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331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has

a) full authority

b) 50% authority

# c) 10% authority

332. Stall warning will be given

#

a) before stall

b)

after stall

c)

at stall

333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central

maintenance function (CMF) is to

#

a) log relevant maintenance data

b)

transmits to the CMC

c)

provides details of defect action

334. How are spoilers normally operated?

#

a) Hydraulic actuator

b)

Air pistons

c)

Electrical motors

335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the

# a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to

maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces

b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change

c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered

336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time

b) one generator always comes on line before the other

# c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled

Page 38 - Mod 13

337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery

a) in the aircraft

b) when the battery is fully charged

# c) in the charging room only

338.

When removing the load from a current transformer

#

a) short the terminals

b)

place a resistor across each terminal

c)

leave the terminals open

339. Wing steady light must be visible through

a)

70 degrees

#

b) 110 degrees

c)

180 degrees

340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins

a) a and b

b) c and d

# c) e and f

341. When paralleling two AC generators

# a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence

ABC

b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA

c) they do not need to be in phase

342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that

#

a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser

b)

after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

c)

after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw

b) prevents slip and skid in yaw

# c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn

344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signals

b) integrating deviation signals

# c) integrating course error signals

345.

An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would

cause

a) the pointer to read zero

b) the pointer to read mid scale

# c) the pointer to read full scale

346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to

#

a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer

b)

use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent

c)

improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g

347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will

a)

increase with a higher rotor speed

#

b) decrease with a higher rotor speed

c)

decrease with a lower rotor speed

348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about

the gyroscope's

a)

lateral axis

#

b) longitudinal axis

c)

vertical axis

349. The glideslope equipment operates in the

a)

HF band

#

b) UHF band

c)

VHF band

350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause

a) aircraft to underbank

b) aircraft to overbank

# c) aircraft to remain in level flight

351.

In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver

are

#

a) DC

b)

AC

c)

pulsed DC

352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade

b) capacitance bridge

c) inductance decade

353. EICAS provides the following

a)

engine parameters

#

b) engine parameters and system warnings

c)

engine warnings and engine parameters

Page 40 - Mod 13

354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when

#

a) the flaps are moving down

b)

the flap are moving up

c)

the flap are moving up or down

355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system

a) operational

b) passive

# c) simplex

356. DSR TK (desired track) means

#

a) the bearing to capture the track

b)

a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points

c)

distance left or right from desired track

357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from

#

a) the barometric alt capsule

b)

a rad alt output

c)

a rad alt or capsule output depend on height

358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is

a)

FM Modulated

#

b) AM Modulated

c)

modulated with a 9960Hz

359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will

#

a) retard the throttle

b)

reverse thrust

c)

control throttle for a IAS

360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would

relate to the

a) amplitude

b) frequency

# c) rate of frequency change

361. The normal axis on a helicopter is

#

a) straight down the rotor head

b)

at 90 o to the C of G

c)

at 90 o to the rotor head

362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used

#

a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX

b)

make the audio signal clearer

c)

an Americanisum for volume

Page 41 - Mod 13

363. A GPS aerial is polarised

a) vertically

b) horizontally

# c) right hand circular

364. Mach trim threshold are set by the

a) pilot

b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual

# c) manufacture

365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to

a) correct the VSWR

b) stop arcing between the wave guide

# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide

366. An RMI requires the following inputs:

#

a) Heading and radio deviation

b)

Course and radio deviation

367. The versine signal is used in the

#

a) pitch channel only

b)

roll channel only

c)

pitch and roll channel

368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called

# a) transient droop

b) static droop

c) under swing

369. Loran C Uses

a) 16 KHz

b) 20 Mhz

# c) 100 Khz

370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is

#

a) 50% of control movement

b)

10% of control movement

c)

full control movement

371. GPS Telemetry consists of

a) week number and time label

b) satellite position information

c) 8 bits of preamble and position information

Page 42 - Mod 13

372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at

# a) 90 o

b) 180 o

c) 0 o

373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by

a)

Aircraft Maintenance Manual

#

b) JAR (OPS) M

c)

BCAR A4-8

374. The rotor disc is

# a) the distance between tip to tip

b) the rotor head hub

c) the ground cushion

375. A DME is in auto stand by when

a)

the ATC transponder is transmitting

#

b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second

c)

the TCAS is transmitting

376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90 o What is a RMI

display?

a) 90 o

b) 0 o

# c) 180 o

377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the

aircraft would

a)

continue on flying on the localizer

#

b) fly parallel to the localizer

c)

drift of from the localizer on the same heading

378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are

#

a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft

b)

below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.

c)

below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

a)

not less than 100 ft.

#

b) not less than 200 ft.

c)

below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

380. When GA is initiated?

a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level

b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles

# c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust

Page 43 - Mod 13

381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are

# a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.

b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.

c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation

382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by

a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering

b) visual indication and nosewheel steering

c) visual indication and rudder control

283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected

a)

all channels will disconnect in triplex system.

#

b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.

c)

all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will

a)

disconnect all channels

#

b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach

c)

disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach

285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will

#

a) retard throttle to idle.

b)

disconnect autothrottle

c)

select reverse thrust.

386. Roll out mode occurs

#

a) after flare

b)

before flare

c)

at alert height

287. High and low signal to voter are

a) average

b) removed

c) added

388. Basic monitoring is function of

a)

voting

#

b) signal comparison

c)

signal summing

389. In series rudder system

a)

the pilot cannot input to the system

#

b) the pilot can input to the system

c)

yaw damping is only possible signal input

Page 44 - Mod 13

390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that

a) the indicator is not serviceable

b) the control system is out of trim

c) the system is trimmed

391. in parallel rudder system,

a)

the pilot can input on rudder pedals

#

b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement

c)

The rudder pedals are disconnected

292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier.

This means it is

a) AC

b) DC

# c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

393. An increase in mach number will cause the

#

a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane

b)

Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane

c)

Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane

394. If one FMS fails in a duel system

a) system operation will not be affected

b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank

# c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS

#

a) use database loader

b)

insert new EPROM

c)

insert new data on CDU

396. To know the valid database on FMS

a) perform bite check

#

b) call up relevant page on CDU

c)

call up relevant current status

397. Magnetic heading errors will be

#

a) positive if easterly

b)

negative if easterly

c)

negative if northerly

398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a)

It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading

#

b) Move as the aircraft moves

c)

Stay fixed on magnetic north

Page 45 - Mod 13

399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

c) If P2 is before P1

400. A helicopter autopilot uses

#

a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold

b)

barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold

c)

barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?

a) Height Deviation

b) Radio deviation

# c) Course deviation

402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a)

Flare, attitude, rollout

#

b) Attitude, flare, rollout

c)

Rollout, attitude, flare

403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been

selected?

a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft

# b) When reached a desired altitude

c)

Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?

a) No other pitch modes are available

b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

c) All are continuously available

405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where

would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?

a)

In front of the lateral axis

#

b) Right of the longitudinal axis

c)

Left of the longitudinal axis

406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are

#

a) lift, drag thrust, weight

b)

lift, drag, thrust

c)

weight, drag, lift

Page 46 - Mod 13

407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

#

a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor

b)

Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter

c)

Provide directional control

408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse

ignoring the P2 pulse length?

#

a) 21 micro seconds

b)

8 micro seconds

c)

17 micro seconds

409. What does the Radar contour button do?

#

a) Alter the beam shape

b)

Alter the transmitter power

c)

Alter the video amplifier

410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target?

a) 12 miles

# b) 25 miles

c)

40 miles

411. With a spring balance control system you can

a) move the control surface on the ground

b) move the control surface only by moving the tab

c) not move the control surface on the ground

412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

#

a) 50 ohms

b)

20 ohms

c)

20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively

413. Alert Height is when

a)

a decision of whether to land is made

#

b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made

c)

an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position

b) controls the aircraft in trim

c) remains in the previous position

415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to

correct the pitch movement?

a) Lateral

b) Longitudinal

c) Normal

Page 47 - Mod 13

416. Versine is used in which channel?

#

a) Pitch

b)

Roll

c)

Yaw

417. A Master Warning is issued when

#

a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs

b)

cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs

418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF

installations?

#

a) Visual inspections

b)

Insulation testing

c)

CMC fault indications

419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course

knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?

a) Move left

b) Move right

c) Moves left then hard right

420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to

the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?

a) 030

b) 060

c) 090

421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?

a) 12,000ft

b) 5,000ft

# c) 18,000ft

422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to

rudder crossfeed be?

#

a) Left Rudder

b)

Right Rudder

c)

No Rudder

423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen

to the tab?

a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface

b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface

# c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface

Page 48 - Mod 13

424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

#

a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe

b)

Combustion chamber and jet pipe

c)

Jet pipe and combustion chamber

425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

#

a) Stick Shaker

b)

Stick Nudger

c)

EICAS warning

426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to

a) nose up

b) go one wing down

c) nose down

427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser

signal?

#

a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift

b)

It will fly in circles

c)

It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation

a)

it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount

#

b) it will fly in circles

c)

it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments

with excess deviation?

a) Red

b) Amber

c) White

430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?

#

a) FM

b)

Pulse

c)

FM and Pulse

431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?

a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal

b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete

432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?

# a) Normal

b) Longitudinal

c) Lateral

Page 49 - Mod 13

433. The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabiliser

# b) elevator

c) spoilers

434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes

#

a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up

b)

all the elevators on each wing to move up

c)

the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

435. What are ground spoilers used for?

#

a) To dump lift

b)

To assist the aircraft coming to a stop

c)

To slow the aircraft

436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this

command?

#

a) Control Wheel

b)

Control Column

c)

Rudder Pedals

437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

#

a) 3000 psi

b)

1000 psi

c)

300 psi

438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must

#

a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger

b)

defer the defect until correct spares are available

439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current

from a primary structure?

a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable

b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable

c) No smaller than 18AWG

440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a)

0.5

#

b) 1 ohm

c)

Between 1Megohm and 500,000

441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

#

a) Drag Strut

b)

Drag Wire

c)

Shock Absorber

Page 50 - Mod 13

442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

#

a) Increasing in lift

b)

Going to the highest point

c)

Increasing in drag

443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have?

#

a) 10% approximately

b)

100%

c)

50%

444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?

a)

Polarity sensitive AC

#

b) Polarity sensitive DC

c)

Either

445. What does an INS calculate on power up?

a) Last Known Longitude

# b) Last Known Latitude

446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what

effect will an autopilot input have?

a)

The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input

#

b) The cyclic lever will not move

c)

The flight director bars only will move

447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages?

#

a) Through the ground test function

b)

Through the Existing faults function

c)

Through the Present Leg faults function

448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?

#

a) The voltage activity in the servo amp

b)

Trim tab position

c)

Control surface position

449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?

a) 62

# b) 42

c) 20

450. When using a bonding tester you

#

a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points

b)

use the 60ft lead for testing different points

c)

use either leads for the testing

Page 51 - Mod 13

451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?

#

a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades

b)

Control of the speed of the rotor blades

c)

Control of the flap of the rotor blades

452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?

a) Disturbances

b) Velocity

# c) Pressure changes

453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the

control surface is moved?

a) It remains in the neutral position

b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface

c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface

454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces?

#

a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off

b)

Pull & tag circuit breakers

c)

Wear ear protection

455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by

#

a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer

b)

using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator

c)

blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer

456. What is the glide slope frequency range?

a) 108 - 112 Mhz

b) 108 - 112 Ghz

# c) 329 - 335 Mhz

457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?

a)

Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte

#

b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte

c)

Fluctuations in the terminal voltage

458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in

a) increase in lift without an increase in power

b) decrease in lift

c) decrease in speed

459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?

a)

Bell sound

#

b) Clacking sound

c)

Horn sound

Page 52 - Mod 13

460. What is a slot used for?

#

a) To reinforce the boundary layer

b)

Increased angle of attack during approach

c)

Increase the speed of the airflow

461. ADF is

a) Rho

b) Theta

c) Rho-Theta

462. A Boost Gauge reads

a)

above or below ambient atmospheric pressure

#

b) absolute pressure

c)

above or below ISA atmospheric pressure

463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

#

a) relative air flow

b)

tip path plane

c)

horizontal axis

464. If cyclic is moved to the right

a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another

b) the rotor blades on the right flap down

c) the rotor blades on the left flap down

465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system

a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz

b) 2 - 6 GHz

# c) 100 KHz

466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an

aileron going down?

a) Decrease stall speed

b) Increase stall speed

c) Have no effect on the stall speed

467. A high lift device is used for

#

a) take off and landing

b)

take off only

c)

landing only

468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part

of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?

a) Frame

b) Bulkhead

c) Stringer

Page 53 - Mod 13

469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

# a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission

b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area

c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area

470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

a) 100

b) 50

c) 20

471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?

a) Material of the coil

b) Material of the sensing element

c) Material of the indicator needle

472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would

a) roll back to the horizontal

b) continue to roll further

c) remain at the position that it had rolled to

473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

a) Spoiler to aileron

b) Spoiler to flap

c) Spoiler to elevator

474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

a) To enable vowels to be heard better

b) To enable consonants to be heard better

475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

#

a) underswing

b)

overswing

c)

a hole in one

476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level

above sea level then

a) it will not need resetting and will read zero

b) it will display the airfield height above sea level

c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected

a) by replacing capacitance probes

b) in parallel with capacitance probes

c) in series with capacitance probes

Page 54 - Mod 13

478. What is aileron droop?

a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow

b) One aileron lowered

c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on

479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?

a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor

b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive

c) By a swashplate

480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?

a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation

b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation

c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation

481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is

#

a) semi rigid

b)

rigid

c)

fully articulating

482. Earths atmosphere is

a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen

b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen

c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen

483. A thermocouple

a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added

b) cannot be shortened

c) can be shortened

484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?

a) Bellows and diaphragm

b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature

c) Press relief valve

485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is

achieved by

a) webs

b) outer plate

c) inner plate

486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?

a) 60

b) 63

c) 1000

Page 55 - Mod 13

487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

a) increases at the tip

b) increases at the root

c) is unaffected by blade position

488. TCAS II is

a) 10 aircraft per square mile

b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles

c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square

489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a

a) servomotor

b) loop voltage

c) Chinaman

490. FMC changes movement via

a) A/P actuator

b) flight control computer

c) straight to the actuator

491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors

a) certain parameters

b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer

c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

a) increase with the frequency

b) decrease with frequency

c) is not affected by frequency

493. What is lapse rate?

a) Pressure changes with altitude

# b) Temperature changes with altitude

c) Density changes with altitude

494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when

a) the flaps are lowered

b) at higher speeds

c) the landing gear is extended

495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?

a) The outside temperature

b) Electrolyte temperature

c) Charge state of the battery

Page 56 - Mod 13

496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?

a) Elevator up, left aileron down

b) Elevator down, right aileron down

497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?

a) Outer gimbal

b) Gyro case

c) Instrument case

498. DC power into the GCU comes from

a) main battery bus

b) main battery bus and ground service

c) ground service

499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

a)

1 capsule

#

b) 2 capsules

c)

3 capsules

500.

If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface

will

a) move up

b) move down

c) remain at the same place

501. Spring tabs

a) cannot be adjusted in flight

b) can be adjusted in the flight deck

c) cannot be adjusted

502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will

a) increase

b) decrease

c) remain

503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the

a) normal axis

b) lateral axis

# c) longitudinal axis

504. LOC signal modulation is

a) 50 %

# b) 20 %

c) 10 %

Page 57 - Mod 13

505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would

a) continue to roll

b) increases roll

c) come back to level flight

506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?

a) ASI

b) Machmeter

c) VSI

507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will

a)

decrease

#

b) increase

c)

remain the same

508. A Master Warning is issued when

a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs

b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire & trip occurs

509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?

a)

Elevator s

#

b) Elevons

c)

Ailerons

510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?

#

a) Up Elevator

b)

Left rudder

c)

Down elevator

511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?

a) Increases lift & reduces drag

# b) Increases lift and drag

512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?

#

a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds

b)

Reduces takeoff speeds only

c)

Reduces landing speeds only

513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?

a) Heading error

b) Course error

c) Radio deviation

Page 58 - Mod 13

514. What does a vibration type sensor measure?

a)

Maximum deflection

#

b) Frequency of deflections

c)

Direction of flexing

515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit?

a) A and B

b) B and C

c) E and F

516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?

a) Bellows or diaphragm

b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient

c) Piston and oil

517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as

#

a) Coefficient B

b)

Coefficient A

c)

Coefficient C

518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the

precession?

a) Increase

b) Remain unaffected

c) Decrease

519. A 'q' feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping

b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed

c) control movement effort relief

520. ADF operates within which frequencies?

#

a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz

b)

118 MHz - 132 MHz

c)

32 KHz - 64 KHz

521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?

a)

Roll out

#

b) Flare

c)

Touchdown

522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

a) DME Freq

b) LNAV

# c) CRZ

Page 59 - Mod 13

523. Mode C response is

a) 21microseconds

b) 12 microseconds

c) 8 microseconds

524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?

#

a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel

b)

Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary

c)

Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table

525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by

a) climb

b) descent

c) roll

526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires

a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites

b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites

c)

1 ground station and 6 satellites

527. The term `circling current' refers to

a) AC generators

b) AC and DC Generators

c) DC generators

528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only

have one to dispatch the aircraft.

Where do you fit it?

a) LH side

b) RH side

c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)

529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel

a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line

b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line

# c) aircraft flies in circles

530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the

a) IDG

b) CSD

c) swash plate

531. WX radar display the time base is

#

a) saw tooth wave form

b)

trapezoidal wave form

c)

rectangular wave form

Page 60 - Mod 13

532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD

commands. Aircraft will

a) stay on centre of course

b) stay parallel to course

c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing

533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

a) to increase GS signal

b) to decrease GS signal

c) to maintain GS signal

534. A helicopter needs to re-trim

#

a) indication is shown on the API

b)

indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI

c)

indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator

535. API Trim pointers are fed by

a) a synchro

b) an RVDT

c) an LVDT

536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum

power transfer is

a) 50 ohms

b) 25 to 75 ohms

c) 129 ohms

537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is

a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure

b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure

c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure

538. In audio clipping

a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal

b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal

c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels

539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

#

a) attenuation first then amplification

b)

amplification first then attenuation

c)

no attenuation but amplification

540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?

a) Decoder

b) Blocking oscillator

Page 61 - Mod 13

541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120

ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be

a) 80 ohms

b) 200 ohms

c) more than 20 mega ohms

542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect

a) ADI

b) Flight director computer

c) both of the above

543. A HUMS in a helicopter is

a) a vibration analysis system

b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a

premature failure

c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade

544. When the flaps are lowered

a) the lift vector moves forward

b) the lift vector moves rearward

c) there is no effect on the lift vector

545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a

# a) large increase in lift and drag

b) small increase in lift and drag

c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag

546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial

feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected

a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)

b) between the aerial and ATU

c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)

547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will

indicate

a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop

b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning

c)

the trim system is out of datum

548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually

a) dependent on aircraft altitude

b) 100%

c) chosen as a compromise

549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit

a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only

b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive

# c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive

Page 62 - Mod 13

550. MLS azimuth range is

a) +/- 30

b) +/- 42

c) +/- 62

551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates

a) 90

# b) 180

c) 0

552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when

#

a) flaps are retracted

b)

landing gear up and locked

c)

flaps extended

553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after

transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?

#

a) 96 nautical miles

b)

100 nautical miles

c)

104 nautical miles

554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft?

# a) 10

b) 5

555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?

a)

2-30 MHz

#

b) 118-136 MHz

c)

4-5 GHz

556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals

a) above the carrier signal

b) below the carrier signal

# c) No sidebands present

557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning

a) would initiate a Go Around

b) audio and Visual warning

c) visual warning only

Page 63 - Mod 13

558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

#

a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver

b)

can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver

c)

can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver

559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure

a) to the control wheel

b) to the control column

c) to the rudder pedals

560. On a modern aircraft about to stall

a) the outboard slats extend automatically

b) engine power increases automatically

c) the flaps retract automatically

561. Wing can spoilers be used?

a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn

b) As ground spoilers on landing

# c) To assist the elevators

562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure

b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb

c) set the rad alt to 0 feet

563. Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously

b) pitch and yaw simultaneously

# c) yaw and roll simultaneously

564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to

simulate a right bank, the antenna

a) will move up

b) will move down

c) will not move

565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to

a) length of the cable

b) transmitter power output

c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

Page 64 - Mod 13

566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.

compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass

a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining

compasses are adjusted with master compass

# b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously

on each heading

c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one

heading only

567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on

the deviation card should not exceed

a)

2 degrees

#

b) 3 degrees

c)

5 degrees

568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called

a) apparent error

# b) residual error

569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses

whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce

a)

Parallax error

#

b) Surface reflection

c)

Static to avoid dust attraction

570. Versine signal is governed by

a) roll

# b) pitch

c) yaw

571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by

a) 4%

# b) 7%

c) 10.321%

572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables

carrying electrical current is

a) 20 inches

# b) 24 inches

c) 28 inches

573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried

out with

a) an inclinometer

b) micrometer

c) spirit level

Page 65 - Mod 13

574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

#

a) Tachogenerator

b)

Feedback from control surface

c)

Feedback from servo motor

575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control

surfaces are

a) down

b) neutral

c)

droop

576. Radar beamwidth improves

a) range resolution

b) range accuracy

# c) bearing resolution

577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage?

a) 115V

b) 345V

# c) 460V

578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia.

This is the

a) opening dia. of pitot head

b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates

c) external dia of pitot head

579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication

#

a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment

b)

it does not have any adjustment

c)

a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments

580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted

a) in series with the field winding

b) in parallel with the field winding

c) in series with the generator output

581. When can wing spoilers be used?

a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn

b) As ground spoilers on landing

c) To assist the elevators

582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure

b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb

c) set the rad alt to 0 feet

583. Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously

b) pitch and yaw simultaneously

c) yaw and roll simultaneously

584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to

simulate a right bank, the antenna

a) will move up

b) will move down

c) will not move

585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to

a) length of the cable

b) transmitter power output

c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where

a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass

a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining

compasses are adjusted with master compass.

# b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously

on each heading.

c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading

only.

587.

Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on

the deviation card should not exceed

a)

2 Degree

#

b) 3 Degree

c)

5 Degree

588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called

a)

apparent error

#

b) residual error

c)

index error

589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses

whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce

a) parallax error.

#

b) surface reflection.

c)

static to avoid dust attraction.

590. Versine signal is governed by

a)

roll

#

b) pitch

c)

yaw

Page 67 - Mod 13

591. Increasing the real load primarily

a) decreases frequency

b) decreases output voltage

# c) increases output voltage and increases frequency

592. Inductive reactive load causes

a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated

b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated

# c) increase in torque only

593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

a) apparent power from the generator that does work

b) reactive power from the generator that does work

# c) real power from the generator that does work

594.

The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency

is by

#

a) angle of swash plate

b)

IDG

c)

restriction valve

595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a) A reverse current flowing from the battery

b) short circuits

# c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be

#

a) stationary

b)

rotating at idle

c)

rotating at Nsync

597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

#

a) enable generators to be paralleled

b)

prevent engine overload

c)

maintain constant load on the generator

598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely

consequence is

#

a) activation of the time delay circuit

b)

de-activation of the field regulatory TRs

c)

energise the bus tie relay

599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an

indication that the

#

a) CSD drives shaft had sheared

b)

phase sequence detection circuit has operated

c)

bus tie interlock is inoperative

Page 68 - Mod 13

600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will

a) decrease and amperage output increases

b) increases and amperage output increases

# c) remain constant and amperage output increases

601. Battery trays are

a)

metal for earthing purposes

#

b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint

c)

absorbent to soak up electrolyte

602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in

a) parallel

b) series

# c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option

603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

a) Ground or earth

b) Positive to battery relay

# c) Positive to external power relay

604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

a)

71 degrees F

#

b) 144 Degrees F

c)

144 Degrees C

605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by

#

a) constant voltage

b)

constant current

c)

constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to

constant voltage

606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

a)

Chapter 24 Section 21

#

b) Chapter 24 Section 31

c)

Chapter 31 Section 21

607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a)

in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length

#

b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact

c)

in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

Page 69 - Mod 13

608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

#

a) stationary

b)

fluctuating

c)

pulse width modulating

609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

a) transformers and transistors

b) diodes and transformers

# c) zeners and transistors

610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by

a) voltage coil

b) current coil

# c) voltage and current coil

1. Flaps at landing position

a)

decrease take off and landing speed

b)

decrease take off speed

#

c) decrease landing speed

2.

Lowering of the flaps

#

a) increases drag and lift

b)

increases drag

c)

increases lift

3.

Pushing the left rudder pedal

#

a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise

b)

yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise

c)

yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing

4.

What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

a)

Check of aircraft structure

b)

Bonding and insulation tests

#

c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment

5.

What do ruddervators do?

#

a) Control pitch and yaw

b)

Control pitch and roll

c)

Control yaw and roll

6.

On a helicopter what is dragging?

a)

Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges

#

b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge

c)

Contact of the blade tips on the ground

7.

What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a)

Elevators

b)

Ailerons

#

c) Elevons

8.

If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

#

a) an internal doubler

b) external doubler

c) an intercostals

9. What does a trim tab do?

#

a) Eases control loading for pilot

b)

Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit

c)

Provides finer control movements by the pilot

Page 1 - Mod 13

10. How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

b) In the same direction a small amount

# c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

11. Satellite transmits updates on every

a)

13th orbit

b)

9th orbit

c)

2nd orbit

12.

Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a)

DC bus

b)

AC bus

#

c) GND services

13.

Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a)

modulator and power amp

#

b) local oscillator and modulator

c)

local oscillator and demodulator

14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to

a) 0

b) 090

# c) 180

15. What is power at pulse?

a) Peak power

b) Pulsed power

16.

What frequency increases radar relative range

a)

Long

#

b) Short

c)

Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change

17.

If radar pulse is reduced there is

a)

increased relative range

b)

reduced relative range

#

c) no effect

18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance

would be

a) 80 ohm

b) 160 ohm

c) 0 ohm

Page 2 - Mod 13

19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you

#

a) 3 ft error

b)

6ft error

c)

12 foot error

20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a)

widest width

#

b) narrowest width

c)

number of joints and bends

21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?

#

a) Left

b)

Right

c)

In-between legs

22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

#

a) Increases lift

b)

No effect

c)

Increases thrust

a) Pfifer damper

b) Swashplate

c) Scissor levers

24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

#

a) Weight of blade

b)

Engine and gearbox

c)

Fineness ratio

25. Relative velocity of rotor

#

a) increases at fwd travelling blade

b)

increases at retreating blade

c)

is equal for all blades

26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?

a) Increase

# b) Decrease

c) No effect

27. How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8

# b) 4

c) 6 90 o apart

Page 3 - Mod 13

28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery

needs

a) topping up with distilled water

b) replacing

# c) recharging

29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

#

a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit

b)

No effect

c)

Electrical systems shut down

30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees

b)

15 degrees

c)

10 degrees

31.

A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a)

the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected

b)

the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any

failure is detected

# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure

32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a)

QDH

#

b) QDM

c)

QDR

33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a)

pitch rate gyros

#

b) radio altimeters

c)

vertical accelerometers

34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from

a) roll errors

b) localiser deviation errors

# c) heading errors

35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure

b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate

# c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting

36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a)

only when autopilot is engaged

#

b) after glideslope capture

c)

at any time

Page 4 - Mod 13

37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as

satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the

# a) decision height

b) intercept height

c) alert height

38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external

reference

b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters

39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office

b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway

# c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway

40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment

which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have

a)

a decision height of about 50 feet

#

b) no decision height

c)

a decision height depending upon the RVR

41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

a) assist the aerodynamic response

b) produce a co-ordinated turn

# c) block the Dutch roll frequency

42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will

disconnect

a)

all channels

#

b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland

c)

the failed system and continue with a manual approach

43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal

b) integrating deviation signal

# c) integrating course error

44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are

a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD

# b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM