Perfect Gas Properties and Laws

1.
Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d
2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Charles'law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: d
3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d
4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a
5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a
6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a
7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b
8. According to Gay Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies
directly as
(a) temperature
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c
9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
(a) more volume
(b) less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behavior
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a
10. General gas equation is
(a) PV=nRT
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b
11. According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c
12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within
the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d
13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c
14. A closed system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a
15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b
16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic

(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a
18. The pressure a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d
19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a
20. Superheated vapour behaves
(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d
21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of - 273 K
Ans: c
22. No liquid can exist as liquid at
(a) - 273 K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c
23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d
24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of - 273.16C
(b) a temperature of 0C
(c) a temperature of 273 K
(d) a negative pressure and 0C temperature
(e) can't be attained.
Ans: a
25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b
26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c
27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp - Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c
28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
Ans: d
29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d
30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b
31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b
32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c
33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and
pressures
(a) Charles' Law
(b) Joule's Law
(c) Regnault's Law
(d) Boyle's Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c
34.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
An open system is one in which

mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: c
35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original
volume at 0C for every 1C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles' law.
Ans: e
36. Gases have
(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.
Ans: b
37. According to Avogadro Hypothesis
(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same
conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.
Ans: a
38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a
39. Work done in a free expansion process is
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Ans: c
40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law

(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: a
41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimeter analysis, the relative volume of each
constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b
42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be
equal to
(a) + v
(b) - ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c
43. An isolated system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: b
44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic
coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b
45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d
46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e
47. Mixture of ice and water form a
(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.
Ans: d
48. Which of the following is the property of a system
(a) pressure and temperature
(b) internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b
50. Which of the following is not the intensive property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Ans: d
51. Which of the following items is not a path function
(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy

(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: e
52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heat transferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a
53. Heat and work are
(a) point functions
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.
Ans: c
54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given
temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b
55. The value of n = 1 in the poly tropic process indicates it to be
(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.
Ans: b
56. Solids and liquids have
(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.
Ans: a
57. A perfect gas at 27C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
temperature is
(a) 54C
(b) 327C
(c) 108C
(d) 654C
(e) 600C
Ans: b
58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV"=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b
59. If value of n is infinitely large in a poly tropic process pV" = C, then the process is known
as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a
60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Ans: d
61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.
Ans: a
62. The term N.T.P. stands for
(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.

Ans: c
63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is
known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) is entropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e
64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behavior.
Ans: c
65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal
equilibrium with each other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.
Ans: c
66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80C, the final
temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80C
(b) 0C
(c) 40C
(d) 20C
(e) 60C.
Ans: b
67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro's hypothesis.
Ans: a
68. One watt is equal to

(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.
Ans: a
69. Work done is zero for the following process
(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d
71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m
to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
Ans: c
72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/molK
(b) 8314kgfm/molK
(c) 848kgfm/molK
(d) 427kgfm/molK
(e) 735 kgfm/molK.
Ans: c
73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.
Ans: a
74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d
75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmolK
(b) 83.14J/kmolK
(c) 848J/kmolK
(d) All J/kmol K
(e) 735 J/kmol K.
Ans: b
76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of
temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.
Ans: d
77. In a free expansion process
(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
Ans: c
78. If a gas vapor is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is
known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: e
79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow
Ans: a
80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a
process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a
81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e
82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process
(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
Ans: c
83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be
encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working substance should be
same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be
same
Ans: d
84.
For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body
and working substance should be

(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a
85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b
86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a
87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original
volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The
work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b
88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.
Ans: d
89. Entropy change depends on
(a) heat transfer
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state

(e) change of pressure and volume.
Ans: a
90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.
Ans: c
91. Isochoric process is one in which
(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.
Ans: c
92. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Ans: d
93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is
inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b
94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Ans: b
95.
Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process
takes place at constant

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a
96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: c
97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible
process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: c
98. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Ans: c
99. Total heat of a substance is also known as
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.
Ans: d
100.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
First law of thermodynamics

enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
does not enable to determine change in entropy
provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy

Ans: e
101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing external work
(e) doing external work.
Ans: d
102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.
Ans: a
103. Measurement of temperature is based on
(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(e) joule's law.
Ans: b
104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.
Ans: d
105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
(a) initial temperature is 0K
(b) final temperature is 0K
(c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0K
(d) final temperature is 0C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.
Ans: b
106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900Kandr2 and another engine between T2
and 400K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650K
(b) 600K
(c) 625K
(d) 700K
(e) 750K.
Ans: a
107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the
working substance will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
Ans: d
108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d
109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:
110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a
proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistication
(e) desirable.
Ans: d
112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving
heat input of 400 kcal/mt
and working between the temperature limits of 227 C and 27 C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistica-tions

(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b
113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthalpy
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: c
114. A diathermy wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b
115. An adiabatic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) dos not exist.
Ans: a
116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Ans: c
117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surrounding air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.
Ans: b
118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the tropospheric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c
119. During throttling process
(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of steam
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: d
120. The energy of molecular motion appears as
(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.
Ans: a
121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a
sign of approaching
(a) fine weather
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.
Ans: c
122. The unit of universal gas constant is
(a) watts/K
(b) dynes/C
(c) ergscm/K
(d) erg/K
Ans: d
123. Calorie is a measure of
(a) specific heat
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity
(d)entropy
(e) work.
Ans: b
124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.
Ans: c
125. Barometric pressure is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a
126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to
(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.
Ans: b
127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.
Ans: b
128. A perpetual motion machine is
(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws of thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.
Ans: d
129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work

(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.
Ans: c
130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics
(a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using
refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process
is more than unity
(d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of
external energy
Ans: d
131. Thermal power plant works on
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: c
132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle
(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
Ans: e
133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
Ans: b
134.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

working substance
design of engine
size of engine
type of fuel fired
temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e
135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
Ans: a
136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.
Ans: e
137. Carnot cycle is
(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Ans: a
138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
(b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
Ans: c
139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then
efficiency of Stirling cycle
as compared to Carnot cycle
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
Ans: c
140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles

(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Ans: a
141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c
142. Reversed joule cycle is called
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c
143. Brayton cycle consists of following four processes
Ans: d
144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle
(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
Ans: e
145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.
Ans: c
146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a
147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency
(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.
Ans: c
148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure
ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e
151. Gas turbine cycle consists of
(a) two isothermal and two isotropic
Ans: d
152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam
and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
Ans: b
10.1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b
10.2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram metre
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e
10.3. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton metre
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram metre/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b
10.4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
10.5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
10.6. A force acting on a body may
(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
Ans: e
10.7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?
(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the
sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the
sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
Ans: d
10.8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
Ans: d
10.9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on
a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force

(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
Ans: b
10.11. A force is completely defined when we specify
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
Ans: d
10.12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
10.13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal
to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
10.14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction
is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a
10.15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?
(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.

Ans: e
10.16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?
(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimetre
(e) milestone.
Ans: e
10.17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?
(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e
10.18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
10.19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?
(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e
10.20. The weight of a body is due to
(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth.
Ans: e
10.21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are
called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces

(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
Ans: b
10.22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
10.23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity
(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e
10.24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the centre of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Ans: c
10.25. Which of the following is a vector quantity
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c
10.26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of
VlOkg and when acting at 60 produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: c
10.27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
Ans: c
10.28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
10.29. According to principle of moments
(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
about any point in their plane is zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
Ans: b
10.30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity
(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
10.31. According to law of triangle of forces
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to
force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
Ans: c
1033. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
Ans: d
1036. D' Alembert's principle is used for
(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
1037. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
1038. According to Lami's theorem
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to
force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
Ans: d
1039. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
10.40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) '2n-l
(d) n - 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
10.42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
Ans: d
10.43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two
parts by an imaginary section
drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
10.44. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(a) the centre of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
Ans: c
10.45. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
Ans: a
10.46. Centre of percussion is
(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
about a certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of
gravity.
Ans: c
10.47. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
Ans: b
10.48. The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
10.49. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
10.50. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
Ans: a
10.51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a
10.52. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear

(c) shear or tension
(e) bending.
Ans: a
10.53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very
small approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
10.54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per metre length. The ends of the wire are attached to two
poles 20 metres apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
10.55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the
plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
10.58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its centre.
Ans: d
10.59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will
be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d
10.62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-strained to turn
Ans: d
10.63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis
passing through the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
10.65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg
force, 1 m arm, - ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, - ve sense
(ft) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, - ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
10.68. Angle oT friction is the
(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(ey the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to
move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a
10.69. The coefficient of friction depends on
(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
Ans: d
10.70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination +
friction angle) applied in the direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
10.71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a
10.72. Which one of the following statements is not correct
(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Ans: d
10.73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
Ans: c
10.74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force
of friction will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
Ans: d
10.76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called
(a) post friction
(b) limiting friction

(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e
10.77. Coefficient of friction is the
(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b
10.78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact sur-faces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
10.79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be
on the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) W\an(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
10.80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given
by x = t2 (t - 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
10.81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold
his umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing

Ans: d
10.86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum
when 9 is
(a) 0
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
(e) 90.
Ans: c
10.88. Limiting force of friction is the
(a) tangent of angle between normal-reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and limiting
friction
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c
10.89. Coulomb friction is the friction between
(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a
10.90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on na-ture of surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c
10.92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(a) kinetic friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d
10.93. Kinetic friction is the
(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and the
limiting friction
Ans: d
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j)
is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
10.96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and
circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and
horizontal surface is \i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it
always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
10.97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto
height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
10.98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane
is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
Ans: a
10.99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
Ans: b
10.100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they
must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
Ans: d
10.101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide
over another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
Ans: a
10.102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon
(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a
10.104. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
10.105. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium

(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
10.106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
10.107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance
covered in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
10.108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions
made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
10.110. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its
distance from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant
greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
Ans: b
10.111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy
(a) kg m
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c
10.112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown
fluid. Then which is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can't be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Ans: a
10.113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
(a) at distance from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance from the plane base or
(e) at distance from the plane base.
Ans: d
10.117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
10.119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the
base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
10.122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as
compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b
10.126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order

(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
Ans: d
10.127. A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of
(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c
10.128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
Ans: a
10.129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is
about to move down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
10.130. In actual machines
(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
Ans: c
10.131. In ideal machines
(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity

Ans: b
10.136. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the
following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b
1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under
varying conditions of output and costs, is known as
(a)
Gnatt chart
(b)
flow chart
(c) break-even chart
(d) PERT chart
(e) Taylor chart.
Ans: c
2. Break-even analysis consists of
(a) fixed cost
(b) variable cost
(c) fixed and variable costs
(d) operation costs
Ans: c
3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
(a) sales revenue > total cost
(b) sales revenue = total cost
(c) sales revenue < total cost
(d) variable cost < fixed cost
Ans: a
4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
(a) fixed cost
(b) variable cost
(c) fixed cost + variable cost
(d) fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
(e) fixed cost + sales revenue.
Ans: a
5. The break-even point represents
(a) the most economical level of operation of any industry
(b) the time when unit can run without i loss and profit
(c) time when industry will undergo loss
(d) the time when company can make maximum profits
(e) time for overhauling a plant.
Ans: c
9. In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such
as1
(a)
sales turn over
(b)
lowest competitive price
(c) various elements of the cost
(d) buyers' capability to pay
Ans: e
10.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Work study is concerned with

improving present method and finding standard time
motivation of workers
improving production capability
improving production planning and control
all of the above.
a
11.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Basic tool in work study is

graph paper
process chart
planning chart
stop watch
analytical mind.
d
12.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
What does symbol 'O' imply in work study

operation
inspection
transport
delay temporary storage
none of the above.
a
15.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
What does symbol 'D' imply in work study

inspection
transport
delay temporary storage
permanent storage
none of the above.
c
16.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

minimum value
maximum value
average value
middle value
alarming value.
a
17.
Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
overhead crane
trolley
belt conveyor
all of the above
none of the above.
a
18.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
String diagram is used when

team of workers is working at a place
material handling is to be done
idle time is to be reduced
all of the above
none of the above.
a
20.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Work study is most useful

where production activities are involved
in judging the rating of machines
in improving industrial relations
in judging the output of a man and improving it
where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
a
21.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Micromotion study is
enlarged view of motion study
analysis of one stage of motion study
minute and detailed motion study
subdivision of an operation into blither and their analysis
motion study of small components upto mircoseconds.
d
22.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In micromotion study, therblig is described by

a symbol
an event
an activity
micro motions
standard symbol and colour.
e
23.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus

policy allowance
interference allowance
process allowance
learning allowance
unforeseen allowance.
a
24.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions

8
12
16
20
(e)
24.
Ans: c
25.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The standard time for a job is

total work content
basie time + relaxation time
total work content + basic time
total work content + delay contigency allowance
total work content + relaxation time.
d
27.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Work study is done with the help of

process chart
material handling
stop watch
all of the above
none of the above.
c
28. Scheduling gives information about

(a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain
period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be minimised
(d) prcper utilisation of machines
Ans: a
29.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on

operator's activity
flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
minimising the delays
making efficient despatching
none of the above.
b
30.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

determine overhead expenses
provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
determine standard costs
determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
compare alternative methods.
a
31.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Job evaluation is the method-of determining the

relative worth of jobs
skills required by a worker
contribution of a worker
contribution of a job
effectiveness of various alternatives.
a
32. Micro motion study is

(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing
device in the field of view
(b) motion study observed on enhanced time intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
(e)
scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.
Ans: a
33.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by

work sampling
time study
method study
work study
ABC analysis.
a
34.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
TMU in method time measurement stands for

time motion unit
time measurement unit
time movement unit
technique measurement unit
time method unit.
b
35.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Time study is
the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
machine setting time
time taken by workers to do a job
method of fixing time for workers
method of determining the personnel Requirement.
a
36.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

detailed calculations
convenience
table of random numbers
past experience
fixed percentage of daily production.
c
38.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals

0.0001 minute
0.0006 minute
0.006 minute
0.001 minute
0.06 minute.
b
39.
(a)
(b)
Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
second
minute
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
hour
day
none of the above.
b
40.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for

improving a work method
improvising a work method
designing a work method
providing a schematic framework
reducing inventory costs.
e
41.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Gnatt chart provides information about the

material handling
proper utilisation of manpower
production schedule
efficient working of machine
all of the above.
c
42.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
ABC analysis deals with

analysis of process chart
flow of material
ordering schedule of job
controlling inventory costs money
all of the above.
d
43.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Process layout is employed for

batch production
continuous type of product
effective utilization of machines
all of the above
none of the above.
a
44.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
For a product layout the material handling equipment must

have full flexibility
employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
be a general purpose type
be designed as special purpose for a particular application
arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
d
45. Travel charts provide

(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work
sections
(c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular
station
(e)
solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.
Ans: b
46.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Product layout is employed for

batch production
continuous production1
effective utilisation of machine
all of the above
none of the above.
b
48.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The process layout is best suited where

specialisation exists
machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
few number of non-standardised units are to be produced
mass production is envisaged
bought out items are more.
c
49.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
A low unit cost can be obtained by following

product layout
functional layout
automatic material handling equipment
specialisation of operation
minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
a
50.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Military organisation is known as

line organisation
line and staff organisation
functional organisation
all of the above
none of the above.
a
51.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The main disadvantage of line organisation is

top level executives have to do exces-sive work
structure is rigid
communication delays occur
all of the above
none of the above.
d
52.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The main advantage of line organisation is its

effective command and control
defined responsibilities at all levels
rigid discipline in the organisation
ability of quick decision at all levels
all of the above.
e
53.
Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
line organisation
effective organisation
none of the above.
c
54.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The salient feature of functional organisation is

strict adherence to specification
separation of planning and design part
each individual maintains functional efficiency
work is properly planned and dis-tributed
all of the above.
e
55.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
line organisation
effective organisation
none of the above.
a
56.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Templates are used for

a planning layout
flow of material
advancing a programme in automatic machines
copying complicated profiles
none of the above.
a
57.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In steel plant the most improtant system for materials handling is

conveyors
cranes and hoists
trucks
locos
none of jhe above.
d
58.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Routing prescribes the

flow oftnaterial in the plant
proper utilization of man power
proper utilization of machines
inspection of final product
none of the above.
a
59.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Queuing theory deals with problems of

material handling
reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
better utilization of man services
effective use of machines

Ans: b
60.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Standard time is defined as

normal time + allowances
normal time + idle time + allowances
normal time + idle time
only normal time for an operation
none of the above.
a
61.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Father of industrial engineering is

Jeck Gilberth
Gnatt
Taylor
Newton
none of the above.
b
62.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The grouping of activities into organisational units is called

corporate plans
higher level management
functional authority
departmentatidn
company policy.
d
63.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile industry

line organisation
staff organisation
line and staff organisations
scalar organisation.
d
64.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants

line organisation
staff organisation
line, staff and functional organisations
scalar organisation.
a
65. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method
in the evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
66.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following is independent of sales forecast

productivity
inventory control
production planning
production control
capital budgeting.
a
67.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Gnatt charts are used for

forecasting sales
production schedule
scheduling and routing
linear programming
none of the above.
b
68.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Inventory management consists of

effective running of stores
state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc.
stock control system
all of the above
none of the above.
d
69.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Gnatt charts provide information about

break even point analysis
production schedule
material handling layout
determining selling price
value analysis.
b
70.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at

achieving optimization
ensuring against market fluctuations
acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
discounts allowed in bulk purchase
regulate supply and demand.
c
71.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the

optimum lot size
highest level of inventory
lot corresponding to break-even point
capability of a plant to produce
none of the above.
a
72.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of

quality
statistics
probability
(d)
all of the above
(e)
none of the above.
Ans: c
73.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

management
labour court
high court/supreme court
board of directors
president.
c
74.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Under the Apprenticeship Act

all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
d
75.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to

all industries
all process industries and thermal power plants
only major industries
only key industries
all industries employing more than 100 workers.
e
76.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Acceptance sampling is widely used in

batch production
job production
mass production
all of the above
none of the above.
c
77.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The technique of value analysis can be applied to

complicated items only
simple items only
crash programme items only
cost consciousness items only
any item.
e
78.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The term 'value' in value engineering refers to

total cost of the product
selling price of the product
utility of the product
manufactured cost of the product
depreciation value.
c
79. Value engineering aims at finding out the

(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without
change in quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires change
(e) selling price of an item.
Ans: c
80.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
minimum value
maximum value
average value
alarming value
original value.
a
81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
82.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of

a job
an individual employee
a particular division in workshop
machine
overall quality.
b
83.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Material handling and plant location is analyzed by

Gnatt chart
bin chart
Emerson chart
travel chart
activity chart.
d
84.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Works cost implies

primary cost
factory cost
factory expenses
primary cost + factory expenses
none of the above.
d
85.
(a)
Motion study involves analysis of

actions of operator
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
layout of work place

tooling and equipment
all of the above
none of the above.
a
86.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Standard time as compared to normal time is

greater
smaller
equal
there is no such correlation
none of the above.
a
87. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling

(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
(d)
no time measuring devices are generally needed
(e)
as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading
results are less.
Ans: a
88.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced

process layout
product layout
fixed position layout
plant layout
functional layout.
b
89.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production

process layout
product layout
plant layout
functional layout.
b
90.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following layouts is suited to job production

process layout
product layout
plant layout
functional layout.
a
91.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The employees provident fund act is applicable to

all industries
all industries other than small and medium industries
volunteers
the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.

Ans: d
92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident
fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
93.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The deductions for, employees provident fund start

immediately on joining the service
after 60 days of joining the service
after one year of joining the service.
d
94.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Father of time study was

F.W. Taylor
H.L. Gantt
F.B. Gilberfh
R.M. Barnes
H.B. Maynord.
a
95.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Tick the odd man out

Taylor
Drucker
McGregor
Galileo
Parkinson.
d
96.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Current assets include

manufacturing plant
manufacturing plant and equipment
inventories
common stock held by the firm
all of the above.
a
97.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
fast worker
average worker
slow worker
new entrant
any one of the above.
b
98.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Job enrichment technique is applied to

reduce labour monotony
overcome boring and demotivating work
make people happy
all of the above
none of the above.
d
99.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited

process layout
product layout
plant layout
functional layout.
c
100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established

(a) by time study
(b) from previous production records
(c) from one's judgement
Ans: b
101. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
102. An optimum project schedule implies
(a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Ans: b
103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned
with
(a)
break-even analysis
(b)
value analysis
(c)
linear programming
(d) queuing theory
(e) material handling.
Ans: c
104. In crash programe for a project
(a) both direct and indirect costs, increase
(b) indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease

cost is no criterion
none of the above.
c
106. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
Ans: b
108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency 2 reaches 66 %
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
109. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d)
present worth
(e)
function/cost.
Ans: e
110. Break-even analysis can be used for
(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
Ans: a
111. CPM has following time estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a
112. PERT has following time estimate

Ans: c
113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which
an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
Ans: b
114. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and
rest to the employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(d)
Piece rate system
(e)
Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
115. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c)
Emerson plan
(d)
Taylor plan
(e)
Halsey plan.
Ans: d
117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time
saved by workers
(a)
Halsey plan
(b)
Rowan plan
(c)
Haynes plan
(d)
Emerson's plan
(e)
Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the
worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of
incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no
bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
(a)
50%
(b)
661%
(c)
75%
(d)
80%
(e)
90%.
Ans: b
121. Accordmg to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard
time, then wages will be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his
maximum daily earnings can be
(a)
2 HA
(b)
1.33 HA
(c)
1.5 HA
(d)
1.15 HA
(e)
2.5 HA.
Ans: a
123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) thosex items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d
(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an
optimum manner is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
126. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results
(a) relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
Ans: c
127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
Ans: e
46.128. The simplex method is the basic method for
(a)
value analysis
(b)
operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
Ans: c
129. The two-bin system is concerned with
(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d)
despatching and expediting
(e)
none of the above.
Ans: a
130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the
worker based on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:

(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e)
any one of the above.
Ans: e
132. String diagram is used
(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
Ans: d
133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged
on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation
every year remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
134. Bin card is used in
(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c)
foundary shop
(d)
stores
(e)
assembly shop.
Ans: d
135. Slack represents the difference between the
(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(c) proposed allowable time and the ear-liest expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b
136. PERT and CPM are
(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic ap-pearance of rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e
137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked

activity times are clear
critical path can be easily determined
inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
e
138. CPM is the

(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: c
139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(e) none of the abbvev
Ans: d
140. Work study comprises following main techniques
(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a
141. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
(a) organisation performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e)
performance x resources = organisation performance.
Ans: a
142. PERT is the
(c)
activity oriented technique
Ans: b
143.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that

PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
critical path is determined in PERT only
costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d
145. Queing theory is used for
(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
Ans: d
146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and
analysed mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line
model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving
units are taken into source are known
Ans: d
147. Queing theory is associated with
(a)
sales
(b)
inspection time
(c)
waiting time
(d)
production time
(e)
inventory.
Ans: c
148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should
be that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
Ans: d
149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing
problems
(a) that can't be analysed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
Ans: a
1. A device for determining die value or magnitude of a quantity or variable :

(a) sensor
(b) transducer
(c) gauge
(d) instrument
(e)
indicator.
Ans: d
2. Determining moisture in steam by measuring the temperature in a throttling
calorimeter is an example of :
(a) direct measurement
(b) indirect measurement
(c) measurement by comparison
(d) measurement by calibration
(e) automatic measurement.
Ans: b
3. The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true value of the
variable being measured is called :
(a) accuracy
(b) precision
(c) sensitivity
(d) resolution
(e) discrimination.
Ans: a
4. Errors due to assignable causes are called :
(a) static errors
(b) systematic errors
(c) calibration errors
(d) random errors
(e) known errors.
Ans: b
5. Pick up the appropriate word for A pointer moving over a scale :
(a) instrument
(b) indicator
(c) transducer
(d) gauge
(e) recorder.
Ans: b
6. Pick up the appropriate word for A reading obtained from the motion of a pointer on a scale :
(a) analog
(b) digital
(c) display
(d) indicator
(e) instrument.
Ans: a
7. Pick up the appropriate word for The reading displayed as a number, a series of holes on a
punched card, or a sequence of pulses on magnetic tape :
(a) pulse train

(b) digital
(c) analog
(d) numeral
(e) recording.
Ans: b
8. For studying detailed variations with time, one uses :
(a) indicator
(b) digital indicator
(c) recorder
(d) integrator
(e) analog indicator.
Ans: c
9. The condition of how much successive readings differ from one another for a fixed value of
the variable is called :
(a) accuracy
(b) error
(c) sensitivity
(d) resolution
(e) precision.
Ans: e
10. The ratio of output signal or response of the instrument'" to a change in input or measured
variable is called :
(a) sensitivity
(b) precision
(c) resolution
(d) threshold
(e) accuracy.
Ans: a
11. The smallest change in measured value to which the instrument will respond is called
(a) accuracy
(b) precision
(c) amplification
(d) resolution
(e) sensitivity.
Ans: d
12. It responds directly to the measured quantity, producing a related motion or signal :
(a) sensing element
(b) transducer
(c) transmitter
(d) indicator
(e) measuring device.

Ans: a
13. Which of the following is used to count the number of brass items passing on a conveyor
line, when no contact is permitted with the object:
(a) event counter
(b) mechanical counter
(c) magnetic pick up
(d) photoelectric cell
(e) electronic counter.
Ans: d
14. Which of the following does not pertain to timing device :
(a) charging of a condenser
(b) flow of oil through a dash pot
(c) release of air through a nozzle
(d) flow of sand through an opening
(e) piezoelectric crystal.
Ans: e
15. Motion of fast-moving systems may be timed and studied by means of a :
(a) stroboscope
(b) piezoelectric crystal
(c) electronic timer
(d) chronometer
(e) photovoltaic cell.
Ans: a
16. In which device the input motion changes the inductive coupling between primary and
secondary coils :
(a) potentiometer
(b) synchro
(c) collimator
(d) protractor
(e) dial gauge.
Ans: b
17. Which effect is useful in measuring rapidly varying forces :
(a) piezoelectric
(b) strain gauge
(c) photovoltaic
(d) pneumatic gauging
(e) change of capacitance.
Ans: a
18.
Pressure measuring devices are not based on:
(a) measure of an equivalent height of liquid column

(b) measure of the force exerted on a fixed area
(c) measure of some change in electrical or physical characteristics of the fluid
(d) area measurement by polar planimeter
Ans: d
19. Which of the following may be measured by the deflection of an elastic element, by
balancing against a known force, by the acceleration produced in an object of known mass :
(a) force
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) level
(e) displacement.
Ans: a
20. The sensitivity of reading of manometer can be increased by :
(a) inclining the manometer rube
(b) using low specific gravity fluid
(c) application of optical magnification
(d) use of level sensing device
Ans: a
21. Which of the following device is used as a standard for calibrating pressure gauges :
(a) manometer
(b) diaphragm
(c) bellows
(d) dead weight pressure tester
(e) piezoelectric crystal.
Ans: d
22. Which gauge can be used to measure pressure below 1 |xm :
(a) dead weight tester
(b) pirani gauge
(c) ionization gauge
(d) McLeod gauge
(e) absolute pressure sensor.
Ans: c
23. Which is not correct statement about selection of tube material for a Bourdon gauge:
(a) Have high creep strength to withstand high temperature
(b) Be stable enough to maintain its calibration indefinitely
(c) Be immune to corrosion from the fluid inside the tube, and from the atmosphere outside it
(d) Be hard enough to withstand the applied pressure without any part of it being stressed
above the limit of proportionality
(e) Be easy to fabricate.

Ans: a
24. Hysteresis error in Bourdon tube can be minimized by :
(a) using proper tube material
(b) using proper diameter and thickness of tube
(c) avoiding temperature cycling
(d) using it well within the designed pressure range
(e) using separating diaphragm and avoid direct ingress of hot. fluid to tube
Ans: d
25. Pick up false statement about pressure measurements :
(a) low pressure is normally measured by manometers
(b) medium pressure by diaphragms or bellows
(c) medium and high pressure by Bourdon gauge
(d) all pressures by transducers
(e) absolute pressure by piezoelectric crystal.
Ans: e
26. Pressure gauges are never connected directly to live steam because :
(a) the tubes or bellows which operate them would be overheated, causing serious error and
damage
(b) steam if leaks, can cause serious injuries to operators
(c) entry of steam would cause static head error
(d) parts of pressure gauge can't withstand temperature of steam
(e) pressure gauges are not calibrated to measure steam pressure directly.
Ans: a
27. A siphon or loop in the connecting pipe is interposed as close as possible to the pressure
gauge so that:
(a) steam can condense to form a seal of water to fill the tube or bellows at the pressure being
measured
(b) air or vapour collection is avoided
(c) moisture formed in pipe can be drained
(d) static head errors are eliminated
(e) it acts as dampener and does not pass on pressure variations to sensor.
Ans: a
28. When the pressure medium to be measured is air or gas, the pipe is made to rise
continuously to the gauge, so that:
(a) no air or vapour can collect in pipe
(b) any moisture can be drained '
(c) moisture does not come in contact with elements of sensor/gauge
(d) moisture can condense to form seal of water
(e) static head error due to moisture is eliminated.
Ans: b
29. Ring balance gauge is used for measurement of:

(a) absolute pressure
(b) vacuum
(c) differential pressure
(d) temperature
(e) gauge pressure.
Ans: c
30. The deflection of center of capsule (formed by circumferential welding of two diaphragms)
is proportional to :
(a) active diameter of diaphragm (D)
(b) D
(c) D2
(d) D3
(e) D4
Ans: e
31. The development of following element has improved the reliability and the response action
of low pressure gauges :
(a) diaphragm
(b) capsule
(c) bourdon
(d) ring balance
Ans: b
32. Proving rings are used to measure :
(a) displacement
(b) force
(c) velocity
(d) acceleration
(e) shock.
Ans: b
33. Which is not correct about load cells used to measure weight/force :
(a) accuracy of the order of 0.01 to 1%
(b) rugged and compact construction
(c) no moving parts and negligible deflection under load
(d) low resistance to side load and low overload withstand
(e) hermetically sealed and thermal compensation.
Ans: d
34. Which type of device is suitable for dynamic force measurement:
(a) lever balance
(b) spring balance
(c) proving ring

(d) piezo-electric transducer
Ans: d
1935. Hysteresis errors in Bourdon tubes can be minimized by :
(a) selecting proper material
(b) proper design and fabrication
(c) using them well within the designed pressure range
(d) avoiding direct entry of steam into it
(e) calibrating it from time to time.
Ans: c
36. In case of strain gauge transducers, several strain cycles, and temperature cycles are carried
out before making measurements, in order to :
(a) increase life
(b) enable high repeatable readings
(c) eliminate premature failures
(d) increase accuracy
(e) avoid drift.
Ans: b
37. Accuracy of standard pressure gauges, used for testing and calibration purposes is of the
order of :
(a) 1.5%
(b) 1%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.25%
(e) 0.1%.
Ans: d
38. Which gauge is based on the change of heat conductivity of a gas with pressure and the
change of electrical resistance of a wire with temperature :
(a) thermocouple gauge
(b) Bourdon gauge
(c) Ionization gauge
(d) nuitating disk gauge
(e) Pirani gauge.
Ans: e
39. Which of the following have relatively large and negative temperature coefficients of
resistance :
(a) radiation pyrometers
(b) optical pyrometers
(c) thermistors
(d) platinum resistance detectors
(e) thermocouples.
Ans: c
40. Thermal expansion of a solid is employed in :
(a) thermocouple
(b) resistance thermometer
(c) bulb thermometer
(d) bimetal element
(e) zener diode.
Ans: d
41. Cold junction compensation is needed in ase of measurement of temperature by :
(a) thermocouple
(b) thermopile
(c) thermistor
(d) zener diode
(e) resistance thermometer.
Ans: a
42. Which of the following consists of a very thin strip of nickel or platinum foil which
responds to temperature in the same manner as the resistance thermometer :
(a) thermo pile
(b) bolometer
(c) radiation pyrometer
(d) thermistor
(e) optical pyrometer.
Ans: b
43. For measuring temperature in the range of 20 to 600C, following liquid is used in glass
thermometer :
(a) mercury
(b) alcohol
(c) toluene
(d) pentane
(e) creosote.
Ans: a
44. For measuring temperature in the range of 200 to 30C, following liquid is used in glass
thermometer:
(a) mercury
(b) alcohol
(c) toluene
(d) pentane
(e) creosote.
Ans: d
45. Which of the following glass is used for 00-600C temperature measurement by mercuryin-glass thermometer :
(a) lead glass
(b) normal grade
(c) borosilicate
(d) supermax
Ans: d
46. Pick up false statement about liquid-in-metal thermometers :
(a) remote indication of temperature can't be given
(b) error is produced if capillary passes through hot zone
(c) error also occurs if instrument base is at high ambient temperature
(d) error can also creep in by the head of the liquid if the bulb is installed either above or below
the Bourdon
(e) these are used for industrial applica-tions where accuracy is not so impor-tant.
Ans: a
47. Twisting the thermocouple wires together and heat welding them :
(a) is the standard practice of making junction
(b) would result in noise generation
(c) cause small errors due to local e.m.f. which may arise if the junction is too long
(d) would slow down the response
(e) result in inaccuracies.
Ans: c
48. Which of the following thermocouple generates highest e.m.f. for a given temperature :
(a) copper-constantan
(b) iron-constantan
(c) chromel-alumel
(d) platinum-rhodium platinum
(e) silver-palladium.
Ans: b
49. Protective coating by a suitable cover are applied over strain gauge in order to protect it
against:
(a) temperature rise
(b) dust and dirt
(c) moisture
(d) ageing
(e) shorting by conductive contact.
Ans: c
50. The resistance of strain gauge grid used in pressure transducers is of the order of :
(a) 0.1 to 1 ohm
(b) 1 to 10 ohm
(c) 10 to 100 ohm

(d) 100 to 2000 ohm
(e) 2000 to 105 ohm
Ans: d
51. During temperature changing conditions, quite appreciable difference, occurs be tween the
-true-temperature and the measured temperature because of the time required for the transfer of
heat through thermometer pockets (thermowells) to thermometer sensing element. This time lag
is of the order of :
(a) 0.1 to 1 sec
(b) 1 to 2.5 sec
(c) 2.5 to 10 or 20 sec
(d) 25 to 100 sec
(e) 100 to 500 sec.
Ans: c
52. Pick up false statement:
(a) copper-constantan thermocouple is a stable couple resistant to both oxidising and reducing
atmosphere, but needs protection from acidic vapours
(b) Iron-constantan thermocouple suffers from oxidation attack on iron wire, if exposed
(c) iron-constantant couple can be made stable by using enamelled iron
(d) Both wires of chromel-alumel ther-mocouples are prone to damage by sulphurous gases
(e) copper-constantan thermocouple is used as a reference standard for calibration purposes.
Ans: e
53. Automatic cold junction compensation in thermocouple is provided by :
(a) connecting thermocouple wires, in op-position
(b) a nickel wire resistance in series with a manganin resistance
(c) maintaining cold junction temperature constant by a cooling unit
(d) using a photovoltaic cell
(e) connecting a dry battery cell in opposition.
Ans: b
54. The material used for resistance temperature sensor is :
(a) copper
(b) nickel
(c) platinum
(d) any one of above
(e) none of above.
Ans: d
55. To prevent self-heating errors becoming too great, the current through platinum element
(100 ohm) is kept at a very small value :
(a) 0.1 raA
(b) 1 mA
(c) 5 mA
(d) 20 mA
(e) 50 mA.
Ans: c
56. In calibration of temperature sensors by fixed point method, the device is calibrated at:
(a) ice point (0C)
(b) steam point (100C)
(c) sulphur point (444.6C)
Ans: d
57. Pick up correct statement about calibration of temperature sensors by comparison method
using liquid bath :
(a) water is used for temperatures from 0 to I00C
(b) special grade of paraffin oil is used for temperatures between 100 and 200C
(c) For temperature between 200 and 600C, a mixture of sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate
is used
(d) all of above are true
(e) none of above is true.
Ans: d
58. Local velocity is measured by a :
(a) pitot tube
(b) venturi tube
(c) orifice plate
(d) vena contracta device
(e) nozzle.
Ans: a
59. Flange taps in case of orifice plate are installed :
(a) 25 mm from each side of the orfice plate
(b) D (pipe diameter) upstream and D/2 downstream
(c) just at surface of orifice plate
(d) 2.5 D upstream and 8 D downstream
Ans: a
60. Vena-contracta taps are employed :
(a) D upstream and D downstream from the plate
(b) D upstream and at vena contracta
(c) 2 D upstream and at vena contracta
(d) just at surface of plate upstream and at vena contracta
Ans: b
61. For an orfice plate having ratio of inside and pipe diameter as 0.5, the pressure loss in
comparison to differential pressure created is of the order of :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 35%
(e) 50%.
Ans: e
62. 15 taper venturi tube causes loss of following % of the differential pressure :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) 40%.
Ans: b
63. Pick out false statement about advantages of orifice plates, used for flow measurement :
(a) no moving parts
(b) long-term reliability
(c) highturn-down ratio
(d) inexpensive
(e) inherently simple in operation.
Ans: c
64. Pick out false statement about disadvantages of orifice plates :
(a) square root relationship
(b) poor turn-down ratio
(c) critical installation requirements
(d) short-term reliability
(e) high irrecoverable pressure loss.
Ans: d
65. Dall tube is another variation of :
(a) orifice plate
(b) nozzle
(c) venturi tube
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot-tube.
Ans: c
66. Target meter is concerned with measure-ment of:
(a) flow
(b) pressure
(c) viscosity
(d) density
(e) level.
Ans: a
67. The flow error in case of normal nozzles is of the order of :
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%.
Ans: d
68. Which of the following flow meter maintains a constant pressure differential but varies the
orifice area with flow :
(a) Ledoux bell
(b) variable area
(c) straightening vane
(d) variable head
(e) vane-type.
Ans: b
69. Flow in open channels is measured by using :
(a) nozzle
(b) orifice plate
(c) propeller
(d) weir
(e) vortex-shedding meter.
Ans: d
70. For measuring air flow, following meter is often used :
(a) vane-type or anemometer
(b) electro magnetic flow meter
(c) vortex-shedding meter
(d) ultrasonic flow meter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: a
71. Laser droppler anemometer is used to measure :
(a) pressure
(b) velocity
(c) level
(d) density
(e) temperature.
Ans: b
72.
(a)
In which flow device the pressure loss is minimum :

orifice plate
(b) nozzle
(c) variable orifice meter
(d) venturi tube
(e) Dall tube.
Ans: e
73. Pick out the odd flow measuring device among the following :
(a) positive displacement type
(b) nutating disc type
(c) sliding vane type
(d) turbine type
(e) hydraulic flume.
Ans: e
74. Dynamometers are :
(a) force measuring devices
(b) torque measuring devices
(c) power measuring devices
(d) energy measuring devices
(e) displacement measuring devices.
Ans: c
75. In some measurements, in order to increase the sensitivity, two measuring and two
reference cells are often used. This arrange ment is usually referred to as :
(a) wheatstone bridge
(b) katharometer
(c) attenuator
(d) amplifier
(e) Kelvin bridge.
Ans: b
76. Paramagnetic analyser is used to measure following gas sample in air
(a) oxygen
(b) ozone
(c) nitrogen
(d) nitrogen oxides
(e) hydrocarbons.
Ans: a
77. Continuous analysers for measuring following are based on the chemiluminescent
flameless reaction with ethylene :
(a) oxygen
(b) ozone
(c) sulphur oxides
(d) nitrogen oxides
(e) pollutants.
Ans: b
78. In capillary viscometer, viscosity is proportional to :
(a) flow
(b) 1/flow
(c) Vflow
(d) 1/Vfl ow
(e) 1/flow3/2.
Ans: b
79. Industrial flow meters are based on :
(a) rotational devices
(b) flow through restrictions
(c) flow around obstructions
(d) all of above
(e) none of above.
Ans: d
80. Chromatographic analyser is used to measure the :
(a) 02 content in flue gases
(b) C02 content in flue gases
(c) CO content in flue gases
(d) amount of individual gases in a mixture
(e) amount of elements in an alloy.
Ans: d
81. The Ringelmann chart is associated with measurement of:
(a) smoke density
(b) S02 and S03
(c) NO,
(d) CO
(e) dust concentration.
Ans: a
82. The pH value is a measure of hydrogen ionin a solution. The letters pH stand for :
(a) percentage of H2 in solution
(b) power of the hydrogen ion concentra-tion
(c) presence of hydrogen ions
(d) purity of H20
Ans: b
83. The density can be measured using :
(a) weight
(b) buoyancy
(c) hydrostatic head
(d) resonant elements

(e) all of above.
Ans: e
84. Electrode potential is concerned with measurement of:
(a) density
(b) viscosity
(c) chemical analysis
(d) PH
(e) all of above.
Ans: d
85. Almost all pH measurements are best made with a:
(a) glass electrode
(b) solid state electrode
(c) liquid ion exchange electrode
(d) redox electrode
(e) heterogeneous membrane electrode.
Ans: a
86. Pure water has pH value of 7. This means that pure water has :
(a) 7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre
(b) 10 g of ionized hydrogen in/m
(c) 1CT7 % of ionized hydrogen
(d) 10"7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre
Ans: d
87. Which measurement is a good guide to the quality of the water :
(a) conductivity
(b) pH
(c) dissolved 02 content
(d) turbidity
Ans: a
88. The commonly used unit of conductivity is:
(a) mho
(b) mho/m
(c) n mho/cm
(d) ohm/m
(e) m mho/mm.
Ans: c
89. Spectrophotometer is used to :
(a) measure surface hardness
(b) measure surface characteristics

(c) measure chemical composition of al-loys
(d) analyse colour spectrum
(e) analyse gas composition.
Ans: d
90. The change in length of humidity sensitive elements is measured by :
(a) hydrometer
(b) hygrometer
(c) psychrometer
(d) photometer
Ans: b
91. The orsat apparatus is used for measuring:
(a) chemical analysis of flue gases
(b) moisture in air
(c) composition of alloys
(d) colour spectrum
(e) molecular configuration.
Ans: a
92. The error caused in vibration measuring equipment due to non compliance (not stiff) of
bond made between sensor and the surface it is mounted is called :
(a) cross-coupling
(b) coupling compliance
(c) influence error
(d) subject loading by sensor
(e) spurious variation in capacitance.
Ans: b
93. Machine health monitoring is mainly based on measurement of:
(a) lub oil pressure
(b) vibrations at strategic points
(c) bearing temperature measurement
(d) efficiency and losses of machine
(e) all of above.
Ans: b
94. Mass-spring seismic sensors measure directly the :
(a) displacement
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) shock
(e) force.
Ans: c
95. An operation which, in the presence of a disturbing influence, tends to reduce the difference
between the actual state of a system and an arbitrarily varied desired state and which does so on
the basis of this difference, is called :
(a) automatic control
(b) feedback control
(c) open feed back control
(d) closed feed back control
(e) self regulation.
Ans: d
96. An apparatus which measures the value of a quantity or condition which is subject to
change with time, and operates to maintain within limits this measured value, is called
(a) automatic regulator
(b) self controller
(c) feedback controller
(d) two-position controller
(e) floating regulator.
Ans: a
97. The time required for the controlled variable to reach a specified value after the application
of a step input is called :
(a) rise time
(b) settling time
(c) response time
(d) peak time
(e) proportional time.
Ans: c
98. The operating characteristic which inherently assists the establishment of equilibrium is
called :
(a) corrective action
(b) self regulation
(c) automatic regulation
(d) proportional control action
(e) floating controller action.
Ans: b
99. The quantity or condition of the controlled system which is directly, measured or controlled
:
(a) set point
(b) deviation
(c) controlled variable
(d) command signal
(e) control agent.
Ans: c
100. The range of values through which the variable must change to cause the final control
element to move from one extreme position to the other :
(a) throttling range
(b) disturbance
(c) proportional band
(d) response
(e) deviation.
Ans: a
101. The range of scale values through which the controlled variable must pass in order that the
final control element be moved through its entire range :
(a) throttling
(b) floating band
(c) controller band
(d) settling time
(e) proportional band.
Ans: e
102. A controller action in which there is a predetermined relation between the values of the
controlled variable and the rate of motion of a final control element:
(a) floating controller action
(b) proportional-position controller action
(c) proportional-speed floating controller action
(d) two-position controller action
(e) self-regulation controller action.
Ans: a
103. The controller action in which there is continuous linear relation between the position of
the final control element and the value of the controlled variable :
(a) floating controller action
(b) proportional-position controller action
(c) proportionrl-speed floating controller action
(d) two-position controller action
(e) self-regulation controller action.
Ans: b
104. The stability, accuracy, and speed ofresponse of a control system are determined by
analysing :
(a) its mathematical model
(b) closed-loop feedback control system
(c) steady-state response
(d) transient response
(e) steady-state and transient response.
Ans: e
105. The steady-state performance is evaluated in terms of the :

(a) accuracy with which the output is controlled for a specified input
(b) maximum overshoot
(c) rise time
(d) response time
Ans: a
106. The transient performance, i.e. the behaviour of the output variable as the system changes,
from one steady-state
condition to another, is evaluated in terms of;
(a) accuracy
(b) settling time
(c) response time
(d) peak time
(e) maximum overshoot, rise time, and response time.
Ans: e
107. The immediately apparent feature of an observed transient performance is :
(a) the existence and magnitude of the maximum overshoot
(b) the frequency of the transient oscilla-tion
(c) the response time
Ans: d
108. Following is the property of the system which opposes a change in the output variable :
(a) load
(b) power element
(c) resistance
(d) damping
Ans: d
109. When an automatic control system is the output variable overshoots its desired steadystate condition and a transient oscillation occurs :
(a) underdamped
(b) over damped
(c) critically damped
(d) damped
(e) without damping.
Ans: a
110. The overshoot and the settling time are maximum with :
(a) underdamped system
(b) overdamped system
(c) critically damped system

(d) damped system
(e) non damped system.
Ans: a
111. The steady state output of the system to input sinusoids of varying frequency is referred to
as :
(a) frequency response of a system
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Bode plot
(d) transient response
(e) logarithmic plot.
Ans: a
112. System function is expressed as :
(a) Response function
(b) lyccitation function
(c) (a)/(b)
(d) (b)/(a)
(e) characteristic equation.
Ans: c
113. The frequency response can be obtained analytically from the :
(a) characteristic equation
(b) transfer functions of the components
(c) polar plot
(d) Bode diagram
Ans: b
114. The transient performance characteristics of the control are conveniently obtained from
curve of the :
(a) open-loop frequency response func-tion
(b) transfer functions of system
(c) closed loop frequency response
(d) all of above
(e) none of above.
Ans: a
115. The % age of silica in water is measured by a :
(a) colorimeter
(b) photometer
(c) electro chemical equipment
(d) conductivity cell
(e) Katharometer.
Ans: a
1. Work study is concerned with

(a) improving present method and finding standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
Ans: a
2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d
3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
Ans: a
4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
Ans: c
5. What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
Ans: d
6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
Ans: a
7. String diagram is used when
(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
Ans: a
8. Work study is most useful
(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Ans: a
9. Micromotion study is
(a) enlarged view of motion study
(b) analysis of one stage of motion study
(c) minute and detailed motion study
(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
(e) motion study of small components upto microseconds.
Ans: d
10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e
11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
12.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions

8
12
16
20
(e) 24
Ans: c
13. The standard time for a job is
(a) total work content
(b) basic time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay contingency allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d
14. Work study is done with the help of
(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
Ans: c
15. Scheduling gives information about
(a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be minimised
(d) prcper utilisation of machines
Ans: a
16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
(a) operator's activity
(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
(c) minimising the delays
(d) making efficient despatching
Ans: b
17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a
18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker

(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a
19. Micro motion study is
(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in
the field of view
(b) motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
(e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.
Ans: a
20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by
(a) work sampling
(b) time study
(c) method study
(d) work study
(e) ABC analysis.
Ans: a
21. TMU in method time measurement stands for
(a) time motion unit
(b) time measurement unit
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit
(e) time method unit.
Ans: b
22. Time study is
(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
(b) machine setting time
(c) time taken by workers to do a job
(d) method of fixing time for workers
(e) method of determining the personnel Requirement.
Ans: a
23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
(a) detailed calculations
(b) convenience
(c) table of random numbers
(d) past experience
(e) fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c
24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
Ans: b
26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
(a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
(c) designing a work method
(d) providing a schematic framework
(e) reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e
27. Gnatt chart provides information about the
(a) material handling
(b) proper utilization of manpower
(c) production schedule
(d) efficient working of machine
Ans: c
28. ABC analysis deals with
(a) analysis of process chart
(b) flow of material
(c) ordering schedule of job
(d) controlling inventory costs money
Ans: d
29.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Process layout is employed for

batch production
continuous type of product
effective utilization of machines
all of the above
none of the above.
Ans: a
30. For a product layout the material handling equipment must
(a) have full flexibility
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c) be a general purpose type
(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application
(e) arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
Ans: d
31. Travel charts provide
(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
(c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
(g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.
Ans: b
32. Product layout is employed for
(a) batch production
(b) continuous production1
(c) effective utilisation of machine
Ans: b
33. The most important objective behind plant layout is
(a) overall simplification, safety of integration
(b) economy in space
(c) maximum travel time in plant
(d) to provide conveniently located shops
(e) to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a
34. The process layout is best suited where
(a) specialization exists
(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
(c) few number of non-standardised units are to be produced
(d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
Ans: c
35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(a) product layout
(b) functional layout
(c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialisation of operation

(e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Ans: a
36. Military organisation is known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
Ans: a
37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
(a) top level executives have to do excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
Ans: d
38. The main advantage of line organisation is its
(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all levels
(c) rigid discipline in the organisation
(d) ability of quick decision at all levels
Ans: e
39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
(d) effective organisation
Ans: c
40. The salient feature of functional organization is
(a) strict adherence to specification
(b) separation of planning and design part
(c) each individual maintains functional efficiency
(d) work is properly planned and distributed
Ans: e
41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is

(d) effective organisation
Ans: a
42. Templates are used for
(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programmer in automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
Ans: a
43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of jhe above.
Ans: d
44. Routing prescribes the
(a) flow oftnaterial in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
Ans: a
45. Queuing theory deals with problems of
(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man services
(d) effective use of machines
Ans: b
46. Standard time is defined as
(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time + allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an operation
Ans: a
47. Father of industrial engineering is

(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
Ans: b
48. The grouping of activities into organizational units is called
(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmentalization
(e) company policy.
Ans: d
49. Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry
(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line and staff organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d
50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants
(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line, staff and functional organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d
51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the
evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
52.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is independent of sales forecast

productivity
inventory control
production planning
production control
(e) capital budgeting.

Ans: a
53. Gnatt charts are used for
(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
Ans: b
54. Inventory management consists of
(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
Ans: d
55. Gnatt charts provide information about
(a) break even point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b
56. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
(a) achieving optimization
(b) ensuring against market fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c
57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
Ans: a
58. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
Ans: c
59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
(a) management
(b) labour court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c
60. Under the Apprenticeship Act
(a) all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
(c) all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
(d) only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
(e) all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Ans: d
61. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and thermal power plants
(c) only major industries
(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e
62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(a) bacth production
(b) job production
(c) mass production
Ans: c
63. The technique of value analysis can be applied to
(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash-programme items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e
64. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(a) total cost of the product

(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the product
(e) depreciation value.
Ans: c
65. Value engineering aims at finding out the
(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in
quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires change
(e) selling price of an item.
Ans: c
66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
(a) a job
(b) an individual employee
(c) a particular division in workshop
(d) machine
(e) overall quality.
Ans: b
69. Material handling and plant location is analyzed by
(a) Gnatt chart
(b) bin chart
(c) Emerson chart
(d) travel chart
(e) activity chart.

Ans: d
70. Works cost implies
(a) primary cost
(b) factory cost
(c) factory expenses
(d) primary cost + factory expenses
Ans: d
71. Motion study involves analysis of
(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
Ans: a
72. Standard time as compared to normal time is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) there is no such correlation
Ans: a
73. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling
(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are generally needed
(e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are
less.
Ans: a
74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout

(d) plant layout
Ans: b
76. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(d) plant layout
Ans: a
77. The employees provident fund act is applicable to
(a) all industries
(b) all industries other than small and medium industries
(c) volunteers
(d) the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.
Ans: d
78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
79. The deductions for, employees provident fund start
(a) immediately on joining the service
(b) after 60 days of joining the service
(c) after 100 days of joining the service
(d) after 240 days of joining the service
(e) after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d
80. Father of time study was
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a
81. Tick the odd man out

(a) Taylor
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d
82. Current assets include
(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
Ans: a
83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
Ans: b
84. Job enrichment technique is applied to
(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and demotivating work
(c) make people happy
Ans: d
85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(d) plant layout
Ans: c
86.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established

by time study
from previous production records
from one's judgement
all of the above
none of the above.
Ans: b
87. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
88. An optimum project schedule implies
(a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Ans: b
89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(ay break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) material handling.
Ans: c
(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
Ans: b
92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser

(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
93. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e
94. Break-even analysis can be used for
(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
Ans: a
95. CPM has following time estimate
Ans: a
96. PERT has following time estimate
Ans: c
97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an
.employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
Ans: b
98. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the
employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d
100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved
by workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for
every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is
paid till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then
wages will be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum
daily earnings can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) those items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d
(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum
manner is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
109. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results

(a) relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
Ans: c
110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
Ans: e
111. The simplex method is the basic method for
(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(d) model analysis
Ans: c
112. The two-bin system is concerned with
(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) despatching and expediting
Ans: a
113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based
on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:
(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method

(d) present worth method
Ans: e
115. String diagram is used
(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
Ans: d
116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the
cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year
remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
117. Bin card is used in
(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c) foundry shop
(d) stores
(e) assembly shop.
Ans: d
118. Slack represents the difference between the
(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(c) proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b
119. PERT and CPM are
(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e
120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e
121. CPM is the
Ans: c
122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
123. Work study comprises following main techniques
(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a
124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
(a) organization performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e) performance x resources
Ans: a
125. PERT is the

Ans: b
126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d
127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
(b) project examination and review technique
(c) project evaluation and reporting technique
(d) process execution and reporting technology
(e) project execution and results technique.
Ans: a
128. Queing theory is used for
(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
Ans: d
129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are
taken into source are known
Ans: d
130. Queing theory is associated with
(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c
131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input

(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
Ans: d
132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analyzed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
Ans: a
133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a
134. A milestone chart
(a) shows the interdependences of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
Ans: e
135. Bar charts are suitable for
(a) minor works
(b) major works
(c) large projects
Ans: a
136. The first method invented for planning projects was
(a) bar chart method
(b) milestone chart
(c) critical path method (CPM)
(d) programmer evaluation and review technique (PERT)
Ans: a
137. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
(b) programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
(c) critical path method is event oriented
(d) critical.path method is not activity oriented
Ans: e
138. Pick up the correct statement from the following
(a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
(b) critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
(c) critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
(d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of
Remington U.S.A in 1957
Ans: e
139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various activities
(b) required time for each activity is established
(c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
Ans: e
140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the
critical activity meeting at the final iodide
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
(d) late finish
Ans: a
141. The disadvantage of product layout is
(a) high initial investment for the specialized facilities
(b) skilled labour to operate machines
(c) production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
(d) high cost of inspection
(e) costly and complex production control.
Ans: a
142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
(a) job production
(b) automatic production
(c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production

Ans: d
143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
(a) the flow of material in the plant
(b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower
(c) the methods of proper utilization of machines
(d) the layout of factory facilities
(e) normal route of workers through the plant.
Ans: c
144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
(a) dummy
(b) event
(c) activity
(d) contract
Ans: c
145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
(a) an activity of the project is denoted by an harrow on the net work
(b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
(c) the head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
1. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

(a) Tow specific heat of liquid
(b) high boiling point
(c) high latent heat of vaporization
(d) higher critical temperature
(e) low specific volume of vapour.
Ans: b
2. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
(a) water at 0C
(b) ice at - 4C
(c) solid and dry ice
(d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
(e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
Ans: e
3. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversed Camot cycle

(d) reversed Rankine cycle
Ans: e
4. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
(a) Ericsson
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Bell coleman
Ans: d
5. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(a) very little work input
(b) maximum work input
(c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d) zero work input
Ans: a
6. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
(a) noisy operation
(b) quiet operation
(c) cooling below 0C
(d) very little power consumption
(e) its input only in the form of heating.
Ans: b
7. The relative coefficient of performance is
(a) actual COP/theoretical COP
(b) theoretical COP/actual COP
(c) actual COP x theoretical COP
(d) 1-actual COP x theoretical COP
(e) 1-actual COP/theoretical COP.
Ans: a
8. Clapeyron equation is a relation between
(a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b) specific volume and enthalpy
(c) temperature and enthalpy
(d) temperature, pressure, and specific volume
(e) temperature, pressure, specific value and enthalpy.
Ans: e
9. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at
(a) saturation point of vapour
(b) saturation point of liquid
(c) sublimation temperature
(d) triple point

(e) critical point.
Ans: a
10. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
after passing through the expansion throttle valve

before entering the expansion valve
before entering the compressor.
a
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: e
12. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated
liquid
Ans: d
13. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour
(d) before [entering the expansion valve
Ans: b
14. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(e) before entering the compressor..
Ans: e
15. The boiling point of ammonia is
(a) -100C
(b) -50C
(c) - 33.3C
(d)
0C
(e)
33.3C.
Ans: c
16. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to

melting of 1000 kg of ice
(a)
in 1 hour
(b)
in 1 minute
(c)
in 24 hours
(d)
in 12 hours
(e)
in 10 hours.
Ans: c
17. One ton refrigeration corresponds to
(a)
50 kcal/min
(b)
50 kcal/kr
(c)
80 kcal/min
(d)
80 kcal/hr
(e)
1000 kcal/day.
Ans: a
18. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
(a)
210 kJ/min
(b)
21 kJ/min
(c)
420 kJ/min
(d)
840 kJ/min
(e)
105 kJ/min.
Ans: a
19.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

Rankine
Carnot
Reversed Rankine
Brayton
Reversed Carnot.
e
20. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the

order of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d)
5-6 bars
(e) 7-10 bars.
Ans: d
21.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
22.
The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

evaporator
safety relief valve
dehumidifier
driers
expansion valve
d
The condensing pressure due to the presence of non condemnable gases, as
compared to that actually required for condensing temperatures without non

condemnable gases,
(a)
will be higher
(b)
will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non condemnable gases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
23.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

above which liquid will remain liquid
above which liquid becomes gas
above which liquid becomes vapour
above which liquid becomes solid
at which all the three phases exist together.
a
24.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Critical temperature is' the temperature above which

a gas will never liquefy
a gas will immediately liquefy
water will evaporate
water will never evaporate
none of the above.
a
25.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

high sensible heat
high total heat
high latent heat
low latent heat
low sensible heat
c
26.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

0.1 ton
5 tons
10 tons
40 tons
100 tons.
a
27.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The COP of a domestic refrigerator

is less than 1
is more than 1
is equal to 1
depends upon the make
depends upon the weather conditions.
b
28.
(a)
(b)
The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

centrifugal
axial
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
miniature sealed unit

piston type reciprocating
none of the above.
d
29.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of

compressor
condenser
evaparator
expansion valve.
heat transfer.
d
30.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant

C02
Freon-11
Freon-22
Air
none of the above.
d
31. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following
type of expansion device
(a) electrically operated throttling valve
(b) manually operated valve
(c) thermostatic valve
(d) capillary tube
(e)
expansion valve.
Ans: d
32.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Air refrigeration operates on

Carnot cycle
Reversed Carnot cycle
Rankine cycle
Erricson cycle
Brayton cycle.
e
33.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Air refrigeration cycle is used in

domestic refrigerators
commercial refrigerators
air conditioning
gas liquefaction
such a cycle does not exist.
d
34.
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve

liquid
sub-cooled liquid
saturated liquid
wet vapour
(e)
dry vapour.
Ans: d
35.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be

lower than atmospheric pressure
higher than atmospheric pressure
equal to atmospheric pressure
could be anything
none of the above.
b
36. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in
evaporator and condenser must be
(a) small
(b) high
(c) euqal
(d) anything
(e) under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
Ans: a
37.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are

condenser tubes
evaporator tubes
refrigerant cooling tubes
capillary tubes
throttling device.
a
38.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at

receiver
expansion valve
evaporator
condenser discharge
compressor discharge.
e
39.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be

near critical temperature of refrigerant
above critical temperature
at critica. temperature
much below critical temperature
could be anywhere.
d
40. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling
device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
(a) less than 2 kg
(b) more than or equal to 3.65 kg
(c) more than 10 kg
(d) there is no such consideration
(e) pone of the above.
Ans: b
41. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

(a) Freon-11
(b) Freon-22
(c) C02
(d) S02
(e) ammonia.
Ans: e
42. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
(a) reduce compressor overheating
(b) reduce compressor discharge tempera-ture
(c) increase cooling effect
(d) ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve
Ans: d
43.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually

always less than unity
always more than unity
equal to unity
any one of the above
none of the above.
b
44. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

(a)
more
(b)
less
(c) same
(d) more for small capacity and less for high capacity
(e) less for small capacity and more for high capacity.
Ans: b
45. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
(a) of cooling medium
(b) of freezing zone
(c) of evaporator
(d) at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
(e) condensing temperature of ice.
Ans: d
46. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
(a) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(b) increases heat transfer rate
(c) is immaterial
(d) can be avoided by proper design
(e) decreases compressor power.
Ans: a
47. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant
and the medium being cooled should be
(a) high, of the order of 25
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
as low as possible (3 to 11C)

zero
any value
none of the above.
b
48. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is

used to
(a) collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
(b) detect liquid in vapour
(c) superheat the vapour
(d) collect vapours
(e) increase refrigeration effect.
Ans: a
49.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least

10%
25%
50%
75%
100%.
c
50. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a

refrigerant
(a)
decreases
(b)
increases
(c) remains same
(d) depends on other factors
Ans: b
51. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27C and
evaporator temperature of- 23C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: c
52.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant

high triiscibility with oil
low boiling point
good electrical conductor
large latent heat
non-inflammable.
c
53.
(a)
(b)
In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between

condenser and expansion valve
compressor and evaporator
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
expansion valve and evaporator

compressor and condenser
none of the above.
c
54. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in
ammonia absorption system
(a) strong solution to weak solution
(b) weak solution to strong solution
(c) strong solution to ammonia vapour
(d) ammonia vapour to weak solution
(e) ammonia vapour to strong solution.
Ans: b
55. Efficiency of a Cornot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed,
what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot cycle
(a)
1.25
(b)
0.8
(c)
0.5
(d)
0.25
(e)
none of the above.
Ans: d
56.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be

critical pressure of refrigerant
much below critical pressure
much above critical pressure
near critical pressure
there is no such restriction.
b
57. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27C and
evaporator temperature of - 23C, then the Carnot COP will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: d
58. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10
kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
(a)
Ammonia
(b)
Carbon dioxide
(c)
Freon
(d)
Brine
(e) Hydrocarbon refrigerant.
Ans: b
59.
(a)
(b)
Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system

compression
direct
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
indirect
absorption
none of the above.
d
60. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser

temperature constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
(a)
same
(b)
more
(c) less
(d) more/less depending on rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
61.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

compressor
condenser
evaporator
expansion valve
all of the above.
d
62.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?

condenser
evaporator
compressor
expansion valve
receiver.
b
63.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
using reagents
smelling
sensing reduction in pressure.
a
64. rick up the incorrect statement

(a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile
(b) lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0C
(c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour
by condensing
(d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in
comparison to that entering the generator
(e) weak solution in liquid heat exchanger gives up heat to the strong solution.
Ans: c
65. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpydiagram represents
(a) condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(b) evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
compression of the refrigerant vapour

metering of the refrigerant liquid
none of the above.
b
66. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and
same temperature limits is of the order of
(a)
1:1
(b)
1:9
(c)
9:1
(d)
1:3
(e)
3:1
Ans: b
67.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Freon group of refrigerants are

inflammable
toxic
non-inflammable and toxic
non-toxic and inflammable
non-toxic and non-inflammable.
e
68 Ammonia is
(a)
non-toxic
(b)
non-inflammable
(c) toxic and non-inflammable
(d) highly toxic and inflammable
(e)
none of the above.
Ans: d
69. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
(a) suction of compressor
(b) delivery of compressor
(c) high pressure side colse to receiver
(d) low pressure side near receiver
(e) anywhere in the cycle.
Ans: c
70.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show

constant pressure lines
constant temperature lines
constant total heat lines
constant entropy lines
constant volume lines.
a
71. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is represented

by a horizontal line because the process
(a) involves no change in volume
(b) takes place at constant temperature
(c) takes place at constant entropy
(d) takes place at constant enthalpy
(e) takes place at constant pressure.

Ans: e
72.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
One ton of the refrigeration is

the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0C into ice at 0C in 24 hours
the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice in 1 hour time.
c
73.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Super heating in a refrigeration cycle

increases COP
decreases COP
COP remains unaltered
other factors decide COP
unpredictable.
b
74. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure
difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
(a)
bigger cabinet should be used
(b) smaller cabinet should be used
(c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
(e) refrigerant with high boiling point must be used.
Ans: c
75. Choose the correct statement
(a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point
should be used
(c) Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same
(d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same
(e) Refrigerant is inside the lubes in case of a direct-expansion chiller.
Ans: b
76. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to
delivery side is
(a)
bigger
(b)
smaller
(c) equal
(d) smaller/bigger depending on capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
77.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes

ineffective refrigeration
high power consumption
freezing automatic regulating valve
corrosion of whole system
breakdown of refrigerant.
Ans: c
78.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The advantage of dry compression is that

it permits higher speeds to be used
it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
it results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
all of the above
none of the above.
d
79. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
(b) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(c) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent
operation
(d) frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
(e) refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat.
Ans: a
80.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle

increases COP
decreases COF
COP remains unaltered
other factors decide COP
unperdictable.
a
81.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be

high
low
optimum
any value
there is no such criterion.
b
82.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the

heat of compression
work done by compressor
enthalpy increase in compressor
all of the above
none of the above.
d
83. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature,

keeping condenser temperature constant, will
(a)
increase
(b)
decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(e)
unpredictable.
Ans: a
84.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant

pressure lines
temperature lines
total heat lines
entropy lines
volume lines.
c
85.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system

vapour compression
vapour absorption
carnot cycle
electrolux refrigerator
dual cycle.
a
86. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02 system) is to
approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(d)
2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(e)
5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration.
Ans: c
87.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle

lowers evaporation temperature
increases power required per ton of refrigeration
lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
reduces weight displaced by piston
all of the above.
e
88.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant

condenser
evaporator
absorber
condenser and absorber
condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
e
89. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a

similar plant is
(a)
same
(b)
more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on ambient conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
90.
The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,
keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will

(a)
increase
(b)
decrease
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(d) remain unaffected
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
91.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
92.
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point

Freon-12
NH3
C02
Freon-22
S02.
d
The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant
more
less
same
more/less depending on size of plant
unpredictable.
a
93.
be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner will

same
more
less
dependent on weather conditions
unpredictable.
c
94.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
ammonia vapour goes into solution
ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
weak solution mixes with strong solution
lithium bromide is driven out of solution.
a
95. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to

change in condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
(a)
more
(b)
less
(c)
equally.
(d)
unpredictable
(e)
none of the above.
Ans: a

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1.

(d) partly inelastic

An open system is one in which

(b) Dalton's law

(c) kinetic energy

(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.

68. One watt is equal to

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

and working substance should be

(d) thermodynamic state

takes place at constant

First law of thermodynamics

(e) all of the above.

(c) may be possible with lot of sophistica-tions

(c) conversion of heat into work

The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

(b) irreversible cycles

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

(a) not a replace them by a single force

(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.

(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces

10.27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

(b) buckling or shear

(b) limiting friction

(e) none of the above.

10.99. A single force and a couple acting in the

(c) full equilibrium

10.126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order

(e) none of the above.

Work study is concerned with

Basic tool in work study is

What does symbol 'O' imply in work study

What does symbol 'D' imply in work study

In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

Material handling in automobile industry is done by

String diagram is used when

Work study is most useful

In micromotion study, therblig is described by

The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus

Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions

The standard time for a job is

Work study is done with the help of

28. Scheduling gives information about

Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on

Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

Job evaluation is the method-of determining the

32. Micro motion study is

Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by

TMU in method time measurement stands for

Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals

Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for

Gnatt chart provides information about the

ABC analysis deals with

Process layout is employed for

For a product layout the material handling equipment must

45. Travel charts provide

Product layout is employed for

The process layout is best suited where

A low unit cost can be obtained by following

Military organisation is known as

The main disadvantage of line organisation is