Chapter 5

1. Identify the different portions (a-d) of the cutaneous membrane and the underlying layer of loose Connective tissue (e) in the diagram to the right. (a) Epidermis (b) Dermis (c) Papillary Layer (d) Reticular Layer (e) Hypodermis 2. The two major components of the integumentary system are (c) the hair and the nails. 3. Beginning at the basement membrane and traveling toward the free surface, the epidermis includes the following layers: (c) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum. 4. Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system, except (d) synthesis of vitamin C. 5. Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet radiation (a) can result in increased numbers of melanocytes forming in the skin. 6. The two major components of the dermis are the (c) papillary layer and reticular layer. 7. The cutaneous plexus and papillary plexus consist of (a) blood vessels providing the dermal blood supply. 8. The accessory structures of the integument include the (d) hair follicles, nails, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands. 9. The portion of the hair follicle where cell divisions occur is the (b) matrix. 10. The two types of exocrine glands in the skin are (b) sebaceous and sweat glands. 11. Apocrine sweat glands can be controlled by (a) the autonomic nervous system. (c) the endocrine system. (d) both a and c. 12. The primary function of sensible perspiration is to (d) reduce body temperature.

13. The stratum corneum of the nail root, which extends over the exposed nail, is called the (b) eponychium. 14. Muscle weakness and a reduction in bone strength in the elderly result from decreased (a) vitamin D production 15. In which layer(s) of the epidermis does cell division occur? stratum germinativum 16. What is the function of the arrector pili muscles? These smooth muscles cause hairs to stand erect when stimulated. 17. What widespread effects does epidermal growth factor (EGF) have on the integument? Promotes the division of germinal cells in the stratum germinativum and stratum spinosum; accelerates the production of keratin in differentiating epidermal cells; stimulates both epidermal development and epidermal repair after injury; and stimulates synthetic activity and secretion by epithelial cells. 18. What two major layers constitute the dermis, and what components are in each layer? The papillary layer which consists of loose connective tissue and contains capillaries and sensory neurons, and the reticular layer which consists of dense irregular connective tissue and bundles of collagen fibers. Both layers contain networks of blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerve fibers. 19. List the four stages in the regeneration of the skin after an injury. Bleeding; scab formation; granulation tissue formation; and scarring 20. How do insensible perspiration and sensible perspiration differ? Insensible perspiration is water loss via evaporation through the stratum corneum .sensible perspiration is produced by active sweat glands. 21. In clinical practice, drugs can be delivered by diffusion across the skin; this delivery method is called transdermal administration. Why are fat-soluble drugs more suitable for transdermal administration than drugs that are water soluble? The reason Fat-Soluble drugs are more suitable then Water Soluble are. One is not more desirable than the other. The body requires both water-soluble & fat- soluble vitamins to function properly. 22. In our society, a tan body is associated with good health. However, medical research constantly warns about the dangers of excessive exposure to the sun. What are the benefits of a tan? The production of vitamin D by the body.

23. Why is it important for a surgeon to choose an incision pattern according to the cleavage lines of the skin? Cleavage lines are also known as Langer's lines. Cleavage lines may heal better and produce less scarring than those that cut across. This is particularly important to cosmetic surgery. 24. The fibrous protein that is responsible for the strength and water resistance of the skin surface is (c) keratin. 25. The darker an individual's skin color, (c) the more melanin her melanoeytes produce. 26. In order for bacteria on the skin to cause an infection in the skin, they must accomplish all of the following, except (d) penetrate to the level of the capillaries. 27. In the elderly, blood supply to the dermis is reduced and sweat glands are less active. This combination of factors would most affect (a) the ability to thermoregulate. 28. Two patients are brought to the emergency room. One has cut his finger with a knife; the other has stepped on a nail. Which wound has a greater chance of becoming infected? Why? The puncture wound has a greater chance of becoming infected than the knife cut because the cut from the knife will bleed freely, washing away many of the bacteria from the wound site. In a puncture wound, bacteria can be forced beneath the surface of the skin and past the skin's protective barriers, thus increasing the possibility of infection. 29. Exposure to optimum amounts of sunlight is necessary for proper bone maintenance and growth in children. (a) What does sunlight do to promote bone maintenance and growth? Vitamin D plays an essential role for calcium metabolism and bone health. It has been estimated that 90 to 95% of our vitamin D requirement comes from casual exposure to sunlight. (b) If a child lives in an area where exposure to sunlight is rare because of pollution or overcast skies, what can be done to minimize impaired maintenance and growth of bone? Eating foods that contain Vitamin D. Also, taken in Calcium is necessary for proper nerve function, bone growth and maintenance.

30. One of the factors to which lie detectors respond is an increase in skin conductivity due to the presence of moisture. Explain the physiological basis for the use of this indicator. Sweat glands are distributed over the entire body except for the lips, nipples and external genital organs. Nerve cells from the sympathetic nervous system connect to the sweat glands. When people are nervous, anxious or afraid (often a physiological response when lying), the sympathetic nervous system becomes more active. During this arousal state, neurons release acetylcholine a chemical messenger. In response to this, other neurons release noradrenalin (norepinephrine) another chemical messenger. Also, the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine as part of the fight or flight response. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine bind to adrenergic receptors to cause the effects.

31. Many people change the natural appearance of their hair, either by coloring it or by altering the degree of curl in it. Which layers of the hair do you suppose are affected by the chemicals added during these procedures? Why are the effects of the procedures not permanent?

Chapter 6

1. Blood cell formation occurs in (b) red bone marrow. 2. Two-thirds of the weight of bone is accounted for by (a) crystals of calcium phosphate. 3. The membrane found wrapping the bones, except at the joint cavity, is the (a) periosteum. 4. The basic functional unit of compact bone is the Haversian system or (c) osteon. 5. The vitamins essential for normal adult bone maintenance and repair are (b) C and D. 6. The hormones that coordinate the storage, absorption, and excretion of calcium ions are (b) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. 7. Classify the bones in the following diagram according to their shape. (a) Long Bone (b) Flat Bone (c) Sutural Bone (d) Irregular Bone (e) Short Bone (f) Sesamoid bones 8. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates (a) epiphyseal growth has ended. 9. The primary reason that osteoporosis accelerates after menopause in women is (a) reduced levels of circulating estrogens. 10. The nonpathologic loss of bone that occurs with aging is called (e) osteomalacia. 11. What are the five primary functions of the skeletal system? support, storage of minerals and lipids, blood cell production, protection, and leverage 12. List the four distinctive cell populations of osseous tissue. osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoprogenitor cells 13. What are the primary parts of a typical long bone? diaphysis (shaft), epiphysis, epiphyseal cartilage/ line, articular cartilage, medullary canal, periosteum, endosteum 14. What is the primary difference between endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification?

IO bone develops from mesenchyme or fibrous connective tissue. EO bone develops from a cartilage model 15. List the organic and inorganic components of bone matrix. Collagen, hydroxypatite crystals 16. (a) What nutritional factors are essential for normal bone growth and maintenance? calcium salts, phosphate salts, vitamin A,C,D3 (b) What hormonal factors are necessary for normal bone growth and maintenance? calcitriol, growth hormone, thyroxine, estrogens (in females) or androgens (in males), calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone (PTH) 17. Which three organs or tissues interact to assist in the regulation of calcium ion concentration in body fluids? bones, intestinal tract and kidneys 18. What major effects of parathyroid hormone oppose those of calcitonin? Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteocast activity, increases the rate of intestinal absorption of calcium ions and decreases the rate of exreation of calcium ions 19. If spongy bone has no osteons, how do nutrients reach the osteoeytes? Nutrients reach the osteocytes in spongy bone by diffusing along canaliculi that open into the surface of the tabeculae 20. Why are stresses or impacts to the side of the shaft in a long bone more dangerous than stress applied to the long axis of the shaft? The osteons are aligned parallel to the long axis of the shaft, which does not bend when forces are applied to either end. Stresses or impacts to the side of the shaft can lead to a fracture. 21. Why do extended periods of inactivity cause degenerative changes in the skeleton? The lack of stress during inactivity leads to the removal of calcium salts from bones. Up to 1/3 of the bone mass can be lost in this manner, causing bones to become thin and brittle. 22. What are the functional relationships between the skeleton, on the one hand, and the digestive and urinary systems, on the other? The digestive and urinary systems (kidneys) play important roles in providing the calcium and phosphate minerals needed for bone growth. In return, the skeleton provides protection and acts as a reserve of calcium, phosphate, and other minerals that can compensate for change in the dietary supplies of these ions. 23. Why would a physician concerned about the growth patterns of a young child request an x-ray of the hand? There are many bones in the hand, each of which has an epiphysical cartilage (plate). Measuring the width of these plates will provide clues to the hormonal control of growth in the child. 24. Why does a second fracture in the same bone tend to occur at a site different from that of the first fracture?

Once a bone fracture has been repaired, the bone tends to be stronger and thicker than normal at the fracture site. 25. The process of bone growth at the epiphyseal cartilage is similar to (b) endochondral ossification. 26. How might bone markings be useful in identifying the remains of an individual who was shot and killed years ago? Bone markings give clues as to the size, age, sex, and general appearance of an individual. 27. While playing on her swing set, l0-year-old Sally falls and breaks her right leg. At the emergency room, the doctor tells her parents that the proximal end of the tibia where the epiphysis meets the diaphysis is fractured. The fracture is properly set and eventually heals. During a routine physical when she is 18, Sally learns that her right leg is 2 cm shorter than her left, probably because of her accident. What might account for this difference? It is because of a growth plate break. at the proximal end of the tibial there is an epipyseal plate aka growth plate which is the secondary ossification center for growing from that bone. When the child broke her leg she broke the the growth plate resulting in the bone not growing from that spot anymore. 28. Which of the following conditions would you possibly observe in a child who is suffering from rickets? (e) weak, brittle bones 29. Frank does not begin puberty until he is 16. What effect would you predict this will have on his stature? (b) Frank will probably be shorter than if he had started puberty earlier. 30. In physical anthropology, cultural conclusions can be drawn from a thorough examination of the skeletons of ancient peoples. What sorts of clues might bones provide as to the lifestyles of those individuals? the shape and size of the bones will show what type of physical activities the individuals had to go through on a daily basis. Also the composition and bone strength may give hints into how nutritious their diet was.

Chapter 7

1. Identify the cranial and facial bones in the diagram below. a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Frontal d. Temporal e. Sphenoid f. Mastoid process of temporal bone g. Zygomatic arch h. Ramus i. Lacrimal j. Nasal k. Zygomatic l. Maxilla 2. Which of the following lists contains only facial bones? (a) mandible, maxilla, nasal, zygomatic 3. The unpaired facial bones include the (b) vomer and mandible. 4. The boundaries between skull bones are immovable joints called (d) sutures. 5. The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is correctly called the suture. (b) Coronal 6. Blood vessels that drain blood from the head pass through the (a) jugular foramina.

7. For each of the following vertebrae, indicate its vertebral region. (a) Cervical Bone (b) Thoracic Bone (c) Single Lumbar Bone 8. Cervical vertebrae can usually be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of (b) transverse foramina. 9. The side walls of the vertebral foramen are formed by the (c) pedicles. 10. The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the (d) body. 11. Which eight bones make up the cranium? Occipital bone, frontal bone , sphenoid, ethmoid, paired parietal bones, and paired temporal bones 12. What seven bones constitute the orbital complex? Sphenoid, frontal bone, ethmoid, lacrimal bones, maxilla, palatine bone,and zygomatic bones 13. What is the primary function of the vomer? forms the anterior ,inferior portion of the bony nasal septum that seperates the right and left nasal cavities. 14. In addition to the spinal curves, what skeletal element contributes to the flexibility of the vertebral column? The 24 presacral vertebrae allow movement and hence render the vertebral column flexible. 15. What is the relationship between the temporal bone and the ear? The petrous part of the temporal bone encloses the structures of the inner ear. Inside the tympanic cavity within the petrous part is the middle ear. The external acoustic canal ends at the tympanic membrane, which leads to the inner ear. Mastoid air cells within the mastoid process are connected to the tympanic cavity.

16. What is the relationship between the ethmoid and the nasal cavity? There are three groups of Ethmoid sinuses: Anterior, middle and posterior. They are a little smaller and located between the other sinuses. Most commonly the ethmoid sinuses are inferior the frontal sinuses, medial to the orbit and just lateral to the upper portions of the nasal cavity. The ethmoid bone is a bone in the skull that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. 17. Describe how ribs function in breathing. The ribs protect the lungs and expand as you inhale to fascillitate space for the lungs to expand like the diaphragm. The ribs then contract expelling the air in the lungs. 18. Why is it important to keep your back straight when you lift a heavy object? Lifting heavy things in the wrong way can also strain the muscles in your back 19. The atlas C1 can be distinguished from the other vertebrae by (b) the lack of a body. 20. What purpose do the fontanelles serve during birth? The Fontanelles Most importantly allow for the human skull to pass through the birth canal and are vital in allowing the brain to grow inside the skull without increasing the intercranial pressure. 21. The secondary spinal curves (a) help position the body weight over the legs. (b) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. (c) include the thoracic curvature. (d) do all of these. 22. When you rotate your head to look to one side, (e) all cervical vertebrae rotate. 23. Improper administration of CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) can force the into the liver. (e) xiphoid process 24. Jane has an upper respiratory infection and begins to feel pain in her teeth. This is a good indication that the infection is located in the (d) maxillary sinuses. 25. While working at an excavation, an archaeologist finds several small skull bones. She examines the frontal, parietal, and occipital bones and concludes that the skulls are those of children not yet 1 year old. How can she tell their ages from an examination of these bones? Determined by the length of the bones, the extent of fusion of the epiphysis (the caps on the ends of long bones that fuse completely with the bones after the age of 20), and the status of the teeth

26. Mary is in her last month of pregnancy and is suffering from lower back pains. Since she is carrying excess weight in front of her, she wonders why her back hurts. What would you tell her? Carrying extra weight in front stresses out the back muscles which have to support that weight and still keep you upright. It's no different that an obese person who has back problems -- the extra weight in front affects the back muscles.