Question Paper

Economics – I (121) : January 2004

Section A : Basic Concepts (40 Marks)

• • This section consists of questions with serial number 1 - 40.

• • Answer all questions.
• • Each question carries one mark.

1. < Answer
The difference between, the price an individual is willing to pay and the price he or she actually pays is >

a. Producer cost b. Monopolist profit c. Economic profit d. Producer surplus

e. Consumer surplus.
2. < Answer
Which of the following statements are false? >

I. Elasticity of demand is graphically represented by the slope of the demand curve.

II. Elasticity of demand increases as one goes down along the demand curve.
III. If the demand is inelastic, a decrease in price increases the total revenue of the firm.
IV. Elasticity of demand is measured by dividing change in quantity demanded with the
change in the price of the good.

a. Both (I) and (II) above b. Both (II) and (III) above c. (I), (II) and (III) above
d. (I), (II) and (IV) above e. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
3. < Answer
The demand for most products varies directly with the change in consumer income. Such products are >
known as
a. Normal goods b. Prestigious goods c. Complementary goods
d. Inferior goods e. Substitute goods.
4. < Answer
A combination of Capital (K) and Labor (L) lies to the right of the firm’s cost line; it means that the >
combination is
a. Undesirable b. Efficient, given the budget
c. Inefficient, given the budget d. Unattainable, given the budget
e. Inferior to the points within the constraint in terms of production.
5. < Answer
The horizontal demand curve for a firm is one of the characteristic features of >

a. Oligopoly b. Monopoly c. Monopolistic competition

d. Perfect competition e. Duopoly.
6. < Answer
Increasing marginal costs with increase of output implies >

a. Decreasing average returns b. Decreasing average fixed costs

c. Decreasing average variable costs d. Decreasing total costs
e. Decreasing average costs.
7. < Answer
In which of the following market structures the entry is least difficult? >
a. Pure monopoly b. Oligopoly c. Duopoly d. Regulated monopoly
e. Monopolistic competition.
8. < Answer
A perfectly competitive firm attains break-even point when the firm’s >

a. AR < AC b. AR > AC c. AR = AC d. MR > MC e. MR =

MC.
9. < Answer
The vertical distance between the Total Cost (TC) curve and the Total Variable Cost (TVC) curve >
reflects
a. The law of diminishing returns b. The average fixed cost at each level of output
c. Marginal cost at each level of output d. Average variable cost at each level of output
e. Total fixed cost at each level of output.
10. Which of the following does not cause a shift in the demand curve? < Answer
>
a. Change in the price of the good b. Change in the income of the buyers
c. Change in the personal preferences d. Change in the price of the related goods
e. Change in the consumer patterns.
11. < Answer
Which of the following is a common feature in both a monopolistically competitive market and an
 >
oligopoly market?
a. Product differentiation b. Interdependence among member firms
c. Kinked demand curve d. Limited number of sellers
e. Entry is blocked.
12. The frequent formation of cartels by firms in the cement industry in India indicates that the cement < Answer
>
industry in the country is
a. A monopoly b. Perfectly competitivec. An oligopoly
d. A monopsony e. An oligopsony.
13. If the purchase of a good can be postponed, it implies that the < Answer
>

a. Demand for the good is perfectly inelastic

b. Demand for the good is relatively inelastic
c. Demand for the good is relatively elastic
d. Demand for the good is unitary elastic
e. Demand curve for the good is vertical.
14. Which of the following is/are true if the long run average cost is increasing? < Answer
>

a. A rising marginal cost curve

b. Operation of law of diminishing marginal productivity
c. Economies of scale
d. Both (a) and (c) above
e. (a), (b) and (c) above.
15. The supply curve of a monopolist < Answer
>

a. Is the portion of MC curve that lies above the AVC curve

b. Is the portion of MC curve that lies above the AC curve
c. Is vertical
d. Is horizontal
e. Is absent.
16. An entrepreneur in order to maximize the profits, without affecting the price, should produce an output < Answer
>
where
a. Average cost is minimum b. Average variable cost is minimum
c. Average fixed cost is minimum d. Marginal cost is equal to the average variable
cost
e. Marginal cost is minimum.
17. The cost curve(s) that depends on the level of output in the long run is/are < Answer
>
a. Total costs b. Total variable costs c. Average fixed costs
d. Both (a) and (b) above e. Both (a) and (c) above.
18. Through more advertising, a monopolistically competitive firm has successfully created more demand < Answer
>
for its product. It would have resulted in shifting of
a. AC curve upward
b. MR curve to the left
c. AC curve upward and MR curve to the left
d. AC curve upward and MR curve to the right
e. AC curve downward and MR curve to the right.
19. A consumer consumes two products, A and B. If the marginal rate of substitution (MRS ) remains < Answer
AB
>
constant, the shape of the indifference curve is
a. Concave to origin b. Convex to origin
c. Straight line with negative slope d. Straight line with positive slope
e. L-shaped.
20. If marginal product is negative, it means that the < Answer
>
a. Total product is at maximum b. Average product is at maximum
c. Average product is falling d. Total product is increasing
e. Average product is negative.
21. A firm realizes least-cost in production, if it substitutes the factors until their < Answer
>
a. Prices are equal
b. Marginal physical products are equal
 c. Marginal physical products are equal to their factor prices
d. Marginal physical products are equal to zero
e. Marginal physical product to the factor price ratio is equal for all factor inputs.
22. The intersection of marginal product curve and average product curve characterizes the point of < Answer
>
a. Maximum profit b. Maximum total product
c. Maximum average product d. Maximum marginal product
e. Zero marginal product.
23. Because of product differentiation, a monopolistically competitive firm faces a (an) < Answer
>
a. Horizontal demand curve b. Vertical demand curve
c. Downward sloping demand curve d. Upward sloping supply curve
e. Horizontal supply curve.
24. In perfect competition, the long run equilibrium price is equal to < Answer
>
I. Marginal Revenue.
II. Average Cost.
III. Marginal Cost.
IV Average Revenue.

a. Both (I) and (III) above b. (I), (II) and (III) above
c. (I), (III) and (IV) above d. (II), (III) and (IV) above
e. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
25. Which of the following cost curves is not ‘U’ shaped? < Answer
>
a. Long run average cost curve b. Long run marginal cost curve
c. Short run average cost curve d. Average variable cost curve
e. Average fixed cost curve.
26. A curve drawn indicating the slope of the total utility curve closely resembles the < Answer
>
a. Demand curve b. Supply curve c. Average utility curve
d. Marginal revenue curve e. Indifference curve.
27. < Answer
A kinked demand curve occurs in an oligopoly when a firm >

a. Increases its price and others follow it

b. Increases its price and others do not follow it
c. Decreases its price and others follow it
d. Decreases its price and others do not follow it
e. Both (b) and (c) of the above.
28. < Answer
The difference between economic profit and accounting profit is >

a. Selling and administrative expenses

b. Depreciation
c. Explicit costs
d. Implicit costs
e. There is no difference between economic profit and accounting profit.
29. < Answer
If the firm operates in such a way that the additional revenue from selling an additional unit equals the >
cost of producing an additional unit, it reaches the

I. Profit maximization point.

II. Price maximization point.
III. Cost minimization point.
IV. Revenue maximization point.

a. Only (I) above b. Both (I) and (III) above

c. (I), (II) and (III) above d. (I), (III) and (IV) above
e. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
30. Which of the following is not true? < Answer
>
a. If the demand for wheat is highly inelastic, bumper crop may reduce farm incomes
b. Supply and demand curves tend to be more elastic in the long run
c. In general, elasticity of demand for necessities is less than luxury goods
d. A producer can always increase his total revenue by increasing the price when the demand is
elastic
e. A Giffen good is always an inferior good.
31. In the long run, which of the following is true of a firm in a perfectly competitive industry? < Answer
>
a. It operates at its minimum average cost
b. The price is more than the average fixed cost
c. The marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue
d. The fixed cost is lower than the total variable cost
e. The price is equal to minimum of AVC.
32. < Answer
One of the reasons for the existence of natural monopoly is >

a. Economies of scale b. Diminishing marginal rate of productivity

c. Downward sloping demand curve d. Formation of cartels
e. Lower fixed cost requirement.
33. < Answer
A firm operating in a monopolistically competitive market earns only normal profits in the long run >
because of

a. Economies of scale b. Relative freedom to enter and exit the industry

c. Product differentiation d. Large number of buyers
e. Downward sloping demand curve.
34. < Answer
When one firm in the health drinks market started advertising campaign that stressed the nutritional >
value of its health drinks, all the remaining 10 health drink majors started similar advertising campaigns
to withhold their customers. It suggests that the health drinks industry is a/an

a. Oligopoly b. Oligopsony c. Monopolistically competitive market

d. Perfectly competitive market e. Bilateral monopoly.
35. < Answer
The demand for which of the following goods best illustrates derived demand? >

a. Rice b. Motor car c. Machinery d. Book e. Pen.

36. < Answer
Which of the following statements pertaining to indifference curve is true? >

I. The slope of the indifference curve represents the marginal rate of substitution between two
goods.
II. Indifference curve in case of perfect substitutes is a straight line with positive slope.
III. Two indifference curves intersect with each other in case of perfectly complementary
goods.
IV. A higher level of indifference curve connotes higher level of output.

a. Only (I) above b. Both (I) and (II) above

c. Both (II) and (III) above d. Both (I) and (IV) above
e. (I), (II) and (IV) above.
37. The consumers bear more tax burden than the producer, when the < Answer
>
a. Cost of producing the good is too high
b. Supply remains constant irrespective of the price of the good
c. Good is a necessary good
d. Total utility is greater than total cost
e. Price elasticity of supply is greater than the price elasticity of demand.
38. Which of the following statements is true? < Answer
>
a. An increase in producer surplus that results from a tax is referred to as deadweight loss
b. Deadweight loss would be higher, if the producer follows first degree price discrimination
c. Price discrimination is possible in a monopolistically competitive market
d. A price discriminating monopolist charges a higher price in a market where there are close
substitutes
e. Both (c) and (d) above.
39. In a monopoly, price is < Answer
>
a. Lesser than the marginal revenue b. Greater than the average revenue
c. Greater than the marginal revenue d. Equal to the total revenue
e. Both (b) and (c) above.
40. What would be the shape of the supply curve of a perfectly competitive industry, if the increased < Answer
industry demands for inputs results in increasing market price of the product in the long run? >

a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Upward sloping

d. Downward sloping e. Supply curve is absent in the long run.

END OF SECTION A
 Section B : Problems (60 Marks)

• • This section consists of questions with serial number 41 -76 .

• • Answer all questions.
• • Marks are indicated against each question.

41. For a firm, the average cost function is estimated as < Answer
>
100
Q
AC = + 20 + 4Q
What is total variable cost for the firm at an output of 15 units?
a. Rs.100 b. Rs.750 c. Rs.1,200 d. Rs.1,340 e.
Rs.2,100.
(1 mark)
0.3 0.3
42. If the production function is Q = 20K L , what is the marginal rate of technical substitution < Answer
of labor for capital? >

L K L K
K L K L
a. 0.3 b. 0.3 c. d. e. K –L.
(2 marks)
43. Suppose the price of movie tickets at a theater increases from Rs.12 per couple to Rs.20 per < Answer
couple. The theater manager observed that the increase in price caused attendance at a given >
movie to fall from 300 persons to 200 persons. What is the price elasticity of demand for the
movie?
a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 0.8 d. 1.2 e. 5.0.
(1 mark)
44. Which of the following cost functions signifies a long-run cost function? < Answer
a. TC = 250 + 3Q b. TC = 300 >
2
c. TC = 50 + 100Q + 2Q d. Both (b) and (c) above
e. None of the above.
(1 mark)
45. The total revenue and total cost functions of Nike Shoe Company are < Answer
>
 Q2
2
TR = 400Q – ,TC = 600 +70Q + Q2
What is the profit maximizing output for the firm?
a. 100 units b. 110 units c. 140 units d. 180 units e. 200
units.
(2 marks)
46. Demand and supply functions of cigarettes are given by the following functions: < Answer
QD = 5,800 – 80P , QS = 1,000 + 40P >
If the government imposes a tax of Rs.12 on each unit to discourage smoking, what would be
the new equilibrium price?
a. Rs.40.0 b. Rs.44.0 c. Rs.48.0 d. Rs.52.0 e.
Rs.42.5.
(3 marks)
47. Mr. Subba Rao, owner of Billow Garments & Brothers, employs labor and knitting machines < Answer
as inputs to produce woolen garments. The following are the marginal productivity functions >
of labor and capital for the firm:
L0.75 K 0.75
K 0.25 L0.25
MPK = 0.75 , MPL = 0.75
If the wage paid to the laborers is Rs.8 and the cost of capital is Rs.5 each, the cost minimizing
proportion of L to K is
a. L = (8/5) K b. L = (5/8) K c. L = (5 + 8) K d. L = (5 – 8) K e. L = (8 ×
5) K.
(2 marks)
48. The demand function for a firm is P = 30 – 3Q. If the average cost (AC) is Rs.6, what is the < Answer
>
output at which the firm earns normal profits?
a. 3 units b. 30 units c. 10 units d. 6 units e. 8
units.
(1 mark)
49. In Hyderabad city, there are eight popular construction companies. Data pertaining to the sale < Answer
proceeds (no. of flats sold) of eight construction companies in the year 2003 is given below : >

Name of the construction company No. of flats sold in the year 2003
Modi Constructions 500
Legend Constructions 300
Hima Sai constructions 450
Kartikeya Constructions 120
Aditya constructions 100
Ranga Prasad Constructions 80
Happy Home constructions 125
Jayabheri constructions 580 The four-
firm concentration ratio of the construction industry is
a. 0.711 b. 0.811 c. 0.611 d. 0.511 e. 0.411.
(2 marks)
50. If the average product of labor (APL) is 30L – L2, the maximum possible total product (TPL) is < Answer
>
a. 2,000 units b. 4,000 units c. 6,000 units d. 8,000 units e. 12,000
units.
(2 marks)
51. A perfectly competitive industry comprises of 150 firms. Of which, 50 are located in Chennai, < Answer
>
while remaining 100 are in Hosur. All the output is sold only at Hyderabad. The cost of
transporting one unit of output from Hosur to Hyderabad is Rs.8 and Rs.12 from Chennai to
Hyderabad. The cost function of all the firms in the industry (excluding transportation cost) is
identical and is estimated as
C = 100 + Q2
If the industry demand function is Qd = 2,020 – 10P, what is the equilibrium output for the
 industry?
a. 1,450 units b. 1,528 units c. 2,720 units d. 1,700 units e. 1,620
units.
(3 marks)
52. The market demand function for a good is < Answer
P = 1,000 – Q >
If the marginal cost remains constant at Rs.25, the industry output in a Cournot’s duopoly is
a. 750 units b. 650 units c. 675 units d. 725 units e. 700
units.
(3 marks)
53. If the equilibrium output in a perfectly competitive industry is 2,100 units, what could be the < Answer
equilibrium output for the industry in a duopoly market? >

a. 1,500 units b. 1,400 units c. 1,800 units d. 2,100 units e. 1,750

units.
(1
mark)
54. The long run cost function of a firm is < Answer
TC = Q3 – 40Q2 – 480Q >
Beyond what output do diseconomies of scale exists?
a. 20 units b. 30 units c. 40 units d. 35 units e. 45
units.
(2 marks)
55. Which of the following production functions represents decreasing returns to scale? < Answer
>
KL
0.3 0.5 0.2, R
I. Q = 250 + 3K + 4L + 5R, II. Q = 100K L R III. Q=
Where, K = Units of capital
L = Units of labor
R = Units of Raw materials
a. Only (I) above b. Both (I) and (II) above
c. Both (II) and (III) above d. Both (I) and (III) above
e. (I), (II) and (III) above.
(2 marks)
56. The demand function of a monopolist is estimated to be < Answer
>
Q = 100 – 10P
If the marginal revenue is Rs.4, what is the price elasticity of demand for the good?
a. 6.33 b. 2.33 c. 4.44 d. 5.12 e. 6.12.
(2 marks)
57. The demand function for a good is estimated to be Q = 100 – 2P. The total cost function of the < Answer
>
firm is given by TC = 50 + 2Q. If the firm produces 12 units, profits made by the firm are
a. Rs. 352 b. Rs. 426 c. Rs. 454 d. Rs .472 e. Rs. 502.
(2 marks)
58. The profit function of a firm, operating in a monopolistic market, is given by < Answer
>
Q3
3
∏= – 5Q2 + 24Q
What is the profit maximizing output for the firm?
a. 4 units b. 5 units c. 8 units d. 9 units e. 12
units.
(2 marks)
1.5
59. The utility function of a consumer is U = 12X . If the price of the good is Rs.63 per unit, the < Answer
consumer would consume >
a. 8.00 units b. 9.50 units c. 12.25 units d. 14.75 units e. 15.00
units.
 (2 marks)
60. The demand function for Rollex pens is estimated as < Answer
>
QR = 10,000 – 1,500PR + 2Y + 200PC
Where,
QR = Quantity of Rollex pens demanded
PR = Price of Rollex pen
PC = Price of Competitor’s product
Y = Per capita income of the consumer
If the current price of Rollex pen is Rs.5, the price of the competitor’s product is Rs.8 and per
capita income is Rs.5,000, the income elasticity of demand is
a. 0.521 b. 1.222 c. 0.827 d. 0.709 e. 1.052.
(2 marks)
61. A consumer consumes only good X and good Y. The budget constraint of the consumer is Rs.720. < Answer
>
The market price of good X and good Y are Rs.4 and Rs.6 respectively. If good X is taken on
horizontal axis and good Y on vertical axis, the slope of the budget line of the consumer is
a. 0.33 b. 0.66 c. 0.75 d. 1.50 e. 30.0.
(1 mark)
62. Total cost of production for a firm to produce 200 units is Rs.12,500 and Rs.13,500 for 250 < Answer
>
units. What would be the fixed cost for the firm, if the average variable cost is constant?
a. Rs. 7,500 b. Rs. 8,000 c. Rs. 8,500 d. Rs. 7,750 e. Rs.
8,150.
(1 mark)
63. Marginal Product schedule of a firm at various levels of inputs is given below: < Answer
>
No. of units 1 2 3 4 5 6
Labor 144 96 60 48 36 24
Capital 120 84 60 30 20 10 The wage rate is
Rs.12 and cost of capital is Rs.6. If budget of the firm is Rs.60, optimum labor and capital to
be employed by the firm are
a. L = 3 units and K = 4 units b. L = 4 units and K = 4 units
c. L = 5 units and K = 3 units d. L = 5 units and K = 5 units
e. None of the above.
(1 mark)
0.5
64. The production function of a firm is Q = 250L . The quantity of labor that the firm should < Answer
hire to maximize total profits, when price of the good is Rs.2 and wage rate is Rs.25, is >
a. 50 units b. 25 units c. 75 units d. 100 units e. 125
units.
(2 marks)
65. Quantity demanded of a product decreases from 4,000 units to 3,000 units when price of the < Answer
product increases from Rs.40 to Rs.45. If income effect is estimated to be 900, substitution >
effect of the price change is
a. 100 b. 133 c. 1,000 d. 4,500 e. None of the
above.
(1 mark)
2
66. If the total cost function is TC = 200 – 4Q + 6Q and the output is 4 units, the marginal cost is < Answer
a. Rs.24 b. Rs.32 c. Rs.44 d. Rs.35 e. Rs.41. >

(1 mark)
67. Mr. Sachin can earn money from various activities. His hourly earnings from cricket is < Answer
Rs.5,000, acting Rs.30,000, coaching Rs.10,000 and ceremonies Rs.15,000. The opportunity >
cost of an hour of coaching for Sachin is
a. Rs.5,000 b. Rs.10,000 c. Rs.15,000 d. Rs.30,000 e. None of the above.
(1 mark)
68. The demand and supply functions of a good are < Answer
Qs = 400 + 15P >
 Qd = 600 – 10P
If the government fixes a price ceiling of Rs.12 for the product, there would be
a. No supply of the good b. Shortage of the good
c. Excess supply of the good d. Excess demand for the good
e. No effect on demand and supply.
(1 mark)
69. Marginal utility of good X is 300 utils and its price is Rs.12. If price of good Y is Rs.30, the < Answer
marginal utility of good Y at equilibrium is >
a. 350 utils b. 700 utils c. 750 utils d. 550 utils e. 600
utils.
(1 mark)
70. A firm operating in a monopolistic competition has the following demand function: < Answer
P = 1,000 – Q >
If the marginal cost of the firm is constant at Rs.10, the equilibrium output in the long run is
a. 720 units b. 990 units c. 525 units d. 495 units e. 690
units.
(2 marks)
71. When the price is Rs.75, demand for a good is 10 units and when the price is Rs.70, demand is < Answer
>
12 units. Assuming that the demand function for the good is linear, the theoretical maximum
possible quantity of the good that can be demanded is
a. 100 units b. 25 units c. 5 units d. 40 units e. 76
units.
(2 marks)
72. A monopolist effectively segmented the market into two sub markets – X and Y. The total < Answer
revenue functions in two sub markets are given by: >
TRX = 20QX – 0.01Q2X ; TRY = 32QY – 0.02Q2Y
The marginal cost of the monopolist is constant at Rs.6.
If the monopolist practices price discrimination, profit-maximizing prices are
a. PX= Rs. 700 and PY = Rs. 650 b. PX= Rs. 650 and PY = Rs. 700
c. PX= Rs. 19 and PY = Rs. 13 d. PX= Rs. 13 and PY = Rs. 19
e. PX= Rs. 500 and PY = Rs. 525.
(3 marks)
73. The production function for a firm is given by Q = 50K 0.5 0.5
L . The efficient input combination < Answer
>
ratio is estimated to be K = 4L. If the firm has to produce an output of 2,000 units, the efficient
input combination is
a. L = 30 units and K = 120 units b. L = 20 units and K = 80 units
c. L = 15 units and K = 60 units d. L = 30 units and K = 60 units
e. L = 30 units and K = 30 units.
(1
mark)
74.
A firm operating under perfect competition has the following cost functions: < Answer
>
MC = 75 – 20Q + 1.5Q2, AVC = 75 – 10Q + 0.5Q2
The price below which the firm shut down its operation in the short-run is
a. Rs.20 b. Rs.25 c. Rs.40 d. Rs.50 e. Rs.75.
(2 marks)
75.
Refer to the graph below. If price of good Y is Rs.2, income of the consumer is < Answer
>

a. Rs.10 b. Rs.20 c. Rs.30 d. Rs.40.

 e. Insufficient information.
(1
mark)
76.
The total cost (TC) schedule of a firm is < Answer
>
Output TC
(in units) (in Rs.)
1 100
2 150
3 190
4 250
5 340
Marginal cost of the third unit is
a. Rs.30 b. Rs.40 c. Rs.150 d. Rs.60 e. Rs.190.
(1 mark)

END OF SECTION B
 Suggested Answers
Economics –I (121) : January 2004
1. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : Consumer surplus is the difference between the willingness price and actual price for a consumer. >
a. Producer costs represent the cost incurred by the producer in producing the good.
b. Monopolist Profit: Economic profit generated as a result of a firm’s market control. It’s termed
monopoly profit as a reflection of the most prominent market structure with market control—
monopoly.
c. Economic Profit: The difference between business revenue and total economic cost. This is the
revenue received by a business over and above the minimum needed to produce a good.
d. Producers Surplus: The revenue that producers obtain from selling a good over and above the
opportunity cost of production. This is the difference between the minimum supply price that
sellers would be willing to accept and the price that is actually received.
e. Consumer Surplus is the satisfaction that consumers obtain from a good over and above the price
paid. This is the difference between the maximum demand price that the consumer would be
willing to pay and the price that he actually pays.
The correct answer is (e).
2. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : Elasticity of demand is defined as percentage change in the quantity demanded due to the percentage >
change in the price; price elasticity of demand = percentage change in the quantity demanded /
percentage change in the price of the commodity.
I. The slope of the demand curve represents the change in the price of the good to the change in the
quantity demanded of the good.
II. As one goes down the demand curve the price elasticity of demand decreases.
III. When the demand for the good is inelastic, a fall in the price of the good does not result in a greater
increase in the quantity demanded. Hence, there would be no increase in the total revenue of the
firm.
IV. Elasticity of demand is measured by dividing the percentage change in the quantity demanded by
percentage change in the price and not by dividing the change in quantity demanded by change in
the price. (Note: ED = Percentage change in the quantity demanded/Percentage change in price).
The correct answer is (e).
3. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : In case of normal goods, a given increase in income results in increase of demand. Normal goods can be >
further classified into luxury good or necessary goods based on the value of the income elasticity of
demand. If the value of income elasticity is more than one, it signifies that the good is a luxury item.
Since, the value of the income elasticity of demand is not known; we can classify the good to be normal
goods.
a. In case of normal goods the quantity demanded increases/decreases with the increase/decrease in
the income levels of the consumers.
b. In case of necessities, though there would be positive change in the quantity demanded of the good
for a given change in the income, the percentage change in the quantity demanded would be less
than the percentage change in the income. Since, we do not know the value of the income elasticity
of demand; we cannot classify the good as luxury or necessary good.
c. Complementary goods are those which are jointly used to satisfy a want. Cross elasticity of
demand, and not income elasticity of demand, is used to determine the relationship between the
two goods.
d. In case of inferior goods percentage change in the quantity demanded is negative with the change
in the income. Hence, (d) is not the correct answer.
e. In case of Luxury goods, the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the
percentage change in the income. Since, we do not know whether the percentage change in
quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in the income, we cannot classify the
good to be luxury good.
4. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : A combination of inputs to the right of the cost line indicates that it is a point above the cost function >
which cannot be reached with the given budget. Hence, the correct answer is (d).
5. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Perfect competition is a form of market structure which represents a market without rivalry among the >
 individual firms. When the product is similar and identical, given all other conditions, a perfectly
competitive firm can only be a price taker. The price of the good is determined by the market forces. The
demand curve is horizontal to x-axis implying that the producers can produce as much as quantity of
output to the given level of price.
a. Oligopoly is a form of market structure where there are few sellers. The demand curve is
indeterminable because of the interdependence between the firms and it depends on the reaction
curves of the competitor.
b. Monopoly is a form of market structure where there is only one producer of the good. The demand
curve is downward sloping implying that the producer is a price-maker. The distinguishing feature
of this form of market structure is that the average costs of production continually decline with
increased output as a result of which average costs of production will be lowest when a single large
firm produces the entire output demanded.
c. Monopolistic competition is a market structure where there are many firms selling closely related
but non-identical goods. The demand curve is downward sloping because of product
differentiation.
d. The demand curve in the perfect competition is horizontal to x-axis implying that producer can
produce as much as the quantity of output for a given level of price.
e. The demand curve of a duopolist is indeterminate because of high degree of interdependence
between the firms.
Hence, the correct answer is (d).
6. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : a. When marginal cost is increasing with the increase of output, average returns may be increasing or >
decreasing.
b. When output is increasing, average fixed costs decreases whether or not marginal cost is increasing
or decreasing.
c. When marginal cost is increasing with the increase of output, average variable costs may be
increasing or decreasing.
d. When MC is rising, TC also increases
e. When marginal cost is increasing with the increase of output, average costs may or may not
increasing.
7. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : Monopolistic competition is a type of market structure which is characterized by many firms selling >
closely related but unidentical goods. The features of the monopolistic competition may be summarized
as follows:
a. In case of monopoly, the entry is blocked.
b. In case of oligopoly, the presence of few players restricts the entry of new firms.
c. In case of duopoly, there exist only two firms. The entry of new firms is restricted because of
actions of the two firms.
d. In case of monopoly, the entry is blocked..
e. In case of monopolistic competition, there is relatively free entry and exit of the firms.
The correct answer is (e).
8. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : The firm is said to attain break even point implies that the firm is earning zero economic profit i.e., TR = >
TC or AR = AC.
a. a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating break-even point but
representing economic losses as total revenue is less than total cost.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating break-even point
but representing that the firm is getting economic profits.
c. It is appropriate in this instance because when average revenue (TR/Q) is equal to average cost
(TC/Q) implies that the firm is earning zero economic profits.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating break even point but is representing
that marginal revenue is more than marginal cost.
e. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating break even point but is representing
that marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
9. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : The vertical distance between TC and TVC shows the fixed cost of the firm. >
a. The law of diminishing returns states that as more and more units of a variable resource are
 combined with a fixed amount of other resources, employment of additional units of the variable
resource will eventually increase output only at a decreasing rate. But, it does not reflect the
vertical distance between TC and TVC.
b. AFC is given by TFC/Q.
c. MC is given by dTC/dQ or dTVC/dQ. Thus, only slope of TC and TVC reflect the MC.
d. AVC is given by TVC/Q. It has no significance with respect to vertical distance between TC and
TVC.
e. The vertical distance between TC and TVC shows the fixed cost of the firm.
The correct answer is (e).
10. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Movement of the demand curve implies that the change in the price of the good will lead to change in >
the demand for the good. For instance, fall in the price leads to extension in the demand curve. Similarly
increase in the price of good leads to contraction in the demand for the good. A shift in the demand
curve is caused by a change in any non-price determinant of demand. The curve can shift to the right or
left. The factors that are responsible for shift in the demand curve may be listed out as follows:
• Income of the consumers
• prices of other goods (substitutes or complements)
• Tastes and preferences of consumers.
a. It is appropriate in this instance because it is not the factor that is responsible for the shift in the
demand curve but it represents the movement along the demand curve.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is one of the factors that is responsible for shift in
the demand curve.
c. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is one of the factors that is responsible for shift in
the demand curve.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is one of the factors that is responsible for shift in
the demand curve.
e. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is one of the factors that is responsible for shift in
the demand curve. The correct answer is (a).
11. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Monopolistic competition is a type of market structure characterized by many firms selling closely >
related but un-identical goods. The features of the monopolistic competition may be summarized as
follows:
Features of Monopolistic competition
• Relatively large number of firms
• Differentiated products
• Some control over price in a narrow range
• Relatively easy entry and exit
a. It is appropriate in this instance because both the markets indicate product differentiation.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because, it is not a common feature but one of the features of
Oligopoly.
c. It is not appropriate in this instance because, it is not a common feature but one of the features of
Oligopoly.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because, it is not a common feature but one of the features of
Oligopoly.
e. It is not appropriate in this instance because, it is not a common feature but one of the features of
Oligopoly. The correct answer is (a).
12. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : In an oligopoly market there are few sellers so that there is interdependence among the >
sellers and the sellers are aware of it. This encourages them to form cartels for their mutual
benefits. Oligopsony is a complementary form of oligopoly, where there exists a few
buyers and a large number of sellers. Cartels imply direct agreement among competing
oligopolists with the aim of reducing uncertainty. Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
13. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : Demand for a commodity is the quantity of that commodity demanded at a particular period for certain >
price. If a good is durable, that is if its purchase can be postponed, then it exhibits an elastic demand
because consumers can postpone their purchases when they feel the price is high.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it indicates a situation where the elasticity of demand
 or the coefficient of elasticity is equal to zero.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because, it is indicating that there is no impact or consumers
are not responding to the changes in the prices of the goods and therefore the demand for that
good is perfectly inelastic and therefore the demand curve will be vertical to the X-axis.
c. It is appropriate in this instance because it is indicating a situation where the consumers are
sensitive to the changes in the prices of the goods and therefore the demand for that good is elastic
and therefore the demand curve will be flatter.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is indicating a situation where the percentage change
in the quantity demanded is equal to the percentage change in the price and the coefficient of
elasticity is equal to one.
e. It is appropriate in this instance because it is indicating a situation where the demand for the
commodity is perfectly inelastic.
The correct answer is (c).
14. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Long run average cost curve is a U shaped curve indicating initially there exists economies of scale >
followed by diseconomies of scale.
a. When AC is increasing, MC must be increasing
b. Operation of law of diminishing marginal productivity is not the cause of the upward
rising long run average cost curve.
c. Only diseconomies of scale lead to increase in AC, while economies of scale reduce
the AC.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
15. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : a. The supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm is that portion of its marginal-cost curve >
lying above average variable costs.
b. The supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm is that portion of its marginal-cost curve
lying above average variable costs because of unique relationship between price and quantity
supplied.
c. Supply curve will be vertical when amount quantity can be delivered, whatever be the price.
It is possible in case of perishable goods.
d. Horizontal supply curve indicates that at a given price, any amount of goods can be delivered.
e. Unlike in perfect competition, there is no unique relationship between price and quantity supplied. Hence, in
case of a monopolist, the supply curve is absent.
16. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : When an entrepreneur wants to maximize the profits without affecting the price, the best way is to >
reduce the average cost to its minimum possible level. When MC curve cuts AC curve, AC will be at its
minimum possible. Hence, a firm to maximize the profits, without affecting the price should produce at
a level where MC = AC.
a. When MC curve cuts AC curve, AC will be at its minimum possible. Hence, a firm to maximize
the profits, without affecting the price should produce at a level where MC = AC.
b. It is appropriate to minimize the total average cost instead of average variable cost.
c. MC = P signifies only equilibrium condition in a perfectly competitive market.
d. When MC = AVC, AVC will be at minimum. It is appropriate to minimize the total average cost
instead of average variable cost.
e. It is appropriate to minimize the total average cost instead of marginal cost to maximize profits
without changing the price.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
17. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : When the level of output changes, the total cost as well as total variable costs also changes. Since there >
would be no fixed cost in the long run, AFC remains at 0 in the long run. Hence, the correct answer is
(d).
18. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Monopolistic competition is a type of market structure which is characterized by many firms selling >
closely related but unidentical goods. The features of the monopolistic competition may be summarized
as follows:
Features of Monopolistic competition
• Many firms: There is relatively large number of firms, each satisfying a small, but not microscopic,
share of the market demand for similar, but not identical products.
 • Differentiated products: The product of each firm is not a perfect substitute for the products of
competitive firms. The product is differentiated from any other product. A product group represents
several closely related, but not identical products that serve the same general purpose for
consumers. The sellers in each product group can be considered competing firms within the
industry.
• Some control over price in a narrow range: The firms in the market do not consider the reactions
of their rivals when choosing their product prices or annual sales targets.
• Relatively easy entry: Relative freedom of entry and exit of firms exists in monopolistically
competitive markets.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because if the marginal cost curve to the right implies
increasing cost of expenditure.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because increase in the demand for the product will shift the
marginal revenue curve to the right and not the left.
c. It is not appropriate in this instance because with the increase in the demand for the product
average cost curve will decrease and therefore the marginal revenue curve will not shift to the
right.
d. It is appropriate in this instance because it is indicating that with increase in the demand for the
product average cost curve will move upwards (advertising expenses) and marginal revenue will
shift to the right.
e. In anticipation of increased demand for the commodity through advertisement it increases the
average cost and therefore it is not appropriate in this instance. The correct answer is (d).
19. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : The slope of the indifference curve is represented by the marginal rate of substitution between the two >
goods.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because, marginal rate of substitution between two imperfect
substitutes cannot be an increasing factor, and hence the indifference curve cannot be concave.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because, marginal rate of substitution between two imperfect
substitutes is decreasing in accordance with the law of diminishing marginal utility and hence the
indifference curve will be convex.
c. It is appropriate in this instance because, it is representing a situation where the products A &B are
perfect substitutes. In case of perfect substitutes, the marginal rate of substitution remains constant.
Hence, the indifference curve would be downward sloping straight line.
d. A upward sloping straight line indicates positive slope.
e. In case of perfect complementary goods, the indifference curve would be L shaped.
The correct answer is (c).
20. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : Marginal product is the increase in the total product resulting from a unit increase in the employment of >
a variable input. When marginal product is negative, TP decreases. When TP is falling and output is
increasing, AP also starts falling.
a. TP will be maximum, when MP = 0
b. AP will be maximum, when MP = AP
c. When marginal product is negative, TP decreases. When TP is falling and output is increasing, AP
also starts falling.
d. When MP is negative, TP falls.
e. AP cannot be negative.
The correct answer is (c).
21. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : Least-cost production implies that the producer produces a given level of output where the marginal >
physical product to the factor price ratio is equal to the factor inputs.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is indicating that all factor prices are equal indicates
the demand and supply of that factor.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it indicates the addition to total output by the
employment of an additional unit of a factor of production all else equal.
c. It is not appropriate in this instance because marginal physical product is the slope of the total
output curve and therefore will not indicate the least cost production.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating the least-cost-production.
e. It is appropriate in this instance because, it is the change in the total revenue of the firm that results
from the employment of one additional unit of a factor of production. Therefore the marginal
 physical product to factor price ratio equal to the factor inputs indicates the least-cost production.
The correct answer is (e).
22. Answer : (c) < TOP
>
Reason : The relationship between marginal product curve and average product curve is such that when marginal
product curve cuts average product curve, the average product will be at its maximum point.
(a) Maximum point is reached when MR = MC.
(b) Total product reaches maximum when MP = 0.
(c) When MP = AP, AP will be maximum.
(d) Marginal product will be maximum, when MP/ L = 0.
∂ ∂

(e) Marginal product will be zero, when employing of an additional labor does not result in increase
of total product.
23. Answer : (c) < TOP
>
Reason : Monopolistic competition is a market structure where there are many firms selling closely related but
non-identical goods. The characteristic features of this market are:
• Large number of buyers and sellers
• Differentiated products but they are close substitutes
• No barriers to entry.
The demand curve is downward sloping because of product differentiation as the firms will have some
amount of liberty in deciding the price of the good, unlike in perfect competition.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is representing the demand curve in perfect
competition.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not representing the demand curve in monopolistic
competition. A vertical demand curve indicates that the demand is inelastic.
c. It is appropriate in this instance because it is representing the demand curve in monopolistic
competition..
d. & e. Supply curve depends on the cost functions of the firm.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
24. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : The demand curve is horizontal to x-axis implies that the producers can produce as much as quantity of >
output to the given level of price. Therefore, the producer under perfect competition is a price-taker. The
long-run equilibrium, all the existing firms get normal profits because of free entry and exit of firms.
Hence the equilibrium condition in the long run for a firm would be P = AR = MR = MC.
Hence, the correct answer is (e).
25. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : a. Long run average cost (LAC = LTC/Q) is U-shaped because of economies of scale initially and >
diseconomies of scale at later stages of production.
b. Long run marginal cost (LMC = ∂LTC/∂Q) is U-shaped as cost of producing additional units
reduces at the beginning because of economies of scale, but raises later due to diseconomies of
scale.
c & d. Short run average cost (SAC = STC/Q) and AVC (= TVC/Q) falls and raises due to operation of
‘law of diminishing marginal productivity’.
e. Average fixed cost (AFC = TFC/Q) falls at a decreasing rate with the increase of output because of
constant total fixed cost.
26. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : A curve drawn indicating the slope of the total utility curve represents the marginal utility curve. MU >
curve closely resembles the demand curve. The only difference between MU curve and demand curve is
that demand curve does not go below 0, while MU can be negative.
27. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : The kinked demand curve model is based on the assumption that when a firm increase price other firms >
in the industry do not follow and if the firm decrease price other firms also decrease the price. Therefore, the
answer is (e).
28. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Economic profit = Accounting profit – Implicit costs. >

29. Answer : (a) < TOP

Reason : a. When MR = MC, the firm maximizes its profits. Thus, MR = MC represents only profit >
 maximization position.
b. When MR = MC, price may not be at its maximum position.
c. When MR = MC, cost may not be at its minimum position
d. When MR = MC, revenue may not be at its maximum position.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
30. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : (a) If the demand for wheat is highly inelastic, bumper crop will lead to a sharp decline in price >
thereby reducing farm incomes.
(b) In the long run both supply and demand curves tend to be more elastic since the
responsiveness of producers and consumers to a price change will be more in the long
run than in the short run.
(c) Demand for necessities is not as responsive to price change as the case with luxuries.
(d) If the demand is elastic, % change in Q > % change in P. For a given increase in price,
decrease in Q will be more than proportionate to the increase in price thereby leading to
decrease in total revenue.
(e) Price effect is the sum of income and substitution effects. For a Giffen good, the
income effect is negative and more than the substitution effect thereby leading to a
direct relation between price and quantity. If the negative income effect is less
than the substitution effect, the good is inferior but not a Giffen good..
31. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : A perfectly competitive firm cannot earn abnormal profits in the long run because new firms enter into >
the industry and competition reduces the price of the good. Conversely, when the firm gets losses in the
long run, it would move out of the industry. Thus, an existing firm only gets normal profits in the long
run. In perfect competition, normal profit is possible only when the firm operates at its minimum
average cost.
a. In perfect competition, normal profit is possible only when the firm operates at its minimum
average cost.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because in the long-run all inputs are variable and there are no
fixed costs.
c. It is not appropriate in this instance because marginal cost greater than marginal revenue is not a
desirable situation for a firm to continue in the industry.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because fixed cost lower than total variable cost does not
indicate any thing. Further, there would be no fixed costs in the long-run.
e. It is not appropriate because P = Min. AVC only indicates shut down point in the short run.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
32. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Natural monopoly is situation where the size of the market may not allow the existence of more than a >
single large plant. In these conditions it is said that the market creates a natural monopoly, and it is
usually the case that the government undertakes the production of the commodity or of the service so as
to avoid exploitation of the customers. Large scale economies are one of the main causes of natural
monopoly.
a. It is appropriate in this instance because a firm can take up the responsibility of producing the total
output of the market in a situation when it experiences economies of scale. Economies of scale
imply reduction in the firm’s per unit costs that are associated with the use of large plants to
produce a large volume of output.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because diminishing marginal productivity does not guarantee
formation of a natural monopoly.
c. Downward sloping demand curve only shows the inverse relationship between price and output. It
is not the cause that helps in the formation of natural monopoly.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is representing one of the features of oligopoly.
e. Low fixed cost in fact reduces the entry barriers and helps in breaking monopoly.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
33. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : A firm operating in a monopolistically competitive market earns only normal profits in the long run >
because new firms enter into the industry and competition reduces the price of the good. Conversely,
when the firm gets losses in the long run, it would move out of the industry.
34. Answer : (a) < TOP
>
 Reason : When there are only 11 firms in the industry, it better represents the oligopoly market.
a. The presence of 11 firms in the industry connotes the market to be an oligopoly market.
b. Oligopsony refers a market with few buyers. Hence, it is not the answer.
c. Monopolistically competitive market consists of relatively large number of buyers and sellers. The
member firms in the monopolistic competition are not highly interdependent as in oligopoly
market.
d. Perfect competition consists of large number of buyers and sellers.
e. Bilateral monopoly represents single buyer and single seller.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
35. Answer : (c) < TOP
>
Reason : Derived demand refers to demand for goods whose demand depends on the demand of other goods.
Generally demand for producers’ goods like industrial raw materials, machine tools and equipments are
derived demand because their demand depends on the demand of other goods. By contrast, direct
demand refers to the demand for goods meant for final consumption; it is the demand for consumer
goods like food items, ready-made garments and houses.
a. a. Rice is a necessary good and has more of direct demand than derived demand.
b. b. Motorcar is a luxury good and a consumer good. Hence it has higher amount of direct
demand.
c. c. Machinery is a producer good and hence has higher derived demand than any consumer
good.
d. d. & (e) Book and pen are consumer goods and have lower derived demand than machinery

36. Answer : (a) < TOP

Reason : Indifference curve shows different combinations of goods that give same level of satisfaction. >
I. It is appropriate because the slope of the indifference curve represents the marginal rate of
substitution.
II. It is not appropriate in this instance because in case of substitutes the indifference curve is a
negatively sloped straight line.
III. It is not appropriate in this instance because indifference curves will never intercept each other.
IV. It is not appropriate in this instance because indifference curves represent higher level of
satisfaction and not the higher level of output.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
37. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : When a specific tax is imposed, the burden of tax would be shared between buyer and seller based on >
their elasticities. If the elasticity of demand is higher than the elasticity of supply, the supplier would
borne more tax burden. In fact, who ever is more inelastic will bear more amount of tax.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating increase in the price of a good due
to increase in the demand for the good.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is indicating an inelastic supply of good. When the
price elasticity of supply is inelastic, ceteris paribus, the supplier would bear more tax burden than
the consumer.
c. The price elasticity of demand is low in case of necessary goods, but since we do not know the
price elasticity of supply, we cannot be precisely say who will share higher tax burden.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is indicating a relationship between total utility and
total cost, and not the price elasticity.
e. Since the buyer is more inelastic, the consumer would share more tax burden.
Hence, the correct answer is (e)
38. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : a. Dead weight loss refers to the loss to the society because of increase in the price of the good. >
b. When the producer follows first degree price discrimination, there exists no deadweight loss
because price = willingness price of the consumer.
c. First degree price discrimination is possible in a monopolistically competitive market.
d. A price discriminating monopolist charges a lesser price in a market where there are close
substitutes because the demand for the good would be more elastic.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
39. Answer : (c) < TOP
 Reason : Monopoly is a market structure in which there is one seller of the product implying that the producer has >
complete control over market supply of the commodity. The monopolist must decrease the price he
receives for every unit in order to sell an additional unit. Hence, the marginal revenue of the monopolist
would be lesser than price. Hence, the correct answer is (c).
40. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : In case on increasing cost industry as market demand increases, new firms enter into the industry, and >
the prices of the factors of production increases. As a result, the long run average cost curve of all the
firms, including the new firms shifts upward. The new equilibrium will now be achieved only at a higher
price. However all firms earn normal profit at a higher price. Since the long run average cost curve has
now shifted in the upward direction, the long run supply curve of the industry is upward sloping.
a. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is indicating the supply curve of constant cost
industry.
b. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is not indicating supply curve of a perfectly
competitive industry.
c. It is appropriate because it is representing the supply curve of increasing cost industry.
d. It is not appropriate in this instance because it is representing the supply curve of the decreasing
cost industry.
e. The supply curve is not absent in the long run.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
41. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : AC = 100/Q + 20 + 4Q >
TC = 100 + 20Q + 4Q2
TVC = 20Q + 4Q2
At output 15, TVC = 20(15) + 4(15)2
= 300 + 900 =Rs. 1200
42. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : The MRTS is equal to the ratio of the marginal productivities of the two products – MPL/MPK >
6K0.3L-0.7/6K-0.7L0.3
K0.3L-0.7/K-0.7L0.3
K/L
43. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Price- elasticity of demand = ∆Q/∆P × P/Q = (200 – 300)/(20 – 12) × 12/300 = –0.5 >

44. Answer : (e) < TOP

Reason : All the cost functions represent short run since we have fixed cost components in all the cost functions. >

45. Answer : (b) < TOP

Reason : Profit maximizing output is determined where MR = MC. >
MR= 400 – Q
MC = 70 + 2Q
∴400 – Q = 70 + 2Q
– 3Q = – 330
Q = 110 units.
46. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : When tax is imposed, buyer and seller share the tax based on the opposite ratios of their elasticities. >
Thus,
Ed = -80P/Q
Es = 40P/Q
Ratio of Es: Ed = 1: 2
Burden on consumer = 12 x 1/3 = 4
Earlier equilibrium price: 5,800 – 80P = 1,000 + 40P
4800 = 120P
P = 40
Thus, new price = 40 + 4 = Rs.44.
47. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : Efficient allocation of L & K: >
 MPL/w = MPK/r
0.75K0.75/(L0.25 × 8) = 0.75L0.75/(K0.25 × 5)
5K = 8L
Or, L = 5/8K.
48. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : A firm earns normal profits, when TR = TC >
TR = P × Q = 30Q – 3Q2
TC = 6Q
30Q – 3Q2 = 6Q
24Q = 3Q2
Or, Q = 8 units.
49. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : The four firm concentration ratio for the construction company in Hyderabad city = sale of flats of >
popular 4 construction companies/ total sale of flats by the construction companies in the Hyderabad
city.
(580 + 500 + 450 + 300)/ (500 + 300 + 450 + 120 + 100 + 80 + 125 + 580)
1830/2255 = 0.811.
50. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : APL= 30L – L2 >
TPL = APL × L = 30L2 – L3
TPL can be maximized when MPL = 0
Therefore, ∂ TPL / ∂ L = 60L – 3L2 = 0
L (60 – 3L) = 0
L =0 or L = 20.
∴Output can be maximized by employing 20 labors.
∴ Maximum possible TPL = 30(20)2 – (20)3 = 12,000 – 8,000 = 4,000 units.
51. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Each firm would maximize profit by equating MC and price. >
Cost function for a firm located at Chennai
Cc = 100 + Qc2 + 12Qc
MCc = 2Qc + 12
Cost function for a firm located at Hosur
Ch = 100 + Qh2 + 8Qh
MCh = 2Qh + 8
To maximize profits, P = MC
Thus, P = MCc = 2Qc + 12 or, Qc = 0.5P – 6
P = MCh = 2Qh + 8 or, Qh = 0.5P – 4
Industry supply, Qs = 50Qc + 100Qh (50 firms in Chennai and 100 firms in Hosur)
Qs = 50(0.5P – 6) + 100(0.5P – 4)
Qs = 25P – 300 + 50P – 400 = 75P – 700
At equilibrium, Qd = Qs
75P – 700 = 2020 – 10P
85P = 2720
Or, P = 32.
Or, Q = 2020 – 10(32) = 1700 units.
52. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : At equilibrium, MR1 = MC and MR2 = MC >
P = 1000 – Q1 – Q2
TR1 = (1000 – Q1 – Q2) Q1 = 1000Q1 – Q12 – Q1Q2
MR1 = 1000 – 2Q1 – Q2
Similarly,
MR2 = 1000 – 2Q2 – Q1
 At equilibrium, 1000 – 2Q1 – Q2 = 25
1000 – 2Q2 – Q1 = 25
Or,
1000 – 2Q1 – Q2 = 25
2000 – 2Q1 – 4Q2 = 50
(–) (–) (–)
________________________
–1000 + 3Q2 = –25
Or, 3Q2 = 975
Or, Q2 = 325
Thus, Q1 = 325
Thus, Q = Q1 + Q2 = 325 × 2 = 650 units.
53. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : Qn = Qp{n/(n + 1)} >
= 2100 x 2/3 = 1400 units.
54. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : AC = Q2 – 40Q – 480 >
dAC/dQ = 2Q – 40 = 0
2Q = 40
Or, Q = 20 units.
55. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : >
When L, K and R When L, K and R = 2 Nature of returns to scale
=1
262 274 Decreasing returns to scale
100 200 Constant returns to scale
1 2 Constant returns to scale
56. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : 10P = 100 – Q >
Or, P = 10 – 0.1Q
TR = 10Q – 0.1Q2
MR = ∂TR/∂Q = 10 – 0.2Q = 4
Or, 0.2Q = 6
Or, Q = 30
When Q = 30, P = 10 – 0.1(3) = 7.
When P = 7,
Elasticity of demand = ∂Q/∂P × P/Q = –10 × 7/30 = (2.33)
57. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : TR = P × Q >
Or, (50 – 0.5Q) Q
Or, 50Q – 0.5Q2
Thus, profit at output 12 units is 50 × 12 – 0.5 × 12 × 12 – 50 – 2 × 12 = 454.
58. Answer : (a) < TOP
2
Reason : d∏/dQ = Q – 10Q + 24 = 0 >
Or, Q = 6 or 4
Since booth the values are positive, we need to check for the second order condition for maximizing
profits,
d2∏/dQ2 = 2Q - 10
If Q = 6, d2∏/dQ2 > 0
If Q = 4, d2∏/dQ2 < 0
Therefore, profit maximizing output is 4.
59. Answer : (c) < TOP
>
 Reason : The consumer would consume the good up to a point where MU = P.
TU = 12X1.5
MU = 18X0.5 = 63
X0.5 = 3.5
Or, X = 12.25
60. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Q = 10,000 – 1500(5) + 2(5000) + 200(8) >
= 21,600 – 7,500
= 14,100
Income elasticity of demand: dQ/dY × Y/Q = 2 × 5000/14100 = 0.709.
61. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : Slope of the budget is equal to Px/Py = 4/6 = 0.6666. >

62. Answer : (c) < TOP

Reason : Average variable cost = (3500 – 2500)/(250 – 200) = 20 >
Fixed cost = 12500 – 200 × 20 = 8,500
Or,
Fixed cost = 13500 – 250 × 20 =Rs. 8,500.
63. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : The maximum product rule is given by MPL/w = MPK/r. This equation stands true only when the firm >
employs 3 units of labor and 4 units of capital. Budget: 12 × 3 + 6 × 4
= Rs.60.
64. Answer : (d) < TOP
Reason : Q = 250L0.5 >
To maximize profits, the firm should hire labor until MRPL = wage, where MRPL = MPL × MR =
125/L0.5 × 2
250/L0.5 = 25
Or, 10 = L0.5
Or, L = 100 units.
65. Answer : (a) < TOP
Reason : Price effect = Income effect + Substitution effect >
1000 = 900 + Substitution effect
Thus, substitution effect = 100.
66. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : When Q = 4, MC = 12Q – 4 = 12(4) – 4 = 44. >

67. Answer : (d) < TOP

Reason : Opportunity cost of an hour of coaching for Sachin Tendulkar is equal to the best opportunity forgone >
because of coaching i.e. acting Rs.30,000.
68. Answer : (e) < TOP
Reason : At equilibrium, Qs = Qd >
400 + 15P = 600 – 10P
25P = 200
Or, P= 8
Since, price ceiling is above the equilibrium price of Rs.8, there would not have any affect on demand
and supply of the good.
69. Answer : (c) < TOP
Reason : MUx/Px = MUy/Py >
300/12 = MUy/30
9000/12 = 750.
70. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : The equilibrium output in the long run is determined where P=AC >
Note that when MC is constant at Rs.10, AC would also be Rs.10.
1,000 – Q =10
 Q = 1000 – 10 = 990 units.

71. Answer : (d) < TOP

Reason : When price is Rs.75, demand is 10 units >
When price is Rs.70, demand is 12 units
If the demand is linear, then Q = a + bP
Where, b = Change in quantity demanded/Change in price = (12 – 10)/(70 – 75) = 2/(-5) = -0.4.
Thus, Q = a – 0.4P
At Rs.75, 10 = a – 0.4(75)
Or, a = 40
Thus, demand function = Q = 40 – 0.4P
The maximum quantity can be demanded when the price is zero. Hence, maximum quantity
demanded = 40 – 0.4(0) = 40 units.

72. Answer : (d) < TOP

Reason : The profit maximizing output can be determined when MR = MC. >
In market X,
TR = 20 QX – 0.01Q2X
∴ MR = 20 – 0.02QX
∴ Profit maximizing output can be determined when MR = MC.
20 – 0.02QX = 6
QX = 700
When QX = 700, PX = 20 – 0.01(700) = Rs.13.
In market Y,
TR = 32QY – 0.02Q2Y
∴ MR = 32 – 0.04QY
∴ Profit maximizing output can be determined when MR = MC.
32– 0.04QY = 6
QY = 650
When QY = 650, PY = 32 – 0.02(650) = Rs.19.
73. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : Q = 50K0.5 L0.5 >
K = 4L
∴ Q = 50(4L) 0.5 L0.5
2000 = 50 x 2L
Or, L= 20
Hence, K = 20 x 4 = 80.
74. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : The minimum price below which the firm is shut down its operation is the minimum average variable >
cost.
The average variable cost will be equal to price or marginal revenue at the minimum point on average
variable cost curve.
∴MC = AVC.
75 – 20Q + 1.5Q2 = 75 – 10Q + 0.5Q2
1.5Q2 – 0.5Q2 – 20Q + 10Q = 0.
Q2 –10Q = 0
Q(Q–10) = 0
Q=10.
At Q = 10, AVC = 75 – 10(10) + 0.5 (10)2
= 75 – 100 +50 = Rs.25.
75. Answer : (b) < TOP
Reason : Budget =Px x Qx + Py x Qy = 0 + 2Qy = 20 >

76. Answer : (b) < TOP

Reason : Marginal cost = Change in the total cost as a result of producing one additional unit of output. Thus, >
marginal cost of producing third unit is equal to total cost of producing three units ‘minus’ total cost of
producing two units = 190 – 150 =Rs. 40.
< TOP OF THE DOCUMENT >