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Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab. Technician

Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions:

General Question

1. One is not found (involve) in colorimetric:

1- Cuvett
2-light source
3- Photo sensor and analyzer
4-fule source
2. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of:
1- Protons and neutrons
2- Protons only
3- Neutrons only
4- Electrons
5- Non of the above
3. Deionization of impure water means:
1- Boiling
2- Filtration
3- Exchange of protons and electrons
4. If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it means:
1- Flammable
2- Corrosive
3- Oxidizing
4- Explosive
5- Toxic
5. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories:
1- Spectrophotometry
2- Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA)
6. Test should be kept away from light:
1- Serum bilirubin
7. Buffer solution is:
1- Chaing color when chaing pH
2- Resist acidic pH
3- Resist alkaline pH
4- Weak acid + weak base
5- Strong acid + weak base
8. An indicator is:
1- Change color with change pH
2- Resist acidic pH
3- Resist alkaline pH
4- Weak acid + weak base
5- Strong acid + weak base
9. Heparin is:
1- Protein
2- Enzyme
3- Polysaccharide
4- Oligosaccharide

5- Non of the above

10. Not find in the flam photometry :

Fuel source
Cuvete for sample
11. Low effective sterilization with:
Ethyl alcohol 70%
Methyl alcohol
5% cresol
12. Prolonged fast cause:
Keton in urine
13. Lens near the slid in light microscope :
Eye lenses
14. Does not sterile with hot air oven:
Dry glassware
Rubber gloves
15. Autoclave sterilize in temp:
16. Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with:
Sodium bicarbonate powder
Boric acid
Acetic acid 1%
Cold water
Hot water
17. You do not take this stage for treatment small cut In emergency :
Clean with soap and water
Do pressure with piece
Immediately rinse mouth well and water
Cover it with water dressing
18. the (u) unit used to evaluation of :
 Protein in serum
 Hemoglobin
 Hormone assay
Enzymatic activity
19. During reaction of two chemical substances , the color produced asses by
 Spectrophotometer
 Flame photometer

20. To detect pH from solution use :
 pH meter
 Indicator
 Micrometer

21. This Symbol means, when you see in laboratory :

 acute flammable
 Toxic
 Corrosive
 Explosive
22. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is?
*light microscope
*ultra-violet microscope
*dark field microscope
23. How much water should we add to 500ml of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%?
24. Calibrator sera are?
*secondary standards
*internal standards
*primary standards
25. A buffer made of?
*a strong acid + a strong salt
*a weak acid + a weak salt
*a weak acid + a strong salt
26. The difference between plasma & serum is that plasma?
*does not contain fibrinogen
*has more water
*contains fibrinogen (Plasma)
27. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of .500nm the absorbance of 10ml of the same solution is?
28. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of glucose because?
*glucose value increases with time
*lyses of blood will occur
*glucose value decreases with time
29. Wave Length Visible To Naked Eye:
400-700 nm.
30. Purpose of standard deviation :
A-to measure external quality control
B-to measure internal quality control
C-precise & accuracy
D-both a & b
31. Substance used in catalyse reaction :


1. Neutrophil count is high in:

1-Acute bacterial infection
2- Iron deficiency anemia
3-Megaloblastic anemia
2. HbA2 is consisting of:
1- 3 ά chains and 2 γ chains
2- 2 ά chains and 2 β chains
3- 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
4- 2 ά chains and 3 δ chains
5- 3 ά chains and 2 δ chains
3. The main (most) Hb found in adult is:
 Hb A
 Hb A2
 Hb F
4. Detection of malaria parasite is by:
1- Thick blood film
5. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity:
1- Lymphocyte
2- Neutrophil
3- Monocyte
4- Basophile
5- Eosinophil
6. Normal range of leukocyte is:
1- 4-11 X 10^9
7. Reticulocyte is immature:
1- RBC
2- WBC
3- Platelet
8. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:
1- T-lymphocyte
2- B- lymphocyte
3- Monocyte
4- Basophile
5- Eosinophil
9. Malaria infection transmitted by:
1- Male anopheles mosquito
2- Female anopheles mosquito
10. One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in:
1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
11. Thrombin time is:
1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
3- The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin

12. Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by:
1- Plasmodium Falciparum
2- Plasmodium Malaria
3- Plasmodium Ovale
4- Plasmodium Vivax 5- All of the above
13. Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection:
1- Lymphocyte
2- Nutrophile
3- Monocyte
4- Basophile
5- Eosinophil
14. With Romanowsky stain ,2-5 lobes and give violet or pinkish granules:
15. Lymphocyte is elevated in :
Viral infection
Acute bacterial infection
Iron deficiency anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Non of the above
16. Thrombin time measure:
Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin
17. In presence of clotting defect one of this not measure:
Leukocyte count
18. Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in :
Defect in vessels and platelets
19. S hemoglobin is the same defect of thalassemia but the different is :
Long B chain
Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with valine
Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with valine
20. Hormone that cause replication of RBC:
21. Which of White blood cell give immunoglobulin :
 Lymphocyte
 Neutrophil
 Basophile
 Monocyte
 Eosinophil
22. .Neutrophil is a common White blood cell present in blood and the percentage of presence is :
 90%
 15%
 75%
23. Normal range of erythrocyte
4, 5- 6,5X 10^9
24. One of these cell the largest leukocyte cell:
 Neutrophil
 Basophil
 Monocyte
 Lymphocyte

 Eosinophil
25. Malaria chizonts are present in?
*reticulo-endothelial *leukocyte

26. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is?

*chemo taxis
27. Malaria does not grow in?
*EDTA blood
*heparin zed blood
28. Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is?
*carrier male
*diseased female
*carrier female
29. IVY method of bleeding time
For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function)
30. Neutrophil
Most abundant in WBCs
31. HbA
(Adult haemoglobin ) for adult, dominant in adult
32. HbF
(Infant heamoglobin) fetal haemoglobin
33. Neutrophil
Firstly increased in bacterial infections
34. Prolonged application of tourniquet
Venous stasis  increased calcium level
35. Best time for collection of blood for malaria :-
A-before and after paroxsym
B-shortly after paroxsym
C-later paroxsym
D-just before paroxsym
36. In folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs :-
A- Enlarged RBCs ( Megaloblastic anemia ) = Macrocytic
B- Crenated RBCs
C- Haemolyzed RBCs
37. In iron deficiency anaemia :
RBCs are smaller than normal = Microcytic
38. The malarial sporozoite in man invades:-
A-white blood cells
C-Reticulo-endothelial cells
D-all of the above
46. The defect of thalassemia occurs in:
 Cycle of heme
 Glubin chain
47. All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:-

48. Romanowsky stain consists of:
1- Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue
2- Eosin only
3- Methylene blue only
4- Indian Ink

1. One is not correctly paired:
1- α- cells→ glucagon
2- β- cells → insulin
3- Parathyroid → calcium
4- Corpus luteum → Progesterone
5- Estrogen → seminiferous tubules
2. In case of obstructive jaundice one is commonly not found:
1- Total bilirubin is elevated
2- High bilirubin in urine
3- Direct bilirubin is within the normal
4- Dark color of urine
5- Clay color of stool
3. In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found:
1- Total bilirubin is elevated
2- High bilirubin in urine
3- No change in color of urine
4- Direct bilirubin is within the normal
5- Normal color of stool
4. One is not true about acid:
1- Proton donor
2- Turn litmus paper to blue
3- Sour taste
4- React with alkaline to give water and salt
5- Non of the above
5. Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is important to the cell because it give:
1- Acetyl CoA
2- ADP
3- ATP
6. Hydrolysis of sucrose result:
1- Only glucose
2- Galactose
3- Fructose + glucose
4- Glucose + Glucose
5- Maltose + Glucose
7. Consider ketose:
8. Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition;

9. In cardiac infraction one of the measurements is not benefited:
10. One of the following has highest conc. Of cholesterol:
11. Hyper secretion of insulin cause:
12. Hyperglycemia hormone
13. Pyrimidin base:
Uric acid
14. One use for measure abnormality in kidney :
15. Does not stimulate with slight hemolysis:
16. One is stimulate on serum calcium level:
Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm
17. Glycolysis done in :
 Nucleus
 Endoplasmic reticulum
 Mitochondrion
 Cytoplasm
 Non of the above
18. One of the above not present in Diabetic mellitus coma :
 Hyperglycemia
 Hypercholesterolemia
 High number of ketene in urine
 Non of the above
19. In which substance give blood glucose when hydrolysis :
 Muscle glycogen
Liver glycogen
 Heart glycogen
 Unsaturated fat
 Triglyceride
20. Urea is final product of catabolism of:
 Amino acid
 triglyceride
 cholesterol
 polysaccharide
21. Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in :

 Liver
 Bone
 Liver and bone
 Non of the above
22. One of the following anticoagulant used for blood glucose :
 Heparin
 Sodium oxalate
 Florida Oxalate
 Sodium citrate
23. AST important enzyme to detect abnormality in:
 Liver disease
 Heart disease
 Liver and heart disease
 Non of the above
24. The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is?
*120 mg/dl
*160 mg/dl
*Less than 50mg/dl
25. Amylase value is high in the following disease?
*salivary glands
*pancreas diseases
*All of the previous
26. One jaundice patient has yellow skin, his billrubin is:
27. Acute diabetic patient has?
*blood sugar more than 150mg/dl
*blood sugar more than 180mg/dl
*Glucose & Acetone in urine
28. Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms?
29. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by?
*Increase the influx of glucose into cells
*activate glycogensis
*All the previous
30. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done?
*stool fats
31. Comma of diabetic patient shows?
*glucose grater than 200mg/dl
*glucose less than 200mg/dl
*glucose grater than 500mg/dl
32. Bone matrix can also call?
*vascular tissue
*fibrous tissue

33. Serum LDH is elevated in all the following except?
*skeletal disease
*cardiac/ hepatic diseases
*renal disease
34. Elevated Sodium & Chloride is seen in?
*diabetic acidosis
*Severe dehydration
35. Which test is better to diagnose chronic bile duct?
*total bilirubin
36. With age the renal threshold for glucose?
*does not change
37. Causes of high serum bilirubin are?
*overload on liver
*all of the previous
38. One of the following enzymes is affected by hemolysis?
39. HbA1C of diabetic patient is important for?
*he has to come fasting
*short term follow up
*Long term follow up
40. For glucose tolerance test?
*collect 5 blood samples only
*collect 5 urin samples only
*collect 5 blood samples + 5 urin samples
41. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4-8hr of chest pain?
42. Light effects one of the following?
43. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme?
44. One of the following is important before anesthesia?
*alkaline phosphates
*acidic phosphates
*Pseudocholine esterase
45. Acid phosphate is?
*heart enzyme

*liver enzyme
*Prostatic enzyme
46. In Uric acid estimation?
*its affected by carbohydrate meal
*no need for fasting
*The patient has to come fasting
47. All of the following are affected by meal except?
48. Na+ is the main?
*intra cellular anion
*intra cellular cation ----- (K)
*extra cellular cation
49. One of the following electrolytes is affected by hemolisis?
50. The best kidney function test?
*total protein
*creatinine clearance
51. For GTT in adults the dose of glucose is?
52. For GTT in children the dose of glucose is?
53. Random blood glucose gives an idea?
*to justify blood glucose
*fasting patient
*blood glucose in urgent cases
54. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on?

55. Endogenous triglyceride is carried on?

56. Harmful cholesterol is carried on?
57. Useful cholesterol is carried on?

58. For lipid investigation patient has to fast?
59. Test Used To Diagnose Obstructive Bile Duct
A- Bilirubin
B- biliverdin
C- urobilinogen
D-none of the above
60. Which of the following is protected from light :-
C-total protein (TP.)
D-bun (blood urea nitrogen)
61. All of the following can asses the liver function except :-
62. Purine Associated With


1. Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by:

2-Secret enzymes
3-Endogenous toxins
4-Exogenous toxins
5-All of the above
2. Function of pili of the bacteria:
1- Attachment to the host tissue
2- Movement
3- Reproduction (multiplication)
4- Engulf of food
5- All of the above
3. Bacteria motile gram-rods:
Bordetela pertusis
Pseudomonas aeruginoea
Yersenia pestis
4. Strict aerobe bacteria

5. One is always non motile gram –ve rods:
1-Haemophilus Influenza
3- E.coli
4- Salmonella
5- Borditella Pertusis
6. One is motile gram –ve rods:
1- Haemophilus Influenza
2- Bacillus anthracis
3- Pseudomonas aerogenes
4- Vibrio cholerae
5- Yersinia Pestis
7. One is gram +ve oval (cocci):
1- Bacillus anthracis
2- Meningococci
3- Pneumococci
8. A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is:
1- Streptococcus Pyogenes
2- Staphylococci aureus
9. Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is:
1- Selective media
2- Simple media
3- Differential media
4- Enriched media
5- Enrichment
10. One is not a Romanowsky stain:
1- Fields stain
2- Gram stain
3- Geimsa stain 4- Leishman stain
11. Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by:
1- Hot air oven
2- Autoclaving
12. Org. (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters:
1- Corynebacteria Diphtheria
2- Bacillus anthraces
13. Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia:
1- Catalase
2- Optochine disc
3- Coagulase
4- Bile insolubility
5- Bacitracin
14. Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters):
1- Streptococci
2- Staphylococci
15. One is always oxidase +ve
1- Haemophilus Influenza
2- Pseudomonas aurogenase
16. Gram-v bacteria color :
Dark purple
Pale to dark red

17. Bacteria need dark field to detect
T.pallidium (Syphilis)
18. Citrate test assis :
Colistridia sp
19. Nutrient agar:
Basic media
20. Disease caused by Pyogen stereptococcus:
Scarlet fever.
21. Org cause bloody in stool:
Shigella sp.
22. Z.N stain use for diagnose :
23. Media use for differentiate between L.F and N.L.F:
Maconky media
24. Use for clean slide:
Ethyl alcohol
Methyl alcohol
25. The following is ingredient of culture medium:
 Meat extract
 Minral salts
 Agar
 Peptone
 Non of the above
 All of the above
26. The most source of ATP in cell is :
 Mitochondria
 Cytoplasm
 Nucleus
 Cell wall
27. . H Ag present in :
 Pilli
 Capsule
 Flagella
 Cell membrane
28. Selective and Differential medium of entero pathogen is:
 Chocolate agar
 Blood agar
 DCA medium
 Meat extract agar
 Non of the above
29. One of these is prokaryotic cell:
 Fungi
 Bacteria
 Entameba histolytica
 All of the above
Non of the above
30. One of these org gram +ve cocci arranged in pairs :
 Staphylococci

 Streptococci
 Meningococci
 Entrococci
31. Substance used in catalyse reaction :
32. The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is?
*anal swab
*blood culture
*stool culture
33. All of the following is true for salmonella except?
*produces H2S
*oxidase positive
34. The best media for urine culture is?
*blood agar
*chocolate agar
*CLED agar
35. The sterilization of autoclave is?
*85c for 30min
*150c for 30min
*121c for 15min
36. Shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB?

37. All the following bacteria are interobacter except?

*Non of the previous
38. All the following parameters affecting gram staining except?
*use H2SO4
*add absolute alcohol after washing
*Delaying the dryness of the slide
39. Blood sample is used to diagnose?
*non from them
40. Serious that causes food poisoning?
*staph albus
*salmonella typhi
*Salmonella enteritidis
41. Which of the following causes UTI & INDOL positive?
42. One of the following is capsulated bacteria?
*klebsiella Pneumonia
43. Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacterial count in urine samples

a-Mc Conkey agar
b- Blood agar
c-XLD medium
d-Mannitol salt agar
e- CLED medium
44. The following organisms are lactose fomenters except
a-E. coli
b-Enterobacter cloacae
c- Shigella sonnei
d- Proteus spp.
45. All is true about Enterobacteriaceae except :-
a-They are …… hemolytic and sorbitol
b- Ferments Mannitol
c- Grow in Methylene blue medium
d- Inhibited growth with 6.5 % NaCl and/or at temperature
46. All are true of campylobacter jejuni or Which of the following statements about campylobacter is false:-
a-Gram negative curved bacilli
b-Slow growth
c-Grow on XLD medium
d- Arranged in pairs
47. Beta hemolysis is enhanced when group B Streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with :
A- Streptococci
b-Staph aureus
d-Streptococcus epiedermidis
e-Corynebacterim diphteriae
48. All statements are true about proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except :-
Oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin
a-Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mc Conkey's agar
b-Urease positive
c-KCN and N2S positive
d- Positive to INDOLE test
49. Klebsiella pneumonia
50. Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are containing the following features :-
A- coagulase
51. Sterilization is best done by
121c 15 PSI for 15-20 minutes
52. Organism Soluble In Bile :-
A- staph
C- Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia)
D- Haemophilous influenzae
53. Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organism : -
A- Pseudomonas Aeroginosa
B- Haemophilus influenzae
C- Nisseria gonorrhoea
54. Confirmatory test for Strept. Pneumoniae :-

A- Optochin sensitivity disc
B- Bacitracin disc sensitivity
C- Bile solubility
D- Catalase test
55. Specimen suitable for microfilaria
56. Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium :-
A- Clostiridium spp.
B- Haemophilus
C- E. Coli
D- Yersinia enterocolitica
57. Nutrient agar is :-
A- Selective media
B-Differential media
C-Special media
D- Basic medium
58. The Following Organisms Are Encapsulated Except :-
A- Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B- E. Coli
C- Haemophilous influenzae
D- Streptococcus pneumoniae
59. Vi Ag is seen in :-
60. All are true about enterococci except :- (Strept. Faecalis)
A-have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci
B-positive aesculin hydrolysis
C-grow in the presence of bile salts
D- Do not grow in the presence of 6.5 % Nacl nor at 45 c
61. Significant bacteruria , puria , and alkaline urine probably indicate urinary tract infection due to::
A- Staphylococcus epidermidis
B- E. Coli
C- Proteus vulgaris
D- Pseudomonas aerginosa
E-Enterococcus Faecalis
62. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human infections are :-
A- Group A
B-beta-haemolytic streptococci
C-bacitracin-s and camp ( - )
D-all of these
E-none of these
63. To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and nisseria meningitidis :
A-fermentation of dextrose and lactose
B- Fermentation of dextrose and maltose
C-fermentation of maltose and lactose
D- Fermentation of maltose and sucrose
64. Blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial diseases except

C- Gastroenteritis
65. Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false
A-gram negative curved bacilli
B- Arranged in pairs (see-gull)
C-slow growth
D-Grows on XLD medium
E-incubation temperature at 42 c
66. The invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the production of:
D- Polysaccharide capsule
67. Agar is characterized by all the following except?
*freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c


1. Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is:

1- Larva
2- Cercaria
3- Egg
4- Cyst
5- Metacercaria
2. The definitive host is an animal:
1-Entamoeba histolitica
2-Toxoplasma Gondii
3-Trypanosoma cruzi
5- Giardia lamblia
3. Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection:
1- Taenia
2- Toxoplasma gondii
4. Intracellular parasite:
Toxoplasma gondii
Giaradia lamblia
Typanosoma cruzi
Trichomonas vaginalis
5. Non motile protozoa:
1- E.coli
2- Entamoeba Histolytica
3- Trypanosoma cruzi
4- Giardia lamblia
5- Trichomonas vaginalis

6. Identification of Leishmania parasite
Lymph node aspirate.
7. Infective stage of Taenia:
1- Larva
2- Cercaria
3- Embrocated egg
4- Cyst
5- Metacercaria
8. Autoinfection of human can caused in case of:
1- Entrobius Vermicularis
2- Taenia Sp.
3- Anclystoma Dudenal
4- Ascaris Lumbercoidis
9. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to detect (diagnose):
1- Chromatoidal bars
2- Cell wall
3- Nuclei
10. Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis:
1- Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool
11. Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge:
1- Trichomonas Vaginalis
12. Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnostic with:
Wuchereria bancrofti
13. Oocyst benefited to diagnose:
Toxoplasma gondii
Giaradia lamblia
Typanosoma cruzi
14. Cutaneous Leishmanias is transmitted by:
Phlebotomus sand fly
15. Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis:
Egg in urine with terminal spine
16. One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite:
 Gardia lamblia
 Entameba histolytica
 E. coli
 Tryponosoma Cruzi
 Toxoplasma gondii
17. infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes :
 Larva
 Cercaria
 Egg
 Cyst
 Metacercaria
18. The worm that causes blood in urine?
*Schistosoma haematobium
19. Generally diagnosed by recovery & identification of typical larva in stool?
*hook worms

20. Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine?
*hook worm
*Pin worm
21. Polio myeletis is transmitted through?
22. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine
a- E. vermicularis (Pin Worm)
b- A. duodenale
c- A. lumbricoides
d- T.saginata
e- T. spiralis
23. The causative parasite of Egyptian Bilharisiasis
a-Trichomonas Vaginalis
b-Schitosoma haematobium
c-Schitosoma japonicum
d-Schitosoma mansoni
e- All of the above
24. Best for identification of parasite if you can not see it in stool ( Negative in stool )
Concentration Technique
25. Identification of fertilized eggs in feces
Ascaris Lumbricoides
26. Sugar can not be detected in urine using copper reduction test
A- fructose
B- Galactose
C- arabinose
D- Sucrose
27. The infective stage of Ancylostoma Duodenale is :-
A- Eggs in stool
B-larva in stool
C-larva in tissue
D-cysticercous bovis
28. What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work?
29. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma is :-
B- Cat
30. A semen specimen, contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is:
 Glucose
 Mannose
 Glactose

 Fructose
27. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done?
*stool fats


1. The smallest molecular weight Ig is:

2. B-lymphocyte after attack foreign bodies ,called
Plasma cell
3. One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in serum :
 IgG
 IgE
 IgM
 IgD
 IgA
4. Immunoglobulin is?
*B globulin
*Alfa globulin
*Gamma globulin
5. Ig ( Immunoglobulin ) Increased In Case Of Parasitic Infection & Allergy
A- IgG
6. ? A-IgM (HEAVIER ) 1St
7. Ig can cause HDN :-
8. Ig not part of acquired immunity :-
9. One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in serum :
 IgG
 IgE
 IgM
 IgD

 IgA


1. A standard micro plates in ELISA test has?

*98 wells
*94 wells
*96 wells
2. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the?
*micro plate
3. Antigen antibody complex are?
*weakly bound
*no bounds
*strongly bound
4. Washing must be done in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because?
*increase the specificity
*increase the sensitivity
*it removes the excess binding
5. The label in ELISA tests is?
*radio active substance
6. .method used to detect hormone in the laboratory :

Blood Bank

1. Blood medium commonly used in blood bank:

1- Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A)
2- EDTA anticoagulant
3- Heparin anticoagulant
4- Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM)
2. Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect: (Indirect Combs Test)
1- Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
2- IgG
3- IgM
4- Sensitized antibody in patient serum
5- Non of the above
3. Sensitized Ab in serum detect by:
Indirect antiglublin test
4. Direct anti-antibody test used to detect: (Direct Combs Test)
1- Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
2- IgG
3- IgM
4- Sensitized antibody in patient serum
5- Non of the above

5. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is:
1- Coombs reagent
2- Anti-Ab
3- IgG
4- All of the above
5- Non of the above
6. Rh-ve patient means he dose not have:
1- E antigen
2- D antigen
3- B antigen
4- C antigen
Non of the above
7. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body):
1- 80 days
2- 120 day
3- 130 day
4- 20 day
5- 7 days
8. Use O cell tube on lab for:
As control
To detect Ag
To detect Ab
9. All cause false –v ABO blood grouping except
Too short incubation
10. Store FFPs at -80◌ْc:
4 year
2 year
11. In Rh-v person , this Ag not found :
D- Antigen
12. In O+v person
No presence of Ag
No presence of Ab
13. CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for:
 35 days
 45 days
 5 days
 15 days
 Non of the above
14. In Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC because all serum contain :
 Albumin
 a_glubulin
 b_ globulin
 fibrinogen
 Immunoglobulin
15. Reason of false positive ABO in compatibility:
 Cold agglutination
16. In O blood group the Ab in serum is :
 Anti A1B

 Anti A
 Anti B
 Non of the above
 All of the above
17. Blood donor selection in KSA are all of the following except?
*Hb% 12.5-16
*free from syphilis
*One year after delivery
18. . Blood transfusion can transmit?
*All of the previous
19. Causes false negative ABO incomparability/ cross matching :-
a- Deteriorated reagent
b- Not putting antisera
c- Under incubation
20. False positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching
Cold Agglutinin
21. Why do we have to wash red blood cells in cross matching
To remove an excess antibody present in the sample
22. Antibody found in blood group Ab individuals :
23. To differentiate anti i from anti I
C- Cord Cells
D -None of the above
24. Cross-Match in (Major X-Matching)
Donor Cells + Patient Serum
1. Function of Thyroxin is:
1- Increase Oogenesis
2- Stimulate contraction of uterus
3- Increase basal metabolic
2. Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone (TSH) causes:
1- Cushing disease
2- Gigantism
3- Exophthalamic goiter
4- Hypoglycemia
3. Function of Estrogen:
1- Increase Oogenesis
2- Stimulate contraction of uterus
3- Increase basal metabolic
4. Increase in growth hormone causes:
1- Cushing disease
2- Gigantism
3- Exophthalamic goiter
4- Hypoglycemia
5. Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to:

1- IgG
2- IgM
3- Human chorionic Gonadotropin
6. Target of Prolactin in female:
1- Ovary
2- Mammary glands
7. Hyper secretion of cortisol cuase:
Cushing disease
8. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause:
Elevated ca level
Decrease ca level
9. Regulation of calcium level in serum by:
Calcitonine hormone only
Parathyroid hormone only
Calcionine with parathyroid hormone
Vitamin D
PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin
10. Oxytocine hormone function :
 Increase Oogenesis
 Stimulate contraction of uterus
 Increase basal metabolic
11. Function of Cortisol :
 Increase Oogenesis
 Stimulate contraction of uterus
 Increase basal metabolic
12. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring?
*total HCG
*beta HCG &LH
*beta HCG
13. ADH is secreted from?
*thyroid gland
*anterior pituitary
*Posterior pituitary

Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab. Technician

Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions:

1. The concentration of total bilirubin in the serum of normal adult ranges at.
A. 0.1 – 1 mg/dl
B. 0.1 – 1 ug/dl
C. 1 – 10 mg/dl
D. 10 – 20 mg/dl
E. 100 -110 mg/dl
2. Laboratory tests of hepatic function include:
A. Serum bilirubin
B. Urine bilirubin
C. Excretory function test

D. All of the above
3. Marked elevations in serum amylase levels are seen in:
A. Bone disease
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Salivary gland lesions
D. Liver disease
E. B and C
4. Glycogen, the storage form of carbohydrates in the body is predominantly found in.
A. Liver tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Liver and muscle
D. Bone
E. B and D
5. The hormone insulin helps to maintain constant plasma glucose concentration by:
A. Allowing entry of glucose from plasma in to muscle and fat tissue
B. Moving glucose out of cells into the plasma
C. Inhibiting glycolysis
D. All the above mechanisms
E. Non of the above mechanisms
6. In case of uncontrolled sever diabetes mellitus, the following biochemical abnormalities appear:
A. Acidosis
B. Ketosis
C. Dehydration
D. Electrolyte imbalance
E. All of the above
7. Sever diabetes mellitus bring about which condition
A. Acidosis and Ketosis
B. Non of the above
C. Dehydration
D. Electrolyte imbalance
E. All of the above
8. In chemical or latent type diabetes:
A. The fasting blood sugur level exceeds 150 mg/dl.
B. Glucose and ketone bodies are found in the urine.
C. The 2-hour postprandial serum glucose level exceeds 180 mg/dl
D. The glucose tolerance test result is normal
E. Non of the above statements is correct
9. Which statement is true about chemical or latent diabetes:
A. FBS >150
B. Presence of acidosis and ketosis
C. 2HPP >180
D. OGTT is normal
E. Presence of sugur in urine
10. A technician working in the clinical chemistry lab must immediately report to his supervisor a
plasma glucose level equal to:
A. 80 mg/dl
B. 70 mg/dl
C. 60 mg/dl
D. 50 mg/dl
E. 120 mg/dl
11. Test of intestinal function includes: / A test used to assess intestinal function:

A. Lactose tolerance test
B. D-xylose absorption test
C. Measurement of serum caroteniods
D. Fecal fat analysis
E. Non of the above
12. In spectrophotometeric determination, the amount of light of a specific wavelength absorbed by a
colored solution is:
A. Directly proportional to the intensity of the color
B. Directly proportional to the concentration of solute in the solution
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
13. In spectrophotometeric, the amount of light absorbed is:
A. Directly proportional to the amount of light transmitted
B. Inversely proportional to the amount of solute
C. Directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte
D. Inversely proportional to the absorbance
E. Inversely proportional to the emitted color
14. The concentration of Sodium in normal serum is: / normal Sodium in adult
A. 136 – 145 mmol/l / 135 – 145 mmol/l
B. 136 – 145 mg/dl / 110 – 220 meq/l
C. 1.36 – 1.45 mmol/l /1.35 – 1.45 mmol/l
D. 1.36 – 1.45 mg/dl / 20 – 50 mg/dl
E. None of the above / None of the above
15. The best estimate of plasma osmolality is represented by:/ The Principal of body water osmolality
A. Plasma Na+ concentration / Na+ concentration
B. Plasma K+ Concentration / K+ concentration
C. Plasma HCO3 Concentration / HCO3- concentration
D. None of the above / CL- concentration
16. The most important buffer system present in blood is:
A. The hemoglobin buffer system
B. The phosphate buffer system
C. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system
D. The acetate/acetic acid buffer system
E. None of the above
17. Jaundice, a condition characterized by deposition of bilirubin in the sclera of the eyes and in the
skin, becomes evident when the bilirubin serum level reaches a concentration of:
A. 1 mg/dl
B. 0.1 mg/dl
C. Exceeds 2.5 mg/dl
D. Exceeds 5 mg/dl
E. None of the above
18. In significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml urine is:
A. > 10^5 cfu/ml
B. < 10^5 cfu/ml
C. > 10^3 cfu/ml
D. < 10^3 cfu/ml
19. The test used to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci is:
A. Catalase
B. Oxidase
C. Coagulase

D. ASO test
20. Group A Streptococci are differentiated from other Beta-haemolytic streptococci by disc
A. Neomycin
B. Optochin
C. Bacitracin
D. Novobiocin
21. For blood culture, the best anticoagulant is:
A. Citrate
B. Oxalate
C. Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate (SPS)
D. Heparin
22. The IMVIC reaction of E. coli are:
A. ++--
B. --++
C. +++-
D. ---+
23. On EMB or Mac Conkiy agar media, members of shigella-salmonella group produce small
colonies which are:
A. Black
B. Green
C. Pink
D. Colorless
E. Yellow-brown
24. The best specimen for recovery of polio virus for culture is:
B. Blood clot or throat washing
C. Buffy coat
D. Feces
E. None of the above
25. The diagnostic stage for Giardia lamblia in stool is:
A. Cyst
B. Trophozite
C. Cyst and/or trophozite
D. All of the above
E. Non of the above
26. Man may acquire toxoplasma from:
A. Mice
B. Cats
C. Dogs
D. Pigs
27. All Leishmanial infections are transmitted by / Vector for Leismania infection
A. Tsetse fly/ Tsetse fly
B. Sand fly/ Sand fly
C. House fly/ House fly
D. Horse fly/ Anopheles mosquito
28. Dwarf tapeworm:
A. Tania saginata
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia solium
D. Dipylidium caninum

29. Viruses resemble living thing; they:
A. Are motile
B. Are crystalline
C. Grow
D. Reproduce
30. Which of the following culture media is suitable for doing semi-quantitative bacterial count of
urine specimens?
A. MacConkey’s agar
B. Blood agar
C. CLED medium
D. XLD medium
E. Mannitol salt agar
31. Quellung’s test is positive with the following organisms EXCEPT:
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Klebseilla pneumonia
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
32. Growth of vibrio cholera on TCBS medium produces:
A. Blue colonies
B. Yellow colonies
C. Green colonies
D. White colonies
33. The following organisms are lactose fermenters EXCEPT:
A. E1. colli
B. Enterobacter cloacae
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Proteus spp.
34. All are true for salmonella typhi EXCEPT:
A. Human is the main reservoir or carrier.
B. Possesses H & O antigen
C. Oxidase positive
D. Produces H2 S on TSI, XLD & HE media
E. Produces acid from glucose but no gas
35. All is true for salmonella EXCEPT
A. the main reservoir is human
B. Contains O and H antigen
C. Urease, KCN and phenylalanine negative
D. H2S positive with gas
E. Indole positive
36. The following are members of Enterobacteriaceae family EXCEP:
A. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
B. Serratia liquefaciens
C. Providencia alcalifaciens
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
E. Campylobacter fetus
37. Which of the followings statements about Campylobacter Jejuni is false?
A. Gram negative curved bacilli
B. Arranged in pairs (see-gull)
C. Slow growth
D. Grows on XLD medium
38. Direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the following specimens EXCEPT:

A. Pus, aspirated fluids and discharges
C. C. sputum
D. Urine
E. Stool
39. When using a X10 eye piece and the X10 objective of a bright field microscope, the total
magnification is:
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000
40. Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained by
Gram stain?
A. Bright field microscope
B. Dark field microscope
C. Dissecting microscope
D. Fluorescent microscope
41. Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear stained with a
A. Bright field microscope
B. Dark field microscope
C. Polarizing microscope
D. Fluorescent microscope
42. The resolution of the bright field microscope is:
A. 2.0 um
B. 0.2 um
C. 0.02 um
D. 0.002 um
43. Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized using:
A. The auto calve
B. The oven
C. Filtration
D. Bunsen burner
44. Serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of porosity / Bacterial sterilization of serum can be
accomplished by filtration using a porosity of
A. 0.22 um/ 0.22 ù
B. 2.2 um/ 0.8 ù
C. 6 um/ 0.60 ù
D. 8 um/ 5.0 ù
45. The temperature-time cycle when using the autoclave to sterilize is:
A. 100 C /30 min
B. 121 C /30 min
C. 90 C /30 min
D. 100 C /15 min
46. Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven?
A. Culture media
B. Serum
C. Sand
D. Distilled water
47. The primary stain of the gram stain is:
A. Crystal violet
B. Safranin
C. Malachite green
D. Iodine
48. Which of the following reagents is not used in the gram staining technique?
A. Crystal violet
B. Safranin
C. Malachite green
D. Iodine
49. Which color do gram negative bacteria appear?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Red
50. Which objective of the microscope requires the use of immersion oil between the slide and the
A. X10
B. X20
C. X40
D. X100
51. The solidifying agent in bacteriological culture media is:
A. Wax
B. Resin
C. Agar
D. Starch
52. Agar is used as a solidifying agent in bacterial culture medium at a concentration:
A. 10% - 11%
B. 8% - 9%
C. 1% - 2%
D. 1% - 3%
53. Which of the following is not true?
A. Agar is inert
B. Agar is nutritious
C. Agar solidifies at 42 C
D. Agar melts at 100 C
54. Bacteria which has an optimum temperature for growth at 60 C are termed:
A. Mesophilic
B. Zoophilic
C. Thermophilic
D. Halophilic
55. What organism that char. Sattelitism around the Staph. Aureus on blood agar:
A. H. influenza
B. H. dueriyi
C. C. tetani
D. None of the above
56. Parasite that has a chronatiodal bodies or the cigar shaped:
A. E. Histolytica
B. E. coli
C. Endolimax nana
D. Balantidium Cole
E. E. hartmani

57. Ingestion of RBC in a trophozeite:
A. E. histolytica
B. E. coli
C. Endolinax nana
58. Sprozoite in man invades:/ Sproziote of malaria invades man through the:
A. WBC / White Blood cell
B. RBC / Red blood cell
C. Reticuloendothelial / RES /Muscle tissue / All of the above
59. Egyptians Hematuria:
A. fasciola Hepatiea
B. S. hematobium
C. S. japonicum
D. S. mansoni
60. The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharzias:
A. Trichomonas Vaginalis
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. D. Schistosoma mansoni
E. All of the above
61. Enlarge RBC: / Which malarial parasite cause enlargement of the RBC:
A. P. Vivax
B. P. malaria
C. P. falciparum
D. P. ovale
62. In urinary infection the ff. are free in urine:
A. hematuria
B. Nitritis are positive
C. Leukocytes
D. All of the above
63. The probable glucose level:
A. below 25 – 30 mg/dl
B. 40 mg/dl
C. 60 mg/dl
D. Any of the above
64. In myocardial infection what enzyme are resp.
D. CK - BB
65. In Antigen – Antibody reaction the panel should have such
A. 1 neg & 1 positive control
B. 2 neg & 1 positive control
C. 2 neg & 2 positive control
D. 3 neg & 3 positive control
66. Parasites that neither lay eggs nor:
A. T. trichiurea
B. Ascaris
C. Hookworm
D. Trichenilla
67. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine:
A. E. vermicularis

B. A. doudenale
C. A. lumbricoides
D. T. saginata
E. T. spiralis
68. Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal:
A. Hook worm
B. Pin worm
C. Trichinella
D. Trichiuris
69. In blood transfusion the patients Red cells and donor plasma are req.
A. Minor cross matching
B. Major cross matching
70. What is the normal value of FBS if it is 100% venous blood?
A. 60-80 mg/dl
B. 100-120 mg/dl
C. 80-120 mg/dl
D. 200-210 mg/dl
71. In acute pancreatities what is the test to be determine:
A. Amylase
B. Lactate Dehydrogenises
72. Other than Insulin what hormone that maintain the glucose level
A. Glucagon
B. Growth hormone
C. Somatostatin
73. Glomerular filtration Rate is indi. Of:
A. Measurement of Clearance of subs. That are freely filterable by the glomerular
B. Means of clearable of subs. That are freely filterable by the glomerular that secret by
tubules and is retainable
C. Any of above
D. All of the above
74. Increased Serum bilirubin:
A. Overloaded of Bilirubin in the liver
B. Dysfunction of hepatocellular
C. Esterification of conjugated
D. B&C
E. All of the above
75. Creatinine Determination:
A. Skeletal
B. Muscle
C. Heart
D. All of the above
76. The trophozoite which contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm belongs to this parasite:
A. Entamoeba hystolitica
B. Entamoeba gingivalis
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Iodamoeba butschlii
E. Non of the above
77. What is the best time to collect blood for malarial smear:
A. At the beginning or just when the paroxysm is about to start

B. Period before the paroxysm start
C. Period when the paroxysm starts
D. Period after the paroxysm
78. The technician should inform the physician immediately when the blood glucose level is:
A. 60 mg/dl
B. 50 mg/dl
C. 80 mg/dl
D. 110 mg/dl
E. 120 mg/dl
79. Which of the following is an enrichment medium:
D. Chocolate Agar
E. Thiocynate broth
80. The only enrichment medium of following is:
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. Cystine lactose Electrolyte Deficient (CLED)
D. Selenite broth
E. Mac Conkey agar
81. Which of the following is an enriched medium:
A. Nutrient broth
B. Peptone water
C. Normal saline
D. Chocolate agar
82. Which of the following indicates a blood agar plate:
A. C. diphtheria
B. M. tuberculosis
C. B. pertussis
D. F. tularensis
E. Non of the above
83. All are member of the Family Enterobacteriaccae are EXCEPT:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
D. D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Campylobacter jejni
84. To obtain an isotonic media, the Sodium Chloride content should be:
A. 0.85 g %
B. 0.085 g%
C. 8.5 g%
D. 6.5 g%
E. 0.50 g%
85. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast because:
A. It is easily stained by Grams stain
B. Once stained, it cannot be removed by acid
C. It easily decolorizes after stain
D. It is very easy to stain
E. It is stained by an alkaline stain
86. All of the following is a test for liver function except:

A. Bilirubin in urine
B. Bilirubin in Serum
C. Excretory function test
D. Enzyme test
E. All of the above
87. Most of the pathogenic stains of streptococcus belongs to group:
A. Viridan
B. Beta hemolytic
C. Alpha hemolytic
D. Group D
E. Micrococcaciae
88. Beta Hemolysis is enhanced when Group B Streptococcus in streaked at an angle in a blood agar
plate with:
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Micrococcus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidids
E. C. diphtheria
89. All statements are true about Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except:
A. Oxidase negative and liquefies gelatin
B. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mackonkey agar
C. Ureas positive
D. KCN and H2S positive
E. Positive to Indole test
90. All are true about Enterococci except:
A. They are Gamma hemolytic on BAP
B. Ferments Mannitol and Sorbitol
C. Reduce litmus milk with acid and coagulation
D. Growth in Methyline Blue medium
E. Inhabited growth with 6.5 % NaCl and at temperature 60 C
91. All are true about Enterococci except:
A. Have carbohydrate antigen or group D streptococci
B. Positive esculine-hydrolysis and (+) pyr test
C. Grow in the presence of bile salts
D. Do not grow in presence of 6.5 % NaCl nor at 45 C
92. Blood culture may be indicated for:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Corynebacterium diphtheria
C. Shigella dysinteriae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Non of the above
93. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human – infection are:
A. Group A
B. Beta – haemolytic
C. Bacitracin-S and CAMP (-)
D. All of these
E. None of these
94. The gonococcus and menigococcus can best be differentiated by their:
A. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose
B. Fermentation of maltose and lactose
C. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose

95. Identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobiu vermicularis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
96. The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory diagnosis of:
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Scarlet fever
C. Streptococci pharyngitis and cellulites
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. Rheumatic fever
97. Significant bacteriuria, pyuria, and alkaline urine probably indicate urinary infection due to:
A. Staphylococcus epedermidis
B. E. coli
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Enterococcus faecalis
98. Which of the following are prokaryotes?
A. Bacteria
B. Rickettesia
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
E. Chlamydia
99. The organs of adhesion in bacteria are:
A. Flagella
B. Fimbriae
C. Microcapsule
D. Slim layer
100. The thickness of bacterial cell wall ranges between
A. 2-5 nm
B. 5-10 nm
C. 10-15 nm
D. 15-20 nm
101. Which contain more peptidoglycan
A. Gram positive bacilli
B. Gram negative bacilli
C. Chlamydia
D. Rickettsiae
102. Endotoxins are chemically:
A. Mucopeptides
B. Proteins
C. Lipopolysacharides
D. Polysacharides
103. Minimum time required for sterilization by moist heat at 136 C is
A. 2 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 3 minutes
104. Which of the following is biological indicator used to monitor steam sterilizers.
A. Pseudomonas aeruginasa

B. Bacillus stearothermophilus
C. Bacillus anthraces
D. Clostridium difficile
105. Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all following except:
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Mutation
D. Conjugation
106. Te rate of decolonization is the fastest in Grams stain with
A. Acetone
B. Alcohol
C. Mixture of Acetone and Alcohol
D. Acetone plus iodine
107. Best method of staining bacterial capsule is:
A. India ink preparation
B. Grams stain
C. Leishman’s stain
D. Malachite green
108. Which of the following is not true about Nutrient agar:
A. It melts at about 95 C
B. It solidifies at about 34 C
C. It doesn’t inhibit the growth of bacteria
D. It adds nutritive value to the medium
109. All of the following are transport media except:
A. Ammies medium
B. Stuart’s medium
C. Carry Blair’s medium
D. Alkaline peptone water
110. The usual concentration of blood in the blood agar medium is:
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
111. The sources of Peptone include:
A. Heart muscle
B. Casein
C. Fibrin
D. Soya four
E. All of the above
112. The indicator in Mac Conkey agar is:
A. Neutral Red
B. Methyl Red
C. Phenol Red
D. Bromophenol Blue
113. For providing micro aerophilic atmosphere the preferred mixture is:
A. Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen + Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide
D. None of the Above
114. All of the following are oxidase positive except:
A. Neisseria gonorrhea

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Vibrio cholera
E. Brucella
115. Chemically the oxidase reagent is:
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Tetra methyl-P-phenylene – diamine
C. Tributyrim
D. None of the above
116. Which of the following produce urease:
A. Escherichia Coli
B. Proteus Vulgaris
C. Salmonella gallinarum
D. Streptococcus haemoliti
117. Selective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. 2% milk agar
B. 10% Sodium chloride broth
C. Thioglycollate broth
118. The most commonly tested virulence factor in staphylococci is:
A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Fibrinolysin
D. Enterotoxin
119. Group B streptococci cause:
A. Neonatal meningitis
B. Endocarditis
C. Septic abortions
D. All above
120. All following species of Staphylococcus do not produce coagulase except
A. S. Capitis
B. S. hominis
C. S. intermmedius
D. S. haemolyticus
121. Haemophilus influenza cause:
A. Meningitis
B. Respiratory infections
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Otitis media
E. All of the above
122. All following produce oxidase except:
A. Haemophilus species
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Chromobacterium species
123. Which of the following can grow on MacConkey agar:
A. Chromobaterium violaceum
B. Haemophilus parainfluenza
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Eikenella corrodens
124. The colonies of Bordetella pertussis look like:
A. Proached egg

B. Mercury drops
C. Sliver paints
D. Draughtsman
125. The best method of sample collection for Bordetella pertussis:
A. Pernasal swab
B. Cough plate method
C. Post nasal swab
D. Throat swab
126. The best medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Chocolate agar
B. Bordet—Gangou medium
C. Diamidine-penicillin-flouride medium
D. Chocolate agar with bacitracin
127. Which of following is capable of growth at 22 C
A. Neisseria meningitides
B. Neisseria lactamica
C. Neisseria catarrhalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
128. Neisseria meningitides utilizes:
A. Glucose and maltose
B. Maltose and sucrose
C. Sucrose and lactose
D. Glucose and lactose
129. Which of the following are true about Neisseria meningitides:
A. These are Gram negative diplococci
B. Oxidase positive
C. Require 5-10% of carbon dioxide for growth
D. All above
130. The chemotherapeutic agents contained in modified New York City (MNYC) medium are:
A. Amphotericin B
B. Linocomycin
C. Colistin
D. Trimethroprim
E. All of above
131. Which of the following are typical about morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Gram positive thin bacilli
B. Presence of metachromatic granule
C. Club shaped at the ends
D. Arranged at acute angles
E. All above
132. Morphological features of C. diphtheria are best developed on:
A. Blood agar
B. Blood tellurite agar
C. Loeffler serum slope
D. Chocolate agar
133. JK group of corynebacteria are universal sensitivity to:
A. Teracycline
B. Vancomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. All above
134. Which test is used to ascertain toxigenity of C. diphtheria:

A. Elek’s test
B. Dick test
C. Schick test
D. None of the above
135. A smear stained with Ziehl Neelsen stain should not be declared negative unless it has been
examined for at least:
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
136. In Ziehl Neelsen staining used for M. leprae, the decolorizing agent used is:
A. 5% sulphuric acid
B. 10% sulphuric acid
C. 15% sulphuric acid
D. 20% sulphuric acid
137. Voges proskauer (VP) negative organism is:
A. Shigella
B. Klebsiella
C. Enterobacter
D. Serratia
138. Salmonella ‘O’ antigens are also share with:
A. Citrobacter
B. Escherichia coli
C. Shigella
D. Proteus
E. All above
139. Enrichment medium for Salmonella is:
A. Tetrathionate broth
B. Selenite F
C. Strontium chloride broth
D. Any of above
140. Determination of antibodies to Vi antigen in Widal test helps in diagnosis of:
A. Early stage of typhoid fever
B. Typhoid encephalopathy
C. Carrier state
D. Virulent form of typhoid fever
141. ONPG test is positive in all the strains of:
A. S. Flexneri
B. S. boydii
C. S. sonnei
D. S. dysenteriae

142. IgM is
A. Acute Immunoglobulin
B. Immunoglobulin in allergic condition
C. ChronicImmunoglobulin
D. Alpha globulin
143. Intramuscular injection increase the activity of the following enzyme:

144. In blood Glucose estimation the following is required
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Glycosylated Hb
D. Fructoseamine
E. All of the above
145. Female anopheles transmits which disease:
A. Lishmanisasis
B. Filariasis
C. Trypanosoma
D. Malaria
146. Na, K and Cl are best measure?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Flame photo meter
147. Glucose -6- phosphate dehydrogenase is:
A. Cardiac enzyme
B. Pancreatic enzyme
C. AMP pathway enzyme
D. Prostatic enzyme
148. Estimation of G6PDH is a test
A. To diagnose hemolytic anemia
B. To diagnose myocardial infection
C. T diagnose pancreatic disease
149. Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following
150. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme
151. Alkaline Phosphatase is
A. Live enzyme
B. Placental enzyme
C. Bone enzyme
D. All of the above
E. Non of the above
152. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme:
B. Lipase
D. Acid phosphates
153. Vaginal discharge occur with all except:
A. Gardenela
B. Chlamydia
C. Candida

D. Trichomonous Vaginalls
E. Gonorrhea
154. Trypnosoma move by
A. Pseudopodia
B. Cilia
C. Flagella
D. Non of the above
155. Giardia move by
A. Pseudopadia
B. Cilia
C. Flagella
D. None of the above
156. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal tract:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. None of the above
157. The following parasite can seen in the blood:
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Trypanosoma
D. Lishmania
E. All of the above

158. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli:

A. Anthrax
B. Niesseriae
C. E. coli
D. None of the above
159. Sensitivity and specificity are:
A. Directly related
B. Reversely related
C. They men the same
D. Non of the above
160. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase
A. Specificity
B. Sensitivity
C. Linearity
D. Non of the above
161. Serious orgasm that cause food poisoning:
A. Staph. Albus
B. Salmonella entreritidis
C. Clostridium spelica
D. Salmonella typhi


(For Lab. Technician)

Strong Urea’s Producers  (Proteus Species)

Selective and Differential Medium For Enterobacter  DCA (Deoxycholate Citrate Agar)

What Is The Function Of Thyroxine (T4)  (It Is Used In Metabolism)

Chocolate Agar  (Cap) Is Best For Haemophilus Influenzae)

(Thayer Martin- For Nisseria Gonorrhoea) Prolactin

Is Produced By  (Anterior Pituitary Gland)

Target Organ Of Prolactin  (Mammary Gland)

Estrogen Is Produced By  (Ovary)

Causes Of Conjuctivitis Trachoma/ Causative Agent  (Chlamydia Trachomatis)

Identification of Enterobius Vermicularis  (Recovery Of Eggs In Perianal Skin)

Causes whopping Cough  (Bordetela Pertusis) (Border Gongour Medium) Albert
Stain Is Good For  (Coryenbacterium Diphteria)

Alkali burns  (wash with 10 % conc. Acetic acid)

An Indicator Means  (Changes of Color / Ph Range)

When It Becomes Red  (Acidic)

When It Becomes Blue  (Alkaline)

Gram + Bacteria on Gram Stain  (Colored Dark Purple)

Iodine Stain for Entamoeba Histolytica  (For Identification of Chromatoidal Bodies)

Medium for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Tb  (Lowenstein Jensen Medium LJ)

Slight Haemolysis Cause  (Increased K Level)
Visceral Leishmaniasis Caused By (Leishmania Donovan)  (Kala Zar)
PTT detects  (intrinsic factor abnormalities).
Prothrombine Time Detects  (Extrinsic Factor Abnormalties )
Found in hyperglycemic coma  (ketones in urine ).
Citrate Test Differentiates  (Gram Negative Enterobacteriaceae)
Example salmonella is citrate +
Indirect antiglobulin test  (Detect Antibody/ Antibody Screening Of Sensitizing Patient's Rbcs)
Intermediate host of Leishmania species-  (Phlebotomus sand fly)
Intermediate Host Of Trypanosoma  (Tsetse Fly)
Identification of malarial parasites & RBCs morphology  (thin smear)
Rh negative patients  (has no D antigen)
Storage form of glucose  (Glycogen)
Prevent atherosclerosis  (HDL Cholesterol)
Albert stain  (Best for Corynebacterium diphteriae)
Best for Sterilizing Media  (Autoclave)
Oxidase +  (Pseudomonas Aeroginosa)
Function of Cortisol  (Metabolsim)
Best Fixative for Blood Film  (Ethyl Alcohol)
Best Fixative for Thin Smear  (Ethyl Alcohol)
Causes Oriental Scar  (Leishmania (Cutaneous))
Normal Rbcs Count For Male  (4.5 - 6.5)
Normal Glucose Level  (70 - 140 (Random))
H Antigen  (Flagellar Antigen)
Causes Scarlet Fever  (Streptococcus Pyogene)
Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome  (Staph Aureus)
Ziehl Nelson stain is used for  (Mycobacterium sp).
Cellular / Cell Immunity  (T-Lymphocyte/Lymphocytes)
Monocyte  (Also Macrophage)
Optochin test is used to  (Differentiate between strept. Pneumonia from Strep. Viridans)
Chinese letter like bacteria  (Corynebacterium diphteriae)
AST/SGOT  (Best For Diagnosing Both Liver damage & myocardial infarction)
ALT/SGPT  (Increase only in liver damage, not in myocardial infarction (MI)


I m thank full to my ALLAH

And also I thank full to my friend Mr. Sami Khan, he help me in download these data, I thank full to Dr. Faiz ,

Pathologist, Rabigh General Hospital, KSA, Dr. Muhammad Abdul Aziz, Pathologist, Al-Nakheel National

Clinic and Mr. Mostfa, Lab. Technician they help me to answers these questions.


Muhammad Younis
Lab. Technician
NNP, Rabigh, KSA