ORTHOPEDICS Test

1. Which one is a sign of certainty for fracture of the tibial shaft : A. Lack of movement transmition to the distal segment B. Positive patellar shock (iceberg) sign C. Tenderness over the injury site 2. Its a late complication of the femoral shaft fractures : A. Compartment syndrome B. Malunion C. Soft tissue entrapment 3. What kind of fracture line will produce a torsion mechanism : A. Transverse B. Oblique C. Spiral 4. Female patient, 48, femoral neck fracture, Garden IV. Best treatment is : : A. Hemiartroplasty with Moore prosthesis B. Reduction and fixation with Ender nails C. R reduction and fixation with DHS 5. Male patient, 53, lateral tibial plateau fracture, depressed type (Schatzker type III) Correct treatment consist in : A. Reduction of the joint depression by orthopedic manipulation and imobilization in an above-the-knee plaster cast for 6 weeks B. Total knee arthroplasty C. Open reduction of the depressed area, grafting of the bony defect and fixation with screws. 6. Wich one is sign of probability for long bones fractures : A. Crepitus with mobiliztaion of the affected segment B. Functional impairement of the affected segment C. A skin wound over the affected area

7. Male, 76, unstable pertrochanteric fracture, no associated medical comorbidities. Wich is the best treatment option : A. Functional treatment (because of the age of the patient) B. Hemiartroplasty with Moore prosthesis C. Reduction and fixation with DHS 8. Which is the advantage of closed reduction techniques over open reduction techniques in surgical treatment of the fractures : A. Closed reduction techniques allows anatomic reduction of the articular fractures B. Closed reduction techniques require no radiologic control during the operation C. Contamination risk is lower with closed reduction techniques 9. Male patient, 45, simple (2 fragments), transverse, middle third, displaced patellar fracture. Best treatment is : A. Orthopedic reduction and imobilization in a cylinder plaster cast for 4 weeks B. Open reduction of the fracture and fixation with tensioned band wires C. Inferior pole patelectomy and reinsertion of the patellar tendon to the remaining patellar fragment. 10. A comminuted fracture means : A. A fracture with only two fragments but important displacement B. O fracture with a third intermmediate fragment C. A fracture with more than three fragments 11. A dash-board impact trauma tipically produces one of the following injuries: A. An intraarticular calcaneal fracture B. A supra- and intracondylar fracture of the distal femur C. A rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament 12. Nonunion, one of the most severe late complications of the fractures, means : A. Lack of mobility at the level of the joints that were imobilized in a plaster cast B. Lack of consolidation of the fracture C. Formation of an exuberant calus that interferes with the function of the adjacent joints 13. In a type II open fracture, according to Gustilo-Andersen classification, what fixation method will you choose : A. An external fixator B. A locked intramedullary nail C. A plate and screws 14. Radiological signs of knee arthritis are : A. Femoral and tibial osteophytes There Is Only One Correct Answer For Each Question

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B. Cysts C. Both of them 15. Female patient, 76, Ahlback grade IV, global knee osteoarthritis, only mild associated medical comorbidities. The indicated surgical treatment is : A. Unicompartmental arthroplasty B. Total knee arthroplasty C. Arthroscopic debridement 16. A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus is located at the level of the : A. Proximal humeral metaphysis B. Distal humeral metaphysis C. Junction between the middle and the distal third of the humeral shaft 17. The most frequent neurologic complication of the humeral shaft fracture is : A. Median nerve palsy B. Radial nerve palsy C. Musculocutaneous nerve palsy 18. Which one is an articular fracture : A. Supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus B. Supra- and intercondylar fracture of the distal humerus C. Fracture of the radial neck 19. What is the correct treatment for a simple, displaced fracture of the olecranon, in an adult patient : A. Imobilization in an above-the-elbow plaster cast, with the elbow in extension, for 4 weeks B. Reduction and fixation with tension band wires C. Reduction and fixation with an intramedullary nail 20. What is the best treatment of a displaced fracture of the radial head (Mason type II) in adults : A. Imobilization in an above-the-elbow cast for 2 weeks B. Reduction and fixation with an interfragmentary screw C. Resection of the radial head 21. What is a Monteggia fracture-dislocation : A. Fracture of the olecranon with elbow dislocation B. Fracture of the ulnar diaphysis with dislocation of the radial head C. Fracture of the radial diaphysis with dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint 22. What is the treatment of choice for a simple, displaced fracture of the distal radius, in adults :

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A. Reduction and imobilization in an above-the-elbow plaster cast B. Reduction and fixation wit intramedullary K wires C. Reduction and fixation with an external fixator 23. A Pouteau Colles fracture of the distal radius means : A. Fracture of the radial styloid B. Extraarticular fracture of the distal radius with displacement into hyperextension C. Extraarticular fracture of the distal radius with displacement into hyperflexion 24. A boxers fracture is A. Fracture of the diaphysis of the Vth metacarpal B. Articular fracture of the base of the Ist metacarpal with carpo-metacarpal dislocation of the Ist ray C. Fracture of the head of any metacarpal 25. A sprain of the lateral ligament of the ankle occurs with a mechanism of : A. Inversion B. Eversion C. Hyperextension of the ankle 26. Most frequent late complication of the ankle sprains is A. Palsy of the peroneal nerve B. Chronic ankle instability C. Chronic edema 27. A positive Lachman test suggests : A. Injury of the medial collateral ligament of the knee B. Injury of the posterior capsule of the knee C. Injury of the anterior cruciate ligament 28. During knee examination, laxity with forced valgus test suggest a lesion of the : A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament 29. A real acromio-clavicular dislocation (Rockwood grade III IV) reflects an injury of the : A. Coraco-clavicular ligament B. Sternocleidomastoideus muscle C. Subacromial bursa 30. Most frequent shoulder dislocation is : A. Anterioar dislocation

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31. A Bankart lesion after a shoulder dislocation means : A. Rupture of the anterior capsule B. Fracture of the anterior border of the glenoid fossa C. Desinsertion of the labrum from the anterior border of the glenoid fossa. 32. Most frequent elbow dislocation is : A. Posterolateral B. Posteromedial C. Divergent 33. In what variety of hip dislocation, the lower limb is positioned in flexion, external rotation and shortening : A. Obturatory B. Pubic C. Sciatic 34. What is the most frequent late complication of the hip dislocations : A. Palsy of the sciatic nerve B. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head C. Reccurent dislocation 35. Bohler reduction method for spine fractures supposes : A. Bed rest into supine position B. Reclination C. Bed rest into prone position 36. Adult patient, Ist lumbar vertebra fracture, depression of more than one third of the anterior column, no posterior column involvement, no neurologic involvement. Correct treatment consists in : A. Bed rest for a few days followed by progressive mobilization B. Surgical treatment transpedicular fixation C. Orthopedic reduction (reclination) and imobilization in a plaster stays 37. A spine deformity in the coronal plane is called : A. Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. Lordosis

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38. Male patient, 68, severe hip osteoarthritis, no important associated comorbidities. What is the best treatment option : A. A pelvic osteotomy to improve head coverage B. Pronlonged treatment with chondroprotective drugs C. Total hip arthroplasty 39. The germ that is most frequently incriminated in acute osteomyelitis: A. Enterococcus B. Staphilococcus C. Streptococcus 40. What investigation shows no modifications at the debut of an acute osteomyelitis : A. Inflammation lab tests (ESR, CRP, fibrinogen) B. Radiography C. Bone scintigraphy 41. What is the true answer regarding surgical teatment of osteomyelitis : A. Includes antibiotic treatment B. Nu necesita tratament chirurgical C. The wound has always to be sutured per primam 42. Which answer on Enneking classification of the bone tumors is correct : A. Go To Mo is a benign tumor B. G2 T1 Mo is a malignant tumor grade IA (low grade sarcoma) C. G1 T1 M1 is a malignant tumor grade II B 43. Which answer on bone tumor pressentation is correct : A. Inflammation tests remain within normal ranges B. Adenopathy is frequent C. Alkaline phosphatase level is elevated 44. Which answer on osteoid osteoma is true : A. Most frequent location is humerus B. Typical radiological pressentation consists in a cortical condensation with a central round radiolucency C. Typical pain is diurnal and relieved by opioids 45. Which statement on giant cell tumors is correct : A. Affects more frequently male patients B. Typical radiologic presentation consists in septate osteolysis (soap bubbles) C. Malignant transformation is imposible

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46. Which radiologic aspect is caracteristic for benign tumors : A. Onion bulb periosteal reaction B. Codman triangle periosteal reaction C. Cortical condensation with a round central radiolucency

47. Osteosarcoma : A. Is a benign tumor B. Usually occurs in patients older than 50 C. Correct tratment is surgical resection, preceded and followed by chemotherapy 48. There are causes for secondary hip osteoarthritis, with one exception : A. Developmental hip displasy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Diabetes mellitus 49. On a hip radiography of a patient suffering from osteoarthritis, one can find : A. Medial osteophyte of the acetabulum B. Subchondral osteoporosis C. Cysts in the nonweight-bearing area 50. Male patient, 45, knee osteoarthritis associated with genu varum, prolonged NSAID effectiveless treatment. Correct treatment is : A. Proceeding to an weekly intraarticular steroid injections session B. Total knee arthroplasty C. Tibial valgisation osteotomy

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