Exam Title

: HP HP0-081 : OpenVMS System Administration

Version : R6.1

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1. What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for a process? A. F$USER B. F$GETJPI C. F$GETJOB D. F$PROCESS Answer: B 2. Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table? A. DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL B. DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL C. DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL D. DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL Answer: B 3. After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What happens to the logical name LOGNAME? A. It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group. B. It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit. C. It is placed into the process logical name table. D. It is visible to all processes in this process tree. Answer: D 4. Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent? A. The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request. B. The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution. C. The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request. D. The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process. Answer: B 5. Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO. A. created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory B. printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained C. printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted D. given the same protection as the batch queue E. created in the same directory as the command procedure F. given the same protection as the batch procedure

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 Answer: AC 6. What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol? A. DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA:: B. SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA C. CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET D. SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET Answer: B 7. Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is executing? A. SET NOON B. SET VERIFY C. @procedure/VERIFY D. @procedure/OUTPUT=file Answer: B 8. Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO. A. The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full. B. When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile. C. The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX. D. The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device. E. The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile. Answer: BD 9. What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE. A. non-stop processing B. massively parallel computing C. single security domain D. transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems E. shared storage across multiple systems F. cross-node automatic process failover G. high availability Answer: CEG 10. What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)? A. The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO. B. BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory. C. BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O. D. Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.

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 Answer: C 11. VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO. A. host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes B. host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server C. communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager D. direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database E. host systems in the cluster communicating with each other Answer: BE 12. To what does the term "working set" refer? A. processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set B. virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state C. virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table D. virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault Answer: D 13. By default, which file stores the system audit records? A. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG B. SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL C. SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT D. SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL Answer: D 14. To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used? A. SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL B. ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL C. ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS

SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL D. SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL Answer: D 15. Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process? A. STOP AUDIT_SERVER B. SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH C. SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT D. SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER Answer: C ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS

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 16. Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?

A. DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH B. DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH" C. DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH" D. SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH" Answer: B 17. What is the purpose of security auditing? A. prevent hackers from penetrating the system B. analyze system usage and project future growth trends C. analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security D. gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption Answer: C 18. Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE. A. SHOW LICENSE /LURT B. LICENSE LIST /TABLE C. SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE D. LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS E. SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT F. SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT Answer: ABCDEF 19. Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed, which statements are true? Select TWO. A. PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches B. PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option. C. @SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option. D. PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data. E. PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the

/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option. Answer: BD 20. Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk? A. CURRENT

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 B. OVERWRITE C. INITIALIZE D. PRESERVE Answer: C 21. What logical name does PCSI (Polycenter Software Installation) use to direct the installation to the location of the kit being installed? A. PCSI$KWD B. PCSI$KIT_LOCATION C. PCSI$SOURCE D. PCSI$KIT_DIRECTORY Answer: C 22. Which AlphaServer console utility configures a Fibre Channel storage boot device? A. sanconfig B. bootmgr C. wwidmgr D. disk_config Answer: C 23. A customer has an OPENVMS-ALPHA-ADL license PAK for 1600 units permitting 16 interactive users on a standalone node. As the business expands, an additional 8 users are required. The customer purchases an OPENVMS-ALPHA-ADL PAK with 800 units. The PAK is registered using the LICENSE REGISTER command. When logging in a 17th user, the customer receives the message, "Attempted usage exceeds active license limits." What is the most likely explanation? A. The LICENSE ACTIVATE command must be issued. B. The new PAK does not have the current node on its INCLUDE list. C. The LICENSE LOAD command has not been issued since registering the PAK. D. The license PAK checksum was entered incorrectly. Answer: C 24. Which command obtains only the release notes from a PCSI kit? A. $ @SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL -RSP B. $ PRODUCT EXTRACT C. $ BACKUP/SELECT D. $ PRODUCT RELEASE_NOTES Answer: B 25. What is the SCSSYSTEMID for the DECNET address 4.27? A. 427

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 B. 1051 C. 4027 D. 4123 Answer: D 26. Users in an OpenVMS cluster complain about slow write I/O using an MSCP served disk. How can you speed up data access? Select TWO. A. Move the data to a local disk. B. Turn the disk into a shadow set. C. Increase DIOLM quota for the users. D. Migrate the users to the system serving the disk. Answer: AD 27. To prevent AUTOGEN from changing system parameters set with SYSGEN, which file should be modified? A. SETPARAMS.DAT B. MODPARAMS.DAT C. ALPHAVMSSYS.PAR D. AGEN$ADDHISTORY.DAT Answer: B 28. When physical memory consumption reaches a certain level, what will the system do? Select THREE. A. stop dormant processes B. flush the modified page list C. allocate pages from paged pool D. recover pages from the pagefile E. swap processes out of memory F. recover pages from process working sets Answer: BEF 29. AUTOGEN reads the MODPARAMS.DAT file during which phase? A. SAVPARAMS B. GETDATA C. GENPARAMS D. REBOOT Answer: B 30. What is the primary purpose of XFC? A. to increase file extension headers B. to increase file read performance

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 C. to increase directory file updates D. to increase file write performance Answer: B 31. What is the free page list? A. a list of zeroed pages available per process B. a cache of physical pages available for allocation C. a list of free process pages available for deallocation D. a cache of free physical pages available to the modified page list Answer: B 32. The SHOW SYSTEM command displays many processes in the COM state. What could be the explanation? A. This process class is currently executing. B. A CPU intensive process at a high priority is executing. C. A well-balanced CPU is in use in a cluster environment. D. The processes are executing tasks for other processes. Answer: B 33. Which utilities can be used to increase the size of the page file? Select THREE. A. SYSGEN.EXE B. AUTOGEN.COM C. SYCONFIG.COM D. PAGESWAP$CONFIGURE.COM E. CONFIG$SYSTEM.COM F. SWAPFILES.COM Answer: ABF 34. On an AlphaServer using SYS0, which console command is valid for performing a conversational boot? A. BOOT/R5 DGA176 B. BOOT/CONV DGA176 C. BOOT -FLAGS 1,0 DGA176 D. BOOT -FLAGS 0,1 DGA176 Answer: D 35. What is the correct BACKUP command to save the dumpfile data to tape? A. BACKUP <source> <destination> B. BACKUP/IGNORE=NOBACKUP <source> <destination> C. BACKUP/IGNORE=INTERLOCK <source> <destination> D. BACKUP/INCLUDE=<dumpfile> <source> <destination>

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 Answer: B 36. Which command boots a node from the network? A. BOOT EWA0 B. BOOT DGA100 C. BOOT/DEV= EWA0 DGA100 D. BOOT -FLAGS 0,1 DGA100 Answer: A 37. While performing a conversational boot, which parameter do you set to display the execution of the startup command procedure? A. STARTUP_P1 to "true" B. STARTUP_P2 to "true" C. STARTUP_DISPLAY to "full" D. STARTUP_DISPLAY to "verbose" Answer: B 38. What starts layered products at boot time? Select TWO. A. INSTALL utility B. SYSMAN utility C. SYSGEN utility D. SYSTARTUP_LP.COM E. SYSTARTUP_VMS.COM Answer: BE 39. What is displayed if you perform a conversational boot and issue the following commands? SYSBOOT> SET/STARTUP OPA0: SYSBOOT> Continue A. SYSBOOT> B. the DCL $ prompt C. "%SYSINIT-E-ILLCMD, Illegal startup command" D. a prompt for the correct startup command procedure Answer: B 40. Which function does the JOB_CONTROL process perform? A. create the LNM$JOB logical name table B. replies to user requests for tape mounts C. copies the contents of error buffers to errorlog files D. creates interactive, batch, and symbiont processes Answer: D 41. Click the Exhibit button.

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