoid offense.

B. Language must be carefully chosen to avoid adverse impact.


C. Job specifications must not narrow an applicant pool.
D. Language should be jargon filled to identify potential applicants.
E. All advertisements should be written in several languages.

39.An internal search has all of these disadvantages except


A. more costs are incurred than by going outside.
B. new technical skills may not be available.
C. infighting is caused between ambitious employees.
D. decreased morale is found in employees not selected.
E. applicant pool is limited.

40. A major manufacturer needs to find a senior vice-president of research. What recruiting t
techniques should be used?
A. Employee referral.
B. Advertisement.
C. Contractor.
D. Executive placement.
E.College placement center.

41. Mark, an Information Technology specialist for a large firm, is at a party with some friends
from college. He runs into Duffy, a fellow computer science major, and says, Why dont
you come to work with us? You were at the top of the class in school and I know youve
done really well with Data Croc. Lets do dinner next week and Ill fill you in on
opportunities. Is anything wrong with this as a recruiting activity?
A. Yes. Recruiting activities should only be performed by trained professionals.
B. Yes. Employee referrals are the single biggest cause of .com business failures
in this decade.
C. No. This ploy to get competitive information is accepted in the Information
Technology world.
D.Yes. Such actions are illegal.
E. No. Duffy should get a good idea about the company and Mark already knows a
about his credentials.

42. Employee referrals offer all of these recruiting advantages except

A. The applicant may have more realistic job information than is available in the paper
or other advertisements.
B. An employee knows his/her reputation is at stake, and so uses good judgment in
making a referral.
C. Referrals are more likely to accept an offer if it is made.
D. Referrals include personal and friendship criteria in addition to job related skills.
E. Referrals are more likely to stay in a job than other applicants.

43. Your school is hiring a new professor to teach this human resource course. Which one of
the following pieces of recruiting information would be most likely to assure that the wo
woman is a good teacher?
A. The person is relocating to the area because of a spouse.
B. She graduated from an excellent school.
C. An excellent teacher recommended her.
D. The spouse placed the initial inquiry call.
E. A current employee was a grade school friend of the woman.

44. An advertisement for a blue collar job is likely to be found in all of these places except
A. A placard posted on a plant gate.
B. A local newspaper.
C. The Wall Street Journal.
D. A trade journal.
E. Monster.com

45. Professional organizations do all of the following recruiting functions except


A. Provide member rosters.
B. Publish lists of job vacancies.
C. Provide placement facilities at national meetings.
D. Charge finder fees for the best job prospects.
E. Limit the supply of prospective applicants.

46.Internet recruiting is popular for all of these reasons except


A. It is much more secure than using a traditional search firm.
B. It costs less than traditional print advertising.
C. Organizations can showcase their products, mission statement, and

corporate philosophy, and thus increase the quality of applicants.


D. Websumes can be easily accessed.
E. Paper resume usage is decreased.
47. Ruth needs to present the benefits of using the Internet to enhance recruiting efforts to top
management. She can use all of these examples given in the text except
A. It will cut down on paper resumes. Cisco received 80% of its resumes electronically
B. It will cut down on advertising costs. A west coast organization posted a job online
for $50. The same ad would have cost $2000 in the local paper.
C. Its easier to create subgroup categories by unique talents.
D. Although it does not increase diversity, it does not harm it for the recruiting effort.
E. It is useful for every kind of job, from high tech, executive, to all kinds of non-technical
jobs.
48. The selection process typically consists of all of these steps except
A. Comprehensive interview.
B. Screening interview.
C. Application form.
D. Employment tests.
E. Compensatory interview.

49. Why are there so many steps in the selection process?


A. During the downsizing activities of the late 1990s, many organizations transferred
unneeded HR employees to the selection area.
B. Current work related behaviors are seldom indicated by past performance.
C. There are not many steps. Most employers hire after only one interview and a referral.
D. Each step provides additional information about an applicants background, abilities,
and motivation.
E. Each step is required by law in any organization with more than 25 employees.
50. Which of the following would be likely to remove an applicant during the initial screening?
A. Physical exam.
B. Performance test data.
C. Lots of brief jobs.
D. Honesty tests.
E. Ages of children.

51. Why do some recruiters use videoconferencing in the employment process?


A. It is important to have visual acuity.
B. It saves recruiting money.
C. It allows for more intensive background checks.
D. It lets future employees bond early in their careers.
E. It is now required for all organizations that utilize federal contractors for more
than $200,000 per year.

52. When is salary range typically discussed during the selection process?
A. In the initial screening.
B. After the background check.
C. During the medical examination.
D. As part of performance evaluation.
E. It is the major subject of the comprehensive interview.

53. Which of these steps may be performed after a conditional job offer is made to an applicant?

A. Application completion.
B. Background examination.
C. Employment test.
D. Comprehensive interview.
E. Compliance assessment.

54. Which of these selection steps is typically done after a medical examination is given?
A. Employment test.
B. Screening interview.
C. Comprehensive interview.
D. Permanent job offer made.
E. Application completed.

55. Don, vice- president of human resources, wants to decrease turnover for counter workers
at a fast food chain. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered
covered the following information: 70% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had
no prior work experience; 80% of employees who stayed longer than 1 year held more
than 2 previous jobs; 50% of employees who stayed less than 90 days held less than a high
school degree; 45% of employees who stayed more than a year held a high school degree;
40% of employees who indicated only weekend work schedules left within 90 days; 45%
of workers who indicated no weekend work schedules left within 90 days. What should he
do?
A. Raise educational requirements for the job.
B. Lower educational requirements for the job.
C. Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational level.
D. Weight educational level more heavily than prior job experience.
E. Require weekend work schedules.

56. Don, vice-president of human resources for a large pharmaceutical manufacturer, wants t
o decrease training time required for secretaries. Secretaries are hired and put into a
training pool until the supervisor clears them for permanent assignment. He examined work
application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 50%
of employees who stayed in the pool less than 10 days had no prior work experience;
55% of employees who stayed in the pool longer than 90 days held more than 2 previous
jobs; 80% of employees who stayed in the pool less than 10 days held a college degree in
liberal arts; 85% of employees who stayed in the pool more than 90 days held a college
degree in liberal arts; 80% of employees who left the pool within 10 days listed WordPerf
WordPerfect, Lotus, and Harvard Graphics as skills on the application form; 80% of employees
who stayed in the pool more than 90 days listed Microsoft Office as skills on the
application form. What should he do?
A. None of these items should be weighted more heavily than any of the others.
B. Weight skills listed more heavily than educational background.
C. Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational background.
D. Weight educational background more heavily than prior job experience.
E. Application forms can not be used in this way.

57. John is in the final interview stages as an applicant for a midlevel manager position in an
IT firm. He has talked to technical experts, filled out application forms, and taken a
programmer test. Now hes talking to a senior vice president who just asked him if hes
leaving his old firm because he is being forced out. The vice president continues, Rumor has
it that the huge loss last quarter was your fault, John. What is going on?

A. John is being harassed. He should file charges with the EEOC.


B. John is in a stress interview.
C. John is in a panel interview.
D. John is receiving a realistic job preview.
E. John is in an impression interview.

58. Rick is an experienced interviewer for a large service organization. He makes sure he asks
the same questions in the same order of all applicants. What is he doing?
A. Assessment center.
B. Panel interview.
C. Comprehensive interview.
D. Structured interview.
E. Situational interview.

59. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been questioned for all of these reasons
except
A. prior knowledge about the applicant can bias the interviewers evaluation.
B. the interviewer often holds a stereotype of what represents a good applicant.
C. negative information is given unduly high weight.
D. the order in which applicants are interviewed often influences evaluation.
E. the order in which questions are asked has no influence on the evaluation.

60. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been questioned for all of these reasons
except
A. Well-organized and structured interviews limit results.
B. Interviewers may forget much of the interviews content within minutes after the
Interview is completed.
C. The interviewer may make a decision as to the applicants suitability in the first
few minutes of the interview.
D. The order in which information about the job and the job applicant is given
influences the outcome of the interview.
E. Interviewers often tend to favor applicants who share their own attitudes.

61.All of the following could be used as part of a realistic job preview except

A. Plant tour.
B. Films of actual work.
C. Lunch with a group of employees who would be peers.
D. Promotional film by a motivational expert.
E. Work sampling.

62. Which of the following best describes the relationship between socialization and
organizational stability?
A. Research shows no relationship.
B. Organizational stability makes socialization unnecessary.
C. Organizational stability is diminished through socialization.
D. Proper socialization increases organizational stability over time as objectives are
transferred between generations of employees.
E. Proper socialization is used to change organizational philosophy and values.

63. John and Dean, senior members of a financial management team, took Luz, a rookie, to
lunch to explain the ropes of the new job. Why did they do that?
A. New members create anxiety for long time employees.
B. Peer influence is a subtle and important socialization factor.
C. Organizational stability is increased through socialization.
D. Socialization influences an employees morale, but not productivity.
E. There is a similar adjustment pattern to new situations for most individuals.

64. Proper socialization


A. adjusts new employees understanding of their role so that they fit on the job.
B. influences how longtime employees perceive their own and others performances.
C. influences job performance of new and longtime employees.
D. is a key to successful recruitment.
E. can actually eliminate the need for quality control.

65. Outcomes of the socialization process are


A. Prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis.

B. Goals, roles, values.


C. Peers, supervisors, human resources professionals.
D. Turnover, commitment, performance.
E. Compensation, benefits, training.

66.Joan manages information technology specialists, such as web designers. Although nearly
80% of her new employees stay with the organization and progress, 75% of the graduates
of a local community college have to be dismissed or quit within 90 days because they
are unable to adapt to the firm. Failure has occurred in the socialization stage.

A. Encounter.
B. Metamorphosis.
C. Prearrival.
D. Transfer.
E. Passage.

67. Jills first day on the job in a .com startup consisted of stopping in her supervisors office,
meeting the other five members of the development team, and setting up her desk. One
of her co-workers showed her the coffee machine, the rest room, and the supply room.He
said hed come over when it was time for lunch. When should Jill receive her formal
new orientation program?
A. There may be no more orientation than what she has just experienced.
B. Her formal orientation program occurred earlier, as part of the selection process.
C. Most .coms wait and orient all new employees on a quarterly basis. She will have
to wait until the start of the next quarter.
D. If she doesnt ask to be sent to the program, she wont receive it.
E. Work team indoctrination has replaced formal orientation in all information technology
organizations.

68. Background investigation can include all of the following except


A. Contacting former employers to confirm the candidates work record.
B. Verifying educational accomplishments shown on the application form.
C. Comparing notes between interviewers.
D. Verifying I-9 Forms.
E. Checking credit references.

69. Medical examinations are used


A. To assess minimum health standards for enrollment in a company health and life
insurance program.
B. To create adverse impacts for jobs.
C. To avoid adverse impacts for jobs.
D. To identify preferred physical characteristics in a job category.
E. To replace conditional job offers.

70. Why is the comprehensive selection process preferable to the discrete process of eliminating
candidates at every step of the process?
A. It is less costly.
B. It lets overriding good factors counteracts bad factors.
C. It uses less management time.
D. It uses less overall time.
E. It builds morale of all job applicants.

71. Your text makes all of these suggestions to avoid hiring mistakes except
A. Hire a temporary worker to avoid panic.
B. update job requirements, duties, and responsibilities before you fill the position.
C. Check references.
D. Dont depend on letters; call and talk with someone.
E. Dont hire someone who has used a professional resume writing service.

72. Jim, the vice-president of human resource, is reading the evaluations from his latest
orientation program. New employees report satisfactory awareness of physical facilities,
grievance procedures, and benefits options. However, many of them are unable to complete
the statement, The reason we are in the business we are in is and his trainers report that
they leave the session in a lackadaisical way; no one is charged up. What should Jim do?
A. Hire new trainers to deliver the orientation material.
B. Stress the new buildings on the tour.
C. Remove the part of the program dealing with grievance procedures.
D. Have the CEO share the vision of the organization.
E. Change the recruiting practices to attract more energetic people to the firm.

73.Involving the CEO in the orientation process provides all of these benefits except
A. it sends a message that the company truly cares about its employees.
B. CEO visioning helps provide indoctrination into organizational culture and values.
C. fear of the unknown is reduced.
D. a CEO welcome can encourage newcomers, like a pep rally.
E. reduced medical and educational coverage is more easily accepted.

74.Human resources management staff play all of these roles in new employee orientation
except
A. Coordinate the orientation process.
B. Notify the new employee when to report to work.
C. Explain the benefits options.
D. Give visioning speeches.
E. Explain career development programs.

75.

Jan runs a temporary agency that provides experienced IT professionals. She gives an IT
network system with bugs to job candidates and an hour to get it running as part of the
selection process. This test is an example of
A. Concept validity.
B. Constraint validity.
C. Content validity.
D. Parallel validity.
E. Discriminant analysis.

76. Training typically can involve changing all of the following except
A. Skills.
B. Knowledge.
C. Values.
D. Attitudes.
E. Behaviors.

77. Dr. Wattabor, a college professor, uses only PowerPoint lectures to teach his classes.

When students raise their hands during class to ask questions, Dr. Wattabor ridicules them p
publicly and tells them to read the book. Usually, by mid-term, no student raises a hand.
What, according to principles of learning, has occurred?
A. Negative reinforcement.
B. Feedback.
C. Zoning.
D. Plateau.
E. Positive reinforcement.

78. B.W., a teller trainer for a large bank, has designed a new training program that largely
automates the training process. Tellers go into a cage, and are given simple sample
transactions to process. If an error is made, a flashing light and bell indicates to everyone in the
training area that the person has made a mistake. If the transaction is processed correctly,
the teller is given a more difficult task. B.W. proudly presents the new format to the
industrial psychologist who consults with the bank on such programs. Which of the following
statements would the industrial psychologist be most likely to make?
A. Teller trainees would not be motivated to learn these processes.
B. The program is designed to teach skills that are not transferable to the job.
C. Plateauing makes this program inappropriate.
D. There is no feedback in your program.
E. Positive reinforcement would improve your program.

79. Wayne tells his students, Thanks for the input. Great idea!, every time one of them answers
a question he asks, regardless of the rightness of the answer. What learning theory is he illustrating?

A. Transferability.
B. Potability.
C. Plateau.
D. Reinforcement.
E. Direction.

80. Compare employee development to employee training.


A. Training focuses on work groups. Development focuses on individuals.
B. Development may be required for salary increases. Training is required for
promotions.
C. Training completion rates are higher than development completion rates.

D. Training is computer assisted. Development never uses information technology.


E. Training focuses on the current job. Development focuses on future jobs.

81. Matt runs a ski instruction school in the Berkshire Mountains. He has a room where an
individual stands in skis that are mounted in the floor, places a helmet on his head that
simulates speed, obstacles, and weather, and the consequences of the ski students muscle
responses.What kind of training is described here?
A. Vestibule.
B. Job rotation.
C. Interactive video disks.
D. Virtual reality.
E. Programmed instruction.

82. Carol is in line for a senior vice president position at a large hotel conglomerate. She has
just arrived for her new employee development assignment. She is on the board of the
largest San Francisco hotel, working closely with the chief operating officer of that facility.
What method is being used?
A. Virtual reality.
B. Vestibule
C. Adjusted.
D. Assistant-to.
E. Survival training.

83. Penny was hired as a bank teller. She was trained in the banks training center room set u
up like a real tellers cage. Trainers posed as clients. Video cameras were used to record s
some of her sessions, and that film was later used to help her improve. What kind of
training did Penny receive?
A. Simulation.
B. Vestibule training.
C. Computer-based training.
D. Experiential exercise.
E. Apprenticeship.

84.The managerial role of coaching can include all of the following except
A. Keep quiet about poor performance, hoping it will go away.
B. Listen without getting defensive.
C. Provide frequent feedback, not just at appraisal time.
D. Remove obstacles to good performance.
E. Find out why performance or attitude of an employee is waning.

85. Bruce is an OD consultant hired by a large insurance company. He starts the process by
discussing employee attitudes about decision making practices, communication effective
ness satisfaction with jobs and coworkers, and leadership. What organizational development
strategy is Bruce using?
A. Climate survey.
B. Team building.
C. White water.
D. Third-party intervention.
E. Groupthink.
86. What skills do good change agents possess?
A. Sensitivity to people, gentle demeanor.
B. Outstanding communication skills, ability to take risks.
C. Mathematical ability, multiple languages.
D. Cost evaluation, design methodology.
E. Control, outstanding communication skills.

87. Brian, the OD consultant for your company, has just proposed a year long schedule of tea
m building activities. What has he diagnosed as an organizational problem?
A. Resistance to change.
B. Low skill levels in production areas.
C. Lack of trust and openness.
D. Conflicts between functional areas.
E. Learning reluctance.

88.To develop a learning organization, people need to do all of the following except
A. Develop new mental models.
B. Understand how their company really works.
C. Have shared vision.
D. Engage in team learning.
E. Concentrate on personal master y of technical, narrowly defined skills.

89. Training evaluation typically consists of which of the following actions?


A. Opinions about a training program are solicited from participants, their managers,
and HRM representatives.
B. The skill level increase of participants is measured.
C. Managers are surveyed 90 days after training to see if employees are using new sk
ills.
D. No evaluation is performed.
E. The program is assessed according to whether or not it attained its desired result (l
ower turnover, better customer service, for example.)
90. Fernando, director of training for a large manufacturing organization, is evaluating a new
training program to improve welding skills for all metal workers. He has gathered
performance information about strength, number of welds, and other work-related indicators.
He plans to compare similar figures gathered 3 months after employees complete the
course. What training evaluation method is Fernando using?
A. Supervisor and incumbent opinion.
B. Test-retest method.
C. Pre-post performance method.
D. Pre-post training performance with control group method.
E. Employee inventory.

91. Sean, director of training for a large manufacturing organization, has developed a workpl
ace violence prevention program. All employees are interviewed a month after attending
the program. They are asked about any workplace behaviors that are described as violent
and their actions in those situations. What training evaluation method is Sean using?
A. Supervisor and incumbent opinion.
B. Test-retest method.
C. Pre-post performance method.
D. Pre-post training performance with control group method.
E. Post training performance method.

92. Dan, department chairman at a large university, has developed a new instructor trainingp
program. He plans to measure student satisfaction in ten classes, then put instructors for
half of the classes through the new program. A semester later he will measure student
satisfaction again. What training evaluation method is Dan using?
A. Supervisor and incumbent opinion.
B. Test-retest method.
C. Pre-post performance method.
D. Pre-post training performance with control group method.
E. Post training performance method.

93.Cultural sensitivity is most often taught to employees before overseas assignments throu
through all of these techniques except
A. Role playing.
B. Simulation.
C. Meetings with former international assignees.
D. Reading.
E. Sessions with natives of the assigned country who are living in the U.S.

94. Your text mentions that cross-cultural training includes all of the following areas
except
A. History.
B. Business Practices.
C. Politics.
D. Religion.
E. Geography.

95.Cultural learning takes place on an overseas assignment as well as before it. Your texts
mentions all of these activities except
A. plan weekend trips away from the host country as often as possible.
B. watch television even if you dont know the language.
C. visit parks, museums, and zoos.
D. make friends with local people.
E. forget the word, foreign.

96.The success of performance management systems is dependent on all of these factors


except
A. Who hires new employees.
B. Why performance evaluations are performed.
C. What type of performance evaluation is used.
D. Who benefits from the performance evaluation.
E. What problems are encountered in the performance evaluation process.

97. Rhona, shift supervisor for a textile mill, is working with a performance management
system that she finds very frustrating. She has to evaluate employees on friendliness and
several other factors that have nothing to do with job performance. Work quality is not
measured. Several of her employees have shouted at her when she goes over the results
with them. What should be done?
A. Rhona should receive interpersonal skills training.
B. Rhona should do team development exercises with her subordinates.
C. The performance measures should be changed to address goals of the job.
D. Rhona should not discuss the results of the performance evaluation with her subor
dinates.
E. Raises should be withheld for any employee who shouts at a manager.

98. Carol has two subordinates, Barbara and Ed. She likes Ed better, and he jokes around wit
with her a lot. Barbara is a better employee, and certainly more likely to be promoted.
Carol has just completed performance evaluations for both employees, and Ed is rated
significantly higher than Barbara. What should be changed?
A. Employees should not be compared to each other.
B. Carol needs to be sincere and honest. Without that, no performance management
system will be effective.
C. Barbara should be transferred to a supervisor who likes her.
D. HRM should audit the performance management system to make sure that factors
are current.
E. The performance management system should be replaced with an online
evaluation process to eliminate any bias.

99.Duffy meets Mark, his longtime friend after a hard day at work. He complains that he just
had his annual review and he and his boss both ended up shouting at each other. There
was some minor name calling. When Mark asks Duffy what he needs to do to improve,
Duffy just looks at him and says they didnt get that far. They are going to continue in th
the morning. Mark, an HR professional, makes all of these suggestions to his friend except
A. Try to understand the evaluation criteria that are being used.
B. Make sure to contribute to the discussion.
C. Make sure areas of improvement are addressed.
D. Its good that emotions run high; it shows your boss that you care.
E. Work out a deliberate plan for the next performance appraisal.

100. Managers should use which of the following sources of information for employee perfor
performance evaluation?
A. Written reports.
B. Oral reports.
C. Personal observation.
D. Statistical reports.
E. Some combination of input.

101. The performance appraisal process consists of six steps:


1. Establish performance standards with employees.
2. Mutually set measurable goals.
3. Measure actual performance.
4. Compare actual performance with standards.
5. Discuss the appraisal with the employee.
6. If necessary, initiate corrective action.
What is the correct sequence in which to perform these steps?
A. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1, 6.
B. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 6.
C. 3, 4, 6, 5, 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
E. 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5.

102. Frank, a marketing representative, just received his first performance appraisal. His boss
reviewed a very good record, and commended Frank especially on the way he handled
difficult clients and always completed paperwork on time. Frank was told to keep up
the good work. What was the outcome of this appraisal process?
A. Franks manager discussed the appraisal with him.
B. Frank received organizational development from his manager.
C. Frank received no helpful feedback from his manager during this process.
D. Frank's manager initiated immediate corrective action.
E. Frank's manager initiated basic corrective action.

103. Sharon, a secretary, has just received her first performance appraisal in a major m
manufacturing firm. Her manager told her that her mathematical and analytical skills were
excellent, but that she needed to show up to work on time and follow the company
regulations for lunch hours, breaks, personal phone calls, and leaving her work station. Her per
performance would be evaluated again in 30 days. What was the outcome of this appraisal
process?
A. Sharon was fired - very nicely.
B. Sharon received career development from her manager.
C. Sharon received no helpful feedback from her manager during this process.
D. Sharons manager initiated immediate corrective action.
E. Sharon's manager initiated basic corrective action.

104. Sharon, a secretary, has just received her first performance appraisal in a major
manufacturing firm. Her manager told her that her mathematical and analytical skills were
excellent, but that she needed to show up to work on time and follow the company regulations
for lunch hours, breaks, personal phone calls, and leaving her work station. Her boss
asks her if there are any circumstances that prevent her from showing up on time, and if
she clearly understands that the organization does not allow flex time in any form. What
was the outcome of this appraisal process?
A. Sharon was fired - very nicely.
B. Sharon received career development from her manager.
C. Sharon received no helpful feedback from her manager during this process.
D. Sharons manager initiated immediate corrective action.
E. Sharon's manager initiated basic corrective action.

105. Dawn, manager of food service for a large company, is conducting performance
appraisals for her staff. HRM has given her a sheet with a number of grouped statements.
She has to select 1 from each group. For instance, she has to indicate whether an
employee is cheerful or confident. She returns the form to HR, who score it and report the

results to her. What performance appraisal method is she using?


A. BARS.
B. Essay.
C. Critical incident.
D. Forced choice.
E. Adjective checklist.

106. Marie is a marketing analyst. Last year her boss evaluated her with an essay appraisal
She and several of her coworkers were so dissatisfied with the general and qualitative
nature of the process that they requested a change. This year he wrote about several
key behaviors that she exhibited throughout the year that were very important for her
job performance. For instance, he described how she spent extra time in competitive
data analysis for several product launches. What appraisal technique is he using?
A. Graphic rating scale.
B. BARS.
C. Critical incident.
D. Checklist appraisal.
E. Essay appraisal.

107. Jeff supervises 40 salesclerks at a large department store. He uses 20 questions such
as, Does the clerk greet customers with a smile? and Does the clerk ask if the customer
will be using the store credit card? He checks off yes or no to each question.
Which method is he using?
A. Graphic rating scale.
B. BARS.
C. Critical incident.
D. Checklist appraisal.
E. Forced-choice compar ison.

108. Consider the following chart which evaluates work attendance.


___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
always ready to work before shift starts, or calls in 9

8 usually on time, or calls in


always at work within 15 minutes of shift start 7
6 may show up an hour or so late, with no call
absent from work with a call the day before 5
4 leaves work early
is often absent when weather is good 3
2 has been absent without call in
is absent without call in more than once a week 1
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

If your boss evaluated you according to the chart, what technique would be in use?
A. MBO.
B. BARS.
C. Critical incident.
D. Checklist appraisal.
E. Forced-choice comparison.

109. Diane supervises 30 sanitation engineers. She fills out a form that rates such factors
as quality and quantity of work, job knowledge, and dependability. She checks off the
answer which usually has 5 to 10 options to choose from, such as, reliability in working
at the task assigned when scheduled requires constant supervision, requires occasional
follow-up, usually can be counted on, requires very little supervision, or requires absolute
minimum of supervision. Which method is she using?
A. Adjective rating scale.
B. BARS.
C. Critical incident.
D. Checklist appraisal.
E. Forced-choice comparison.

110. Meadowbrook, a major manufacturing firm, has allocated a 15% bonus for the best
employee in each division. Jon, manager of district operations, is asked to list his 17
employees from best to worst for the human resources department. What performance
evaluation technique is Jon using?
A. Individual ranking.
B. Group order ranking.
C. Paired comparison.
D. BARS.
E. Checklist.

111. XYZ, a major IT firm, is growing by about 25% a year. Lisa, manager of district
operations, is asked to identify the top 20% of her employees for the human resources de
department. The human resources department will then schedule these employees for prom
promotion or management training programs. What performance evaluation technique is Lisa
using?
A. Individual ranking.
B. Group order ranking.
C. Paired comparison.
D. BARS.
E. Checklist.

112. Rob was asked to decide who was funniest: Larry, Curly, or Moe. He said, "Larry
is funnier than Curly. Curly is funnier than Moe. Larry is funnier than Moe. Therefore,
Larry is funniest." What performance evaluation technique did Rob use?
A. Individual ranking.
B. Group order ranking.
C. Paired comparison.
D. BARS.
E. Checklist.

113. Sol's boss, store manager for a large home building supply chain, says that Sol has to do a
better job of differentiating the performance of the 40 customer service representatives w
ho report to him. For the last two years, all 40 were "Average." The two years before, 3
9 were "Above Average" and one employee was terminated. What should Sol do to
differentiate the best from the poorest performers, making sure that each employee is compared
to all 39 others?

A. Individual ranking.
B. Group order ranking.
C. Paired comparison.
D. BARS.
E. Checklist.

114. What disadvantages do all relative performance measures have in common?


A. Any change must add up to zero. Therefore, the best performer in a bad area may
be only mediocre and the worst performer in an excellent department may be an
outstanding performer.
B. There is no way to clearly compare employees to each other.
C. Ranking may tie individuals to an external scale that is not important for their part
particular jobs.
D. It may be difficult for evaluators to identify y the choices they are forced to make to
properly match employees to the scales.
E. There are no disadvantages to relative measures.

115. MBO includes all of the following steps except


A. periodic reviews.
B. action planning.
C. corrective action.
D. goal setting.
E. self-control.

116. Dian likes the MBO concept, but has been cautioned that it is likely to be ineffective in her
organization for all of the following reasons except
A. Dian works in a global organization.
B. Dian works in a large, hierarchical organization where managers do not trust
subordinates and do not delegate.
C. Dian works in an organization that will not allow enough time to implement MBO
properly.
D. Dian works in an organization that will not properly appraise the supervisor's
efforts and performance to carry out MBO for subordinates.
E. It may be difficult to measure whether MBO activities are being carried out properly

117. Mani is reviewing his sales and account contacts for the last 3 months. He does this every
quarter, monitoring the data against the goals he agreed to with his boss. What MBO
step is Mani doing?
A. Goal setting.
B. Action planning.
C. Performance evaluation.
D. Periodic review.
E. Self-control.

118.

Lee, an account manager for a large IT provider, has set his quota for next year 20% higher
and decided to improve customer satisfaction quality by 10%. What MBO step was
Lee performing?
A. Goal setting.
B. Action planning.
C. Performance evaluation.
D. Periodic review.
E. Self-control.

119. Donna, is working with her boss on how to achieve the goals that have been set for the next
year. So far they have agreed that Donna will start a graduate degree, she will be given
2 trainee assistants, and her budget allocation will be increased by 20%. What MBO step
is Donna doing?
A. Goal setting.
B. Action planning.
C. Periodic review.
D. Averaging.
E. These activities are not part of any MBO step.

120. Kai rates all 35 of his subordinates "Average" or above on their performance evaluations.
He knows that if they are rated below average, they will probably be terminated. Most of
the workers are single parents with small children and no likely job prospects. What rating
error is evident?
A. Leniency error.
B. Halo error.
C. Similarity error.
D. Low Appraiser motivation.
E. Inflationary pressures.

122. Toni rates Allison, an average worker, "excellent" on all of her performance evaluations.
The first year that Allison worked for Toni she landed three major accounts, saved a 20%
cost overrun on a major printing project, and never came in late to work. Now, all she do
es is show up on time. What rating error is evident?
A. Leniency error.
B. Halo error.
C. Similarity error.
D. Central tendency.
E. Inflationary pressures.

123. Malik was amazed to get only a 3% raise. Her performance assessment had been a 91 on
a 100 point scale, and she knew that the raises in her area ranged from 2% to 9%. When
she asked her boss, he informed her that the department average was 95. What rating error
is evident?
A. Leniency error.
B. Halo error.
C. Similarity error.
D. Central tendency.
E. Inflationary pressures.

124. Bill, an accountant, is amazed at his below average rating at a major accounting firm at
the end of his first year. His manager said he needed to smile more, be friendlier to
colleagues, and dress better. The boss did acknowledge that Bill had the lowest error rating an
d the quickest completion times in the division. What rating error is evident?
A. Leniency error.
B. Inappropriate substitutes for performance.
C. Similarity error.
D. Central tendency.
E. Inflationary pressures.

125. Debbie, a new manager with an outstanding performance for her first year, received an average
raise and an average performance rating. When she questioned her boss, she was

told anyone can do well in that job. What rating error is evident?
A. Leniency error.
B. Halo error.
C. Similarity error.
D. Intimidation minor.
E. Attribution theory.

126. Team based performance appraisals can be improved by all of the following except
A. tie team results to organizational goals.
B. measure both team and individual performance.
C. train the team to develop its own measures.
D. begin with the teams customers and the work processes needed to satisfy the
customer needs.
E. provide additional top level supervision for all stages of the team evaluation
process.

127. Why is performance assessment improved by combining absolute rating standards with
relative standards?
A. Absolute standards tend to have positive leniency bias.
B. Relative standards suffer when there is a great deal of variability in the subjects
assessed.
C. Relative standards tend to have negative leniency bias.
D. Absolute standards are based on traits.
E. Relative standards are based on traits.

128. Mary Jane reported that Dennis, one of her subordinates, was "lazy and irresponsible" on
his annual performance evaluation. Why did Tom, vice-president of human resources, have
Mary Jane rephrase the statement to "does not attend meetings, does not complete work
on time, does not perform assigned tasks?"
A. Relative standards are better than absolute standards.
B. Trait measures may have little to do with actual job performance.
C. Trait measures are preferable to behaviorally- based measures.
D. Multiple raters give a more reliable assessment than a single rater.
E. Upward appraisal is most useful in work group situations.

129. Don wanted to fire Diane, a secretary who had worked for him six months. HR refused to
fire her, stating that in the 15 years she had worked for the company, her 9 previous sup
supervisors had all rated her excellent on her performance appraisals. Why didnt HR back
Dons decision?
A. Peer evaluation is most useful in work group situations.
B. Relative standards are better than absolute standards.
C. Multiple raters give a more reliable assessment than a single rater.
D. Trait measures are preferable to behaviorally- based measures.
E. Ongoing feedback prevents surprises.

130. Your text makes all of the following suggestions to improve performance appraisals except

A. use relative standards.


B. have multiple raters.
C. rate selectively.
D. train appraisers.
E. provide ongoing feedback.

131. The current career development trend in organizations today is


A. Provide steady patterns of promotions and raises for employees.
B. Value employees who are marketable.
C. Discourage employees from career development.
D. Fire any employee who is seeking development.
E. Increase organizational contributions to employee career development.

132. All of the following historical career-related beliefs have changed except
A. career development is necessary for retention.
B. competent people somehow emerge in organizations to fill arising vacancies.
C. a valuable employee will always be a valuable employee.
D. employees have a wide variety of needs and aspirations.
E. a major HRM focus is to provide the information and assessments needed to help
employees realize their career goals.

33. Your text cites all of the following organizational trends as reasons that the responsibility
for career management has moved to the individual employee except
A. Downsizing.
B. Restructuring.
C. Globalization.
D. Learning.
E. Contingent workers.

134. Mark, a new graduate, wants to work for a firm that will share the responsibility for his
career development. What should he look for in the interviewing process?
A. A Fortune 200 company.
B. No companies are involved in employee career development.
C. An organization that supports commitment and growth.
D. An organization that concentrates on work process reengineering issues.
E. Any organization that has fewer than 15% of their employees as contingent or part
time workers.

135. Jon is a physician who hates his practice. He lives for the weekends, when he can escape
to his sailboat on the bay. Ron is a bartender. He is frustrated that he could not be a
psychologist, and thinks giving free advice to people who hang out at bars is the next best thin
g. Don is a cashier at a supermarket, making enough money to pay his bills. Lon is a dog
catcher. He sees his role as one of making the community safe for children and protecting
the rights of animals. Con is a wife and mother. She has raised four children, but feels
stifled in that role. She spends most of her time in volunteer activities - save the whales,
quilting, great books clubs, church work. All of these individuals have spent the last 25 y
ears in the positions described. Who has a subjectively successful career?
A. Jon.
B. Ron.
C. Don.
D. Lon.
E. Con.

136. Career has been defined in your text as


A. A series of work-related jobs over the course of a lifetime.

B. Any job for which you are paid more than minimum wage.
C. Having the same job, or at least working for the same organization, for a
period of 10 years or more.
D. A profession, such as medicine or law, for which you have to earn a degree to enter
E. Any job that makes you happy.

137. Joan is a wife and mother. She has four children, and enjoys her children. She contribute
s time to volunteer activities related to her children - Sunday school teacher, room mother ,
scout leader, volunteer sports team coordinator. What could she change to have a
successful career?
A. Get paid for the work she does.
B. Stick to only one volunteer activity for a period of more than 15 years.
C. Joan does have a successful career.
D. Joan should have more children.
E. When her youngest child enters school, she can think about a career.

138. Mark, a college sophomore, is unsure of his career choice. If he came to you, a human resource
professional, for advice, what would you tell him?
A. Your career development will be managed by the organization that hires you.
B. Make sure you get the right first job. Its hard to change direction.
C. Any first job will do.
D. Career is an outmoded concept.
E. Your career unfolds over your whole working life.

139. Compare individual career development to organizational career development.


A. They are both the responsibility of the organization.
B. They anchor opposite ends of a performance driven continuum.
C. Individual career development is based on the team or department level.
Organizational career development examines the entire firm.
D. Individual career development includes personal and lifestyle issues as well as
work. Organizational career development focuses on work.
E. Individual career development has a 3 to 5 year time frame. Organizational career
development has a 15 to 25 year time frame.

140. Sidilia conducts workshops for a large government agency. Individual interests
and skills are evaluated, lifestyle issues are considered, and job opportunities and patterns
for advancement within that agency and other organizations are discussed. About 40%
of employees leave the organization within one year after successful completion of this
program. This workshop, to be accurately titled, should be called
A. Individual career development.
B. Organizational career planning.
C. Organizational career development.
D. Employee development.
E. Outsourcing.
A, Individual versus Organizational Perspective, Dif, 3
141. Organizational career management involves all of the following except
A. Tracking career paths.
B. Developing career ladders.
C. Monitoring the progress of special groups of employees.
D. Understanding lifestyle and personal issues.
E. Ensuring that managerial talent will be available to meet the organizations needs.

142.Individual career management is different today than it was a generation ago for all of
these reasons except
A. organizational commitment is stronger than it was.
B. employee expectations are different.
C. technology has made personal assessment easier and more accessible.
D. sex-role stereotypes are crumbling.
E. lifestyles are more varied.

143. The major difference between individual career development and organizational career
development is
A. Time frame.
B. Commitment.
C. Perspective.
D. Process.
E. Status.

144. Robin has worked for the same manufacturing firm for 20 years. Last week, she attended
a training session where she learned new communication patterns for managers and super
visors. She is in line for a promotion next year, and this training will enhance her opportunity
for that job. What kind of session did Robin attend?
A. Career development.
B. Sigma management practice.
C. Employee development.
D. Employee training.
E. Retirement planning.

145. What is the difference between career development and employee development?
A. Career development focuses on the organization. Employee development focuses
on the individual.
B. Career development has a long-range time focus. Employee development has an
intermediate time focus.
C. Career development prepares a worker for the job at hand. Employee development
prepares a worker for a variety of work options.
D. Career development focuses on jobs outside the organization. Employee development
focuses on jobs inside the organization.
E. Career development includes IT options. Employee development does not.

146. Which statement best reflects the relationship between career development and
employee development?
A. The relationship is an adversarial one.
B. Employee development should replace organizational career management programs
C. The goals of employee development should be considered independently of career
development.
D. The goals of employee development should be compatible with the goals of career
development.
E. Employee development should be done before individual career development and
after organizational career development.

147. An effective way to develop employees to meet long-term needs of the organization and
to address dynamic changes over time in an organization is
A. Restructuring.

B. Work process engineering.


C. Outsourcing.
D. Career management.
E. Employee training.

148. Organization career development improves the organizations ability to attract and retain
high-talent employees for all of these reasons except
A. Competition is keen for such individuals, and career management is a definite
value-added for a firm.
B. Work should be compatible with personal and family interests and commitments.
C. These individuals seek jobs that offer challenge, responsibility, and opportunities
for career advancement.
D. Higher wages keep such workers.
E. Loyalty and commitment to the employer results from career development.

149. Your text mentions all of the following as problems associated with the career development
process of mentoring or coaching except
A. all employees are not good teachers.
B. current styles are perpetuated in an organization.
C. coaching is not rewarded in organizations.
D. current practices are perpetuated in an organization.
E. most middle-aged men dont identify with young women.

150. Millie attended her college reunion. She told her former roommate about work during
the last year. She had landed a great job with her accounting degree that bored her to tears,
worked with five people that she considered extremely rude, and recently applied to grad
graduate school in social work, wanting to work in case management like her neighbor across
the hall. Identify Millie's career stage.
A. Decline.
B. Maintenance.
C. Exploration.
D. Establishment.
E. Mid-career.

151. Lou took over his family trucking business when he was 25 years old. Now, a multimillionaire at 40, he is selling the fleet and the franchises. He plans to be involved in the city
where he grew up, giving money to neighborhood improvement projects, and gardening.
Identify Lou's career stage.
A. Decline.
B. Maintenance.
C. Exploration.
D. Establishment.
E. Mid-career.

152. Mark had an internship as an undergraduate in a regional planning office that confirmed h
his major in Economics. He went on to law school and today is starting a job in a real estate
development firm. He arranges his desk, looks at his parking and employee identification
on cards, shines the edge of the frame of the picture of his wife and his dog, and proudly
puts his credentials on the office wall. Identify Mark's career stage.
A. Decline.
B. Maintenance.
C. Exploration.
D. Establishment.
E. Mid-career.

153. George is a 45-year-old marketing manager for a major appliance manufacturer. He received
his last promotion two years ago, and feels he had "made it." He is really enjoying
teaching Carol and Harry, the new marketing representatives, the tricks of the trade
Identify George's career stage.
A. Decline.
B. Maintenance.
C. Exploration.
D. Establishment.
E. Mid-career.

154.

Dan is a new manager for a financial investment firm. He has just been offered a promotion
that means relocating to the corporate headquarters in another city. He has only had this
position for 15 months. Should he take the promotion?
A. No. He should stay in a power department for at least 2 years.
B. Yes. It sends a strong signal that he is on the fast track.

C. Yes. Internships are an excellent way to prepare for work.


D. No. Corporate power structures should be avoided.
E. No. He needs to be sure to do good work.

155. Mentoring relationships are an excellent way to break through the glass ceiling. Your tex
t cautions against being a protege assigned to a mentor (rather than chosen by the mentor)
for which of these reasons?
A. Conflict that can arise from a forced relationship can cause more harm than good
to the protgs career.
B. Research during the last decade has shown that mentors are no longer necessary.
C. Coaching is preferable to mentoring for subordinate development.
D. Mentors prefer to choose someone who will challenge them by being very different
from them.
E. Such an assignment usually results in trivial work (such as photocopying) rather
than in meeting the people that can help advance ones career.

156. Suggestions for success in your first job include all of the following except
A. Publicly challenge your boss.
B. Learn the power structure.
C. Present the right image.
D. Stay visible.
E. Gain control of organizational resources.

157. Suggestions for success in your first job include all of the following except
A. Upgrade your skills.
B. Find a mentor.
C. Participate in an internship.
D. Present the right image.
E. Focus only on the job that is next up for promotion.

158. The most obvious reward employees receive from work is


A. Pay.
B. Security.
C. Recognition.
D. Affiliation.
E. Interest.

159. Organizational reward systems are typically dichotomized as


A. Financial versus extrinsic.
B. Performance-driven versus performance-based.
C. Hourly versus salaried.
D. Intrinsic versus non-financial.
E. Membership-based versus performance-based.

160. Piecework, commission, and incentives are examples of __________ rewards.


A. Extrinsic, nonfinancial, membership- based
B. Extrinsic, financial, performance-based
C. Extrinsic, financial, membership- based
D. Intrinsic, membership-driven, performance- based
E. intrinsic, nonfinancial, implied

161. Why is job enrichment considered a reward?


A. It provides more money to the employee.
B. Eliminating jobs allows the money saved to be reallocated to other workers.
C. Better work equipment is provided.
D. It increases intrinsic motivation through increasing employee independence and
freedom.
E. The cafeteria benefits are appreciated by all types of workers.

162. Membership-based rewards include all of the following except


A. Cost of living allowances.
B. Benefit provisions.
C. Pay increases for seniority.
D. Free parking.
E. Merit pay.

163. In most organizations, the dominant basis for reward allocation is


A. Intuitive.
B. Extrinsic.
C. Membership.
D. Performance.
E. Linear.

164.

Membership-based rewards are not linked to high motivation for all of these reasons
except
A. Membership-based rewards are given regardless of organization performance.
B. Membership-based rewards may be given for time in rank.
C. Membership-based rewards, like other incentive plans, are often organization wide
D. Membership-based rewards are given regardless of individual performance.
E. Membership-based rewards are given regardless of group performance.

165. Which of the following would not be fair, in the context of a compensation system?

A. Joe is hired at a higher rate than Mary because he has more job experience.
B. Joe makes more than Mary after 3 years on the same job because his performance
is better.
C. Joe makes more than Mary because he works in an area with a higher prevailing
wage.
D. Joe makes more than Mary because he is male.
E. Joe, a janitor, and Mar y, a kitchen aide, make the same wage because their jobs are
considered comparable to each other.

166. Chris, an engineer, is on a job evaluation committee for his organization. They have spent
the day comparing sets of two jobs to each other to determine which one is more important
or more difficult to perform. What job evaluation method was used?
A. Ordering.
B. Classification.
C. Basic job evaluation.
D. Point method.
E. Core specification.

167 Lisa, a compensation analyst for a large government agency, is completing a job evaluation
for her organization. She uses the General Schedules. What job evaluation method w
as used?
A. Ordering.
B. Classification.
C. Basic job evaluation.
D. Point method.
E. Core specification.

168. What is the most important part of job evaluation?


A. Defining skills in specific terms.
B. Allocating dollars historically.
C. Determining what criteria will be used to arrive at the ranking.
D. Choosing points or ranks.
E. Separating groups.

169. Hassan, a compensation analyst for a large firm, is completing a job evaluation for
Safety Technicians for his organization. He reads a chart that identifies high
school diploma as the 2nd degree in the education skill factor, and adds 44 into h
is calculation. He identifies Making sure that all gauges and monitors are in the
safe zones as the 5th degree in the Responsibility - safety of others factor and
adds 25 to his calculation. What job evaluation method was used?
A. Ordering.
B. Classification.
C. Basic job evaluation.
D. Point method.
E. Core specification.

170. Heather is the human resources administrator for a small electronics firm that currently h
as 27 employees. Until now, workers were paid whatever the CEO felt they were worth.
Heather wants to start a job evaluation process. What would offer her the greatest stability
over time?

A. Ordering.
B. Classification.
C. Basic job evaluation.
D. Point method.
E. Core specification.

171. All of the following information can typically be found on compensation surveys except
A. Average wage for a specific job.
B. Actual wage level for a certain employee at a specified company.
C. Overtime pay practices.
D. Vacation and holiday allowances.
E. The length of the normal work day.

172. Joe has a red-circled job for the wage curve. His manager is likely to tell him
A. you wont get a raise until you get a promotion.
B. you wont get a promotion for at least 3 years.
C. you will get a salary adjustment increase in your next paycheck.
D. you need to assess your skills and interests and find another job.
E. you are targeted for a 10% pay decrease.

173. Lee just got moved from Grade 5 to Grade 6 in his companys pay structure. His boss
uses the companys wage structure to explain to him that he wont get a raise because
A. hes lucky to still have a job at that grade.
B. raises arent given after Grade 5. All rewards are intrinsic.
C. demotions do not bring raises.
D. his new job is less important to the organization.
E. He was at the top of Grade 5, and needs to spend at least 6 months at midpoint
beore he can move up in Grade 6.

174. Raylene is overhauling the compensation system for her company. She is using a
trend line of established wage base rates and points. She is circling outliers in red or
Green. What is she using?
A. Wage curve.
B. Compensation survey.

C. Wage structure.
D. Point boxes.
E. Incentive profiles.

175. Tanya is a compensation trainee. She has tools for the following activities.
1. Wage curve.
2. Compensation survey.
3. Wage structure.
4. Job evaluation.
What is the correct order for her to perform them?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
B. 2, 4, 3, 1.
C. 4, 1, 3, 2.
D. 3, 1, 4, 2.
E. 4, 2, 1, 3.

176. Why are executives offered golden parachutes?


A. They are a nice, symbolic retirement gesture.
B. Most organizations can not really afford to pay large bonuses in a lump sum.
C. Staggered bonuses replace retirement pay for most executives.
D. If executives voluntarily resign, unpaid bonuses are often forfeited.
E. They are an incentive to stay and fight a hostile takeover, rather than leave.

Basics of HRM
177. Which of the following is an example of corporate culture being supported by HR
communication?
A. An open and friendly company refuses to let employees use the bulletin board f
or sale items and car pools.
B. A forward thinking, progressive company devotes over half of the employee ha
ndbook to company history and background.
C. A security conscious technology firm holds monthly town-meetings and invites
outside visitors and former employees to participate.
D. A progressive, innovative company uses a loose-leaf binder for the employee hand
book.
E. An empowering organization changes performance appraisals to eliminate muc
h of the employee participation and feedback.

178. How does top management support affect employee communications programs?
A. Management endorsement often causes communications programs to fail.
B. With endorsement, communications programs often replace the authority of
management.
C. Management endorsement makes employees suspicious of communications r
programs.
D. With endorsement, communications programs are then seen as significant
components of corporate culture.
E. HRM executives are viewed as weak and ineffective if the top management has to
endorse such programs.

179.Ron is CEO of a 300-employee electronics manufacturer. His vice-president of hum


an resources has just convinced him that a better employee handbook would help to
improve worker morale. Ron could best show support for this program by
A. Reducing feedback for the process.
B. Replacing the HR manager.
C. Announcing the project himself, over the company address system.
D. Allocating sufficient budget to produce a good product.
E. Feigning ignorance of the new program.

180. Ron is CEO of a 300 employee electronics manufacturer. His vice-president of human re
sources has just convinced him that political correctness should be a major initiative in
the organization. Ron could show support for this program by all of the following except
A. Writing a column endorsing the new system for the next issue of the company
newsletter.
B. Making a video that endorses the program to be shown to all employees.
C. Announcing the program himself, over the company address system.
D. Attending a political correctness workshop himself.
E. Keeping hands off of this new initiative.

180.Employees typically need to know all of the following except


A. Strategic goals of the business.
B. New product or service lines.

C. Human resource policy changes.


D. Recent donations to community groups.
E. Current sales and service outcomes.

182. Don, director of corporate internal communications for a medium-sized financial services
organization, has a five-minute announcement period at the end of each work day to share
important information with the bank's 250 employees. Today (June 20) he has room for
one more 30-second item. What should he include?
A. A city water main broke. The street heading west out of the main parking lot will
be closed immediately until further notice.
B. David Mitchell and Jim Lincoln will be retiring in January.
C. New car loans to employees will be offered in January, starting at 15.5% financing
D. The Thanksgiving holiday has been extended from one day to a 4 day weekend,
due to extraordinary second quarter numbers.
E. Specialty Printing will replace Best Paper Manufacturers as the primary vendor for
customer checks, beginning in October.

183.

An employee communication system without feedback


A. is most efficient.
B. avoids conflicting culture signals.
C. is improved with technology.
D. gives the perception that employee commitment is unnecessary.
E. provides an excellent vehicle for executive vision.

184.

From an HR perspective, the best place to convey company information to employees is


A. Employee handbook.
B. Grapevine.
C. Immediate supervisor.
D. peers.
E. The CEO.

185. A well-written employee handbook will provide all of these advantages to employers except

A. Replace disciplinary actions.


B. Create a more productive work atmosphere.
C. Increase employee commitment to the organization.
D. Increase employee loyalty to the organization.
E. Assist in recruiting.

186. A well-written employee handbook will serve employees in all of these ways
except
A. Provide a central information source for company history.
B. Provide answers as needed about company benefits.
C. Create a sense of security for employees.
D. Provide an implied employment contract.
E. Provide a source of information for many employee work-related questions.

187. An employee handbook should have all of the following information except
A. Pay rates and grades.
B. Glossary.
C. Organization history.
D. What to expect from the organization.
E. What the organization expects from its employees.

188. Jon, a summer intern, has been assigned the job of preparing an employee handbook. He
wants to provide an index and a table of contents, in addition to the statements of policies
and procedures. What should David, the vice-president of human resources, tell him?
A. Do it. If it is easy to find specific information, the handbook will be more useful
to employees.
B. Don't do it. Put it online instead. Nearly half of the employees have access to a
computer either at home or at work.
C. Do it. That will help "pad" the handbook, making employees think there is more
information in it than there actually is.
D. Don't do it. That will encourage employees to skim over parts of the handbook an
and just read what is of interest to them.
E. Do it, and include a section on pay rates and raise information.

189. Roger is revising the company handbook. Aware of the increasingly litigious nature of

the workforce, he wants to make sure that nothing in the book can be used as an implied co
ntract. What should he do?
A. Include a rejoinder in the handbook.
B. Include a disclaimer in the handbook.
C. Don't include any information in the handbook that could be used in a lawsuit.
D. Require all new employees to sign a statement that they will not sue the company,
based on the contents of the handbook.
E. Screen prospective employees through personality tests.

190. Employee handbooks should contain sections on all of the following except
A. Rules and regulations.
B. Responsibilities and safety procedures.
C. Benefits.
D. Product information.
E. Welcome and introduction.

191. All of the following could be included in the introduction to the employee handbook except

A. Statements of corporate mission and goals.


B. A "greeting" from top management.
C. Work hours and evaluation criteria.
D. A statement of corporate values.
E. A brief history of the organization.

192. Kathy, director of human resources for Carroll Tree Service, has to rewrite the employee
handbook to include the newly passed drug policy. She should include the information in
A. What you should know.
B. Your responsibilities.
C. Your benefits.
D. Safety procedures.
E. General work procedures.

193 The What you should know section of an employee handbook could include all
of the following except

A. Length of lunch hour.


B. Pay dates.
C. Health benefits.
D. Working hours.
E. Employee standards for punctuality.

194. Liam, director of employee communications for a large manufacturing organization, needs
to rewrite the employee handbook to reflect executive changes. The new CEO has a very
different corporate philosophy and a very exciting concept about the value of the employees
to the organization. Liam should include the information in
A. Introductory comments
B. Responsibilities.
C. Safety procedures.
D. Rules and regulations.
E. Benefits.

195. How has technology changed HRM practices?


A. There is no change.
B. Recruiting is much more time-consuming due to the Internet.
C. Employee training budgets have dramatically increased due to the cost of
sending employees to special workshops.
D. Selection tools can identify people who arent team players and cant handle ambi
guity and stress.
E. The Web has simplif ied ethical boundaries of surveillance and an employees right
to privacy.

196. Technology has impacted HRM practices in all of these ways except
A. Knowledge workers are less susceptible than other workers to distractions that can
undermine their work efforts and reduce productivity.
B. Extraordinary incentives and benefits, such as stock options, cell phone bill subsidies
and health club memberships, are provided for knowledge workers.
C. Open communication systems break down historical organization communication
pattern flows.
D. Legal policies addressing such issues as harassment, bias and discrimination, must
be developed for Internet and email use.

E. Virtual company meetings can easily be held with geographically dispersed emplo
yees.

197. The balance between work life and personal life issues
A. Is harder as technology blurs the line separating work and home.
B. Is no longer an HRM concern.
C. Is easier with more workplace technology.
D. Is not a career concern for college students and recent graduates.
E. Becomes important to a worker only upon retirement and career planning.

198. Suppose you are vice- president of human resources for an organization. What change
in long-range planning would you make in response to increased workforce diversity
A. Decrease the number and kinds of benefits offered.
B. Pass a requirement that all employees speak, read, and write English.
C. Restore management training programs to the rigid, disciplined, hierarchical mod
els used in the 1950s.
D. Build in diversity accountability.
E. Do not plan. The future is too uncertain. Concentrate on present problems.

199.

HRM is often involved in which of the following for their contingent workers?

.
A. Strategic planning
B. Orientation.
C. Attracting quality workers.
D. Conflict resolution between contingent and core employees.
E. All of the above.

200. Don, a manager, is concerned about how to control his employees if they work at home. H
e comes to you, vice-president of human resources for advice. What do you tell him?
A. His job has been eliminated.
B. Face time is easily replaced with telecommuting.
C. Work should be measured and rewarded by output produced, rather than by hours
worked.
D. He should hire an assistant to make home visit to surprise his employees.

E. He should budget an additional 5% overhead per employee for monitoring through


telephone, email responses, or other approved means.

201. Phil is vice-president of human resources at a large service organization that is decentrali
zing its operations. Consequently, Phils job may change in all of the following ways except

A. managers need to be trained to establish appropriate work standards and time frames
B. recruiting efforts can target a much larger labor pool.
C. compensation policies should be reexamined for consistency with the new worker
realities.
D. employees need to be empowered, taught to plan their workload.
E. on the job injuries are no longer a work issue because at-home injuries are not
reported to OSHA.

202. What employee involvement concepts are accepted in todays organizations?


A. Delegation is a sign of weakness. Employees need to know that the boss is in ch
arge to feel secure.
B. Participative management gives employees more control over the day-to-day activioities
of their jobs.
C. Goals should be set by management and clearly spelled out for each employee.
D. Dont let employee work teams have responsibility for safety or quality. Such act
ion leads to suspicion and mistrust.
E. Empowerment can be used to increase production, but it stifles creativity, and sho
uld never be used in a research and development division.