BIOL 3332 Unit 1 Practice Questions Note that not all topics discussed in lecture (i.e.

, CH 1-5) are necessarily covered in the questions below. 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of most bacteria? a) they are prokaryotic b) they have peptidoglycan cell walls c) they have the same shape d) they grow by binary fission e) all the above are characteristics of bacteria 2. Microbes include members of which of the following groups? a) b) c) d) bacteria, animals, protozoa, fungi bacteria, archaea, fungi, viruses archaea, viruses, plants, fungi bacteria, archaea, protozoa, plants

3. The Germ Theory of Disease provided a framework for understanding a) how disease could be passed from one individual to another. b) how mitochondria are descended from bacteria. c) how microbes regulate global geochemical cycles. d) how noninfectious diseases originate. 4. Which of the following is a beneficial activity of microorganisms? a) Some microorganisms are used as food for humans. b) Some microorganisms use carbon dioxide. c) Some microorganisms provide nitrogen for plant growth. d) Some microorganisms are used in sewage treatment processes. e) all of the above 5. Which of the following would be considered an essential function performed by bacteria? a) control of insect populations b) biofuel production c) decomposition of organic material and the recycling of elements d) cause disease e) a tool in biotechnology 6. Koch's postulates include all the following except a) a pure culture of the pathogen must be obtained. b) the pathogen must be found in every individual suffering from the disease. c) the isolated pathogen must be used to infect healthy hosts. d) the pathogen must be shown to contain toxins. e) healthy individuals infected with the isolated suspected pathogen must come down with the disease. 7. Which of the following statements is true? a) All life requires air. b) Only disease-causing organisms require air. c) Some microbes do not require air. d) Pasteur kept air out of his biogenesis experiments. 8. Eukarya includes all of the following EXCEPT a) Viruses b) Protists c) Fungi d) Animals

2 9. Pasteur a) Disproved spontaneous generation b) Discovered penicillin c) Discovered microscopy d) Developed aseptic surgery 10. Which of the following can safely be ingested to fight bacterial infections? a) antiseptics b) disinfectants c) phenol d) chlorine e) antibiotics 11. How did Sergei Winogradsky grow lithotrophs? a) enrichment culture b) aseptic technique c) pure culture d) endosymbiosis e) chain of infection 12. Which group of microorganisms includes many that grow in extreme environments? a) algae b) bacteria c) protists d) archaea e) fungi 13. Which of the following organelles are thought to be of prokaryotic origin? a) chloroplast b) mitochondria c) nucleus d) chloroplast and mitochondria e) chloroplast and nucleus 14. The domains of life a) are plants, animals, and protists b) separate prokaryotes into two domains c) are two groups - prokaryotes and eukaryotes d) are six groups: animals, plants, fungi, bacteria, archaea, and protozoans 15. The ability of the lenses to distinguish fine detail and structure is called a) Illumination b) Magnification c) Refractive index d) Resolution e) numerical aperture 16. Which is the most important property that enables a lens to magnify an image? a) absorption b) fluorescence c) reflection d) refraction e) scattering

3 17. An image is magnified when light passes through a refractive material shaped so as to __________ its rays. a) absorb b) block c) concentrate d) condense e) spread 18. Which microscope would you choose to view the cellular contents of a microbe in its natural state without staining? a) Compound light microscope b) Phase-contrast microscope c) Fluorescence microscopy d) Electron microscope 19. Assume that you are viewing a Gram-stained field of red cocci and purple bacilli through the microscope. You can safely conclude that you have a) made a mistake in staining. b) two different species. c) old bacterial cells. d) young bacterial cells. e) none of the above 20. With the 100 objective lens, the refractive index of light passing through the specimen is maintained by insertion of __________, with a refractive index comparable to that of glass. a) immersion oil b) water c) air d) bacteria e) stain 21. If you are using a microscope with a 10 ocular lens and a 100 objective, what is the total magnification? a) 10-fold b) 100-fold c) 110-fold d) 1,000-fold e) This is not enough information. 22. Which of the following is a negative stain? a) acid-fast stain b) endospore stain c) antibody stain d) simple stain e) capsule stain 23. Which form of microscopy is based on the difference in refractive index between cell components and the surrounding medium? a) bright-field b) dark-field c) phase contrast d) fluorescence

4 24. Which of the following is true of transmission electron microscopy but NOT scanning electron microscopy? a) The specimen is usually fixed and embedded. b) The embedded specimen is cut into thin sections with a microtome. c) The specimen is stained with heavy metal. d) The specimen is viewed as three-dimensional. e) The requirement for a vacuum precludes the viewing of live organisms. 25. Acidic dyes a) are positively charged b) penetrate the cell c) are negative stains d) all the above are correct e) none of the above are correct 26. Peptidoglycan is composed primarily of a) sugars and amino acids. b) sugars and nucleic acids. c) nucleic acids and lipids. d) amino acids and lipids. 27. All of the following statements about prokaryotic flagella are correct except a) Counterclockwise motion produces straight-line runs. b) They are found in both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. c) They move with a whiplike motion. d) They are used for chemotaxis. e) A bacterial species can possess one flagellum or multiple flagella. 28. Which of the following statements about fimbriae is FALSE? a) They are the same size and function as pili. b) They may be used for attachment. c) They are found on gram-negative cells. d) They are composed of pilin protein. e) They may be used for some types of motility in certain bacteria. 29. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a) metachromatic granulesstored phosphates b) polysaccharide granulesstored starch c) lipid inclusionspoly--hydroxybutyric acid d) magnetosomes iron-containing particles e) none of the above are mismatched 30. The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria contain a) mycolic acids b) teichoic acid. c) cellulose. d) Lipid A e) lipoprotein

5 31. Which of the following structures allow a cell to survive adverse environmental conditions? a) capsule b) carboxysome c) endospore d) gas vacuole 32. Specific membrane components, particularly __________, determine which substances are transported across the membrane. a) phospholipids b) proteins c) ions d) polysaccharides 33. Which is NOT a component of any bacterial cell wall? a) peptidoglycan b) techoic acids c) N-acetylmuramic acid d) cellulose e) amino acids 34. All of the following are true about prokaryotic outer membranes EXCEPT: a) They are composed of peptidoglycan. b) They are found only in Gram-negative bacteria. c) They contain endotoxin. d) They contain proteins involved in transport. e) They contain lipopolysaccharide. 35. Which is applicable to Fts proteins? a) they are bacterial cytoskeleton components b) they aid in DNA replication c) they are involved in peptidoglycan synthesis d) they are involved in making proteins e) they are important in transport 36. Which of the following materials found in storage granules are used as an energy source? a) gas vesicle b) sulfur c) polyphosphate d) PHB granules e) magnetosome 37. Directed movements toward or away from a chemical or physical signal are known as: a) b) c) d) e) gliding flagellation chemotaxis locomotion slime layer

38. All bacterial cells need to be supplied with a source of a) energy and carbon. b) carbon, nitrogen, and light. c) carbon, fixed nitrogen, and water. d) electrons, protons, and neutrons.

6 39. __________ are specific nutrients that are NOT required by all cells. a) Macronutrients b) Micronutrients c) Growth factors d) Trace elements e) Essential nutrients 40. __________ are responsible for the carbon fixation component of the carbon cycle. a) Heterotrophs b) Symbionts c) Autotrophs d) Chemotrophs e) Organotrophs 41. When the intracellular iron concentration is low, iron-scavenging molecules called __________ are produced. a) siderophores b) endospores c) heterocysts d) mycelia e) quorum sensors 42. The best method to isolate single colonies is the __________ plate and the best method to count colonies is the __________ plate. a) streak; spread b) pour; streak c) defined; complex d) complex; defined e) spread; streak 43. The culture medium that is designed to suppress unwanted microbes while encouraging desired microbes is called a) Complex b) Selective c) Reducing d) Differential e) Enrichment 44. The fastest way to measure the cell density of a growing culture is by using a a) Petroff-Hausser counting chamber. b) spectrophotometer. c) streak plate method. d) pour plate method. 45. Which of the following is the best technique for counting only viable cells? a) direct microscopic count b) spread plate method c) spectrophotometer d) dry weights

7 46. Generation time can best be defined as a) the length of time it takes for lag phase b) the duration of log phase c) the length of time it takes for a cell to divide or population to double d) the minimum growth rate 47. When the population doubles during each given unit of time, the growth is: a) linear b) semilogarithmic c) exponential d) arithmetic 48. During which stage of bacterial growth is the culture growing exponentially? a) lag b) early log c) late log d) stationary e) death 49. The bacterium Sllub adirolfhtuos has a generation time of 20 minutes. Starting with one cell in log phase, how many minutes does it take to produce about a 1,000 cells? Assume all cells remain viable. a) 100 b) 140 c) 180 d) 200 50. A butcher who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates ground meat with 2 E. coli while in the process of packaging it. By the time you purchase the meat, there are 128 E. coli cells in it. How many generations did the cells go through? a) 2 b) 6 c) 8 d) 32 e) 64 51. Which of the following is true of all biofilms? a) They only contain a single species. b) The EPS (i.e, exopolysaccharide layer) may be protein or polysaccharide. c) Cells in the biofilm are dormant until the bacteria leave the biofilm. d) The EPS is secreted by the bacteria. e) It is a continuous monolayer surface deposit. 52. During biofilm formation, as more and more cells bind to the surface, they begin sending signals to each other in a process called: a) quorum sensing b) homoserine lactone c) siderophores d) polysaccharides e) symbiosis

8 53. How do some cyanobacteria fix nitrogen while growing aerobically? a) they dont because the nitrogen-fixing enzyme is destroyed by oxygen b) by using special cells called heterocysts that protect the enzyme c) by using cysts that protect the enzyme d) they just do it using no special structures or mechanisms e) they live symbiotically with other organisms that protect the enzyme 54. You have isolated a bacterium from the rumen of a cow and wish to know how it transports glucose into the cell. You perform an experiment that shows uptake of radioactively labeled glucose is equal when the organism is grown in media in the presence and absence of inhibitors of energy production. What is the mechanism of glucose transport in this cell? a) group translocation b) simple diffusion c) facilitated diffusion d) active transport e) endocytosis 55. Microbes that grow at temperatures between 40C and 80C are called a) psychrophiles. b) mesophiles. c) thermophiles. d) extreme thermophiles. 56. The fastest growth rate for a species occurs at temperatures where a cells __________ work most efficiently. a) lipids b) membranes c) nucleic acids d) proteins e) polysaccharides 57. Bacteria cannot grow in solutions with very high concentrations of sugar because a) bacteria cannot digest pure sugar. b) sugar raises the solutions osmolarity. c) sugar lowers the solutions osmolarity d) sugar raises the solutions pH. e) sugar lowers the solutions pH. 58. Physical agents used to prevent bacterial growth include a) pasteurization, freezing, high salt. b) irradiation, probiotics, filtration. c) autoclaving, irradiation, freezing. d) antibiotics, refrigeration, pasteurization. 59. The D-value refers to the length of time it takes an agent to kill ___% of the microbial population. a) 50 b) 90 c) 99 d) 100

9 60. Many __________ have been isolated from the ocean floor environment. a) psychrophiles b) mesophiles c) thermophiles d) barophiles e) acidophiles 61. __________ are often chemoautotrophs that oxidize reduced metals and generate strong acids such as sulfuric acid. a) Acidophiles b) Psychrophiles c) Halophiles d) Mesophiles e) Barophiles 62. Facultative anaerobes a) can grow quite well in the absence or presence of oxygen b) can tolerate aerobic conditions, but cannot grow under such conditions. c) are the same as aerotolerant anaerobes. d) can tolerate anaerobic conditions, but cannot grow under such conditions. 63. An organism that grows at the bottom of a tube of thioglycolate broth medium is probably a(n): a) obligate aerobe b) facultative anaerobe c) aerotolerant anaerobe d) microaerophile e) obligate anaerobe 64. An organism that has peroxidase and superoxide dismutase but lacks catalase is most likely an a) obligate aerobe. b) aerotolerant anaerobe. c) obligate anaerobe. d) none of the above 65. Which of the following typically will survive autoclaving under standard laboratory operating conditions? a) mesophile b) thermophile c) endospore former d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis e) none of the above 66. The type of antimicrobial drug that would be least toxic to humans is a drug that: a) inhibits protein synthesis b) disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane c) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis d) inhibits metabolic pathways e) inhibits cell wall synthesis 67. The removal or destruction of all forms of microbial life is referred to as a) sterilization b) disinfection c) pasteurization d) sanitization

10 68. Which of the following BEST describes the pattern of microbial death? a) The cells in a population die at a constant rate b) All the cells in a culture die at once c) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed d) The pattern varies, depending on the species 69. To sterilize heat-labile solutions, one should use a) Dry heat b) Autoclave c) Membrane filtration d) Pasteurization 70. The ______ coefficient test is used to compare disinfectants. a) ethanol b) iodine c) phenol d) chlorox