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JEE (Main)-2016

FULL TEST IV

Time Allotted: 3 Hours

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

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FIITJEE

Maximum Marks: 432

Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each part has only one section: Section-A.
Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i)

Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and 2 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate


Enrolment No.

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity

g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant

h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron

e = 1.6 1019 C

Mass of electron

me = 9.1 1031 kg

Permittivity of free space

0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water

water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure

Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant

R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant

Avogadro's Number Na
Plancks constant h
1 Faraday
1 calorie
1 amu
1 eV

=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=

8.314 J K1 mol1
0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
6.023 1023
6.625 1034 Js
6.625 1027 ergs
96500 coulomb
4.2 joule
1.66 1027 kg
1.6 1019 J

Atomic No:

H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35,
Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics

PART I
SECTION A

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

Four particles each of mass M, are orbiting in a circle of radius r in the same sense of rotation
due to their mutual gravitational force of attraction. The time period of revolution is
r3

(A) T 2

GM 1 2 2

(C) T

(B) T 4

GM 1 2 2

2r 3
GM 1 2 2

r3

(D) T 2

2r 3

GM 1 2

2.

For a silver atom, energy corresponding to K transition is 21.75 KeV. Also minimum energy of a
striking electron so as to produce L X-rays is 3.56 KeV. Now, if electron with an energy of 23
KeV strike a silver target the characteristic X-rays spectrum will have :
(A) Only K and L X-rays
(B) Only L X-rays
(C) K and L X-rays
(D) Only K X-rays

3.

In n, 2n, 3n are the fundamental frequencies of the three segments into which a string is divided
by placing required number of bridges below it. If n0 is the fundamental frequency of the string,
then
(A) n0 = 3n
(B) n0 = 6n
3n
6n
(C) n0
(D) n0
5
11

4.

Two SHMs are represented by equations y1 6cos 6t / 6 , y 2 3


(A) Ratio of their amplitudes is 1
(C) Ratio of their maximum velocities is 1

3 sin3t cos3 t

(B) Ratio of their amplitudes is 1/2


(D) Ratio of their maximum velocities is 1/2

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5.

From the following transistor characteristics, what can be


inferred?
(A) VCE1 VCE2 VCE3
(B) VCE2

IB

VCE1 V
CE 2 VCE3

(mA)

VCE1 VCE3

2
(C) VCE2 VCE1 VCE2

VBE (V)

(D) VCE3 VCE2 VCE1


6.

A particle is dropped to move along the axis of a concave mirror of focal


length f from a height f/2 as shown in the figure. The acceleration due to
gravity is g. Find the maximum speed of the image.
3fg
27fg
(A)
(B)
16
16
(C)

7.

3
fg
4

r 2
3P0 7rg
3

(B)

(C) r 2 3P0 7rg


8.

fg
16

(D)

A spherical metal ball of radius r is lying at the bottom of


a stationary container containing liquid of density as
shown in the figure. Find the force exerted on the upper
hemispherical portion of the sphere due to gauge
pressure ( P0 atmospheric pressure)
(A)

f
2

4r

r 2
3P0 7rg
2

(D) 2r 2 3P0 7rg

A spring mass system executes damped harmonic oscillations given by the equation
bt
2m

k
b2

m 4m2
where the symbols have their usual meanings.
If a 2 kg mass (m) is attached to a spring of force constant (K) 1250 N/m, the period of the
oscillation is / 12 s . The damping constant b has the value.

y Ae

sin ' t where '

(A) 9.8 kg/s


(C) 98 kg/s

(B) 2.8 kg/s


(D) 28 kg/s
Space for Rough work

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9.

White light (wavelength 4000-7000 Ao) is incident normally on a glass plate of thickness one
micron and refractive index 1.5. Number of strongly reflected wavelengths by the plate is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

10.

Electromagnetic radiations fall on a metallic body whose work function is 2eV. For a particular
radiation of frequency v, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is found to be 4 eV.
5v
What would be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons for the radiation of frequency
?
3
14
(A) 6 eV
(B)
eV
3
10
(C) 8 eV
(D)
eV
3

11.

In the figure shown A and B are two thin


transparent slabs of refractive indices 1 and
2 2 1 and there is no gap between A
t1
A
and B. A beam of light of wavelength falls
t2
on A normally. A part of it reflects at upper
B
face and a part reflect at the interface of A and
B and then come back to the previous
medium. The phase difference between two
reflected waves at a particular point at any
time t is
2
1
t
t

(A) 4 1
(B) 4 2

2
4
(C)
1t1
(D)
1t1

air
1
2

air

Space for Rough work

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12.

A capacitor is connected across an inductor. At time t = 0 charge on the capacitor is equal to

2
qmax, where qmax is the maximum charge on the capacitor. The time t, at which the energy stored
in the capacitor is equal to the energy stored in the inductor is
(The inductance of the inductor is L and capacitance of the capacitor is C. Resistance of the
circuit is zero)
1
(A) 2 LC
(B)
LC
2

(C)
13.

LC
2

(D)

1
2 LC

A long horizontal rod has a bead which can slide along its length, the bead initially at a distance L
from end A of the rod. The rod is set in angular motion in the horizontal plane about end A with
constant angular acceleration . If the coefficient of friction between rod and the bead is , and
gravity is neglected then graph between frictional force acting on bead and the time is
(A)

(B)

t /

(C)

time
(D)

t /

t / 2

time

t / 2

time

time

Space for Rough work

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14.

A block of mass 4 m and a conducting square loop of mass m (with a cell of emf E and resistance
R) are connected by a light insulating string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in the
figure. The plane of the loop (initially at rest) is perpendicular to magnetic field. As the system is
released
y
0
4m
x
x x x x
x x xx
R
x E x x
x x
x
x
x x x x

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.

the block does not move


the loop starts rotating about y-axis.
the loop moves down with constant velocity
the acceleration of the block is constant but not zero

A conductor of (area A) having charge density is placed


perpendicularly to a uniform electric field E and is connected to a spring
(of spring constant k) whose other end is fixed. Now the spring is
replaced by similar spring having length one third of the original spring.
The extension of spring in this position is
2EA
k
EA
(C)
3k

(A)

16.

E
k
E

2EA
3k
2EA
(D)
4k

(B)

A uniform rope of mass m and length L hangs from the ceiling. A small wave
pulse is created at bottom, then which of following is correct regarding wave
pulse.
(1) Rate of change of speed with respect to time varies
(2) Rate of change of speed with respect to time is constant
(3) Rate of change of speed with respect to time is zero
(4) Wave speed varies
(A) 1, 3
(B) 1, 4
(C) 2, 4
(D) 3, 4
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17.

18.

A conducting rod of length l is rotating with constant angular


velocity about point O in a uniform magnetic field B as shown
in the figure. The emf induced between ends P and Q will be
1
5
(A)
Bl 2
(B) Bl 2
4
10
1
(C) zero
(D) Bl 2
2
A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is placed vertically on a
rough horizontal surface. If a horizontal force F is applied at a
distance R/6 below the centre line parallel to the diameter of the
sphere, the direction of frictional force will be
(A) forward
(B) backward
(C) depends upon value of F
(D) insufficient information

x
l/4

3l/4
O

Q x

x
x

M
R
F R/6

19.

In a potentiometer experiment, two cells connected in series get balanced at 9 cm length on the
wire. Now the connections of terminals of the cell of lower emf are reversed, then the balancing
length is obtained at 3 cm. The ratio of emfs of two cells will be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 4 : 1

20.

One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the process A


B as indicated in the given P-V diagram. The molar heat
capacity for the process is
(A) 3R/2
(B) 13 R/6
(C) 5R/2
(D) 2R

P
B

6P0
3P0

A
V0

5V0

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21.

If l1 and l2 (> l1) are the lengths of an air column for the first and second resonance when a tuning
fork of frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube, then the minimum distance of the anti-node
from the top end of the resonance tube is
1
(A) 2 l 2 l1
(B)
2l1 l 2
2
l 3l1
l l
(C) 2
(D) 2 1
2
2

22.

A thin convex lens is split into two halves. One of the


halves is shifted along the optical axis. The separation
between fixed luminous point object O and fixed
screen is D = 180 cm. The magnification of image
formed by one of the half lens is m = 2. It follows that
(A) The separation between the lens is 90 cm
(B) The separation between the lens is 60 cm
(C) The focal length of the lens is 45 cm
(D) The focal length of the lens is 60 cm

23.

A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal surface as


shown. Its center is tied to a string of length l = 10 m and other end of
the string is connected of ball of same mass. Ball B is released from
the position shown. It falls under gravity and the string becomes taut.
The kinetic energy of block and ball of the bodies just after string is
K.E p
taut are K.Eb and KEp respectively. Then
is equal to
K.E b
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A) 12
(C) 14

screen
180 cm

l
m

m
30o

(B) 13
(D) 15
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24.

25.

Calculate the moment of inertia of uniform thin hemispherical shell


of mass M and radius R about axis X - X ' shown in figure.
5
7
(A) MR2
(B)
MR2
3
6
2
(C) MR2
(D) None of these
3

A small particle of mass M is released from rest from


point A inside a frictionless fixed hemispherical bowl as
shown. The graph between the ratio(r) of magnitude of
centripetal force and normal reaction on the particle at
any point on the bowl as a function of cos is

(B)

+1

cos

+1 cos
r

r
(C)

(D)

+1 cos

+1 cos

In a certain region of space there exists a constant and uniform magnetic


field of induction B. The width of the magnetic field is a. A charge particle

having charge q is projected perpendicular to B and along the width of the


field. If deflection produced by the field perpendicular to width is d, the
magnetic of the momentum of the particle is
d2 a2
a2
(A)
qB
(B)
qB

2d
2d2

(C)

(A)

26.

X'

4d2
qB
a d

x
x
x

x
x
x

x
x
x

x d

a2 d
(D)
qB
2d

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27.

If two uniform spherical drops of a liquid same mass, radius, and falling freely with a terminal
velocity of 3 16 m/s. Coalesce to form bigger drop, then the terminal velocity with which the
bigger drop fall is
(A) 8 m/s
(B) 4 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) None of these

28.

Binding energy of A = X MeV, B = Y MeV, C = Z MeV [X > Y > Z]. A person in a lab tries to break
each nucleus into its constituents with the help of energy S MeV [y < S < x], then which of the
following nuclei may break?
(A) B and C
(B) C and A
(C) A and B
(D) Only C

29.

A mono chromatic light is used in Youngs double slit experiment when one of slits is covered by
a transparent sheet of thickness 1.8 105 m, made of material of refractive index 1 no. of fringes
which shift is 18. When another sheet of thickness 3.6 105 m made of material of refractive
index 2 is used; no. of fringes which shift is 9. Relation between 1 and 2 is given by
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 41 1 3
(C) 32 1 4
(D) 21 2 4

30.

In the circuit shown in the figure, K1 is open. The charge


on capacitor C in steady state is q1. Now key is closed
and at steady state charge on C is q2. The ratio of
charges q1 and q2 is
(A) 5/3
(B) 3/5
(C) 1
(D) 2/3

R1 2

R2 3

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Chemistry

PART II
SECTION A

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

Picric acid is
OH
OH

NO 2
(A)

O 2N

(B)
O 2N

NO 2

NO 2
NO 2

O
C
(C)

O 2N

OH

H
Br

(D)

NO 2

Br

Br

NO 2

2.

O
O

O
C6H5

CH3

AlCl3 anhy

CH3

O
C

CH3

Above reaction involves


(A) Fries rearrangement
(C) Hofmann rearrangement

(B) Curtius rearrangement


(D) Beckman rearrangement
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3.

The heats of neutralization of four acids A, B, C and D are 13.7, 9.4, 11.2 and 12.4 kcal
respectively, when they are neutralized by a common base. The acidic character obeys the
order:
(A) A > B > C > D
(B) A > D > C > B
(C) D > C > B > A
(D) D > B > C > A

4.

At constant volume and at 27oC, the heat of combustion of 7.8 g of benzene is 327 kJ. What will
be the heat of combustion of benzene at constant pressure (R = 8.3 J/mol-K)
(A) 3273 kJ
(B) 3278 J
(C) 327.3 kJ
(D) 32.73 kJ
O

5.
i

BuBr
(a)

1. Li
2. CuI

(b)

Ph

Cl

(c)

(b) & (c) are (A) PhCO

(B) PhCO

&

&
CuLi

2 CuLi

(C)

&
2

6.

CuLi

(D) None of these


PhCO

Identify D in the following reactions:Me

(A) Cl

Cl2 + FeCl3
dark
OH

(A)

NBS

(B)

Mg
Ether

(C)

1. Epoxide
2. H3O+

(D)

(B) Cl
OH

(C) Br

OH

(D) Br

OH

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7.

PCC is a mild oxidizing agent. It is a mixture of


(A) Pyridine + CrO3 + HCl
(B) Pyridine + CrO3 + H2O
(C) Pyridine + CrO3
(D) CrO3 + H2SO4

8.
+ CH+3

COO

Identify A.

(A) H3C

(B)

COO

COO
H3C

CH3

(C)

9.

(D)

COO

Me3C
AlCl3

CH3

Cl

CH3CH2CH2 Cl

COO

AlCl 3

KMnO4
OH,

Z is
CMe3

(A)

COOH

(B)

COOH

CH2

CMe3
(C)

CH2

CH3

COOH

(D)

CMe3

COOH

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10.

A compound D (C8H10O) upon treatment with alkaline solution of iodine gives a yellow ppt. The
filtrate on acidification gives a white solid E (C7H6O2). The structure of D is
OH

11.

12.

(A)

CH

(C)

COOH

(B)

CH3

CH 2

(D)

CH 2

OH

CH2CH3

In which of the following reaction the final product is neither acid nor an acid salt?
(A) Ph

CHO

(C) Ph

CHO

Tollen's reagent
Fehling solution

(B)

H3C

(D)

Ph

CH2

CH3

CH2

OH

KMnO4/OH
K2Cr2O7/H+

Which optically active compound on reaction with LiAlH4 will give optically inactive compound?
(A) H3C

CH

COOH

(B)

H3C

CH2

OCH3
(C) H3C

CH2

COOH

OH
CH

(D)

COOH

H3C

CH2OH
13.
CO

CH

Cl

NaN3

CH

CH2

COOH

OH

1.
2. OH

Product

The product is (A)

(C)

NC

CONH2

(B)

NH2

(D)

COOH

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14.

If the electronic velocity is 1.09 106 m/s, then electron may be revolving in the
(A) 1st orbit of hydrogen
(B) 1st orbit of helium
nd
nd
(C) 2 orbit of hydrogen
(D) 2 orbit of helium

15.

The amount of current which produces hydrogen gas at the rate of 1 cc. per second under
standard conditions (A) 17.22 ampere
(B) 8.61 ampere
(C) 25.83 ampere
(D) 4.30 ampere

16.

If the density of a mixture of O2 & N2 at NTP is 1.3 g/l, then


(A) partial pressure of O2 will be 0.28 atm
(B) partial pressure of O2 will be 29.12 atm
(C) partial pressure of O2 will be 1 atm
(D) partial pressure of O2 will be 0.72 atm

17.

The rms speed of oxygen molecule is 4.92 102 m/sec. then


(A) the temperature of the oxygen molecule is 310oC
(B) the temperature of the oxygen molecule is 37oC
(C) the temperature of the oxygen molecule is 37 K
(D) the temperature of the oxygen molecule is 370 K

18.

What is the density of Na2O having antifluorite-type crystal structure, if the edge lengh of cube is
100 pm and what is the effect on density by 0.05% Frankel defect?
(A) 823.5 g/cm 3, density decreases
(B) 414.16 g/cm 3, density decreases
(C) 823.5 g/cm3, density remains same
(D) 414.16 g/cm3, density remains same

19.

Mole fraction of component A in vapour phase is 1 and that of A in liquid phase is 1 , then

o
A

vapour pressure of A, PBo vapour pressure of pure B . The total pressure of liquid is

(A) PAo .

2
1

(B) PAo .

1
2

(C) PBo .

1
2

(D) PBo .

2
1

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20.

The vapour pressure of 1 molal glucose solution at 100oC will be


(A) 760 mmHg
(B) 76.0 mmHg
(C) 1 atm
(D) 746.32 mmHg

21.

o
The standard free energy of formation of AgCl (s) at 25 C is 109.7 kJ/mol and H Cl (aq)
is 131.2 kJ/mol. Find Eo of a cell made up with standard hydrogen electrode, and
Cl / Ag / AgCl s

(A) 0.446 V
(C) 0.1115 V

(B) 0.669 V
(D) 0.223 V
K1

22.

For the elimentary reaction 2A B , the rate of disappearance of A is equal to


K2

(A)

2K1
A 2
K2

(B) 2K1 A 2K 2 B

(C) 2K1 A 2K 2 B

(D)

2K1 K 2 A

23.

In an experiment, 200 ml of 0.5 m oxalic acid is shaken with 10 g of activated charcoal & filtered.
The concentration of the filtrate is reduced to 0.4 m. The amount of adsorption is
(A) 0.9
(B) 1.8
(C) 0.18
(D) 0.09

24.

A B, H 10 kJ/mol, Ea f 50 kJ/mol, then Ea of B A will be

(A) 40 kJ/mol
(C) 50 kJ/mol
25.

(B) 50 kJ/mol
(D) 60 kJ/mol

In the reaction, Cu NO3 2 CuO NO2 O2 . On balancing


(A) 1 mole Cu (NO3)2 gives 1 mole of O2
(C) 1 mole Cu (NO3)2 gives 1/2 moles of O2

(B) 1 mole Cu (NO3)2 gives 2 moles of O2


(D) 1 mole Cu (NO3)2 gives 3 moles of O2

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26.

If the pH of the half-equivalence point of an amino acid is 2.286 with HCl & 9.719 with NaOH
then, the pH of isoelectric point will be
(A) 6.003
(B) 7.002
(C) 5. 004
(D) 6.010

27.

Which of the following match is incorrect?


(I) XeOF2 T-shaped
(II) XeO2F2 Square planar
(III) XeO3 Pyramidal

28.

(IV) XeF6 Distorted octahedron


(A) (I)
(C) (III)

(B) (II)
(D) (IV)

The structure of glycine at isoelectric point is


(A) H2N CH2 COOH

(B) H2N CH2 COO

(C) H3 N CH2COOH

(D) H3 N CH2 COO

29.

Correct statement is
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ has hybridization d2sp3 & octahedral shape
(B) [Ni(CN)4] 2 has hybridization dsp2 & square planar shape
(C) [Ni(CO)4] has hybridization sp3 & tetrahedral shape
(D) All are correct

30.

Correct statement is :
(A) During extraction of Mg, MgCl2 + NaCl is electrolysed
(B) During extraction of Pb, NaCN removes ZnS & PbS during floatation
(C) During electrolytic refining of Zn, electrolyte is ZnSO4 + H2SO4
(D) All are correct
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Mathematics

PART III
SECTION A

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

Px 2y 1is normal to parabola y 2 4ax for:


(A) no value of P
(C) exactly two values of P

2.

3.

1 1
The number of solutions of the matrix equation X 2
is
2 3
(A) more than 2
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1

If y sin x e x ,then
(A) ( sin x e x )1
(C)

4.

(B) exactly one value of P


(D) exactly three values of P

sin x e x
(cos x e x )3

d2 x

dy 2

(B)

sin x e x
(cos x e x )2

(D)

sin x e x
(cos x e x )3

The line 2x y 1 0 is tangent to the circle at the point (2,5) and the centre of the circles lies on
x 2y 4. The radius of the circle is:
(A) 3 5
(C) 2 5

(B) 5 3
(D) 5 2
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8

5.

6.

1 sin 8 i cos 8
The expression

1 sin i cos
8
8

(A) 1
(C) i

If t n

1
1 1 1
1

n 2 n 3 for n=1,2,3,....... then ............


4
t1 t 2 t 3
t 2003

4006
3006
4006
(C)
3008

4003
3007
4006
(D)
3009

(A)

7.

f(x)

(B)

(x 2)(x 1)
, x 3. The minimum value of f(x) is equal to
(x 3)

(A) 3 2 2
(C) 3 2 2
8.

(B) 3 2 3
(D) 3 2 2

Let A and B be two events. Suppose P(A)=0.4, P(B)=p and P A B =0.7. The value of p for
which A and B are independent is
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/2

9.

(B) -1
(D) i

(B) 1/4
(D) 1/5

Range of f(x) sin1 x tan1 x sec 1 x is


3
(A) ,
4 4
3
(C) ,
4 4

3
(B) ,
4 4

(D) none of these


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10.

The area bounded by the two branches of curve (y x)2 x3 and straight line x=1 is
(A) 1/5 sq. units
(C) 4/5 sq. units

(B) 3/5 sq. units


(D) 8/4 sq. units

11.

The population of a country increases at a rate proportional to the number of inhabitants. If the
population doubles in 30 years, then the population will triple in approximately
(A) 30 years
(B) 45 years
(C) 48 years
(D) 54 years

12.

If z1 is a root of the equation ao zn a1zn 1 .......an 1z an 3, where ai 2for i=0,1,......,n. Then


1
4
1
(D) z
3

1
3
1
(C) z1
4

(A) z1

(B) z1

13.

The ratio of the area of a regular polygon of n sides inscribed in a circle to that of the polygon of
same number of sides circumscribing the same circle is 3:4. Then the value of n is
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 12

14.

Differential equation of the family of circles touching the line y= 2 at (0,2) is

dy
dx
(A) x 2 (y 2)2
(y 2) 0
(B) x 2 (y 2) 2 2x
y 0
dx
dy

dx

(C) x 2 (y 2)2
y 2 y 2 0
dy

15.

(D) None of these

Two vertices of a triangle are (5,-1) and (-2,3). If orthocentre of the triangle is origin, then the coordinates of third vertex is
(A) (4,7)
(B) (3,7)
(C) (-4,-7)
(D) (4,-7)
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16.

17.

x2 y 2

If P () and Q are two points on the ellipse 2 2 1, then locus of midpoint of PQ is:
a
b
2

2
2
2
x
y
1
x
y2
(A) 2 2
(B) 2 2 2
2
a
b
a
b
2
2
x
y
x2 y 2
(C) 2 2 4
(D) 2 2 8
a
b
a
b
x 3 2
Given that matrix A 1 y 4 . If xyz =60 and 8x+4y+3z=20. Then A(adj A) is equal to
2 2 z
0
64 0
88 0 0

(A) 0 64 0
(B) 0 88 0
0 0 64
0 0 88
0
68 0

(C) 0 68 0
0 0 68

34 0 0
(D) 0 34 0
0 0 34

18.

The probability that a teacher will give an unannounced test during any class is 1/5. If a student is
absent twice, then the probability that the student will miss at least one test is
(A) 4/5
(B) 2/5
(C) 7/25
(D) 9/25

19.

If f(x) 1

1 x
f(t)dt, then the value of f(e 1 ) is
x 1

(A) 1
(C) -1
20.

(B) 0
(D) None of these

The area of the region containing the points (x,y) satisfying 4 x2 y 2 2( x y ) is


(A) 8 sq. units
(C) 4sq. units

(B) 2 sq. units


(D) 2 sq. units
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21.

22.

23.

24.

1
1
1
5
6
, then n
Cn
Cn
Cn
(A) 2
(C) 4

If

(B) 3
(D) None of these

2 0 0

If A 2 2 0 , then adj adj A is equal to


2 2 2

3
(A) 8
(B) 63
3
(C) 32
(D) 643

1
1
1
1
lim

......
is
n

1
n

2
n

3
n

(A) ln2
(C) ln 4
n

Slope of common tangent to the circles C1 : x 2 y 2 2x 0 and C2 x 2 y2 6x 0 is


(A) 0
(C)

25.

(B)

(C)

3
(D) None of these

If f x f
(A) 0

26.

(B) ln3
(D) ln5

1 x 2 2 , then

f x dx
1 x2

is equal to

2
(D) 2

(B)

If e1 and e2 are eccentricities of hyperbolas xy c 2 and x 2 y2 a2 , then e12 e22


(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
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27.

The line of intersection of planes r . i 2j 3k 0 and r . 3i 3j k 0 is equally inclined to


i & k and angle with j is , then sin2 is
1
3
1
(C)
2

(A)

2
3
1
(D)
4

(B)

28.

If a x, a, a x are the lengths of the sides of an obtuse angled triangle, then x lies in
a
a 3a
(A) , a
(B) ,

3 4
a
a
(C) , a
(D) , a
4

29.

A seven digit number without repetition and divisible by 9 is to be formed by using 7 digits out of
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. The number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 9
(B) 2 7
(C) 4 7
(D) None of these

30.

The lines
97
11
73
(C)
9

(A)

x 1 y
z

and x y z 2 0 x 3z 5 are coplanar for


2
1 2
43
(B)
5
31
(D)
7

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