CCNA 2 Exams Solved

CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers
1. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a

router?
-use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router

telnet to the router through a serial port
use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router
2. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow

a connection to the console port of a router?
2400
4800
-9600
14200
38400
3. What is the default sequence for loading the IOS?
NVRAM, TFTP, FLASH

NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, ROM, TFTP
-FLASH, TFTP, ROM
TFTP, FLASH, ROM
4. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are

correct? (Choose three.)
-User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.

Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router
operation.
Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC
or privileged EXEC modes.
-On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode
is Core1#.
The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
-A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.
5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from
the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
-the last restart method

the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
-the configuration register settings
-the location for loading the IOS
6. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from
the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
-the last restart method

the tftp software version installed
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
-the configuration register settings
-the location used for loading the IOS
7. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are
those two levels? (Choose two.)
global
-privileged
local
-user
interface
8. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start

-after issuing the command Router#setup
-during the initial configuration of a router
-after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router
after deleting the running configuration
9. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and

enable secret are both configured on a router?
enable password
-enable secret
Neither. They are both enabled.
Neither. They cancel each other out.
10. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following

connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
-Telnet
modem
11. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially
configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

2) a rollover cable
-1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

-2) a rollover cable
-3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a rollover cable
12. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
-recover from system failures

create startup configuration files
-recover from lost passwords
configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
perform high level diagnostics
13. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
-load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
14. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
all show commands allowed in privileged mode

-all commands beginning with the letters sh
an incomplete command error message
an invalid command error message
15. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
-Ctrl-A
Ctrl-B
Esc-A
Esc-B
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-Z
16. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network
administrator? (Choose three.)
the amount of NVRAM required to run the image

-the hardware platform the image runs on
the various software platforms the image can run on
-special features and capabilities of the image
the bandwidth supported by the IOS
-where the image executes from and if it has been compressed
17. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
-NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM
18. What is the maximum number of commands allowed in the history buffer?
10
20
128
255
-256
19. The active IOS of the router is initialized from FLASH. In this scenario, what
commands would be used to display the name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)
Router#show IOS
-Router#show flash
Router#show nvram
-Router#show version
Router#show startup-config
Router#show running-config
20. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the
interface configuration mode?
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
-Ctrl-Z
Esc
21. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature?
(Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
-Set the command history buffer size.
-Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
Labels: CCNA 2, Module 2 Exam
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CCNA Discovery 4.0: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or

ISP - Chapter 1 Exam Answers
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose
two.)
the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
* the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to
return to the source
* whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to
respond
2. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer
once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and
other account information?
* help desk
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning
3. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by

medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
* metro Ethernet
* T1
* T3
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
* echo request issued by source

echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
* peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP
network to obtain Internet access?
* at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet
7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail

the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
* the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer
connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
customer service
help desk
* network operations
on-site installation
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has
existing network hardware and circuits installed?
customer service
help desk
network operations
* planning and provisioning
10. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
* research
commerce
11. What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet

* to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients
12. Which command generated this output?
1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec

2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
* Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4

Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and
identifies routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
* traceroute
ixp
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
gateway routers
* IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes
15. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces

ease of repair
* modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-

owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access,
redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will
fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
* equipment colocation
Tier 1 ISP services
17. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
1979
1984
* 1991
1999
2000
18. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
* bits per second

bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second
19. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
* 1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP?
(Choose three.)
* help desk
computer support
application readiness
* network operations center
* planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation
Labels: CCNA 2, Module 1 Exam, v4.0
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1 What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to
Layer 4 of the OSI model?
* bits, frames, packets, segments
frames, bits, packets, segments
packets, frames, segments, bits
segments, packets, frames, bits
2 Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
incorrect subnet mask

incorrect default gateway
* loose network cable
NIC improperly installed
3 What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
adding the hardware address

* converting data to bits
encapsulating data into frames
* signal generation
routing packets
4 Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes
the trouble ticket.
Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration
error and close the trouble ticket.
* After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the
trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for
future reference.
5 A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI
model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
* Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
* What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping www.cisco.com?
6 Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
Level 1
Level 2
* Level 3
Level 4
7 What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
conserving support resources

* network optimization
competitive scalability
* customer retention
sales of network services
8 Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model?
(Choose two.)
placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission

* initiating the network communication process
* encrypting and compressing data for transmission
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network
9 A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The

help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which
question would the technician ask the customer first?
* Can you access other web sites?

Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
What is your IP address?
Is the link light lit on your NIC card?
10 Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot
issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
* ping
a packet sniffer
Telnet
* ipconfig
* traceroute
11 Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
source MAC address

destination MAC address
source IP address
* destination IP address
12 What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
* opening a trouble ticket

using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
surveying network conditions for further analysis
configuring new equipment and software upgrades
* adhering to a problem-solving strategy
e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer
13 A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem
and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician
ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
* Is the NIC link light blinking?

What is the IP address and subnet mask?
* Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
* Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
Can you access your e-mail account?
14 Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
* application, presentation, session

application, session, network
presentation, transport, network
presentation, network, data link
session, transport, network
15 An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that
no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing
the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the
customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician
suspect is causing the customer's problem?
improper IP address configuration on the host

hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
bad cables or connections at the customer site
* failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
16 Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.

A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
* A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.
17 Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
routes data between networks

converts data to bits for transmission
* delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
formats and encodes data for transmission
transmits data to the next directly connected device
18 What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic
approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
identify and prioritize alternative solutions

isolate the cause of the problem
* define the problem
select an evaluation process
19 In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to
solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
* talking to the customer on the telephone

upgrading hardware and software
* using various web tools
making an onsite visit
installing new equipment
* with remote desktop sharing applications
20 A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable
modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has
verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician
should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
* What is your subnet mask?

* What is your IP address?
Is the NIC link light blinking?
* Can you ping the default gateway?
Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?
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1. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two

statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.

* Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
* Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for
unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
2. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose
two.)
serial cable
* rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
* console cable
3. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals

* the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
* the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
* the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
4. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer
network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service
provider?
backbone area
* point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame
5. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers
including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
STP
UTP
*coaxial
fiber optic
6. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the
customer before beginning the network design?
to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
* to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans
for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and
replacements
7. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report?
(Choose three.)
* unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
* poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
* lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer
8. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
does not require leasing costs for service

* can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
* increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement
9. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a

telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
faster communication speeds

* improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
* centralized cable management
less electrical usage
10. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the
current telecommunications room?
MDF
POP
* IDF
IXP
11. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s".
What is meant by this?
* A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.

A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days
a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five
days a week.
12. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
repeater
hub
* router
switch
13. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and
networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while
performing the site survey?
any obsolete office equipment being stored

all product keys for site license software
* any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software
14. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite
technician perform? (Choose two.)
configure the servers and routers prior to delivery

* upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
* document the final design for approval by the customer
perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
15. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
hub
router
* switch
access point
16. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
* switches and routers
fax machines
* network equipment racks
* the point of presence
copier
17. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
* An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration
and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network
security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to
the network than do other routers.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each
device?
A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight

A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
* A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP
for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose
two.)
Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new

equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the
customer.
* Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT
staff to complete the upgrade.
* The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the
equipment upfront.
20. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit

growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated

* a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
21. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
* scalability
manageability
compatibility
* reliability
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1. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
* 128 to 191
128 to 192
2. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight
bits?
128
254
255
* 256
512
1024
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the
default subnet mask?
* 254
255
256
510
511
512
4. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first

bit.
* The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the
network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
* Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental
use.
5. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
* improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
* improved scalability
universal application compatibility
* sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
6. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below

* 1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above
7. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
* Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
8. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other
specific address type?
inside global
outside local
* outside global
private IP address
9. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0

with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
* 192.168.32.255
10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access
to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the
exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
* 128
192
256
512
12. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct
answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
13. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
* Class C
Class D
Class E
14. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP

address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP
address.
* Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different
port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use
for communications.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are
connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95

192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
* 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
* to preserve registered public IP addresses

to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
* to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to
be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.

The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
* The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.

* Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network
devices that access the Internet.
19. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of
255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts
in each subnet?
6
14
* 30
62
20. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
* 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
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1
Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a
subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network
administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway.
Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the
administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
* X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
2
Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an
administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
* Frame Relay
* HDLC
PAP
* PPP
3
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the
modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
* VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
* privileged EXEC mode
* router configuration mode
4
A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following
connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
* Telnet
modem
5
What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen?
(Choose three.)
* host name
DHCP options
* domain name
interface IP addresses
* enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
6
A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco
switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-
duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation.
However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and
excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
* There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation
NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of
the switch.
7
Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable
administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and
management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
* Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

* Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
* Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

* Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
* Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
* Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4

* Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
* Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
8
Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the
exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
* clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
9
Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a
Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do
from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.

* Telnet to the switch from the router console.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection
to check these settings.
10
Which command will display routing table information about all known networks
and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces

Router# show ip connections
* Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
11
Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table

* retains contents when power is removed
* stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
12
In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
* SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-
band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a
web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited
number of Cisco devices.
* SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-
based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for
initial basic device configuration.
13
What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that
receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or
Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
* DNS server IP address
14
Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode

setup mode
ROM monitor mode
* user EXEC mode
15
Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial
interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
* Easy IP (IP negotiated)

IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
* PPP encapsulation
16
To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by
typing which key or key combination?
* Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
17
What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to
"LAB_A"?
Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
* Router> enable
* Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
18
Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the
show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
* platform
routing protocol
connected interface of neighbor device
* device ID
* IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
19
Which command turns on a router interface?
* Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of
the configuration that is shown?
virtual terminal only

enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
* all configured passwords
21
A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command
will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the
changes?
* router# show running-config

router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
22
Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are
attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

* Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0

* Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
* Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
* Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

23
Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose
two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

* Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
* Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
24
Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode?
(Choose two.)
All router commands are available.

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
* A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
* Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
25
How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber

blinks rapidly green
* steady amber
steady green
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1
What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in
RIPv1 updates?
metric
* subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
2
Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator
suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can
be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
* ping
show arp
* traceroute
* show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
3
In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system
number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet

when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
* when the company uses two or more ISPs
4
What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing
policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
* autonomous system
5
What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
* It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet
forwarding.
6
What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols
are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing
protocols are used inside * organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system.
Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
* Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous
system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple
autonomous systems.
7
Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-
state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do
distance vector routing protocols.
Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing
protocols update one router at a time.
Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector
routers know about every router in the network.
* Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using
distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
* Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire
network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically
converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could
separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each
other?
14
* 15
16
17
9
Consider this routing table entry:
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
* a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
10
Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing
protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
* Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has
converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has
converged.
11
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes
down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
* in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
immediately
12
Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
* destination IP address
destination MAC address
13
What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
* border gateway router

DSLAM
web server
interior router
14
Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
* BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
15
Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
* debug ip rip config
show ip rip database
16
Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and
configuration?
show version
show ip route
show interface
* show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
17
Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.

* They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
* They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or
shutdown.
18
Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
* BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
19
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to
the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
* routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
20
Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip route
show ip rip
debug ip rip
* show ip protocols
21
Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in
an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address

* router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
22
What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own
autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection

a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
* a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through
different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
* a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
23
What statement is true regarding an AS number?
* AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.

Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
24
What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol

to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
* to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
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1
To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is
based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
* availability
* reliability
scalability
2
A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP.
The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services.
Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required b
are three charactey the company? (Choose three.)
* FTP
* HTTP
ICMP
PPP
Telnet
* SMTP
3
Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
* mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
* forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
4
When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at
the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session?
(Choose two.)
* IP address
MAC address
* session number
sequence number
5
What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link
layers.
* It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
* It encrypts packets with SSL.
* It requires additional server processing time.
6
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with
Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What
happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.

Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
* Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
7
What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination
hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
* It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon
initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
8
Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
* In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
* It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
9
User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of
the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.

A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client
computers in order to send the e-mail message.
* It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from
the destination server.
* SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
10
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a
valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
* Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
11
Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number?
(Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
* HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
* SMTP - 25
12
Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI
model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual
protocols.
* The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
* The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven
layers.
13
Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
* reverse lookup
14
Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
* source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
15
What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
* low overhead
* no flow control
* no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
* If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
* The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the
Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from
DNS.
17
Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a
server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
* SMTP
HTTPS
18
What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
* Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
* Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
* The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
19
A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network.
How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
* The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
20
What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
* caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
21
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource
records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
* dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
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1 Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting

and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every
access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
* accounting
authorization
2 Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network

technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose
two.)
applications
physical addresses
packet size
* ports
* protocols
3 A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using
Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
authentication
authorization
* accounting
accessing
4 Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for
transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
* IPSEC
* SSL
* HTTPS
FTP
TFTP
5 A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of
users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the
administrator take? (Choose two.)
* Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
* Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are
requested.
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job
tasks.
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
6 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the
network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent
7 What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the
firewall?
"clean" LAN
intranet
* DMZ
extranet
8 What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably
completed? (Choose two.)
* reviewing backup logs
performing trial backups
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
* using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
9 A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of

communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which
firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet filtering
proxy
* stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection
10 What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network

resources?
auditing
accounting
* authorization
access control
authentication
acknowledgement
11 A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it
is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It
is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless
network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access
to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
* The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his
wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before
penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his
own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
12 Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a
syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
* date and time of message
* ID of sending device
length of message
* message ID
checksum field
community ID
13 Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
* encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines
14 Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
* HTTP
* SNMP
* Telnet
TFTP
DHCP
15 Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data.

Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
* full
incremental
partial
16 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide

a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll
17 When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?

when a server needs to be monitored across the network
* when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the
entire network
when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP
18 What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless
access.
* It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and
access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility
with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access
to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
19 What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol
used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
* IPSEC
TLS
20 What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data?
(Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
* Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
* Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
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ISP - Final Exam Answers
1
A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should
be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web
server?
FTPS
HTTP
HTTPS
WEP2
TFTP
2
Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network
and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the
database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new
branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router?
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
3
Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the
privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are
displayed? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
Router(config)# encryption-password all
Router(config)# enable login encrypted
Router(config)# enable password encryption
Router(config)# service password-encryption
4
A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must
be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the
new network? (Choose three.)
Select the routing protocol to be configured.
Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new
interface IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet
mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new
network information.
5
How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data?
If data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the
segments be resent.
If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the
destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data.
TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all
data has been received.
The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and
destination.
6
A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access
to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public
IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
port address translation
7
What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol?
BGP
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with
a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
Router# ip hostname Boise
Router# enable hostname Boise
Router(config-line)# name Boise
Router(config)# hostname Boise
Router(config)# ip hostname Boise
9
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
10
What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
11
Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a
Cisco router? (Choose two.)
The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time.
The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration
mode.
The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is
displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands.
Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only
when necessary.
The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command
whenever possible.
12
What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent
to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.)
DNS server
WINS server
IP address
NetBIOS
subnet mask
default gateway
13
A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary
replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the
switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from
blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED?
The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM.
The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service.
The switch is functioning properly.
The switch is in half-duplex mode.
14
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct?
A - crossover, B - straight-through, C - straight-through
A - crossover, B - rollover, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B -crossover, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B -straight-through, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B - straight-through, C - crossover
A - rollover, B - straight-through, C - straight-through
15
After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate
the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not
operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely
occurring?
transport
network
data link
physical
16
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their
destination
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the
same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the
192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks?
with BGP
with a static route
with a directly connected route
with an interior routing protocol
18
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A
to Switch1?
rollover
console
crossover
straight-through
19
When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem
is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central
office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
packet switched
circuit switched
point-to-point
20
A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician
employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the
user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the
user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the
user do next?
Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault.
Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault.
Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC.
Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.
21
A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if
workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is
successful? (Choose two.)
The router will block the ping request message.
The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.
22
How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
manual configuration of routes
updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base
23
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown?
(Choose two.)
The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running
on the client.
The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.
The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.
24
What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the
presence of the destination
determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer
requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in
preparation for data transfer
25
Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
host address
network address
broadcast address
multicast address
26
A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning
the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are
functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
misconfigured firewall
bad port on switch or hub
misconfigured IP addressing on the customer's workstation
wrong DNS server configured on the customer's workstation
wrong default gateway configured on the customer's workstation
27
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the
graphic and the following output was displayed:
C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0

R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1
From which router was this command executed?

A
B
C
D
28
Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure
passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15
ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class
ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco
ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown
ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0
29
A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-
mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user
workstation?
the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application
the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate
the DHCP settings in the operating system
the IP address, mask, and default gateway values
the NIC drivers
30
Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to
direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
31
Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address?
(Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
255.255.0.0
255.192.0.0
240.0.0.0
255.0.0.0
32
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB
interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that
is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route
from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the
administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.)
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
33
How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network
destinations.
They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as
they occur.
They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and
servers.
They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.
34
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic
needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network.
Which cable type is the best choice?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic
35
What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the
routing table?
Convergence time
Default distance
Metric
Type of router
36
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the
diagram? (Choose two.)
192.168.65.31
192.168.65.32
192.168.65.35
192.168.65.60
192.168.65.63
192.168.65.64
37
Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would
accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet?
255.255.0.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
38
Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a
centralized network management device? (Choose two.)
Syslog
Telnet
HTTP
HTTPS
SNMP
39
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a
single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered
addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external
access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
40
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router
RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB?
(Choose two.)
The router is connected to a router named Boise.
Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router.
Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers.
The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6.
The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.
41
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to
configure a default route to the ISP network :
A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo
request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and
the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem?
The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is
10.1.1.5.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the
next hop address.
The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.
42
A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about
the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer
protocol makes this possible?
SNMP
FTP
DHCP
SMTP
43
What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.)
to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts
to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client
computers
to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process
to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses
to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system
44
A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server
inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire
packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the
inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
an IDS
an IPS
a host-based firewall
Anti-X software
45
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the
130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096
46
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data
packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
47
A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in
order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which
WAN connection type is best suited to its needs?
Sonet
T3
dialup
DSL
leased line
48
The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will
this command do?
copy the configuration in RAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM
49
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0
interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached
to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task?
(Choose two.)
RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
50
Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown.
What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.)
to map the path to 192.168.1.7
to test reachability to 192.168.1.7
to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7
to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the
address 192.168.1.7
to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the
technician's workstation

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CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers

1. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a

-use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router

2. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow

3. What is the default sequence for loading the IOS?

NVRAM, TFTP, FLASH

4. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are

-User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.

The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.

-A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

-the last restart method

-the last restart method

immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start

9. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and

10. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

1) PC's Ethernet port

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

-1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

1) PC's Ethernet port

-recover from system failures

-load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

all show commands allowed in privileged mode

15. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?

the amount of NVRAM required to run the image

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Labels: CCNA 2, Module 2 Exam

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CCNA Discovery 4.0: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or

the number of routers between the source and destination device

3. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

* echo request issued by source

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?

7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?

the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail

10. What was the original purpose of the Internet?

11. What is the purpose of an RFC?

to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet

12. Which command generated this output?

1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec

* Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?

a fixed number of interfaces

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-

18. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?

* bits per second

Labels: CCNA 2, Module 1 Exam, v4.0

CCNA Discovery 4.0: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or

2 Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?

incorrect subnet mask

adding the hardware address

* Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

6 Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?

conserving support resources

placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission

9 A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The

* Can you access other web sites?

11 Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?

source MAC address

12 What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)

* opening a trouble ticket