Apurba Sastry and Sandhya Bhats Microbiology

ASM Test -1 (20.4.2016)

++++++++++++++++++++++
Reach correct answer carries 1 mark and wrong answer carries -0.25 mark
Max time- 1 hour

1. Who has discovered polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

a. Walter Gilbert
b. Karry B Mullis
c. Barbara McClintock
d. Charles Chamberland
2. Which bacterial Classification uses the Principles Branching tree-like arrangement, based on
weighted characteristics
a. Molecular classification
b. Phylogenetic classification
c. Adansonian classification
d. Phonetic classification
3. Gaffky Eberth bacillus is
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Mycobacterium intracellulare
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
4. The resolution power of Light microscope is
a. 0.2 mm
b. 200m
c. 0.2 m
d. 0.5 nm
5. Electron microscope Tue is
a. Source of contrast is Differential light absorption
b. Type of lens is Electromagnet
c. Medium of travel is Air
d. Specimen mount on Glass slide
6. Which is a feature of Gram Positive cell wall?
a. Peptidoglycan layer- L- Lysine at 3rd position of tetrapeptide side chain
b. Pentaglycine bridge absent
c. Lipopolysaccharide present
d. Aromatic amino acids present
7. The following statements for Innate Immunity is not true
a. Toll-like receptor Resistance to infection that an individual possesses from
birth
b. Prior exposure to the antigen is not required
c. Diversity is limited, acts through a restricted set of reactions
d. T cell receptors and B cell immunoglobulin receptors are the host cell
receptors
8. TRUE about antigen?

a. Immunogenicity is Ability of an antigen to induce immune response in the

body
b. All molecules having immunogenicity property, also show antigenicity,
but the reverse is not true
c. Idiotyope is the small area present on the antigen capable of sensitizing T
and B cells and reacting with specific site of T cell receptor or an antibody.
d. T cells recognize conformational epitopes

9. Which statement is true regarding T Independent

Antigen?
a. Exotoxin is an e.g.
b. Flagella is an e.g.
c. Memory present
d. Antigen presentation required
10. Which of the Following aspects of MHC-I is correct?
a. Present on only APCs
b. Peptide antigen is presented to Tc cells
c. Antigen presentation By cytosolic pathway
d. CD8 binding site 2 region
11.
Which is not a Professional APCs:
a Macrophages
b Dendritic cells
c B cells
d Fibroblasts

12. A 30-year-old female having habit of keeping her contact lenses in tap water. She noticed
deterioration of vision and visited an ophthalmologist who diagnosed her with severe retinitis.
Culture of the tap water as well as vitreous fluid would most likely reveal:
a.
Trophozoites with blunt pseudopodia
b.
Trophozoites with lobopodia
c.
Trophozoites with thorn like pseudopodia
d.
Trophozoites with finger like pseudopodia

13. Which is FALSE regarding Cytopathic effect produced by:

(a) Adenovirus- Grape like cluster
(b) HPV- Ballooning and diffuse rounding
(c) Measles virus- Syncytium formation
(d) SV40- Cytoplasmic vacuolation
14. The paramyxovirus virus that lacks both haemagglutinin and neuraminidase activities is:
(e) Mumps virus
(f) Measles virus
(g) Respiratory syncitial virus
(h) Parainfluenza virus.
15. All are true about measles except:
(a) Infective period is from -4 to 5 days after appearance of rash
(b) Infection gives life long immunity
(c) SSPE is common when primary measles occurs later in life

(d) Koplik spots are at 12th day following infection

16. A two year old unimmunized child presents to a primary health centre with fever since 5 days.
Mother also gives a history of rash starting behind ear-pinna a day before coming OPD. On
examination, child is having running nose and congested eyes. Most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Measles
(b) Mumps
(c) Rubella
(d) Chicken pox
17. An 8 year old female child following URTI developed maculopapular rash on the jaw spreading
onto the trunk which cleared on the 3rd day without desquamation and tender post-auricular
and sub-occipital lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is:
(a) Kawasaki disease
(b) Erythema infectiosum
(c) Rubella
(d) Measles
18. Most likely cause of bronchiolitis in a 6 month old infant is:
(a) Measles virus
(b) Mumps virus
(c) Respiratory syncitial virus
(d) Parainfluenza virus.
19. All the following statements are true for mumps virus except:
(a) Involves all salivary gland
(b) Mumps orchitis is bilateral
(c) Complication Aseptic meningitis and pancreatitis
(d) Vaccine Jery Lynn strain.
20. Arbovirus transmitted by tick all except:
(a) Western equine encephalitis
(b) Kyasanur forest disease
(c) Russian spring summer encephalitis
(d) Omsk heemorrhagic fever
21. A 37-year-old man develops fever, chills, headache, and backache. Four days later he develops high
fever and jaundice. Yellow fever is diagnosed. Which of the following statements concerning yellow
fever is correct?
a. Vaccine is live attenuated
b. Quarantine for unvaccinated people from endemic zone in airport is done for 10 days
c. Vaccination validity last for 6 years
d. Aedes aegpti index has to be <1, 400 mt surrounding airport
22. Hantaviruses, which are emerging pathogens. They can be described by which of the following?
(a) They are arena viruses
(b) They are transmitted by sexual route
(c) They are acquired by mosquito bite.
(d) They are transmitted by inhalation of rodent excreta

23. The current vaccination (since April 2016) for polio under national immunization programme is(a) Three doses of trivalent OPV 6,10 and 14 weeks plus one dose of IPV at 14 week
(b) Three doses of IPV 6,10 and 14 weeks plus one dose of bivalent OPV at 14 week

(c) Three doses of Bivalent OPV 6,10 and 14 weeks

(d) Three doses of Bivalent OPV 6,10 and 14 weeks plus one dose of IPV at 14 week
24. Which of the following statement is true for Coxsackie A virus?
(a) It has 6 serotypes
(b) It causes juvenile diabetes
(c) It shows predilection for visceral organs
(d) It produces flaccid paralysis in mice.
25. Rapid fluorescent focus inhibition test (RFFIT) is done for(a) Influenza
(b) Measles
(c) Rabies
(d) Chicken Pox
26. Which of the following is best for ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies?
(a) Negri body detection
(b) Immunofluorescence of corneal impressions
(c) Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy from hair follicle of nape of the neck
(d) Isolation of virus from saliva.
27. Wrong about Zikavirus?
(a) Transmitted by Culex and also by sexual route
(b) Brazil is the worst hit country, caused an explosive outbreak in 2016
(c) Teratogenic, causes microcephaly in fetus
(d) In highly affected countries, women are advised to conceive
28. VDPV strains: All are true except:
(a) High population immunity cannot prevent spread of VDPV in community
(b) MC serotype to cause is Type 3
(c) Differs from OPV strain by >1% genetically.
(d) Can affect only the OPV recipients or their immediate contacts, but affect distant children
29. A 45 year man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 8 days duration.
The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.9 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT /SGPT
(AST /ALT) of 1330 /950 IU /ml. The serological tests showed presence of HbsAg IgM anti HBc and
HBe Ag. The most likely diagnosis:
(a) Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
(b) Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
(c) Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
(d) Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
30. A middleaged man complained of fever, nausea, and pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant.
There was jaundice, and dark urine had been observed several days earlier for more than 6 months.
The serological tests showed presence of Anti-HAV IgG, AntiHBsAb, HBsAb and Anti-HCV IgG and
Anti-HEV IgG. Most probably, the patent is suffering from:
a. Chronic Hepatitis A infection
b. Chronic Hepatitis B infection
c. Chronic Hepatitis C infection
d. Chronic Hepatitis E infection
31. All the following statements are true for hepatititis C virus except:
(a) Genotype 1b shows better prognosis to treatment

(b) It has got seven quasi species

(c) MC Hepatitis virus to undergo chronicity
(d) Blood transfusion is the most important mode of transmission of HCV
32. Which of the following exposures poses a high risk for hepatitis infection?
a. A nurse sustains a needle stick while drawing up insulin to administer to an HEV-infected patient with
diabetes
b. An OT technician with abraded hands notices blood under his gloves after assisting in an operation on a
patient with HBV infection
c. While cleaning the bathroom, a housekeepers intact skin has contact with faeces contaminated with HDV
d. A child drinks out of the same cup as her mother, who has an HCV infection
33. The MC cause of Hepatitis in India:
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Hepatitis E
34. A 44-year-old woman develops fever and focal neurologic signs. MRI shows a left temporal lobe
lesion. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of herpes
simplex encephalitis in this patient?
(a) Brain biopsy from frontal lobe
(b) Tzanck smear
(c) PCR for viral DNA in CSF
(d) Serologic test for viral IgM antibody
35. A 24-year-old woman has recurrent genital herpes. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) They cannot be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions
(b) Reactivation of latent virus during pregnancy poses no threat to the newborn
(c) Recurrent episodes tend to be more severe than the primary infection
(d) They can be caused by either HSV-1 or 2 virus
36. Owls eye is the characteristic feature of the cell infected by:
a. Cytomegaloviruses.
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Human herpes virus 8
37. A 17-year-old female college student has fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy accompanied by
lymphocytosis with atypical cells and an increase in heterophile antibodies. Most likely diagnosis:
(a) Infectious hepatitis
(b) Infectious mononucleosis
(c) Chickenpox
(d) Herpes simplex infection
38. A Tzanck smear of a scraping obtained from a vesicle on the skin demonstrates multinucleated giant
cells. Most likely diagnosis?
(a) HSV-II
(b) Variola major
(c) Coxsackievirus
(d) Molluscum contagiosum
39. Which is wrong about HIV?
(a) Western blot cannot be used for monitoring response to treatment

(b) HIV in infants is best diagnosed by DNA PCR

(c) Delta 32 mutation is seen in European people
(d) NACO strategy I is followed if a girl wants to know the HIV status of the boy before marriage
40. A 70-year-old female patient was readmitted to a local hospital with fever and chills following cardiac
surgery at a major teaching institution. Blood cultures were taken and a Gram-positive coccus grew
from the blood cultures within 24 hours. Initial tests indicated that this isolate was positive for bile
esculin hydrolysis test and resistant to penicillin. The most likely identification is
a.
b.
c.
d.

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Group B streptococcus
Group A streptococcus
Enterococcus

41. Which of the following is the second most common cause of pediatric gastroenteritis? Unlike other
similar viruses of this family, this virus causes only gastroenteritis.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rotavirus
Adenovirus 40/41
Norwalk virus
Astrovirus

42. A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with scaly patches on the scalp. Primary culture of the skin
and hair revealed spindle shaped macrocondia. A few weeks later, she returned and was found to
have inflammatory lesions. The hair fluoresced under Woods light and primary smears of skin and
hair contained septate hyphae. On speaking with the parents, it was discovered that there were
several pets in the household. Which of the following is the most likely agent?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Microsporum canis
Trichophyton tonsurans
Trichophyton rubrum
Epidermophyton floccosum

43. A sputum sample was brought to the laboratory for analysis. Gram stain revealed the following: rare
epithelial cells, 25 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-power field, and pleomorphic Gramnegative rods. As the laboratory consultant, which of the following interpretations should you make?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The sputum specimen is too contaminated by saliva

There is no evidence of an inflammatory response
The patient has pneumococcal pneumonia
The appearance of the sputum is suggestive of Haemophilus pneumoniae

44. A patient with a peptic ulcer was admitted to the hospital and a gastric biopsy was performed. The
tissue was cultured on chocolate agar incubated in a microaerophilic environment at 37 C for 5 to 7
days. At 5 days of incubation, colonies appeared on the plate and were curved, Gram negative rods,
oxidase-positive. The most likely identity of this organism is
a.
b.
c.
d.

Campylobacter jejuni
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Haemophilus influenzae
Helicobacter pylori

45. E. histolytica infection is best diagnosed bya.

Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions
b.
Baermann technique
c.
Dilution followed by egg count
d.
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
46. Cysts of a protozoan adhere to a piece of nylon yarn coiled in a gelatin capsule which is swallowed.
These cysts are usually found in:
a.
Vaginal secretions
b.
Duodenal contents
c.
Blood

d.

Sputum

47. Trypanosoma cruzi initially causes chagoma. In the chronic stage of the disease, the main lesions are
often observed in which of the following system:
a. Spleen and pancreas
b. Heart and digestive tract
c. Liver and spleen
d. Digestive tract and respiratory tract

48. A patient with history traveling to Sudan in central Africa. He presents with marked splenic
enlargement, nonspecific hypergammaglobulinemia, and a negative leishmanin skin test. However,
there is a mild fever twice daily and a darkening of his skin over the temples. Your tentative diagnosis
is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Malaria
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Visceral leishmaniasis
Trypanosomiasis

49. The diagnostic characteristics of Plasmodium falciparum - best described by which one of the
following statements?
a. A period of 96 h is required for the development of the mature schizont, which resembles a rosette with
only 18 to 20 oval merozoites
b. An important diagnostic feature is the irregular appearance of the edges of the infected red blood cell
c. Only ring forms of early trophozoites and the gametocytes are seen in the peripheral blood
d. Schizonts are usually found in peripheral smear
50. A woman with recent history of travel to malaria endemic area, complains of having paroxysmal
attacks of chills, fever, and sweating; these attacks last 6 days, that recurs every 36 to 48 h.
Examination of a stained peripheral smear reveals band shaped forms within red blood cells. The
infecting organism most likely is:
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale

51. The severity of infection with Plasmodium falciparum as compared with the other three forms of
malaria is due to one of the following reasons:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Stem cells in the marrow are largely destroyed

Extensive damage to the liver can occur during the preerythrocytic phase of the parasite cycle
Blood stream parasites reinvade the liver and induce a more severe disease state
Infected red cells adhere to the interior lining of blood vessels and block blood flow through these vessel

52.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Human infection with Taenia saginata, usually is less serious than infection with T. solium, because:
Larval invasion does not occur in beef tapeworm infection
Toxic by-products are not given off by the adult beef tapeworm
The adult beef tapeworms are smaller
Beef tapeworm eggs cause less irritation of the mucosa of the digestive tract

53. Examination of patients stool reveals small structures resembling rice grains; microscopic examination
shows these to be proglottids. The most likely organism in this patients stool is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Necator americanus
T. saginata

54. A pork-eating village, reported to be suffering from an epidemic outbreak of epileptiform seizures. You
have been sent to investigate. One of the first things you should investigate is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

The level of Balantidium coli in the village pig population

The presence of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense in the villagers
The presence of Taenia eggs in the drinking water
The presence of adult Taenia solium in the pigs

55. 32 year male patient with history consumption of raw fish daily for 2 weeks. After 5 months, he had a
routine physical examination and was found to be anemic. His vitamin B12 levels were below normal. The
most likely cause of her vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is:
a. Excessive consumption of ice-cold vodka
b. Infection with parvovirus B 19
c. Infection with D. latum
d. Infection with Yersinia
56.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Caprons arc 5antigen in Countercurrent electrophoresis of serum is diagnostic of:

Cysticercosis
Cryptococcosis
Hydatidosis
Brucellosis

57. The egg which of the following parasites consist of polar filaments arising from either end of the
embryophore:
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Echinococcus granulosis
d. Hymenolepis nana
58.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following organisms penetrates skin, and has a large lateral spine on its eggs?
Paragonimus
S. mansoni
Schistosoma japonicum
Schistosoma haematobium

59. Which of the following organisms may be ingested with raw fish, affects the liver, and has an
operculated egg?
a.
Paragonimus
b.
Clonorchis
c.
S. mansoni
d.
S. japonicum
60. Painless termianal hematuria is seen as one of the manifestations in the infection caused by:
a.
Schistosoma japonicum
b.
Schistosoma mansoni
c.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
Schistosoma falciparum
61. A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency room complaining of weakness, fatigue, and intermittent
fever that has recurred for several weeks. The patient had a cardiac valvular prosthesis implanted
five years earlier. Physical examination reveals petechiae (pinpoint, nonraised, purplish-red spots

caused by intradermal hemorrhage) on the chest and stomach. Blood cultures grew catalase-positive,
coagulase-negative, cocci. The gram-positive organisms failed to ferment mannitol, and their growth
was inhibited by novobiocin. What is the most likely infectious agent?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
62. A 32-year-old woman became ill four days after the onset of her menstrual period. She presented in
the emergency room with fever (104F; normal = 98.6F), elevated white blood cell count
(16,000/mm3; normal = 4,000 to 10,000/mm3), and a rash on her trunk and extremities. She
complained of fatigue, vomiting, and diarrhea. She had recently eaten at a fast-food restaurant, but
otherwise had prepared all her meals at home. The patient described most likely has:
a. staphylococcal food poisoning.
b. scalded skin syndrome.
c. chickenpox.
d. toxic shock syndrome.
63. Community acquired MRSA differs from hospital acquired MRSA in all the features except:
a.

Community isolates have remained susceptible to many non -lactam antibiotics.

b.

CA-MRSA seen in individuals with no prior medical exposure.

c.

CA-MRSA strains have been associated with type4 SCC MEC (Staphylococcal cassette
chromosomes).

d. CA-MRSA are resistant pattern is similar to hospital acquired MRSA

64. Which one of the following bacteria is most likely to be recovered from the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
of a newborn with meningitis. Note that the organism is CAMP positive and Gram positive bacilli.
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Haemophilus influenzae type b
d. Listeria monocytogenes
65. Individuals suffering from primary atypical pneumonia have agglutinins to
a. Streptococcus MG
b. Streptococcus faecalis
c. Streptococcus avium
d. Streptococcus mutans
66. Which of the following is not bacteriophage mediated :
a.

Cholera toxin

b.

Botulinum toxin C

c.

Diphtheria toxin

d.

Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin B

67. A 55-year-old man was admitted to a local hospital with fever and chills. The patient was HIV
positive and had received multiple courses of antibiotics. Blood cultures grew gram-positive cocci,
which tested positive with Group D streptococcal antisera. The isolate was resistant to penicillin and
vancomycin and was found to ferment arabinose. Which one of the following is the most likely
pathogen?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b.
c.
d.

Enterococcus faecium
Streptococcus agalactiae
Enterococcus faecalis

68. Which among the following statements about Enterococcus species are not true?
a. Enterococcus faecium is usually much more antibiotic resistant than E.faecalis
b. Enterococcus faecalis causes 85-90% of the clinical infections.
c. VanA phenotype is manifested by inducible high level resistance to both vancomycin and
teicoplanin.
d. VanC phenotype is plasmid mediated.
69. A gram-negative diplococcus was isolated from a chocolate agar culture of a cerebrospinal fluid
sample. Which one of the following tests or observations would be most informative in identifying the
organism as N. meningitidis?
a. Appearance of colonies
b. Growth on Thayer-Martin medium
c. Direct oxidase test on CSF
d. Positive oxidase test and ability of culture isolate to ferment glucose and maltose
70. Neisseria bacterimia is favoured by complement deficiency of
a. C1 to C2
b. C1 to C3
c. C1 to C4
d. C5 to C8
71. Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSEa. Immunity to diphtheria depends circulating antitoxin >0.01 IU/ml
b. Vaccinated children can get skin lesion due to cutaneous diphtheria
c. Toxin is regulated by iron conc.
d. Fragment A of the toxin is responsible for attachment to host cells
72. Earliest growth of diphtheria bacilli can be detected of
a. Blood agar
b. Potassium tellurite agar
c. Loeffler serum slope
d. Nutrient agar
73. Which of the following is a tripartite toxin?
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Anthrax toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Cholera toxin
74. The entire following are true of Botulism. Except;
a. It causes a symmetric descending paralysis
b. Botulinum toxin acts on GABA neurotransmitter.
c. All produce neurotoxin except C2 which shows enterotoxic activity
d. Produces constipation
75. All are correct regarding Widal test, except ?
a. Baseline titres differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
b. Single test of high titre is not enough for conclusive diagnosis

c. O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection

d. H antibody cannot differentiate between types
76. Which of the following about Salmonella Typhi Vi antigen are correct except
a.

Total absence of Vi antibody in a proven case of typhoid carries good prognosis

b.

Vi antigen provides a method of epidemiological typing of S.Typhi by phage typing.

c.

Vi antigen is strongly immunogenic.

d.

Vi antibody is usually present in carriers.

77. E.coli O104 strain can cause hemorrhagic uremic syndrome and had recently caused outbreak in
Germany in 2013. It belongs to which Diarrheagenic E.coli?
a. EPEC
b. EHEC
c. EAEC
d. EIEC
78. Vibrio vulnificus, which is a marine Vibrio of medical importance, mostly found in the in temperate
and tropical climates is best characterized as
a.

Three serotypesOgawa (AB), Inaba (AC), Hikojima (ABC)

b.

Halophilic, lactosefermenter

c.

Produce yellow colony on TCBS

d.

Shows positive kanagawa phenomena

79. An elderly man, hospitalized and recovering from cardiac bypass surgery, develops pneumonia.
Sputum culture reveals a gram-negative rod that produces a green pigment but does not ferment
carbohydrates. The most likely organism is
a. Serratia species
b. Proteus species
c. Enterobacter species
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
80. A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever
and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific
staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the
suspected pathogen:
a.Albert staining.
b.Zeihl Neelson staining
c.Mc Fadyean staining
d.Wayson staining
81. Biotypes of H influenza most frequently responsible for meningitis
a. 5
b. 3
c. 6
d. 1

82. Which of the following test would you recommend for a farmer suffering from Fever of unknown
origin who raises goats and had a history of drinking raw milk ?
a. Standard agglutination test
b. Weil Felix test
c. Widal test
d.

Microscopic agglutination test

83. Collection of urine sample of a patient of TB /kidney

a. 24 hrs urine
b. 12 hrs urine
c. In early morning
d. Any time
84. True about Montoux is a. Epidemiological marker in infants
b. False positive in measles
c. IGRA has better specificity than Mantoux test
d. Only length of induration is taken into consideration
85. All the following are true of Tuberculosis except a.

For sputum to be positive, minimum bacilli load should be > 104 /ml of sputum

b.

Niacin test cannot differentiate M.tuberculosis and M.bovis

c.

Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M.tuberculosis and M.bovis

d.

Culture techniques have low sensitivity than PCR

86. Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria speciesa.

M.tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.bovis to the humans

b.

M.kansasii can cause swimming pool granuloma

c.

M.chelonei can cause injection abscess

d.

M.marinum causes Burulis ulcer

87. Mitsuda reaction is read after a. 3 days

b. 3 hours
c. 3 weeks
d. 3 months
88. In a syphilitic patient, which one of the following test combinations is most appropriate?
a. FTA-Abs (IgG)/FTA-Abs (IgM)
b.

RPR/FTA-Abs

c.

RPR/culture of the lesion

d.

VDRL/RPR

89. A 32-year old swimmer, presented with history of high grade fever for 7 days and altered sensorium
for 2 days. On examination, he was comatosed and had sub conjunctival hemorrhage. Urgent
investigations showed a haemoglobin of 9 gm/dl, serum bilirubin 10 mg/dl and urea 88 mg/dl.
Peripheral blood smear was negative for malarial parasite. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
a. Brucellosis
b. Leptospirosis

c. Acute viral hepatitis

d. Rickettsiosis
90. Listeria monocytogenes shows which of the following characteristics?
a. It can grow at refrigerator temperatures
b. It is an extracellular pathogen.
c. It is catalase-negative.
d. It is a gram-negative coccus.
91. All are true about Bacterial vaginosis except;
a. Vaginal pH < 4.5
b. Nugent scoring is used for dianosis
c. Foul smelling discharge accentuated by KOH
d. Presence of clue cells is pathognomic
92. An forest worker is presented with history of louse bite, had fever and headache. His fever was 108F
and pulse was 60 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg along with
generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample
was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following
results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting ?
a.

High OX-2

b.

High OX-19

c.

High OX-K

d.

High OX-19 and OX-2

93. The following biochemical and cultural property belong to which bacteria?

a.
b.
c.
d.
94.

Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Proteus mirabilis
Shigella flexneri
Gram stain of CSF a suspected case of pyogenic meningitis is depicted in picture. Which is
correct about this organism?

a.
b.
c.
d.

It ferments maltose and glucose

It ferments inulin
It required X and V factor
No vaccine is available against group B

95. The following cultural property is demonstrated on which medium?

a.
b.
c.
d.

BCYE media for Legionella

PLET media for Anthrax
Levinthal agar for H.influenzae
Regan Low media for Bordetella

96. The electron micrograph of the following picture belongs to which virus?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Coronavirus
Rotavirus
Pox virus
Astrovirus

97. The following dermatophyte given in picture infects which part of body?

a. Skin only
b. Skin and hair
c. Skin and nail
d. Skin, hair and nail
98. Indentify the fungus?

a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Aspergillus flavus
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus nidulans
99. Which is correct about the following malaria parasite given in the picture?

100.

a. It is the most drug resistant species

b. It causes nephrotic syndrome
c. It produces yellow brown pigments in RBC
d. Schizonts are diagnostic in peripheral blood semar
Which iscorrect about the parasite whose egg is given below?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Infective form is filariform larva

It can cause intussusception as complication
It causes Wakana disease if transmitted by ingestion
This egg floats on saturated salt solution