GENERAL AWARENESS

(EXAM HELD ON: 07-08-2011) 1. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at a) Italy b) Manila c) Geneva d) Newyork e) Hyderabad 2.Which of the following countries is NOT associated with the proposed TAPI gas pipeline? a) India b) Pakistan c) Portugal d) Afghanistan e) Turkmenistan 3. Bhagyam oilfields are located in which of following states? a) Rajasthan b) Gujarat c) Andhra Pradesh d) Maharashtra e) Karanatka 4. The Central Government has approved Rs 7000 crore Project to clean which of the following rivers? a) Narmada b) Ganga c) Mahanadi d) Kaveri e) Godavari 5. Recently a controversy rages over new land acquisition policy in which of following states? a) Maharashtra b) Uttar Pradesh c) Gujarat d) Madhya Pradesh e) West Begal 6.BP Plc, a well known company is engaged in which one of the following as its major operations? a) Nuclear Power Generation b) Oil and Gas Exploration c) Wind power generation

d) Steel production e) Coal production 7. As per statement given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in medias, the main cause of increased inflation rate is the recent hike in prices of ______. a) daily commodities b) petroleum products--ans c) infrastructure materials d) imported goods e) None of the above 8. The System Software is used to a) diagonose and troubleshooting the attached device b) create graphics images c) draw the picture on paper d) manage the available internal resources e) None of these 9. One billionth of a second is a) gigabyte b) nanosecond c) terabyte d) megabyte e) None of these 10. A technology used to create, store, exchange and utilize information in its various forms including business data, conversations, still images, motion pictures and multimedia presentations is called a) website b) information technology c) internet chat d) networking e) None of these 11. A program which is used find spam data in the computer and capable to distroy is called a) firewall b) anti-spam program c) adware remover d) pop-up blocker e) None of these 12. A chip placed on the electronic circuit board inside a system unit that hold temporarliy piece of information/data is called (containing the data being displayed on output device) a) modem b) scanner c) memory

d) hard disk e) None of these 13. A graphic or piece of text that links to another piece of information in a web page is a) meta-tag b) page connection c) domain name d) hyperlink e) None of these 14. Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which can be integrate into a webpage? a) Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which can be integrate into a webpage? a) Java b) PERL c) C++ d) Pascal e) FORTRAN b) PERL c) C++ d) Pascal e) FORTRAN 15. Embedded operating systems are used in a) desktop computers b) mainframe computers c) PDAs d) network server computer e) None of these 16. . A Web or part of a Web site, or part of an online service that provides a venue for communities of users with a common interest to communicate in real time is called a) user forum b) blog c) discussion forum d) chat-group e) None of these 17. The main electronic circuit board in the system unit is called a) Circuit plate b) Chassis c) Motherboard

d) Processor e) None of these 18. The System Unit consists of a) all electronic components of the computer used to process data b) all hardware and software c) application programs d) Mouse and keyboard e) None of these 19. A portable computer called Laptop, having a weight about 1.4 to 4.5 kg is also known as a) Desktop PC b) Mainframe Computer c) Personal Computer d) Micro Computer e) Notebook computer 20. if Reserve Bank of India hikes interest rates by 25 basis points in its monetary policy, then a commercial bank would like to increase its interest rates on loans by 25 basis points of a) Prime Lending Rate b) Repo rate c) Base rate d) Saving account interest rate e) None of these 21. Which one of the following pairs of countries is associated with nuclear arms control treaty START? a) US-China b) China-Iran c) US-Russia d) US Japan e) None of these 22. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at .. a) Italy b) Manila c) Geneva d) Newyork e) Hyderabad 23. Which of the following schemes is NOT launched by Ministry of Rural Development? a) National Family Benefit Scheme b) National Old Age Pension Scheme c) Nationall Maternity Benefit Scheme d) Mid Day Meal scheme e) All the above are launched by Ministry of Rural Development

24. Who among the followings has been appointed as coach of Indian cricket team for next two years? a) Gary Kirsten b) John Buchanan c) Andy Flower d) Duncan Fletcher e) None of the above 25. What does the letter L stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news? a) Liquidity b) Least c) Liabilities d) Longitudinal e) Linear 26. FINO, a term used by media in financial newspapers and tv news channels is stands for a) Financial Information Network & Operations b) Financial Inclusion News & Operations c) Financial Inclusion Network & Operations d) Fast Information Network & Operations e) None of the above 27. Why Kanishtha Dhankar recently was in news? a) She is new Femina Miss India World 2011 b) She is new coach of Womens Hockey team c) She has won gold medal in Asian Games 2010 d) She has won Miss World 2011 crown e) None of these 28. Goodluck Jonathan has been re-elected as President of _________. a) Sudan b) South Korea c) Lebanon d) Nigeria e) Ghana 29. The Planning Commission has set GDP growth target for 12th Plan (2012-17) at _______. a) 7.5 8.0 per cent b) 8.0 8.5 per cent c) 9 9.5 per cent d) 9.5 10.0 per cent e) None of the above 30. The International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance, has been adopted by which of the following international agencies/organisation? a) World Health Organisation (WHO)

b) International Maritime Organization c) International Labour Organization d) United Nations (UN) e) International Atomic Energy Agency 31. The amount of liquid assets, such as cash, precious metals or other short-term securities, that a financial institution or bank must maintain in its reserves is called a) CRR b) Bank Deposits c) Fixed Assets d) SLR e) None of these 32. Before launching the new indices to measure food inflation, earlier it is measured on the basis of a) Wholesale Price Index b) Consumer Price Index c) Nifty Index c) BSE & NSE index e) None of these 33. Which of the following space agencies has recently placed three satellites Resourcesat, Youthsat, and X-SAT successfully in the Earth orbit? a) NASA b) ROSCOSMOS c) CNSA d) ISRO e) None of these 34. K Balachander who recently won Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 is a famous a) Cinematographer b) Director c) Musician d) Dancer e) Writer 35. Which of the following countries has joined the BRIC group of nations to change its name as BRICS? a) Sudan b) Singapore b) South Korea d) Srilanka e) South Africa Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 11:21:00 AM 0 comments

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IBPS PO/MT Common Written Examination

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Which period is called the 'banking swadeshi' period when many Indians established many banks? 1)1870-1940 2)1910-1947 3)1906-1911 4)1947-1991 5)1942-1947 2. The banks established in Swadeshi period are ............? 1) Bank of India 2) Corporation bank 3) Indian Bank 4) Bank of Baroda 5) All of the above 3. In which part of India, many banks are established, which is called the 'Cradle of Indian Banking System'? 1) Northern Assam 2) Southern Tamilnadu 3) Eastern Rajasthan 4) Southern Karnataka 5) Western Maharastra 4. The most banks in India failed between ............ Not less than 100 banks failed due to various reasons? 1) 1923-1928 2) 1953-1958 3) 1923-1948 4) 1903-1928 5) 1913-1918 5. Which party issued a paper by name 'Stray thoughts on Bank Nationalization' signaling the nationalization of banks in India?

1) Communist Party of India 2) Janatha Party 3) Congress Party 4) Republican Party 5) National Conference 6. Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Bill passed in ...............paving way to the nationalization of banks in India? 1) 1974 2) 1969 3) 1975 4) 1981 5) 1961 7. Who said the nationalization of banks is the 'masterstroke of political sagacity'? 1) Indira Gandhi 2) Raj Narayan 3) Jayaprakash Narayan 4) Jawahar Lal Nehru 5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 8. How many banks were nationalized in 1969? 1) 18 2) 6 3) 14 4) 20 5) 5 9. Which bank was not nationalized in 1969? 1) Allahabad Bank 2) Bank of Baroda 3) State Bank of India 4) Bank of India 5) Bank of Maharastra 10. How many banks were nationalized as a second dose in 1980? 1) 4 2) 9 3) 6 4) 18 5) 12 11. Bad debts mean ............? 1) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid 2) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid 3) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 2 years

4) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 8 years 5) None 12. GST council (Goods and Services Taxes Council) in the Constitution 115th Amendment Bill headed by ............ to make recommendations the taxes to be levied, goods to be exempted, GST rate etc? 1) Prime Minister 2) Finance Minister 3) Commerce Minister 4) Revenue Minister 5) Finance Secretary 13. The current limit of External borrowings is $ 20 billion. This Current limit is now raised to $ ............ billion? 1) 21 2) 40 3) 70 4) 60 5) 30 14. ............is not the provision of the National Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation & Resettlement Bill? 1) In the given area, least 80% of the population must agree to acquisition of land by the government. 2) Land owners to be compensated with twice the registered or stamp value of the land in urban areas and six times in rural areas. 3) Single law has the provisions of Acquisition of land and rehabilitation 4) The government can appoint middle man to have talks with the local population to decrease the compensation 5) Compensation reflects the market rates 15. Food Security Bill proposed by National Advisory Council (NAC) proposes 90% ration in Rural Areas and ............% ration in Urban Areas. (National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi) 1) 50 2) 70 3) 100 4) 90 5) 25 16. The Union government decisions are given. Pick the correct one? 1) National Legal Aid and Reforms commiscommission coming soon 2) Supreme Court ordered the return of 156 hectares of land to farmers in Uttar Pradesh, allocated to construct posh buildings. 3) The postal department issues postal stamps on President of India's house Rastrapathi Bhavan 4) Five PIO ( Person of India Origin) universities will be set up in the future.

5) All of above 17. Project 'Surakhya' an Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) introduced by ............? 1) Odisha 2) Chattisgarh 3) Arunachal Pradesh 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Goa 18. 'Nanhe Haath Kalam Ke Saath' ( tiny hands with pen) phase II announced against the social evil of Child Labour by ............? 1) Karnataka 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Rajasthan 5) Goa 19. SAARC Interior Ministers conference was recently held in ............? 1) Sri Lanka 2) India 3) Afganistan 4) Bhutan 5) Nepal 20. Mahatma Gandhi led .............listed in the top ten of the most influential protests in the world as mentioned by 'Time magazine'? 1) Non-cooperation Movement 2) Swadeshi Movement 3) Salt Satyagraha 4) Quit India Movement 5) Champaran Satyagraha 21. A person who expects share prices in general to decline and who is likely to indulge in SHORT SALES is called ............? 1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Dog 4) Duck 5) Lame Duck 22. ............ was re elected as the UN Secretary General? 1) Irina Bocova 2) Robert Zollick 3) Ban Ki-moon 4) Hillay Clinton 5) Christine Legarde

23. Meghdoot awards conferred by ............? 1) Air India 2) Department of Water Resources 3) Postal Department 4) Department of Communications 5) Supreme Court 24. 'Areva' a French company belongs to following sector? 1) Nuclear 2) Toy 3) Auto makers 4) Mobiles 5) Book 25. In the list of nationalized banks, which bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993? 1) Bank of India 2) Bank of Baroda 3) Andhra Bank 4) New Bank of India 5) Central Bank of India 26. ............was the prime minister of India during the nationalization of banks in 1969 and in 1980? 1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) Lal Bahadur Sastri 3) Indira Gandhi 4) Morarji Desaii 5) P.V.Narasimha Rao 27. Who among the following is not the present Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India? 1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Subhir Gokarn 3) Y.Malegam 4) Anand Sinha 5) H. R.khan 28. On 3 August 2011, ........... panel submitted its report to Reserve Bank of India on 'customer service in banks' 1) Rangarajan 2) Malegam 3) Subba Rao 4) H.R.Khan 5) Damodaran

29. ............firmly tell many rules and regulations relating to Non-Performing Assets? 1) Banking Regulation Act 1949 2) Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 3) SEBI Act 1992 4) Indian Contract Act 1872 5) Negotiable instrument act 1881 30. On 30 June 2011 ............liberalized FDI norms by allowing the Indian companies to pay in the form of Equity in to the foreign suppliers instead of payment in the form of foreign exchange? 1) SEBI 2) Ministry of Finance 3) Ministry of Commerce 4) FDA 5) RBI 31. ............tied up with Met Life to enter in to insurance business recently? 1) Andhra Bank 2) Union Bank of India 3) Corporation bank 4) Allahabad Bank 5) Punjab National Bank 32. ............started, the saga of Liberlization of banks as a prime minister? 1) Indira Gandhi 2) Nehru 3) Lal Bahadur Sastri 4) P.V.Narasimha Rao 5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 33. Which committee suggested the banking reforms? 1) Kalia 2) Deepak Mohanty 3) Narasimham 4) Syamala Gopinath 5) Goparia 34. The decade 1990-2000 is the era of Techsavvy private banks. Which are established during this period? 1) Global Trust Bank 2) UTI bank 3) ICICI 4) HDFC 5) All of above 35. Global Trust Bank was merged with ........?

1) HDFC 2) Oriental Bank of Commerce 3) State Bank of India 4) Syndicate Bank 5) IDBI 36. ............was merged with HDFC bank? 1) Bank of Rajasthan 2) Global Trust Bank 3) Centurion Bank 4) Bank of Bombay 5) Imperial Bank of India 37. ............has offered to India a loan of Rs.6,800 crore for building 24,000 km of all weather roads in the rural seven economically poor and hilly areas States 1) IMF 2) IFC 3) World Bank 4) IDA 5) ADB 38. India's first indigenous payment gateway is ............? 1) India Expenditure 2) India Payment 3) India Challan 4) India Pay 5) India Rupee 39. ............opened a Lockless branch at Shani Shingnapur (Maharastra) respecting the local customs? 1) State Bank of India 2) Bank of Maharastra 3) Union Bank of India 4) ICICI 5) UCO bank 40. ............and Life Insurance Corporation of India( LIC) tie up to launch Credit-Card services to the customers and employees of LIC? 1) Axis Bank 2) ICICI 3) State Bank of India 4) HDFC 5) Kotak Mahendra Bank 41. Tehri Hydro Development Corporation got $ 648 million from ............? 1) IMF 2) IDA

3) ADB 4) AFD 5) IBRD 42. On 10 August 2011, in which state National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) proposed to give huge loans in the endosulfan-hit areas? 1) Odisha 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) West Bengal 5) Kerala 43. The best alternative banking service to branch banking to be the part of Financial Inclusion? 1) Establishment of small branches 2) Setup ATMs 3) Issuing of ATM cards 4) Giving Credit Cards 5) Mobile banking 44. Giving focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities is the main theme of ............scheme? 1) PURA 2) JNNURM 3) MGNREGA 4) IAY 5) RAY 45. ...........became first state to sign an agreement on Emission Reduction Purchase with the World Bank to curb the carbon emissions? 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) Haryana 4) Goa 5) Maharashtra 46. MENA (Middle East and North Africa) region is the familiar for ............ industry? 1) Toy 2) Leather 3) Petroleum 4) Cotton 5) Fruits 47. The Award list given. Pick the correct one? 1) 12th IIFA (International Indian Film Academy) top awards announced in Toranto 2) Life Achievement Award got by Asha Bhonsle 3) Best film award got by Dabangg

4) Best Actor Award got by Shahrukh Khan 5) All of above 48. Guido Mantega used the word 'Currency War' referring ............? 1) India 2) China 3) New Zeland 4) Russia 5) USA

ANSWERS
1)3 2)5 3)4 4)5 5)3 6)2 7)3 8)3 9)3 10)3 11)2 12)2 13)5 14)4 15)1 16)5 17)1 18)4 19)4 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)3 24)1 25)4 26)3 27)3 28)5 29)1 30)5 31)5 32)4 33)3 34)5 35)2 36)3 37)3 38)4 39)5 40)1 41)5 42)5 43)5 44)2 45)2 46)3 47)5 48)2. Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 11:10:00 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: GENERAL AWARENESS

Vananchal Gramin Bank (VGB) Recruitment

Vananchal Gramin Bank (VGB) invited Online Applications for the posts of Officer Scale-I on regular basis No of posts: 18 posts, Age: 18 to 26 years as on 31/07/2011, Pay Scale: Rs. 14500-25700/- + Allowances & Benefits Qualifications: i) Bachelor Degree in any discipline or its equivalent from a recognized University ii) Proficiency in local language i.e. Hindi is essential. Selection Process: Written Test and Interview of the successful candidates. Application Fee: Rs. 450/- GEN & OBC (Rs.150/- for SC/ST/PH) through Bank Challan Form/Fee deposit Forms in any branch of State Bank of India (SBI) in the Account No. 31884896112. How to Apply: Apply On-Line between 17/08/2011 to 09/09/2011 at www.vananchalgraminbank.com. No other mode of application will be accepted. After applying candidates must take a print of the System Generated Receipt/Application for all future requirements. Candidate must have a active E-mail address till the recruitment process for further intimations. Important Dates:

Starting date of Online Registration & Fee : 17/08/2011 Last date of Online Registration & Fee : 09/09/2011 Duplicate call letter can be downloaded from : 10/10/2011 Written Test of Officer Scale-I : 16/10/2011

For more details Click here Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 10:38:00 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: JOBS, VANANCHAL GRAMIN BANK

Monday, August 15, 2011

VISVESHVARAYA GRAMEENA BANK RECRUITMENT

VISVESHVARAYA GRAMEENA BANK (Vijaya Bank Sponsored, Govt owned Scheduled Bank ) Head office: VIDYANAGAR, P.B.No 41, MANDYA 571401 Online Applications are Invited from Indian Citizens for appointment as Assistant Managers (Officer Scale-I) (Junior Management) and Office Assistants(Multipurpose)

Officer Junior Management (Scale I): 7 Posts Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 15 Posts

Last Date to Apply: 30-08-2011 Age: 18-28 Years Application Fee: Rs .300 + 50(Postage) for General/OBC. For SC/ST/PC Only Rs.50(Postage) to be paid in any Vijaya Bank Centre Download Fee Payment challan here Selection Process: Written test, Interview Tenative Test Dates: Officer Scale-I : 16-10-2011 Office Assistant : 23-10-2011 Test Centre:Mandya How to Apply:

Please find complete details and Apply Online here: http://www.vgbank.in/VG%20Bank/recrutment.htm Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 11:12:00 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: JOBS, Visveshvaraya Grameena Bank

Pragathi Gramin Bank (PGB) Recruitment

Pragathi Gramin Bank (PGB) inviting applications for the recruitment of Office Assistants & Officers Position- Vacancies Payscale: Office Assistant 64 posts Rs.11506 /month Officer (scale II) 32 posts Rs.30904 /month Officer (scale III) 3 posts Rs.40940 /month Dates: Online registration of applications 17.08.2011 to 16.09.2011 Written examination 30.10.2011 (assistant) & 13.11.2011 (officer) Eligibility conditions for Office assistant post, * Age to be within 18 - 28 yrs as on 1.07.2011 * Should have completed degree or equivalent, as on 31.12.2011 * Be able to read/ write & speak in Kannada language * Applicant must be resident of Karnataka * Preference to those with computer knowledge

Selection process involves Objective test for 200 marks followed by Interview for shortlisted candidates.In addition to negative marks for each wrong answer in written test, it is necessary to secure atleast 40% marks to qualify for Interview. Application: Fee of Rs.350(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) can be paid at any Canara bank branch with the payment challan before September 16.After payment receipt is obtained, proceed to apply online at pgbankho.in Candidates looking to apply for Pragathi Gramin Bank recruitment can download the notice from the bank website for further details Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 11:03:00 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: JOBS, Pragathi Gramin Bank

Thursday, August 11, 2011

RBI Chief Librarian & Deputy General Manager Recruitment

Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai, India provides online applications for the given vacant posts 2011. Chief Librarian, Grade-D : 1 Post Qualifications: Masters Degree in Economics/Commerce/Econometrics with a minimum of 55% Marks and a Bachelors Degree in Library Science from a recognized University/Institute of repute in India or abroad OR Ph.D. Degree in Library Science. Age Limit: 45 years Deputy General Manager, Grade-D : 1 Post Qualifications: M.E./M.Tech in Computer Science or Information Technology with a First Class (60% and above) from a recognized university, Indian Institute of Technology or Indian Institutes of Information Technology. Age Limit: 40 years Deputy General Manager, Grade-D : 1 Post Qualifications: M.E./M.Tech in Electronics and Communication with a First Class from a recognized university, Indian Institute of Technology or Indian Institutes of Information Technology with 10 years experience. Age Limit: 40 years Last Date: 19.09.2011

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Tuesday, August 9, 2011

Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam. 2011 Solved Paper

General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness

(Exam Held on 13-3-2011) 1. Trade Ministers of Key WTO member countries including India held a meeting at Davos in Switzerland on January 29, 2011. Which one of the following was the purpose of this meeting ? (A) Negotiations for free trade (B) Negotiations to abolish Restrictive Trade Practices (C) Issues relating to agricultural subsidies (D) Negotiations for a global trade deal (E) To include Pakistan and Iran as members Ans : (D) 2. Which one of the following advices has/have been given by leading Economists to Finance Minister during their pre-budget meeting with him ? 1. To take measures to boost farm productivity only. 2. To improve supply of agricultural products only. 3. To reduce the fiscal deficit only. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) Only 1 and 2 Ans : (D) 3. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries has signed highest number of deals to get global project finance ? (A) Australia (B) USA (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Spain (E) India Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following terms is used in Banking Field ? (A) Interest Rate Swap (B) Input Devices (C) Sedimentary (D) Zero Hour (E) Privilege Motion Ans : (A) 5. To which of the following States has the Asian Development Bank given a loan of $ 90 m for development of Power projects ? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Tripura (D) Arunachal Pradesh (E) Assam Ans : (E) 6. On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any company in India ? 1. Violation of Banking Regulation Act. 2. Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines. 3. For violation of Negotiable Instrument Act. (A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) Only 2 Ans : (E) 7. In the opinion of the Governor of Reserve Bank of India, which one of the following is the reason owing to which Indias inflation is accelerating ? (A) Excess liquidity in market (B) Speculation in essential goods (C) Higher food cost (D) Commodities futures (E) None of these Ans : (A) 8. In opinion of the RBI, which one of the following is/are a threat to the smooth functioning of Indian Companies ? 1. Rising input costs. 2. High interest rates. 3. Inflation only. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Only 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 9. For which one of the following reasons Government of India has decided to waive off upfront payment of Rs. 1,400 to be made by each customer located in rural areas to get LPG connection ? 1. To help villagers to use LPG in place of firewood/kerosene. 2. To help villagers to save kerosene for agricultural activities. 3. To lure villagers to use LPG which is of substandard quality and not fit for industrial use. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) Only 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 10. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector ? (A) Asset Liability Mismatch (B) Asset Liability Maturity (C) Asset Liability Management (D) Asset Liability Manpower (E) None of these Ans : (C) 11. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Half a Life ? (A) Mark Tully (B) Deepak Chopra (C) Chetan Bhagat (D) Ved Mehta (E) V. S. Naipaul Ans : (E) 12. In which one of the following states, village level marketing platform has been set up for the first time in the country ? (A) Haryana (B) Maharashtra (C) Gujarat (D) Bihar (E) Kerala Ans : (C) 13. The RBI has asked banks to spell out their policy, procedures and size of the business on which of the following aspects of banking ? (A) On-shore banking

(B) Off-shore banking (C) Investments in secondary market (D) Wealth management (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. Which of the following organizations has given a US $ 172 billion loan to India to build roads in rural areas ? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) International Monetary Fund (C) Bill Gates Foundation USA (D) World Bank (E) None of these Ans : (D) 15. Which one of the following advices has been given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee to Chartered Accounts ? (A) They must highlight the credit risks (B) They must highlight the operational risks (C) They must bring to the notice of Government tax evasions (D) They must be vigilant against window dressing of companies (E) None of these Ans : (E) 16. Who amongst the following has asked banks to adopt six step approach to prevent diversion of funds by the companies ? (A) Company Registrar (B) SEBI (C) RBI (D) AMFI (E) All of these Ans : (C) 17. Which one of the following countries has been invited to join BRIC ? (A) Indonesia (B) Bangladesh (C) South Africa (D) China (E) Argentina Ans : (C) 18. Who is Nicolas Sarkozy ? (A) French Prime Minister (B) French President (C) Russian Prime Minister (D) Russian President

(E) None of these Ans : (B) 19. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ? 1. IPO only 2. FPO only 3. Commercial papers. (A) Only 3 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 1 (E) Only 1 and 2 Ans : (D) 20. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. wants Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs ? (A) To reduce liquidity in the market (B) It is as per Basel II requirements (C) It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives (D) It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown (E) None of these Ans : (D) 21. According to World Economic Forum, which one of the following risks is the greatest risk faced by the world in the year 2011 ? (A) Credit Risk (B) Country Risk (C) Counterparty Risk (D) Sovereign Default Risk (E) None of these Ans : (D) 22. Which one of the following decisions has been taken by Govt. in respect of MGNREGA ? (A) The wages should be revised by the State Governments (B) The wages are to be revised by Planning Commission (C) The District Authorities who allot work can give differential wages (D) The wages shall be linked to inflation (E) None of these Ans : (A) 23. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks ? (A) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks (B) Floating rate of interest charged by banks (C) Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently (D) Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently (E) None of these

Ans : (C) 24. On which one of the following subjects Pranab Sen Committee has submitted its recommendations to the Govt. of India ? (A) MGNREGA (B) Food Security (C) Inflation (D) Food processing industries (E) None of these Ans : (E) 25. Expand the term CCEA as used in administrative circles (A) Cabinet Committee on External Affairs (B) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (C) Cabinet Council on External Affairs (D) Cabinet Council on Economic Affairs (E) None of these Ans : (B) 26. With which one of the following games, Baichung Bhutia is associated ? (A) Hockey (B) Golf (C) Kabaddi (D) Football (E) Tennis Ans : (D) 27. What the full form of the term LIBOR as used in financial banking sectors ? (A) Local Indian Bank Offered Rate (B) London-India Bureau of Regulations (C) Liberal International Bank Official Ratio (D) London Inter Bank Offered Rate (E) None of these Ans : (D) 28. In which one of the following States, Patratu Thermal Power Plant is proposed to be set up ? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Bihar (C) Jharkhand (D) West Bengal (E) Kerala Ans : (C) 29. On the basis of which of the following reasons, IMF has projected Indias GDP growth at 88 per cent in 2010-11 ? 1. Strong industrial growth.

2. Strong farm sector growth. 3. High domestics consumption demand. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3 (E) Only 2 and 3 Ans : (C) 30. Who amongst the following is the ICC Cricketer of the year ? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Kevin Pietersen (C) M. S. Dhoni (D) Sanath Jayasuriya (E) None of these Ans : (A) 31. Who is Montek Singh Ahluwalia ? (A) Chairman, Planning Commission (B) Dy. Chairman, Planning Commission (C) Cmmerce Secretary, GOI (D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister (E) None of these Ans : (B) 32. Who amongst the following is the Prime Minister of Australia at present ? (A) Julia Gillard (B) Kevin Rudd (C) Dilma Rousseff (D) Sebastian Vettel (E) None of these Ans : (A) 33. Expand the term FSDC which is used in financial sectors ? (A) Financial Security and Development Council (B) Financial Stability and Development Council (C) Fiscal Security and Development Council (D) Fiscal Stability and Development Council (E) None of these Ans : (B) 34. According to US Department of Agriculture, which one of the following countries in the world is the largest producer of dairy products ? (A) Australia (B) USA (C) China

(D) Norway (E) India Ans : (E) 35. With which one of the following games is Tiger Woods associated ? (A) Golf (B) Swimming (C) Tennis (D) Table Tennis (E) Badminton Ans : (A) 36. Which one of the following is largest producer of power in India ? (A) Reliance Power (B) Tata Power (C) National Hydro Power (D) Adani Power (E) NTPC Ans : (C) 37. For which one of the following States, centre has appointed interlocutors ? (A) H.P. (B) J & K (C) Nagaland (D) Manipur (E) None of these Ans : (B) 38. Expand the term GSLV (A) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (B) Global Satellite Launch Vehicle (C) Geosynchronous Station Launch Vehicle (D) Global Station Launch Vehicle (E) None of these Ans : (A) 39. For which one of the following reasons Basel II norms are to be followed by Commercial Banks ? (A) Risk management (B) Adoption of international accounting standards (C) Restriction on bonus payments to bank executives (D) Transparency in disclosures (E) None of these Ans : (A) 40. With which one of the following sports, the name of Parupalli Kashyap is associated ?

(A) Chess (B) Tennis (C) Badminton (D) Athletics (E) None of these Ans : (C) 41. Which of the following terms is used in cricket ? (A) Centre forward (B) Goal (C) Love (D) LBW (E) Bulls eye Ans : (D) 42. With which one of the following activities, Golden Globe Awards are associated ? (A) Journalism (B) Social work (C) Peace initiatives (D) Films (E) None of these Ans : (D) 43. Goodbye Shahzadi is a book written by (A) Shyam Bhatia (B) Ashok Mehta (C) Janardhan Thakur (D) Arun Gandhi (E) None of these Ans : (A) 44. Malayalam writer Akkithom Achyuthan Nambhodiri will be the recipient of which of the following awards ? (A) Moortidevi award (B) Pulitzer Prize (C) Best Asian Author (D) Kalidas Sanman (E) Arjuna Award Ans : (A) 45. With which one of the following sports, Narain Karthikeyen is connected ? (A) F1 (B) Tennis (C) Badminton (D) Table Tennis (E) Snooker

Ans : (A) 46. In which one of the following States, Sabari mala temple is located ? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) A.P. (C) Kerala (D) Karnataka (E) None of these Ans : (C) 47. Which one of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ? (A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) SIDBI (D) IBA (E) None of these Ans : (B) 48. Who is Robert Zoelick ? (A) IMF Chief (B) World Bank President (C) ADB President (D) Chief UNIDO (E) None of these Ans : (B) 49. Justice K. G. Balakrishnan is holding the post of (A) Chief Justice of India (B) Chairman, National Human Rights Commission (C) Cabinet Secretary, Govt. of India (D) Revenue Secretary, Govt. of India (E) None of these Ans : (B) 50. Mehbooba Mufti belongs to which one of the following political parties ? (A) National Conference (B) PDP (C) NCP (D) Janta Dal (E) None of these Ans : (B) Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 11:48:00 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz

BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. Who among the following is not the present Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India? 1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Subhir Gokarn 3) D. Subba Rao 4) Anand Sinha 5) H. R.khan 2. On 4th July 2011, the Reserve Bank of India on extended the .........% ceiling of bank investment in liquid schemes of mutual funds to include short-term debt funds? 1) 7 2) 8 3) 9 4) 11 5) 10 3. Fixed Deposit also called as .........? 1) Term Deposit 2) Steer Deposit 3) Validity Deposit 4) No Cancel Deposit 5) Inter Deposit 4. Expand CDSL .........? 1) Central Deposit Source Limited 2) Central Deposit Signal Limited 3) Central Depository Services Loyalty 4) Central Dena Services Limited 5) Central Depository Services Limited 5. Credit Creation means .........? 1) giving loans after cancellation of old loan 2) giving more and more loans to BPL families

3) to expand deposits through expanding their loans and advances 4) to provide more loans to government employees without rate of interest 5) All of above 6. The best alternative banking service to branch banking to be the part of Financial Inclusion? 1) Establishment of small branches 2) Setup ATMs 3) Issuing of ATM cards 4) Giving Credit Cards 5) Mobile banking 7. By 31st March 2011, the Non-performance Assets ( NPA) of all banks reached about .........percent? 1) One 2) Three 3) Five 4) Ten 5) Eight 8. Central Bank of India has tie up with .......... to promote vocational training amongst the youth. 1) National Skill Deemed Corporation (NSDC) 2) National Steamed Development Corporation (NSDC) 3) National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) 4) Notional Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) 5) None 9. India is set for a record food grains production in the 2010-11 crop year at ..........million tonnes as per the advance estimates released by the Agriculture Ministry? 1) 222.28 2) 232.12 3) 321.25 4) 241.56 5) 201.20 10. Overdraft facility means .........? 1) bank account holders to have a facility to take draft having denomination more than the minimum balance they maintain 2) facility that allows bank to charge more draft charges if they issue drafts having more value than Rs.1,00,000 3) the account holder can take more than one draft in a day in the same branch by paying few charges 4) rural Banks can take more loan than allowed by the RBI from world bank in the month of March every year 5) facility that allows bank account holders to have a negative balance on their bank accounts and pay rate of interest on the excess amount used

11. Which among the following measures can not be taken by the government to tackle the inflation? 1) Financing the areas, where the production of the goods is less 2) Fixing the MRP of major products to be bought 3) Asking RBI to mint the new currency 4) Banning the export of goods 5) None 12. Committee Of Secretaries ( COS) recommend ......... percent of FDI in the multibrand retail sector? (Committee headed by Ajay Kumar Seth) 1) 49 2) 74 3) 51 4) 26 5) 100 13. On 18 July 2011, A tripartite agreement was signed between the Centre, West Bengal government and the Gorkha Janmukti Morcha(GJM) paving the way for the setting up of the GTA an elected body for the Darjeeling hills. GTA means? 1) Gorkhaland Terminal Administration 2) Gorkhaland Territorial Authority 3) Gorkha Time Administration 4) Gorkha Territorial Administration 5) Gorkhaland Territorial Administration 14. International events given. Pick the wrong one? 1) India helps Nepal in the election management 2) Newzeland prime minister John Key visited India 3) South Korea signed civil nuclear cooperation agreement with India 4) Ollanta Humala won Mexico presidential election 5) World's longest sea bridge of 36.48 km across the mouth of the Jiaozhou Bay in eastern Shandong Province, in Chin 15. Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit, 2011 details are given. Pick the wrong option? 1) On 15 June 2011 the summit held in Astana ( capital of Kazakhstan) 2) China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan are the member states 3) The head quarters is Shanghai. Muratbek Sansyzbayevich Imanaliyev is the secretary General 4) India was removed as the member of SCO recently 5) The internal members Co-operation is the agenda of this summit 16. The country's first-ever socio-economic and caste Census to identify people living below poverty line (BPL) started on Jun 29, 2011 at tribal village of Sankhola of .........? 1) Maharashtra 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Jammu

4) Bihar 5) Tripura 17. The Wimbledon event details are given. Pick the wrong one? 1) Men's singles got by Novak Djokovic of Serbia and runner is Rafael Nadal (Spain) 2) Women's singles got by Petra Kvitova of Czech and runner is Maria Sharapova of Russia 3) Men's doubles got by Bob Bryan and Mike Bryan of USA 4) Mixed doubles got by Jurgen Melzer of Australia and Iveta Benesova of Czech. Runners are Mahesh Bhupathi of India and Vesnina of Russia 5) None 18. Reserve Bank of India made compulsory that the banks to hold 24 percent of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) in a liquid portfolio under the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR). What is the ultimate aim of RBI to mandate the above rule? 1) As it is supervision bank, it want to check whether the banks follow or not 2) The banks must put money in liquid portfolio as per the order of World Bank 3) Increases flow of credit to productive sectors and give strength to Financial System 4) Liquid profile is one of the character features of BASEL committee recommendation 5) None 19. Increase in deposit rate results .........? 1) lower savings 2) lower investments 3) increase bank branches 4) increase savings 5) none 20. Banks giving the lowest lending in the ......... Part of India. 1) Central 2) North Eastern 3) Southern 4) Western 5) Northern 21. ......... is a good step if RBI to stop the Capital Outflows and contain the currency depreciation? 1) increase the bank license fee 2) restricting customers not to use other ATM 3) decrease the interest rates 4) increase the interest rates 5) None 22. ......... bank is not a foreign bank? 1) HSBC 2) IDBI

3) ANZ 4) SCB 5) ICBC 23. Plastic Card of the banks do not include .........? 1) Passport issued by Indian Government 2) Credit Card issued by SBI 3) Debit Card issued by ICICI 4) Pre-Paid Card issued by HSBC 5) ATM Card issued by foreign Banks 24. On 5 July 2011, $ 200 million granted by World Bank to strengthen panchayats and municipalities in .........? 1) Tamilnadu 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Rajasthan 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Kerala 25. Reframed National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) got $ 1billion as credit to improve livelihood prospects in the country's rural economy from ........? 1) IMF 2) IDA 3) World Bank 4) IFC 5) ODA 26. ......... was elected Chairman of the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers on GST((Goods and Services Tax). 1) Kelkar 2) Asim Das Guptha 3) Sushil Kumar Modi 4) Rosaiah 5) Chidambaram 27. ......... allocated more administrative and financial powers to panchayats to further strengthen Panchayati Raj Institutions recently 1) Haryana 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) Tamilnadu 4) Sikkim 5) Delhi 28. .........was nominated to the Nobel Peace Prize from India to recognize his initiatives to bring peace among ethnic communities of the north east? 1) Pope Bendict XIV

2) Thoma Bendict XII 3) Thomas Menamparampil 4) Bendict Louis 5) None 29. Authors and Books given. Pick the wrong combination? 1) Straight from the Heart -Bradman 2) Sunny Days - Gavaskar 3) If Cricket is a Religion, Sachin is God - Vijay Santhanam 4) Wide Angle - Anil Kumble 5) Standing My Ground - Mathew Hayden 30. Sagar Prahari Bal is the ......... 1) India war ship 2) Indian Sea watching agency 3) Indian missile water to water 4) Indian Sea prote ction force 5) President of India ship 31. On 5th July 2011, FM said 2011-2012 Fiscal Deficit target restricted to ......? 1) 4.9 2) 5.1 3) 5.5 4) 3.5 5) 4.6 32. To bring the Green Revelution in Eastern part of India (Assom, Bihar, Chattisgarh,Jharkhand, Odisha,Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal)......... released by the union government? 1) Rs.119.5 cr 2) Rs.1811 cr 3) Rs.77.50 cr 4) Rs. 3119 cr 5) Rs.181 cr 33. FDI allowed in the FM radio operations increased from 20 to .......... FM Radio Operations Phase III Allocated 839 new FM radio Channels 1) 26 2) 74 3) 49 4) 50 5) 51 34. In the month of June the central government extend the cover of Rastriya Swastya Bhima Yozana (RSBY) to Beedi Workers and ..........? 1) Carpenters

2) Cobblers 3) School Children 4) Domestic Workers 5) All of above.

ANSWERS:
1)3 2)5 3)1 4)5 5)3 6)5 7)2 8)3 9)4 10)5 11)3 12)313)5 14)4 15)4 16)5 17)5 18)3 19)4 20)2 21)4 22)2 23)1 24)5 25)3 26)3 27)1 28)3 29)1 30)4 31)5 32)5 33)1 34)4 Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 10:27:00 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: GENERAL AWARENESS

Saturday, August 6, 2011

Corporation Bank PO Solved Question Paper 2010

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Many people talk about the rollback of stimulus packages provided last year by the Govt of India to help certain sectors. If these stimulus packages are rolled back, this would mean that (A) those who have availed these benefits would be required to return them to the Govt of India. (B) no such incentive would be available henceforth to these sectors. (C) all such benefits/incentives would be available to all the people across the country and will not be restricted to some selected few. 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C

4) Only A & C 5) Only B & C Ans: (2) 2. In order to develop infrastructure in the country at a faster pace, the Go'1 of India has fixed some targets." In order to achieve this target, at present, how many kilometres of highway is required to be constructed per day? 1) 5 km 2) 10 km 3) 15 km 4) 20 km 5) None of these Ans: (4) 3. "South India will get K-G gas by 2012" was the news in a major financial newspaper. 'K-G' is the abbreviated name of which of the following? 1) Karnataka-Goa 2) Kaveri-Ganga 3) Krishna-Godavari 4) Karnataka-Gulf 5) None of these Ans: (3) 4. Many a time we read in newspapers that some big banks have revised their lending rates to make them dearer or cheaper. Though the decision to raise the lending rates is always in the hands of the banks, normally they announce this decision of theirs (A) immediately after the Union Budget is presented in the Lok Sabha every year. (B) when the RBI makes changes in its policy rates.

(C) when the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI is reviewed periodically. 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only B & C 5) All A, B & C Ans: (4) 5. The Govt of India has decided to bring down the fiscal deficit from 6.6 per cent to the level of5.5 per cent of the GDP so that it can meet growth targets well in time. This target of 5.5 per cent is to be achieved by the end of l) January 2011 2) March 2011 3) December 2010 4) January 2012 5) None of these Ans: (2) 6. Some economists and financial experts are of the opinion that the Finance Minister of India has done 'a 'good job by allocating a fairly good share of budget to ensure that the benefits of the growth also reach the poor and unorganised sectors of the society. What amount in terms of percentage has been allocated to various schemes of the social sector in the Union Budget 201011? 1) 5% 2) 7.5% 3) 10% 4) 12.5% 5) None of these

Ans: 7. As a policy to boost the agricultural sector in the country, the Govt of India has taken several special measures over the years Which Of the following cannot be considered a measure/measures which will have a direct impact(s) on the agricultural sector? A. Setting up of a National Food Processing Bank B. Opening irrigation, sanitation and water projects for development under public-private participation C. Efforts to bring down fiscal deficit to 5.5 percent level of GDP 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A & B 5) All A, B & C Ans: (3) 8. The Govt of India is planning to bring a Second Green Revolution. This will be launched specifically for which of the following parts of the country? 1) North East and Eastern Regions 2) Central India 3) Jammu & Kashmir 4) Tamil Nadu, Kerala & Andhra Pradesh 5) None of these Ans: (2) 9. As we all know, the limit of exemption on personal income tax has been raised by Rs 10,000. Whenever a relief in direct taxes is given, the underlying motive is always to make money available for which of the following purposes? (A) Savings

(B) Investment for High returns (C) Personal Consumption 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only A & C 4) Only B & C 5) None of these Ans: (4) 10. As we know, a special scheme 'One Village One Project' is in vogue in some parts of our country and has proved a good incentive to boost the rural economy and the agricultural sector. Now the Govt has decided to develop 60,000 villages to produce which of the following single crops as a major crop? 1) Pulses or Oilseeds 2) Wheat or Bajra 3) Sugar or Jute 4) Sunflower or Rose flower 5) None of these Ans: (1) 11. How much amount in cash is the Govt of India planning to infuse in public sector banks to strengthen their capital base this year? 1) Rs 10,000 crores 2) Rs 12,500 crores 3) Rs 14,000 crores 4) Rs 16,500 crores 5) None of these

Ans: (4) 12. As we all know, the rate of MAT has been increased from the present 15% to 18% with effect from Apr 2010. What is the full form of MAT? 1) Maximum Alternate Tax 2) Minimum Alternate Tax 3) Minimum Affordable Tax 4) Maximum Affordable Tax 5) None of these Ans: (2) 13. One of the headlines in a major financial newspaper recently was "Is Spain the next Greece or Italy or Portugal?" What is the actual meaning of this headline because of which the author has been comparing Spain with the other three countries? 1) All these three countries have abandoned the membership of the European Union; Spain is also planning to do so. 2) All these three countries were the first to come out of recent global recession and that too within a short span of time. Spain is next in queue to declare itself free from the trouble. 3) These three nations are badly trapped in a situation where their economy is proceeding from bad to worse condition. Spain also appears to be in the same situation. 4) Greece, Italy and Portugal have signed some special agreements with US and are availing stimulus packages to promote their exports to US on some specific terms. Spain is also willing to do the same. 5) None of these Ans: (3) 14. Many times we read in newspapers that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCBs? 1) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds 2) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds 3) Financial Consortium & Credit Bureau

4) Future Credit & Currency Bureau 5) None of these Ans: (1) 15. The Govt of India has asked all big companies and corporates to create a separate fund for their "Corporate Social Responsibility Activities". What is/are the purpose(s) of this directive issued by the Govt? A. To ensure that companies spend some money on social activities B. To bring transparency in matters of financial transactions and dealings by corporates. C. To ensure that corporate entities do not get involved in non-commercial activities in the name of social activities as they are required to spend money only on the welfare of the employees and their families 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) All A, B & C 5) None of these Ans: (1) 16. Which of-the following is an innovative mechanism adopted by banks to meet the targets fixed for lending to priority sector by the Banks? 1) Buying & Selling of Priority Sector Lending Certification 2) Sale of Kisan Vikas patra 3) Inter Bank Participation Certificates 4) Adoption of Core Banking Solution 5) None of these Ans: (4)

17. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced a hike in some policy rates and also indicated that there may be another change in near future. Which of the following is/are considered a policy rate(s) in the hands of the RBI? A. Repo Rate B. SLR C. Inflation 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A & B 5) All A, B & C Ans: (4) 18. Zain, which was in news recently, is a company based in which of the following nations? 1) Kuwait 2) South Africa 3) UAE 4) China 5) None of these Ans: (1) 19. Who amongst the following was awarded the prestigious "Moortidevi Award" recently for his literary works? (The awardee is a Minister in the Union Cabinet.) 1) Veerappa Moily 2) Pranab Mukherjee 3) P Chidambaram 4) Kapil Sibal

5) None of these Ans: (1) 20. The Indian Ministry of Agriculture has decided that despite good stocks of wheat and rice, India will not export the excess stocks. Which of the following may be the reason(s) owing. to which the Ministry has taken this decision? (A) Indian wheat and rice are not in much demand in foreign countries. Hence very few are takers for the same. (B) The National Food Security Bill has a provision to provide 25 kg of wheat or rice to the families living below poverty line. A huge stock of gains will be needed for the same in near future. (C) Since most countries are still to recover from the global recession, a formula is being worked out where imports and exports will be compensated simply by exchange of commodities available with the countries. India is planning to use its food grain stocks for the same. 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) All A, B & C 5) None of these Ans: (2) 21. As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a population of2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories? 1) Plan for Financial Inclusion 2) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending 3) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers. 4) Extension of Internet and Branchless Banking 5) None of these

Ans: (1) 22. Which of the following is NOT a bank or finance company? 1) Barclays 2) BNP Paribas 3) Lufthansa 4) HSBC 5) All are banks/finance companies. Ans: (3) 23. The Indian Railways is in the process of purchasing Bullet Train Technology from which of the following nations? 1) France 2) China 3) Japan 4) Russia 5) Spain Ans: (3) 24. Some. State Govts have started a project "Save Snow Leopards". Snow Leopards are found mainly in 1) Jarnmu & Kashmir 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala 4) Punjab 5) Tamil Nadu Ans: (1)

25. India recently signed an agreement for an 'Action Plan to Advance Security Cooperation' with which of the following nations? 1) China 2) Bangladesh 3) Pakistan 4) Nepal 5) Japan Ans: (5) 26. Sanya Richards, who was named as the IMF World Athlete 'of 2009, represents which of the following countries? 1) Jamaica 2) Kenya 3) France 4) Britain 5) USA Ans: (1) 27. Who amongst the following was adjudged the European Footballer of the Year 2009? 1) Roberto Baggio 2) Edger Davids 3) Xavi Hernandez 4) Cristiano Ronaldo 5) Lionel Messi Ans: (4) 28. The latest nuclear power reactor of India recently attained criticality at Rawatbhata, Rawatbhata is a place in

1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Uttarakhand 4) Orissa 5) Rajasthan Ans: (5) 29. Who amongst the following has recently received the Highest Civilian Honour of France? 1) Kareena Kapoor 2) AR Rahman 3) Javed Akhtar 4) Lata Mangeshkar 5) None of these Ans: (4) 30. Who amongst the following represented India at the 15th United Nations Climate Change Conference 2009 held in Copenhagen? 1) Smt Sonia Gandhi 2) Smt Pratibha Patil 3) Dr Manmohan Singh 4) Smt Meira Kumar 5) None of these Ans: (3) 31. Three Indian sportsmen, C Raju Srither, IR Sanam and Ratan Singh, recently went to Indonesia and won Gold Medals in which. of the following events? 1) Weightlifting

2) Rifle Shooting 3) Swimming 4) Golf 5) Archery Ans: (5) 32. A two-day meeting of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was organised recently in 1) Kathmandu 2) Islamabad 3) Kabul 4) Dhaka 5) None of these Ans: (5) 33. By nominating its Ambassador to which of the following countries after a gap of five years has the USA established its diplomatic relation with it? 1) Syria 2) Iran 3) Iraq 4) China 5) None of these Ans: (1) 34. Which of the following organisations/agencies is providing a US$ 850-million loan to India for the development of its infrastructure and khadi industry? 1) World Bank

2) European Union Finance Corporation 3) Asian Development Bank 4) Govt of South Africa 5) None of these Ans: (1) 35. Goodluck Jonathan, the whose name was in the news recently, is from which of the following countries? 1) Kenya 2) Uganda 3) Nigeria 4) Sudan 5) None of these Ans: (3) 36. The Census in India is done after a gap of every. 1) 5 years 2) 10years 3) 12 years 4) 15 years 5) None of these Ans: (2) 37. Pankaj Advani won which of the following titles in the year2009? 1) Asian Games Gold Medal 2) Asian Billiards Championship 3) WSA Challenge Tour

4) World Professional Billiards Championship 5) None of these Ans: (4) 38. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of sports? 1) Kalinga Award 2) Golden Pen Award 3) Arjuna Award 4) Bharat Ratna 5) None of these Ans: (3) 39. Which of the following states started "Apni Mandis" project in all districts of the state to ensure the supply of vegetables and fruits at fair prices? 1) Gujarat 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Haryana 4) Delhi 5) None of these Ans: (5) 40. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Economics? 1) Balance of Trade 2) Centrifugal force 3) Break even 4) Fiscal Deficit

5) Capital Account Ans: (2) 41. Between the Assassinations is a book written by 1) Chetan Bhagat 2) Kiran Desai 3) Shobhaa De 4) Vikram Seth 5) Aravind Adiga Ans: (5) 42. Which of the following prizes/awards is NOT given for Excellence in the field of Literature? 1) Dronacharya Award 2) Aga Khan Prize for Fiction 3) Commonwealth Award 4) Nobel Prize 5) Man Booker Prize Ans: (1) 43. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of Hockey? 1) Centre 2) Downswing 3) Drop pass 4) Goal line 5) Blue line Ans: (5)

44. Invisible is a novel written by 1) Vikram Seth 2) Chetan Bhagat 3) Anita Desai 4) Meghnad Desai 5) Paul Auster Ans: (5) 45. Russia recently agreed to resume import of natural gas from which of the following countries after a gap of about a month following a dispute over prices of the same? 1) Iran 2) Turkmenistan 3) China 4) Kazakhstan 5) N Korea Ans: (2) 46. India recently signed an agreement for cooperation in the field of nuclear power for civil purposes. This agreement is free from any restrictions on India. India signed this agreement with 1) France 2) Germany 3) USA 4) Canada 5) Russia Ans: (5) 47. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize 2009 was given to the President of

1) Fiji 2) Bhutan 3) Nepal 4) Bangladesh 5) None of these Ans: (4) 48. The Govt of India recently launched the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission. This mission is one of the key missions on India's National Action Plan on 1) Second Green Revolution 2) Climate Change 3) Recharging of Water bodies 4) Electricity to all 5) None of these Ans: (2) 49. Voting in local bodies elections is compulsory in which one of the following states? 1) Delhi 2) Maharashtra 3) Kerala 4) Gujarat 5) None of these Ans: (4) 50. India's exports of which of the following to USA has been growing at a fast pace despite the global slowdown and recession? 1) Handicrafts and Carpets

2) Textiles and Clothing 3) Horticultural products 4) Foodgrains 5) Services Ans: (2) Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 10:09:00 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Labels: CORPORATION BANK

Corporation Bank PO Solved Question Paper 2010

REASONING ABILITY 1. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DREO using each letter only once in each word? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (2) 2. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, "He is the son of my grandfather's only daughter." How is Urmila related to the boy? 1) Mother 2) Maternal Aunt 3) Paternal Aunt 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5)

3. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans: (1) 4. Mohit correctly remembers that his father's birthday is not after eighteenth of April. His sister correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before twentieth but after seventeenth of April. On which day in April was definitely their father's birthday? 1) Seventeenth 2) Nineteenth 3) Eighteenth 4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth 5) None of these Ans: (3) 5. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, again he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point? 1) 80 metres 2) 100 metres 3) 130 metres 4) 50 metres 5) None of these Ans: (4)

6. In a certain code BLACK is written as 'ALBKC' and SMART is written as 'AMSTR'. How is CLOCK written in that code? 1) CLOKE 2) CLOCK 3) OLCKC 4) OLCCK 5) None of these Ans: (3) 7. What should come next in the following number series? 975311864229753186422975318642975 1) 1 2) 5 3) 3 4) 5 5) None of these Ans: (3) 8. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 83416759 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged, and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement? 1) 3 2) 8 3) 4 4) 6 5) None of these Ans: (2)

9. M is brother of K. T is sister of K. R is father of M. J is wife of R. How many sons does J have? 1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (4) 10. In a certain code 'GONE' is written as 'NOEGG' and 'LOAD' is written as 'AODLL'. How is 'SORT' written in that code? 1) ROSIT 2) ROTSS 3) RSTOO 4) OTRSS 5) None of these Ans: (2) 11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTRAST each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (4) 12. In a certain code GONE is written as 5%2# and MEDAL is written as 4#3$@. How is

GOLD written in that code? 1) 5@%3 2) 5%@33) 5#@3 4) 5%#3 5) None of these Ans: (2) 13. The positions of how many digits in the number 89154326 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (5) 14. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks, B has scored more marks than E and D. B has not scored the highest marks among them. Who among them scored the secondhighest marks? 1) B 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) Data inadequate Ans: (5) 15. In a certain code language 'how old are you' is written as '9734' and 'he is old' is written as '2 75'. How is 'he' written in that code language? 1) 2

2) 5 3) 2 or 5 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5) Directions (Q. 16-18): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 528 739 846 492 375

16. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number? 1) 7 2) 10 3) 12 4) 13 5) None of these Ans: (3) 17. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the second lowest number? 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 2 5) 5 Ans: (2) 18. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the third highest number?

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 9 5) 7 Ans: (3) Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (i) 'P Q' means' P is sister of Q' (ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of 'Q'. (iii) p - Q' means 'P is father of Q'. (iv) 'P Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. 19. Which of the following represents 'W is grandfather of H'? 1) W +T - H 2) W T - H 3) W T + H 4) W T + H 5) None of these Ans: (5) 20. Which of the following represents 'M is nephew of R? 1) M T - R 2) R T - M 3) R T + M J

4) R T M J 5) None of these Ans: (4) Directions (Q.21-26): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even' if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 21. Statements: All rockets are poles. Some poles are trams. Some trams are ropes. All ropes are tents, Conclusions: I. Some tents are trams. II. Some ropes are rockets. III. Some trams are rockets. IV. Some poles are rockets. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) Only I and IV follow 5) None of these Ans: (4) 22. Statements: All dials are mirrors. All mirrors are spoons.

Some spoons are decks. Some decks are chairs. Conclusions: I. Some decks are mirrors. II. Some spoons are dials. III. Some decks are dials. IV. Some chairs are spoons. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only IV follows Ans: (3) 23. Statements: Some houses are forests. All forests are trees. Some trees are hills. All hills are buses. Conclusions: I. Some buses are trees. II. Some trees are houses. III. Some hills are houses. IV. Some buses are forests.

1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and IV follow 3) Only I, II and III follow 4) All I, II, III and IV follow 5) None of these Ans: (1) 24. Statements: Some lakes are rivers. Some rivers are mountains. Some mountains are books. Some books are papers. Conclusions: I. Some books are rivers. II. Some papers are lakes. III. Some mountains are lakes. IV. No paper is a lake. 1) None follows 2) Only either II or IV follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only IV follows 5) Only either II or IV and III follow Ans: (2) 25. Statements:

Some tigers are horses. All horses are goats. All goats are dogs. Some dogs are cats. Conclusions: I. Some cats are tigers. II. Some dogs are horses. III. Some goats are tigers. IV. Some cats are horses. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only II, III and IV follow 5) None of these Ans: (3) 26. Statements: All notebooks are pens. No pen is a table. Some tables are desks. All desks are tanks. Conclusions: I. Some tanks are pens. II. Some desks are notebooks.

III. Some tanks are tables. IV. No tank is a pen. 1) Only I follows 2) Only III follows 3) Only IV follows 4) Only either I or IV follows 5) Only either I or IV and III follow Ans: (5) Directions (Q. 27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V, Wand Z are sitting round a circle facing the centre. T is second to the right of R, who is third to the right of P. S is second to the left of P and fourth to the right of Q . Z is third to the right of V, who is not an immediate neighbour of P. 27. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between the second and the third persons? 1) VTS 2) TZS 3) QRV 4) PWQ 5) VRT Ans: (5) 28. Who is second to the right of T? 1) S 2) Z 3) P 4) R

5) None of these Ans. (2) 29. What is P's position with respect to S? 1) Fourth to the left 2) Fourth to the right 3) Fifth to the left 4) Sixth to the left 5) Third to the right Ans: (4) 30. Who is on the immediate left of Z? 1) T 2) P 3) S 4) V 5) None of these Ans: (3) 31. Who is second to the right of W? 1) R 2) Q 3) Z 4) S 5) None of these Ans: (1)

Directions (Q.32-37): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: W 7@ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5 M E 2 % T * 8 d U Q N 1V 6 # K F 32. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediate followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (1) 33. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the left end? 1) E 2) 5 3) D 4) 2 5) None of these Ans: (1) 34. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol, and immediately followed by a consonant? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (2)

35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) T * 2 2) Q N d 3) 3 9 R 4) 6 V K 5) % T E Ans: (4) 36. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) H 2) # 3) T 4) @ 5) None of these Ans: (3) 37. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (5)

Directions (Q.38-43): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark 5), ie 'None of these' as your answer. . Letter :BADEFHJKMIU0WFP

Digit/Sym. Code: 6 $ 7 8 # 1 2 * % 3 4 9 @ 5 Conditions: (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, their codes are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as d. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel. 38. EKFUDH 1) 8*#78 2) 1*#78 3) d*#78 4) 1*#71 5) None of these Ans: (2) 39. JMEIUD 1) d%83d 2) 2%832 3) 7%837 4) 2%837 5) None of these Ans: (1)

40. PEJDWU 1) 58279 2) d8279d 3) 8279 4) 582795 5) None of these Ans: (3) 41. DMEAKJ 1) 7%8$*2 2) 2%8$*7 3) 7%8$*7 4) d%8$*d 5) None of these Ans: (4) 42. IBHWPO 1) 361954 2) 461953 3) 361953 4) 461954 5) None of these Ans: (1) 43. UKPDMI

1) 5*7%3 2) d*57%d 3) 3*57% 4) *5%73 5) None of these Ans: (5) Directions (Q.44-49): In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, * and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P $ Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'. 'P @ Q' means' P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q. 'P * Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor greater than Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 44. Statements: D @ M, M $ B, B * R, R % T Conclusions: I. B * D II. B @ D III.T * M 1) None is true 2) Only I is true

3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only either I or II is true Ans: (5) 45. Statements: W F, Conclusions: I. K % W II. D $ W III. F * K 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) AII I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (4) 46. Statements: R * K, K M, M % T, T $ J Conclusions: I. J * M II. J * M III. K J 1) Only I is true F @ D, D * K, K $ J

2) Only II is true 3) Only I and II are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (3) 47. Statements: R @ K, T K, T $ M, M * W Conclusions: I. W % K II. MR III. TR 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (5) 48. Statements: T $ N, N % B, B @ W, K W Conclusions: I. K $ B II. K $ T III. T % B

1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (5) 49. Statements: Z % V, V * J, J M, M @ R Conclusions: I. R % V II. M % V III. Z % M 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (1) Directions (50-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : gone 93 over 46 84 now for 31

Step I Step II Step III Step IV Step V

: 31 gone 93 over 46 84 now for : 31 over gone 93 46 84 now for : 31 over 46 gone 93 84 now for : 31 over 46 now gone 93 84 for : 31 over 46 now 84 gone 93 for

and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. 50. Step III of an Input: 15 window 2993 86 sail tower buy Which of the following will be step VI? 1) 15 window 29 tower 86 sail 93 buy 2) 15 window 29 tower 86 93 sail buy 3) 15 window 29 tower 93 86 sail buy 4) There will be no such step 5) None of these Ans: (1) 51. Input: station hurry 39 67 all men 86 59 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Three 5) None of these Ans: (2)

52. Step II of an input is : 49 zone car battery 56 87 71 down Which of the following is definitely the input? 1) car 49 battery zone 56 87 71 down 2) zone 49 car battery 568771 down 3) battery car 49 zone 56 87 71 down 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans: (4) 53. Input: news 79 53 glory for 46 29 task Which of the following will be step IV? 1) 29 task 46 news 53 glory 79 for 2) 29 task 46 news 53 79 glory for 3) 29 task 46 news 79 53 glory for 4) 29 news 79 53 glory for461ask 5) None of these Ans: (2) 54. Step III of an input is: 27 tube 34 gas chamber row7453 Which of the following steps will be the last but one? 1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) V 5) None of these

Ans: (4) 55. Step II of an Input: 19 year 85 74 near gone 26 store How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five 5) None of these Ans: (2) Directions (Q.56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Std VI, VII and VIII with not more than three in any Std. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics. Geography, English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and Economics not necessarily in the same order. D likes Chemistry and studies in Std VIII with only H.B does not study in Std VII. E and A study in the same Std but not with B. C and F study in the same Std. Those who study in Std VI do not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who studies in Std VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A's favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology. 56. Which subject does H like? 1) English 2) Marathi 3) Science 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (1) 57. What is G's favourite subject?

1) Biology 2) Physics 3) Marathi 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5) 58. What is C's favourite subject? 1) Economics 2) Biology 3) English 4) Geography 5) Data inadequate Ans: (1) 59. Which of the following combinations of student-Std Subject is correct? 1) C- VII- Economics 2) D-VI- Chemistry 3) G-VII-Physics 4) B-VIII- Mathematics 5) None is correct Ans: (5) 60. Which of the following groups of students study in Std VII?

1) EAF 2) ECG 3) EAG 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (3) Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization: The candidate must (i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 per cent marks. (ii) have a postgraduate degree/diploma in Marketing Management with at least 60 per cent marks. (iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least five 'years in the marketing division of an organisation. . (iv) have secured at least 45 per. cent marks in the selection examination. (v) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except (a) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification work experience of at least three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. (b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing. In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other

than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010. Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer 3) if the case is to be referred to GM- Marketing. Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to VP- Marketing. Mark answer 5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. 61. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection interview and 40 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 59 per cent marks in BSc. Ans: (2) 62. Navin Desai has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. He has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate degree in Marketing with 62 per cent marks. He has secured 62 per cent marks in the selection examination and 38 per cent marks in the selection interview. Ans: (4) 63. Sabina Handa has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organisation after completing her postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. She has also secured 58 per cent marks in BCom. Ans: (3) 64. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65 per cent marks in BSc and 60 per cent marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and selection interview, He has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past six years after completing his postgraduation in Marketing. Ans: (1) 65. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59 per cent marks in BA. She has secured 42 per cent marks in the selection interview and 48 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the

marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing her postgraduation in Marketing Management with 57 per cent marks. Ans: (2) 66. Utpal Goswami has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past five years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. He is. a first-class Science graduate with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the selection examination and 40 per cent marks in the selection interview. Ans: (1) 67. Anindita Ghosh has been working for the past eight years in an organisation after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 70 per cent marks. She has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in the selection examination and 45 per cent marks in the selection interview. Ans: (5) 68. Samir Phukan has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma in management with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. Ans: (5) 69. Nimisha Patil has secured 59 per cent marks in BCom. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and the selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past three years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 63 per cent marks. Ans: (3) 70. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has been working for the past five years in the marketing division of an organisation after completing his post- graduate degree in Marketing Management with 68% marks. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection interview and 62 per cent marks in the selection examination. Ans: (4) Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered land II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider

the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer 1) if only Assumption I is implicit. Give answer 2) if only Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 3) if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 4) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit. 71. Statement: The largest domestic airlines corporation has announced new summer schedules in which more number of flights in trunk routes are introduced. Assumptions: I. More number of passengers may travel by this airlines corporation during summer months in trunk routes. II. Other airlines companies 'may also increase the number of flights in all the sectors. Ans: (1) 72. Statement: The chairman of the company decided to hold a grand function to celebrate silver jubilee during the next weekend and invited a large number of guests. Assumptions: I. The company officials may be able to make all the necessary preparations .for the silver jubilee celebration. II. Majority of the guests invited by the chairman may attend the function. Ans: (5) 73. Statement: The largest computer manufacturing company slashed the prices of most of the desktop models by about 15 per cent with immediate effect. Assumptions:

I. The company may incur heavy losses due to reduction in prices of the desktop. II. The sales of desktop manufactured by the company may increase substantially in the near future. Ans: (2) 74. Statement: The school authority decided to rent out the school premises during weekends and holidays for organising various functions to augment its resources to meet the growing needs of the school. Assumptions: I. The parents of the school students may protest against the decision of the school authority. II. There may not be enough demand for hiring the school premises for organising functions. Ans: (4) 75. Statement: The local civic body has urged all the residents to voluntarily reduce consumption of potable water by about 30 per cent to tide over the water crisis. Assumptions: I. Many residents may reduce consumption of potable water. II. Many activists may welcome the civic body's move and spread awareness among residents. Ans: (1) Directions (Q.76-80): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer 1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given. Mark answer 2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer 3) if the 'data are-inadequate', ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer 4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer 5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. Asia has become the growth centre of the world economy in recent years. Within the region, India and South Korea are the third and fourth largest economies after China and Japan. Though the Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India and China, South Korea has remained a key player for these' countries as one of their major trading and investment partners. South Korea adopted outward-oriented economic policies with the beginning of its first five-year economic development plan in 1962, which resulted in high growth and the integration of the Korean economy with the rest of the world. Subsequently, high and consistent economic growth made South Korea one of the high-income economies in Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster rate compared to other developed economies. India on the other hand adopted an import substitution policy since its Independence until the early 1990s. Since then India has introduced wide-ranging economic policy reforms and is moving towards marketdriven economy. This has resulted in consistent high economic growth over the last one-and-a-half decades. 76. Only Korean economy is considered as robust by the international community. Ans: (5) 77. Japan's economic growth over the last decade is the highest in Asia. Ans: (4) 78. The 'Korean economy is traditionally different than the Indian economy in its approach . Ans: (1) 79. The economic growth of India prior to 1990s was much higher than the present growth rate. Ans: (5) 80. India and China together are considered to be the driving force of the Asian economy. Ans: (2) Directions (Q.81-85): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given

in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer 1) if only course of action I follows. Give answer 2) if only course of action II follows. Give answer 3) if either course of action I or II follows. Give answer 4) if neither course of action I nor II follows. Give answer 5) if both courses of action I and II follow. 81. Statement: There have been sporadic cases of stone throwing and damaging vehicles in the locality during the day following altercation between two local youth clubs last night. Courses of action: I. The local police administration should arrest all those who are caught committing these acts. II. The local police administration should call a meeting of office bearers of both the clubs of the locality to bring the situation under control. Ans: (2) 82. Statement: A huge truck overturned on the middle of the main road and blocked most part of the road, causing a huge traffic jam. Courses of action: I. The traffic department should immediately deploy its personnel to divert traffic through other roads. II. The traffic department should immediately send men and equipment to-move the truck and clear the road. Ans: (3) 83. Statement: Some workers of the company making diamond jewellery were caught while there were leaving the premises as they were trying to smuggle small pieces of diamonds hidden in their purses. Courses of action:

I. The management of the company should immediately put on hold all activities in the premises till a fool-proof security system is in place. II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly be searched before they leave the premises of the company. Ans: (2) 84. Statement: A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing boats and hutments of the fishermen living along the coastline. Courses of action: I. The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from constructing their huts along the coast line. II. The local administration should send a team of officials to assess the extent of damage and suggest remedial measures. Ans: (2) 85. Statement: A large number of invitees who attended the marriage function fell ill due to food poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals located in the area. Courses of action: I. The government should ban such marriage functions till further notice. II. The local hospitals should be advised by the government to provide best services to the affected people. Ans: (2) Directions (Q.86-100): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures on the right shouldc come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? Problem Figures

86. Answer Figures

Ans: (4) Problem Figures

87.

Answer Figures

Ans: (5) Problem Figures

88. Answer Figures

Ans: (2) Problem Figures

89. Answer Figures

Ans: (1) Problem Figures

90. Answer Figures

Ans: (3) Problem Figures

91. Answer Figures

Ans: (1) Problem Figures

92. Answer Figures

Ans: (3) Problem Figures

93. Answer Figures

Ans: (4) Problem Figures

94. Answer Figures

Ans: (5) Problem Figures

95. Answer Figures

Ans: (2) Problem Figures

96. Answer Figures

Ans: (4) Problem Figures

97. Answer Figures

Ans: (2) Problem Figures

98. Answer Figures

Ans: (1) Problem Figures

99. Answer Figures

Ans: (1) Problem Figures

100. Answer Figures