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The Smart-e-Pants are (1) Underwear that monitor vital signs, and upload the info to a mobile device (2) Diapers that notify parents (with a text to a cell phone) when they need changing (3) Pants connected to a video game system, allowing the user to play with no hand controls (4) Electronic shorts for people with spinal cord injuries 4, According to Nielsen survey on global consumer confidence, the eountry that remained most optimistic for the eighth consecutive quarter is (1) India (2) Australia (3) Germany (4) Japan 120-XPP-BOAA (38-E) ‘The neighbouring country that has sought the help of Government of Karnataka for conserving tigers is (1) Bhutan (2) Myanmar (3) Sri Lanka (4) Bangladesh The metal with less side effects recently found to be more effective than Lead in Chemotherapy of Cancer is (1) Silver (2) Copper (3) Zine (4) Selenium In an unprecedented move, St. James Palace in London in November 2011 announced that it would (1) Be closing completely for a two-year renovation (2) Allow. tourists into the private quarters of the Queen, for a special premium price (3) Install a helicopter pad on one of the roofs (4) Be renting out rooms during the London Olympics 7 : : ; 14, gposa Ooempot mace (RGI) cadod Sates ageds mower Orig exit amss® (SRS) enditat axon? 2011 0 ame, 2010 BH) BB 1000 seatos axaner deb aoe mG,so Fox (IMR) __ dod ___ Bx mHUrarert, maa, Farhoimnd dowa somooad. 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T tarent nom AGA (1) 88 og daceines (2) doa 8 Baczine> 8 (3) obgst sven (4) Bagot wg secw 9, SoseDT TLomos DOT HmOmoodnomen s sv¥ow PSU MONS wow, mst meas BWmAGwA am aos adsy Qoma* aowdnoan woes wasbaa, ae 3h SaewsovAr, sosiads0as (1) obadodat en,ost (2) Rees’ ow,owt wm? aoQoiw + (3) Aoadets? emo? (4) watpeedsar woz 20. 2012 o° Baebene, coins 0 2012 0 gRoBeox Or ow) sOCuITA, Bddsr0aw. (1) Beosats isosoca* Om (2) wmcbd zha8 Na (3) aod, Same U (4) shod, aosnat E) K 14. 15. 16. 120-XPP-BOAA As per the latest Sample Registration System (SRS) bulletin, December 2011 released by the Registrar General of| India (RGD, it is noted that Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) dropped further from to infant deaths per 1000 live births during 2010. (1) 50; 47 (2) 52; 49 (3) 53; 48 (4) 48; 47 United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN-DESA) data for 150 countries over 40 years showed which two countries as the only two countries in the world where female infant mortality is higher than male infant mortality in the 2000s ? (1) Venezuela and Cambodia (2) Nigeria and Ghana (3) China and India (4) Indonesia and China What is SHADE ? (1) A new pact among the naval forces of India, Japan and China (2) A new pact among the armed forces of India, Japan and China (3) A new pact among the naval forces of India, Japan and Russia (4) A new pact among the armed forces of India, Japan and Russia (7 -E) 17. 18. 20. The Union Cabinet of India on 24 January 2012 renamed the Mana Airport at Raipur as the Airport, Raipur. qa (2) (3) (c) Swami Vivekanand Ramakrishna Paramahamsa Mahatma Gandhi Jawaharlal Nehru A new technique was engineered by the scientists that involved leukemia patients being treated with their own T-cells. T-cells are a kind of (1) White Blood Cell (2) Red Blood Cell (3) Liver Cell (4) Cancerous Cell Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Ine to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology ? (1) Union Bank (2) State Bank of India (3) Syndicate Bank (4) Corporation Bank Which car took home the crown of Indian Car of the Year 2012 in January 2012 ? (a) (2) (3) (4) Toyota Etios Liva Maruti Suzuki Swift Hyundai Verna Hyundai Eon . | | i | : i 21. 2012 0 guwoond ada apdeat womodHomen, s¥sos dest 2G,R0> TBR agixeSesocdozd (1) aeQeay—* (2) or Qes (3). eomow ee (4) ddatst, Odrevsree =: 22 mom 23 we BAe 1 MH Ml 20 oom daonned. Adora Asooday MOIMIAIRA Fea’ Wosesriiay, Wek BOA. wodee : (D) ave devine zo (2) Ldod dot ats, 70 (3) Il 80d dso ang, zo (4) avtee SaorNs ga, 22, 1. ymovas Rens mOam 2011 7 dxgot sess vod sony, Bardascd dddos. . degar &sers 2011 o.woanvd ospatone? Aon? vata, ROOD Bey Dom Beane davewaw. 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(1) 102 (2) 112 oo (3) 1224 5 (4) 132 (8- E) 21, A police revolt in February 2012|25. forced the President of the following country out of office : (1) Maldives (2) Lakshadweep (3) Uganda (4) Philippines Directions : Questions 22 and 28 contain two statements I and II, Answer these using the following codes to identify the ‘TRUE’ statements : Code: (1) Both the statements are true (2) Only statement I is true (3) Only statement II is true (4) Both the statements are false 26. 22, I, The final match of Cricket World Cup 2011, won by India, was played in Kolkata, I. Yuvraj Singh was adjudged aslog the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup 2011 23, I, ‘There has been a strong dissent for the sponsorship of London Olympics 2012 by Dow Chemicals. Il, The atomic reactor at Fukushima in Japan was severely damaged by earth tremor in March 2011, |28- 24, Who is the British-Indian centenarian marathoner who ran 10 km Hong Kong race ? (1) Milkha Singh (2) Surya Veer Singh (8) Gagan Singh (4) Fauja Singh 120-XPP-BOAA (9-E) The official involvement in ‘human safaris’ in Andaman and Nicobar Islands recently exposes. the exploitation of the _ following protected tribe : (1) Santhal (2) Maram (3) Jarawa (4) Lambani The Defence Ministry of India entered into a deal with France to purchase the following Medium Multirole Combat Aircraft : (1) Rafale (2) MIG (3) Eurofighter (4) Jaguar The veteran diplomat and writer who passed away recently is (1) ML. Sondhi (2) AK. Damodaran (3) Appadurai (4) Brijesh Mishra Recently the Supreme Court of India cancelled the licenses of as many as ______ companies as _ illegal under 2G Spectrum deal. (1) 102 (2) 112 (3) 122 (4) 182 ie | 29, 2011 0Q waaee Bom mre Tons Haas az_ read dyad ayo seosd Arve, vas mdaon 3en (1) ap. axF.00F, eh oa, domsemd torre wom Bed towne, oxf.aot, yds, o30,4o*, Esossrase, OnF.DOF. 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Fepss* (3) oxt.abes*, FBOI ads ogmrtese zat — + (4) Paow, Bat Bay daw’. wor 84. 2011 oO, wdmod sveos deta RMeEHRT asdsdm sodroemad BmAyos, se wont secen OdSoIGD. wdoss vad sevow eganodnoan wovadde wedaeriss AoA, Seovmdos. aaynva, vmbembann Ben, / (1) Odor, vow Foe J (2) Othose, wow 4, on* (8) BraTe, BOL FeH,oe (4) Sita, woe’ Aon? —. 35. aq, maRTOdS si ev¥os deve 2012 0 wad - saoond SASS voRds oowseoh mde Bass «= Hono «= Nata, ADOAD aw az Roxom Arsross ERanAaea, wvrmdos (1) FO ededos (2) obapar (3) 200% <—~ * (4) Doe 36, Qedemx cosinmunt vaso ___ ewood voriaen 2012 de Bale wm, Neiserg o awe aoc BRaraxennd (1) 75 de wa Dsocss (2) 100 de wa,adacss Me (8) 125 de waders /+ (4) 150 de wnodecss 120-XPP-BOAA (10-E) | f | ' 29. The Kannada writers who won Jnanapectha Award and Saraswathi Sanmaan during the year 2011 are, respectively. (1) Dr. S.L. Bhyrappa, Dr. Chandrashekara Kambara Dr, Chandrashekara Kambara, Dr. S.L. Bhyrappa Dr. U.R. Ananthamurthy, Dr. 8.L, Bhyrappa Dr. Chandrashekara Kambara, Dr. Chidanandamurthy (2) (3) (4) The Indian city where Literary Festival was held in January 2012, which was marred by the controversy over a scheduled participation by writer Salman Rushdie, is (1) Bikaner (2) Udaipur (3) Jaipur (4) Ahmedabad $1. Indian and Bangladeshi Governments are in the process of a treaty on sharing waters from the river (1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra (3) Vaarana (4) Teesta 82. The intercensal period (in years) and the next population census year in India are, respectively (1) 5, 2016 (2) 10, 2021 (3) 10, 2020 (4) 6, 2015 120-XPP-BOAA (11-E) 33. 35. 36. The present Chief Justices of India and Karnataka are respectively (1) Vikramjit Sen and 8.H. Kapadia (2) S.H. Kapadia and V.B. Sabhahith (3) S.H. Kapadia and Vikramjit Sen (4) Sowmitra Sen and J.S. Kehar In the year 2011, pro-democratic forces were first successful in ending the dictatorial rule in the following African country and subsequently it led to a wave of similar movements with a nickname. ‘These are respectively qd) (2) (3) (4) Libya, Arab Summer Libya, Arab Spring Egypt, Arab Summer Egypt, Arab Spring ‘The following country in the Middle-East faced serious internal political and humanitarian problems in Jan-Feb, 2012 calling for a UN resolutio (1) Saudi Arabia (2) Yemen (3) Syria (4) Iraq The year 2012 has been declared as the year of mathematics as part of celebrations of Srinivasa Ramanujan’s (1) 75 birthday (2) 100" birthday (3) 125" birthday (4) 150" birthday 37, Hamund s8stco aa, AoMA GAN, Fy emod ayaa, BmEuETd agedrt (2012 o gr,50) 8y8oaod Ooxennd (L) noms og, Roe 2 Og, te. ret (2) 208,000 8:5 O8 Ow. nert —* i 4 (3) 208 B00 4 oF oe. ner (4) 3 O8 O00 3:5 OF Oe, Nort 38. aged, wbmatm volar) wer Hotes, BGs zSedrert Bo msmsos sevoa mona EdeDAw z (1) Bande acer (2) eweomt QB) HE, woes (4) myo aides —' ypos Dea Nes waremTaa, owadatod abey sin ead, (2011 0) _ wate. and dood Avda, vadgmdaon YSeana, (1) pode woe, wee, 100 se (2) vdeo tartecot, 100 de /* (8) oso wows, were, 125 de (4) ddeod ag tastoeot, 125 de wahoe Tociny KoBAa) vayeod ahmaastinivsy, aatertortow, adxenmyd. sv we wdmadoda 08 Acdxen drvoxennd, snd Dios Bena, vadysben arama. (1) 5 mane sxowot 2012 (2) 5 ware Saxowo* 2013 (3) 4 Gore Saowo* 2012 + (4) 4 Gene SHono* 2013 i, 39, | 40. 41. emmdobO aeéo woortat edsesada, (1924) “obants morta .accd edobeand. mor wOsessd wesedadte sda azo wdsees osama ? a. wdo pros Denwst whew Db. wo yes Lome aanxes ¢ do gnos waaitese whew d. ede anos matinee wehevs Rooind mgd : (1) a,b aed A (2) b,c abs d (3) acaba (4) sheOs aya + 42, devs eit sh eevos oa Resins, NOs ? a, YANO mox,2F — aTegad, MotAInDAaw, ea smMeUTD ARS, 5 BarDwUMOON Rade NA. em Aare) wah, ns dyad ; ort wr godba motnanas. RooIne eyo : () amgcang, — (2) asda b ane, (3) by can, (4) deOx agRp , 120-XPP-BOAA (12 -E) 37. The minimum income level for defining ‘creamy layer’ in the society has been recently (February 2012) raised in Karnataka from (1) one lakh to 2 lakh rupees (2) 2 lakh to 35 lakh rupees (3) 2 lakh to 4 lakh rupees (4) 8 lakh to 35 lakh rupees 88. Recently the Election Commission ordered masking of _ statues representing a party symbol in the state of (1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Jharkhand (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh 89. India’s national anthem Jana Gana Mana was composed by and it is now (December 2011) into year. ‘The two blank spaces may be correctly filled up by, respectively (1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, toot (2) Ravindranath Tagore, 100‘ (3) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, tas (4) Ravindranath Tagore, 125'" 40. The Presidential elections in the USA are held once in ___ years and they are now scheduled for ___ The two blank spaces may be correctly filled up by, respectively (1) 5 and November 2012 (2) 5 and November 2013 (3) 4 and November 2012 (4) 4 and November 2013 120-XPP-BOAA_ 41. 42. (18-E) The Belgaum Session of Congress (1924) is called as “Unity Congress”. Which of the following sessions were held simultaneously with _the Congress session ? a, All India Khilafat Conference b, All India Hindu Mahasabha c. All India Non-Brahmin Conference d. All India Social Conference The correct answer’ is (1) a,b and d (2) b,c andd (3) a,c andd (4) All the above Identify the influences of Karnataka Vaibhava from among the following : a. It created cultural _ solidarity among Kannadigas. b. It inspired freedom fighters in Karnataka. c. It created awareness among Kannadigas about their glorious past. The gorrect answer is (1) aand c only (2) a and only (3) bande only (4) All the above. 48. gap ovde a wade ssandre |45. Ss eens ots Bor3ned voweywart 3moQs vaiQad) & eveod amma] seags) ? Nabmwe dvseirine ada ? a, gemoto Reodes mE mAs. | | a. 2PQe teste der RBOHOS. b. Reobe me wom, miwed, | wooeortsh, } b. wom enatetay ose ; ' doamatiagny. ¢ AGS —Reodes eva, ; Bawomya, cs, te, adeBs ooayrted |. Tg Reobes my aewe ssommngs. Agrod aarad wonge, : J ROoines wad : aheOs NaOH) ROOINa ATI : (1) amaybe () a,b abayc bad @) bcabad i (3) aembayd E 7 (3. my i a (4) abaya: | (4) eds agate 46, BQ SaYOD anc oss | 44, qnosa Tad, cos wedssPod Baoan webos modsxennods ! Roammsygs “Boss wonmng| Nos wa hey ves gman i wiDaeeried ommapas ? HOoiva Beeaone, Moder : | f a. srdod aged : b. exand wT \ E | c Was AEs = i 4. &¥ yeidos Dode aBoeonts : j Boome wwgo' : t k : F Oe ‘A (1) a,b f 5 ae @) de I a! i: (3) bad ae 1 wiomaG (4) ad,be “4 : 120-XPP-BOAA (14-B) 48, From among the following, what were the notable developments between seventh and fifth century BC. ? a. Intellectual life was in ferment. b. The old tribal disintegrating. structure was c. Smaller regional kingdoms had disappeared. ‘The correct answer is (1) aandb (2) bande (3) aande (4) ‘All the above What of constitutional phase of the Indian National Movement ? activities were part a, Promotion of Khadi b, Non-Co-operation Movement c, Salt Satyagraha d. Struggle against untouchability ‘The correct answer is (1) aandd (2) aande (3) bandd (4) candd 120-XPP-BOAA 45. 46. (15-E) From the following, identify the facts known to Aryabhata : a. That the Earth moves round the Sun. b. The reasons for the eclipses of the Sun and the Moon. c. The stars reflected the light of the Sun. d. The planets moved in elliptical way round the Sun. an Among the above statements, the correct ones are (a) (2) (3) (4) a, bandc b,candd a, cand d a, band d Identify the correct pair of warm and cold ocean currents each respectively, which are indicated by an arrow with a code on the given world map : a (2) (3) (4) a,b dc ab, ed ad, be 47, 88808 ABCHNGR SOA vf, 30, weRds MB amos seny HOoIRa vem Foday Mor : a, to done DHomy,saon Hmmng, vanva, smn Ha andy. b, wa chomd Brande, Bronndsog wad wd) Aenvor anny. ©. Bika, gab wa aew ARAdabe ngs wad wosod aba) doond DOrPomDA VAY AA WoeMMmsd. () abe Qoba (3) bac (4) ae, b 48, duns oy I a wey I deoork WOBo0OL ane eet sawed Hosesrtdog NOainad mgcsa, vol, ana : . weg ay (oedots*) (qio-Kom) A. aa 1. sattotante B. basa 2. mRppaE Remained Cc. me 3. amend D, eosueo 4. Brow? dat E, saoudra 5. sheen BACs wovesne : eee 4 a ae a) Gh ae aa ek @) 6 4 1 2 BA (8) B cule eal 4): QR eee 28 120-XPP-BOAA. (16—- 49. SUNS Doon, TOBA : a, Se JOS maAdod Rarivd ddr BSZO00 wotma tom seat Dg caisiay, 1 Bey Baonodgd. bam swan sp mre woagndodo 68 ana, Baonndgs HY su wdoc Base aed, vO somundgd. ad Ravtennors ary otnasa>? (1) Som abeay (2) woddegrt abe oe (8) mawooda va, 1rd (4) Bosseges vay, area . wdmG® 20° doc 90° ait Seamowny Saved wvgodod cast, MA wad Amdrl somnada Amems myRdy ax poaga, HOoina vadzma® Bon (1) Rat — aodyem ado - abemadned Maudedona® Badd - xa - aoryom and (2) abe woabried — Aatay, - Abode BGO — Hawdedods? avo — RAR, - odyled argo (3) shaudedodbat ~ awcd = - Sh¥earie — modykod anao = Haley, - worked aco - shaudedodat sco (4) mbodwed snadd - Adm, - aheaadries — Nam, - BbodeLod Bad - Haudedodat anao ~~ E) | | | ' 47. Indicate the correct sequence of Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic rocks based on the following statements a, Some rocks are comparatively soft, so that they yield powder on being scratched. b. They do not contain rounded particles but they are made up of crystals. c. More or less they remain in original position but get altered due to internal and external forces. (1) a,b,c (2) ob, a (3) b, a,c (4) a,c, b 49, 50. 48, Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given : List I List 1 (Agent) (Land form) A. River 1. Inselberg B. Glacier 2. Natural bridges C. Wind 3, Chasms D. Underground 4. Comb ridge water E. Seawaves 5. Alluvial terraces Codes : 3 BaD E Myeee ss Bee 1 m6 4° Plage. 8 (3) 5 3 2 1 4 (4) 2 1 3 4 5 120-XPP-BOAA (1T-E) Consider the following statements : a, This soil contains red residual deposit created from _—_ the weathering of rocks under humid tropical conditions. b. It consists essentially of Oxides of Iron and Aluminium and associated with plane surfaces of low relief: Which of the following indicated ? (1) Red soils soils is (2) Laterite soils (3) Tropical Black earths (4) Chernozem soils In Africa, if one traverses from North to South between 20° to 30° East longitudes, the correct sequence of broad natural vegetation is (1) Savanna - Desert type - Rain forests — Mediterranean type — Savanna ~— Desert type (2) Rain forests — Savanna ~ Desert type — Mediterranean type — Savanna — Desert type (3) Mediterranean type - Rain forests — Desert type — Savanna — Desert type - Mediterranean type (4) Desert type - Savanna ~ Rain forests — Savanna ~ Desert type — Mediterranean type : 51. “The Grand Old Man of India” aoa sobo,magaied. (1D) aren waist cow (2) wo nomago 808° (8) *deoe, mg enate (4) cocremost satdees —~ * 52, cic udmadg mohesodad ena aixicy (1) The Phoenix Settlement (2) Sarvodaya Enclave (8) Young India (4) Unto the Last 58, 8eNs DsOtrvR LO : a. edaces nodded naan mes qraloh@ga. vad winosa motes, tpriadoos sariansh wodedioet = aye snatobdge. b. wabded aay mxanvay onde O8od9 wdodenhrd. e wad motes, ypnadods } sonm, — mdatg OOD adovennd. & Suns Mosesrvos XO mgdaay wobana : (1) a ebay b wows (2) ase, xoad (8) b may cwoaat (4) a,bmycmoas ~~: 54. s¥8ow Neornvay LO : Boxe, mdesremn watz WERsFod BYemooda, evvowos BNEewOAg : a. pene? omapa s2oheoad Bem when wdemvob BWHIR wYedoinnay vam, dome Hew Im3voy. b, BOS oma yoo sq, Fea, as Neatoyo vdew Radamaaen 49, modadt twa: clemod aad deywdygosed sLoz. c. went amyacd sheod vga men, Saerivad = eed DYygose loss. d. nommot asia 5 dae aay eBsos way modsde wemod Bad adsqoss roc. 8 8nd wosesrGor HO evgona, wohae : (1) ddsed ang, xodod (2) a abe b datos FOdds (3) a, cay d DstvHrw NOddss (4) BOs aep davon TODS — + BB. 1857 GQ ymvsd ddg yoni Mode Qiao Ody nodded. s dense) —ciwahad = Oo Bacdsosmny ? ) (1) apt sor? = - dant (2) mommmest = — mNaot— + (3) dent mao? - dae (4) wmer = wdaest 120-XPP-BOAA (18 -E) TT —————————————— 7 51. Who was known as “The Grand Old Man of India” ? (1) Lala Lajpat Rai (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (3) Surendranath Banerjee (4) Dadabhai Naoroji 52, Gandhiji’s ashram in South Africa was known as (1) The Phoenix Settlement (2) Sarvodaya Enclave (8) Young India (4) Unto the Last 53. Read the following statements : a, Most Asokan inscriptions were in the Prakrit language while those in the northwest of the subcontinent were in Aramaic and Greek. Most Prakrit inscriptions were written in the Brahmi seript. However, some, in the northwest, were written in Kharosthi. Choose the correct answer from the following : (1) a and b are correct (2) Only a is correct (3) band c are correct (4) a,b and c are correct 54. Read the following statements : For the revenue purpose, Emperor Akbar classified land as follows : a. Polaj is land which is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow. Parauti is land left out of cultivation for a time that it may recover its strength. Chachar is land that has lain fallow for three or four years. Banjar is land uncultivated for five years and more. Choose the correct answer from the following : (1) Only d is correct (2) a and b are correct (3) a, cand d are correct (4) All the above statements are correct In 1857 leaders from different parts of India revolted against the British. 120-XPP-BOAA (19 Which one of the following is wrongly matched ? (1) Kunwar Singh — Bihar (2) Nanasaheb ~ Nagpur (3) Birjis Qadr — — Lucknow (4) Shah Mal, - Barout -E) 56. wgemyyo ge, stmatete (59. “decimodob” shay “Aodaded” MosQ mwosag ao ava doa & F¥sow Bgob aso ANON Boy, HHasemg gmon axons artonengs). vainvoad Sf (1). ty3y aw ewoed ~ ee waenges (2) eno’ shay abaazr iar omnes (8) wadtdatabot absy soahof + (4) wabedestahot ada enor! (3) TRse eg 57, Quad oodg wegge’ asdmamd| \(4) edece -' Bao nom Sarmo Yar gposag Bmrava wowos | TroQetodaor BOxcaic osocd 2 [80. & SEN otvess Babrivay, snort sodss ; ort Pos? mdod Tonsrxs ? Jf (1) ene nomgd soz (2) Sawshat ob dm, | Bssny shed aa_ ays are 2 8 Nodossa. (3) harmo gq necwd ~ ' me ey (4) enon Beimatioods? b, Dreekeod vatmgny dencPoday mdsegogQd Guries) moinpende 38, dao end sohobR, kote RmWENvR, BAdQmad aomd seed 20.0. Bay SOWOY vosnea, Sdzbapod. | j E | | | } | i ] | ° Agoms mh Bpoddacd som BwonyDd. B sens alma wore Rockeniens sygrives, dincidaed | wood Hogs ? ABE ngdodOOAA\CD, a, dO amare d. devenatos ANE mAAaS was, b. soyey Senetarie J ager sm aowe eds ABTANGO KOINTy oingyes ? : d. Heo BetohO aoyshor exes | (1). a say aapnvg oosea w¥yONe : Go. Goan () ama b ag, (2) cad ang, — (3) ambay dans, (4) sheds aOR (4) deOR OVAD © (3) boembayd ~ 120-XPP-BOAA (20-E) 67. 58. 120-XPP-BOAA As per economists, during . the colonial period there were only two proper industrial cities in India and they were (1) Calcutta and Bombay (2) Bombay and Madras (8) Jamshedpur and Kanpur (4) Jamshedpur and Bombay Who among the following advised Gandhiji to travel British India for a year before launching his satyagraha against the British ? (1) Bala Gangadhar Tilak (2) Mohammed Ali Jinnah (3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (4) Lala Lajpat Rai Calling Nehru Report ~— as representing Hindu _interest, M.A. Jinnah put forth Fourteen Points. Of the following, which were included in them ? a, Delhi Proposals b. Caleutta Amendments ¢. Separate Electorate d. Reservation for Muslims in Government service The correct answer is (1) @ and b only (2) cand d only (3) a and d only (4) All the above (21-E) 59. “Devanampriya” and “Priyadarshi? are the other names of (1) Harshavardhana (2) Mahaveera (3) Gauthama Buddha (4) Ashoka What measures did Rowlatt Act seek to introduce from the following : a. Greater and stricter control over the press. b, Trial of political offenders by judges without juries. without trial of persons suspected of subversive aims. c. Internment @. Martial law administration across the country. Which of the statements given above are correct ? ()) aandd (2) a, bande (3) b,candd (4) All of the above 61. goss Nomad ova AaSny wots |64, ss seNagn™ xAoowma adacd eddtdad og.g8 Skabaao> ospayaD 7 (1) wwose mass (1) Gaewaes my Doe, AGoanyneo MevovormnA 1/3 aN (2) ont, ow wenas ens ) le op y menOoma DRedow (3) aed atloh Reso “+ 7 Sacerelod9 —_wonegazancy (4) Ronda aan RaAnY ROR Tem, =—RYob — vaaocadmn HMMooT ade evgese,N Romwad DOERMVN vohosinaog xyvws (2) Aaewxes apap voy, Oqraneined DevobomA 1/8 Bais, QoenOOmS adRadfo~s ont ArIodY emBaiwNa ehaez Aelod wdbseeasmn womad » I (3) mbedosoman deeams aay | dots, Dona! 1/3 aErWa, 62. & BYAS oSPAMD swUseoh AoKaA eww Howooy Agcdoe BOs ainnyag (1) Odq wd adsy wOdy woNanY Qtah enw Hos ws —' (2) maimete mod sa xnOeeors DoalOows sxadohy oe, Poe HifobQ soaacd (8) maresoay Hos xo w Sacwns} aay ow, Dqoarinvg (4) magne eda DOs wD aoe mA BAG, HOD : HorgaQ eat Sagrtedvocnn 63. XOoswct aeocncddobay, modan : Got Head oy, Stertnce omod agen’ Dew aed ws ee arkedoha, aaa, maxima ree ore Randaewsmn Manes mod Boag Mowe dewal mre xndeecmd wove (2) 1992-980 = - mobabede BHeATOBend — sow} Meeirtss somes 65. & sveo@ cone meo¥,, aacos MIFomD, mMBoR,Foso ynvsad (L (3) yoda = —_amobabeae eS ae Rodgad mode fovenuecn, ae beat 7 i a hs Aa wdeReooaed ? Bomadaces (1) Dpestbano wast oF (4) soo pad —-MChabwar ics eos ee Bt pa (8) eas Duowog, , zoast Qos ama (4) taba saben dea esdgeengjod < | 120-XPP-BOAA (22-E) 61, g 120-XPP-BOAA A Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by a (2) (3) (4) President of India Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Speaker of the Lok Sabha Chairman specifically elected for the purpose by a majority of the members of both the Houses of Parliament, Which one of the following is not a Departmentally Related Standing Committee of the Indian Parliament ? (1) Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled ‘Tribes Committee on Social Justice and Empowerment (2. (3) (4) Committee on Labour Committee on Rural Development Identify the correct combination : Issue Commission (1) Anti-Sikh Riots Justice of 1984 Srikrishna (2) 1992-93 Justice Mumbai riots Nanavati (3) Review of the Justice working of Venkata- Indian chalaiah Constitution (4) River water Justice dispute between Mahajan ‘Tamil Nadu and Kerala 64. 65. (23-E) Which one of the statements is correct ? (1) A Bill reserving 1/3 of the seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies has been passed in the Lok Sabha and awaits the approval of the Rajya Sabha A Bill reserving 1/3 of the seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies has been passed in the Rajya Sabha and awaits the approval of the Lok Sabha A Bill has been introduced in the Rajya Sabha reserving 1/3 of the seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women following (2) s 4 Given the commotion in the Parliament on the issue of women representation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, the Bill on women reservation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies has been sent to the Committee of Social Justice + and Empowerment for _wider consultation Which one of the following freedom fighters dedicated herself to the revival of village and cottage industries, in India _ after Independence ? (1) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (2) Dr. Sushila Nayar (3) Mrs. Vijayalaxmi Pandit (4) Mrs. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay 66, oom, Arsod Adress osmajard #eoneand 7 (1) oDdgaste yor I 87, moss Ma weodHOA, HOSS sh 8YNs IMs Ao’ NOomAd ? (2) Moagasey yon V (3) Hongasa yen IV ~* (4) Hodges yor VI qd) DRA WOH) Rongs wang (2) DA BBoH Hongs prarreaAagd ¢ | (3) TRY BImD nom Emer Be) vokoimnayag (4) Daa Bod) ado secewA OSDNDITV (( 68. bonshrontod Agra wdaign, AAs egan ORBEAS donsay, ( Hors) Bos, amawmad (2) dors, Dgraaes Swe, awanwdad+ h (3) Doty Norvaaeiod dma ahedA ROR AWBoBa A uC One,mIOD Baooks aed 3 Da a Bons SMwwowdad sania, 69. & gyAe ons daoba) dood RasohO Reowsyay ? ia Poy, Q) ky gam (3) word ads go8 (4) Saeco 70. yovss ModgNs, wowogrcod S9NS ona dao NOOmMAD ? (1) RomgAoa woscoIAtod sev Tre weonainy yocsord, wRvseoh AodW vata Deady. (2) MoRyAoc! wosooDg, tod Fen eo waonadny goede’, wwoetoh modps vane Arma. + (3) Boxgnod WOSTODH fo3) Pe Tre wsonainy gedesored, wpdstoh Moda tos Hoyeny eBohO ans, vdnw Dewy. ) Rowgdod vosdund tom Peony Roto’, «as, yTBeob Roams wesms Acayd. wmonagneng, 120-XPP-BOAA (24- E) 66. The Directive Principles of State Policy are included in (1) Part III of the Constitution (2) Part V of the Constitution (3) Part IV of the Constitution (4) Part VI of the Constitution 67. Which one of the following statements about the President of India is correct ? (1) The President is not a part of Parliament (2) The President is a part of Parliament. (3) The President is not elected by an electoral college (4) The President is directly elected by the people 68. The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by (1) Parliament alone (2) State Legislative Assembly alone (3) Parliament on. the recommendation of the State Legislative Assembly (4) The President on _the recommendation of the State Governor 120-XPP-BOAA 69. 70. (25-E) Which of the subjects is not contained in the Union List ? (1) Citizenship (2) Fisheries (3) Posts and Telegraphs (4) Extradition Which statements of the regarding Constitution is true ? one following the Indian (1) The Indian Constitution provides for the ratification — of international treaties and conventions by Parliament. (2) The Indian Constitution does not provide for the ratification of international treaties and conventions by Parliament. (3) The Indian Constitution provides for the — ratification of international treaties and conventions by Parliament under certain circumstances only. (4) The Indian Constitution provides for the —_ ratification of international treaties by Parliament and not conventions. TL, SUNS sity | By (HCoesures) ay 11/79. evn wey Tay (woeted) wEe II (eons) Baoan ROso0arx mre! (Ca), Swabs sow, M¥q) dooart ROoswc egos, svt Boos] — aoaeoar mane Moos wgCaIa, WosesrGos Gok, a : at Batfobs §modesrigod wols, ae oe ana: (Reaexore) (ean) wy 4g IT A mes aderdd 1, dam, (wont) (O@, Baar (omer) Sow eos) B. wim adacao 2, sem, A. Batisoda® 1. mown C. maate rideese 3, xan wogenss . BatOCOt ACaeH 4. obs.OxF.0. B. anoel, 2. 8X0 wand B, dueina'xdecdo 5. Aeatat ©. eee 3. mags dodeariey : D. monvacs 4, bArdORG AGH 0 Ub ok te cee ae ae WA ome? ‘ EB. gaust 5, opmosde BY Mt Speak agers (By) AC eae eee (1D. Buln ake G Say 72. wos hy emeuEd aS Bc 'D | tRarkeewd, “Rowopacod dveom/ (1) 2 1 £6 3 4 dnorinva, TBO. eae ke 8k 2 7 a, aodet-mortss® adonda) ato Pe Weel 8 wWs4os agoma word ee ee ee wAsoseoan Tae ade sorva|74. vdeo thacdosnOxt a8 Boond. pore ae 2 db. BmdGQ sooma meus] (1) AR, Boerosdor a BOnva, Nog woos van dy] 2). Wacalpen odor DMTOCG Hpweas,sQ wooina| (8) Lehaedockodot Boren HowsenoadAd. (4) eqndacrodor ic 75. rom sadvoo Caajreod aa yaaa seeetieoa! Se eg set, : macs Q) aseg,wo (1) eaycobers® sowmyem 2) baps,z0 (2) Utd das swoeted (8) ambsyb avae xo (3) gormysob atowezted (4) a mayb avae vah,« (4) Sime mownylod 120-XPP-BOAA (26-E) 71. Match list I (Lakes) with List ID (Countries) and select the correct answer from the codes given : List I List 1 (Lakes) (Countries) A. Lake Turkana 1, Russia (Rudolf) B, Lake Onega 2, Kenya ©. Lake Vanern 3, Canada D, Lake Reindeer 4. USA E, Lake Michigan 5, Sweden Codes : AiSB: > G2 3D E Bee SM: Gy ige | 4 Be Bos beer 6 eed Bo Beebe 4 Mek 1 4a gk 8 72, With reference to the physiography of India and Karnataka, consider the following statements a, Indo-Gangetic plain —_—has perennial rivers with an average elevation higher than South India. b. West flowing rivers of Karnataka can be linked from their lower reaches of maximum flow to the east flowing rivers. Which of the following is correct ? (1) a only is true (2) b only is true (3) Both a and b are true (4) Both @ and b are false 120-XPP-BOAA 73. 74, 5. (27-E) Match List 1 (Port) with List IL (Leading Product Exported) and select the correct answer from the codes given : List I List Il Port) (Leading product exported) A. Tuticorin 1. Spices B. Mumbai 2. Iron-ore C, Goa 8. Granite D. Mangalore 4. Refined petroleum produets E, Cochin 5. Fertilizers Codes : A @eBy0..,D EB dy (2 ewes at 24 Q)-) 6s ae a gh @) Raa ce gs A Sided eB. RR oi ‘The Aurora Borealis occurs’ in (1) Stratosphere (2) Troposphere (3) Ozonosphere (4) Ionosphere The Delta formed’ by the river Ganga is an example of (1) Areuate Delta (2) Estuarine Delta (8) Cuspate Delta (4) Bird's foot Delta | Broad 77. (3) 76. & sensanY Zooiwn OSPADBOPAAR, MBA a. adhe — ssa b. nope? - mate ©. eaget — anos a. Raoged — vas (1) ambayb (2) aange a (3) babaye (4) dae, & «-gensarvg —hamoodsos mapesnada osnaa) ? a. dome b. rom Se ORwe a. wtgest (2) a, b bay cates, ~ (2) b,c ay d ans, (3) a, b ay d By, ~ (4) a, ¢ Hay d as, e 78, wemod eds nom dora Avoos ma Raodenwrodor Boarimrenva, a, Hoahodd moemgeat, act’, woctoasen ? (1) nom Sate d® moda Boa weNy ros8,cm Meode nwenenos simNoogyd — (2) dey wor aearte> Rawmge mgos vombwosgyss ead ay Rnodenweoree Bert MMyHag e wos, Mater Beobe of Tweens ae, Beusaonodsgs. (4) todd, Raieerte> operas Rpwemnogs vad RADEON MAVEN sporideonodyas 120-XPP-BOAA zg 79. BMEwEG yA aeaoh oow,5O Baw FA-wmandeon TAesnva, TMHOBAG. am e¥vow vosTar, egoad. a, advoinms Aone, Say mono DIK HeOdos b, abgs agri de wry, ogre c, SPodenrs ete shay Swot arg a. tad shay mormardé zee}, B¥soe = Aokesnvm, wer vO Mona, ohana : (1) a,b ay canes, (2) b, cabs dams, (3) a, cabs) dans, (4) a, b aba d ag, Hoaodsrsooat mA amg, Uesdoos gyainy vdrt womsqos Ros Hom Kchogyd a, wk, ey apn Fdg,s ag Saamaad Dv, AH, me apne § Aogs Sansa aeHB AES c. Map Biymyd 4. magoz eashoinmyd ROOIMG HAo BoA, yoke : (1) ambay b Sng, (2) b may cams, (3) amba cams, (4) bbeydane—.s (28-E) 76. 1%. 120-XPP-BOAA Which of the correctly matched ? following is/are a, Eskimo ~ Canada b, Oran- Norway c, Lapps India d. Gonds ~ Africa (1) aandb (2) a only (3) bande (4) d only Which of the following are believed to be older than the Himalayas ? a. Indus b. Ganga c. Brahmaputra d. Sutlej (1) a, b and c only b, cand d only a,b and d only a, c and d only = Why is one likely to see a larger number of lunar eclipses from a given place on the Barth than the solar eclipses ? (1) The number of lunar eclipses in a year is larger than the solar eclipses (2) All eclipses of Moon are visible throughout a hemisphere while all solar eclipses are not (3) Lunar eclipses. are more published than solar eclipses (4) Lunar eclipses are always complete while the solar eclipses are usually partial 79. 80. (29-E) The Agricultural Department of Karnataka has identified major agro-climatie regions in the state and it is based on a. Rainfall pattern, and distribution both amount b. Soil types and relief features ¢. Crops produced and marketing d. Labour and transport facility Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (1) a,b and only (2) b,c and d only (3) a,candd only (4) a,b and d only As one moves from the Equator to the Poles along a meridian the result will be a, The variety of plants and animals increases. b. The variety of plants and animals decreases. c. ‘The temperature increases. d, The temperature decreases. Choose the correct statement : (1) a and b only (2) band c only (3) a and c only (4) band d only ie 81. & 8e¥om enowrish, ea,s Seons, |85. toe? eiabob ge 32 &, momN Reads MmOmsdoad (1) mBewF Soobenosory (2) aRxN Foods en,osned (3) grosa® sdeonvm, seoands \ OBB emosrred @ (4) Sedeod = wa Rawss warty — 82. wnosa maenrst gan AqprormN Zast aekanv s eenaaay werhooad. (1) FR e@are HR apor (S & PW (2) oe MYR? ave pSeoos? (3) S say P CNX dg, 87. (4) sors MBF aatpBeoest 83, Oso oedss (Insurance penetration) ‘morkes, 186, % S¥voaNY «= wae, Raumgd (1) toc 3 datecQ sos eashee 2 Agowohona waitosdrte abs wabans (2) noch Ress swead Bot wd Sooe Stodorie 8.0.8.0 ata wadsns.— @ (3) wom hed sarc sot wd twos Wedd weoodoria SdAEN, HO Hoyso waxoaino adds Vdms (4) wom med aaedQ Bot nd tno mae Sepsed deevohons TV tot ae 84. BRIC desngond norgdest, van, ndroat ada) more waate. cbabeDosve, ovat ada) esa (3) Bwor, Ta, BO aw} vero (4) Sor, can, eos abs vem—_ 120-XPP-BOAA (30-E) {OSA omoHny wnsod wn Jz,ah & seeoaaA, Lwtawoo (Ll) Dame say emdodrred (2) mat-an7or Resries Dy Smestned (3) aRyot Sesrdod aoanT () delede Seo mead - ¢ 2000-01 dotee snosaomms Beare ogsQ sys men & SPASTE, HowoHad (1) apsemoo Aes (2) weosens teste 7 (8) maseo* Heaney — © (4) Rosteds teatrted wWoss dod aymdTdON FDI Hos 2012 wad 10 COddaos & eens B dacs smn ) dra Baty, Lomas wre mA moTON FDI R wasps Aewoond (2) node wos Bod aagnds FDI A seven 100 oad esmvad (3) ede? reas Bod mmed FDI a dategrennde (4) node spoat mare water zmoan wed anounvdas FDI ro wBnyad — {Us ABET 20110 BtyNO 10 vom Amgmn Mpoad “Maat” QoLwDa () wasss Amerosn,A com mands Nanseey Robe ss (2) mdIdvod Baonors sze,ernn nom gerbe xasess ROHS; (3) Sodme sAOTMN toc matinee Feng BOOHER ED (4) Sos mpAAa, BERIT cdooe me _ anos? Bead BOND OS,N word Brown Aandess moder ——. 81. 120-XPP-BOAA A target of 32 per cent of bank credit is stipulated for lending to the priority sector by the (1) public sector banks (2) private sector banks (3) foreign banks having offices in India domestic scheduled commercial banks (4) Credit rating agencies for India’s sovereign credit rating include (1) Standard and Poor's (S & P) (2) National Stock Exchange (3) S & P CNX Nifty (4) Bombay Stock Exchange Insurance penetration refers to the ratio of (1) premium underwritten in a given year to the total population (2) premium underwritten in a given year to the GDP life insurance premium underwritten in a given year to the health risk population (3) (4) non-life insurance premium underwritten in a given year to the total value of assets BRIC countries refer to (1) Bangladesh, Russia, Ireland and Congo @ Belgium, Romania, Iran and Canada (3) Brazil, Russia, Italy and China 85. 86. 87. 4 Brazil, Russia, India and China (31-E) Current account of India’s balance of payments does not include (1) Exports and imports (2) Non-factor services and transfers (3) Income from factor services (4) Foreign direct investment Since 2000-01, India’s export of services has been largely contributed by (1) Business services (2) Financial services (3) Software services (4) Communication services As on 10” January 2012, which of the following statements is nof correct on FDI in retailing trade in India ? (1) FDI in cash and carry wholesale trading is permitted (2) FDI in single brand retailing is allowed upto 100 per cent (3) FDI in multi-brand retailing is prohibited (4) FDI in both single brand and multi-brand retailing are allowed “Swabhimaan”, formally launched on 10 February 2011 by Government of India, is a (1) social inclusion programme for poverty alleviation (2) education inclusion programme for out-of-school children (3) social welfare programme for elderly population (4) financial inclusion programme to provide branchless banking through the. use of technology 2001-2011 0® nose waroslob weed destin aos) () 176444 (2) 1664 (3) 15-64 (4) 14-64 90. 2001 waned wna 2011 wANsoHO BB Oo vmms HOT Poors’ waAdacssnva, 8 seit SaBNNG. a. 3x Cor embanva) 927 Bow 914 g, avanamnd. b, wah, aba met = marke DOVsARANGD a avannd Teadeohand. ¢, Bowwad Con wadsnos mqnor2. d. shanna 3Q Bx Son ems, adgossnd. aheOs oma Datotirted WOotNT : () aame, @) a,b,c “+ (3) aod (4) ambeyb 91. ywoscQ = ih Wairdrfobay AROHAGRN TA tod FA deve oSews (RKVY) ota, sapotdxiennd. and, Rowogragos evtos ARvHNGR, TOBOR. a. Sarwtoday, 11 se sowmaed oSacestodd wcornencdse. b. aa¥, DONA, dod, Rees 100% emens Geen owt c. BeNOR x Seuaren Costa’ ot ddeedags, d. amd HO Bw, Beak sneer aaah * eos ona sos HOoIWNAG : (1) aabeyb (2) a,b mer (3) beabayd@ (4) badsye 120-XPP-BOAA set otic? sooo (NCTC) o Agaad wdes oy aogyred adoce BON otntoad 8 a, ach mand ade) waag Hoses ae eondsay, agmNDyd. ner Aes Aewdoie wofeenaed Dodg gab ] J are Bd sane Mea BRAS NCTC fi Newennd. c. BD Bevd wea owdod shed Baw Toma deodgs, d, go8eewp,ddod Dod Baemmaya7g, 19%,3,008 2 BORIS Toby ays. sersaycos Rotesnvor Myda, vohwwa : (1) a aay d ag, (2) cms) dans, (8) 2 Dy c Bwy, (4) bay cans, “eo 98. Rongt vBoms et Bam Bos me BAN — Aa,cdoe spaosidaewch, soxeos 368 ae ree BHaend sanwanvay, 1980 0Q wapece, mMIneody) Sms. 8 Soa eesom BROVOT Rasodennd (1) dwar Herd ae (2) semaoc wns ae0t (3) racostmg? asoce ) Sarimdo secre . 4 8¥80m BNs admaoAN SMELT AMET aAovmose AMrmBenod HMB, seadeT Ban (1) westery ches ugmbo - ¢ (2) the daoba adocsaserar (3) sab nedmds Datod (4) d.2.00% mmeny ABood Seon, wo egabry orf (32-B) 91. Which of the above statements are correct ? (1) aandb (2) a, b and ¢ (3) b,c andd (4) b and ¢ 120-XPP-BOAA (33-E) Decadal growth rate of population in India during 2001 - 2011 is (1) 17-64 (2) 16-64 (3) 15-64 (4) 14-64 The comparative observations on Child Sex Ratio in 2001 census and 2011 census are given below. a, The child sex ratio has declined from 927 to 914. b. The decline is Jammu & Rajasthan. ce. The sex ratio has improved in Punjab. a. The child sex ratio increased in Maharashtra. Which of the above statements are correct ? (1) a only (3) aod significant in Kashmir = and has (2) a,*b, ¢ (4) a and b The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) scheme is launched to promote agricultural development in India. Consider the _ following statements in this regard : a. The scheme was introduced during 11" Five Year Plan. b. The funds are provided as 100% grant by Central Government. c. It directs preparation of comprehensive Agricultural Development Plans for Districts. 4. It encourages more investment in agriculture 93. Establishment of National Counter Terrorism Centre (NCTC) is being opposed by many Chicf Ministers because a. It takes away States’ power to maintain law and order. b. Proposed NCTC is entrusted with the power to investigate and take action against the _ terrorists without informing the States. c. It adversely affects the federal structure of the country. d. States will be divested of all powers to combat terrorism. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) a and d only (2) cand d only (3) aand c only (4) b and c only In the year 1980 the Supreme Court of India struck down amendments made to Art. 368 which gave unlimited powers to the Parliament and denied judicial review of amendments. This case is popularly known as (1) Minerva Mills case (2) Keshavananda Bharathi case (3) Golaknath case (4) Bommai case Justice Somashekar Committee was appointed by the Karnataka Government to probe into (1) the attack on churches (2) the denotification of land issue (3) the illegal mining issue (4) the irregularities in the distribution of BPL cards J 95. 96. 97. 120-XPP-BOAA Aewoh Adress sarvd weddatmoda sheen) BORE ayenNodes Bey, otns Sanvay uGoRd ? (1) Xana sane # (2) MoGenas sare (3) Mone sane (4) ornate sane a tent BaYOIT ag daxoinve ROoimNd. wad wom Asos sng, eposa®) aoe Roane Ag~amowodm, modnaemaacg VBNRS Awma rsdedownaay, BBAQys. w dacrosoajad ? (1) vaty, weSod 1/3 Val, RoR BS 20a saeren Aggy mMmad 89, MBs, Montes Sadenay neo ensign MBASeesmanaen Beds, eoncangd (3) Sees zelod. aaoimn wad ory, BEAQAGT, ooeyrefos Y pia aoAaTA, anecae- Bod Maadoha mpopma WORT MDBMYNTIBOH (2) (4 {RUSS TaAtoh Acawad svsow IMs SBI 2010-11 od Vsos Fash Be, Boooged ? a Boose, Sorvd B.a.d. 2) AYO? Sy, Hey wm ddrivg Bae. agee sey aba - Aodsr0e ATTA (2004 - 05) 2.0.8. © Bnodey, SONYA on°.0.8. (3) 4) 99. (34-E) 100. 98. wom see si seNdodqd zeod, Reed ascob soos BMD mgiee Boddy 2010-11 od RadmNDIGay () aaa wane sheds dose, Bie todeeangs , Ve mayny doeOs ddaa, nude Radosmngs MONY SAAVBoH BdAa, swe Ratosongd (4) 2 womobny sheds dose, awe edomnngd — ¢ BH eevodainy saegevors a aesony aye sonny wok: (2) (3) somes 2010 5 Mmoosmnd (1) eR vmab gon maeadred HR 19610 emod sor ndbdod nds (2) avy Hows gon nsearsd wey 1957 oo ows sort sdodob nade eR Bz,g, Zon wsamnss Hey woe Baraca 1961 0 emo gon dod worn 1957 UO money gon mdbdnvonaa, nadmaa le aR Beg, sor MaawNe Day ager wonAdecdt 1961 o emob son mdvd more 1957 0 mosey sort mdodnvoaaa, nodmya gRosad, Ani dd (3) (4) Ravors (WPI) “wandaracaia, evdodos Sadan sends a> () mgoe md arrive, wereoanre wad Mer Zosmond wav eve ainy WPI BYP Nos axyny WPI —7 ByPdoe wand aRyrisd ade Sommodtoing wat (2) (3) (4) maanvsavraod exe Katt" 95, The right to livelihood envisioned in the Directive Principles of State Policy is based on. which of the following principles ? (1) Socialist principles + (2) Gandhian principles (8) Liberal principles (4) Anarchic principles 96, All statements given below are true but one of them represents the true spirit of the introduction of bi-cameral legislature in India. Which one is it ? (1) One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years (2) Government has the power to nominate some members who have excelled in the field of Arts, Literature, Social Service, ete. Whereas the Lok Sabha represents the will of the people as a whole, Rajya Sabha represents the interests of the State Rajya Sabha has no power in initiating a Money Bill (3 (4) § Which of the following measures of national income in India had the lowest value in 2010~11 ? ( (2) GDP at market prices GDP at factor cost and current prices : GDP at factor cost and constant (2004 — 05) prices NDP at market prices (3) (4) 198, Fiscal deficit and primary deficit of the Central Government would have - been equal in 2010-11, if revenue 99. 100. 120-XPP-BOAA (35-E) expenditure on (1) Major subsidies were zero (2) Defence expenditures were zero (3) Recovery of loans were zero (4) Interest payments were zero The Direct Taxes Code Bill 2010 aims at consolidation and integration of all (1) income tax laws and replacement of the Income Tax Act 1961 (2) wealth tax laws and replacement of the Wealth Tax Act 1957 (3) direct tax laws and replacement of both the Income Tax Act 1961 and the Wealth Tax Act 1957 with a single legislation (4) direct tax laws and replacement of both the Income Tax Act 1961 and the Wealth Tax Act 1957 with a separate legislation Food inflation in Wholesale Price Index (WPD is measured in India by (1) Food Index consisting of primary food articles (2) WPI of manufactured food products (3) WPI of primary good articles (4) Food Index consisting of primary food articles and manufactured food products DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 120-XPP-BOAA Version Code QUESTION BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1, Immediately after the commencement of the examination, before writing the Question Booklet Version Code in the OMR sheet, you should check that this Question Booklet does NOT have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions ete. If so, get it replaced by a complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the available series. 2. Write and encode clearly the Question Booklet Version Code A, B, C.... or H, as the case may be, in the appropriate space provided for the purpose, in the OMR Answer Sheet. 3. You have to enter your Register Number in the a Question Booklet in the box provided alongside. Megat, Museber DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet. 4. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses (answers). Select the answer which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question. 5. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided and ‘ONLY in Black or Blue Ball point Pen. See instructions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All questions carry equal marks. Affempt all questions. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet. 7, Before proceeding to mark the responses in the Answer Sheet, you have to write and encode particulars regarding Register Number, Question Booklet Version Code, ete., (along with your signature and Invigilator’s signature) in the space provided for in the Answer Sheet. 8, Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. You should not make any marking on any other part of the Question Booklet. 9, Immediately after the final bell indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop making any further markings in the Answer Sheet. Be seated till the Answer Sheets are collected and accounted for by the Invigilator. 10,Questions are printed both in Kannada and English. If any confusion arises in the Kannada Version, please refer to the English Version of the questions. 11. Use of Mobile phones, Calculators or electronic/eommunication ‘gadgets of any kind is not permitted. ‘DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO’ TiDOL : MOWINY IEE VAIOD H ZY PAPod sogwnad awa7Wo Ys.