MODULE 7 : MAINTENANCE PRACTICE 1.

Small instrument terminations may be made by a) Soldering a split wire loop b) Soldering half loop c) Unsoldered split wire loop 2. A suitable cable for use in fire protection system would be? a) Flame b) Glacial c) Unifire F 3. Heavy duty cable runs can be reduced by using a) Heavy duty relays b) Lower voltages c) Superior voltages 4. The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is always a) Continuity, bonding, functional b) Continuity, insulation, functional c) Bonding, insulation, continuity 5. The minimum insulation value allowed on a 28V DC machine is a) 2.0 mega ohms b) 0.2 mega ohms c) 0.5 mega ohms 6. A meter has a resistance of 10000 ohms/volt when selected to the 10V range. Reading 0.5V load is a) 1 000 ohms b) 100 000 ohms c) 50 000 ohms 7. The conductor in tensile cable a) Copper b) Silver plated copper c) Nickel plated copper 8. Copper cable fittings are a) Not fitted to aluminium cables b) Fitted to aluminium cables c) Available in 4-10 A rang only 9. The current rating of 14 gauge cable compared to a 18 gauge cable is a) Less b) More c) Same

10. The advantage of copper cable is a) High permeability b) No magnetic field c) Low resistance to current flow 11. Over twisting of multi-strand cable causes a) The strands to flare b) The diameter to increase c) A gap between insulation and conductor 12. Bonding is used to a) Isolate lightning strike damage b) Isolate components electrically and make static potential constant c) Safely dissipate static discharges 13. When crimping using a hydraulic crimping tool the crimp is completed correctly when a) The pressure relieve valve open b) The ratchet releases c) The correct imprint is on the crimp 14. Bonding measurement of a material with an anodic coating the resistance a) Is taken into account b) The coating must be penetrated c) Is neglible 15. Loss of electrical insulation will show a) Open circuit between supply and earth b) Open circuit in supply c) Short circuit between supply and earth 16. Correct bend radius for a cable loom is not less than a) 3 times outside diameter of cable loom b) 5 times outside diameter of cable loom c) 8 times outside diameter of cable loom 17. A cable is marked to ATA 100 standard 1E6B22N B indicates a) B phase of 3 phase supply b) Circuit function c) Cable segment 18. The diameter of an aluminium electrical cable is a) Greater than a copper cable of the same current rating b) The same as a copper cable of the same current rating c) Less than a copper cable of the same current rating 19. A coaxial cable is used for a) Small DC signals b) Sensitive AC signal c) Square wave signals only

20. The hole in the base of a Daniels crimp is for a) To allow visual inspection of soldered joints b) To allow solder to enter hole c) To ensure correct length of cable 21. A high resistance crimped connection can be found by a) Continuity test b) Milivolt drop test c) Insulation test 22. If a white powder is formed on aluminium this makes the metal a) A better conductor b) An insulator c) A worse conductor 23. High resistance in heavy current connections causes a) Excess power dissipation at connection b) Damage to power source c) Breakdown of cable insulation 24. The requirements for the design of cable looms are stated in a) CAIPs b) BCARs c) Airworthiness notices 25. To prevent electrical interference an unscreened aerial should be separated a) 28 inches b) 8 inches c) 18 inches 26. A cable routed outside the pressurized area of an aircraft could be subjected to a temperature of a) Minus 80C b) Minus 56C c) Minus 180C 27. Where ever possible cables connected to apparatus shall be arranged to run from the apparatus a) Upwards b) Parallel c) Downwards 28. Where possible the distance from the terminal to the nearest point of support should not exceed a) 6 inches b) 8 inches c) 10 inches

29. The length of strapping supplied for use with a binding tool is a) 24 inches b) 24 feet c) 12 inches 30. The size of a drain hole provided in a cable conduit should be a) inches b) 1/16 inches c) 1/8 inches 31. Wire splices in a loom should be staggered to keep the loom a) Of equal resistance b) As small as possible c) A standard capacitance 32. The resistance and continuity of a cartridge is tested using a) Insulation tester b) Lamp and battery c) Safety ohmmeter 33. The cartridge insulation test is carried out by connecting the tester a) To all pins and the cartridge body b) Between connections c) To any connection and the cartridge body 34. When a cartridge is life expired the a) Cartridge and head are replace b) Cartridge only is replaced c) Cartridge and extinguisher are replaced 35. A 250 V megger should never be used on a) AC motors b) Lead acid batteries c) Electronic equipment 36. Electrical symbols are found in a) Standard practices b) Introduction c) Chapter 24 electrical power 37. Securing wire bundles information is found in a) Introduction b) Chapter 24 electrical power c) Standard practices 38. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram only b) Schematic diagram c) Both schematic and wirings diagram

39. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found in a) Wiring diagram only b) Both schematic and wirings diagram c) Schematic diagram 40. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments a) Fuselage Chapter 53 b) Wings Chapter 57 c) Structures- General Chapter 51 41. An AVO meter measures AC square wave. What is indicated? a) True RMS b) Higher than RMS c) Lower than RMS 42. ATA 100 manual layout the airframe SYSTEM group occupies a) 51-57 b) 5-12 c) 20-49 43. Which element in the ATA number 24-16-01 refers to the chapter? a) 24 b) 01 c) 16 44. Service bulletins are issued by the a) CAA b) Manufacturer c) Aircraft operator 45. In maintenance manual description and operation is covered in page block a) 101-199 b) 201-299 c) 1-99 46. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied by a) The aircraft manufacturer b) The component manufacturer c) Chapter 24 Electrical Power 47. Securing wire bundles information is found in a) Introduction b) Chapter 24 electrical power c) Standard practices 48. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram only b) Schematic diagram c) Both schematic and wirings diagram

49. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found in a) Wiring diagram only b) Both schematic and wirings diagram c) Schematic diagram 50. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments a) Fuselage Chapter 53 b) Wings Chapter 57 c) Structures- General Chapter 51 51. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied by a) The aircraft manufacturer b) The component manufacturer c) Chapter 24 Electrical Power 52. Bonding of metal for lightning strike on composite materials a) Does not need bonding as frame is an insulator b) Have cages with secondary bonding arrangements c) Is bonded by connecting together with primary bonding connections 53. When using a bonding tester a) The single probe is permanently connected b) The dual probe is permanently connected c) Both probes is permanently connected 54. Before conducting an insulation test all filaments should be a) Bridged b) Removed c) Earthed 55. An acceptable resistance value for a galley lighting circuit is a) 2 mega ohms b) 1 mega ohms c) 5 mega ohms 56. To find details of electrical connector assembly you would refer to a) Chapter 20 and 91 of the appropriate manual b) Chapter 20 of the appropriate manual c) Chapter 20 and 94 of the appropriate manual 57. Standard circuit symbols will be found in a) ATA 200 specification b) ATA 100 specification c) British Standard 3939 58. In practice circuit symbols used in production of aircraft wiring diagrams will a) Always be found in aircraft maintenance manual chapter 20 b) Always be found in standard specification c) Normally be found in standard specification

59. The final element of a schematic wiring diagram will normally be a) Issue 1, 2, 3 etc b) Sheet 1, 2, 3 c) 101, 201, 301 etc 60. A service bulletin with a red top a) Originates from company quality department b) Is an alert bulletin from the manufacturer c) Originates from CAA 61. Which of the following parts of an ATA 100 series code for wires and cables refers to an ATA chapter number a) The wire number b) The wire number prefix c) The code suffix letters 62. Two wires are connected to a common terminal. Which part of their ATA 100 wire codes will be different? a) The segment letter b) The wire number prefix c) The wire number 63. If an ATA 100 wire code has a five digit wire number it means that a) The wire is part of parallel system b) The wire is part of a very large system c) The wire is not part of the system 64. If a wire has a V suffix it means that it is part of a) An earth work b) A single phase system c) A three phase system 65. Another name for a crimping barrel is a a) Bush b) Itongue c) Ferrule 66. A properly crimped cable should have good electrical a) Resistance b) Conductivity c) Insulation 67. A crimp barrel extension is provided to secure the a) Eye end b) Conductivity c) Insulation 68. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Efglas b) Unifire F c) Tersil

69. Which of the following cables has a conductor of tinned copper strands? a) Tersil b) Nyvin c) Efglas 70. A cable is marked Tersil 22 the 22 refers to a) The current rating b) The current/weight ratio c) The America Wire Gauge of the conductor 71. Which one of the following cables if heated excessively could give off toxic fumes a) Nyvin b) Efglas c) Tersil 72. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Unifire F b) Tersil c) Efglas 73. Which of the following cables it has a conductor of tinned copper strands a) Nyvin b) Efglas c) Tersil 74. Copper cables end fittings are a) Fitted to aluminium cables b) Not fitted to aluminium cables c) Available in 4-10 Amp rangesonly 75. The preferred method of terminating cables is a) Soldering b) Clamping c) Crimping 76. Silver soldering may be used on a) Bonding jumper leads b) EGT compensating leads c) Gyroscoping instruments 77. The Nyvin type of cable used on aircraft will normally be used for a) High temperature areas b) High frequency circuit c) General wiring 78. When aluminium cables are being crimped it is essential to use an inhibitor to a) Prevent oxidation b) Form a bond between lug and cable c) Prevent interaction between metals

79. An AMP hand crimping tool has insulation adjustment pins. Position 1 indicates a) Loosest b) Tightest c) Medium 80. The use of in-line splices in aircraft electrical circuits is a) Unrestricted provided the task is carried out using approved tools b) Permitted in all circuits except fire and thermocouples c) Restricted by an associated design authority 81. Crimping tools are periodically tested on the basis of a) Elapsed calendar time only b) Elapsed calendar time or number of crimps performed c) A combination of numbers of crimps and the year of manufacturer of the tool 82. High voltage checks on identification marked thin walled cables are called for by a) BCAR section J b) A civil airworthiness inspection procedure c) Airworthiness Notices 83. Aircraft cable identification purposes letter coding of cable manufacturer will be listed in a) British Standards b) BCAR section J c) BCAR section D or JAR 25 84. Aircraft cable current ratings go down when cables are mounted in looms because a) Of high induced EMFs between conductors b) Conductor cores get hotter if cables are bunched c) Insulation properties will be increased between conductors 85. A cable is marked 2426-0021 in ATA 100 series style a) The cable is part of the air conditioning system b) The cable is part of the fire warning system c) The cable is part of the electrical circuits 86. When preparing cable for fixing terminations the conductor strands are twisted a) Tightly with pliers b) To reform the original lay c) Tightly by hand 87. Cables should be marked at intervals of not more than a) 15 inches throughout their length b) 18 inches throughout their length and 6 inches at each end c) 15 inches throughout their length and 3 inches at each end 88. The spacing between any unscreened cable and any aerial lead should be a) 18 inches b) 12 inches c) 24 inches

89. If no tail connection is required the metal braid screening on cables should be a) Frayed turned back and bound with tinned copper b) Carefully cut off c) Pricked out folded lack and bound with copper 90. Crimped terminals are more satisfactory because a) Less skill is required to make the connection b) Special tools are not required c) Connections are stronger 91. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is a) Magnetic flow b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flux 92. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot c) When the item is quite cool 93. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is a) Magnetic flux b) Electro flux c) Dye penetrate 94. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible b) De-magnetized before returning to service c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible 95. When using dye penetrate at +4C a) The temperature has no effect b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate 96. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is a) Magnetic flow b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flux 97. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot c) When the item is quite cool 98. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is a) Magnetic flux b) Electro flux c) Dye penetrate

99. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible b) De-magnetized before returning to service c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible 100. When using dye penetrate at +4C a) The temperature has no effect b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate The higher the gauge number, the .................. the wire diameter. a) Larger b) Smaller c) Longer PVC insulated wiring is no longer used due to its flammability and production of toxic gases, which are corrosive, during combustion. a) b) False c) True 103. A fuse is wired in parallel with the circuit load a) False b) True c) The term ............ as applied to circuit breakers, means the breaker cannot be reset as long as the overload condition exists. a) Trouble-free b) Trip-free c) Wont reset Reed switch contacts open or close as a function of being placed in close proximity to a a) Fluid substance b) Electrical source c) Magnetic field Hydraulic pressure can be restored by a) The use of a pressure/ heat exchange b) Compressing the air charge in accumulator c) Compressing the fluid in the reservoir The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to a) Collect air from the hydraulic fluid, thus reducing the requirement for frequent bleeding b) Relieve excess pressure c) Store hydraulic fluid under pressure

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If the hydraulic system accumulator has a low air pressure, it will cause a) Rapid pressure fluctuations during operation services b) Rapid movement of the operating jacks c) Slow build up of pressure in the system When checking a hydraulic accumulator initial air pressure, the hydraulic system pressure a) Should be at the normal working pressure b) Should be released c) Is not important If 1500 psi hydraulic pressure is pumped into an accumulator, with a pre-charge air pressure of 1000 psi the gauge will read a) 2500 psi b) 1000 psi c) 1500 psi If the insulation is split on a flexible hydraulic-pipe, the pipe is a) Unserviceable and must not be used b) Serviceable and can remain in use c) Scrap Bleeding of a hydraulic system is carried out a) To completely drain the system b) To remove foreign matter from the system c) To remove air from the system In a hydraulic system, sluggish operation of the services may be caused by a) Air in system b) Air in the accumulator at too high a pressure c) Air trapped in the reservoir under pressure Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with a) Methylated spirits b) The same type of hydraulic fluid as use in the system c) Any clean hydraulic fluid The symbol with the skull and crossbones attached to pipelines indicates a) That these pipelines are only used to carry oxygen b) The such pipelines must never be used in pressurized areas c) The injury or damage could result if the laid down precautions are not observed before disconnecting such a pipe Some types of quill drive incorporate a wasted portion in their length a) To provide clearance of the splines b) To allow the drive to shear in the event of component failure c) To keep the weight factor low

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To check a flexible pipe for obstruction, fluid should be passed through the pipe a) In direction of normal flow, at a pressure equivalent to 1.5 times normal working pressure b) In the direction indicated on the outer casing at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid c) In both directions, at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid A liquid is said to be more viscous than another a) When it offers more resistance to flow under the same condition than the other b) When it offers less resistance to flow under the same condition than the other c) When it will float on top of the other In a variable delivery hydraulic pump, lubrication is provided by a) A self contained oil system from the engine b) An internal fluid bleed across the pump c) Greased packed bearing What would be used to check the bore of a flexible hydraulic pipe a) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the end fitting b) A ball bearing 95% of the bore of the pipe c) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the pipe _____________ is used to identify bronze, it produces white powder a) Citric acid b) Nitric acid c) Phosphoric acid ____ is used to identify aluminum, it turns black when copper is in alloy. a) Boric acid b) Nitric acid c) Caustic soda The three principle types of hydraulic fluid (ester, mineral and vegetable) a) Are distinguishable by colour b) Are not distinguishable by colour c) Are distinguishable by colour only when they come from the same manufacturer A high pressure relief valve, incorporated in a hydraulic system will operate at a) Normal working pressure to control the hydraulic pump output] b) A pressure higher than normal working pressure, if the normal pressure limiting device c) Less than normal working pressure, to prevent over loading the hydraulic pump A hydraulic metering valve, or one way restrictor, in a hydraulic system a) Meters the flow in both directions b) Allows to flow in one direction only c) Gives full flow in one direction and restricted flow in the opposite direction

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Adding too much accelerator to a composite mix will a) Have no effect on its strength b) Decrease the mix strength c) Increase the mix strength What material is used for cargo bay liners a) Nomex b) Kevlar c) Resin reinforced fibre glass What does an embossed ring on the head of a bolt indicate? a) High tensile steel, cold forged b) Low tensile steel c) High tensile steel, machined Normalizing of solid rivets used in the construction of metal airplanes require heat treatment at temperature of a) 359 5F b) 495 5C c) 495 5F What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminum alloy? a) White powder b) Brown powder c) Black powder What chemical is used to identify aluminum alloy a) Copper sulphate b) Caustic soda c) Nitric acid When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer? a) When the nut is removed from an inaccessible place b) When the nut is removed infrequently c) When the nut is removed frequently An aluminum alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification 'O' has a material specification a) L 86 b) L 18 c) L 37 Alclad can be identified by using a) Nitric acid b) Caustic soda c) Selenious acid Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been a) Tested to destruction b) Manufactured by British Aerospace c) Manufactured to approved drawings

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Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with _____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc chromate. a) Citric acid b) Phosphoric acid c) Nitric acid To remove corrosion from steel use a wire brush and a) Boric acid b) Nitric acid c) Caustic soda For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acid a) Magnesium b) Titanium c) Aluminium _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powder a) Filiform corrosion b) Freeting corrosion c) Exfoliation corrosion Filiform corrosion is/are a) Layers of corrosion b) Dissimilar corrosion c) Worm casts Exfoliation corrosion is/are a) Worm casts b) Layers of corrosion c) Fretting corrosion Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaust to detect a) Measure tensile strength b) Test material hardness c) Measure magnetic permeability Crevice corrosion due bad design and a) Bad sealing b) Wrong heat treatment c) To close spacing On aluminum corrosion remove corrosion with aluminum wool a) And steel wool b) But no steel wool c) And a wire bush

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After aluminum corrosion is removed treat first with a) Paint b) Sealant c) Aluchrome 1200 Less noble material is anodized due a) Filiform corrosion b) Dissimilar corrosion c) Fretting corrosion Standard Aircraft paint is _________ paint a) Doped b) Enamel c) Polyeurethan Acid paint remover is ____________ on Aircrafts a) Not allowed b) Allowed c) _____________ paint remover on composite material a) You may use b) Do not use c) Prior to install a de-iced boot roughen surface and clean with a) Acetone b) Varsol c) MEK Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lube a) Carbon b) Lanolin c) Ester Control cable spool is ___ times diameter of cable a) 20 b) 25 c) 40 Preload a control cable by ___ and cut with a chisel a) 50% b) 150% c) 200% Load proof of chains is ___ of max load a) 75% b) c) 50%

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To check if rollers in chain are seized, check a) Use magnifying glass b) Individual rollers c) Deformation of teeth Chains have no quick detach they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation is a) 10% b) 2% c) 5% Chains must not be twisted. To change direction use a a) Revision link b) Pulley c) Bi-planar block Blue bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed Brown bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed Radial load = journal load bearings are e.g. a) Brass bearings b) Needle bearings c) Wheel bearings Thrust bearing carry a) Radial load b) Axial load c) Torque load 'Fill in slot' in bearing ________ the load carrying capacity a) Equalize b) Increase c) Decrease V-marks on bearing mean a) Bearing comes in set of 2 or 3 b) Bearing can be used for axial and radial load c) Bearing is for high rotational speed Dots on bearings: 1 to 5 dots define _________ of bearing a) Hardness b) Oversize c) Load capacity

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Pipes: bend radii is ____ times diameter a) 4-5 b) 2-3 c) 3-4 Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working pressure. a) Same as b) 1.5 times c) 2 times A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on pipes a) 75% b) 90% c) 80% A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on a flex hose a) 90% b) 80% c) 75% Hose must be _______________ distance a) 5% longer than b) 3% longer than c) the same length as the Leather must not be used near pipes a) Because it will not skydrol resistance b) It is not strong enough for clamps c) Because of corrosion UK flare is 32 on British AGS union. US flare is a) 60 b) 37 c) 50 Flaring tool: pipe must a) Extend the cone by 2% b) Extend the cone by 2mm c) Be flush with cone Bending tubes: Fusible alloy to bend (100C) lubricate before using with _______. Block bottom and pour melted fusible alloy and immerse in water - let bubbles out. a) Oil b) Naphta c) Kerosene

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Tank sealant use PR1431 for surface & PR1422 for filling ; A=_____ B=____ , must be worked within hour. Cover with EC776 rejuvenator. a) A = Thick, B = Soft b) A = Soft, B = Thick c) A = hard in 1 hour, B = hard in 2 hours Taper pins are used in tubular sections - _____ reamers are used for holes a) Adjustable b) Standard c) Tapered Rivets: A rivet = generic for cabin = plain ; AD rivet 2117 Alu = dimple ; D rivet 2017 Alu = raised dot ; a) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised circle b) DD rivet 2024 Alu = 2 raised dashes c) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised X D & DD rivets need to be heat treated max a) Once b) 2 times c) 3 times Solution treat rivets and drive within a) 2 hours b) 3 hours c) 90 minutes MS20470AD5-12 is mil std 20470 is head shape ; AD = 2117 Alu ; ____ dia ; 12/16" length. a) 5/8 b) 5/32 c) 5/16 Rivet size is __ x metal gauge a) 2 b) 2.5 c) 3 Rivet length is total thickness plus allowance. The allowance depends on a) The material b) The type of shop head c) The required strength Reaction and snap are a) 1 D b) 2 D c) 1.5 D

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Snap on countersink is a) 0.75 D b) 0.8 D c) 1 D AVDEL rivets are a) Jo-bolts b) Pop rivets c) Deutsch rivets British rivets have e.g. a) Dimples b) Dot c) Colour coding To drill holes for cutting thread use ______________ for drill size to drill hole a) Caliper b) Zeus book or table c) Ruler Cutting thread: BA = British Association Tab has a) 4 tabs b) 3 tabs c) only 2 instead of 3 Max bow of a straight tubular member is a) 1:600 b) 1:500 c) 1:800 Carbon is added to steel to a) Increase ductility b) Increase hardness c) Decrease brittleness TIG welding Tungsten Inert Gas welding or MIG use e.g. a) Oxygen as inert gas b) Hydrogen as inert gas c) Argon as inert gas Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made of a) Brass b) Copper c) Steel Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and silver a) General purpose solder b) Low temp solder c) High temp solder

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Brazing: Stick together and a) Fill gaps b) Weld together c) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylene cyl are maroon and have _______ and hose is red. a) Withword thread b) LH thread c) RH thread Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles are a) Black with a white collar b) Blue c) gray Nitrogen for tires is required for aircraft a) Over 2730 kg b) Over 5700 kg c) Over 13, 600 kg O2 filling station may be LH thread ; O2 cyl is ____________________ for A/C use a) Black and has a silver neck b) Green and has a white neck c) Black and has a white neck Duraluminum is Alu-copper alloy = hard ; y-alloy of aluminum is used for a) Pistons b) Gears c) Flexible brackets 2024 = alu/copper ; 7075 = Alu/Zinc ; T2 = _______ ; heat treatment T2 to T10 a) Age hardened b) Annealed c) Surface hardened Alu patches: Solution treat rivets and drive within ________, heat maximum ________. a) 2 hours and 2 times b) 3 hours and 2 times c) 2 hour and 3 times Testing Alu use 10% caustic soda a) Duraluminum turns white and aluminum turns black b) Aluminum turns white and duraluminum turns black c) Aluminum turns brown and duraluminum turns black

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To identify steel use copper sulphate a) Steel turns black and stainless does not change b) Stainless steel turns red and steel does not change c) Steel turns red and stainless does not change To identify bronze use Nitric acid a) It has white precipitation b) It has golden precipitation c) It bubbles After cold working use __________ to relief stress a) Age hardening b) Normalizing c) Tempering Heat treatment: Anneal = ______, ______ & Temper a) Increase brittleness and increase ductility b) Harden and soften c) Soften and harden Brinell, Rockwell & Vickers are hardness test methods. Brinell test uses a a) Diamond b) Ball c) Cone When installing V-clamps. Re-inspect for a) Proper nut used b) Proper gap c) Proper seating of seal Split pins and tab washers can be reused a) Never b) After inspection c) Only once _________ is maximum length of unsupported safety wire a) 2.5 inch b) 3 inch c) 4 inch Drilling titanium use a) Low feed and low speed b) High speed and low feed c) High feed and low speed __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should point forward. a) 4 b) 3 c) 5

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Hack saw blades are measured in a) Teeth per metre b) Teeth per cm c) Teeth per inch Chalk when used with a file a) Gives a fine finish b) Gives a gray colour c) Make less noise Taper ratio for large drills is a) 1:50 b) 1:20 c) 1:30 If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fits b) Use an extension c) use morse adapter Store rubber away from a) Motors and air conditioning b) Motors and light c) Air conditioning and light Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment a) Are non-essential b) Non-critical c) The critical A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions = 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is a) An Old English Caliper b) A New English Caliper c) A metric caliper A caliper with 49/25 - 1.2 : 25 is a) Old English Caliper b) The current English Caliper System New English Caliper is a) 24/25 b) 49/25 c) 49/50 Metric micrometer accuracy is a) 0.002mm 49/50 b) 0.02mm 49/50 c) 0.2mm 49/50

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Micrometer: Barrel is _____ and thimble ______ a) Fixed and floats b) Turns and fixed c) Fixed and turns A metric micrometer has ___ on thimble a) 50 b) 40 c) 30 Calipers and Micrometers are calibrated a) Every 12 month b) Every 6 month c) Every 8 month Calipers and Micrometers prior to use a) Use test piece b) Assure temperature is within normal range c) Check for 0 alignment Internal micrometers (stick micrometers) expand and have a) T-handle b) Replaceable extension rods c) Replaceable gap rods Drawings: For latest drawing see design companies a) General drawing book b) Drawing book c) Master drawing book British Standard for drawings is a) BS 308 b) BS 328 c) BS 318 A drawing has 4 signatures: Drawer, Stress engineer, double check for stress & a) Design engineer b) Approval c) Company A drawing must have: Title, Drawing number, issue number and a) CAA approval b) Issuing company c) Date of issue Any changes to a drawing must be accompanied by a new issue number and a) Approval b) Date c) Old issue number

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Drawings: In all cases where interchangeability is affected _____ drawing is required a) A new drawing may be used b) No new c) A new Orthographic projection -single part- ha minimum ________ views for drawings a) 2 dimension b) 3 dimension c) 1 dimension First angle orthographic projection = UK looking from _____ unfolded a) Top b) Front c) Left US Plan view is from a) Left b) Front c) Top Sections have hatching lines a) At 60 spaced 4mm b) At 45 spaced 4mm c) At 45 spaced 6mm Third orthographic projection is top a) Left b) In front c) On top Pictorial drawing: Oblique is a) 30, 40, 60 b) 30-30 c) 30-70 Pictorial drawing: Isometric is a) 30-70 b) 30-30 c) 30, 40, 60 Dimension line in new system number is a) Below line b) Above line c) On line Information about NDT is found in a) AWN 45 b) AWN 94 c) AWN 96

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Dye check with field kit only , Temp limit is a) Above 0C b) 4F c) 4C Dye check: on a pressure vessel spray penetrate a) Inside and developer on outside b) Outside and developer inside c) Outside and developer outside After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack and a) Make a decision b) Recheck after 20 minutes c) Recheck after 5 minutes Magnetic particle check fluid is a) Engine oil b) Kerosene c) Paraffin oil (For question no 246 250, please refer to this diagram)

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The Point angle of a standard drill is a) 118 on either side of centre b) 59 on either side of centre c) 70 on either side of centre Drill size E is a) 3/8 inch b) 5/15 inch c) inch The chisel edge angle is a) 125 to 135 b) 118 c) 59 on either side

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The lip relief angle or heel angle is a) 25 to 25 b) 12 to 15 c) 6 to 10 If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fits b) Use an extension c) use morse adapter What is the purpose of the cutting edge on the flute of a drill? a) To assist in cooling b) To reduce friction c) To prevent drilling oversize holes When filing _________ gives a fine finish. a) Light oil b) Talcum c) Chalk Taper ratio of larger drills is a) 1:20 b) 1:30 c) 1:40 ______________ on a bearing 1 to 5 define over size of bearing. a) X-es b) Dots c) Dashes For radial load or journal load a ______________ is used. a) Shoulder bushing b) Thrust bearing c) Wheel bearing For weight and balance passengers, cargo and fuel are a) Variable load b) Disposable load c) Basic weight For weight and balance crew and special equipment are part of a) Basic weight b) Disposable load c) Variable load For weight and balance aircraft and basic equipment are part of a) Basic weight b) Disposable load c) Variable load

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The leads of a bonding tester a) Are standard leads b) Have critical length c) Must be colour coded TIG and MIG welding: IG stands for ______________ welding. a) Intense gas b) Isolated group c) Inert gas Maintenance action which brings units to approved standard to extend operation life is a) Repair b) Overhaul c) Modification Maintenance action which restores units to a serviceable condition as per an approved standard is a) Modification b) Overhaul c) Repair Examination of a unit to establish conformity with approved specification is a) Inspection b) Controlling c) Checking Removal and replacement of an approved part is a) Repair b) Replacement c) Renewal Another word for modification is a) Renewal b) Overhaul c) Alteration Stress is the a) Indicate the aircraft has reached Mach 1 b) Load per unit area acting on a material c) Permit a high rate of descent from cruise level, in emergency A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms a) At the leading edge and moves to the highest point of the chamber b) At the leading edge and moves to the trailing edge c) On top and bottom surface and moves aft to the trailing edge

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A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms a) At the highest chamber on both upper and lower surfaces, then travels rearwards to the trailing edge b) At the leading edge, then travels along the upper surface to the trailing edge c) At the leading edge, then travels along the lower surface to the trailing edge The effect at high speed of vortex generators fitted to the upper surface of an airfoil is a) Increase M crit. b) To promote mixing in the boundary layer and delay boundary layer separation c) To reduce sensitivity to strong gusts On subsonic aircraft when approaching M crit. a) The C of P moves forward causing nose to pitch up b) Aircraft altitude does not change c) The C of P moves rearward causing a nose down pitch The web angle of a twist drill is a) 59 b) 130 c) 12 Buttress threads are used a) Transmit power in both directions b) On nuts and bolts c) To transmit power in one direction The electroplating process that forms oxide film on the surface of aluminium alloy is known as a) Anodizing b) Galvanizing c) Electroplating The Vernier Height Gauge uses the same principle as the a) Micrometer b) Vernier caliper c) Bevel protractor Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by a) SBAC b) British Standard Institute c) CAA in accordance with BCAR Reamers are used to a) Drill accurate holes b) Enlarge holes to an accurate dimension c) To make holes oversize

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Expanding reamers are used to ream a) Holes in metal that as been heated b) Tapered holes c) Holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades Multi-Start threads a) Increase the lead without increasing the pitch b) Increase the lead and pitch c) Increase the lead and decrease the pitch Pure aluminium is a) Not resistance to corrosion b) Highly resistant to corrosion c) Reasonably resistant to corrosion Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing, are painted a) Grey with a white collar b) Black with grey collar c) Black with white collar Hatching lines are usually drawn at a) 60 b) 45 c) 70 If a design amendment is made on a drawing a) No change in issue number or date is necessary b) The old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added c) A new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing In third angle projections, each view a) Represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view b) Is drawn with the axis inclined, usually at 30 c) Represents the side of the object removed from it in the adjacent view Which pictorial projection one face in true elevation and lines in depth normally drawn 30 or 45 to the horizontal a) Perspective b) Oblique c) Isometric A spring washer is used a) With a tab washer b) By itself c) With a plain washer Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used, a) Repeatedly provided they remain a good fit b) Only once because the legs are spread and bent c) With a spring washer and stiff nut

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One revolution of the thimble of the English Micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of a) 0.001 in b) 0.040 in c) 0.025 in The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is a) 0.5mm b) 0.2mm c) 1.0mm The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into a) 25 equal divisions b) 50 equal divisions c) 40 equal divisions The standard taper is a) 1:20 b) 1:600 c) 1:46 ATA Specification 100 is the a) American FAA specification and controlling the manufacturer of aluminum and its alloys b) International standardization of manuals, illustrated parts catalogue, overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters c) Procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a C of A in the transport category (passengers) When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured a) Green/yellow b) Blue c) Brown When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by a) Using a spreader bars and packing b) Using a suitable shaped sling c) Fabricating alternative lifting points A dry powder extinguisher is coloured a) Red b) Blue c) Green A pre-load indicating washer is correctly located when a) The inner ring is rotated b) The inner ring is gripped c) The outer ring is gripped

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When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where required value falls at the a) Bottom of the range b) Top end of the range c) Middle of the range Torque loading is carried out to provide a) As tight as possible b) Flexibility c) Sufficient clamping without overstressing High temperature solder consists of a) Tin/lead/antimony/silver b) Lead/copper/antimony c) Tin/zinc/antimony/silver Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with a) Tin and silver b) Copper and silver c) Tin and copper A flux is used in soldering to a) Etch the metals surface for more adhesion b) Prevent solder spikes c) Dissolve oxides When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable should be cut by a) A hack saw with the cable under tension b) Using a chisel on a flat metal surfaces c) Oxy-acetylene torch When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using a) A soft steel or brass tube drift b) A steel drift with light blows c) A soft steel brass tube drift A roller bearing is cleaned by soaking and swilling in a) White spirit b) Trichloroethetylene c) Petroleum spirit To allow for shrinking, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be a) 2% longer than distance between fittings b) 3% longer than distance between fittings c) 5% longer than distance between fittings A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits a) A positive and strong drive for transmission b) Positive drive with the gear firmly locked c) Positive drive and axial movement

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What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrate inspection? a) It is drawn to crack by electrostatic attraction b) It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrate has seeped into the crack c) It seeps into the crack and makes it show up What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to microbiological growth? a) The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate b) Rubber liners are installed in the tanks c) A biocidal additive is used in the fuel What action should be taken on finding inter granular corrosion? a) Replace complete component part b) De-corrode and re-protect c) Renew corroded area by patching Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by a) Electro-mechanical action b) Electro-chemical action c) Hydro-electro action Tempering steel gives a) Greater brittleness b) Greater hardness c) Relief of internal stress after hardening When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion? a) The cathode b) The anode c) Both will corrode equally After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as a) Weld deterioration b) Weld rot c) Weld decay Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to a) High temperature b) Dry climates c) Cold climates Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish film a) Aluminum and its alloy b) Copper and its alloy c) Titanium and its alloy

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The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is a) Trans granulation b) Electrolysis c) Exfoliation The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is commonly called a) Alodizing b) Anodizing c) Parco lubrizing Inter granular corrosion in structural aluminum alloy parts a) Is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminum b) May be detected by white powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal c) Cannot always be detected by surface indications Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact my be best prevented by a) Priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer b) Applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces c) Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of a) Excessive anodization b) Contact between two unlike metals c) The wrong quenching agent What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated? a) Surface b) Stress c) Inter granular The main advantage of dye penetrate inspection is the a) Part is to be inspected does not require cleaning b) Penetrate solution works on any non-porous material c) Defect must be opened to the surface In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked must a) Be non-magnetic b) Be magnetic c) Have surface cracks Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check? a) Iron alloys b) Aluminum alloys c) Magnesium alloys

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In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between applying the developer and viewing? a) 5 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 10 minutes How are defects indicated in the dye penetrate crack detection test? a) Yellowish green marks b) Green lines and dots c) Red lines on a white background The British standard for engineering drawings is a) B.S. 306 b) B.S. 308 c) B.S. 309 Third angle orthographic projection has the plan a) Above the side elevation b) Below the front elevation c) Above the front elevation Bonding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry to a) The approved bonding point on the aircraft b) A grounding rod in the ramp c) The aircraft wing Grounding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry to a) The aircraft wing b) A grounding rod in the ramp c) The approved bonding point on the aircraft A dead man control in fueling is a device that a) Holds the fueling hose in place b) Opens the fuel panel c) Controls the fuel flow The effects of frozen precipitation adhering to an aircraft are a) Degraded aerodynamic performance b) Both answer are correct c) Degraded instrument indication Frost, Ice, Snow and Slush will destroy the capability of an airfoil to create a) Heat b) Drag c) Lift De-icing is the _________ of frozen precipitation from aircraft critical surfaces a) Removal b) Protection c) Correction

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Another word for anti-icing is a) Removal b) Protection c) Correction Glycol testers test the a) Outside air temperature b) Viscosity of the fluid c) Freeze point of the fluid When de-icing an aircraft, frozen precipitation is removed or melted by the a) Alcohol in the glycol b) Heat and pressure c) Anti icing fluid Types II and IV fluids in a two step de/anti-icing at 100% are used for a) Both de and anti icing b) De-icing c) Anti-icing Holdover time begins a) When starting the second step in a two step de/anti-icing b) When de-icing begins c) When anti-icing is completed Anti-icing fluid is always applied to a) The wings only b) A clean aircraft c) All aircraft during the de-icing season A means to check for clear ice on a wing is to perform a a) Blank check b) Cockpit check c) Tactile check Corrosion which attacks the crystals of the metal is called a) Filiform corrosion b) Inter granular corrosion c) Surface corrosion The three phases of eliminating corrosion are a) Cleaning, treatment and rinsing b) Removal, treatment and rinsing c) Cleaning, removal and treatment Microbiological corrosion is usually present a) In tanks b) In the cabin c) At the rivets of the lower fuselage

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The most corroded part in galvanic corrosion is a) The most noble material b) The less noble material c) At zero potential Corrosion by erosion and cavitations is caused by a) Increases velocity and decrease pressure pitting b) Fretting c) Movement of fluid Passivation is what kind of protection type? a) Electro-chemical b) Chemical c) Heat treatment Cathodes protection consists of a) Creating a layer of aluminum b) Applying a layer of phosphate c) Deviating a galvanic element One of the three corrosion protection methods is not a chemical process a) Anodic oxidation b) Passivation c) inhibition Dye penetrate is used for a) Passivation b) NDT testing c) Anodic oxidation Ultrasonic is used a) To detect blockings b) For measurement c) To detect cracks The tap test is used to detect a) Corrosion b) Debonding or bad assembling of composites c) Water in a composite structure An eddy current NDT detection system uses for indication a) A plotter b) A photo c) An oscilloscope For which of the following tests paint stripping is not required a) Eddy current b) A normal dye penetrate check c) An ultra violet light dye penetrate check

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MTOM means a) Mean Take Off Mass b) Maximum Take Off Mass c) Maximum Taxi Operating Mass Basic Mass consists of a) Airplane + Crew + Baggage b) Airplane + Fuel + Load c) Airplane + Crew + Load

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Module 7.7 Electrical Cables and Connectors 1 3 3 356. Using a testmeter on an anodised part a) anodic film does not need to be removed b) consider resistance of anodic film c) always remove the anodic film The minimum bonding for secondary structure is a) 1 ohm b) 0.05 ohm c) 0.005 ohms To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with a) metallic paint b) enamel c) aluminium paint To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a) use a megger b) use a bonding meter c) a continuity check The maximum bonding resistance on a primary stucture a) should be 0.05 ohms b) should be 0.5 ohms c) should be 1 ohm One megohm is a) 1,000 ohms b) 100,000 ohms c) 1000,000 ohms The leads of a bonding tester a) are made of cromel and alumel b) have critical length and their resistance must be considered c) have critical no length and their resistance does not need to be considered

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The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is a) a low reading ohmmeter b) a megger c) a bonding meter If all the prongs of a bonding meter were held together a) this should not be done, as it would destry the meter b) the meter would read full scale right c) the meter would read zero The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than a) 0.5 ohms b) 1 ohm c) 1.5 ohms The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed a) 1 ohm b) 0.5 ohms c) 0.05 ohms The bonding resistance of primary structure is a) 0.05 ohm b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohms Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the the indicator read? a) The needle is centered b) Zero to the left c) Full scale to the right In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding tests between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS ac or dc should not exceed a) 0.05 ohms b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohm What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earth device is resting? a) 1 kiloohm / 10 megohm b) 1 megohm / 10 megohm c) 0.5 ohms / kiloohm What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft a) To ground the chasis b) To earthen the metallic parts c) To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts

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What is the reason for a primary bonding connection of a large cross-sectional area? a) To provide a better bonding b) To carry lightening discharge if needed c) To improve insulation When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, it should be bonded a) With at least 2 primary connectors, one each side of the engine b) With at least 3 primary connectors c) With at least one primary connector When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester short together the three prongs of both probes and assure the reading is a) Centered b) Infinity c) Zero When an earth return terminal assembly has to be replaced which check must be carried out a) Bonding test b) Bonding and multivolt test c) Multivolt drop test If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure a) Replace leads only b) Leads should be replaced and tested c) Leads and tester should be returned to manufacturer for repair and calibration If bridging strips or bonding cards are fractured, what action should be taken? a) A new conductor should be fitted b) Should be replaced and tested c) Should be returned to manufacturer for repair calibration When carrying out a multi-volt drop check on a circuit, what is an approximate reading? a) 2 mV for every 10 A flowing b) 3 mV for every 10 A flowing c) 5 mV for every 10 A flowing Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing? a) To have less current flow b) High voltage may destroy the unit c) For breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and the tanker bonded together? a) For lightening strike protection b) To maintain aircraft and tanker on the same electrical potential c) This is not sufficient, they must also be grounded

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Effective continuity is not possible unless a) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit with no series ports b) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit c) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel ports How would you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibre glass surfaces? a) By using bonding studs b) By using a special conductive paint c) By imbedding a grounding wire mesh When replacing a bonding connection and the original connector cannot be matched exactly a) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a greater crosssectional area b) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, same size c) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a smaller crosssectional area If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will it read a) Centered b) Zero c) Infinity An insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading is obtained a) Low reading is normal on a group of cables b) Break down the circuit and do further checks c) You cannot test a group of cables What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value of an aircraft undercarriage bay? a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies a) The reading observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to the previous reading b) Atmospheric conditions play only a role in air data computer related circuits c) Atmospheric conditions do not play a role in insulation testing When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use? a) Megger b) Ammeter c) An ohmmeter

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Whenever using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should be disconnected for what reason? a) They do not need to be disconnected b) To prevent capacitive influence on reading c) To prevent damage to filters An open circuit on an ohmmeter would indicate a) Centered b) Infinite resistance c) Zero Which electrical measuring device needs a power source? a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Ohmmeter When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is a) Max values b) RMS values c) Normal values On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the common socket? a) Black b) Red c) Blue A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing a meter in a) Parallel to the voltage source b) In series with the component c) In parallel with the component An ohmmeter can measure ac because it has a a) AC coil b) Bridge rectifier c) Moving iron vane Insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel wells should normally be not less than a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms A 250 Volt megger should not be used a) On electronic equipment b) In wheel wells c) On capacitive equipment If the leads of a megger are held apart if the handle was turned it would read a) Centered b) Zero c) Infinity

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When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed a) In parallel to the power source b) In parallel to the circuit c) In series Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be a) Left empty b) Fitted with blanks c) Sealed In a front release connector the pin will be a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the front c) Released from the front and extracted from the rear The number of dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates a) One dot is ok, more than one dot is no-go! b) The correct tool was used to effect the connection c) The incorrect tool was used to effect the connection The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by a) Changing the positions of the pins b) By using the adjustment screw c) By changing the head only A hole in the lowest part of an electrical cable conduit is a) To be sealed with sealant b) To allow ventilation c) To allow drainage of moisture The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is a) 50mm b) 500mm c) 10cm When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables a) They must be routed separately b) They are handled like all other cables c) Avoid distortions to maintain the dielectric constant When fitting co-axial cable connectors it is important a) Not to damage any seals fitted b) To seal them with sealant c) To install the bonding wires

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Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by a) By using RF filters b) By using bridges c) Earth each alternate conductor to separate points What is the minimum bend radius of loom adequately supported at a terminal block? a) 2x b) 2.5x c) 3x If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, capacitance a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains unchanged What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable? a) 6 x diameter b) 8 x diameter c) 10 x diameter What is wet arc tracking? a) Submerged cable routing b) A fault caused by insulation damage and fluid contamination c) Improve area insulation When inserting pins into a forward facing connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing a) The outside of the connector b) The inside of the connector c) To the center Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure a) A running engine b) The ignition system c) Broken or missing static wicks A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. Corrective action should start with a) Use a megger b) Measure the millivots drop with a millivolts meter c) Use a bonding meter What cable may be used in a temperature environment above 200C a) Copper wire b) Monel wire c) Nickel clad plated copper wire

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A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than a) 3 times the diameter of the wire b) 4 times the diameter of the wire c) 5 times the diameter of the wire Glycol de-ice fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause a) Corrosion b) Brittleness of insulation c) Fire With a rear release connector, the pin will be a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the rear c) Released from the rear and extracted from the rear Circuit test on aircraft should be carried out in the following order a) Continuity, bonding, insulation, function b) Bonding, continuity, insulation, function c) Insulation, bonding, continuity, function After the normal function of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit is switched off a) You can work right away on the circuit b) The fuse should be removed and you can work right away on the circuit c) The fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the isolation of the circuit The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is a) 220C b) 260C c) 280C What gauge of pin is a yellow plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 When using a heat shrink gun, the gun should get to a) Above the heat shrink value b) 50 above the heat shrink value c) 100 above the heat shrink value The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 360 is a) Nylon b) Nomex c) Teflon

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Can an insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool a) No, they are preset b) Depends on the manufacturer c) Yes, by adjusting the pins Hydraulic crimping tooling after completing crimping, release the crimp a) When the bypass valve opens b) Automatically when satisfactory c) Depends on the manufacturer At which frequency is the calibration of the crimping tools required a) Every 6 month b) Every 12 month c) 1000 crimps When carrying out a bonding check on an anodized nut a) Has no effect b) Resistance of the anodizing should be considered c) Remove anodizing Which device is most sensitive to electrostatic discharge a) CMOS b) MOSFET c) SCR ESDS charge is dissipated by a) Using wrist straps b) Using suitable footwear c) Using wrist straps or suitable foot wear A wrist strap has a built in resistor of a) 1 kiloohm b) 1 megohm c) 10 kiloohms What gauge of pin is a red plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 22-18 b) 14-12 c) 18-16 Walking on a carpet in a low humidity air environment may build up a potential of a) 1,500 Volts b) 3,500 Volts c) 35,000 Volts Once an ESDS LRU has been removed a) Standard caps may be installed b) Only ESDS approved caps may me installed c) Only PVC caps may be installed

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If measuring an outside measurement with a vernier caliper you a) Add the nib dimensions b) Disregard the nibs c) Subtract the nib dimensions On Weight and Balance calculations a) Values fwd of the CG are positive b) Values fwd of the CG are positive, aft of the CG are negative c) Values aft of the CG are positive, fwd of the CG are negative Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by a) With phosphoric acid b) Using trichoathelene c) Need buffering wheel Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by a) Using trichoathelene b) Nylon wheel or alu-wool and alodine 1200 treatment c) Need buffering wheel Dermatitis is caused by a) Inhaling of catalyst b) Inhaling of resin c) Contact with skin to resin Taper reamers are identified by a) Diameter of large end b) Numbers and fractions c) Diameter of small end Vital point inspections are done a) After scheduled maintenance b) On flight controls and engine controls c) By installation which can cause fatal failures A fitness of flight certificate is required a) After modification to seek approval b) After CMR is raised c) For any work done If a bearing cage is damaged a) Get cage out and place it b) Reject bearing c) Replace balls and grease bearing A release to service for aircrafts above 5730 KG is required when a) If you install the same part which was previously removed b) Using a test set c) If you replace a part

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By testing with a VOR/ILS test set if tone delete is pushed a) Full deflection b) Flag in view c) Needles are pointing north After indicator replacement a test with an EGT test set it has to be a) Not necessary to soak the test set b) Soaked at ambient and calculate temp allowance c) Soaked to ambient and calibrate to 20 Wire identification "x" by ATA 100 means a) A/C power b) Warning circuit c) Ground network To confirm correct combination of terminal and crimping tool has been selected a) Use go-no-go gauge b) Check for dot cod mark c) Inspect insulation Standard PIDG crimp tools have a) 1 adjustment position b) 2 adjustment position c) 3 adjustment position

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Module 7 Maintenance Practices 451. How do you arrange the spacing of the rivets? a) 1.5 x diameter of the rivet shank b) By measuring the thickness of the material c) 2 times the diameter of the rivet head Worm gears are used to connect shafts a) At right angles which lie on same planes b) At right angles which lie on different planes c) At acute angles which lie on same planes What is the material on the upper and bottom surface of Alclad a) Magnesium b) Aluminium Alloy c) Aluminium What is monel? a) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and copper b) Ferrous metal containing nickel and copper c) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and brass What is Kevlar? a) An aramid fibre b) A carbon fibre c) A glass fibre

452.

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456.

When you need to remove a rivet what you do? a) You chop the head off with a chissel and drill the shank out b) You drill the rivet completely out c) You drill the head of the rivet and remove the head with chisel and the shank with a punch When you measure internal diameter with vernier caliper? a) You subtract the thickness of the nips b) You add the thickness of the nips c) You just read the caliper Joining two dissimilar metals what chemical action is created? a) Galvanic action b) Ionic action c) Caustic action How do clean the chain when removed? a) Use degreaser b) Use white spirit c) Use linen cloth with paraffin How do check the condition of the roller bearings? a) By holding the outer race and rotating the outer race slowly b) By holding the inner race and rotating the outer race slowly c) By using magnetic flux inspection An ac current sinusoidal wave the frequency is 1000Herts what is the periodic time? a) 1ms b) 1000ms c) 1000s Photovoltaic converts light into electricity by? a) Chemical action b) Sunlight c) Heat Lead acid cells produce electricity by a) Sunlight b) Heat c) Chemical action Seebeck effect produces electricity by a) Heat b) Sunlight c) Chemical action How do you measure the electrolyte? a) Hydrometer b) Manometer c) Hygrometer

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466.

What is the unit of measure of electromotive force? a) Watts b) Amperes c) Volts On convectional current how are the electrons moves? a) From minus to plus b) Opposite to the organized movement of electrons in a metal conductor c) From negative to positive On primary surface the maximum allowable resistance is? a) 50 mOhms b) 70 mOhms c) 120 mOhms The CRS on Air Transports Aircraft can be signed by? a) An engineer in an approved Organization. b) A type rated engineer c) A type rated engineer authorized by an approved Organization. Duplicate inspection is carried out when upsetting controls surface or engine controls or anything that upsets the safety of the aircraft by? a) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer b) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer having CRS coverage c) By any inspector

467.

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Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts 471. Brown or black streaks coming from a rivet head would indicate a) Residue of lubrication b) Rivets have been inserted with sealant c) Loose rivets Rivet snap is used a) To form the rivet head b) To cut off excessive rivet length c) To hold the plates together whilst riveting Drill size for 3/32 inch rivet is a) F b) # 30 c) # 40 Drill size for 1/8 inch rivet is a) # 30 b) # 40 c) F

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475.

Drill size for 5/32 inch rivet is a) # 20 b) # 21 c) F Drill size for 3/16 inch rivet is a) F b) # 10 c) # 11 Drill size for 1/4 inch rivet is a) # 1 b) F c) O Drill size for 5/16 inch rivet is a) O b) F c) V Drill size for 3/8 inch rivet is a) O b) F c) V Whilst riveting, "clearance" is necessary to a) Form the rivet head b) Prevent pocketing (puckering) of the sheet when the rivet head is formed c) Prevent the rivet tearing through the edge of the sheet

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Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts

481.

How many incorrect rivets are in the pictures above a) 5 b) 6 c) 7

482.

Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets because a) Parts have not been properly held together during riveting b) There is a filler installed c) There is sealant in the gap Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets because a) Driving was too weak b) There is sealant in the gap c) There are chips between the sheets Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets. a) Remove rivet and correct condition b) Drive until sheets are flat c) Rivet is ok for service Image C: Rivet a) Drive until shape is ok b) Bucking bar was not held at the proper angle when riveting c) Must not be driven to get correct shape Image C: Rivet a) Drive until shape is ok b) Must not be driven to get correct shape c) Cannot be hammered to proper shape when head is too thin on one side Image D: Rivet a) Is ok for service b) Rivet is too short c) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower side Image D: Rivet a) Was hit too hard during driving b) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower side c) Does not need to be replaced Image E: Rivet head clinched because a) Wrong tipe of bucking bar was used b) Rivet gun bar held at an angle when rivet was driven c) Bucking bar held at an angle when rivet was driven Image E: Rivet head clinched a) Form the rivet head b) Rivet needs to be removed c) Rivet is ok, as rivets bearing surface is within normal range

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Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts

491.

For interior furnishing where no high strength is required type ____ rivets are used. a) DD b) B c) A Type A rivet is made of aluminium alloy of. a) 1100 or 3003 composition b) 2117-T composition c) 2017-T composition For interior furnishing where medium strength is required type ____ rivets are used. a) A b) B c) AD Type AD rivet is made of aluminium alloy of a) 2117-T composition b) 2017-T composition c) 2024-T composition

492.

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495.

Which of the following rivets are normally heat-treated before installation a) A - Aluminium alloy, 1100 or 3003 composition b) DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T composition c) AD - Aluminium alloy, 2117-T composition Ice-box rivets: DD - Aluminum alloy, 2024-T rivets should be installed if exposed to room temperature for a period not exceeding a) 1 hour b) 30 minutes c) 10 minutes Ice-box rivets: D - Aluminum alloy, 2017-T should not be exposed to room temperature for more than a) 10 minutes b) 1 hour c) 2 hours Ice-box rivets stored at below 0C should be used within a) 2 weeks b) 1 month c) 3 month If Ice-box rivets have not been used within two weeks they should be a) Discarded b) Inspected and used c) Re-heat treated Heat treatment of rivets may be a) Done only once b) Repeated a number of times c) Done maximum 3 times

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Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts Types of rivets and heat treatment A - Aluminium alloy, 1100 or 3003 composition - plain head. AD - Aluminium alloy, 2117-T composition - dimpled head. D - Aluminium alloy, 2017-T composition, air-heat treated for 1 hour at 925F - 950F & quenched at 70F water - raised teat. DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T composition, air-heat treated for 1 hour at 910F - 930F & quenched at 70F water - raised double dash. B - Aluminium alloy, 5056 composition - raised cross . C - Copper - colour. M - Monel - two raised teats. Heat treated rivets must be used immediately after quenching or else be placed in cold storage below 32F (Ice-box rivets) for max two weeks. If not used within two weeks, they should be removed for reheat treating. Ice-box rivets (D Aluminium alloy, 2017-T) exposed to room temperature for 1 hour or longer, they must be reheat treated. DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T rivets should be installed if exposed to room temperature for a period not exceeding 10 minutes. Heat treatment of rivets may be repeated a number of times if done properly.

AN426 or MS20426 - countersunk head rivets (100). AN430 or MS20430 - roundhead rivets. AN441 - flathead rivets. AN456 - brazier head rivets. AN470 or MS20470 - universal head rivets. 501. To install flush rivets or screws a) Use dimpling only b) Use countersinke only c) Use dimpling or countersink method The strenth of a riveted joint is determined by a) The pitch and the tensile strenth of the rivets b) The pitch of the rivets c) The tensile strenth of the rivets When two components are joined together and the back is not accessible a) Blind rivets are used b) Pop rivets are used c) Jo-Bolts are used The absence of a letter following the AN standard number indicates a rivet manufactured from a) Mild steel b) Copper c) Monel When identifying rivet they have a standard number and part number, the standard number a) Describes type of head, material and finish b) Describes length, diameter, type of head c) Describes type of head and finish On a rivet the last number(s), separated by a dash from the preceding number, expresses the length of the rivet shank in a) 8ths of an inch b) 32nds of an inch c) 16ths of an inch On rivets the first number following the material composition letters expresses the diameter of the rivet shank in a) 8ths of an inch b) 32nds of an inch c) 16ths of an inch On a rivet there are letters and numbers added to a part number. The letters designate a) Alloy content b) Diameter c) Shape of head

502.

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509.

Temper designator T of aluminium alloy indicates a) The metal cannot be heat treated b) The metal has been annealed c) The metal may be heat treated Temper designator H of aluminium alloy indicates a) The metal may be heat treated b) The metal cannot be heat treated c) The metal has been annealed

510.

Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts 511. Rivet pitch is a) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seam b) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of metal c) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same row Rivet gage or transverse pitch is a) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seam b) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of metal c) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same row Rivet edge distance is a) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seam b) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same row c) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of metal Pilot holes for 1/8 inch rivet is a number a) 40 drill b) 30 drill c) 20 drill The correct size drill to use for a 1/8 inch rivet is a number a) 20 b) 30 c) 30 The shank of a rivet should stick out of the sheet by ____ times the rivet shank a) 2.5 b) 2 c) 1.5 A riveted joint should be designed so it will break in a) Bearing b) Shear c) Tensile

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518.

A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have a diameter of _____ times the diameter of the rivet shank a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 2.5 A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have the thickness of _____ times the shank diameter a) 1.5 b) 1 c) 0.5 The limits for the distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in a stressed skin patch are between a) 3 & 10 D b) 3 & 12 D c) 4 & 12 D MS Rivets: A rivets are used ____________ and is a plain rivet. a) In high stress area b) In cabin c) Pressurized area MS2117 Rivets: AD aluminium rivets have a ________ head a) Plain b) Raised dot c) Dimple MS2017 Rivets: D aluminium rivets have a _______ and must be heat treated. a) Raised dot b) Dimple c) Two raised dot MS2024 Rivets: DD aluminium rivets have ________________ and must be heat treated. a) A raised dot b) Two raised dashes c) A dimple D & DD rivets require heat treatment maximum a) Once b) Twice c) Three time

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526.

What is the minimum edge distance when riveting a) 1.5D b) 2D c) 3D If a repair has a double riveted lap joint, what is the shear strength of the sheet a) 58% b) 65% c) 74% If a repair has a double riveted butt joint, what is the shear strength of the sheet a) 82% b) 74% c) 58% What do you use a rivet shaver for a) Cut rivets to length b) Mill rivets flush with skin c) To remove the extra shank after forming the rivet

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530.

What is the cause of a grey streak coming from the head of a rivet a) Oil leak b) Corrosion c) Fretting The main advantage of dye penetrate inspection is the a) Part is to be inspected does not require cleaning b) Penetrate solution works on any non-porous material c) Defect must be opened to the surface In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked must a) Be non-magnetic b) Be magnetic c) Have surface cracks Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check? a) Iron alloys b) Aluminum alloys c) Magnesium alloys In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between applying the developer and viewing? a) 5 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 10 minutes How are defects indicated in the dye penetrating crack detection test? a) Yellowish green marks b) Green lines and dots c) Red lines on a white background Information about NDT is found in a) AWN 45 b) AWN 94 c) AWN 96 Dye check with field kit only , Temp limit is a) Above 0C b) 4F c) 4C Dye check: on a pressure vessel spray penetrate a) Inside and developer on outside b) Outside and developer inside c) Outside and developer outside After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack and a) Make a decision b) Recheck after 20 minutes c) Recheck after 5 minutes

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540.

Magnetic particle check fluid is a) Engine oil b) Kerosene c) Paraffin oil A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is a) Magnetic flow b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flux When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot c) When the item is quite cool The NDT not used on austenitic steel is a) Magnetic flux b) Electro flux c) Dye penetrate After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible b) De-magnetized before returning to service c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible When using dye penetrate at +4C a) The temperature has no effect b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate

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Module 7.18 Inspection and Repair Techniques 546. When carrying out dye penetrant inspection, how soon after applying the developer do you check the results a) 25 - 90 minutes b) 15 - 30 minutes c) 5 - 60 minutes Why do you joggle a surface sheet a) To have a Smooth Surface Finish b) For Tear Protection c) To increase strength What types of bonding adhesion are there a) Mechanical and Specific b) Chemical and Specific c) Chemical and Mechanical

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549.

What are faying surfaces a) Metal surfaces b) Opposed surfaces c) Mating surfaces When joining metals together what do you use a) Compound b) Grease c) Paint Dye penetrant at 15 a) Needs a longer penetrating time b) Work as normal c) Will not flow Dye penetrate developer goes pink on application because a) Colour depends on manufacturer b) Excess penetrate has not been cleaned properly c) It is normal Magnetic flux detection will show a) Longitudinal only b) Lateral only c) Longitudinal and lateral deflection Dye penetrate kits should be stored a) In a Dark damp cupboard b) In direct sunlight to keep it dry c) Out of sunlight in a dry place For an eddy current inspection a) Paint needs to be removed b) Paint does not need to be removed c) Special grease must be applied Corrosion which attacks the crystals of the metal is called a) Magnetic flow b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flow The three phases of eliminating corrosion are a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot c) When the item is quite cool Microbiological corrosion is usually present a) Magnetic flux b) Electro-flux c) Dye penetrate

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559.

The most corroded part in galvanic corrosion is a) Allowed to cool room temperature as slowly as possible b) De-magnetised before returning to service c) Allowed to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible Corrosion by erosion and cavitations is caused by a) The temperature has no effect b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly called a) Alodizing b) Anodizing c) Parco lubrizing Inter granular corrosion in structural aluminium alloy parts a) Is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminum b) May be detected by white powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal c) Cannot always be detected by surface indications Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact my be best prevented by a) Priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer b) Applying non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces c) Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of a) Excessive anodization b) Contact between two unlike metals c) The wrong quenching agent What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated? a) Surface b) Stress c) Inter granular Exfoliation corrosion is/are a) Worm casts b) Layers of corrosion c) Fretting corrosion Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaust to detect a) Measure tensile strength b) Test material hardness c) Measure magnetic permeability

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568.

Crevice corrosion due bad design and a) Bad sealing b) Wrong heat treatment c) To close spacing On aluminum corrosion remove corrosion with aluminum wool a) And steel wool b) But no steel wool c) And a wire bush After aluminum corrosion is removed treat first with a) Paint b) Sealant c) Aluchrome 1200 Exfoliation corrosion is/are a) Worm casts b) Layers of corrosion c) Fretting corrosion Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaust to detect a) Measure tensile strength b) Test material hardness c) Measure magnetic permeability Crevice corrosion due bad design and a) Bad sealing b) Wrong heat treatment c) To close spacing On aluminum corrosion remove corrosion with aluminum wool a) And steel wool b) But no steel wool c) And a wire bush After aluminum corrosion is removed treat first with a) Paint b) Sealant c) Aluchrome 1200 When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion? a) The cathode b) The anode c) Both will corrode equally

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577.

After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as a) Weld deterioration b) Weld rot c) Weld decay Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to a) High temperature b) Dry climates c) Cool climates Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish film a) Aluminum and its alloy b) Copper and its alloy c) Titanium and its alloy The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is a) Trans granulation b) Electrolysis c) Exfoliation Nitric Acid is used to identify bronze, a) It produces black powder b) It produces white powder c) It produces brown powder To remove corrosion from steel use a) Sulphuric acid b) Chomic acid c) Phosphoric acid Crevice corrosion is due a) Bad sealing b) Vibration c) Wrong heat treatment Less noble material is anodized: with steel and aluminium a) Steel is sacrificed b) Aluminium is sacrificed c) Both are equally noble Aluminium corrosion should never be removed with a) Nylon wheel b) Aluminum wool c) Steel wool Filiform corrosion are a) Layers of corrosion b) Worm casts

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c) Exfoliation corrosion 587. Exfoliation corrosion are a) Inter granular corrosion b) Due rubbing against each other c) Layers of corrosion Inter granular corrosion is due false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhausts a) Measure magnetic permeability b) Perform a magnetic particle check c) Dye check is sufficient Chemical removal of corrosion on aluminium: use __________ , reprotect with Aluchrome 1200 and 2 layers of primer. a) Selenic acid b) Phosphoric acid c) Chromic acid For magnesium use 2 oz of chromic and 2 drops of __________ acid a) Nitric b) Selenious c) Sulphuric Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with _____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc chromate. a) Citric acid b) Phosphoric acid c) Nitric acid To remove corrosion from steel use a wire brush and a) Boric acid b) Nitric acid c) Caustic soda For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acid a) Magnesium b) Titanium c) Aluminium _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powder a) Filiform corrosion b) Freeting corrosion c) Exfoliation corrosion Filiform corrosion is/are a) Layers of corrosion b) Dissimilar corrosion c) Worm casts

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596.

Thrust bearings are used for a) Radial load b) Axial load c) Journal load V-mark on a bearing means a) Over size bearing b) High speed wheel bearing c) Bearing comes is set of 2 or 3 'Fill in slot' _____________ load carrying capacity. a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not influence ______________ colour on bearings means they are overheated a) Brown b) Blue c) White Brown colour on bearings means they are a) Rusty b) Overheated c) Brown from oil Thrust bearing carry a) Radial load b) Axial load c) Torque load 'Fill in slot' in bearing ________ the load carrying capacity a) Equalizes b) Decreases c) Increases V-marks on bearing mean a) Bearing comes in set of 2 or 3 b) Bearing can be used for axial and radial load c) Bearing for high rotational speed Dots on bearings: 1 to 5 dots define _________ of bearing a) Hardness b) Oversize c) Load capacity Pipes: bend radii is ____ times diameter a) 4-5 b) 2-3 c) 3-4

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606.

Thrust bearings are used for a) Radial load b) Axial load c) Both axial and radial loads Brinelling on bearings is caused by a) Loose wheel nut b) Heavy landings c) Over tight wheel nut Blue bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed Brown bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed Radial load = journal load bearings are e.g. a) Brass bearings b) Needle bearings c) Wheel bearings

607.

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Module 7.11 Bearings 1 3 611. On a thrust bearing the loads taken are a) Axial and slight radial b) Axial and radial c) Radial only On a spherical bearing it transmits a) Predominantly radial loads with moderate axial loads b) Predominantly axial loads with moderate radial loads c) Axial and slight radial loads After an aircraft lightning strike a) Bearings do not need to be checked b) Dont carry out an inspection unless hole is over the maximum diameter allowed c) Check full range of movement to check bearings and control surfaces What do you call the effect of light dimpling on a surface of a bearing a) Calorizing b) Austeniting c) Brinelling Tapered roller bearings take a) Radial loads only

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b) Radial and axial loads c) Axial loads only 616. Roller bearings for _________ radial loads than ball bearings a) Smaller b) Same c) Greater A typical use of needle bearings is for a) Wheels b) Rod ends c) Gears Bearings are cleaned with a) White spirit b) Oil c) Solvent To prevent corrosion on cleaned bearings they are a) Dryed with dry compressed air and oiled b) Greased c) Oiled Bearings should be stored _________________ and reinspected for corrosion a) Vertically b) Horizontally c) Vertically or horizontally

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Module 7.12Transmissions 1 3 621. A chain is removed by a) Springs clips b) Nuts and bolts c) Removing chain links on an endless chain If light corrosion is found on a chain it is a) Dye checked b) To be replaced c) To be cleaned insp and re lubed Three things which are used to classify a chain a) Diameter of roller, pitch, distance between inner plates b) Diameter of roller, pitch, distance between outer plates c) Diameter of roller and pitch If you remove a chain for routine inspection a) You are not required to proof load it b) You are required to proof load it c) You are required to replace the chain

622.

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625.

How do you remove a chain a) Remove clip b) Remove rivets c) Only at screwed and bolted attachment parts With a new chain do you a) Clean lubrication and fit b) Clean lubrication and pack in grease proof paper c) Clean and lubricate after fitting With a new chain you a) Clean lubrication and fit b) Do not remove initial lubrication c) Clean lubrication and pack in grease proof paper When dismantling chains, disconnect at a) Spring Clip b) Bolted joints c) Riveted joints Chains have no quick detatch they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation is a) 10% b) 5% c) 2% Chains must not be twisted. To change direction use a a) Pulley b) Bi-planar block c) Reversion link A or an _______ of pipe diameter steel ball must pass through pipes when bent or dented a) 70% b) 80% c) 90% A or an _______ of flex hose diameter steel ball must pass through when bent or at dents a) 70% b) 80% c) 90% When making flare the pipe must ________________ cone a) Be flush with b) Slightly protrude c) Slightly recess UK flare on British AGS is a) 37

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b) 32 c) 60
635. US Flare is

a) 64 b) 60 c) 37
636. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working pressure. a) Same as b) 1.5 times c) 2 times A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on pipes a) 75% b) 90% c) 80% A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on a flex hose a) 90% b) 80% c) 75% Hose must be _______________ distance a) 5% longer than b) 3% longer than c) The same length as the Leather must not be used near pipes a) Because it will not skydrol resistant b) It is not strong enough for clamps c) Because of corrosion

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Module 7.9 Pipes and Hoses 1 3 641. Flare angle on an ags pipe is a) 32 b) 37 c) 45 Flare angle on an American aircraft pipe is a) 44 b) 74 c) 37 If a hydraulic pipe required shaping, how would you carry this out a) After age hardening b) After annealing c) As supplied

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644.

If a flexible hydraulic hose outer cover was cracked a) The pipe is still serviceable b) The pipe is unserviceable because it might have restricted flow c) The pipe is unserviceable because of fire protection When pressure testing a pipe it is at a) 2 x working pressure for 2 minutes b) 2 x working pressure for 5 minutes c) 1.5 x working pressure When pressure testing a flexible hydraulic pipe you test it at a) Its normal axis b) 15 in either direction c) Straight plus and minus 15 degrees Reaming aluminium tube is done with a) Oil and lubrication used for cutting b) No tube c) Hard base tube A pressure test on a rigid pipe may be a) 1 and a half working pressure till no leak found b) 2 times the working pressure for 2 minutes c) 2 times the working pressure for 5 minutes High strength 3000 PSI tubing bend radii preferred is a) 2.5D b) 3D c) 4D Permissible wrinkles in pipes with pressure over 500 PSI is a) no wrinkle allowed b) 1% c) 2% Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lube a) Carbon b) Lanolin c) Ester Control cable spool is ___ times diameter of cable a) 20 b) 25 c) 40 Preload a control cable by ___ and cut with a chisel a) 50% b) 150%

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c) 200% 654. Load proof of chains is ___ of max load a) 75% b) c) 150% To check if rollers in chain are seized, check a) Use magnifying glass b) Individual rollers c) Deformation of teeth Small instrument terminations may be made by a) Soldering a split wire loop b) Soldered half loop c) Unsoldered unsplit wire loop A suitable cable for use in fire protection system would be ? a) Flamet b) Glasil c) Unifire F Heavy duty cable runs can be reduced by using a) Heavy duty relays b) Lower voltages c) Superior cables The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is always a) Continuity, bonding, functional b) Continuity, insulation, functional c) Bonding, insulation, continuity The minimum insulation value allowed on a 28V DC machine is a) 2.0 mega ohms b) 0.2 mega ohms c) 0.5 mega ohms

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Module 7.1 Safety precautions-Aircraft and Workshop 3 3 3 661. If Glycol contacts silver wires a) Insulation will break down b) Electrical fires may be initiated c) Wet arc tracking will occur Welding oxygen bottle colour is a) Black b) Blue c) Green Aviation breathing oxygen bottles in US aircraft are

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664.

a) Green b) Black c) Blue Acetylene bottles for welding are a) Yellow b) Black c) Maroon Acetylene bottles for welding have a) Right hand thread b) Left hand thread c) Bayonett connectors Oxygen connections are a) Are lubricated with grease b) Are not lubricated at all c) Are lubricated with a special oxygen lubricant When paint remover gets in your eyes you a) Rinse them and see a doctor b) Flood them repedetly with water repedetly and see a doctor c) Rinsing is sufficient Acid spillage removal use a) Approved rubber gloves b) Household gloves c) PVC gloves Battery accid is neutralised with a) Water b) 5% solution of sulphuricd acid c) 5% solution of Sodium Bicarbonate When working on electrica power systems you a) Tag system b) Must remove power and tag system c) Remove power

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Module 7.2 Workshop Practices 3 3 3 671. The benefits of a kett saw a) Allows single handed operation due to less torque b) Can cut thicker metal than is usually required for a repair c) It comes in two versions pneumatic and electric The drill bit cutting angle for titanium is a) 90-100 degrees b) 105-120 degrees c) 118 degrees Calibration of equipment

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a) Done once a year b) Varies on equipment c) Done bi-annually Cutting faces of a twist drill for optional cut are a) 12 b) 130 c) 59 Electric weight pads need to be calibrated per JAR OPS every a) 24 month b) 36 month c) 48 month When removing a rivet do you use a a) Over size drill b) Drill bit the same size as the rivet shank c) Under size drill What is a rivet shaver used for a) Reduce the diameter of the rivet shaft b) Shave the head off the rivet c) Reduce the length of the rivet shaft Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is a) Carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator b) Done once a year c) Every "$ month When installing a hack saw blade the teeth are a) Does not matter b) Facing aft c) Facing forward Double ended stone wheel grinders can be used for aluminium, brass and magnesium on one side a) True b) False

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Module 7.15 Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding 681. When soldering or brazing using active flux, the flux a) Cleans Only b) Protects Only c) Cleans and Protects What kind of flux is used in soft soldering a) Active b) Passive c) Both When brazing, the flux is a mixture of water and

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a) Hydrochloric Acid b) Borax powder c) Zinc Chloride What is a dry solder joint caused by a) Melting the solder and flux on the iron and transfer it b) Using the wrong flux c) Using the wrong type of iron After welding it is good practice to a) X-ray b) Clean the weld c) Normalise the weld Silver solder comprises of a) Zinc, copper and silver b) Copper, zinc and tin c) Lead, copper and silver When splicing cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when a) The solder has melted b) Solder and insulation have formed c) When solder sleeve disappears An acceptable method of aircraft welding is a) TIG welding b) Gas Welding c) FIG Welding Some flux make the oxides and impurities a) Disappear b) To burn off c) To float to the surface as slag The temperature for brazing is a) 400-550C b) 600-850C c) 850-950C Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made of a) Brass b) Copper c) Steel Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and silver a) General purpose solder b) Low temp solder c) High temp solder Brazing: Stick together and a) Fill gaps

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b) Weld together c) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation 694. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylen cyl are maroon and have _______ and hose is red. a) Withword thread b) LH thread c) RH thread Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles are a) Black with a white collar b) Blue c) Grey

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Module 7.3 Tools 3 3 3 696. A 0.625 drill is identified by a) Letter A b) Letter E c) 5/8 On a static leak tester pressure is released by a) Slowly open release knob for 3 minutes b) Tester has an internal balance valve c) Tester has bleed valve in body Taper reamers are classified by a) Diameter of large end b) Diameter of small end c) Number of fractions size or letter A micrometer of 40 tpi is turned 3 times, what is the reading a) 0.005 b) 0.020 c) 0.025 The output of a tacho-generator, used in a servo system for rate feed back, depends on a) The resistance of the servo-motor b) 1control pump output US c) The speed of rotation of the servo-motor The passenger address system a) Is operated by the cabin crew,and overrides the entertainment system b) Is operated by the flight crew,and overrides the entertainment system c) Is operated by either the flight or cabin crew, but not opposing each other, and overriding the entertainment system Fibre-Glass areal masts are covered with neoprene to a) Dissipate any static charge b) Protect against mast erosion

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c) Improve areal insulation 703. Lowering the undercarriage and flaps increases the profild drag by a) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more stable b) Reducing the minimum drag speed and tending to make slow speed flight, more speed stable c) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more unstable The drag of a smooth polished aerofoil over which air is passing , is low due to a) A thicker boundary layer and less skin friction b) The reduction of induced drag c) A thinner and less turbulent boundary layer The charging nozzle in a pneumatic system is fitted between a) Relief valve and the oil/water separator b) Compressor and the oil/water separator c) Pressure regulator and the oil/water separator __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should point forward. a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 Hack saw blades are measured in a) Teeth per metre b) Teeth per cm c) Teeth per inch Chalk when used with a file a) Gives a fine finish b) Gives a gray colour c) Makes less noise Taper ratio for large drills is a) 1:50 b) 1:20 c) 1:30 If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fits b) Use an extension c) Use morse adapter Store rubber away from a) Motors and air conditioning b) Motors and light c) Air conditioning and light Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment

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a) Are non-essential b) Non-critical c) A critical A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions = 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is a) An Old English caliper b) A New English caliper c) A metric caliper A caliper with 49/25 - 1.2 : 25 is a) The Old English Caliper b) The current English Caliper System New English Caliper is a) 24/25 b) 49/25 c) 49/50 Metric micrometer accuracy is a) 0.002mm 49/50 b) 0.02mm 49/50 c) 0.2mm 49/50 Micrometer: Barrel is _____ and thimble ______ a) Fixed and floats b) Turns and fixed c) Fixed and turns A metric micrometer has ___ on thimble a) 50 b) 40 c) 30 Calipers and Micrometers are calibrated a) Every 12 months b) Every 6 months c) Every 18 months Calipers and Micrometers prior to use a) Use test piece b) Assure temperature is within normal range c) Check for 0-alingment

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