UNIT - I

1. PHOTO SYNTHESIS
1. ____ helps in the survival and perpetuation of its race.
2. ____ are required for the synthesis of proteins.
3. The wavelength of visible light is ____
4. The energy present in the light rays is called ____
5. The energy particles of light rays are called ____
6. Green light is ____ by the chlorophyll pigments.
7. ____ regulate the exchange of gases and loss of water vapour in
plants.
8. ____ can be used to test the presence of starch.
9. Grana are stacks of ____ membrane.
10. During photosynthesis chlorophyll molecules gets ____
11. ____ and ____are the end products of light reactions in
photosynthesis.
12. ____ won the nobel prize for his work on photosynthesis.
13. First stable product formed in photosynthesis is ____
14. Examples of electron acceptors ____
15. The upper layer of cells in leaf is called ____
16. Stacks of thylakoid membranes is stroma are called ____
17. ____ is the life process that depend on light.
18. ____ is the process that helps in release of energy stored in
carbohydrates.
19. Melvin Calvin got nobel prize for his studies on ____
20. Photosynthesis occurs in ____ part of the cell.
21. ____ process releases O
2
into the atmosphere.
22. Green pigment is called ____
23. The end products of dark reaction ____
24. The kidney shaped cells which surround the stroma are called
____
25. The external factors that help photosynthesis are ____
26. The internal factors that help photosynthesis are ____
27. ____ is reduced in dark reaction.
28. ____ accepts CO
2
in dark reaction.
29. The volume of CO
2
present in the atmosphere is ____
30. Photosynthetic activity in green plants has to be tested ____
31. Green pigment is called ____
32. ____ organisms synthesize their own food.
33. The entire series of reactions which are involved in the
conversion of CO
2
to glucose is called ____
34. The electro magnetic radiation, has greater wavelength than
visible light.
Photosynthesis - Answers
1. Reproduction 2. Amino acids
3. 400-700 nm 4. Quantum
5. Photons 6. Reflected
7. Stomata 8. Iodine
9. Thylokoid 10. Oxidised
11. ATP, NADPH 12. Melvin Calvin
13. PGA - Phospho Glyceric Acid
14. NAD/NADP/Cytochrome
15. Upper Epidermis 16. Grana
17. Photosynthesis 18. Respiration
19.Carbon fixation/Dark reaction
20. Chloroplast
21. Photosynthesis
22. Chlorophyll
23. Glucose
24. Guard cells
25. Light, CO
2
26. Water, chlorophyll
27. Carbondioxide
28. Ribulose diphosphate
29. 0-03%
30. After exposing the plant to the light for 2-3 hours.
31. Chlorophyll
32. Autotrophic
33. Calvin cycle
34. Infra red rays
2. RESPIRATION
1. Substance that undergoes respiration is called ____
2. Fermentation produces ____ and ____
3. Inner folds of mitochondria are called ____
4. Inner compartment of mitochondria is called ____
5. Respiration in the absence of oxygen by micro organisms is
called ____
6. The first stage of respiration is called ____
7. Simplest form of carbohydrates ready to undergo respiration is
____
8. Rate of ____ decreases when fruits are kept in cold storage.
9. Fruits can be ripened early by keeping them in a room at a
temperature between ____
10. The scientist who studied the sequences of changes in citric acid
cycle is ____
11. In citric acid cycle, acetyl CO-A combines with a four carbon
compounds ____
12. The products formed in aerobic respiration are ____
13. In ATP, energy is stored in organic ____
14. The addition of high energy phosphate to ADP is called ____
15. The first phase in glucose oxidation is ____
16. Bacteria convert pyruvic acid to ____ in the absence of oxygen.
17. Maximum rate of respiration takes place at ____
18. Expand ATP ____
19. Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid yields a net gain of ____
20. In germinating seeds ____ respiration is observed.
21. Cellular respiration takes place in ____
22. The carboxylic acid formed at the end of glycolysis is ____
23. The number of phosphate molecules present in ATP is ____
24. Synthesis of new molecules in a cell get energy from ____
25. Yeast cells convert pyruvic acid to ethanol in the absence of
oxygen. This process is called ____
26. Kreb's cycle is also called ____
27. The energy liberated from one ATP is ____ calories.
28. The net gain of ATP in the complete oxidation of one glucose are
____
29. The first stable compound in Kreb's cycle is ____
30. In prokaryotes ____ takes care of energy production liberated.
31. ____ is life process in which energy is liberated.
32. Mitochondria are also called ____
33. The factors that control respiration are ____ and ____
34. The temperature at which respiration takes place is called ____
35. The gas which turns lime water milky is ____
Respiration - Answers
1. Respiratory substrates
.=- ..----
.r- o..-.e .. -.-re .=e
..-- ----- ee-
2. Ethyl alcohol, Energy
3. Cristae
4. Matrix
5. Anaerobic Respiration
6. Glycolysis
7. Glucose
8. Respiration
9. 30C - 40C
10. Sir Hans Krebs
11. Oxalo Acetic Acid (OAA)
12. Carbondioxide, Water, Energy
13. Terminal Phosphate bond
14. Phosphorylation
15. Glycolysis
16. Lactic acid
17. 45C
18. Adenosine Tri Phosphate
19. 2 ATP
20. Aerobic
21. Mitochondria
22. Pyruvic acid
23. 3
24. ATP
25. Fermentation
26. Citric acid cycle
27. 7200
28. 38
29. Citric acid
30. Cell membrane
31. Respiration
32. Power house of cells
33. Oxygen, Temperature
34. Optimal temperature
35. Carbon dioxide
3 - RESPIRATORY ORGANS IN ANIMALS
1. Respiration in amoeba occurs by ____
2. The common name of larynx is ____
3. The scientific name for wind pipe of man is ____
4. In women ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.
5. In frog nostrils open into ____
6. In earthworm haemoglobin is present in ____
7. Cutaneous respiration occurs in ____
8. Coelomic fluid in earthworm comes out through ____
9. Respiratory organs in cockroach are ____
10. Operculum present in ____
11. The structure that acts as a lid over glottis is ____
12. The shape of cartilaginous rings that support the trachea is ____
13. The rate of respiration per minute in a new born baby is ____
14. In man ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.
15. Haemoglobin of blood transports both ____ and ____
16. The respiratory organs in animals that shows pulmonary
respiration are ____
17. In earthworm, leech and salamander respiratory organ is ____
18. Dorsal pores occur in ____
19. The structural and functional units of lungs are ____
20. In man oral cavity and nasal cavity are separated by ____
21. In man, epiglottis is present in ____
22. In man larynx opens into ____
23. ____ surround and protect the lungs in man.
24. In lungs gaseous exchange occurs in ____
25. In man, air is humidified in ____
26. During ____ air enters the lungs.
27. Palate in man separates ____ from ____
28. In man epiglottis covers ____ as a lid.
29. In man, internal nares open into ____
30. Hibernation means ____ sleep.
31. In fishes ____ apertures open into pharynx.
32. During hibernation, a frog respires through ____
33. If the skin of frog dries up it ____
34. Earthworm lives in ____ soil.
35. In man trachea divides as ____
36. Single celled organisms take in oxygen from ____
37. Terrestrial animals take in oxygen from ____
38. In cockroach, the tracheal system opens to outside through ____
39. Number of stigmata in cockroach are ____
40. The first part of wind pipe is ____
41. The respiratory organs in aquatic respiration is ____
42. Respiration through gills is called ____
43. Respiration through lungs is called ____
44. Respiration through skin is called ____
45. Respiratory pigment is ____
46. External skeleton can be seen in ____
47. External branchial apertures can be seen in ____ fishes.
48. Respiratory rate per minute in 5 years child ____
49. Respiratory rate per minute in 25 years man ____
50. Respiratory rate per minute in 50 years man ____
51. ____ glands on the skin of earthworm and frog keep their skin
moist.
Respiratory organs in animals - Answers
1. Diffusion
2. Voice box
3. Trachea
4. Ribs
5. Buccal cavity
6. Plasma
7. Earthworm/Frog/Salamander
8. Dorsal pores
9. Trachea
10. Bony fish
11. Epiglottis
12. 'C'
13. 32 times
14. Diaphragm
15. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
16. Lungs
17. Skin
18. Earthworm
19. Alveoli
20. Palate
21. Pharynx
22. Trachea
23. Pleura
24. Alveoli
25. Nasal cavity
26. Inspiration
27. Nasal cavity, oral cavity
28. Glottis
29. Pharynx
30. Winter
31. Internal brancheal aperture
32. Skin
33. Dies
34. Moist
35. Left and right brancheoles
36. Water
37. Air
38. Stigmata
39. 10 pairs
40. Voice box/Larynx
41. Gills
42. Brachial respiration
43. Pulmonary respiration
44. Cutaneous respiration
45. Haemoglobin
46. Cockroach
47. Cartaginous
48. 26 times
49. 15 times
50. 18 times
51. Mucus
4 - TRANSPORT SYSTEMS -
TRANSPORT SYSTEMS IN VARIOUS ANIMALS
1. In unicellular organisms transport of substances occurs by ____
2. The pumping device in the transport system is ____
3. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in ____ of blood.
4. In frog, the chamber that lies behind the auricle is ____
5. The chamber that is incompletely divided in the heart of reptiles
is ____
6. The heart that pumps blood to lungs is called ____ heart.
7. A single circuit heart is found in ____
8. The colour of the blood in crabs and snails is ____
9. Lymph is a part of ____ system.
10. Animal without red blood cells is ____
11. In cockroach ____ muscles help in sending the blood into heart.
12. Caval veins in amphibians arise from ____
13. Blood sinuses occur in ____
14. A 13 chambered heart is present in ____
15. For the cell to grow it needs ____ along with food material.
16. In course of evolution special fluids like ____ and ____ have
been developed for transport of substances.
17. Blood vessels are absent in metazoan animals like ____ and
____
18. The hearts of Megascolex connect ____ vessel and ____ vessel.
19. In Megascolex, in addition to blood ____ also transport
substances.
20. From first chamber of cockroach heart arises the ____
21. Head sinus of cockroach receives blood from ____
22. Heart of cockroach is present in ____
23. In fishes, blood from ____ of heart goes to gills.
24. The chambers that lie side by side in frog are ____
25. In man aorta that supplies blood to all parts of the body is ____
26. The two chambers that are infront of ventricle in the heart of frog
are ____
27. In birds and mammals ____ is sent to lungs for oxygenation.
28. The right auricle of frog receives ____ blood.
29. The left auricle of frog receives ____blood.
30. A double circuit circulation is present in ____
31. In closed type of circulation, blood flows in ____
32. In fishes the heart sends blood to gills, but in birds, reptiles and
mammals it sends to ____
33. In cockroach the blood is ____ in colour.
34. The substance produced in one part of the body and taken to
another part is called ____
35. Sinus venosus is associated with ____
36. Example for open type of circulatory system is ____
37. The blood vessel that gathers blood in earthworm is ____
38. The blood vessel that distributes blood in earthworm is ____
39. The ventral blood vessel in earthworm is present ____
40. Number of chambers in fish heart are ____
41. Number of chambers in frog heart are ____
42. Incompletely divided ventricle present in ____
43. The number of hearts in Megascolex are ____
44. The glands that secrete hormones are called ____
45. The blood vessel that acts as main vein in earthworm is ____
46. The blood vessel that acts as main artery in earthworm is ____
47. Branchial heart present in ____
48. In cockroach alary muscles are in ____ shape.
49. The scientific name of earthworm is ____
50. Number of hearts in birds and mammals are ____
Transport systems -
Transport systems in various animals - Answers
1. Diffusion
2. Heart
3. Plasma
4. Ventricle
5. Ventricle
6. Pulmonary heart
7. Fish
8. Blue
9. Transport
10. Earthworm
11. Alary
12. Sinus venosus
13. Cockroach/Butterfly (Insects)
14. Cockroach
15. Water and oxygen
16. Blood, lymph
17. Insects, Molluscs
18. Dorsal and ventral blood vessels
19. Coelomic fluid
20. Head sinus
21. First chamber of heart
22. Pericardial sinus
23. Ventricle
24. Auricles
25. Oxygenated blood
26. Auricles
27. Blood
28. Deoxygenated blood
29. Oxygenated blood
30. Amphibians, reptiles, mammals
31. Blood vessels
32. Lungs and body parts
33. White
34. Hormones
35. Heart
36. Insects (Cockroach, Butterfly)
37. Dorsal blood vessel
38. Ventral blood vessel
39. Below the alimentary canal
40. 2
41. 3
42. Garden Lizard (reptiles)
43. 8 pairs
44. Endocrine glands
45. Dorsal blood vessel
46. Ventral blood vessel
47. Fish
48. Fan
49. Megascolex
50. 4
5 - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF HUMAN HEART
1. Heart is protected on all sides by ____ cage and by ____ on the
back side.
2. Heart is covered by two layered membrane called ____
3. Blood is collected from the upper parts of the body by ____
4. Blood is collected from the lower parts of the body by ____
5. In man, caval veins open into ____
6. Oxygenated blood from lungs is collected by ____
7. The right ____ receives deoxygenated blood from various parts
of the body except the ____
8. The largest artery in the body of man is ____
9. The left ventricle receives ____blood from ____ auricle.
10. Pulmonary aorta arises from ____
11. From the left ventricles of man ____arises.
12. Left ____ pumps ____ blood to all body parts.
13. ____ pump deoxygenated blood to lungs.
14. Heart attack is caused by the blocking of ____
15. The normal blood pressure of man is ____
16. The contraction phase of the chambers of heart is ____
17. The relaxation phase of the chambers of heart is ____
18. Haemoglobin is the most efficient carrier of ____
19. In man, ____fluid present in pericardium protects the heart from
injury.
20. The ____auricle is smaller than ____ auricle.
21. Tricuspid valve is present in between ____
22. Bicuspid valve is present in between ____
23. Bicuspid valve is also called ____
24. The valves present at the entrance of pulmonary aorta in right
ventricle are ____
25. The valves present at the entrance of systemic aorta in left
ventricle are ____
26. Deoxygenated blood from the heart is taken to ____
27. Doctors measure blood pressure with the instrument called ____
28. The number of valves present at entrance of aorta in left ventricle
are ____
29. In normal blood pressure 120/80, the numerator indicates ____
pressure.
30. In normal blood pressure 120/80, the denominator indicates
____ pressure.
31. The muscles present in the heart are called ____
32. The upper chambers of human heart are called ____
33. The lower chambers of human heart are called ____
34. The strands of tissue which connect the valves with the walls of
ventricles are called ____
35. The circulation of blood between lungs and heart is called ____
circulation.
36. The circulation of blood between heart and body parts is called
____ circulation.
37. The rate of heart beat per minute is ____
38. The blood vessels that collect deoxygenated blood from heart
muscle are ____
39. The blood vessels that collect oxygenated blood from heart
muscle are ____
40. Human heart pumps blood in two circuits. Hence human heart is
called ____
Structure and function of human heart - Answers
1. Rib cage/vertebral column
2. Pericardium
3. Superior vena cava
4. Inferior vena cava
5. Right auricle
6. Pulmonary vein
7. Auricle, lungs
8. Aorta
9. Oxygenated blood, left
10. Right ventricle
11. Systemic aorta
12. Ventricle, oxygenated
13. Pulmonary arteries
14. Coronary artery
15. 120/80
16. Systole
17. Diastole
18. Oxygen
19. Pericardial
20. Left, right
21. Right auricle and right ventricle
22. Left auricle and left ventricle
23. Mitral valve
24. Pulmonary valves
25. Aortic valves
26. Lungs
27. Sphygmomanometer
28. 3
29. Systolic
30. Diastolic
31. Cardiac muscles
32. Auricles
33. Ventricles
34. Chordae tendinae
35. Pulmonary circuit
36. Systemic circuit
37. 70-80
38. Coronary veins
39. Coronary arteries
40. Double circuit heart
6 - BLOOD AND ITS COMPONENTS
1. The study of blood is called ____
2. The inter cellular fluid in blood is ____
3. The total volume of blood in adult man is ____
4. ____ or ____ prevent clotting of blood in test tube.
5. 0.9% sodium chloride solution is called ____
6. The fluid tissue of the body is called ____
7. The clear fluid seen on the top of a blood clot is ____
8. The matrix of blood is ____
9. The liquid part of blood is ____
10. Percentage of water in plasma is ____
11. Percentage of salts in plasma is ____
12. Percentage of carbon compounds in plasma is ____
13. Protein that helps in clotting blood in blood vessels is ____
14. Plasma is slightly ____ in nature.
15. Number of RBC in 1 m.l. of blood is ____
16. Nucleus is present in RBC of animal like ____
17. In adults, RBC are formed in ____ of long bones.
18. The production of RBC is called ____
19. The life span of RBC is ____
20. ____ is also called "Grave yard of red blood cells".
21. RBC are red due to the presence of ____
22. Haemoglobin of blood carries ____ and ____
23. Number of WBC in 1 m.l. of blood is ____
24. Life span of WBC is ____
25. Number of lobes present in nucleus of acidophils are ____
26. 'S' shaped nucleus present in ____
27. Among all types of WBC ____are few in number.
28. Multi lobed nucleus is present in ____
29. Microscopic policeman of body are ____
30. Among all types of WBC ____ are more in number.
31. Smallest of all white blood cells is ____
32. ____ cells are destroyed in AIDS.
33. Biggest of all types WBC is ____
34. Kidney shaped nucleus is present in ____
35. ____ cells help in clotting of blood.
36. Porphyrin in blood is present in ____
37. Agranulocytes and granulocytes are ____ cells.
38. Osmotic pressure of the blood is maintained by ____
39. ____ help to reduce allergic reactions in the body.
40. Total percentage of plasma in blood is ____
Blood and its components - Answers
1. Haematology
2. Plasma
3. 5 litres
4. Sodium oxalate/sodium citrate
5. Saline
6. Plasma
7. Serum
8. Plasma
9. Plasma
10. 85 - 90%
11. 0.85 - 0.9%
12. 6 - 8%
13. Heparin
14. Alkaline
15. 4.5 - 5.5 10
6
16. Camel
17. Long bone marrow
18. Erythropoiesis
19. 120 days
20. Spleen
21. Haemoglobin
22. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
23. 5.9 10
3
24. 12 - 13 days
25. 2
26. Basophils
27. Basophils
28. Neutrophils
29. Neutrophils
30. Neutrophils
31. Lymphocytes
32. Lymphocytes
33. Monocytes
34. Monocytes
35. Platelet
36. Haemoglobin
37. White blood cells
38. Albumins/Globulins
39. Esinophils/Acidophils
40. 60%
7 - BLOOD GROUPS IMPORTANCE OF BLOOD
DONATION
1. Administering blood of one person to another person through the
vein is called ____
2. In 1900, ____ discovered blood groups.
3. Clumping of blood cells is called ____
4. Blood of one person is transfused into another through his ____
5. Agglutination of blood is due to reactions between ____
6. Blood group antigens in blood are present on ____
7. Blood group antibodies in blood are present in ____
8. Antibody 'B' in plasma of blood is present in person of group
____
9. Antibody 'A' is present in a person with blood group ____
10. Both 'A' and 'B' antibodies are absent in ____
11. Both antigens 'A', 'B' are absent in ____
12. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called ____
13. Persons with 'O' blood group are called ____
14. Aperson with no antigens but with antibodies 'A' and 'B' belong
to blood group ____
15. People between ____ years of age can donate blood.
16. Aperson can donate blood once in ____ to ____ months period.
17. Blood can be stored for ____ months after collection.
18. Persons who can donate blood must be free from ____, ____ and
____ diseases.
19. Persons with Rh factor are called ____
20. Persons without Rh factor are called ____
21. ____% of the population will have Rh
+
.
22. ____ is seen if the blood samples of different blood groups are
mixed.
23. In case of emergency, when we do not know the blood group of
the recipient, we can give ____ blood group.
24. Persons with 'AB' blood group are known as universal recipients
because ____
25. Persons with 'O' blood group are known as universal donors
because ____
Blood and its components - Answers
1. Blood transfusion
2. Karl Landsteiner
3. Agglutination
4. Vein
5. Antigen and antibody
6. RBC
7. Plasma
8. 'A'
9. 'B'
10. 'AB'
11. 'O'
12. Universal Recipients
13. Universal Donors
14. 'O'
15. 16 to 60
16. 3 to 4
17. 3
18. Hepatitis, Leukaemia, AIDS
19. Rh
+
(Positive)
20. Rh

(Negative)
21. 93
22. Agglutination
23. 'O'
24. They can receive blood of all groups
25. They can donate blood to all groups
Chapter wise most Important Questions
UNIT - I
Life Process
4 Mark Questions
1. How do you prove that CO
2
is essential for photosynthesis?
(June 2007, 2004, March 2007, 2006, 2001)
2. Describe an experiment to state that oxygen is evolved in
Photosynthesis?
3. How can you prove that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis?
4. How is carbon-di-oxide converted to glucose during
photosynthesis (or) Write an account on carbon fixation (June
2007, 2004, March 2007, 2006, 2001)
5. Explain the structure of Mitochondria with the help of a diagram
(June 2005, March 01, Oct 99)
6. How can you show that heat is liberated during respiration.
(March 2007, 2004, 2000, June 2006, 2003)
7. Write the differences between Aerobic and Anaerobic
respiration. (June 2003, March 99)
8. Write a comparative account of photosynthesis and respiration?
(March 08, June 03, 04)
9. Enumerate the differences between external and internal
respiration (June 2002, 2000)
10. Write the differences between right auricle and left auricle (June
02, March 2000)
11. What are the differences between right ventricle and left
ventricle (June 2003, 2001, March 2000, 02, 03)
12. What is hypertension? How it is caused? Mention the preventive
steps to be taken (June 07, March 2002)
13. What are the differences between RBC and WBC? (March 2006)
14. Describe the different blood groups in man? (March 2005, 2001,
June 2006, 2005, 2004)
2 Marks Questions
1. What is meant by electromagnetic radiation?
2. Define photosynthesis. Write chemical equation.
3. What are the differences between oxidation and reduction?
4. What are Electron acceptors. Give examples?
5. Write differences between combustion and respiration?
6. Explain ATP provides energy for various reactions and functions
in the organisms with the help of a diagram?
7. Write briefly about Glycolysis?
8. How trachea is prevented from collapsing?
9. What is the difference between photosynthesis and respiration in
terms of energy?
10. What is the difference photo phosphorylation and oxidative
phosphorylation?
11. How does sinus venosus formed in Amphibians?
12. A person B.P. is written 120/80.What does this indicate?
13. What is heart attack?
14. What is heart beat? Write the stages in heart beat?
15. Why is spleen called the ''grave yard of red blood cells''?
16. Who can donate blood?
17. What is agglutination?
18. Define the words universal acceptor and universal donor.
5 Mark Questions (Diagrams)
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of transverse section of leaf (June
06, 05, 04, 02, March 2008, 2004, 2002, Oct 99)
2. Draw the structure of the leaf which is suitable for
photosynthesis (June 2007)
3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of mitochondria (March 06, 05,
01, June 04, 03, Oct 99)
4. Draw neat labelled diagram of position of values in human heart
(June 2000, March 99)
UNIT - 2
CONTROLAND CO-ORDINTION
Chemical Co-ordination in plants
1. Responding to changes in environment in an organism is termed as
_______
2. Growth is a permanent increase in _______ of an organism.
3. Proposal of plant growth substances was first put forward by
_______
4. The growing region of a root is _______
5. Auxins in plants are synthersized at _______
6. _______ is a natural auxin.
7. Auxins promote root _______
8. _______ promotes growth and elongation of stems, roots and
enlargement of many fruits.
9. Dicotyledonous weeds are destroyed by a chemical called _______
10. If terminal bud of a plant is removed _______ grow.
11. Terminal bud suppressing the growth of lateral buds is called
_______
12. Hormone that controls phototropism and Geotropism in plants is
_______
13. _______ and _______ are used for inducing roots in cuttings.
14. Gibberellins increase _______ areas of a stem in plants.
15. Parthenocarpy is the terms used for _______
16. Gibberellins were extracted from fungal culture called _______
17. _______ cause foolish seedling disease in rice.
18. Dwarf pea plants grow tall after treatment with _______
19. Parthenocarpy is induced in fruits like apple and pear with spray of
_______ hormone.
20. Cell division in particular is induced by a hormone known as
_______
Chemical coordination in plants - Key
1. Irritability
2. Size
3. Charles Darwin
4. below the tip
5. Meristems
6. IAA (Indole Acetic Acid)
7. Growth
8. Auxins
9. 2, 4 - D (2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid)
10. Lateral branches
11. Apical dominance
12. Auxins
13. NAA - (Napthaline acetic Acid)
IBA - Indole butiric acid
14. Inter nodal
15. Seedless fruits
16. Gibberella Fujikuroi
17. Gibberella Fujikuroi
18. Gibberellins
19. Gibberellin
20. Cytokinin
Chemical co-ordination in Animals
1. Substances that bring about co-ordination between organs are called
_______
2. Ducts are absent in _______ glands.
3. Endocrine glands discharge their secretion into _______
4. The tissue (or) organs on which hormones act are called _______
5. _______ is called the master gland of the body.
6. Gland that acts as a bridge between nervous and endocrine system
is _______
7. _______ gland secrets growth hormone.
8. _______ gland secrets oxytocin and vasopressin.
9. Deficiency of vasopressin causes _______
10. Deficiency of growth hormone in childhood results in _______
11. Over secretion of growth hormone in childhood result in _______
12. Excretion of 25 litres of urine per day is symptom of _______
disease.
13. The gland that is present in the neck, near trachea is _______
14. Deficiency of iodine in food results in the enlargement of _______
gland.
15. Deficiency of thyroxide in children results in a condition called
_______
16. The hormone that increases the rate of metabolism and temperature
is _______
17. Deficiency of iodine in food results in _______ disease.
18. The hormone secreted by thyroid gland is _______
19. _______ hormone controls the level of calcium, and phosphates in
blood and bones.
20. Excess secretion of parathormone results in _______
21. The glands located on the top of kidneys are _______
22. The outer part of adrenal gland is _______ and inner part is
_______
23. Adrenal cortex secrets _______ and _______ hormones.
24. Metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats in body is regulated
by _______
25. Reabsorption of water and sodium in our body is controlled by
_______ hormone.
26. Adrenaline is secreted by _______ of adrenal gland.
27. _______ hormone controls physical and mental emotions.
28. _______ is mixed gland.
29. Islets of langerhans are present in _______
30. Deficiency of _______ causes Diabetes mellitus.
31. The hormone that converts glycogen to glucose is _______
32. Glucagon is secreted when the level of _______ in blood is low.
33. Testes secrets a hormone called _______
34. Development of secondary sexual characters in man is controlled
by _______
35. The condition in which male characters are not developed in males
due to the absence of testosterone is called _______
36. _______ hormone helps in formation of placenta.
37. _______ hormone helps in the implantation of embryo.
38. _______ hormone helps in the contraction of uterus during child
birth.
39. _______ is secreted when the level of glucose is high.
40. _______ hormone helps in development of uterus.
"Chemical Coordination in Animal" - KEY
1. Hormones
2. Endocrine
3. Blood
4. Target tissue / Target organs
5. Pituitary gland
6. Pituitary gland
7. Pituitary gland
8. Pituitary gland
9. Diabetes insipidus
10. Dwarfism
11. Gigantism
12. Diabetes insipidus
13. Thyroid gland
14. Thyroid gland
15. Cretinism
16. Thyroxine
17. Simple goitre
18. Thyroxine
19. Parathormone
20. Tetany
21. Adrenal Glands
22. Cortex, medulla
23. Cortisol, aldosterone
24. Cortisol
25. Aldosterone
26. Medulla
27. Adrenaline
28. Pancreas
29. Pancreas
30. Insulin
31. Glucagon
32. Glucose
33. Testosterone
34. Testosterone
35. Eunuchism
36. Progesterone
37. Progesterone
38. Oxytocin
39. Insulin
40. Progesteron
HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. Nervous system can sense changes inside and outside the body
through _______
2. Three components of nervous system are brain, _______ and
_______
3. Neurons get nutrients from supportive cells called _______
4. A neuron consists of cyton, _______ and _______
5. The granules present in the cyton are called _______ granules.
6. The parts of neuron that transmit information to cyton are _______
7. The part of neuron that carries away information from cyton is
_______
8. The site where the axon and effector cell make contact is called
_______
9. The gaps at regualr intervals in the myelin sheath are nodes of
_______
10. Motor nerves carry impulses from _______ to muscles.
11. Impulses from sense organs are carried to _______ (or) spinal cord
thourgh _______ nerves
12. Impulses from the tongue are carried to spinal cord through
_______ nerves.
13. A mixed nerve contains both _______ fibres and _______ fibres.
14. In disease like polio _______ neurons get destroyed by virus.
15. The major centre to receive, analyse and integrate information in
the body is _______
16. The structure in the body that act as wires of a telephone are
_______
17. The part of neuron which is generally called as nerve fibre is
_______
18. The structure of neurons that are arranged in the form of a tree with
branches are _______
19. Nerves that carry impulses from brain (or )Spinal cord to effector
organs are _______
20. The organ in the human body which acts as a telephone exchange
is _______
21. Axons are covered by a sheath called _______
22. Electric potential of a neuron is _______ (or) _______
23. Another name of cell body is _______ (or) _______
24. _______ are bundles of several axons.
25. The system that can sense changes both inside and outside the
body is _______
HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM - KEY
1. Receptors
2. Spinal cord, nerves
3. Glial Cells
4. Dentrites, axon
5. Nissls Grannules
6. Dendrites
7. Axon
8. Synapse
9. Ranvier
10. Brain (or) Spinal cord
11. Brain, afferent
12. Sensory
13. Motor, Sensory
14. Motor
15. Brain
16. Nerves
17. Axon
18. Dentrites
19. Motor Nerves
20. Spinal Cord
21. Myelin Sheath
22. 0.055 volts, 55 milli volts
23. Cyton, Perikarya
24. Neurons
25. Nervous System
CENTRALAND PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. The three divisions of nervous system are _______ and _______
nervous system.
2. Brain and _______ are the parts of central nervous system.
3. The divisions of autonomous nervous system are _______ and
_______
4. Spinal cord and brain have neurons and _______ cells.
5. The outer layers of brain appear grey because of the presence of
_______
6. The white matter of brain has _______ axons hence it appear
white.
7. In spinal cord _______ matter is on the surface and _______
matter is in deeper layers.
8. The brain is covered by 3 membranes. The outer one is _______,
the middle one is _______, the innermost one is _______.
9. In brain _______ fluid is present between outer and middle
membrane.
10. Nutrients are provided to the cells of the brain by _______ fluid.
11. Brain in man is present in a bony case called _______
12. Forebrain is also called as _______
13. The largest part of the brain is _______
14. Peripheral nervous system consists of _______ and _______
nerves.
15. The grey outer part of cerebrum is called _______
16. Each half of cerebrum is called _______
17. The ridges on cerebral cortex are called _______ and the grooves
called _______
18. Gyri and sulci are present on _______ cortex.
19. The functions of the left side of the body are controlled by the
_______ cerebral hemisphere.
20. The functions of the right side of the body are controlled by the
_______ cerebral hemisphere.
21. Parts of the brain below cerebral hemisphere are called _______
22. The part of the brain that continues as spinal cord through vertebral
column is _______
23. Spinal cord passes through _______ and protected by it.
24. The cranial nerve that controls the heart beat is called _______
nerve.
25. All the spinal nerves are mixed as they contain both ____ fibres
and _______ fibres.
26. Motor nerve fibres originate from _______ horn of _______
27. From dorsal _______ of spinal cord _______ nerve fibres
originate.
28. The surface area of the cerebrum is increased by _______
29. The highest centre of brain that controls several functions of the
body is _______
30. The portion of the brain that connects fore and mid brains is
_______
31. The structure that passes through vertebral column and controls
reflex actions is _______
32. The substance that appears as 'H' in a transverse section of spinal
cord is _______
33. The number of pairs of spinal nerves in man are _______
34. The number of pairs of cranial nerves in man are _______
35. The total number of pairs of peripheral nerves in man are _______
36. All the spinal nerves are _______
37. Brain stem consist of _______ and _______
38. Cerebellum is a part of _______
39. _______ portion of brain has centres that control emotions like
anger, pain.
40. _______ gland is attached to hypothalamus by a stalk.
41. Centres for regulating temperature, hunger, thrist and emotion are
present in _______
42. Voluntary movements of the body are controlled by _______
43. _______ controls movements, posture and equilibrium of the body.
44. _______ controls the vital functions of the body such as respiration
heart beat, and blood pressure.
CENTRALAND PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM - KEY
1. Peripheral nervous system
autonomous nervous system.
2. Spinal Cord
3. Sympathetic, parasympathetic nervous system
4. Glial
5. Grey matter
6. Myelinated
7. White, grey
8. Dura matter, archonoid membrane, Pia matter
9. Cerebrospinal
10. Cerebro spinal
11. Cranium
12. Cerebrum
13. Cerebrum
14. Cranial, Spinal
15. Cerebral cortex
16. Cerebral Hemisphere
17. Gyri, Sulci
18. Cerebral
19. Right
20. Left
21. Diencephalon
22. Medulla Oblongata
23. Vertebral Column
24. Vagus
25. Sensory, motor
26. Ventral, Spinal cord
27. horn, sensory
28. Gyri
29. Cerebrum
30. Diencephalon
31. Spinal cord
32. Grey matter
33. 31 pairs
34. 12 pairs
35. 43 pairs
36. mixed nerves
37. Ponsvaroli, Medulla Oblongata
38. Hind brain
39. Diencephalon
40. Pituitary
41. Hypothalamus
42. Cerebellum
43. Cerebellum
44. Medulla Oblongata
REFLEX ACTION, REFLEX ARC, HUMAN BRAIN
1. The sudden and involuntary actions that save us from danger are
_______
2. The structural and functional unit of a reflex action is called
_______
3. In a reflex action the stimulus from receptor is carried to _______
4. In a reflex action sensory nerve carries the information to _______
in the spinal cord.
5. The information about a stimulus is analysed by _______ of spinal
cord.
6. Interneurons (or) association neurons play an important role in
_______ actions.
7. In a reflex action, the information from spinal cord is carried by
_______ to the _______ organ.
8. The famous Russian scientist who conducted experiments on
conditioned reflexes was _______
9. Out standing in attention when we hear our National Anthem is a
_______
10. _______ part of the nervous system control involuntary actions.
11. The neurons in the spinal cord that passes the information and
generate responses are _______
12. The organ which receive information and generates impulses is
called _______
13. The decade from 1990 to 2000 is known as _______
14. The weight of the brain in the total weight of the body is about
_______
15. The organ in the body that has aesthetic sense to appreciate poetry
etc is _______
16. The part of the brain that helps in analysing a problem is _______
17. Brain has more than _______ neurons.
18. Brain consumes about _______ % of total oxygen consumed by
the human body.
19. Withdrawing the hand when we touch fire is _______ reflexes.
20. _______ reflexes are inherited and shown from birth.
21. _______ reflexes are not inherited.
22. _______ reflexes are learnt by doing the same at several times.
23. The human _______ is the most complicated organ in animal
kingdom.
24. Brain is solely dependent on _______ for its energy requirements.
25. Each neuron receives 1000 to 10,000 inputs and conducts electrical
impulses at a speed of _______
REFLEX ACTION, REFLEX ARC, HUMAN BRAIN - KEY
1. Reflex actions
2. Reflex arc
3.Spinal cord
4. Interneurons
5. Interneuron
6. Reflex
7. Motor nerves, effector organ
8. Iron Pavlov
9. Conditioned reflex
10. Spinal Cord
11. Inter neurons (or) association neurons
12. Receptor
13. Decade of Brain
14. 2%
15. Brain
16. Cerebrum
17. 10 billion
18. 20%
19. Unconditional
20. Unconditional
21. Conditional
22. Conditional
23. brain
24. Glucose
25. 0.6 to 120 meters/min
UNIT - II
CONTROLAND CO - ORDINTION
4 Marks Questions
1. What are affects of auxins in plants? (June 07, March 03)
2. What are affects of Gibberellins in plants? (March 05, 02, June
2000)
3. What are affects of cytokinins in plants? (June 04, March 04, oct
99)
4. Plant growth substances act together (or) against each other. Give
suitable examples in support of the statement. (March 1999)
5. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the
hormones and their functions of this gland (June 01, March 06, 01,
2000)
6. Write a brief account of adrenal glands. (March 07, 04)
7. Describe the nerve cell with the help of a neat diagram. (June 06,
March 05, oct 99)
8. Describe the structure of cerebrum (March 08, 06, oct 99)
9. Write the components of reflex are and their functions (June 01,
March 04, May 01)
2 Marks Questions
1. What is mixed gland? Give an example. What are the hormones
secreted by it?
2. What are endocrine glands? Give examples?
3. Write short note on Diabetes mellitus.
4. Write a short note on Tetany
5. Write a short note on cretinism
6. What is apical dominence?
7. What are plant growth substances? Give examples.
8. What are the differences between efferent nerves and afferent
nerves.
9. What is action potential?
10. What are nissel granules? Where do we find them?
11. What are Gyri and Sulci? what is the advantage of these structures?
12. Where do you find cerebrospinal fluid and what are its function?
13. What are the differences between unconditional and conditional
reflexes?
14. Explain how you withdraw your hand immediately and suddenly
without your knowledge when it touches a hot object.
5 Marks Questions (Diagrams)
1. Draw neat labelled diagram of Human brain? (March 2001)
2. Draw neat labelled diagram of Reflex Arc (March - 2003, 2000, oct
99)
3. Draw neat labelled diagram of Nerve cell. (March 2003, June -
2003)
UNIT - III
REPRODUCTION
1. Asexual Reproduction in Plants
1. New characters are seen in offspring in sexual reproduction due to
____ recombination.
2. Production (or) fusion of gametes does not take place in ____ kind
of reproduction.
3. In asexual reproduction of fungi, a large number of ____ are
formed in special structures.
4. Chrysanthemum propagates often by means of ____
5. Buds in bryophyllum are known as ____ buds.
6. In layering, stems that form roots are still attached to ____ plants.
7. In grafting, the union occurs through formation of ____ between
the two grafts.
8. The ability of plant cell to give rise to a whole plant is called ____
9. Technique of tissue culture is practised under ____ conditions to be
free from contaminating agents.
10. Haploid plants are obtained commonly by introducing ____ in
culture media.
11. New characters seen in the offspring which are not present in either
of the parents is due to ____
12. ____ reproduction mainly involves formation of gametes.
13. In stem cuttings, a slanting cut is made in the stem ____
14. In layering, girdle is done around the base of the stem to ____
15. ____ is preferred to multiplication by ornamental and horticulture
plants.
16. ____ is the most common type of asexual reproduction in yeast.
17. Curry leaf plant is propagated by ____
18. In ____ spores are produced on the conidium.
19. ____ reproduce by binary fission.
20. Potato is modified ____
21. In ____ root cuttings are used for vegetative propagation.
22. The ability of an organism to produce a new generation of
individuals of the same species is called ____
23. In fungi the most common type of asexual reproduction is ____
24. ____ is the place where leaf arises on the stem.
25. Bud at the tip of stem is called ____
26. Buds which help in growth of the plant are ____
27. Buds which give rise to flowers are called ____
28. Vegetative propagation in potato occurs through ____
29. ____ noticed that plant cells can be grown in synthetic media.
30. The portion of the plant that is taken from the desired plant is
called ____
31. Unorganised mass of tissue formed from explant is called ____
32. Haploid plants can be developed through tissue culture by
culturing ____
33. Haploid plants through tissue culture were developed by ____ and
____
34. Growing embryos in culture media that do not develop inside the
ovary is called ____
35. Embryo like structures formed in tissue culture are called ____
KEY - Asexual Reproduction in Plants
1. Chromosomal
2. Asexual
3. Spores
4. Suckers
5. Epiphyllous
6. Parent
7. New tissue
8. Totipotency
9. Aseptic sterilized
10. Pollen grains
11. Recombination of chromosomes
12. Sexual reproduction
13. Below the node
14. Decrease downward movement of food
15. Vegetative propagation
16. Budding
17. Root buds
18. Aspergillus
19. Bacteria/Euglena
20. Underground stem
21. Carrot
22. Reproduction
23. Sporulation
24. Node
25. Apical bud
26. Vegetative buds
27. Floral buds
28. Eyes
29. Haberlandt
30. Explant
31. Callus
32. Pollen grains/haploid cells
33. Shipra Guha, Satish Maheshwari
34. Embryo rescue
35. Embryoids
2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
1. In order to have genetic variation in the offspring, plants
commonly adopt ____ reproduction.
2. Reduction in chromosome number takes place in ____ cells of a
plant.
3. Floral parts arise on a swollen part of pedicel known as ____
4. The third whorl of a flower is composed of ____
5. The third whorl of stamens in a flower is known as ____
6. Inside an anther lobe ____ mother cells undergo reduction
division.
7. The deploid cell inside the nucellus that undergoes meiosis to give
rise to embryo sac is known as ____
8. Fertilization is defined as the fusion of ____with ____
9. The first cell formed after fusion of male gamete with egg is called
____
10. The '3n' nucleus is formed from fusion of ____ nucleus with male
nucleus inside embryo sac.
11. Carpels are present in ____
12. The most essential floral organs required for sexual reproduction
are ____
13. The cushion like part in the ovary where ovules arise is called ____
14. At the time of fertilization diploid condition in embryo sac is seen
in the ____
15. The first diploid condition in embryo sac after fertilization is seen
in ____
16. Endosperm nucleus forms from the fusion of male gamete with
____
17. The parts of the flower which are still useful after fertilization are
____
18. Root part is represented in mature embryo by ____
19. The study of pollen grains is called ____
20. The basal part of the ovule where the two integuments arise is
known as ____
21. Endospermic seeds are seen ____ plants.
22. Non-Endospermic seeds are seen ____ plants.
23. The stalk of the flower is ____
24. Flowers with pedicel are called ____
25. Flowers without pedicel are called ____
26. The tissue enclosed inside the ovule is ____
27. ____ cells direct the growth of pollen type towards the egg.
28. The condition of endosperm is ____
29. After fertilization ____ is converted into fruit and ____ into seed.
30. The unique feature of flowering plants is ____
KEY - Sexual Reproduction in Plants
1. Sexual
2. Reproductive
3. Thalamus
4. Stamens
5. Androecium
6. Pollen
7. Megaspore mother cell
8. Male, female gamete
10. Secondary
11. Pistil
12. Gynoecium and androecium
13. Placenta
14. Secondary nucleus
15. Zygote
16. Secondary nucleus
17. Ovary, ovule
18. Radicle
19. Palynology
20. Chalaza
21. Zea maize, paddy castor
22. Bean, pea, bengalgram
23. Pedicel
24. Pedicellate
25. Sessile
26. Nucellus
27. Synergids
28. Triploid (3n)
29. Ovary, ovule
30. Double fertilization
3. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS
1. The male gamete is called ____
2. In internal fertilization the ____are deposited in the body of the
female animal.
3. Paramoecium undergoes sexual reproduction by ____
4. A paramoecium has two nuclei. One is ____ and the other is ____
5. During conjugation in paramoecium, cytoplasm of the conjugants
becomes continuous through ____
6. The ____ nucleus of one conjugant crosses over the ____ and fuses
with the stationary pronucleus of the other.
7. The pronucleus, synkaryon is formed by the fusion of ____ and
____
8. The synkaryon of an exconjugant divides by ____
9. Earthworm is bisexual but self fertilization does not occur as ____
mature earlier than ____
10. The sperm mother cells of earthworm mature in spermatozoa in
____
11. In earthworm fertilization occurs in ____
12. In earthworm ____ received from another worm are stored in
spermatheca.
13. In housefly ____ helps in laying fertilized eggs.
14. Fertilization in housefly is called ____
15. Croaking sounds are produced by ____ frogs.
16. Ampluxory pads of frog help in ____
17. In male frog testes open into ____ through ____
18. In spermatozoan the nucleus is present in ____
19. The dark pigmented part of the egg of frog is called ____
20. In the frog egg, yolk is stored in ____ pole.
21. The oviducts of the female frog open into ____through ____
aperture.
22. Protozoans like amoeba and paramoecium reproduce by ____
23. External fertilization occurs in ____
24. Internal fertilization occurs in ____
25. A zygote devides by ____
26. When both male and female sex organs are present in the same
animal, the phenomenon is called ____
27. The organism that reproduces by conjugation is ____
28. Conjugation is a type of ____
29. The strength lost by repeated by binary fission is regained by ____
30. The nucleus of paramoecium that is responsible for negatative
function is ____
31. The micronucleus of paramoecium controls ____
32. The number of daughter individuals produced by a conjugant is
____
33. Exchange of nuclear material occurs in paramoecium during ____
34. In Megascolex, the testes are present in the segments ____
35. Cocoon of earthworm is formed by ____
36. Ampluxory pads that help in copulation are present in ____
37. The reproductive organs that are attached to kidney in frog are
____
38. The tubes that act as urinogenital ducts in frog are ____
39. The ________ of frog consists of group of eggs.
40. The spawn of frog consists of ____
41. The part of spermatozoan that helps it in penetrating the ovum is
____
42. In Megascolex, the ovaries are present in the segments ____
43. In Megascolex, the clitellum present in the segments ____
44. The animals which show sexual dimorphism are ____
45. The existence of distinct male and female animals is called ____
KEY - Sexual Reproduction in Animals
1. Spermatozoan
2. Sperms
3. Conjugation
4. Macronucleus, Micronucleus
5. Cytoplasmic bridge
6. Migratory pro, cytoplasmic bridge
7. Migratory pronucleus, stationary pronucleus
8. Mitosis
9. Testes, ovaries
10. Seminal vesicles
11. Cocoon
12. Sperm cells
13. Ovipositor
14. Internal fertilization
15. Male
16. Copulation
17. Kidney, vasa efferentia
18. Head region
19. Animal pole
20. Vegetal pole
21. Body cavity, cloacal
22. Conjugation (or) binary fission
23. Fish, frog
24. Reptiles, birds, mammals
25. Mitosis
26. Hermaphroditism
27. Paramoecium
28. Sexual reproduction
29. Conjugation
30. Macronucleus
31. Reproduction
32. 4
33. Conjugation
34. 10, 11
35. Clitellum
36. Copulation / Reproduction
37. Ovaries
38. Ureters
39. Milt
40. Milt
41. Acrosome
42. 13
43. 14, 15, 16, 17
44. Birds, mammals
45. Sexual dimorphism
4. HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
1. ____ reproductive system consists of testes.
2. Male reproduction hormone secreted by testes is ____
3. ____ tubules occur in testes.
4. The epithelial cells lining the seminiferous tubules is called ____
5. Spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules move into ____
6. Acrosome of spermatozoan helps in ____
7. Spermatozoa are temporarily stored in ____
8. Accessory glands of human male reproductive system are ____,
____ and ____
9. ____ provide energy for movement of spermatozoa.
10. Sperms live for a period of ____ to ____ hours in the female
reproductive system.
11. ____ follicles present in ovary.
12. Ovum is formed from a cell called ____
13. Ruptured follicle is called ____
14. Corpus luteum secretes ____ and ____ hormones.
15. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is secreted by ____
16. Leutinising hormone is secreted by ____
17. After release from the follicle the ovum enters ____
18. Number of ova released at a time in female human being is ____
19. Formation of ovum from graffian follicle is called ____
20. The cyclic changes that occur in the female reproductive system
for every 28 to 30 days is called ____
21. Hormones that control menstrual cycle are secreted by ____ and
____
22. During the ____ phase of menstrual cycle the follicle ruptures and
releases the ____
23. Menstrual cycle occurs once in every ____ days.
24. Foetus is attached to the uterine wall by ____
25. From the third month of pregnancy, the embryo is called ____
26. During the implantation, the embryo gets attached to the wall of
____
27. During the development of human embryo cells differentiate into
layers called ____, ____ and ____
28. The zygote divides by ____ and increases the number of cells.
29. Development of follicle is stimulated by ____ hormone.
30. Embryo is protected from external shocks by ____
31. The sex of the embryo is determined by ____week of pregnancy.
32. The placenta is formed by ____ week of pregnancy.
33. The gestation period of pregnant woman is ____
34. Child marriage restraint act is introduced in the year ____
35. The process of attachment of the blastocyst to the walls of the
uterus is called ____
KEY
UNIT - III
HUMAN REPRODUCTION SYSTEM - 4
1. Male
2. Testosterone
3. Seminiferous
4. Germinal epithelium
5. Vasa efferentia
6. Reproduction
7. Epididymis
8. Prostate, seminal vesicles, cowper's gland
9. Mitochondria
10. 24, 72
11. Ovarian
12. Primary oocyte
13. Carpus luteum
14. Oestrogen, progesterone
15. Pituitary gland
16. Pituitary gland
17. Fallopian tube
18. 1
19. Ovulation
20. Menstrual cycle
21. Pituitary gland and ovaries
22. Prolifirative, ovum
23. 28-30 days
24. Placenta
25. Foetus
26. Uterus
27. Ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
28. Mitosis
29. Follicle stimulating hormone
30. Amniotic fluid
31. 6th
32. 12th
33. 40 weeks
34. 1978
35. Implantation
UNIT - III
REPRODUCTION
4 Marks Questions
1. What are the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction.
(March 07, 09, June 03, 06, Oct 99)
2. What is meant by vegetative propagation? What are the advantages
of vegetative propagation? (March 99, 06)
3. What are different methods of grafting? (March 02, June 2000, Oct
99)
4. What is grafting? What are its uses? (Oct 99, March 04)
5. What are the applications of plant cell and tissue culture. (March
99, 03, 04)
6. Describe the structure of a flower. (March 99, 04, 05, 07)
7. What are the differences between a spermatozoan and an ovum?
(March 03, June 01, 06)
8. Give an account of menstrual cycle in human beings. (March 01,
04, 08)
9. Give an account of contraceptive methods. (March 99)
2 Mark Questions
1. What is the major difference between sexual and asexual
reproduction? (March 99, June 06)
2. What is binary fission? Where do you see this method of
reproduction? (June 07)
3. Write two advantages of vegetative propagation. (March 99, 06,
08)
4. What is embryo rescue? When is this method followed? (March
02)
5. What is totipotency?
6. What is meant by callus?
7. Give some examples of plants where vegetative propagation is
routinely done. (June 02, 07)
8. What is bud? Write about the importance of buds in vegetative
propagation. (March 99)
9. Write a short note on sexual dimorphism in animals. (March 03,
08)
10. How do you differentiate between animal and vegetal poles of the
ovum of from? (March 03, 08)
11. Draw labelled diagram of human spermatozoan? (March 01, 04)
5 Mark Questions (Diagrams)
1. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of Datura flower
and label the parts. (March 99, 2000, 01, 04, June 07)
2. Draw the structure of an ovule and label its parts. (March 03, 05,
June 01)
3. Draw a diagram showing the process of fertilization and label the
parts. (June 02, 03)
4. Draw neat labelled diagram of male reproductive system of frog.
(March 05, 07, June 01)
UNIT - 4
HIV - AIDS
1. Modern disease which took over 3 million lives is _______
2. Children with HIV... AIDS must be allowed to live a _______ life.
3. HIV belongs to _______ family.
4. HIV belongs to _______ class.
5. HIV was discovered by _______ in 1983 at parts and by _______
at USA in 1984.
6. AIDS is caused by _______
7. HIV is spread through _______, _______ and _______ of the
infected person.
8. HIV is _______ borne organism.
9. A person with HIV infection may not show symptoms of
_______immediately.
10. HIV can be detected through _______ test.
11. Unprotected sex means indulging in sexual act without using
_______
12. The late stage of HIV infection is _______
13. A person can be infected with _______ and not know that he has
it.
14. Spread of _______ and AIDS is very closely linked.
15. HIV is not spread by _______ bite.
16. The admission of a HIV infected child in a school should be along
with _______
17. The first AIDS patient was detected in India in _______
18. The number of HIVinfected people in India up to 2003 is _______
19. The number of HIV infected people in A.P. up to 2003 is _______
20. The size of HIV is _______
21. The shape of HIV is _______
22. The 3 tests for detecting HIV are _______, and _______
23. The first AIDS case was detected in India in _______ area.
24. The enzyme responsible for the unique nature of HIV is _______
25. HIV stands for _______
26. AIDS stands for _______
27. AIDS is transmitted by _______
28. The period during which there is virus in the blood but no
antibodies is called the _______ period.
29. _______ percentage of infections spread through unprotected
sexual relations.
30. Adjusting to a given situation refers to _______ skill.
31. A person who talks freely has _______ skills.
32. One who can maintain healthy relationship with friends has
_______ skills.
33. The skill needed to take right decision is _______
34. The skill needed to freely expressing their views, fears, doubts,
anxiety etc. is ________
35. There is no medicine for HIV. _______ is the only cure for HIV.
HIV - AIDS KEY
1. AIDS
2. Normal
3. Retrovirus
4. Lentivirus
5. Luc Montagnier, Robert Gallo
6. Virus
7. Blood, Semen, Vaginal fluids
8. Human Blood
9. Infection
10. Blood
11. Condom
12. AIDS Stage
13. HIV
14. STDs
15. Mosquito
17. 1986
18. 40 lakhs
19. 4 lakhs
20. 120 nm (10
9
m)
21. Icosahedral shaped
22. ELISA, Western blot test, PCR test
23. Chennai
24. Reverse Transcriptase
25. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
26. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndorme
27. HIV
28. Window Period
29. 91
30. Coping
31. Communication Skills
32. Build Caring relationships
33. Decision Making Skill
34. Communication Skill
35. Prevention.
Unit - IV
HIV - AIDS
4 Marks Questions
1. Aperson initially infested with HIVreaches AIDS stage. What are
the different stages he passed through? (June 05)
2. What are the skills necessary for every one to face the challenges
of life especially in the context of HIV ... AIDS?
3. What are modes of HIV transmission? (June 04)
4. What are the differences between HIV and AIDS?
5. What are the ways through which HIVcannot enter into the human
body? (June 06)
2 Marks Questions
1. Define the words HIV and AIDS.
2. What are the enzymes present in HIV?
3. Name the tests to defect HIV antibodies?
4. Describe the structure of HIV. (March 07)
5. Write briefly about AIDS? (March 05)
6. What is window period.
7. Draw the diagram of HIV
UNIT - 5
NUTRITION
NUTRITIONAL REQUIREMENTS
1. The Chemical substances required for energy, growth and body
building are called _______
2. Vitamins and Minerals are required in small amounts. So they are
called _______
3. Nutrition is the procurement of all _______ required for the body.
4. Carbohydrates and Sodium are _______ nutrients.
5. Iron and fluorine are _______ nutrients.
6. Rice is rich in _______ and _______ in proteins.
7. Carbohydrates contain _______, hydrogen and _______
8. Cellulose is one kind of _______
9. Milk Sugar is called _______
10. Cane Sugar is called _______
11. Animal starch is known as _______
12. Amylase hydrolysis _______ into _______
13. _______ helps in the smooth movement of the food in alimentary
canal.
14. The Carbohydrate that is stored in the liver is called _______
15. The energy released by 1 gram of glucose is _______
16. Amino acids are units of _______
17. At 20C fat remains as _______
18. Vanaspati is prepared from _______ fatty acids.
19. There are _______ different amino acids in nature.
20. _______ is essential amino acid in children but non-essential in
Adults.
21. _______ are biologically complete proteins.
22. _______ are biologically incomplete proteins.
23. _______ and _______ are essential fatty acids.
24. One gram of fat gives _______ kilo calories in our body.
25. There are more than _______ mineral nutrients in our body.
26. _______ is the major cation in the extracellular fluids of the body.
27. _______ is the major cation in protoplasm of cell.
28. _______ is the major Anion in our body.
29. _______ is required for stimulation of neurons and osmotic
balance in our body.
30. Calcium forms _______ percentage of the body weight in an adult
human being.
31. We require about _______ milligrams of calcium per day.
32. _______ is essential for the formation of bones, teeth, coagulation
of blood and production of milk in lactating females.
33. Deficiency of Iron causes _______
34. Deficiency of Iodine causes _______
35. _______ percentage of iron is present in blood.
36. _______ is essential for production thyroid gland hormone
37. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of _______
38. Excessive intake of fluorine results in _______
39. Fats are made up of _______ and _______
40. _______ is universal Solvent.
Nutritional Requirements - KEY
1. Nutrients
2. Micro Nutrients
3. Nutrients
4. Macro Nutrients
5. Micro Nutrients
6. Carbohydrates, Poor
7. Carbon, Oxygen
8. Carbohydrates
9. Lactose
10. Sucrose
11. Glycogen
12. Starch, simple sugars
13.Mucous coat
14. Glycogen
15. 4 Kilo calories
16. Proteins
17. Solid
18. Unsaturated
19. 24
20. Histidine
21. Meat, Milk, Eggs
22. Vegetables
23. Linoleic acid, Linolenic acid.
24. 9.45
25. 50
26. Sodium
27. Potassium
28. Chloride
29. Potassium
30. 1.5 to 2
31. 400 - 500
32. Calcium
33. Anaemia
34. Hypothyroidism/Simple Goitre
35. 60 - 70
36. Iodine
37. Fluoride
38. Flurosis
39. Fatty Acids, Glycerol
40. Water
DEFICIENCY DISEASES - VITAMINS
1. Taking food deficient in one (or) more _______ is called
malnutrition.
2. The effect of malnutrition depends on _______ and _______ status
of the individual.
3. In adults, when stored carbohydrates and _______ are used up the
body generates energy from _______
4. Children do not have sufficient reserves of _______ and _______
in their body
5. Malnutrition in pregnant women also affects the health of the
_______
6. Children given less proteins in their food suffer from _______
malnutrition.
7. Children given less calorie proteins in their food suffer from
_______ malnutrition.
8. Kwashiorkor is caused due to the deficiency of _______
9. The African word kwashiorkor means _______
10. Over eating and excess intake of energy results in _______
11. When more than 20% of the body weight is due to fat, the person
suffers from _______
12. Recent studies have shown the obesity is _______
13. In the body excess of fat is stored in _______
14. The story of vitamins started in _______ century.
15. Sir H.G. Hopkins discovered a substance required for growth in
_______
16. Sir H.G.Hopkins called a substance required for growth as
_______
17. The name vitamin was given by _______
18. Vitamin B
1
is also called _______
19. Riboflavin is the chemical name of vitamin _______
20. Deficiency of Thiamine causes _______
21. Glossitis is caused by deficiency of vitamin _______
22. When rice is polished (or) repeated by washed _______ vitamin is
lost from it.
23. Sailors of Japan knew that eating of _______ causes beri - beri.
24. Chemical name of vitamins B
3
is _______
25. Deficiency of Vitamin B
3
causes _______
26. Chemical name of vitamin B
6
_______
27. Deficiency of _______ result in fits in children.
28. Pernicious Anaemia caused due to deficiency of vitamin _______
29. Cyanocobalamin is the name of vitamin _______
30. The Vitamin that plays an important role in the metabolism of
nucleic acids is _______
31. Deficiency of _______ results in burning of feet.
32. Deficiency of _______ results in muscle pains, nervous disorder,
Fatigue.
33. Chemical name of Vitamin 'C' is _______
34. Deficiency of Vitamin 'C' Cause _______
35. The Vitamin required for the formation of collagen is _______
36. The vitamin that helps in the healing of wounds and fractures of
bones is _______
37. Vitamin C helps in the absorption and storage of _______
38. The vitamin that is highly sensitive to heat is _______
39. Chemical name of vitamin 'A' is _______
40. _______ is required for the production of pigments such as
rhodopsin and iodopsin.
41. In plant foods vitamin 'A' is present in the form of a compound
called _______
42. Night blindness in caused due to deficiency of _______
43. Xeropthalmia is a disease of _______
44. _______ vitamin is stored 6 to 9 months in run body.
45. Chemical name of vitamin - D is _______
46. _______ vitamin helps in absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
47. Sunlight converts _______ present in foods in the body into
vitamin D.
48. Deficiency of vitmain D causes _______ in children.
49. Chemical name of vitamin - E is _______
50. The vitamin that prevents sterility in males is vitamin _______
51. Chemical name of vitamin K is _______
52. The vitamin required for coagulation of blood is _______
53. Vitamins are not synthesized in the body. So they are called
_______
54. The Vitamins which are synthesized in human intestine by bacteria
are _______
55. In adults _______ deficiency weakens the bones and breaks.
56. Deficiency of _______ vitamin results in abortion in females.
Deficiency Diseases - KEY
1. Nutrients
2. Age and Health
3. Fats, Proteins
4. Carbohydrates, Fats
5. Child
6. Protein
7. Calorie
8. Proteins
9. Displaced child
10. Obesity
11. Obesity
12. Genetic
13. Adipose Tissue
14. 18
th
15. Milk
16. Accessory Factor
17. Funk
18. Thiamine
19. B
2
20. Beri - Beri
21. B
2
22. B
1
(Thiamine)
23. Polished rice
24. Niacin/Nicotinic Acid
25. Pellagra
26. Pyridoxine
27. Pyridoxine
28. B
12
29. B
12
30. Folic Acid
31. Pantothenic Acid
32. Biotine
33. Ascorbic Acid
34. Scurvy
35. Vitamin C
36. Vitamin C
37. Iron
38. Vitamin C
39. Retinol
40. Vitamin A
41. Carotene
42. Vitamin A
43. Eyes
44. A
45. Calciferol
46. D
47. Cholesterol
48. Rickets
49. Tocoferol
50. E
51. Phylloquinone
52. Vitamin K
53. Essential Nutrients
54. Vitamin K, Cyanocobalamine
55. Vitamin D
56. E
TROPICAL DISEASES, SOME COMMON DISEASES
1. Balanced diet, clean environment and _______ keeps the body
healthy.
2. Disturbance in normal functioning of the body results in _______
3. Entry of a disease causing organism into the body is called
_______
4. Large number of disease causing organisms do not produce
sickness in _______
5. The Vectors of plague bacteria are _______
6. The vectors of yellow fever are _______
7. The vectors of hepatitis are _______
8. The vectors of malaria protozoans are _______
9. The time between entry of parasite in body and appearance of
sickness is known as _______
10. _______ causing bacteria enter through wounds from soil.
11. Diseases like mumps, measles, whooping cough and tuberculosis
are spread by _______
12. AIDS is transmitted by _______
13. Incubation period of African sleeping sickness is _______
14. Diseases such as plague and malaria are transmitted through
another living animal known as _______
15. During the stage of _______ parasites release toxins and interfere
with normal functioning of the host.
16. Immune system plays a major role in the development of _______
to a disease.
17. _______ disease has spread in the cattle of Britain due to the
contamination of cattle feed.
18. _______ disease is caused due to hepatitis virus.
19. The toxins that damage liver cells are called _______
20. Mumps is caused by _______ virus.
21. Mumps mostly effects _______ glands.
22. Paramixovirus (RNA) causes _______ disease.
23. Measles is also called _______
24. Rubella disease is described first by the scientist _______
25. Encephalitis is caused by _______
26. _______ organisms are carriers of encephalitis.
27. _______ mosquito is vector of encephalitis.
28. The larvae of filarial worm are known as _______
29. Swelling of lymph vessles and lymph glands are seen in _______
disease.
30. The two nematodes which cause filariasis are _______ and
_______
31. Malaria means _______
32. Malaria parasite was discovered by _______
33. Transmission of malaria by mosquitoes has been confirmed by
_______
34. The Primary host of malaria parasite is _______
35. The part of life cycle of malaria parasite spent in man is known as
_______
36. The Secondary (or) intermediate host of malaria parasite is
_______
37. In the mosquito, sporozoites are present in _______
38. Merozoites are released by the rupture of _______ cells.
39. Gametocytes are developed from the stage of _______
40. Chill, headache and sweat are the symptoms of _______ disease.
41. The best way of an individual getting protected from malaria
parasite is by using _______
42. The sporozoites of the malarial parasites are formed from _______
43. _______ is the drug used for the treatment of filaria.
44. In earlier days malaria was treated with a drug called _______
45. Yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of _______ in a
disease.
46. The part of life cycle of malaria parasite spent in mosquito is
known as _______ cycle.
47. Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called _______
48. A habitat where the disease causing organism lives prior to
infection is known as _______
49. Central nervous system is effected in _______ disease.
50. Muscle remain in a permanent state of contraction in a disease
called _______
TROPICAL DISEASES, SOME COMMON DISEASES - KEY
1. regualr excercise
2. Disease
3. Infection
4. Reservoir
5. Rats
6. monkeys
7. human beings
8. mosquitoes
9. incubation period
10. Tetanus
11. droplets
12. direct contact
13. 20 - 30 years
14. Vector
15. Manifestation
16. Resistance
17. Mad - Cow
18. Jaundice
19. Hepatotoxins
20. Myxovirus Parotitis
21. Parotid (Salivary)
22. Measles
23. Rubella
24. Abubakar
25. Arbovirus
26. Pigs, cattle, poultry birds
27. Culex
28. Microfilaria
29. Encephalitis
30. Wuchereria bancrofti, Wuchereria malayi
31. bad air
32. Charles Lovinon
33. Sir Ronald Rose
34. Female anopheles mosquito
35. Asexual
36. Man
37. Saliva
38. Liver cells
39. Merozoites
40. Malaria
41. Mosquito net
42. Zygote
43. Diethyl Carbomazine
44. Quinine
45. Bilirubin
46. Sexual
47. Plasmodium
48. Reservoir
49. Encephalitis
50. Tetanus
FIRST AID & HEALTH AGENCIES
1. The originator of first aid was _______
2. First aid was popularised by _______
3. The term _______ is used to indicate that a bone is broken due to
an accident.
4. Simple fracture is also called _______
5. The type of fracture where bone is broken at several places
_______
6. The type of fracture is associated with damages to important
internal organs such as liver, brain, intestine and major blood
vessels is called _______
7. Compound fracture is also called _______
8. If bone bends but does not break, the fracture is called _______
9. Anganwadi means _______
10. Health care centre established for a population of 3000 to 5000 is
commonly called _______
11. _______ covers a population of 100 and spread over about
1,00,000 villages.
12. In rural areas deliveries of pregnant of pregnant women are usually
carried out by _______
13. First aid was popularised by st.Johns Ambulance service in
_______ year.
14. The purpose of first aid is to keep the _______ alive.
15. A person extending voluntarily the social service on health
problems at village is called _______
FIRST AID & HEALTH AGENCIES - "KEY"
1. Esmarch
2. St. Johns Ambulance Service
3. Bone fracture
4. Closed fracture
5. Communicated fracture
6. Complicated fracture
7. Open Fracture
8. Green stick fracture
9. Court Yard
10. Sub - Centre
11. Primary Health
12. Dayees
13. 1879
14. Victim
15. Village Health Guide
UNIT - 5
NUTRITION
4 Mark Questions
1. In what way does calcium help the body? (June 02, March 06, 07,
oct 99)
2. What is fluorosis? How does it affects the body? (June 01, March
07, 02, May 01)
3. What are the effects of kwashiorkor disease on children? (June 01,
May 01)
4. What are the differences between kwashiorkor and Marasmus?
(June 01, May 01)
5. Mention various disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin A
(March - 99)
6. Describe the changes in malarial parasite that occur in mosquito
(June 06, 03, March - 2000)
7. Write briefly about Jaundice (or) Hepatitis? (oct - 99)
8. What are the rules to be followed white giving first aid? (June 06,
05, 03, March 01, 99)
9. Describe the process of first aid for fracture. (June 06, 05, 03,
March 01, 99)
10. What are the functions of primary health centres (March 03)
2 Marks Questions
1. What biologically complete proteins? Give examples? (March 02)
2. Why do sports persons take glucose (Mar. 08, 02)
3. What is iodized salt? Why is it advisable to take iodized salt?
(March - 08, 03)
4. What is the only treatment available for obesity? (June 02, March
99)
5. Which cells of the body are responsible for obesity and why?
(March - 03)
6. What is the method evolved by the NIN - Hyderabad to prevent
blindness. (March - 05)
7. What is the loss if rice is polished (or) washed repeatedly? What is
the diseases it causes? (June 01, May 06, 01, March 9)
8. What are the steps to be taken to control malaria? (June 01, May
06, 01, March 09)
9. Why is the skin colour yellow in jaundice patient? (June 05, 01,
May 01)
10. What are the vertebrate hosts of encephalitis?
11. What is first Aid? Mention its purpose? (March - 2000)
12. Describe the duties of village health guide? (June 07, 06, 02,
March 07, 05, 04, May)
S.No Vitamin Chemical Name Deficiency diseases
1 B
1
Thiamine Beri - Beri, loss of appetite
2 B
2
Riboflavin
Glossitis, cracking of mouth
at corners
3 B
3
Niacin, Nicotinic Acid Pellagra
4 B
6
Pyridoxine
Anaemia, disorders of
nervous system
5 Folic Acid Folic acid
Anaemia, Diarrhoea,
loss of Leucocytes
6 B
12
Cyanocobalamin Pernicious Anaemia
7 Pantothenic Acid Pantothenic Acid Burning feet
8 Biotin Biotin
Muscle pains, nervous
disorders fatigue
9 Vitamin C Ascorbic Acid Scurvy
10 Vitamin - A Retinol
Nightblindness, Xeropthalmia
..
of cornea, scaly skin
11 Vitamin - E Tocoferol
sterility in males, Abortions
in females
12 Vitamin K Phylloquinone Delay in blood clotting
II.
S.No Scientist Contributions
1 Malvin Calvin
Calvin cycle/ Carbon fixation
/ Dark reactions
2 Sir Hans Krebs Krebs cycle (Respiration)
3 Karl Landsteiner Blood groups
4 F.W.Went Auxins
5 Charles Darwin
Proposal of some substances
control growth in plants
6 Iron Pavlov
Conditional reflex actions/
Experiment on dog
7 Haberland Cell and Tissue Culture
8
Shipra Guha and
Satish Maheswari
Haploid plants in Tissue
culture (Pollen culture)
9
Luc Montagnaier and
Rober Gallo
HIV
10 H.G.Hopkins
Growth regulating substance
in Milk
11 Funk Vitamins
12 Esmarch First Aid
13
St.John Ambulance
Service
First Aid was made popular
14 Carl Erickae Biotechnology
15 Sunderlal Bahuguna Chipko moment
16 Abubakar Rubella/Measles
17 Sir Ronald Ross Malaria
18 Charles Darwin Plasmodium Protozoan
Important Material related to Match the following
III
S.No Disease
Causitive organisms/
Deficiency substances/
related ones
1 Kwashiorkor Deficiency of proteins
2 Marasmus
Deficiency intake of
energy food /Adipose Tissue
3 Obesity
Hepatitis Virus/Hepatotoxins/
Bilirubin
4 Jaundice
Hepatitis VirusHepatotoxins/
Bilrubin
5 Mumps
Myxovirus parotitis (RNA),
Patotid glands
6 Measles
Paramyxo Virus/ Rubella/
Abubakar
7 Encephalitis
Arbovirus/Pigs/
Culex mosquitoes
8 Filariasis
Wuchereria
Bacrofti/Wucherieria malayai/
Microfilaria/ lymph glands and
lymph vessels
9 Malaria
Plasmodium/Female
Anopheles mosquito/ RBC
10 Mad cow Contamination of Cattle feed
IV
S.No Respiratory organs Type of Respiration Animal
1 Lungs Pulmonary Mammals
2 Gills Branchial Fishes,Tadepoel larva
3 Skin Cutaneous Earthworm, leach, frog
4 Trachea Tracheal Insects(Butterfly)
V
S.No Age Respiration rate
1 Newly born child 32 times/minute
2 5 years child 26 times/minute
3 25 years child 15 times/ minute
4 50 years child 18 times/minute
VI
S.No
Name of the
Animal
Number of chambers
in heart
1 Fishes 2 chambered heart
2 Frog (Amphibians) 3 chambered heart
3
Garden lizard,
Snake (Reptiles)
Incompletely divided 4
chambered heart
4 Birds, Mammals 4 chambered heart
5 Cockroach 13 chambered heart
6 Earth worm 8 pairs of hearts
1 Blue colour Blood snails/crabs
2
Colourless (or) white
colured blood -
cockroach, grasshoper
(Insects)
3
Haemoglobin in
plasma
Earth Worm
4
Blood sinuses/
Alary muscles
cockroach (Insects)
5
Branchial heart/
single circuit
circulation
Fish
6 Bicuspid valve Mitral Valve
7 Sinus Venosus Caval Veins/Frog
8 Yeast Budding
9 Bacteria/Eugleena Binary fission
10 Curry leaves
Root buds / Adventitious
buds
11 Bryophylum Epiphyllous buds
12 Milt Spermatozoa /Frog
13 Spawn Ova/Frog
14 Krebs cycle citric acid cycle
15 Glycolysis Pyruvic acid
16 Heart attack Blockage in coronory arteries
17 Spigmomanometer Measuring B.P.
18 Universal Donor 'O' Blood Group
19 Universal Recipient 'AB' Blood Group
20 Apical Dominence Auxins
21 Pancreas/Islets of Longerhans Insulin/Diabetes mellitus
22 Vasopressin
Diabetes insipidus/
pituitary gland
23 Parathormone Tetany
24 Estrogen Female Hormone
25 Testosterone Male Hormone
26 Vagus nerve 10th cranial nerve/Heart beat
27 HIV AIDS/ Reverse Transcriptase
28 Glucose 4 K.Cal of energy
29 Fats 9.45 K.Cal of energy
30 ATP 7200 calories of energy
31 Mitochondria Power houses of the cell
32 Operculum Bony fishes
VII. Other Important Ones
W W W . S A K S H I . C O M / V I D Y A / B H A V I T H A
.- =.-r.
.--.--:oe+aaaa+a
Important
Questions
Previous
Papers
Analysis
Quick
Review
Practice
Bits
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
2
1. The Screw gauge works on the
principle of _____ (March 04, June 04)
2. The Scale present on index line of
screw gauge is called as ____ (Oct-99)
3. Screw guage consists of _____ scale
and ____ scale.
4. Pitch of the screw P = _____ / No.of
revolutions made.
5. L.C. of a Screw guage = pitch of the
screw / ____
6. If the Zeroth division of the head scale
in below the indexline of the pitch
scale, the error is said to be _____ and
the correction is _____
7. If 'p' is the pitch of the scale and 'N' is
no.of head scale divisions them L.C.=
_____
8. If screw moves 5mm for 5 revolutions,
the pitch of the screw is _____
9. If a screw consists 200 head scale
divisions which contains pitch as 1mm
then the least count is _____
10. If the L.C. is 0.01 mm, Pitch scale
reading is 1.5 mm and the headscale
reading is 18, then the diametre of the
object is ____
1. The value of the universal gravitational
constant is ____
(March-2009, April-2009)
2. The weight of 400g stone is _____ N
(June-08, April-08, June-06, March-2000)
3. Units for 'G' in SI System ____
(March, 2008)
4. Ptolemaic theory is also known as ____
(March-2007)
5. As per Kepler's theory, the planet revol-
ves around sun in_____ path.(March06)
6. Universal law of gravitation is applicable
at _____ (March 2005)
7. Kepler's law supports _____ theory
(March 1999)
8. Heliocentric theory is proposed by _____
(June - 2000)
9. Units of acceleration due to gravity is
_____ (March - 2001)
10. Acceleration due to gravity at poles is
_____ and at equator it is _____ (March -
2003)
11. Acceleration due to gravity is highest at
_____ (March-03, 02, June-03)
12. Example for sensitive instruments used to
measure small changes in the value of g
at given place is _____
(June - 05, 02, 01, March - 04)
13. Numerical value of the universal
gravitational constant is _____(June-07)
14. The weight of a substance in the force
____
15. The gravitational force of earth over
moon is _____ than the gravitational
force of moon over earth.
16. As the altitude increases the 'g' value
____
17. As the depth increases the 'g' value ____
18. Relationship among g, G, M and r is ____
19. If the mass of an object is 'm', then the
weight of the same w = _____
20. The mass of an object at anywhere in the
world is ____
21. The principle used to determine the force
of attraction between two objects 'F' =
____
22. When Kepler modernised Copernicus
system, the shape of the path of orbit is
stated as ____
23. As per Copernicus solar system earth
revolves around its axis and also revolves
in circular orbit around ____
24. The acceleration attained by a body due
to the gravitational force of attraction of
earth is called as ____
25. The distance between the earth and the
moon is _____ k.m.
26. The acceleration of moon towards earth
is _____ km/sec
2
27. Gravitational force of attraction on a
body of 10 kg is ____
1. If a ball which is thrown up attains
a maximum height of 80m the initial
speed of it is _____
(June 2008, March 04, 02)
2. The uniform acceleration produced in a
freely falling body due to the
gravitational pull of the earth is _____
(June 2008)
3. The time for which a body remains in air
is called _____ (March 08, June 07)
4. The maximum height reached by a body
when it is projected upwards with a initial
velocity 'u' is _____
(April 08, June 06, 05, 00, March 04)
5. The time of ascent is directly
proportional to _____ (April 08, june 08)
6. When a body is dropped from a height 'h',
then the velocity of the body on reaching
the earth is _____ (March 2007)
7. For a body moving under the influence of
gravity, time of ascent is equal to _____
(March 2006, 08)
8. When a body is projected upwards, the
accleration due to gravity is taken _____
(March, 08)
9. The maximum height reached by a body
thrown with initial velocity 10m/sec is
_____ (June 02)
10. The time taken by a body to reach
maximum height is _____
(March-03, June-07)
11. Maximum height reached by a body
thrown with initial velocity 40 m/g is
_____ (March-04, 02)
12. The time for which a body remains in air
is called _____ (March-08)
13. The acceleration of a falling body a = ___
14. The initial velocity of a freely falling
body is ____
15. The time taken by a freely falling body to
reach earth is ____
16. Ascending time = Descending time = ___
17. The acceleration of a body ''a'' at the time
of ascending ____
18. Time of flight t = ____
19. Ascending velocity and descending
velocity of a body at a fixed point in air is
____
20. If a body takes one second to reach
ground when it is dropped from a
building, the height of the building is
____
1. A car moves on a curved but level road.
The necessary centripetal force on the car
if provided by _____
(March 2009, 04, June - 2003)
2. In simple harmonic motion, the
acceleration of the particle is directly
proportional to _____ (March, 09)
3. _____ is a machine used to separate
particles of higher mass from those of
lower mass in a given mixture
(March, 01)
4. The force of attraction of a particle
radially towards the centre of circle is
_____ (March, 1999)
5. An imaginary co-ordinate system which
is either at rest or in uniform motion and
where Newton's laws are valid is called
as _____ (June, 03)
6. Circular motion is a variety type of _____
motion.
7. If the stone tie up with a thread rotating in
a circular motion is untied the motion
direction of the stone is ____
8. In uniform circular motion _____ is
constant.
9. The force acting towards centre is called
as ____
10. If the angle of banking is , the tan =
____
11. The angular velocity of a hours hand in
clock is ____
12. The machine which dries wet clothes is
____
13. The angualr velocity of a minutes hand in
a clock is ____
14. The force found only in fixed rotational
Physical Science OUR UNIVERSE & GRAVITY SCREW GAUGE
Time Taken to Reach Maximum Height?
SCREW GAUGE
KINEMATICS
Our Universe & Gravity
DYNAMICS
Answers:
1. Screw 2. Pitch Scale
3. Pitch, head
4. Distance travelled by the Screw
5. No.of head scale divisions
6. Positive, negative
7. P/N 8. 1 mm
9. 0.005mm 10. 1.68 mm
Answers:
1. 40 m 2. Acceleration due to gravity
3. Time of flight 4. U
2
/2g'
5. Initial velocity 6. 2gh
7. Ascending time or U/g'
8. negative 9. 5m
10. Descending time 11. 80 m
12. Time of flight 13. ''g''
14. Zero 15. Descending time
16. U/g' 17. g 18. 2U/g
19. equal 20. 5m
Answers:
1. 6.6710
11
Nm
2
Kg
2
2. 3.9 N
3. Nm
2
Kg
2
4. Geocentric theory
5. Elliptical
6. Anywhere in the universe
7. Heliocentric theory 8. Copornicus
9. mg
2
10. Maximum, Minimum
11. Poles 12. Gravity Metre
13. 6.6710
11
14. Of attraction of earth on it
15. Low 16. Decreases
17. Decreases 18. g = GM/r
2
19. mg' 20. Constant
21. F = GMm/r
2
22. Elliptical
23. Sun 24. Acceleration
25. 3.8510
5
26. 0.0027m/sec
2
27. 98N
Y. Ravi Kumar
TG, Senior Teacher,
Hyderabad
BITBANK Written by
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
3
frame is ____
15. The bend of a cyclist moving on edges
depend on ____
16. The realationship among 'r', v and ''w'' is
____
17. One radian = ____
18. Relation between time of oscillation 'T'
and frequency f is ____
19. One revolution = _____ radians.
20. The angular momentum of a body L =
____
21. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration
a = ____
22. Centripetal force F = ____
23. In a uniform circualr motion if the radius
is doubled then the centripetal force ____
24. The angle made by a body with respect to
time is ____
25. Units for angualr velocity is ____
26. Centrifugal force acting on a car which
has 1200 kg mass, moving with 6m/sec
velocity along a road have 180m. circular
radius is ____
27. The angle subtended by an arc of length
equal to its radius at its centre is defined
as ____
28. The rate of angular displacement is called
____
29. 2 radians = _____ degrees
30. Time taken by a body for one complete
revolution is called ____
31. Ball left by a bowler attains _____
motion before reaching a batsman.
32. d/dt = ____
33. Angular velocity w = 2 _____
Radians
34. ____ separates molases from sugar
crystals.
35. Systems which do not obey Newtons
laws of motion are called as ____
1. The wavelength of the visible spectrum is
_____ (June - 09, 05, 04, March 01)
2. The electromagnetic radiations that are
used to take photographs of objects in
darkness _____ (March - 2009)
3. ____ rays are emitted in radioactivity.
(June - 2008)
4. The velocity of electromagnetic waves is
_____ (March 2008)
5. Electromagnetic radiations with shortest
wavelength are _____ (March 2008)
6. Rays used in RADAR _____
(April 08, June 07) (March 2001)
7. We are protected from ultraviolet
radiations of the sun because _____ in
our atmosphere absorbs UV rays
strongly. (June 2007, April -2008)
8. The radiations used in physio - therapy is
_____ (March 2007)
9. Velocity of light in vaccume _____
(June - 2006)
10. Electromagnetic waves are _____ type of
waves. (March 2006)
11. 1A= _____ (Oct - 1999)
12. Frequency range in radio broadcasting
_____ (March - 2006)
13. RADAR means _____ (Oct - 99)
14. Microwaves are generated in a electrical
circuit on account of _____ (June - 01)
15. On account of change in the rotation or
vibrations of molecules of a substance
_____ rays are emitted.
16. The waves useful in Telemetry ____
17. ____ rays cause skin cancer if body is
exposed for moretime of the same.
18. ____ waves are generated on account of
the vibrations of low frequency
electromagnetic radiations.
19. The wavelength range of Radio waves.
20. Infrared rays are located through ____
21. The process of using soft X-rays in
medical diagnosis is called as ____
22. ____ waves are used in Micro Oven.
23. ____ cause damage to ozone layer.
24. The wavelength range of Infrared rays is
from _____ to ____.
25. Mapping of the radio emissions from
extra terrestrial sources in known as ____
1. If the distance between a node and
the next antinode in a stationary wave is
10 cms, then the wavelength is _____
(June 09)
2. Velocity of sound in air 'V' = _____
(March-09, April-08) (June-06) (March
03, 01)
3. In a stationary wave, the point at which
the maximum displacement is _____
(June, 2008)
4. Periodic vibrations of decreasing
amplitude are called _____ (June, 2007)
5. The vibrations that take place under the
influence of an external periodic force are
called _____ (June, 2007)
6. A medium transmits a sound wave
through it, by virtue of its _____
(March 2007)
7. The distance between successive node
and antinode is _____ (March - 2006)
8. In a resonance experiment if the first
resonance air column length is 10cm, the
second length of resonance air column is
at ____
9. The distance between two successive
particles which are in the same phase is
called as ____
10. ____ waves are developed in the
resonance of air columns.
11. If particles in the wave vibrate
perpendicular to the propagation of wave,
then it is called as ____
12. By keeping the length of a pendulum
constant, the vibration range is increased
by energy then frequency ____
13. ____ is the reason for the collapse of a
bridge if march fast is done on it.
14. ____ are the stationary points of particles
of media in stationary waves.
15. The distance between two successive
antinodes in a stationary wave is ____
16. The wavelength of a sound wave where
the velocity is 300m/sec and frequency is
10,000Hz is ____
17. Waves containing compressions and
rarefractions are ____
18. Units for the frequency ____
19. The velocity of sound waves have
frequencies 200 Hz and 500 Hz is ____
20. Frequency possessed by each system is
called as ____
21. If frequency is '''' and wavelength is ''''
then the velocity of sound v = ____
22. The phenomenon in which if one of the
two bodies of the same natural frequency
is set into vibrations, the other body also
vibrates under the influence of the first
body is called ____
23. When two waves of equal frequency and
amplitude travel in opposite direction
_____ are formed.
24. Velocity of sound in vaccume is ____
25. Velocity of sound in air is determined
with ____
1. Unit for the intensity of light _____
(June 2009, March 2007)
2. Expand ''LASER'' _____
(June 2009, April 2008)
3. ____ is the change in the phase of a wave
when it is reflected (June - 2008)
4. For a constructive super position of
waves, the phase difference between the
waves should be equal to _____
(June - 2008)
5. The unit of solid angle () is _____
Physical Science LIGHT SOUND
ELECTRO MAGNETIC
SPECTRUM
SOUND
Answers:
1. 0.4m - 0.7m 2. Infrared rays
3. Gama 4. 3 10
8
m/s 5. GAMA
6. Micro waves 7. Ultra violet rays
8. Infrared rays 9. 310
8
m/s
10. Transverse waves 11. 10
8
cm
12. 300 KHz to MHz
13. Radio detection and Ranging
14. Oscillatinos of high frequency
electromagnetic waves
15. Infrared 16. Microwaves
17. Ultra violet 18. Radio waves
19. 1m - 100 km 20. Thermofile
21. Radiography 22. MICRO
23. Spray of gaseous solutions
24. 0.7m - 100m25. Radio Astronomy
Answers:
1. Abrasion between Car tyres and road
2. Displacement 3. Centrifuge
4. Centripetal force
5. Inertial frame of reference
6. Rotation 7. Along contact line
8. Angular Velocity 9. Centripetal Force
10. v
2
/rg 11. /6 radians/hour
12. Laundry drier 13. /1800 Radians/Sec
14. Centrifugal force 15. Speed
16. V = r 17. 5729
1
18. T= 1/f
19. 2 20. mr
2
21. v
2
/r
22. mv
2
/r 23. Increases twice
24. Angular displacement
25. Radians/sec 26. 147 N
27. Radian 28. Angular Velocity
29. 360 30. Periodic Motion
31. Rotation 32. 33. T
34. Centrifuge
35. Non - inertial frame of reference
Answers:
1. 40cm 2.
3. Antinode 4. Damped Vibrations
5. Forced Vibrations 6. Elasticity, Inertia
7. /4 8. 30 cm 9. Wavelength
10. Stationary Waves 11. Transverse Wave
12. No change 13. Resonance
14. Node 15. /2 16. 3 cm
17. Longitudinal waves 18. Hertz
19. Equal 20. Natural frequency
21. v = 22. Resonance
23. Stationary waves 24. zero
25.
p
v

LIGHT-NATURE OF LIGHT
AND SOURCES OF LIGHT
Velocity of Electromagnetic Waves?
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
4
Physical Science CURRENT ELECTRICITY MAGNETISM
(March 2008)
6. The process of achieving population
inversion is called as ____
7. ____ proposed wave theory of light
(June-2003)
8. First scientist explained about the nature
of light is ____
9. Scientist explained the colours of light
with the different sizes of light particles is
____
10. Radiations of quanta is called ____
11. As per newton's theory velocity of light is
_____ in denser medium.
12. _____ phenomenon could n't explain by
Newtons theory of light.
13. Scientist proposed medium of 'Ether' in
universe is ____
14. The imaginary three dimensional surface
formed by the particles of a medium
which are vibrating in the same phase is
called a ____
15. If the velocity of light in vaccume is ''c''
and the velocity of light in a medium is
''v'', then the refractive index of medium
= ____
16. If angle of incidence is i in rarer medium
and the angle of refraction is ''r'' is denser
medium the refractive index of medium
= ____
17. Crests of water waves in ripple tank act as
____
18. The velocity of water wave is _____ as
the depth of the water increases
19. For destractive superimposition of waves,
the phase difference between the waves
should be equal to ____
20 ____ is the reason for noticing sounds of
one room to another room.
21. Refractive index = velocity of light in
vaccume (c) / ____
22. ____ is used for curing meninzes
(March 2005, oct - 99)
23. Lumen is unit for _____ (March - 2007)
24. The wavelength of ruby laser is _____
(June 2004)
25. ____ proposed law of laser at first in the
year 1954. (June - 2004)
26. Modern units for the flux of light ____
27. The width of band in a quality laser is
____
28. The science of measuring the intensity of
light of two sources with a special units is
called as ____
29. 1 Lumen / Steridian = ____
30. Temporal coherence is important in the
production of ____
31. ____ is the cause for optical noise in
ordinary light.
32. ____ rays posses directionality.
33. ____ destructs ICBM in air.
34. Special three dimentional photography
using laser is called as ____
1. Gadolinium is a ______ magnetic
substance (June 2009)
2. Locate Para magnetic substance among
Al, Hg, Co & AU _____ (June - 2008)
3. Magnetic field induction on the equatorial
line is given by B = _____
Newtons/Amphere - Metre (June - 2008)
4. Magnetic permeability of space is _____
(March 2008, 06, 2000)
5. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet of
length 5cm with pole strength 2 10
3
ampere - meter is _____ (March - 2008)
6. The units of pole strength in SI system is
(April - 2008)
7. Air, water & Bismuth are the examples of
_____ magnetic substances.
(April - 2008)
8. Substances are those in which the
resultant magnetic moment of individual
atoms is not zero are called as _____
(June 2007)
9. Relationship between magnetic flux
density (B) and the magnetic field (H) is
____ (June - 2007)
10. ____ is the diamagnetic substance among
Bismuth, Iron and Oxygen(March - 2007)
11. The unit of magnetic pole strength in
MKS system is _____ (June - 2006)
12. The value of
r
for diamagnetic
substances is _____ (March - 2002)
13. The relative permeability of diamagnetic
substances is _____ (March - 2002)
14. Units for the intensity of magnetisation is
_____ (March - 1999)
15. Susceptibility of dia-magnetic substance
is _____ (March 2005, June - 2001)
16. Relationship between absolute permeabi-
lity , relative permeability
r
is ____
17. SI units for H = ____
18. Relationship among , A and B is ____
19. 1 weber = _____ Ampere - metre
20.
r
value for space = ____
21. If the length of magnet is (2l) and
polestrength is (m)then magnetic moment
M = ____
22. B
0
is not considered for a bar magnet at
_____ points.
23. The point where the B & B
0
nullify each
other forms _____ near by a magnet.
24. B
0
value of Andhra Pradesh is ____
25. The magnetic moment M of a bar magnet
when neutral points are on equatorial line
and B = B
0
. Then M = _____ A - m
2
26. The magnetic moment M of a bar magnet
when neutral points are on axial line and
B = B
0
. M = _____ A - m
2
27. Apole which repulses with a force of 10
7
N of another pole kept at a metre distance
is called as ____.
28. Magnetic momentum present in unit
volume of a substance is called as ____
1. Rate of electrical work done is
defined as _____ (June 09).
2. A transformer works on the principle of
_____ (March 09).
3. The value of mechanical equivalent of
heat is _____ (March 09).
4. The work required to be done to produce
a quality of heat of 1 calorie is _____
joules (June 08).
5. The equivalent resistance when two
resistors of 8 each are connected in
parallel _____ (March 08).
6. A device which converts mechanical
energy into electrical energy is _____
(April 08).
7. The instrument used to measure potential
difference between two points is called
_____ (June 07).
8. When resistances are connected in _____,
the total voltage is divided among them
(March 07).
9. The symbol of battery is _____ (June 06).
10. The conductors which do not obey ohms
law, are called as _____ (March 06).
11. Unit for flow of current is _____
(March 99).
12. The resultant resistance when R
1
= 100,
R
2
= 1 are connected in parallel = ____
(March 00)
13. The resultant resistance when 6, 12
resistances are connected parallel _____
(June 01).
14. The resultant resistance of 6, 12 are
connected in serial is ____ (March 03).
15. When 240V potential difference is
maintained in a bulb a flow of 3A is
observed through it. Then the resistance
of bulb is ____ (June 04).
16. Potential difference between two points is
measured with ____ (June 07).
17. Electrical current is measured with ____
instrument (March 00).
18. When 1v, 1.5v, 5v emf batteries are
connected in parallel the resultant emf is-
____ (March 02).
19. Magnetic induction (B)=____(March 00).
20. Electrical motor converts _____ energy
into _____ energy (March 07).
21. Volt meter is always connected in ____ in
electrical circuit. (March 00).
22. Use of iron core on transformer is ____
(March 01).
23. Mechanical energy is converted into
electrical energy by _____ through
electromagnetic induction (March 02).
24. Units for self induction is ____ (June 07).
25. Full form of RPM is ____
26. If a electrical coil is rotated in the
presence of magnetic field the induced
emf is changed for every revolution of
Lumen is Unit for?
Answers:
1. Candle
2. Light amplificatoin by stimulation
Emission of Radiation
3. 180 4. 2n 5. Steridian
6. Pumping 7. HUYGENS8. Newton
9. Newton 10. Photon 11. More
12. Polarisation13. Huygens
14. Wavefront 15. C/V
16. Sin i /Sin r 17. Convex lense
18. Increases 19. 20. Diffraction
21. Velocity of light in medium
22. LASER 23. Luminous flux
24. 6943 25. Charles H. Towns
26. Lumen 27. 10
8
28. Light
Photometry 29. LUX 30. Laser 31.
Non Coherence 32. LASER 33.
LASER 34.Holography
MAGNETISM
Answers:
1. Ferromagnetic Substance
2. Al
3.
4. 4 10
7
Henry/metre
5. 10
4
Ampere - metre
2
6. Ampere - metre 7. Dia
8. Para magnetic substance 9. B =
0
H
10. Bismuth 11. Weber
12.
r
1 13. Nearly equal to one
14. Ampere - metre 15. Very low
16. =
0

r
17. Ampere / metre
18. = AB 19.
0
Ampere - meter
20. 1 21. 2 ml 22. near by
23. null points or neutral
24. 0.3910
4
Tesla 25. 390d
3
26. 195d
3
27. Unit pole strength
28. Magnetic Intensity I
0
3
M
4 d

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
5
____ coil.
27. The equivalent weight of oxygen is ____
28. Units for electro chemical equivalent is
____
29. As per Faraday's first law of electrolysis
m = ____
30. Commercial unit of electrical energy is
____
31. Unit for electrical charge is ____
32. Instrument used for the measurement of
current is ____
33. The relationship among electrical charge
Q, workdone W and potential difference
V is ____
34. The resultant emf when three batteries of
1.5 v are connected in serial is ____
35. The resultant emf of two batteries
connected in parallel of 1.5v and 2.0 v is
____
36. If one of the bulbs connected in series is
removed the bulbs ____
37. 1/R means ____
38. Units for conductivity is ____
39. The relationship among R, g is ____
40. Non-ohmic conductor among copper,
Aluminium and electrolyte is ____
1. ____ has more ionization among
, , and x-rays
(June 09, 00, March 02).
2. 1 amu = ____ Mev (June 09).
3. In a p-type semi conductors ____ are the
majority carriers. (March 09).
4. To make silicon a p-type semi conductors,
the impurity to be doped in____ (June 06)
5. are examples for _____
(June 06).
6. ____ electro magnetic radiations are
released in Radio activity. ( March 06).
7. If a particle is emitted the mass number
____ (June 00, March 03).
8. If one particle is emitted the mass
number changes by ____
(March 03, june 00)
9. Thorium series is called as ____ series
(June 02)
10. Bismuth series is called as ____series
(June 02)
11. The radius of atomic nucleus ____
(June 03)
12. Elements contain same mass number with
different atomic numbers are called as
____ (June 05).
13. Neptunium series is otherwise called as
____ series (June 06).
14. particle is a ____ charged particle
15. ____ isotope is used to decide the age of
rocks (March 00).
16. (June 2004)
17. Difference between the particles of
nucleons to the mass of nucleas is called
as ____
18. If the total mass of combined two nuclei
is less than two individual nuclei the
deficiency is called ____
19. Rutherford's planetary model was
proposed with ____ experiment (March
06).
20. Principle involved in the Hydrogen bomb
is ____
21. Principle involved in the construction of
atom bomb is ____
22. ____ reactions are noticed in the stars
23. are the examples of ____
24. The age of fossils is determines with ____
isotopes
1. Assembler is a ____ language
(March 09)
2. Among arsenic, antimony, phosphorous
and antimony ____ is added to convert
silicon into p-type of semi conductors
(June 06).
3. If the temperature of a semi conductor
increases the energy gap also ____
(June 01)
4. Conduct particles in semi conductors are
____ (March 03, 00).
5. ____ combinations compile a program
(June 00)
6. Transistor works as ____ (March 03).
7. P-n junction diode acts as ____ (June 00).
8. ____ number of bits form a byte
9. If trivalent valency atoms like Gallium
are added to Germanium ____ types of
semi conductors are formed (March 99).
10. Combination of 8 bits form a ____
(March 00)
11. The symbol of p-n junction diode is ____
(June 02, March 01)
12. Camera consisting cathode rays and
photoes is called as ____ (June 01).
13. Last four bits in BCD code is ____
14. First four bits in BCD code is ____
15. Digits like "o" or "1" called as ____
16. ____ is used as electronic switch.
17. ____ is used as rectifier.
18. Adding of impurities in a small quantities
is called as ____
19. ____ selects modulated waves.
20. I.C. means ____
21. A.M. means ____
22. In semi conductors the conduction of
holes and electrons will be in ____
direction.
23. The arrow mark in transistor denotes____
24. Three terminals contains by a transistor
are ____
25. ____ are the conductance particles in n-
type of semi conductor.
26. Basic is a type of ____
27. CPU consists of ____
28. Arithmetic operations are carried out by
____ in Micro processor.
29. Unit decodes and executes the
instructions given in the program by ____
in micro processor.
30. Instrument used for scanning is ____
31. Scientist discovered transistor is ____
32. Transistor was discovered in the year
____
33. If the partial conductor is cooled to a
temperature of OK the EG value will be
____
34. Energy gap in insulator is ____
35. Energy gap in semi conductors is ____
36. Trivalent impurities are ____
37. Pentavalent impurities are ____
1 2
1 1
H, H
238 234
92 90
U Th ____ +
40 40
19 20
K, Ca
Answers:
1. Electric power 2. Mutual Induction
3. 4.18 Joules/calorie 4. 4.18 Jouls
5. 4 6. Dynamo 7. Voltmeter
8. Series 9. | |
10. Non-ohmic or Non linear conductors
11. Amphere 12. 0.99 13. 4
14. 18 15. 80 16. Voltmeter
17. Ammeter 18. 5v 19.
20. Electrical, Mechanical 21. Parallel
22. Controls flux 23. Dynamo
24. Henry 25. Revolution per minute
26. rotation 27. 8
28. GRAMS/Columb 29 ZiT
30. Kilowatt hour. KWH 31. Coloumb
32. Ammeter 33. W=Vq
34. 4.5 v 35. 2.0V 36. Glow off
37. Conductance 38. Mho/meter
39. RA/L 40. Electrolytes.
0
i
2 v

Answers:
1. Machine 2. Aluminium
3. Decreases
4. Electrons, holes 5. Instructions
6. Amplifier
7. Electronic switch or rectifier
8. 8 9. P-type
10. BYTE 11.
12. Iconoscope 13. Numeric bits
14. Zone bits 15. Bit
16. P-n junction diode 17. Junction diode
18. Doping 19. Oscillation
20. Integrated circuit
21. Amplitude modulation
22. Opposite 23. Emission
24. Emitter, base, collector
25. Electrons 26. Higher language
27. Control unit, ALU, Memory
28. ALU 29. Control unit
30. Icono scope 31. Williamshock lee
32. 1948 33. Reduced 34. 3 ev
35. 1 ev 36. Acceptor impurities
37. Donor impurities
MODERN PHYSICS
Answers:
1. particle 2. 931.5 3. Holes
4. Aluminium 5. Isobars 6.
7. Increases by one unit
8. Reduces by 4 units
9. 4n series 10. (4n+1) 11. 10
13
cm
12. Isobar 13. (4n+1) 14. Positive
15. 16.
17. Mass defect 18. Mass deficiency
19. Scattering of -particles
20. Nuclear fusion 21. Nuclear fission
22. Nuclear fusion 23. Isotopes
24. Carbon dating
4
2
He
235
92
U
ELECTRONICS
Physical Science ELECTRONICS MODERN PHYSICS
Thorium Series is Called as?
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
6
Chemistry CHEMICAL BONDING ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. The electronic configuration of
chromium (Cr) is _____ (June-2009)
2. ______ contains less energy among 3p,
4s, 3d and 4p
(March-2008, 09, April-2008)
3. No. of sub shells present in L shell is
______ (March-2004, 08)
4. If l = 3 then the values of m is ______
(March-2008)
5. Rutherford's atomic model introduced
based on ______ experiment.
(April-2006)
6. ______ proposed elliptical orbits.
(March-2000, 01, 03, June-2001)
7. 'l ' value of d sub-shell is ______
(March-1999)
8. Symbol to show the rotation of electrons
in clockwise is ______ (October-1999)
9. Among H
2
, O
2
, Cl
2
and HCl ______
contains s-p overlapping. (June-2004)
10. The shape of s-orbital is ______
(June-2000)
11. Electron enters ______ after filling 3d.
(March-2004, June-2004)
12. Distance between the nucleus and the
outmost shell is called ______
(June-2007)
13. Atomic number of magnesium is ______
(March-2006)
14. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
1
is the electronic configura-
tion of ______ (March-2008)
15. Electronic configuration of sodium (z =
11) is ______ (March-2002)
16. Number of sub shells present in 'M' shell
______ (June-2005)
17. Electronic configuration of copper is
______ (June-2003)
18. Quantum theory of radiation is proposed
by ______
19. No. of sub shells present in K, L, M and
N ______
20. If n is the principle quantum number then
the maximum value of l is ______
21. The shape p-orbital is ______
22. No.of maximum electrons present in each
main shell is ______
23. Units for atomic radius ______
24. Pockets of electromagnetic radiation are
______
25. Value of Planck's constant is ______
26. As the charge of nucleus increases the
ionization energy also ______
27. Place where the probability of electron is
zero called as ______
28. ______ principle states that no two
electrons contain all four quantum
numbers equal.
29. Units for electron affinity ______
30. ______ takes place after filling of each
degenerated orbital with one electron
according to Hund's principle.
31. ______ Law which states higher energy
orbitals are filled after lower orbitals are
filled
32. Most probable place of an electron is
called ______
33. As per Bohr's atomic model angular
momentum mvr = ______
1. Molecule contains sp overlapping
is ______ (June-2009)
2. ______ is the shape of PH
3
molecule.
(March-2009)
3. The shape of CO
2
is ____
(March-2009)
4. Molecule contains double bond among
N
2
, C
2
H
4
HCl and Cl
2
is _____
(June 2006)
5. Bond angle in water molecule is ______
(June-2003)
6. Molecule containing ''V'' shape is ______
(March-2002, October-1999)
7. The shape of Ammonia molecule is
______ (June-2003, 04)
8. The shape of PCl
5
molecule is ______
(March-2001, June-2002)
9. ______ bond is formed by sharing of
electrons.
10. ______ bond is formed due to the transfer
of electrons.
11. ______ type of overlapping is observed
in F
2
molecule.
12. ______ sigma and ______ '''' (pi) bonds
are found in N
2
.
13. No.of lone pair electrons noticed on
oxygen in water is ______
14. The energy of a molecule is always
______ than the sum of the energy of
individual atoms.
15. End-to-End type of overlapping forms
______ bond.
16. Side by side overlapping forms ______
bond.
17. ______ pair of electrons are donaated in
coordinate covalent bond.
18. ______ is electron pair donar on NH
4
+
molecule.
19. Strongest bond among ss, sp and pp is
______
20. Valency of carbon atom is ______
21. No.of electrons present in outer most
shell of inert gases other than in Helium
is ______
22. Number of lone pair electrons noticed on
Nitrogen in Ammonia is ______
23. The shape of methane is ______
24. Angle among porbitals is ______
1. ______ period is partially filled
with elements in long periodic table.
(June-2008)
2. First person proposed classification of
elements is ______ (March-2007)
3. Number of elements in the first period of
long periodic table ______ (April-2008)
4. Values of ionization energy ______ move
from top to bottom in a group.
(June-2000)
5. Locate Dobereiner triad among (Na, Ne,
Ca), (Li, Na, K), (H
2
, N
2
, O
2
) and (Na,
Br, Ar) ______ (March-2001)
6. Elements have atomic numbers from 58
to 71 are called as ______ (March-2003)
7. Elements with atomic numbers from ''90
to 103'' are called as ______ (June-2009)
8. ______ group of elements are used as
oxidents in long periodic table.
(June-2002)
9. Electronegativity is measured with
______ scale. (June-2001, 05)
10. Mendeleev's classification of elements is
based on ______ (June-2001, 02)
11. IIA group elements are called as ______
12. Sand P block elements together are called
as ______
13. Other name of d-block elements is
______
14. Other name of f-block elements is
______
15. Lanthanoids belong to ______ period.
16. Actinoids belong to ______ period.
17. Element with high electro positivity is
______
18. Adding of hydrogen to a compound is
called as ______
19. Ionization is measured in terms of ____
20. One Fermi = ______
21. 1 ev = ______ kilo calories/mole.
22. The other name of ecoboron is ______
23. Mendaleev named Gallium as ______
24. Law of octanes is proposed by ______
25. The general electronic configuration of
inert gases is ______
26. Leuther mayar classified elements based
on ______
27. Scientist discovered scandium is ______
28. General electronic configuration of
Alkalies is ______
29. Inert gas belongs to second period is
______
30. Modern periodic law is based on ______
31. Element which doesn't follow octet
electronic configuration is ______
32. Radio active element in IA group is
______
33. Radio active element in IIA group is
______
The Shape of S-orbital is?
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION
OF ELEMENTS
CHEMICAL BONDING
Answers:
1. [Ar]4s
1
3d
5
2. 3p 3. 2
4. 7 5. Scattering of -particles
6. Somerfeld 7. 2 8.
9. HCl 10. Spherical
11. 4p 12. Atomic radius/size
13. 12 14. Sodium
15. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
1
16. 3
17. [Ar]4s
1
3d
10
18. Maxwell Planck
19. 1, 2, 3, 4 20. (n1) 21. Dumbell
22. 2n
2
23. Angstrom
24. Photon 25. 6.625 10
27
Erg/sec
26. Increases 27. Nodal Plane
28. Pauli's 29. Electron volts
30. Pairing 31. Aufbau principle
32. Orbital 33. nh/2
Answers:
1. HCl 2. Pyramid 3. Linear
4. C
2
H
4
5. 105 6. Water
7. Pyramid 8. Trigonal bipyramid
9. Covalent bond 10. Ionic bond
11. pp 12. One, two 13. Two
14. Less 15. Sigma 16.
17. Only 1 18. H
+
ion 19. pp
20. Four 21. 8 22. One
23. Tetrahedron 24. 90
Answers:
1. Seventh 2. Dobereiner 3. Two
4. Decreases 5. Li, Na, K
6. Lanthanoids 7. Actinoids 8. VIIA
9. Pauling 10. Atomic Weight
11. Alkaline earth metals
12. Representative elements
13. Transition elements
14. Inner Transition elements 15. VI
16. VII 17. Cesium 18. Reduction
19. Electron volts
20. 10
13
cm (or) 10
15
metre
21. 23.04 KCal/mole 22. Scandium
23. Eko Aluminium 24. John Newlands
25. ns
2
np
6
26. Atomic Weight
27. Nelson 28. ns
1
29. Neon
30. Atomic Number
31. Boron in Boron trifluoride
32. Francium 33. Radium
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
7
1. Ore of Magnesium is ______
(March-2008, June-2009)
2. Formula of Dolamite is ______
(March-2009)
3. ______ element forms peroxide with
more oxygen besides oxide also.
(April 2008)
4. The formula of magnesite is ______
(June-2007)
5. ______ is used as cathode at the time of
extraction of magnesium by electric
method. (March-2007)
6. Reagent used at the time of extraction of
BeH
2
from BeCl
2
is ______ (June-2006)
7. In order to increase the conductivity of
anhydrous MgCl
2
______ and ______ are
added. (March-2000)
8. Number of water molecules present in
Epsom salt is ______ (Octber-1999)
9. Alkaline earth metals are _____
10. [Ar]4s
2
is the electronic configuration of
______
11. Most unstable hydride among MgH
2
,
BaH
2
and BeH
2
is ______
12. Anode used during electronic reduction
of MgCl
2
is ______
13. Number of water molecules removed
initially from carnolite is ______
14. Ore of Beryllium is ______
15. Ore of Barium is ______
16. Nature of CaO is ______
17. Alkaline earth metal used in crackers is
______
1. If 10 grams of Na
2
CO
3
is added to 190
grams of water the weight percentage of
solution is ______
(March-2009, June-2009)
2. The solubility of NaCl ______ with the
increase of temperature. (June-2009)
3. If 4 ml of alcohol is added to 36 ml of
water the volume % = ______
(June-2006, 07, 08)
4. The molecular weight of Na
2
CO
3
is
______ (March 2008)
5. If 12 grams of Na
2
CO
3
is present in 120
grams of solution the weight % = ______
(April-2008)
6. Weight of exalic acid present in100 ml of
0.2M oxalic acid solution is ______
(March-2007)
(M.W. of oxalic acid is 126)
7. If 10 grams of Na
2
CO
3
is present in 120
grams of solution the weight % = ______
(June-2005)
8. Solubility depends on ______, ______
factors.
9. Solvent in aqueous solution is ______
10. Substance whose solubility decreases
with the increase of temperature is _____
11. Solubility of gases ____ with the increase
of temperature.
12. Molecular weight of H
2
SO
4
is ______
13. Example for polar solvent ______
14. Example for non-polar solvent is ______
15. Naphthalene dissolves in _____
16. Acetic acid is a ______ electrolyte
17. If 2 moles of Na
2
CO
3
is added to 3 moles
of water, the mole fraction of water is
______
18. Weight of solute dissolves is 100 grams
of solvent at constant temperature is ____
19. ______ solutions are unstable.
20. ______ are absent for V%, Wt% and
mole fraction.
21. Molarity depends on ______
22.
23.
24.
25. (V in litres)
26. Substances like NaCl, NaNO
3
, Na
2
SO
4
,
KCl, BaCl
2
______ when they dissolve in
water.
27. CH
3
COOH, NH
4
OH dissolve ______ in
water and hence they are ______
28. When _____ increases for _____ of weak
electrolytes the ionization increases.
29. Compounds like glucose, sucrose and
urea dissolve in ______ but dont ______
hence they are called ______
30. Vinegar is ______
31. Formula of Naphthalene is ______
1. The concentration of [H
+
] in a solution
of pH = 6 is ______ (June-2009)
2. MgO contains ______ nature
(March-2009)
3. Ionic product of water at 25C is ______
(June-2009)
4. KWvalue varies with ____
(March-2008, June-2005, 07, 09)
5. If pH > 7 then the solution is a ______
(April 2006, 08)
6. Methyl orange shows _____ colour in the
presence of acid.
(March-2007, June-2007)
7. Phenaphthelein shows ______ colour in
the presence of a base (March-2001)
8. If pH = 8 then H
+
ions concentration is
______ (March-2003)
9. Heat of neutralysation observed when a
strong acid reacts with a strong base is
______ (March-1999, June-2005)
10. pH value of a pure water is ______
(June-2003)
11. If pH is 10 then [H
+
] = ______
(March-2004, June-2002)
12. Formula of acetic acid is ______
(March-2000)
13. H
2
SO
4
+ Ca(OH)
2
______
(March-2004)
14. ______ formed when non-metallic oxides
dissolved in water.
15. ______ formed when metallic oxides
dissolved in water.
16. ______ proposed theory of acids & bases
ionization.
17. Substances that gives OH

in the presence
of water is ______
18. Concentration of H
+
ions at 25C in water
is ______ ions/litre
19. ______ introduced the term pH
20. pH value of gastric acid is ______
21. Combination of H
+
and OH

ions is
______
22. Acids or bases that completely ionize in
the presence of water ............ ______
23. As the pH increase from 7 to 14 the
nature of ______ increases
24. As the pH values decreases from 7 to 1
the ______ character increases.
25. Ionization energy during CH
3
COOH
CH
3
COO

+ H
+
is ______ K calories.
1. The bond length of C C in
graphite is _____ (March 2009)
2. Dry ice is _____
(March'08, April'08, June'06)
3. Formula of Alkyne is _____
(March 2008)
4. C
8
H
18
is the example of that is ____
(June 04)
5. Alkanes participate in ______ type of
reactions (June 2007)
6. Refractive index of diamond is _____
(March 07)
7. Alkenes participate in _____ type of
reactions (March 07)
8. No. of carbons present in Hexane is
_____ (June 2006)
9. Important component present in cooking
gas is ______ (June 2006)
10.
(March 03)
11. COOR is the functional group of
_______ (March 04, 02, 00. June 05)
12. Alkane among C
4
H
10
, C
4
H
8
, C
4
H
6
AND
C
6
H
6
IS ____ (March 99)
13. CCOOR functional group present amo-
ng CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
, C
3
N
7
NH
2
CH
3
CHO,
CH
3
COOH is _____ (June 2001)
14. ______ indicates the functional group of
ketones (Jan2002)
15. Functional group NH
2
indicates _____
(March 2003)
16. Metal used in identifying functional
Fe O 3CO ________ _______
2 3

+ +
.................... 1
Molarity
Molecular Weight V
=
.............
Molarity (Vinlitres)
V
=
......................
% 100
Volumeof solution
=
Weight of solute
W% 100
..............
=
SOLUTIONS
ALKALINE EARTH
METALS
Answers:
1. Carnolite (or) Magnesite
2. CaCO
3
MgCO
3
3. Barium 4. MgCO
3
5. Iron tank
6. LiAlH
4
7. KCl, NaCl 8. 7
9. Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba and Ra
10. Calcium 11. BeH
2
12. Graphite
13. 4 14. Beryl 15. Barytes
16. Basic 17. Magnesium
Answers:
1. 5 2. No change 3. 10
4. 106 5. 10 6. 2.5 grams
7. 1000/120
8. Solute, Solvent, Temperature
9. Water 10. Ce
2
(SO
4
)
3
11. Decreases 12. 98 13. Water
14. Kerosene, Benzene, Alcohol
15. Kerosene 16. Weak 17. 3/5 or 0.6
18. Solubility 19. Super saturated
20. Units 21. Temperature
22. Weight of solution 23. Volume of solute
24. n 25. Weight of solute
26. Ionize
27. Partial, weak electrolyte
28. Temperature, dilute
29. Water, Ionization, Non electrolytes
30. Dilute acetic acid 31. C
10
H
8
ACIDS - BASES
Answers:
1. 10
6
2. Base
3. 1.0 10
14
mole ion
2
/litre
4. Temperature 5. Base
6. Red 7. Pink 8. 10
8
9. 13.7 KCal/mole 10. 7
11. 10
10
12. CH
3
COOH
13. CaSO
4
+ 2H
2
O 14. Acids
15. Bases 16. Arhenias 17. Bases
18. 110
7
19. Sorenson
20. 1 to 2 21. Neutralization
22. Strong acid, strong bases
23. Basicity 24. Acids 25. 0.3
CHEMISTRY OF
CARBON COMPOUNDS
Chemistry ACIDS - BASES SOLUTIONS
Solvent in aqueous solution is?
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
8
Chemistry OILS - FATS CARBOHYDRATES
group of alcohol is ____ (March 2006)
17. The functional group of Aldehyde is
_____ (March'99)
18. CH
4
+ 2O
2
____ + _____ (March'99)
19. HC CH + 2Cl
2
______ (March'99)
20. Expreses the equation for the Hydrolysis
of calcium carbide to give acetylene
______ (March'02)
21. Balanced equation of the dissociation of
NaHCO
3
when it is heated is _____
(June'03)
22. Alkene participate in additional reactio-
ns because it contains _____ (March'04)
23. Name of CONH bond is _______
(March'04)
24. The process of forming dry ice by sudden
expansion and cooling of CO
2
is called as
_____
25. The best conductor of electricity among
Anthracite, Coal, diamond and graphite is
_________
26. The hardest substance in nature is
________
27. Gas that is used in turning the raw fruits
into fruits artificially is ______
28. C
60
Buck minster pullarin is a _____ type
of structure.
29. No. of cycles present in C
60
is _______
30. Scientists who got noble prize on the
study of C
60
are ________
31. Element contains more catenation power
is ________
1. Enzyme that divides Glucose is _____
(June'09)
2. Sweetest available sugar is ______
(April'08)
3. Defacation means addition of ______
(June'06, 07, 08) (June'01)
4. In the fermentation of molases ______
micro organisms are used.
(June'07, March'07)
5. _____ and _____ are the example of seed
which gives oils (March'07)
6. The spent cane sugar is called as ______
(June'06)
7. Example for a polysacharoid is ______
(June'03)
8. ____ is reduced by the glucose in tollens
test (June'00, 04)
9. Which is not a biproduct among Bagase,
Press mud, Sugar and molases in sugar
industry _____ (March'05)
10. _____ is present in Benedict solution
(Oct'99, March'02)
11. _____ seperate sugar crystals from cane
sugar juice (June'07)
12. Substances formed by glucose during
fermentation _____
(June'07, 00, March'07)
13. Biproduct during the production of
alcohol is _____ (June'03)
14. Ammonical silver nitrate solution is
called as _____ reagent (Oct'99)
15. Aldoze means ____
16. Number of carbons in Hectose is _____
17. By adding _______ rectified spirit turns
into absolute alcohol.
18. No. of water molecules in Magnesium
sulphate is ______
19. Identify Aligosacharoid among maltose,
glucose, fructose and manoze is _____
20. The precipitate obtained after defac-
ation, carbenation and sulphitation is
_____
21. _____ is extracted from country dates.
22. Enzyme that divides sucrose is ______
23. ____ is identified with Iodine test
24. No. of water molecules present in copper
sulphate is ______
25. The process of turning huge molecules
into minute molecules is called as ______
26. Alcohol percentage in wash is _____
27. Alcohol that causes blindness is ______
28. Temperature required at the time of
fermentation is ______
29. Another name for a dipole ion is _____
30. Siekel cell anaemia is a type of _____
disease.
31. ______ plays important role in the
structure of animal cell.
32. ______ type of carbohydrate is present in
cloth.
1. In shaving soap ____ is more
present (March'03, 01, June'02)
2. Catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils
is ____ (June'02, March'02, 99)
3. Soaps remove bad smell contain _____
(June'06)
4. 2Na
3
PO
4
+ 3CaCl
2
6NaCl + ______
(March'00)
5. Formula of linoleinic acid is ______
(June'01)
6. The process of turning unsaturated oils
into saturated oils is called as ______
(March'01)
7. Detergent are used even with hardwater.
Because _____ (June'02, 04)
8. The formula of stearic acid is ______
(June'08)
9. Cation that present in the soap of dry
cleaning is _____
10. Salts of fatty alcohol sulphates are _____
11. Chemically oil & fats are ______
12. Formation of soap process is called as
_____
13. Saponification ______ is the biproduct
14. Salts of fatty acids is ______
15. Cardliver oil is useful _________
16. Salt present in cloth cleaning soaps is
_____
17. Greeze contains _____ salts.
1. Example for a mixed fertilizer
is _____ (June'09, 08)
2. Cement is the mixture of ______
(June'09, 08)
3. Cold cream is the _____ of water and oil
(June'08, March'06)
4. _____ is the example of Auxochrome
(March'08)
5. Glass blowing is possible with ____ glass
(June'06, May'08)
6. _____ is used as refrigerator lining
(March'08)
7. Drugs which act on blood circulation are
_______ (April'08)
8. The action of chromophore is ______
(April'08)
9. _____ type of glass is used for the
preparation of laboratory glassware.
(April'08)
10. The process of cooling gas is called
_______ (March'07, 06, June'07)
11. ______ holds materials together by
surface attachment (June'07)
12. Objects of Terrakota are _____ (June'06)
13. Scientist who prepared dye at first
artificially is ______ (June'03)
14. The chemical formula of talc is _____
(June'05, 07)
15. Materials required for the preparation of
glass are ______ (March'99)
16. Artificial rasin among Rosin, Decron,
Cellulose acetate is _____
17. Plastic used in the manufacture of pipes
is ______
18. Natural gelatin from milk protein is
_____
19. _____ is used in the preparation of ice
cream cups.
20. Nitrophosk is a _________
21. Dye which doesn't require the help of
other substances is ______
22. _______ discovered artificial dye.
23. Use of adding cullet to glass is _____
Chemically Oil and Fats are?
Answers:
1. Free stearic acid 2. Nickel
3. 3,4,5 tri bromo salicylamide
4. Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
5. C
17
H
29
COOH
6. Hydrogenation
7. doesn't form precipitate with Ca
2+
, Mg
2+
but gives froth
8. C
17
H
35
COOH
9. Triethanol Ammonium Salt
10. Detergents
11. Tryesters of glucerol and fatty acids
12. Saponification 13. Glucerol
14. Soaps 15. Medicine 16. Na
+
17. Li
+
Answers:
1. Zymase 2. Fructose 3. Ca(OH)
2
4. Yeast 5. Groundnut, sunflower
6. Bagase 7. Starch, Cellulose
8. Ag
+
ions into Ag 9. Sugar
10. Copper sulphate 11. Centrifuge
12. Ethyl alcohol + CO
2
13. CO
2
14. Tollens reagent
15. Polyhydroxy aldehydes 16. 6
17. CaO 18. 6 19. Maltoze
20. Press mud 21. Country dates spirit
22. Invertase 23. Starch 24. 5
25. Fermentation 26. 15 - 20%
27. Methyle alcohol 28. 30C
29. Zwitter ion
30. ineffective haemoglobin 31. Protiens
32. Polysacharoid
CARBOHYDRATES
AND PROTEINS
OILS - FATS
CHEMISTRY AND INDUSTRY
Answers:
1. 1.42 2. Solid CO
2
3. C
n
. H
2n 2
4. Alkene (octane)
5. Substitution reactions 6. 2.41
7. Additional reactions 8. "6"
9. Butane 10. 3Fe + 3CO
2
11. Ester 12. C
4
H
10
13. CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
14.
15. Amine 16. Sodium
17. CCHO
18. CO
2
+ 2H
2
O + 212.8 K.Cal
19. Cl
2
CH CHCl
2
20. CaC
2
+ 2H
2
O Ca(OH)
2
+ C
2
H
2
21. 2NaHCO
3
Na
2
CO
3
+ H
2
O + CO
2
22. Presence of double bend 23. Peptide
24. Joules Thomson effect 25. Graphite
26. Diamond 27. Acetylene
28. Foot ball 29. 32
30. HWCrowto, Re Smali 31. Carben
C = O
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
9
24. Dyes include C=O group are _______
25. Chemical curing drugs act on ______
26. Hard ball of greyish cement are called as
______
27. Cullet means _____
28. Polymers of carbon substances are called
as _____
29. Chemically gypsum is _____
30. Example for artificial adhesive _____
31. Dyes used in the neutral media are called
as ______
32. ____ is prepared from limestone and clay.
33. Substance that is added in a small
quantity to grow plants is called as _____
34. Petrolium products that are formed by
chemically are called as _____
35. Petrolium refinery is located at _____ in
AP.
36. Slip nature of powder is caused by _____
37. Combs are prepared from _____
38. Rain coats are prepared from _____
39. Substances that are used in diagnosis,
confirmation and remedy of diseases are
called as _____
40. _____ is added for the powdered clinker.
1. Draw a neat diagram of a screw gauge
and label it's parts.
2. Draw a neat diagram of magnetic lines of
force when N-pole of a bar magnet is
facing south pole of earth. Locate the
null points.
3. Draw the following diagrams showing
Zero error of screw gauge a) No Zero
error b) Negative new error c) Positive
zero error
4. Sketch the diagram of Rutherfords
Atomic model and label its parts
5. Draw and label the diagram showing
various regions of electromagnetic
spectrum and their wave length ranges.
6. Draw a neat diagram of magnetic line of
force when N-pole of a bar magnet is
facing North pole of earth. Locate the
null points.
7. Draw a neat diagram of Nuclear Reactor
showing various parts.
8. Draw a block diagram of TV broad
casting.
9. Draw a block diagram of Radio Broad
casting.
10. Draw the figure of Ripple tank and lable
the parts
11. Draw the figure of AC Dynamo
12. Draw the figure of p-type of semi
conductors.
13. Draw the figure of n-type of semi
conductors
14. Draw the symbols of both p-n-p and n-p-
n transistors
15. Draw the block diagram of computer.
1. What are the negative and positive errors
of the Screw gauge? How are they
determined?
2. How do you determine the diameter of a
wire using screw gauge?
3. Derive universal law of gravitation
calculate the gravitational force of a
stone of mass 10kg.
4. Derive the relationship between
acceleration due to gravity and universal
gravitational constant. (or) Difference
between g and G.
5. Describe an experiment to determine
acceleration due to gravity by a simple
pendulum.
6. Derive the banking angle Tan = v
2
/rg
7. Distinguish between centripetal and
centrifugal force.
8. Describe the phenemenon of resonance
with examples.
9. What are the differences between
progressive waves and stationary waves.
10. What are the important applications of
laser light in science and Technology?
11. Describe a ripple tank. How does it help
in understanding the reflections and
refraction of light.
12. What are the main parts of an actual
laser.
13. Distinguish between Newton corpusc-
ular theory and wave theory of light.
14. What are the important applications of
laser light in medicine, industry and
space science?
15. Explain Para-Dia and Ferro magnetic
substances. Give two examples of each
type.
16. Distinguish between dia-magnetic and
Para magnetic substances.
17. Define the terms a) Magenetic
susceptibility b) Magnetic permeability.
Compare the relative values of relative
permeability and magnetic susceptibility
of Dia and Ferro magnetic substances.
18. What are the essential ideas of Ewings
molecular theory of magnetism? What
are the reasons for its failure?
19. Compare the values of relative
permeability and Magnetic susceptibility
of Dia, Para and Ferro magnetic
substances.
20. Derive the relation ship V
1
/V
2
= i
2
/i
1
for
transformer.
21. What are ohmic and non ohmic
conductors? Give examples? The p.d
across a bulb is 240v, When a current of
3 amperes flows through it. Find the
resistance of the bulb?
22. Derive an expression for equivalent
resistance of parallel combinations of
three resistances R
1
, R
2
and R
3
.
23. Describe an experiment to verify Fara-
days second law of electrolysis. Mention
any two applications of electrolytes.
24. State Ohms law. Describe an experiment
to verify Ohms law.
25. Show that effective resistance of a series
combination in a circuit is equal to the
sum of the individual resistance.
26. Derive R=R
1
+R
2
+R
3
.
27. State the law of Resistance.
28. Show that the reciprocal of the effecting
resistances of parallel combination in a
circuit is equivalent to the sum of their
reciprocals.
29. Define Joules law, Derive Q = i
2
Rt/J
30. Explain the construction of a transformer
with a neat diagram.
31. Calculate the mass defect in the
formation of
2
He
4
. How do you account
for mass defect of an atom?
32. Describe the Rutherford's gold foil
experiment with a diagram. Mention its
important features.
33. What are isobars and Isotones? Explain
with examples.
34. What is the principle of a nuclear
reactor? How does it work?
35. Compare the properties of , ,
radiations.
36. What is chain reaction? How is a chain
reaction controlled in Nuclear Reactor?
37. What are the users of radio isotopes?
38. Explain the following
a) Extrinsic semiconductor
b) Doping c) Transistor
d) Energy bond
39. Explain different stages of TV
communication with a block diagram.
40. Draw the symbol of transistor. State the
properties and user of a junction
transistor.
41. State the properties of a junction Diode.
42. How do you classify the solids,
electrically?
43. Draw the block diagram of a computer?
Describe the functions of each compo-
nents.
44. Explain the p-type and n-type of
conductors.
45. State the properties and user of junction
transistor.
1. What is the principle of screw gauge?
2. Write Newtons law of universal
gravitation calculate the gravitational
force on an object of mass 10kg.
3. Difference between mass and weight of a
body.
4. A body is projected vertically upwards
with a velocity of 2m/s. Find the
maximum height reached by the body (g
= 10m/s
2
)
5. What is the angular velocity of the earth
about its own axis?
6. What is the principle of launching a
satellite into an orbit?
7. What is the necessity for banking of
roads?
8. Distinguish between a rotatory motion
and a circular motion.
09. Explain the working of a laundry drier.
10. What are the similar characters of
centripetal and centrifugal forces?
11. What is simple harmonic motion? What
are its characteristics?
12. What is centrifuge? How does it work?
13. What are the uses of hard x-rays?
14. Draw the diagram of electromagnetic
ware.
15. Distinguish between node and antinode.
16. Mention few incidents of resonance
Answers:
1. Nitrophosk
2. Calcium silicate and Calcium
aluminate
3. Emulsions 4. NO
5. Pyrex glass 6. Polysterein
7. Cardio vascular
8. Sticks dye to the thread
9. Pyrex 10. Annealing
11. Adhesives 12. Porous
13. WH Perkin 14. Magnesium silicate
15. Sand 16. Dacoron
17. Polyvenyl chloride 18. Rasin
19. Soyabeans adhesive
20. Mixed fertilizer
21) Acid dyes, Basic dyes, Direct dyes
22. Perkin 23. Reduces melting point
24. Chromophores 25. Protozoa
26. Clinker 27. broken glass pieces
28. Rasins 29. Calcium sulphate
30. Urea, formaldehyde rasin
31. direct dyes 32. cement
33. microfertilizers 34. Petrochemicals
35. Visakhapatnam 36. Magnesium silicate
37. Pastyrin 38. Polythene
39. Medicines 40. Gypsum
Physics
5 Marks Questions
4 Marks Questions
2 Marks Questions
Physics & Chemistry IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Main Parts of Actual Laser?
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
10
phenomenon observed in your daily life.
17. How do you distinguish laser light from
an ordinary light in terms of property of
coherence?
18. What is the basic process involved in the
working of a laser?
19. Define a) Magnetic susceptibility
b) Magnetic permeability
20. Calculate the magnetic movement of a
short bar magnet of length 5cm and pole
strength. 210
-3
A-m
21. What are the values of magnetic induc-
tion at a distance d on the axial line and
on the equatorial line of a Bar magnet?
22. Explain why Ferro magnetic substance
like iron rod is not a magnet by itself.
Explain on the basis of domain theory?
23. Calculate the value of magnetic induction
at a distance of 0.5m on the axial line of
a short bar magnet of length 5 cm and
pole strength 2 10
3
A-m.
24. State and explain inverse square law of
Magnetism.
25. Define a) Joules law b) Flemings right
hand rule.
26. Calculate two resistances of two resistors
100 and 1 connected in parallel.
27. Define Faradays law of Electrolysis.
28. State and explain Lenzs law.
29. Explain the process of Electro typing?
30. What is nuclear fusion? Give one
example with equation.
31. Distinguish between Natural radio-
activity and artificial radio activity.
32. What is the role of a moderator in a
nuclear reactor?
33. Mention the applications of radio-
isotopes in industry.
34. What about decay with an example?
35. What are isotopes? Give an example.
36. What is moderator? give an example?
37. Explain artificial transmulation. Give an
example.
38. Define a)Electroncurrentb)Whole current
39. Importance of computer in day life?
40. Draw circuits showing a) forward bias
condition b) reverse bias condition.
41. What are Hardware and software?
42. What are the uses of junction transistor?
43. Draw the symbols of p-n-p transistor and
n-p-n transistor.
1. Why is the weight of a body not the same
at poles and equator?
2. The weight of the body is not the same on
the surface of earth at all places specify
the reason.
3. What is heliocentric theory?
4. What is acceleration due to gravity?
5. Define weight of a body.
6. Why g value decreases when we go
deep into the Earth?
7. Define the mass of a body?
8. What is meant by time of flight?
9. Aball is thrown up and attains maximum
height of 80m. Find its initial speed.
10. What is the reason of depletion of Ozone
layer in atmosphere?
11. Draw a figure showing the formation of a
stationary wave.
12. Distance between a mode and the next
antinode in a stationary wave is 10cm.
Find the wave length.
13. What is resonating air?
14. What is Damped vibration?
15. Explain the phenomenon of resonance.
16. In a resonating air column experiment
with a closed-end tube, first resonance
occur when the length of air column is
10cm. Find out the length of the air
column for the occurrence of second
resonance.
17. What is meant by Magnetic moment?
18. Draw an electric circuit and label its
parts.
19. What is the principle of Transformer?
20. What is transformer? On what principles
does it work?
21. What is the total emf when three cells of
voltages 1v, 1.5v, 2v are connected in
series?
22. The resistance of Magnanion wire of
1mm
2
cross - sectional area is 15. Find
the resistance of the Manganion wire of
same length but of cross - section of
3mm
2
.
23. Calculate the equivalent resistance of two
resistors of 6 Ohms and 4 Ohms
connected in parallel?
24. Define Lenzs law.
25. The mass defect, when Helium nucleus is
formed is 0.0303 amu. calculate the
binding energy.
26. What is Binding energy?
27. What is Radiography?
28. Mention the isotope of Ne

29. State the law of radio active disintegration.

30. Define the term Mass defect.
31. Draw the symbol of p-n-p transistor.
32. Define BYTE.
33. Define BOD.
34. What is doping?
1. Draw the shapes of five d orbitals.
2. Draw Moeller diagram neatly.
3. Explain with a diagram the bond
formation in HCl and N
2
molecule.
4. Draw a neat diagram showing the
extraction of Mg from its ore. Label its
parts.
5. Draw a diagram showing the manufac-
ture of sugar from sugar-cane.
6. Draw a neat diagram showing the
manufacture of alcohol.
7. Draw a neat diagram of fractionation of
Petroleum and label its parts.
1. Explain Hand's rule with an example?
2. State the postulates of Bohr's atomic model?
3. Explain Paul's exclusive principle with
examples.
4. Explain the formation of co-ordinate
covalent bond.
5. Explain the formation of Triple bond in
N
2
with the help of a diagram.
6. Explain s-p overlap with examples.
7. Explain the formation of double bond.
8. How the properties of the following
changes in a period and group?
A) Electro positive character
B) Electro negative character
C) Oxidising property
D) Reducing property
9. Answer the following questions.
A) Define Ionization energy
B) What is Newlands concept of octaves?
C) What are inner transition elements?
D) What are transition elements?
10. What is Modern Periodic Law? Explain
its main features?
11. Explain the classification of elements
based on their electronic configuration?
12. How does the following change in a
Period and Group? Explain.
A) Atomic radius B) Electro negativity
C) Electro positive character
D) Oxidising and reducing property
13. Write down chemical reactions of first
three elements of group II Awith oxygen
and Chlorine.
14. Write the reactions of Group-IIA
elements with i) Water; ii) Oxygen;
iii) Hydrogen; iv) Chlorine
15. Define Mole fraction 4 gms of NaoH
(M.Wt=40) is dissolved in 16.2gms of
water (M.wt=18). Calculate the mode
fractions of NaOH and water.
16. 2.12 gms of Na
2
CO
3
is present in 500 ml
of its solution. Calculate the molarity of
the solution (M.wt. of Na
2
CO
3
is 106).
17. How do you prepare 0.1 M standard
Na
2
CO
3
solution using 250ml standard
flask?
18. Write short notes on
a) Limitations of Arrhenius theory of
acids and bases b) Heat of neutralisation
19. Write short notes on
a) pH b) strength of acids and bases
20. Define terms and give one example of
each a) strong acid; b) strong bases; c)
weak acid; d) weak bases
21. State Arrhenius theory of Acids and
Bases. Write down the limitations of
Arrhenius theory.
22. What is meant by ionic product of water?
23. Compare the structures of diamond and
graphite.
24. What is Alkane? Write the substitution
reactions and combustion reactions of
Alkanes.
25. Define Proteins. Write about the
classification of Proteins.
26. Describe the main steps involved in the
production of sugar from sugarcane.
27. What are the detergents? Explain the
steps involved in the manufacture of a
detergent.
28. What are the soaps and detergents? How
do you test the quality of soap?
29. What are the differences in the manufac-
turing of soap and detergent?
30. How is soap industrially manufactured?
31. What are fertilizers? Discuss their types
with examples?
32. What is a drug? What are the requisites of
an ideal drug? List out the sources of
drugs?
33. What is fractionation? Describe about
petroleum fractionation and mention
principle products obtained in fractio-
nation of petroleum.
34. What is a drug? Classify drugs depending
upon their therapeutic action?
35. Define drug? Write the characteristics of
an ideal drug?
36. Write a short notes on
a) Synthetic adhesives and uses
b) Pottery and earthen-ware
1. Write electronic-configuration of Cu and
Cr.
2. Define a) Ionization energy; b) Electron
affinity; c) Atomic size
3. Draw the shapes of 's' and 'p' orbitals.
4. Distinguish between orbit and orbital.
5. Write the electronic configurations of
a) Chromium b) Phosphorous
6. What information does the principle
quantum number give?
7. Draw the structure of Ammonia molecule.
Physics & Chemistry IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
What is the Modern Periodic Law?
1 Mark Questions
4 Marks Questions
Chemistry
5 Marks Questions
2 Marks Questions
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
11
8. Draw the shape of PCl
5
and H
2
O.
9. Draw the bond formation of F
2
molecule.
10. Draw the diagram showing the formation
of a triple bond.
11. How does the atomic radius vary in
period and in a group of a periodic table?
12. How does Ionization energy vary in a
period and in a group?
13. Write reactions of any two elements of
group IIA with oxygen.
14. Calculate the amount of NaOH in 250ml
of 0.5 M solution of NaOH (M wt of
NaOH = 40)
15. Calculate the number of moles of oxalic
acid present in 400 ml of its 0.025 M
solution. (M.wt of oxalic acid is =126)
16. 4 gms of NaOH is dissolved in 16.2 gms
of water. Calculate the mode fraction of
NaOH and water. (M.wt of NaOH = 40,
H
2
O = 18)
17. 15ml of Hexane is mixed 45ml heptane.
Calculate the volume percentage of this
solution.
18. Calculate the number of moles of NaOH
present in 750ml of 0.4M solution (M.wt
of NaOH = 40)
19. 20 ml of alcohol is mixed with 160ml of
water. Find the volume percentage of the
solution.
20. CuSO
4
is soluble in water but not in
Kerosene. Give reason.
21. What is heat of neutralisation? Give an
example.
22. What is pH? Calculate the pH of 0.002 M
HCL solution?
23. Write two chemical properties of acids
and bases with equations.
24. Write the chemical equations for the
addition reactions of alkenes with H
2
and
Cl
2
.
25. Write short notes on Substitution
reactions of alkanes.
26. Write the differences between Alkanes
and Alkenes.
27. What is Polymerization.
28. Draw the diagram showing the structure
of Benzene molecule.
29. How do you perform a) Tollens test b)
Benedict's test for detecting sugar.
30. How is Benedict's reagent prepared.
31. What are amino acids? Give two
examples.
32. How is Tollens reagent prepared? How is
glucose tested with it.
33. Distinguish between soaps and
detergents.
34. Mention four industrial uses of oils.
35. What are the advantages of hydrogenat-
ion of oils?
36. Describe briefly cold cream and face
powder mentioning their ingredients.
37. Sketch the paracetamol drug molecule.
38. Define and give two examples for each
i) Cosmetic and ii) Pharmaceuticals
39. Mention the methods of manufacture of
cement.
40. What are uses of cold cream.
41. What are characteristics of good quality
face powder?
1. Write the e.c. of Ca atom.
2. What is stationary orbit?
3. What is a nodal plane?
4. What is Hund's principle?
5. Write the Plank's equation. What is the
value of Plank's constant?
6. Define electron affinity?
7. Define atomic radius.
8. State the Aufbau principle.
9. Name two molecules having pyramidal
shape.
10. Mention the atomic property on which
Mendaleef's periodic table is based.
11. Why does atomic size decreases from left
to right in a period.
12. Which group of elements in periodic
table can be used as reducing reagents?
13. Why do you add KCl and NaCl to MgCl
2
during extraction of Magnesium?
14. Write the equation showing the reactions
of alkaline earth metals with oxygen.
15. How many water molecules are present
in Epsom salt?
16. Distinguish H
+
and (H
+)
.
17. Calculate the pH of 0.001m HCl.
18. Write down the balanced equation show-
ing the preparation of zinc hydroxide
from Zinc oxide.
19. Define pH.
20. Give a limitation of Arrhenius theory.
21. Define Heat of neutralisation.
22. What is the ionic product of water?
23. Why does diamond acts a bad conductor
of electricity?
24. What is an allotropy?
25. What is a sulphitation?
26. Why do shaving soaps give slow drying
latter?
27. What are the advantages of hydrogen-
ation of oils?
28. What is saponification?
29. What are adhesives?
30. Write the names of any two chromop-
hores.
31. What are the uses of Micro fertilizers?
32. Sketch the structure of Aspirin drug
molecule.
33. What are the primary nutrients?
34. What is plastic?
35. What is the use of cullet to the raw
materials of glass?
June-2009
Group A Group B
1. Ester [ ] A) CH
3
CO CH
3
2. Acid [ ] B) C
2
H
5
NH
2
3. Alcohol [ ] C) CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
4. Ketone [ ] D) CH
3
OCH
3
5. Ether [ ] E) CH
3
COOH
F) CH
3
OH
G) CH
3
CHO
Answers: 1) C; 2) E; 3) F; 4) A; 5) D
March 2009
Group A Group B
1. Lauric Acid [ ] A) C
17
H
33
COOH
2. Stearic Acid [ ] B) CH
3
COOH
3. Oleic Acid [ ] C) C
17
H
29
COOH
4. Linlenic [ ] D) C
11
H
23
COOH
5. Acetic Acid [ ] E) C
17
H
35
COOH
Answers: 1) D; 2) E; 3) A; 4) C; 5) B
June 2008
Group A Group B
1. Carbon tetra chloride [ ] A) CHCl
3
2. Butane [ ] B) CH
4
3. Methane [ ] C) C
6
H
6
4. Chlorofom [ ] D) CCL
4
5. Benzene [ ] E) C
4
H
10
Answers: 1) D; 2) E; 3) B; 4) A; 5) C
March 2008
Group A Group B
1. Dimethyl ether [ ] A) CH
3
CL
2. Acetylene [ ] B) C
6
H
10
3. Chloromethane [ ] C) C
2
H
2
4. Benzene [ ] D) CH
3
-O-CH
3
5. Hexyne [ ] E) C
6
H
6
Answers. 1) D; 2) C; 3) A; 4) E; 5) B
April 2008
Group A Group B
1.Acetylene [ ] A) CH
3
CHO
2.Methyl alcohol [ ] B) HC=CH
3. Aldehyde [ ] C) CH
3
OH
4. Ketone [ ] D) CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
5.Ester [ ] E) CH
3
COCH
3
Answers: 1) B; 2) C; 3) A; 4) E; 5) D
June 2007
Group A Group B
1. Acetelen [ ] A) C
6
H
14
2. Acitic acid [ ] B) CH
3
OH
3. Glucose [ ] C) Ester
4. Methyl alcohol [ ] D) C
6
H
12
O
6
5. Hexane [ ] E) C
2
H
2
F) Base
G) CH
3
COOH
Answers. 1) E; 2) G; 3) D; 4) B; 5) A
Analysis Based On Last Five years Question Papers
Chemistry
Chapter March09 March08 March07 March06 March05
Atomic Structure 3 7 7 7 7
Chemical Bond 6 6 6 6 2
Periodic classification of Elements 4 4 4 4 4
Alkaline Earth Metals 1 1
Solutions 4 2 2 2 2
Acids, Bases and Salts 1 1 1 1 1
Chemistry of Carboncompounds 2 3 3 4 3
Carbohydrates, protiens 6 5 5 5 5
Oils and Fats 4 4 4 4 4
Chemistry and Industry 6 5 3 4 4
Physics
Chapter March09 March08 March07 March06 March05
Measurement of length 4 5 5 - 5
Our Universe and Gravitation 1 1 1 2
Kinematics 1 1 1
Dynamics 5 2 2 2 2
Electro magnetic spectrum 1 1 5 1
Sound 4 1 2 2 1
Light 2 4 4 4 4
Magnetism 8 3 2 3 3
Current Electricity 1 6 7 4 1
Modern Physics 5 7 7 8 7
Electronics 7 6 6 8 8
CHEMISTRY MATCHINGS
1 Mark Questions
Chemistry Q.P. Analysis IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
What are Adhesives?
: , r --.-- +a..oaa+a
12
SOME
CONSTANTS
q Least count of
a Screw gauge
= 0.01mm
q G = 6.67 10
11
Nm
2
Kg
2
q g = 9.8m/sec
2
(on earth)
q Mass of the earth M = 6 10
24
Kg
q Radius of the Earth r = 6.4 10
5
m
q The distance between moon and the earth
3.85 10
5
Km
q g value on Sun 27.4 m/sec
2
q g value on moon = 1.67m/sec
2
q Time period of a seconds pendulum = 2 sec
q Velocity of light in vacuum = 3 10
8
m/s
q Wave length of Sodium vapour lamp = 5893
q The band width of an ordinary laser is of
the order of 10
q The band width of a high quality laser is 10
8

q The wave length of Ruby laser is 6943

q The wave length of He -Ne laser is 6328
q Permeability of free space or vacuum
0
=
4 10
7
Henry/meter
q 1 Tesla = 10
4
Gauss
q The value of B
0
in AndhraPradesh is B
0
=
0.39 10
4
Tesla
q J = 4.185 Joules
q Mass of proton 1.0078 amu
q Mass of neutron 1.0087 amu
q 1 amu = 931.5 10
6
ev = 931.5 Mev
q 1 Mev = 1.6 10
12
J q 1 Kg = 9 10
16
J
q 1 Joule = 1.11 10
17
Kg
q Energy released in Nuclear fission = 200Mev
q The value of Energy gap for Pure silicon is
1.1ev
q The value of Energy gap for pure
germanium is 0.72ev
q The frequencies used in Radio
communication are 300KHz to 30 MHz
q The frequencies used in TV
communication are 30MHz to 300 MHz
q Planck's constant h = 6.625 10
27
erg sec
or 6.625 10
34
Joule .sec
q mass of electron m
e
= 9.16 10
31
Kg
q Charge of electron (e

) = 1.602 10
19
Coulomb
q e/m of electron = 1.76 10
11
C/Kg
q If PH < 7, Acid q If PH > 7, Base
q If PH = 7, Neutral
q Density of Diamond = 3.51 gm/cc
q Refractive index of Diamond = 2.41
q C C Bond length in Diamond = 1.54
q Bond angle in Diamond = 10928'
q Density of Graphite = 2.25gm/cc
q C C Bond length in Graphite = 1.42
q Bond angle in graphite = 120
q The distance between two successive
Graphite layers is 3.35
1. Pitch of the Screw = Distance traveled by
the tip of the screw/No. of rotations made
2. Least count of Screw gauge = Pitch of the
screw / No. of head scale divisions
3. Diameter of a wire using screw gauge (d)
= PSR + (HSR x LC)
4. Universal Gravitational constant
G = Fr
2
/m
1
m
2
5. Relation between G and g is g = GM/r
2
6. Weight of an object w = mg
7. Hook's law ll
0
/F = Constant
8. Maximum height reached by a vertically
projected body H = U
2
/2g
9. Time of Ascent t
1
= u/g
10. Time of descent t
2
= 2h/g of t
2
= u/g
11. Time of flight T = 2u/g
12. Velocity of a freely falling body on
reaching the ground V = 2gh
13. Relation between V, and is V = r
14. Angular momentum L = mvr or m r
2
15. Centripetal acceleration a = v
2
/r
16. Centripetal force F = mv
2
/r or m
2
r
17. Angle of banking Tan = V
2
/rg
18. Formulae to find 'g' using simple
pendulum is g = 4
2
l/T
2
19. Distance between a node and next
antinode is /4
20. Distance between two successive nodes or
two successive antinodes is /2
21. Velocity of sound in air from resonating air
column is V = 2(l
2
l
1
).
22. Relation between v, n, is V = n
23. :Laplace formula to find the velocity of
sound in air is V= P/
24. Length of air column at first resonance l
1
=
/4
25. Length of air column at second resonance
l
2
= 3/4
26. Inverse square law of magnetism F =
0
/4
. m
1
m
2
/r
2
27. Relative permeability
r
= /
0
28. Magnetic moment M = m 2l
29. Relation between B and H is B =
0
H
30. Magnetic field induction at a point on axial
line is
31. Magnetic field induction at a point on
equatorial line
32. Susceptibility = I/H
33. Current I = q/t
34. Potential Difference V = W/q
35. Ohm's law i=V/R
36. Effective resistance of two or more
resistors connected in series R = R
1
+ R
2
+
--------
37. Effective resistance of two resistors
connected in parallel R = R
1
R
2
/R
1
+ R
2
38. Specific resistance = RA/l
39. Heat produced due to passage of current
through a conductor is Q = i
2
Rt/J
40. Electrical power P = Vi
41. Electrical energy W= i
2
Rt
42. Faraday's First law of electrolysis m = Zit
43. Faraday's Second law of electrolysis
m
1
:m
2
:m
3
= E
1
: E
2
: E
3
. = Z
1
: Z
2
: Z
3
44. Magnetic induction at a point near a
straight current carrying conductor
B =
0
i/2r
45. Force on a current carrying conductor in a
magnetic field F = ilB
46. Faraday's law of electro magnetic
induction = N(dB/dt)
47. Inductance of a coil
48. Transformer rule n
1
/n
2
= v
1
/v
2
= i
2
/i
1
49. Bohr's quantum condition I = nh/2
50. Mass energy equivalence E = mc
2
51. Binding energy B.E. = m 931.5 Mev
52. Actinium series 4n+3
53. Uranium seires 4n+2
54. Neptunium series 4n+1
55. Thorium series 4n
56. Angular momentum mvr = nh/2
57. Total number of orbitals present in a given
stationary orbit = n
2
58. Total number of electrons in a given
stationary orbit = 2n
2
59. For a given l value, the number of 'm'
values are (2l+1)
60.
61.
62.
1/V in litres
weight of solute
Molarity(M)
gram molecular weight of solute
=
volume of solute
olume percentage 100
volume of solution
=
weight of solute
weight percentage 100
weight of solution
=
L
di / dt

=
0
3
M
B N/ A m
4 d

=

0
3
2M
B N/ A m
4 d

=

Important Formulae
A.Naga Raja Sekhar
Science Teacher,
ZPHS, Kothagudem
UNITS
QUANTITY UNIT
G Nm
2
Kg
-2
g m/sec
2
Mass (m) Kg (MKS), gm (CGS)
Weight (w) N(MKS), dyne (CGS)
Velocity (v) m/sec
Acceleration (a) m/sec
2
Angular displacement() Radian
Angular velocity() Radian/sec
Frequency Hertz
Solid angle Steradian
Luminous flux () Lumen
Luminous intensity (I) Candela(or)Lumen/Sr
Magnetic pole strength(m) Amp-meter(S.I),
Weber (MKS)
Magnetic moment(M) Amp-meter
2
(S.I)
Magnetic induction(B) N/Amp-meter(S.I),
Tesla(or)Weber/m
2
(MKS)
Intensity of magnetic Amp/Meter
field (H)
Magnetic flux () Weber
Magnetic susceptibility() No units
Permeability () Henry/meter
Relative permeability(
r
) No units
Intensity of magnetization(I) Amp/meter
Current (i) Ampere
Charge (q) Coulomb
Potential Difference(V) Volt
E.M.F(e) Volt
Electrical Resistance(R) Ohm ()
Specific resistance() Ohm-meter
Specific heat(s) Cal/gmC
Electric power(p) Volt-amp (or) watt
Mechanical equivalent Joules/Calorie
of heat (J)
Electrical energy(W) Watt-sec (or) KWH
Electrochemical Gm/Coulomb
equivalent(z)
Self inductance (L) Henry
Mutual inductance Henry
Conductance Mho/meter
Atomic mass unit Amu
Energy Ev
Planck's constant Erg.sec (or) Joule.sec
Ionization energy (e) Ev (or) K.cal.Mole
1
(or) K.Joule.mole
1
Atomic radius A
(or) atomic size
Electron Affinity Ev (or) K.cal.Mole
1
(or) K.Joule.mole
1
Electro negativity Pauling E.N.Scale
Concentration of Mol/lit
solution
Molarity Mol.lit
1
Mole fraction No units
Heat of Nuetralization K.Cal/mole
Ionic product of water(Kw) Mole. Ion
2
lit
2
Calorific value Cal/gm (or) cal/mole
Electro magnetic Wave length
radiation range
Visible spectrum 0.4m ----- 0.7m
Infra red spectrum 0.7m ---- 100m
Micro waves 10m ----10m
Radio Waves 1 metre ---- 100 k.m.
U.V.Spectrum 0.4m -----1 N.m
X-rays 0.01 ---100
Gamma rays 0.001----1
Some Alkanes
MethaneCH
4
Ethane C
2
H
6
Propane C
3
H
8
Butane C
4
H
10
Pentane C
5
H
12
Hexane C
6
H
14
Some Alkines
Ethene C
2
H
4
Propene C
3
H
6
Butene C
4
H
8
Pentene C
5
H
10
Hexene C
6
H
12
Some Alkenes
Ethyne C
2
H
2
Propyne C
3
H
4
Butyne C
4
H
6
Pentyne C
5
H
8
Hexyne C
6
H
10
FUNCTIONAL GROUP NAME EXAMPLE
-C - OH ALCOHOL CH
3
OH
-C- CHO ALDEHYDE CH
3
CHO
C = O KETONE CH
3
COCH
3
-C - COOH ACID CH
3
COOH
- -C- O - C ETHER CH
3
OCH
3
- C - NH
2
AMINE C
3
H
7
NH
2
-C - COOR ESTER CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
Functional Groups
Quick Review Written by
Physics & Chemistry Quick Review
Units
W W W . S A K S H I . C O M / V I D Y A / B H A V I T H A
.- =.-r.
.--.--:oe+aaa+a
Practice
Bits
Important
Questions
Marks
Weightage
Quick
Review
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
2
GEOGRAPHY SOILS CLIMATE
DPAP is the Abbrevation of?
1. The_____runs half way through the
country.
2. The English name of Sindhu river is
_____.
3. In Geographical area, India occupies _____
place in the world.
4. In India,_____state gets the earliest Sunrise.
5. Difference between Greenwich Meantime
and the Indian Standard time is _____
6. India's total land frontier is _____ kms.
7. India's total Coastline is _____ kms.
8. The Indian island closest to the Equator is
_____.
9. India is separated from Srilanka by _____
10. The smallest state in area is _____.
11. The state stands on three seas is _____.
12. The border country sharing the longest
boundary with India is _____.
13. The boundary line between china and India
is _____.
14. The biggest state in area is _____.
15. The longest coastal state is _____.
16. The total islands in India are _____.
17. Indian Union consists of _____ states _____
Union territories.
18. The _____ island located between India and
Srilanka.
19. _____ longitude is identified as the basis for
standard meridian in our country.
20. The capital of Nepal is _____.
21. The number of coastal states in India is
_____.
22. Andhra Pradesh has the coastline of____.
23. The number of countries that share the
common land frontiers with India _____.
24. Our nearest neighbour across the ocean
waters is _____.
25. The Minicoy island is the part of _____
Islands.
1. The Himalaya mountains are the young
____ mountains.
2. The Himalayas, Indo-Gangetic plains were
occupied by the ____ sea.
3. The Himalayas form India's northern
frontier from ____ state to ____ state.
4. The longitudinal distance of Himalayas is
____kms.
5. Greater Himalayas are also known as___
6. K2 mountain peak is in ____.
7. The highest mountain peak of the
Himalayas in India is ____.
8. Pamir Plateau is located in ____.
9. The longitudinal extent of the great plains in
India is ____.
10. The younger alluvium is known as ____.
11. Terai is a ____.
12. Bundelkhand upland is an extension of
____ plateau.
13. The peninsular plateau is slightly tilting
towards ____.
14. The highest peak of peninsular in India
____.
15. The Deccan plateau is bounded on north by
____.
16. ____ river flows through a rift valley.
17. ____ river and ____river head streams
formed the main stream of Ganga.
18. The highest peak in India is ____
19. The height of Everest mountain is ____.
20. The longest range in Himachal range is
____.
21. The south-west ward extension of Pir Panjal
range is ____.
22. The popularise hill stations are situated in
____range.
23. The outer Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh
are called as ____.
24. The valleys which are separate the Siwalik
range from the Himachal mountains are
called as ____.
25. The ____ are responsible for causing
rainfall in the plain during summer and
monsoon type of climate in the country.
26. The pebble studded zone porous beds is
known as ____.
27. The older alluvium of the flood plain is
called the ____.
28. The tidal forests are called ____.
29. The highest peak in the Aravalli range is
____.
30. The eastern part of Satpura range is called
the ____ plateau.
1. India receives bulk of its rainfall
from _____ monsoon gives.
2. The retreating monsoon gives abundant
rainfall to _____ coast.
3. The monsoon burst first takes place in
coastal areas in _____.
4. The word 'monsoon' has been derived from
the Arabic word _____.
5. The highest temperature recorded in _____
state.
6. In summer _____ pressure system develops
on the land surface of India.
7. The Indian agriculture is referred to as a
gamble in the _____.
8. The rainfall is less than 75 percent of the
normal is called _____.
9. DPAP is the abbreviation of _____.
10. The Government of India launched the Nat-
ional flood control programme in _____.
1. _____ State is having the largest
area under forest.
2. Sandal wood is produced mainly in _____
forests.
3. The tidal forests are also known as _____
forests.
4. Sundarbans are named after the _____ tree.
5. Teak is abundantly grown in _____ forests.
6. Alpine vegetation is found in _____
7. _____ percentage of land is required to
maintain ecological balance.
8. The forest area in the country accounted for
_____percent in the total geographical area.
9. Economically, most important- forests in
India is _____.
10. The highest concentration of forest land is
in _____.
1. The older alluvium is called as _____ in
India.
2. The newer alluvium is known as_____in
India.
3. The alluvial soils are rich in_____, _____.
4. The tropical chernozems in India are called
as _____.
5. _____ soils are moist clayey and moisture
retentive.
6. Laterite Soils are characterised by leaching
away of _____.
7. Immatured soils genereally found in _____.
8. Red Soils derived form the weathering of
_____ rocks.
9. _____ soils developed due to deposition of
sediments.
10. The average annual removal of top soil per
hectare in India through erosion process is
_____ Tonnes.
11. _____ type of soil erosion is most prevalent
over Chambal region.
12. Washing away of the fertile top most layer
of the soil by natural causes is called _____.
13. _____soils are well known for their fertility.
1. India _____ most populous country
in the world.
2. During 1991-2001 the highest growth rate
was registered in _____ state while the
lowest in _____.
3. The average density of population in India
in 2001 was _____.
4. The state with the lowest density of
population _____.
5. The rank Andhra Pradesh in the level of
Urbanisation is _____.
6. The state with maximum Urban population
is _____.
7. As per 2001 census the rate per thousand
births was _____.
8. During 1991 - 2001, the average rate of
population growth in India was _____.
Bit bank written by
B.Srinivasa Rao
Sr. Teacher,
Torrur, Warangal
The Locational and
Spatial Setting of India
Physical Features-
Relief and Drainage
Answers:
1. Tropic of Cancer; 2. Indus; 3. Seventh; 4.
Arunachal Pradesh; 5. 5
1
/
2
hours; 6. 15,200; 7.
6,100; 8. The Great Nicobar; 9. The Gulf of
Mannar and the Palk strait; 10. Goa; 11.
Tamilnadu; 12. China; 13. MacMohan Line;
14. Rajasthan; 15. Gujarat; 16. 247; 17. 28, 7;
18. Pamban; 19. 82 1/2 East; 20.
Kathmandu; 21. 9; 22. 972 kms; 23.7; 24.
SriLanka; 25. Lakshadweep.
Answers:
1.South-West;2.Western;3.Kerala; 4.Mausam;
5.Rajasthan; 6.Low; 7.Monsoons; 8.drou gh;
9. Drought Prone Area Programme; 10. 1954
Answers:
1. Bhangar; 2. Khadhar; 3. lime, Potash; 4.
Black / Regur Soils ; 5. Black; 6. Silica ; 7.
mountains; 8. Crystalline and metamorphi; 9.
Alluvial; 10. 16.4; 11. Gully; 12. Soil erosion;
13. Black.
Climate
Soils
Answers:
1. Fold; 2. Tethys; 3. Jammu Kashmir, Aruna-
chal Pradesh; 4. 2400; 5. Himadri ranges; 6.
Karakoram range; 7. K2; 8. Trans Himalayas;
9. 3200 kms; 10. Khadar; 11. Marshy land
under the Bhabar Zone; 12. Malwa; 13. East;
14. Anaimudi; 15. Satpura mountain range;
16. The Narmada; 17. Alakananda Bhagirathi;
18. Mt. Everest; 19. 8,848 mts; 20. Pir Panjal;
21. Dhula Dhar range; 22. Himachal; 23.
Mishmi hills; 24. Duns; 25. Himalayas; 26.
Bhabar; 27. Bhangar; 28. Sundarbans; 29.
Gurusikhar; 30. Maikal.
Answers:
1. Madhya Pradesh; 2. Tropical Moist
Deciduous; 3. Sundarbans/Mangrove; 4.
Sundari; 5.Karnataka; 6. Upper Himalayas; 7.
33; 8. 20.55; 9. Tropical moist deciduous
forests; 10. Arunachal Pradesh.
Natural Vegetation Population
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
3
9. The state with highest population is _____.
10. The least populous state is _____.
11. According to 2001 census,Arunachal Prade-
sh has recorded as the lowest density of
population with _____ persons per sq.km.
12. The percentage of population living in
villages in our country is _____.
13. The largest proportion of rural population
state is _____.
1. Inundation canals depend entirely
upon ____.
2. Tank irrigation is more prevalent in ____.
3. Perennial canals draw their water from ____
4. Most of the tanks in India are ____.
5. An Inundation canal can provide water only
during ____.
6. The Bakra-Nangal projects is located in the
state of ____.
7. The benefits of Kosi project shared by ____
8. Damodar project is administered by ____
9. Hirakud project constructed across the river
____.
10. The Tungabhadra project is a joint venture
of ____ and ____.
11. The main source of water supply for
Agriculture of India is ____ rainfall.
12. ____ provide the most widely distributed
source of irrigation for agriculture in the
country.
13. The maximum hectarage under tank
irrigation in ____ state.
14. The highest intensity irrigation is found in
____ state.
15. Hydro-electricity is known as ____.
1. ____ is the back-bone of Indian economy.
2. Agriculture contributes about ____ of the
Gross Domestic Product of the country.
3. The average land holding in India is ____
hectares.
4. The kharif crop season extends from ____.
5. Kharif, Rabi and ____ are crop seasons in
our country.
6. Development of agriculture by the modern
scientific methods known as ____.
7. ____ is the leading crop in our country.
8. The well-known crop, which is the poor
man's food is ____.
9. The winter crop season is known as ____.
10. During south-west monsoon the crop
season is known as ____.
11. The modernisation of agriculture refers to
____ farming.
12. The tribal agriculture is called as ____.
13. New agricultural strategy for the increase of
food grain production is referred to ____.
14. The nature of cropping in India is
predominantly ____ oriented one.
15. Wheat is largely grown in ____ season.
16. The crop which is predominantly grown in
deltas and river valleys ____.
17. The largest cultivated area found in ____
cultivation.
18. The crops which are used for inter-culture
are ____.
19. Sugarcane is ____crop.
20. Jute cultivation is predominant in____ state.
21. Tea cultivation requires ____ climate.
22. Coffee cultivation requires ____ climate.
23. Black soils are favourable for the
cultivation of ____.
24. Natural rubber cultivation is predominant in
____ state.
25. Estuaries fisheries are apart of____
fisheries.
1. Aluminium is produced from _____.
2. The larger Mica reserves are found only
_____, which is essential for electronic
industries.
3. Most of the iron ore deposits are located in
the _____ rocks.
4. Mica an indispensable mineral in _____
industry.
5. The maximum energy producing mineral in
India is _____.
6. The important iron ores of India are _____.
7. The important state for gypsum production
is _____.
8. Diamonds are richly available in _____.
9. India is _____ in copper production.
10. The important lignite coal field is _____
11. Thorium and Uranium are richly found in
_____sand deposites.
12. Lead and zinc occur in association among
_____.
13. 25 percent of world's total _____ reserves
found in our country.
14. Zinc is used with copper for the
manufacture of _____.
15. India is the largest _____ producer and
exporter in the world.
1. The largest industry in the country is _____.
2. The first cotton mill was set up near _____
in 1818.
3. _____ is the principal raw material of cotton
textile Industry.
4. India is the largest producer of _____
products in the world.
5. Indian_____is well known all over the
world.
6. Within the country _____ state holds the
monopoly in silk production.
7. Silk industry is predominate in _____ state.
8. The Mazagaon Dock is located at _____
9. Important oil refinery in the western coast is
_____.
10. Chota Nagpur industrial region is oftenly
compared to _____ of west Germany.
11. Most of the steel plants were established
under _____ sector.
12. _____ and _____ are the foremost cotton
textile manufacturing states in India.
13. Rourkela steel plant was set up with the
assistance of _____.
14. The first cement factory in India was built at
_____.
15. Limestone is the chief raw material from
_____ industry.
16. The biggest oil refinery in India is located at
_____.
17. Jute Industry is largely concentrated along
the _____ river.
18. In Andhra Pradesh, _____ industry is
situated at Nellimarla.
19. The _____ industry is a basic industry for
the rapid industrialisation of India.
20. _____ started the first iron and steel factory
in our country.
21. TISCO stands for _____.
22. The visveswaryya Iron and steel factory
was set up by the company of _____.
23. Bhilai steel plant is in _____ state.
24. The Bokaro steel plant obtains hydel
electricity power from _____ project.
25. _____is the largest producer of cement in
India.
1. _____ provide the most important means of
transport in the country.
2. The first railway line was laid in the year of
_____ in the country.
3. In Broad gauge railway line, the width
between two tracks is _____.
4. The states _____, which is no rail
network.
5. Indian railways are under _____.
6. In India, railway network makes avery
dense pattern in the areas of _____.
7. _____ state has the largest rail route length.
8. Door to door collection and delivery of
goods possible in _____ transport.
9. National Highway - 7 is running from
_____ to _____.
10. Air transport is the _____ and _____ mode
of modern transport.
11. International air services will be run by
_____
12. The important navigable canal in southern
India is _____.
1. Musi river is flowing in the
amidst of ____.
2. The most famous pilgrim centre in south
India is ____.
GEOGRAPHY MINERAL RESOURCES AGRICULTURE
Agriculture
The Important Lignite Coal Field?
Mineral Resources
Answers:
1. Flood water; 2. Deccan plateau; 3. Storage
reservoirs; 4. Andhra Pradesh; 5. Rainy
season; 6. Himachal Pradesh; 7. India, Nepal;
8. Damodar Valley Authority; 9. Mahanadi;
10. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka; 11. Monsoon;
12. Wells; 13. Andhra Pradesh; 14. Punjab;
15.White coal
Answers:
1. Bauxite; 2. India; 3. Archaean; 4. Electrical
and electronic; 5.Coal; 6. Hematite, Magne-
tite; 7. Rajasthan; 8. Madhya Pradesh; 9. Def-
icient; 10. Neyveli; 11. Monazite; 12. Crystal-
line Schist rocks; 13.Iron; 14.Brass; 15. Mica.
Irrigation and Power
Answers:
1. Second; 2. Nagaland, Kerala; 3. 324; 4.
Arunachal Pradesh; 5. Fifth; 6. Mahara-shtra;
7. 8.9; 8. 21.34%; 9. Uttar Pradesh; 10.
Sikkim; 11. 13; 12. 72.2; 13. Himachal
Pradesh.
Answers:
1. Agriculture; 2. 30%; 3. 1.7; 4. June to
October; 5. Zayad; 6. Green Revolution; 7.
Paddy; 8. Ragi; 9. Rabi; 10. Khariff; 11.
Hybrid; 12. Jhumming/shifting cultivation;
13. Green Revolution; 14. Food Grain; 15.
Rabi; 16. Paddy; 17. Paddy; 18. Pulses; 19.
Tropical cash; 20. West Bengal; 21. Warm and
moist tropical; 22.Hot and humid trop-ical;
23. Cotton; 24.Kerala; 25. Estuarine.
Industries
Answers:
1. Textile Industry; 2. Kolkata; 3. Cotton ; 4.
Jute; 5. Silk; 6. Karnataka; 7. Karnataka; 8.
Mumbai Port; 9. Mumbai High; 10. Rhur
region; 11. public; 12. Maharashtra, Gujarat;
13. Germany; 14. Chennai; 15. Cement; 16.
Mathura; 17. Hooghly; 18. Jute; 19. Iron -
Steel; 20. Jamshedji Tata; 21. Tata Iron and
Steel Company; 22. America; 23. Chhattis-
garh; 24. Damodar Valley; 25. Tamilnadu.
Transport and
Communications
Answers:
1. Railways; 2.1853; 3. 1.69mts.; 4. Megha-
laya, Sikkim; 5.Public Sector; 6. North Indian
Plains; 7. Uttar Pradesh; 8. road; 9. Varanasi,
kanyakumari; 10. Costliest, quickest; 11. Air
India Lmtd; 12. Buckingham canal.
Places of Interest
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
4
GEOGRAPHY, ECONOMICS Problems of Indian Economy Indian Economy
3. New Delhi is situated on the bank of ____
river.
4. Ooty is also called as____.
5. ____ is the paradise among the world's
tourist resorts.
6. Hyderabad is the ____ most populous city in
India.
7. Capital city of Karnataka state is ____.
8. Delhi is a ____city.
9. Summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir
state is ____.
1. ____ is the man-made port.
2. ____ port is located on the cross roads of
east-west.
3. ____ port is located on the bank of the
Hooghly river.
4. Natural harbours are found along a fairly
____ coastline.
5. The biggest port in terms of seaborne trade
is ____
6. The number of major ports on east coast
____.
7. ____ major seaports located along the
coastline of India.
8. ____does not have loading and unloading
facilities.
9. The major ports are governed by the central
government under the ____ Act.
10. The minor ports are administered by____.
11. The biggest port located at west coast is
____.
12. The river based port is at ____.
13. Kolkata port is located on the left bank of
the river ____.
14. Second largest port in the country is ____.
15. A major port located in Andhra Pradesh is
____.
1. ____ is the single largest item of import.
2. ____ are the largest group of exports.
3. ____ are the most important countries in
Asia for the destination of exports.
4. The volume of imports in agricultural
products is ____.
5. ____ products are important within the
agricultural goods exports.
6. ____is the largest buyer country of Indian
goods.
7. Our major source of imports from ____
countries.
8. The foreign trade of a country consists of
both exports and imports is known as ____.
1. The countries of _____ continent used to
import the Indian products in larger quanti-
ties during 17
th
and 18
th
centuries.
2. _____Revolution had brought about radical
changes in agriculture, manufacturing,
animal husbandry and transport etc.
3. D.R.Gadgil termed the economic exploitat-
ion in India as_____ during the British rule.
4. Indigenous industries in India faced a stiff
competition from industrially manufactured
goods of _____.
5. As far as economic development is
concerned, India is a _____ one.
6. Cottage Industries, small scale and small
sectors of industry are referred to as the
_____ of the economy.
7. Britisher's economic exploitation of Indians
is termed as _____ by Dadabhai Naoroji.
8. In India a substantial labour force and out
put is located in _____ Sector.
9. _____ refers to large scale industrial Units
and agricultural units with a defined system
of production and employment.
10. Indian agriculture mostly depends on _____
for cultivation.
11. _____ occurred from the month of June to
September provided much rain water to the
Indian agriculture.
12. There are three important crop seasons in
Indian agriculture such as 1. _____ 2. Rabi
and 3. Zayad.
13. The main crops of wheat, jowar, maize and
pulses are mainly grown in _____ season in
India.
14. According to 2001 population census nearly
_____ percentage of population live in rural
area.
15. Manufacturing of computers and TVs are
located in _____ sector.
16. Zamindari system was introduced in India
during East India company rule by _____.
17. Under _____ system the land belonged to a
small group of families who are powerful in
that region and also responsible for paying
rent to the state.
18. Income earned through wealth and property
is called _____.
19. According to 2001 census the National
literacy rate is _____.
20. Inheritance of wealth and_____to the people
of one generation to another generation is
the main reason for economic disparities in
India.
21. In _____ economic system the supply of
goods and services are organised by private
firms and public enterprises.
22. The industrial units which are managed by
the government are called _____.
23. A_____economic system is characterised by
the presence of private enterprises in the pr-
oduction and supply of goods and services.
24. _____ economic system is one where
production and supply of goods and services
are organised by the public enterprises.
25. The _____ sector is that where the firms are
jointly owned by the private individuals and
the government.
26. In _____ economic system the prices of
commodities are determined by the market
forces of supply and demand.
27. In_____economy the production and supply
of goods are organised by the public
enterprises.
28. One of main economic problems of Indian
economy is _____.
29. In _____ system the land belonged to the
individual peasants.
30. Centralised planning is main characteristic
of _____ economy.
1. _____ is one of the important criteria to
know whether the country is developed or
undeveloped.
2. GNP per capita is used as an index of _____
of any economy.
3. According to UNO of 1986 those countries
whose per capita is less than $350 belonged
to _____.
4. During sixth Five year plan the people of
rural areas lived below the poverty line as
they spent only _____ per month for
minimum food items.
5. India's per capita income in 1995 is _____
6. The problem of poverty is more felt in
_____ than in Urban areas.
7. NREP means _____.
8. _____ Unemployment means even if the
individuals are prepared to work at
prevailing rate, they do not get jobs.
9. According to the organisation of Economic
co-operation and Development in 1986 the
countries whose per capita is less than $425
came in to the category of _____.
10. The people whose per capita income is
below the per capita expenditure are termed
as the _____.
11. The _____ employment is the phenomena
that existed in developed countries.
12. _____ was the first economist who noticed
the difference between involuntary
employment and voluntary employment.
13. The marginal productivity is zero in the
_____ employment.
14. According to the World Bank Report of
1997 the per capita income of developed
countries is more than _____ dollars.
15. Both _____ employment and _____
employment are rampant is rural India.
16. According to National Sample Survey of
India, the people are under employed
whose working hours are less than _____
per week.
17. India adopted a policy for ''balanced
regional development'' during _____ Five
year plan.
18. As per composite index of regional
development_____ stands first in our
country.
19. The structural inflation is noticed in _____.
20. The Regional plans were adopted for the
backward regions of Telangana and
Rayalaseema in _____.
21. At present "Health for All" programme is
changed to health for _____.
22. Asustained rise in general level of prices of
all commodities is called _____.
23. According to an indicator of industrial
growth _____ ranks first in our country.
24. A rise in the price level, is caused due to an
increase in costs, is called _____ inflation.
25. The concept of _____ inflation is applicable
to India.
26. India stands _____ in the world as far as the
secondary education system is concerned.
India's Per Capita Income in 1995?
International Trade
Problems of Indian Economy
Answers:
1. Hyderabad; 2. Tirupathi; 3. The Yamuna; 4.
Udagamandalam; 5. Srinagar; 6. Fifth; 7.
Bangalore; 8. Cosmopolitan; 9. Srinagar.
Answers:
1. Petroleum, 2. Manufactured goods; 3.
Japan, Singapore, Hong Kong, Thailand; 4.
Considerably low; 5. Marine; 6. America; 7.
OPEC; 8. Foreign Trade.
Answers:
1. Chennai; 2. Cochin; 3. Kolkata; 4.
Indented; 5. Mumbai; 6. Six; 7. 12; 8.
Harbour; 9. Major Port Trust; 10. State
Government; 11. Mumbai; 12. Kolkata; 13.
Hooghly; 14. Chennai; 15. Visakhapatnam.
Answers:
1. European; 2. Industrial; 3. Economic drain;
4. Britain; 5. Developing; 6. Un Organised; 7.
Plunder of economic wealth; 8. Organised
Sector; 9. Organised Sector; 10. Rain water;
11. South west Monsoons; 12. Kharif; 13.
Rabi; 14. 72%; 15. organised; 16. Cornwallis;
17. Mahalwari; 18. Un earned; 19. 65.38; 20.
Property; 21. Capitalistic; 22. Public enterpri-
ses; 23. Capitalistic; 24. Socialistic; 25. Joint;
26. Capitalistic; 27. Socialist; 28. Economic
in equality; 29. Rayatwari; 30. Socialist.
Sea ports and Towns
Characteristics of Indian
Economy
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5
27. _____ programme was introduced to bridge
the gap between major, medium and minor
projects.
28. Income inequalities were measured by
_____.
1. The Occupations which are included in the
_____ sector are agriculture, fishing,
mining and all other related activities.
2. The working population is more in _____
sector than other two sectors of Secondary
and Tertiary.
3. The share of agriculture in National income
is meagre in _____ countries.
4. The industries,small and big, construction
activity find their place in _____ sector.
5. Only_____percentage of American
populat-ion derive their livelihood from
Agriculture.
6. Presently _____ percentage of the people
depend on agriculture in India.
7. The Occupations which are generated in
Banking, commerce and communications
come under the _____ sector.
8. The living conditions of marginal farmers
in the rural areas get improved, if the _____
will be implemented along with the
increasing rural credit.
9. The abolition of all systems of land tenure
had paved the way for the _____ to get the
right of the ownership of the land.
10. The better water management influenced
_____ revolution in India.
11. Since the productivity per acre is in small
forms is greater than the large ones, so there
is an _____ relationship between form, size
and productivity.
12. The increase in_____ production is
attributed to the form technology and better
methods of production.
13. The _____ inequalities have been increased
due to green revolution in India according
to some people.
14. The _____ industry is defined as those
firms with capital investment not exceeding
Rs. 35 lakhs.
15. The pattern of share holding with in a firm
is known as _____.
16. FERA means _____.
17. If the equity holding of foreign nationals is
more than 40 percent of total equity in a
firm. That firm is regarded as a _____.
18. _____ Sector is considered important in
Indian industry as the foreign exchange
reserves are said to be scarce.
19. The_____industries are those which
provide inputs to all industries and
agriculture.
20. The manufacturing of machine tools,
engineering goods, electrical equipment
and automobiles come under the category
of _____ goods industries.
21. The intermediate goods industries are those
which produce goods used in the _____
process of other goods.
22. The industries which do not produce the
final goods come under the category of
_____ goods industries.
23. There are ups and downs in the industrial
growth sector during the period from _____
to _____ in India.
24. _____ as a central Bank is having monetary
authority in the country.
25. All the Scheduled commercial banks funct-
ion as per the rules and regulations
of_____.
26. The industries which produce comsumera-
ble goods like TVS, textiles, cosmetics
are termed as _____ goods industries.
27. The Share of industries in the national
income in India is less compared with the
_____ countries.
28. As the strength of economy depends upon
the growth of industry and agriculture, the
growth of service sector indicates the
direction of _____ in India.
29. The industries and business sectors got its
funds from _____ finance.
30. The government encouraged _____
investment in communication sector as per
Telecommunication policy of 1994.
1. The first five year plan started in the year
_____ .
2. Removal of poverty (Garibi Hattavo) is the
main objective of_____five year plan.
3. At present _____ five year plan is in
progress in India.
4. One of the important failures of Five years
plans is failure in achieving reduction in
_____
5. Before introduction of Five year plans in
India, the Industrial policy of _____ paved
the way for economic development in India.
6. The _____ state policy of the Indian
constitution defined the objectives of Socio
- economic policy.
7. The Indian planning commission was
constituted in the year _____.
8. Economic_____ is that strategy and
mechanism to achieve set goals in definite
time frame with allocation of funds.
9. The main objective of Indian planning is to
achieve _____ or achieving of high standard
of living.
10. The general objectives of Indian planning
have been primarily to achieve economic
growth with _____ and _____.
11. One of the objectives of Indian planning is
to reach the benefits attained through the
implementation of five year plans to the
_____ classes of society.
12. The main objective of first five year plan is
to increase productivity in the _____.
13. The top priority was given to to
industrialisation during_____ five year plan.
14. The Annual plans were being implemented
during the period form _____ to _____.
15. The Janata Government stopped the
implementation of _____ five year plan in
the year 1978.
16. _____five year plan was introduced twice in
India.
17. The chairman of planning commission of
India is _____.
18. The vice- chairman of Indian planning
commission is _____.
19. Annual plans for the second time were
implemented during the period_____.
20. Food grains production, employment and
productivity are the main objectives of
_____ Five year plan.
21. The duration of First five plan is from _____
22. 7th five year plan period _____.
23. Integrated speedy development is the main
objective of _____ five year plan.
24. At present the chairman of the planning
commission of India is _____.
25. Duration of 11
th
five year plan was_____.
26. The aims and objectives of five year plans
have not been fulfilled due to incomplete
implementation of _____ reforms.
27. Since the starting of the five year plans
_____ sector has been given priority till to
day.
28. The five year plans are being implemented
on _____ and _____ lines.
29. The achievement of _____ is the main
objective of third five year plan.
1. _____used to say ''had there been no Rouss-
eau, there would have been no Napoleon''.
2. Napoleon sowed the seeds of nationalism in
_____.
3. In 1804, Napoleon got coronated as the
emperor of _____.
4. Napoleon introduced the famous _____
system in order to defeat England.
5. The Leipzig war in 1813 was called the
_____.
6. Napoleon died in the _____ Island [(or) St.
Helena].
7. The convenor of the congress of Vienna was
_____.
8. 1830 Revolution occurred in France during
the period of _____.
9. 1830 Revolution inspired National spirit in
Germany,Poland, Spain, Portugal and_____.
10. The 1830 revolt brought success to the revo-
lutionaries only in the countries of _____.
11. 1848 revolt occurred in France during the
period of _____.
12. Louis Phillips minister who made people
disgusted through his conservative reaction-
ary and corrupt practices was _____.
13. The Congress of Vienna was held in the year
_____.
14. Metternich was the chancellor of _____.
15. Napoleon Bonaparte was born at Ajaccio in
the island of _____.
16. According to guiding principles of Vienna
Congress, under the principle of _____, no
country could threaten another one.
17. The decision of the congress of Vienna sown
the seeds of _____ movements in Europe.
ECONOMICS, HISTORY
National Movements Planning
Congress of Vienna Held in the Year?
Answers:
1. GNP Per capita; 2. Relative Economic
Development; 3. Low income Group
countries; 4. Rs 65; 5. Rs. 340; 6. Rural Areas;
7. National Rural Employment Programme;
8. Involuntary Unemployment; 9. Low
income Countries; 10. The poor; 11.
Voluntary; 12. John Maynard Keynes; 13.
Disguised; 14. $ 9,386; 15. Disguised and
Open; 16. 14 hours; 17. Third; 18. Punjab; 19.
Latin America; 20. 1970; 21. Underprivile-
ged; 22. Inflation; 23. Maharashtra; 24. Cost
Push; 25. Demand Pull; 26. Second; 27. Com-
mand Area Development; 28. Lorenz Curve.
The Structure of the
Indian Economy
Answers:
1. Primary; 2. Primary; 3. Developed or adva-
nced; 4. Secondary; 5. 2; 6. 58; 7. Tertiary; 8.
Land reforms; 9. Tenants; 10. Green revoluti-
on; 11. inverse; 12. Wheat; 13. Regional; 14.
Small scale; 15. Equity; 16. Foreign Exchan-
ge Regulation Act; 17. Foreign Sector; 18.
Foreign; 19. The Capital goods; 20. Capital
goods; 21. Production; 22. Intermediate; 23.
From 1960 to 1970; 24. Reserve Bank of
India; 25. RBI; 26. Consumer; 27. Developed;
28. Modernisation; 29. Industrial; 30. Private.
Planning: Achievements
and Failures
Answers:
1. 1951; 2. 4
th
; 3.11
th
; 4. Economic inequ-
alities; 5. 1948; 6. Directive Principles of; 7.
1950; 8. Planning; 9. Socialistic pattern of
society; 10. Stability and distributional just-
ice; 11. Depres-sed or under privileged; 12.
Agriculture; 13. Second; 14. 1966 - 69; 15. 5
th
five year plan; 16. 6
th
five year plan; 17. The
Prime Minister of India; 18. Montek Singh
Ahluwalia; 19. 1990 - 92; 20. 7
th
5 year plan;
21. 1951 - 1956; 22. 1985 - 90; 23. 11
th
five
year plan; 24. Dr. Manmohan Singh;25. 2007-
2012; 26. Land reforms; 27. Agriculture; 28.
Democratic and egalitarian; 29. Self- reliance
National Movements
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
6
HISTORY Contemporary World Imperialism
18. "Whenever France Sneezes, _____ catches
cold" is one of the proverb.
19. Louis Phillip described himself as "_____
king".
20. Theirs, a historian, was the leader of the
_____ party.
21. After the revolt of 1848, under the
leadership of _____, France became
Republic country in place of monarchy.
22. Under the leadership of _____ Hungarians
revolted.
23. The result of Napoleon's work was that the
complicated political, geographical map of
_____ was made easy.
24. Under the French patronage, Napoleon
formed the "Confederation of the _____"
with the small regions of Germany.
25. _____ was removed from the Prussian civil
services with the remark of deficiency in
discipline.
26. Bismark believed in _____.
27. Bismark's Policy was based on _____.
28. The unification of Germany was completed
in the year of _____.
29. The Secret revolutionary organisation_____
was started in Naples and spread through
Italy.
30. Majjini founded the_____, a revolutionary
Society.
31. _____started a news paper, "Risorgimento".
32. _____attracted by 'Young Italy' and joined it
33. First United German Emperor was _____.
34. An army of _____ known as 'Red shirts',
founded by Garibaldi.
35. _____, wrote of the society where no man
possessed any private property.
36. The principle of right to work was
advocated by _____.
37. 'Communist Manifesto' was written by____
38. The first international was held in the year
_____.
39. Paris Commune was established in the year
_____.
40. At the time of Paris Commune, the Emperor
of France was _____.
1. The third stage of capitalism is
known as _____.
2. _____ said ''Imperialism is the highest stage
of capitalism''.
3. The Imperial countries spread the ideology
of the _____ burden for offering civilisation
to backward people.
4. The Scottish missionary who explored
Africa in 1840 was _____.
5. Congo was discovered by _____.
6. The king who convened a conference of all
European states in 1879 to discuss the issue
of Exploration of Africa was _____
7. _____ made treaties with the native chiefs
of Africa.
8. King Leopard - II of _____ took up the title
of Sovereign of Congo.
9. In 1811_____, the ruler of Egypt declared
Independence.
10. Ismail Pasha, the ruler of Egypt sold his
shares of Suez Canal to _____.
11. Under the leadership of _____, the Arab of
Egypt revolted against the foreign
intervention on Egypt.
12. The_____also known as Boers, the settlers
of Africa.
13. _____ contemplated to establish British
Empire in South Africa.
14. The English settlers were called _____ in
Transvaal in south Africa.
15. _____ revolution was origin of Imperialism.
16. In the Boers revolt against England, the
other European power who showed
sympathy with Boers was _____.
17. _____ was the first country to fall prey to
the Europeans.
18. The European power to gain the final
control over Indonesia was _____.
19 _____ were the first to develop trade with
India.
20. The Battle of Buxar occurred in _____.
21. Chinese emperor_____says that ''we posse-
ss all things;I set no value on strange things.
22. _____ was winner of the opium wars.
23. The ancient name of Srilanka was _____
24. Opium grown in_____was smuggled to
china.
25. _____ believed that they possessed every
thing they needed.
1. The growth of _____ of Germany
causes English people restless.
2. First Industrialised country in Europe is
_____.
3. With Imperialism, Britain established a vast
empire on which ''the sum _____".
4. Russians encouraged pan-_____ movement.
5. The murder of _____, the crown prince of
Austria by a Serb precipated the crisis
became First World war.
6. World war - I began in _____ and lasted till
_____.
7. With the withdrawal of_____, Central
powers gained.
8. The treaty of Versailles was signed in the
year _____.
9. The Czar who was assassinated by Nihilists
in 1894 was _____.
10. The last of the Czars who was made to
abdicate the throne was _____.
11. The Russian leader who advocated for the
continuation of war by Russia to a speedy
and honorable conclusion was _____.
12. The architect of the league of Nations was
_____.
13. Treaty of Versailles was entered in to
between the allied powers and _____.
14. The terms of the Treaty of Versailles were
humiliating to _____.
15. President _____ of America proposed for
the establishment of the league of Nations.
16. The headquarters of the league of Nations
was established at _____.
17. _____ failed to restrain Hitler's invasions.
18. _____ was stamped out by Socialism later
in Russia.
19. Teachings of Marx were popularised by
Novelist _____.
20. Lenin original name was Vladimir Illich
_____.
21. Lenin edited _____ , the party news paper.
22. _____ formed the Bolshevik party in
1903.
23. Bolsheviks were concluded the treaty of
_____ with Germany in 1918.
24. The Old Russian Calendar is _____ days
behind the present Russian Calendar.
25. USSR means _____.
1. After the conclusion of world war-I,
under the leadership of ____ in Germany,
dictatorial government emerged.
2. Japan became very powerful with a slogan
of ____.
3. ____ started a newspaper Il Popolo 'd' Italia.
4. Mussolini founded ____ party.
5. Fascism was opposed to democracy, ____
and liberalism.
6. King ____ invited Mussolini to form the
government.
7. Mussolini joined hands with Hitler and
signed an anti ____ pact.
8. "War is to a nation what maternity is to
women" was the principle advocated by
____.
9. The author of Mein Kampf was ____.
10. The Russo-Japanese war was fought over
the conflict of interests in the region of
____.
11. Hitler got attracted to the teachings of
philosopher, ____.
12. Hitler joined the workers party and gave a
new name to the party, as ____ party.
13. Hitler was an anti-____.
14. In____, Hitler became the president of
Germany.
15. Under Hitler's dictatorship rule, the famous
scientist ____ left Germany.
16. Through Land-lease Bill, America agreed to
give all-out assistance to ____.
17. Robert Mugabe became the first president
of ____ in 1980.
18. In 1894 the China-Japanese war ended with
the treaty of ____.
19. Manchuria was called the____of the Far
East.
20. Japan entered into Second World War with
an attack on the ____.
21. America's joining on the side of ____
decided their victory in the war.
22. American president Harding took a stand of
____.
23. American president____promised a new
deal.
24. U.S.A. joined the Second World War by
signing of ____ charter.
25. ____ introduced a programme of five year
plan in Russia.
26. Hitler declared that ____were his arch
enemies.
27. Turkey was touched by the humiliation met
by the treaty of ____.
28. ____ slogan was 'Turkey for the Turks'.
29. ____ failed to achieve world peace.
30. In opposition to leaning, a revolt broke out
in Spain under the leadership of ____.
31. The ____ war was commented as "a dress
rehearsal for a greater drama soon to be
played on an ampler stage".
Third Stage of Capitalism is Known As?
Contemporary World Imperialism World up to the world war-II
Answers:
1. Naval Power; 2. Britain; 3. Never set; 4.
Slave; 5. Ferdinand; 6. 1914, 1918; 7. Russia;
8. 1919; 9. Alexander; 10. Nicholas - II;11.
Kerensky; 12. Woodrow wilson; 13.
Germany; 14. Germany; 15. Woodrow
wilson; 16. Geneva; 17. The League nations;
18. Nihilism; 19. Maxim Gorky; 20. Ulyanov;
21. Iskra; 22. Lenin; 23. Brest litovsk; 24. 13;
25. Union of Socialist Soviet Republic.
Answers:
1. Imperialism; 2. Lenin; 3. ''white man's bur-
den'' ; 4. Livingston; 5. Cameroon; 6. Leop-
ald-II; 7. Stanly; 8. Belgium; 9. Mohammad
Ali; 10. England; 11. Arabi Pasha; 12. Dutch;
13. Cecil Rhodes; 14. Outlanders; 15. Industr-
ial; 16. Germany; 17. India; 18. Netherlands;
19. Portuguese; 20. 1764; 21. Cheinlung; 22.
England; 23. Ceylon; 24. India. 25. Chinese.
Answers:
1. Napoleon; 2. Italy; 3. France; 4. Contine-
ntal; 5. Battle of Nations; 6. Rocky; 7. Met-
ternich; 8. Charles - X; 9. Italy; 10. France,
Belgium; 11. Louis Phillip; 12. Guizot; 13.
1815; 14. Austria; 15. Corsica; 16. Balance of
Power; 17. Nationalist; 18. Europe; 19.
people's; 20. Reform; 21. Louis Blanc; 22.
Kossuth; 23. Germany; 24. Rhine; 25.
Bismark; 26. Autocracy; 27. "Blood and
Iron"; 28. 1871; 29. Carbonary; 30. Young
Italy; 31. Count Cavour; 32. Garibaldi; 33.
William-I; 34. 1000; 35. Thomas Moore; 36.
Louis Blanc; 37. Karl Marx; 38. 1864; 39.
1871; 40. Napoleon- III.
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
7
32. Hitler's attack on ____ was the immediate
cause for the out break of the world war-II.
33. ____ was shot by Italians themselves.
34. On 6th August,1945 the bombs were thrown
which destroyed ____, ____ towns in Japan.
35. The world war-II ended with the victory of
____on ____.
36. The Second World War roused the vigour of
nationalism in countries of ____.
37. The proposals of ____ plan aimed for
reconstruction of Europe economy.
38. At the____conference of 1944, was drawn
up the draft proposal of the UNO.
39. ____ succeeded in turning the Anti-Manchu
agitation into a republican movement.
40. The communists proclaimed the People's
Republic of China on ____ in China.
41. In 1927, the Indonesian Nationalist Party
was founded by ____.
42. The South African white government
followed a policy of ____.
43. The South-West Africa was renamed as
____by the United Nations.
44. The old name of Zambia was ____.
45. South Rhodesia became Independent in
1980 under a new name ____.
46. The liberation struggle in South America
was initiated by Simon Boliver a native of
____.
47. In Mexico, the serious national sentiment
was roused under the leadership of ____.
48. Dan Padro won independence to ____
without any struggle or war.
49. Sun-Yet-Sen belongs to ____ party.
50. SWAPO full form is ____.
1. The _____ formed under the
leadership of U.S.A., and the _____ formed
under the leadership of U.S.S.R.
2. The two rival systems of alliances gave
birth to a war of tension called as _____
3. _____ was a proposal to send military and
economic aid to Greece and Turkey.
4. _____ was an extension of Truman doctrine.
5. Western Europe countries signed on the tre-
aty of____to____check Russian influence.
6. _____ was a defensive organisation against
the Soviet bloc.
7. NATO means _____.
8. Warsa treaty was organised by _____.
9. _____ was the architect of Non - alignment
movement.
10. Palestine problem was a struggle between
Arabs and the Jews.
11. _____ plan was initiated as a countermove
to the Marshall plan by Russia.
12. In opposition to the NATO organised by
America,_____treaty agreement for the
European Communist countries was
proposed by Russia.
13. The Asian - African conference of 1955 was
known as the _____ conference.
14. _____inaugurated the Bandung Conference.
15. _____ of Egypt also attended the Bandung
conference.
16. Egypt's president _____ announced
nationalisation of Suez Canal.
17. The Indonesian Islands of Java, Sumatra
were the colonies of _____.
18. The Supreme allied commander during the
world war - II was _____.
19. _____ fought for independence of Vietnam.
20. Yugoslavian statesman _____ preferred to
maintain a neutral foreign policy.
21. _____was the first American president to be
elected for more than two terms of office.
22. Roosevelt's wife _____ served as
chairperson of United Nations Human
Rights commission.
23. British Prime Minister _____ was captured
by the Boers in South Africa but made a
spectacular escape.
24. _____ was the first soviet ruler to visit USA.
25. Khrushchev removed Stalin's body from
_____ side and got buried elsewhere.
26. _____ was the author of panchasheel
agreement.
27. _____ published an article "A study of
Physical Culture".
1. Indus Valley civilisation existed in India
around _____ B.C.
2. The Urban centers of Indus civilisation
discovered by_____department excavations
in 1921 -22.
3. Harappa is located in the Montgomery
district of _____ state.
4. The _____ at Mohenjo-Daro was a striking
example of city culture.
5. Excavation work of Indus valley civilisation
was first carried out by_____.
6. Temples at Mahabalipuram were built by
_____.
7. In Aryans period, there were_____
Janapadas.
8. The _____ produced Vedic literature.
9. The Rigveda, the Yajurveda, the Samaveda
and the _____ were the four Vedas.
10. The_____culture of the south was interwo-
ven with the _____ culture of the North.
11. During the _____ rule, we found the achie-
vement of political administrative unity in
our country.
12. The art of the kanishka period is called
_____.
13. _____ and curled hair were the distinctive
features of Gandhara art.
14. _____ art got inspiration from Jain
religion.
15. Lotus were most admirably represented in
the _____ schools of art.
16. The brick temple at_____ in Uttarpradesh
belonged to the Gupta period.
17. Tanjore Brihadeshwara Temple built by
_____.
18. The Biggest Nataraja image in the country
is at _____.
19. The construction of Qutubminar was
completed by _____.
20. The immediate cause of the Sepoy Mutiny
was the use of _____.
21. The British who succeeded in abolishing the
practice of sati in India was _____.
22. The European country which held
Monopoly over India trade during 16th
century was _____.
23. Hoyasala monuments of Hoyasaleshwara
temple are located at _____.
24. _____ were built by SrikrishnadevaRaya.
25. _____ laid foundation of Indo - Persian
school of painting.
26. _____ gave patronage to Mughal miniature
painting.
27. Indo - Persian architecture was patronised
by _____.
28. The Red fort in Delhi was built by _____.
29. _____ was appointed as the librarian by
Jalal -ud - din khilji in Delhi.
30. _____permitted Hindus in to the Madarasas.
31. Aryabatta, a famous astronomer lived
during the _____ period.
32. _____ is regarded as very ancient Native
Indian language.
33. Annual Hindu mela started by _____
awakened nationalism among Bengalis.
34. Ganapati festival, Shivaji festival were
started by _____.
35. Swami Vivekananda participated in the
parliament of world religions held in 1894
at _____.
36. The most popular among the early Christian
Missionaries was _____.
37. _____ established the Serempur College in
Bengal.
38. With the help of _____, Lord Bentik
succeeded in abolishing the practice of sati.
39. The deposed princess of native states joined
in the 1857 revolt due to the panic created
by Annexationist policies of _____.
40. The 1857 revolt began at _____.
41. The 1857 revolt was called as _____.
42. According to 1858 Act the head of the
Indian government was called the _____.
43. In Chandra Gupta Vikramadithy's court
there were _____ the poets.
44. _____ court was adorned by Ashtadiggajas.
45. Plasi war held in _____.
HISTORY Cultural Heritage of India World after World War-II
Warsa Treaty Was Organised by ?
Answers:
1. Hitler; 2. Pan-Asianism; 3. Mussolini; 4.
Fascist; 5. Socialism; 6. Victor Emmanuel-III;
7. Comintern; 8. Mussolini; 9. Hitler; 10.
Manchuria; 11. Nietzsche; 12. Nazi; 13. Jew;
14. 1934; 15.Albert Einstein; 16. England; 17.
Zimbabwe; 18. Shemonosheki; 19. Granary;
20. Pearl Harbour; 21. Allies; 22. Isolation;
23. Roosevelt; 24. Atlantic; 25. Stalin; 26.
Communists; 27. Sevres; 28. Musthafa Kemal
Pasha's; 29. League of Nations; 30. General
Franco; 31. Spanish civil; 32. Poland; 33.
Mussolini; 34. Hiroshima, Nagasaki; 35.
Allied powers, Axis powers; 36. Africa, Asia;
37. Marshall; 38. Dumbarton oaks; 39. Sun-
Yet-Sen; 40. 1949; 41. Sukarno; 42.
Apartheid; 43. Namibia; 44. North Rhodesia;
45. Zimbabwe; 46. Venezuela; 47. ButoJarez;
48. Brazil; 49. Koumintang; 50. South West
African People's Organisation.
The world after world war-II
Answers:
1. Western Power bloc, Eastern Power bloc; 2.
Cold war; 3. Truman Doctrine; 4. Marshall
plan; 5. Brussels,check; 6. NATO; 7. North
Atlantic Treaty organisation; 8. Russia; 9.
Jawaharlal Nehru; 10. The Jews; 11. Maltov;
12. Warsa; 13. Bandung; 14. Sukarno; 15.
Nassar; 16. Nassar; 17. Dutch; 18. Eisenhow-
er; 19. Ho chi Minh; 20. Mar- shall Tito; 21.
F.D.Roosevelt; 22. Eleanor; 23. Winston Chu-
rchill; 24. Nikitakhrush- chev; 25. Lenin's; 26.
Jawaharlal Nehru; 27. Mao-Tse-Tung.
Cultural Heritage of India
and Intellectual Awakening
Answers:
1. 2500BC; 2. Archaeological; 3.Punjab; 4.
Great Bath; 5.Sir John Marshall; 6. Narsimha-
varma; 7. 16; 8. Aryans; 9. Atharwana Veda;
10. Dravidian, aryan; 11. British; 12. Gandha-
ra; 13. Facial features; 14. Mathura; 15. Ama-
ravati; 16. Bitargaon; 17. Raja Raja Chola; 18.
Chidambaram; 19. Iltutmish; 20. Enfield Riff-
les; 21. William Bentik; 22. Portugal; 23.
Halebadi; 24. Vitala Temple and Hwara Ram-
aswamy Temple; 25. Akbar; 26. Jahangir; 27.
Shahjahan; 28. Shahjahan; 29. Amirkhusrav;
30. Akbar; 31. Gupta; 32. Sanskrit; 33.Gopal
Mitra; 34. Tilak; 35. Chicago; 36. William
Keri; 37. William Keri; 38. RajaRamMohan
Roy; 39. Dalhousie; 40. Meerut; 41. first war
of Indian independecne; 42. Vic-eroy; 43.
Navaratnas; 44. The vijayanagar; 45. 1757.
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
8
HISTORY, CIVICS Indian Democracy Freedom Movement
1. ____ and ____ were started under
the editorship of Balagangadhar Tilak.
2. Amrit Bazar Patrika was started under the
editorship of ____.
3. ____formed the Indian Association in 1876.
4. M.V. Raghavachari, G. Subrahmanya Iyer
founded the ____.
5. Indian National Congress first session was
held at ____.
6. Indian National Congress formed in the
year of ____.
7. A.O. Hume aimed to provide a ____valve to
growing discontentment among the Indians.
8. Dadabhai Naoroji has brought out the
____theory.
9. The main objective of the extremists was
the attainment of ____.
10. ____ reforms, which came in the form of
the 1909 act.
11. The partition of Bengal in 1905 by ____.
12. The ____ movement was launched in
response to the partition of Bengal.
13. The hymn of Vandematharam was written
by ____.
14. ____ toured Andhra regions in the part of
spreading vandematharam movement.
15. Bengal Swadeshi Chemical stores organised
by ____.
16. Prafulla Chaki and ____ threw a bomb on a
carriage carrying Kingsford.
17. Dyarchy was introduced at the provinces
under ____ act.
18. Provincial autonomy was introduced by
____ act.
19. The chairman of the constitution-drafting
committee for India was ____.
20. ____ sacrificed his life in the struggle for
creation of separate Andhra Province.
21. The state that was incorporated into Indian
Union through police action was ____.
22. The Indian Muslims started ____
movement against British in India.
23. In 1916 Annie Besant started her____ is
Madras.
24. The head quarters of Theosophical society
was at ____.
25. ____ organised his home rule activities in
Maharashtra.
26. Annie Besant was elected as the president
of INC for the ____ session in 1917.
27. The____act authorised the government to
imprison any person without trial and
conviction.
28. Mahatma Gandhi was born on 1869 at____.
29. In 1916, Gandhi founded the ____ashram at
Ahmedabad.
30. Gandhi fought against____system at
Champaran.
31. Jallianwala Bagh was a garden place at
____.
32. Khilafath movement was launched on ____.
33. Tilak ____ fund was started to finance the
non-cooperation movement.
34. Gandhiji took very serious view of the ____
incident and called off the non-cooperation
movement.
35. Khilafat Swaraj party president was ____
36. In____, the British appointed Simon
commission to inquire into the working of
the reforms of 1919 act.
37. The Nehru report declared____as the goal.
38. Gandhi started the civil disobedience
movement with his famous ____.
39. In 1930, the First Round Table conference
held at ____.
40. Gandhi -Irwin pact was signed in ____.
41. Gandhiji protested against the ____ award
declared by Mac Donald.
42. Gandhi and Ambedkar signed on
____ pact.
43. In 1940, ____declared "August offer'.
44. ____ proposed a constituent assembly after
the world war.
45. Gandhi gave a ____slogan in the part of
Quit India Movement.
46. The Muslim league founded in ____.
47. I.N.A. means ____.
48. The prime minister of England ____ sent a
cabinet mission to India in 1946.
49. In ____ Gandhiji was assassinated.
50. India became Republic in ____
1. According to population census of
2001, the population of India was ____.
2. India is____ populous country in the world.
3. Telugu stands ____ place in the languages
of the world.
4. So far,____ languages have been recognised
by the Indian constitution.
5. National language of our country is ____.
6. At present there are ____ states and ____
union territories is our country.
7. The drafting of the Indian constitution was
completed in the year ____.
8. ____ gives the right to the citizens to
approach the court of law to safeguard other
fundamental rights.
9. Every citizen gets his right to vote after
completion of ____ years.
10. The Union Territories are directly
administered by ____.
11. ____ is the largest state in India.
12. As per 2001 population census ____
percentage of the people are Hindus.
13. According to the government agencies, app-
roximately there are ____ castes in India.
14. The____of our constitution reflects the ide-
als of the modern state in democratic age.
15. The chief characteric of ____ is all are equal
before law.
16. ____ means separation of religion from the
state affairs.
17. Social justice is to be achieved by
implementing ____ system.
18. The real sovereignty lies in the ____ is
Indian democracy.
19. The state is called republic when its head is
elected by ____.
20. There is no place for____in democratic set
up.
21. No political party is allowed to beg the
votes by using ____ symbols.
22. According to the Directive Principles of
state policy the accumulation of ____
should be in the hands of a few.
23. Practise of untouchability is a ____ in India.
24. ____ is the salient feature of National
Integration.
25. The religion of ____ stood for the equality
of all the races in the ancient times.
26. The expansion of IAS is ____.
27. The feeling of____ is the basic
characteristic of National Integration.
28. India was called ____ during ancient times.
29. The name India is derived from river ____.
30. Indian constitution provided for ____
structure of the government in India.
1. The word "Democracy" is derived
from the Greek words of ____ and ____.
2. In all modern democratic countries, the
governments are ____ in nature.
3. According to____ democracy is the
government of the people, by the people,
and for the people.
4. Electorate means ____.
5. Democracy means ____.
6. The powers of democratic governments are
____ by a constitution.
7. The opinion of the ____ is given much
importance in democratic countries.
8. Right to vote means ____
9. Providing right to vote to everyone of
eighteen years age above without taking any
consideration of caste, zender, region and
religion is called ____.
10. If the representatives of the people elect
someone to a public position, it is called
____ election.
11. If the elections are held at regular intervals
to elect the representatives of the people for
Loksabha and State Assemblies is called
____elections.
12. For the first time, the elections were
conducted to local bodies in ____.
13. The right of choosing the representatives is
called the ____.
14. The Electoral Roll means ____.
15. The minimum age for a candidate to contest
for Loksabha Election is ____.
16. The election officer who conducts the
election at constituency level is called ____.
17. The officer who conducts the polling at
booth level is called ____.
18. The first General Elections were held in the
year ____.
19. According to the article of 326 of the
constitution, the elections to the Loksabha
and State Assemblies should be held on the
basis of ____.
20. There is a ____ government in India.
21. The upper house of our parliament is ____.
22. The members of Legislative Assembly are
elected ____.
23. Gram panchayaths and municipalities are
called ____.
24. ____ takes the responsibility of conducting
the elections in India.
25. The election of any elected member is being
cancelled by a court of law, if he resorted to
____ in the election.
26. The polling agents do have the right to
challenge the ____ of the voter on behalf of
the contesting candidate.
27. The party which is not in power, but seeking
to capture political power with people's
mandate is called an ____.
28. In our country the Sixth General Elections
The First Round Table Conference Held at?
Freedom Movement in India
Answers:
1. 102.7 crores; 2. The second; 3. 16th; 4. 22;
5. Hindi; 6. 28,7; 7. 1949; 8. The right to con-
stitutional remedies; 9. Eighteen; 10. The cen-
tral government; 11.Rajasthan; 12. 82%; 13.
6748; 14. Preamble; 15. Rule of law; 16. Sec-
ularism; 17. Reservations; 18. People; 19. The
people; 20. Dictatorship; 21. Religions; 22.
Wealth; 23. Crime; 24. Unity in Diversity; 25.
Buddhism; 26. Indian Administrative Service;
27. Oneness and belonging; 28. Bharath
Varsha; 29. Indus; 30. Federal.
Answers:
1. Kesari, Maratha; 2. Sisir Kumar Ghosh; 3.
Surendranath Benarji; 4. Madras mahajana
sabha; 5. Bombay; 6. 1885; 7. Safety; 8.
Drain; 9. Swaraj; 10. Minto-morely; 11. Lord
Curzon; 12. Vandematharam; 13. Bankim
Chandra Chatterji; 14. Bipin Chandrapal; 15.
P.C. Roy; 16. Kudiram Bose; 17. 1919; 18.
1935; 19. Ambedkar; 20. Potti Sri Ramulu;
21. Hyderabad; 22. Khilafat; 23. Home rule
league; 24. Adayar; 25. Tilak; 26. Calcutta;
27. Rowlatt; 28. Porbandar; 29. Sabarmati;
30. Tinkathia; 31. Amritsar; 32. August, 1920;
33. Swaraj; 34. Chauri Chaura; 35. Chittaranj-
an Das; 36. 1927; 37. Complete Swaraj; 38.
Dandi March; 39.London; 40. 1931; 41. Com-
munal; 42. Poona; 43. Lord Linlithgo; 44.
Cripps; 45. Do or Die; 46. 1906; 47. Indian
National Army; 48. Atlee; 49. 1948; 50. 1950.
India As a Nation
Indian Democracy
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
9
were held in the year ____.
29. To get elected by getting votes through the
malpractices is termed as an ____.
30. The political parties announce their ____
before the elections.
1. ____ and ____ play an important role in the
development of the individual and society.
2. The number of illiterates are more in ____
than any country in the world.
3. According to 2001 population census, the
female literacy rate in India is ____.
4. The literacy rate of Andhra Pradesh in the
year 2001 is ____.
5. The state which has got the lowest literacy
rate is ____.
6. The National Educational Policy of ____
provided free education for school going
children.
7. In the state of Andhra Pradesh out of 100
children only ____ children are completing
their schooling.
8. The national literacy mission was started in
the year ____.
9. In 1947 India was divided into two parts on
the basis of ____.
10. Communalism is a ____ attitude.
11. Andhra state was formed in the year ____
12. The fundamental right which has provided
the right to live is ____
13. Minimum marriageable age for girls is
____.
14. The Anti-Dowry Act came into existence in
the year ____.
15. The rit of ____ provides a remedy for illegal
detention of a person.
16. ____ is coming in the way of development
and communal harmony and unity of the
nation.
17. ____ is constituted for the welfare of the
minorities.
18. Right to religion is a ____ right in our
country.
19. The article of ____ of our constitution
empowered the minorities to safeguard their
languages, religions and the culture.
20. According to____article of our constitution,
the linguistic and religious minorities are
allowed to establish ____ institutions.
21. Andhra Pradesh was formed in____.
22. According to ____there is not only a
division of labour but also the division of
labourers in India.
23. The word "The scheduled castes" was first
mentioned in the act of ____.
24. "Untouchability is a sin" according to ____.
25. The article____of constitution provided for
the eradication of untouchability in India.
26. In India____ percentage of the people
belong to scheduled caste groups.
27. The living conditions of scheduled castes is
better than the living conditions of____ in
India.
28. Only ____ percentage of female children
are completing their secondary education in
the rural areas.
29. Dowry system can be eradicated, if the
____get a half-share in the parental property
30. Prevention of Domestic Violence Act was
introduced to give the protection to ____.
31. Those who are below 14 years of age are
called ____.
32. Article ____ of our constitution prohibits
the employment of children in the
hazardous work in the factories.
1. The member countries of UNO in the year
2002 ____.
2. The first prime minister of independent
India is ____.
3. ____ is defined as a set of guide lines for
protection and promotion of national
interests in the international arena.
4. ____ was formed under leadership of earlier
Soviet Russia.
5. Refusal to align either with the communist
bloc or the non-communist bloc and to
pursue an independent neutral policy in the
international arena is called ____.
6. Bangladesh came into existence in the year
____.
7. Indo-Soviet Treaty was signed in the year
____.
8. Expand the abbreviation NPT ____.
9. The African country which practised the
apartheid was ____.
10. The name of the boundary line between
Tibet and India is ____.
11. The Indo-Chinese war was fought in the
year ____.
12. The U.S.A. had maintained ____ in the
Indo-Pak war in 1965.
13. India supported the cause of ____ in the
Arab Israel war in 1967.
14. CTBT means ____.
15. The final picture of SAARC was emerged at
the summit of ____ in 1985.
16. The UNO charter was ratified at the conf-
erence held at the city of____in USA.
17. The UNO came into existence in ____.
18. The UNO Day is ____.
19. The USSR was disintegrated in the year
____.
20. ____ was an association of countries which
were ruled by the British crown.
21. The commonwealth summit was held in the
year 1983 at ____.
22. ____ problem is the main impediment in the
relations between Pakistan and India.
23. India played an important role in South Asia
and____ played an important role in East
Asia.
24. The Panchasheel agreement reached
between ____ and ____.
25. SAARC means ____.
26. The agriculture information centre of SAA-
RC was established in the country of ____.
27. The event of the demolition of Babri Masjid
happened in the year ____.
28. The tenure of a judge of International court
is ____.
29. The percentage of the forest area of India
in the world forest area is ____.
30. The number of permanent members of
UNO is ____.
31. IMF means ____.
32. ____ conference held in the year 1973
paved the way for the formation of New
International Economic order.
33. The bonding summit was held in the year
____.
34. The developing countries which have got
freedom recently are called as ____ world
countries.
35. India supported the stand of ____ in the
Suez canal crisis.
36. Allied powers founded UNO as the ____
failed to preserve international peace.
37. The primary responsibility of security
council is ____.
38. The number of non-permanent members in
the UNO is ____.
39. The permanent member countries of
security council do have ____ power.
40. IBRD means ____.
41. The main objective of Willy Brandt
commission is narrowing the gap between
the ____ and the ____ nations.
42. The head-quarters of International court of
justice is ____.
43. UNESCO means ____.
44. IBRD is also called ____.
45. India served UNO as a non-permanent
member during the years ____.
46. The first country which raised the issue of
apartheid in the UNO Assembly was ____.
47. India has got____membership in the ILO
48. UNCTAD means ____.
49. The universal declaration of Human Rights
was approved by UNO in the year ____.
50. UNICEF is also called ____.
51. To bring about the reforms in the
international economic structure, the
economically backward countries proposed
____ order.
1. Traffic management mainly depends
on ____.
2. The road accidents can be avoided by using
____ in a disciplined way.
Indo-Soviet Treaty was Signed in?
CIVICS Traffic Education Challenges Facing our Country
Answers:
1. Demos and Kratia; 2. Representative; 3.
Abraham Lincoln; 4. The list of voters; 5. The
rule by the people; 6. Limited; 7. The people;
8. Right to choose representatives; 9. Univer-
sal adult franchise; 10. Indirect; 11. General;
12. 1884; 13. The right to vote, franchise or
suffrage; 14. The list of registered votes; 15.
25years; 16. Returning officer; 17. Presiding
officer; 18. 1952; 19. The universal adult Fra-
nchise; 20. Parliamentary form of; 21. Rajy-
asabha; 22. Directly; 23. Local bodies; 24.
Election commission of India; 25. Malpractic-
es; 26. Genuinity; 27. An opposition party;
28. 1977; 29. Election malpractice; 30.
Manifesto's.
Challenges facing our
country today
Answers:
1. Literacy and education; 2. India; 3.
54.16%; 4. 61.11; 5. Bihar; 6. 1986; 7. 43; 8.
1988; 9. Religion; 10. Narrow; 11. 1953; 12.
Right to Freedom; 13. 18 years; 14. 1961; 15.
Habeas corpus; 16. Communalism; 17.
Minorities commission; 18. Fundamental; 19.
Article 29; 20. Article 30; 21. 1956; 22. Dr.
Ambedkar; 23. 1935; 24. Mahatma Gandhiji;
25. Article 17; 26. 18%; 27. Scheduled tribes;
28. Nine; 29. The girls; 30. Women folk; 31.
Children; 32. 24.
India, United Nations and
World Problems
Answers:
1. 191; 2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru; 3. Indian
Foreign Policy; 4. Socialist bloc; 5. Non-
alignment; 6. 1971; 7. 1971; 8. Nuclear-Non-
Proliferation Treaty; 9. South Africa; 10. Mac
Mahon; 11. 1962; 12. Neutrality; 13. Arab co-
untries; 14. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty;
15. Dhaka; 16. San Francisco; 17. 1945; 18.
October24, 1945; 19. 1991; 20. Commonwe-
alth; 21. New Delhi; 22. Jammu & Kashmir;
23. China; 24. India and Pakistan; 25. South
Asian Association for Regional Co-operation;
26. Bangladesh ; 27. 1992; 28. 9 years; 29.
1%; 30. Five; 31. International Monetary
Fund; 32. The Algiers; 33. 1955; 34. Third;
35. Egypt; 36. The League of Nations; 37.
Preservation of International Peace; 38. Ten;
39. Veto; 40. International Bank for Reconstr-
uction and Development; 41. Rich and the
poor; 42. The Hague; 43. United Nations Edu-
cational Scientific Cultural Organisation; 44.
The World Bank; 45. 1991-92; 46. India; 47.
Permanent; 48. United Nations Confer- ence
on Trade and Development; 49. 1948; 50.The
united Nations Children's Fund; 51. The New
International Economic Order.
Traffic Education
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
10
SOCIAL STUDIES IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Name Important Peaks of Himalayas..
3. The vehicles are not supposed to enter the
roads where ____ sign boards appear.
4. Don't stop the cycle without ____.
5. The cyclist is supposed to slowdown his
vehicle at ____.
6. The overtaking of any vehicle is to be done
from ____ only.
7. For driving of power-driven vehicles, one
should have driving ____.
8. The driver of a vehicle should keep his veh-
icle at three ____ distance from front one.
9. ____ is very dangerous while riding two
wheeler.
4 Marks Questions
1. What is a sub-continent? Explain how India
can be called as Sub- continent?
2. Describe the importance of the Himalayas?
3. Name the Physiographic units of India and
briefly explain their formation?
4. Compare Coastal plains of east and west?
5. Describe the Thornthwaite's classification
of climatic regions in India?
6. Describe mechanism of monsoon in India?
7. Describe the ecological and economic
significance of forests?
8. Examine the need for forest development in
India?
9. What are the different form of soil erosion
and their occurrence in India?
10. What are the main causes of the rapid
population growth in India?
11. What are the problems of "population
explosion"?
12. What is the need for irrigation development
in India?
13. What do you mean by a multipurpose
project? Mention its main objectives?
14. Distinguish between major, medium and
minor irrigation projects?
15. Explain the important characteristic
features of Indian agriculture?
16. What are the problems of Indian
agriculture?
17. Describe the importance of agriculture in
India?
18. What are the important mineral belts
identified in the country?
19. Describe the silent features about the
distribution of important minerals?
20. what are the favorable factors for the
development of cotton textiles in and
around Mumbai and Ahmedabad centers?
21. What are major industrial regions in India?
22. What are the advantages of road transport
system?
23. Why the means of transport and communic-
ation are called the life lines of country?
24. Name the different types of roads?
25. What are the natural scenic beauties of
Srinagar?
26. Describe the important aspects of Delhi
city?
27. Give the important advantages of Mumbai
to become the largest port in the country?
2 Marks Questions.
1. How many coastal states are there in our
country? What are they?
2. What are the extreme places of our land
frontiers?
3. What is the geometrical location of India?
Where does India rank in area among the
countries of the world?
4. Name the countries which share frontiers
with India?
5. Name important peaks of the Himalayas?
6. What is meant by"monsoon burst or break"?
7. Give a brief account on major problems of
rainfall in India?
8. Distinguish between maritime climate and
continental climate with examples?
9. How many seasons are recognized in India?
What are they?
10. Briefly explain the major forest types and
their distribution in India?
11. Explain the spatial distribution of forest
land in India?
12. What is soil erosion? What are the agents of
soil erosion?
13. What are the important measures of soil
conversation?
14. What are the characteristics of alluvial soil?
15. Describe the significance of soils for
economic development of a region.
16. What is density of population? What are the
high rural and urban populated areas?
17. Distinguish between perennial and
inundation canals?
18. what are the three important regions of
hydro-power?
19. What is Green revolution? Explain its
objectives?
20. Explain the significance of livestock in
country's economy?
21. Explain the significance of mineral
resources of a country?
22. Classify the minerals on the basis of their
availability in the country?
23. Why the location of sugar industry is
strictly confine to very close vicinity of
sugarcane growing area?
24. Important steel plants in the country?
25. Different means of communications?
26. Explain the significance of air transport?
27. Explain historical significance of
Hyderabad?
28. Distinguish between a harbor and port?
29. What are the problems faced by the Kolkata
port?
30. What is foreign trade? Why it is a must?
31. Who are the important buyers of Indian
goods?
1 Marks Questions.
1. How is the name india derived?
2. What is Mac Mohan Line?
3. How many states and Union Territories are
in India?
4. What is "pass"?
5. What is "Dun"?
6. What is plain?
7. Name the three major river systems of the
Great Plains?
8. What is "Terai"?
9. What is Monsoon?
10. Define "Drought"?
11. What are the two important methods of
climatic classification?
12. Name the important forest based industries?
13. What is "sheet erosion"?
14. What do you mean by "Bhangar"?
15. Which is the highest population state in our
country?
16. What is intensity of irrigation?
17. Which states are administered with joint for
"Bhakra-Nangal Project?
18. Where was Hiracud project located?
19. What is live stock?
20. Name the important crops of commercial
agriculture?
21. What are the important geographical condit-
ions required for the growth of "paddy
22. What are the fuel minerals?
23. Name the four atomic minerals?
24. Expand IREDA?
25. Write any two minerals which India has
exportable surplus?
26. What is industrial region?
27. Name the raw materials required for iron
and steel industry?
28. Expand TISCO.
29. What are the challenges of Indian railways?
30. Where is the Rajiv Gandhi International
Airport?
31. Where was Ooty situated?
32. Expand IGNOU.
33. Expand BHEL.
34. What is meant by man-made port?
35. What do you understand by the direction of
foreign trade?
4 Marks Questions
1. What are characterstics of Indian economy
during the British period?
2. Distinguish various economic systems?
3. What are the reasons and forms of land
tenure which gave rise to unequal Socio-
economic structure in India?
4. Distinguish between less developed and
developed economies?
5. What are the factors causing regional
inbalances? Explain the indicators of
regional disparities?
6. Describe the occupational structure of the
Indian economy?
7. Explain the significance of service sector in
Indian economy?
8. Explain the relationship between farm size
and productivity in Indian agriculture?
9. What are the achievements and failures of
planning?
2 Marks Questions
1. What is an organised sector?
2. What is the meaning of the unorganised
sector?
3. Role of monsoons in India agriculture?
4. Explain different concepts of inflation?
5. Differentiate involuntary and voluntary
unemployment?
6. Explain various programmes launched by
government for promotion of employment?
7. What is the role of banking and financial
institutions in India?
8. What is the role of public sector in Indian
Industrialisation?
9. What is economic planning?
10. What are the general and specific objectives
of planning in India?
1 Mark Questions
1. How do you measure income inequalities?
2. What is meant by 'Earned Income'
3. Define poverty line?
4. Expand the term SFDA?
5. What is the full form of NREP?
6. What do you mean by poverty?
7. Name important problems of afflicting the
Indian economy?
8. What do you understand by Human
Development Index?
9. What do you mean by FERA?
10. Define Basic industries?
11. Name the types of finance in financial
systems?
12. Expand RBI?
13. What was the main objective of third five
year plan?
14. Who is the chairman of India Planning
Commission?
4 Marks Questions
1. Give an account of the role played by
bismark In the unification of Germany
Answers:
1. Traffic education; 2. Safety cautions; 3. No
entry; 4.Signaling; 5.Zebra crossing; 6. Right;
7. Licence; 8. Feet; 9. Applying sudden break
Important Questions
Geography
Economics History
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
11
SOCIAL STUDIES
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Forms and Methods of Imperialism
2. Bring out the way how Italy achieved unifi-
cation under leadership of Sardinia state?
3. What were the causes for the out break of
1848 revolution in France?
4. To what extent can you attribute Charles-
X's responsibility for the out break of 1830
revolt in France?
5. What are the factors responsible for the rise
of imperialism?
6. What are the forms and methods of
Imperialism?
7. What were the terms of Teraty of
Versailles?
8. What were the results of first world war?
9. What were the causes for the out break of
world war-2?
10. What were the political and economic
consequences of the world war -2?
11. Asses the role of UNO in preserving world
peace?
12. What were the problems of disarmament
Movement?
13. Give an account of Revolt of 1857?
14. Give an account of the factors contributing
for the cultural unity of India?
15. Write about Characteristic features of
Indian History?
16. Give a brief account of Indus Valley
civilization?
17. Bring out the factors that contributed to the
growth of national consciousness in India?
18. Discuss the significance of Vandemataram
Movement in India?
19. Explain the role of Gandhiji in Indian
national movement?
20. Write an account on the Non-co-operation
movement?
2 Marks Questions
1. What do you understand byEMS Telegram?
2. Write a short notes on Karl Marx?
3. Write a short notes on Louis Blanc?
4. What were the guiding principles of
Congress of Vienna?
5. How did Europeans succeed in colonizing
China?
6. Write a short note on Opium Wars?
7. What are the resources in Indonesia that
attracted by Europeans?
8. What were the aims of League of Nations?
9. Write a short notes on secret alliances?
10. Explain about Marshall Plan?
11. What do you mean by Spanish civil war?
12. Write a short note on Fascism?
13. Write short note on Maltov plan?
14. write about the Bandung conference?
15. Write about the Cuban Crisis?
16. What is meant by Non-Alignment?
17. Write a short note on Bhakthi Movement?
18. write briefly about south Indian Temples?
19. What was the impact of English education
on Indians?
20. What were the contributions of Moguls to
Indian architecture?
21. Give an account on Quit India Movement?
22. Write a short note on Drain Theory?
23. Give an account on salt sathyagrah?
1 Marks Questions
1. What do you mean by Red Shirts?
2. What is first international?
3. Who was the founder of the Young Italy?
4. What was called the battle of nations?
5. Define White Man's Burden?
6. What is Imperialism?
7. What was the immediate cause of World
War-1
8. What is meant by aggressive nationalism?
9. What was the Balkan issue?
10. Give an account on Lenin?
11. Expand SWAPO
12. Define Nazism
13. What is Aparthied?
14. Why America entered into the world war-2?
15. Give an account on Sukarno?
16. Expand NATO
17. Define Truman Doctrine?
18. Expand CTBT
19. Name the six schools of Indian philosophy?
20. who were the creators of Vedic civilization?
21. Who were led by Home rule movement?
22. Who was the founder of Indian national
Army?
23. Give a short note about cabinet mission?
4 Marks Questions
1. How do you describe 'India as multi-
cultural society'?
2. Describe the fctors that contribute to the
promotion of national integration?
3. Describe the election procedure in India?
4. Mention the basic elements of democracy?
5. Give your views on the future of the status
of women in India?
6. What are the steps to be taken to realise
objective of universal primary education?
7. Suggest some measures for the
improvement of the conditions of scheduled
castes and scheduled tribes in India?
8. What are the ways to curb communalism in
India?
9. Explain the meaning of New International
Economic Order?
10. Describe the problems of environmental
pollution and ecological decay?
11. Explain human rights according to the
Universal Declaration?
12. Explain why India had to choose non-
alignment?
2 marks Questions
1. How do political parties promote national
integration?
2. What is the meaning of rule of law?
3. Distinguish between general election and
byelection?
4. What are the malpractices in elections?
5. Explain the damages of drug addiction?
6. What are rights of a child?
7. Define regionalism?
8. What are the aims of United Nations?
9. State the foundational principles of India's
foreign policy?
10. What are the steps to be taken to maintain
ecological balance?
11. Mention the objectives of SAARC?
12. Why are safety measures essential in using
roads?
13. What are the precautions necessary for obs-
ervance by those that ride with fuel energ-
etic vehicles (motorcycles and scooters)?
14. Mention any three safety-measures for
riding bicycles?
1 Marks Questions
1. What is secularism?
2. What is social justice?
3. What is federalism?
4. What is meant by Democracy?
5. What do you understand by 'Universal
Adult Franchise'?
6. Give the meaning of 'Corruption'?
7. What do you mean by 'right to live'?
8. Explain the meaning of Casteism?
9. What is 'Panchsheel'?
10. Explain the term 'Third World'?
11. Expand IBRD?
12. Write full form of IMF?
13. Expand the term UNICEF?
Civics
Chapterwise weightage - HISTORY
Unit 1 M 2 M 4 M 5 M 1/2 M Total
Nationalist movement 2 1 1 & 2 9
Imperialism & 1 & & 1 2.5
Contemporary World & 1 & & 3 3.5
The World up to World War-II 1 & & 1 3 7.5
The World after World War-II & & 1 1 2 10
Cultural Heritage in Indian Intellectual
Awakening & 1 1 & 2 7
Freedom Movement in India & & 1 - & 2 5
Chapterwise weightage - CIVICS
India as a Nation 1 & 1 & 3 6.5
Indian Democracy & 1 1 & 3 7.5
Challenges facing our country Today 1 1 1 & 4 9
India, United Nations and World Problems 1 1 1 & 4 9
Traffic Education & 1 & & 1 2.5
Chapterwise weightage - GEOGRAPHY
Unit 1 M 2 M 4 M 5 M 1/2 M Total
The Locational and spatial setting & & 1 & 1 4.5
Physical Features -Relief and Drainage 1 & & & 1 1.5
Climate & & 1 & 1 4.5
Natural Vegetation & & & & 2 1
Soils 1 & & & 1 1.5
Population & 1 & & 1 2.5
Irrigation and Power & & 1 - & 1 4.5
Agriculture & & 1 - & 1 4.5
Mineral Resources 1 & - & - & 1 1.5
Industries & 1 - & - & 1 2.5
Transport and Communications & & - & - & 2 1
Places of Interest & 1 - & - & 1 2.5
Sea ports and Town & & - & - & 1 0.5
International Trade & 1 - & - & 1 2.5
Chapterwise weightage - ECONOMICS
Characteristics of Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 3 8.5
Problems of Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 4 9
Structure of the Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 3 8.5
Planning, achievements and Failures & 1 1 & 4 8
: , r --.-- +.=o aa+a
12
SOCIAL STUDIES Geography, Economics, History, Civics
Chapter wise Quick Review
GEOGRAPHY
The location of India: India is located in
the northern hemisphere between 8
0
4' and
37
0
6' north latitudees and 68
0
7' and 97
0
25' east longitudes.
The total geographical area of India: 3.28
million square kilometers
India- North to South distance: 3214 Kilo
Meters
East to West distance: 2933 Kilo Meters
The length of the Himalayan mountains:
Approximately 2,400 K.M.
Geographical area of Himalayas: 5 lakh
square kilometers
The Himalayas comprise three parallel
fold ranges
1. The Himadri (Greater Himalayas)
2. The Himachal (Lesser Himalayas)
3. The Shivaliks (Outer Himalayas)
The tributeries of Indus river: Jhelum,
Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlez.
The important rivers that flow towards
western side in peninsular India are:
Narmada, Tapathi, Mahi and Sabarmati.
Highest rain fall point in India:
Mawsynram (1141 cms) Meghalaya
Lowest rain fall point in India: Jaisalmeer
(12 cms) Rajasthan
Four seasons are recognised in India
according to Meteorological Department
in India
1. The cold weather - Winter season
(December to March)
2. The hot weather - Summer season
(March to June)
3. The south-west monsoon - Early
Rainy season (June to September)
4. The north-east or the Retreating
monsoon season (Mid September to Mid
Decemeber)
The two methods are adopted in the
classification of climate in India. 1.
Koppen's method 2.Thorn thwaite's
method (Based on water balance method)
According to National Forest Policy 33
per cent of total land area should forest
area.
There are three important crop seasons in
India:
a. Kharif (June to October)
b. Rabi ( November to March)
c. Zayad (Summer- April to June)
Green Revolution: To develop high
yielding variety to increase crop
production.
White Revolution: To increase milk
production
Blue Revolution: To increase fish
production
Fuel minerals: coal, lignite, petroleum and
natural gas
The first train track was laid from Thane
to Mumbai ( 1853, 34 kms)
The cities in which International Airports
established: Mumbai, Kolkatha, Delhi,
Chennai, Tiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad.
The largest National Highway: National
Highway No.7.
HISTORY
The era of Napolean Bonaparty was ended
with: Leipzing War (1813) (The Battle of
Nations). The Waterloo Battle (1815)
Unification of Italy was achieved with the
efforts of Joseph Mazzini,Count Cavour,
Garibaldi and Victor Emmanuel -II.
'The Equality of Wealth' was advocated by
the Greek Philosopher Plato.
'The history is nothig but a class-war
between haves and havenots' according to
Karl Marx.
The works of Karl Marx: "Communist
Manifesto" and "Das Capital".
The immediate cause for World War-I:
The murder of Ferdinand (1914).
The countries participated in the I World
War (1914-1918)
1. Central Powers: Austria, Germany,
Turkey, Italy
2. Allied Powers: Serbia, Russia, France,
England, America, Japan
The uniform of the Fascists: Black shirts.
The founder of Nazi party in Germany:
Hitler
USSR was established in 1922 and
collapsed in 1991.
Immediate cause of Second World War:
As Poland refused to close the Polish
corridor, Hitler attacked Poland on Ist
September 1939.
The countries participated in the Second
World War (1939 September- 1945
August)
1. Central powers: Germany, Italy, Japan
2. Allied powers: Poland, France,
England, USA,Russia
Indus Valley Civilization was brought to
lime light in the wake of the excavations
carried out during 1921-22 flourished
from 3000 BC to 1500 BC.
The Aryan civilization was being
flourished in India, after the end of Indus
Valley civilization.
The Sultante style of architecture is called
the Indo-Saracenic style.
The Britishers established supremacy over
India after the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
After out break of 1857 Sepoy Mutiny,
the Company rule was ended in its place
the Britisher's rule was started in India.
The first President of National Congress:
W.C. Benerji
The Indian National Movement is broadly
divided into three phases
1. The Moderate phase of Nationalism
(1885-1905)
2. The Extremist Nationalism (1905-
1915)
3. The Gandhian Phase (1919-1947)
Annie Besant in 1916 started Home-rule
league in Madras. The same league was
started by Tilak in Maharastra.
General Dyer, British military commander
brutally killed about 1000 people who
assembled at Jallian wala bagh in 1919.
Gandhiji conducted Non-Cooperation
Movement in 1920, Dandi Salt Movement
in 1930 and Quit India Movement in 1942.
India and Pakistan were divided in 1947
as per the Mount Botten plan.
The French left Pondicherry in 1956, The
Portugese left Goa in 1961.
CIVICS
Definition of Democracy is 'Government
of the people by the people and for the
people ' according to Abraham Lincoln.
If every adult person ofa prescribed age is
given the voting right regards of
education, property and gender, it is called
Universal Adult Franchise.
The Election Commission of India
conducted the elections impartially in
India.
The General Elections are held in every
five years in India.
ECONOMICS
Organised Sector: Automobiles,
Chemicals, Engineering Goods, Textiles,
Electronics
Unorganised Sector: Rural Industries,
Beedi Industries, Khadi Industies,
Agarbatti
Jamindari System: The land owners used to
collect land tax from the Tenant farmers.
Rayatwari System: The peasants pay taxes
to the government directly without any
middlemen.
Mahalwari: A small group of families who
are locally powerful pay the taxes to the
government.
Earned Income: Income earned through
work, labour
Unearned Income: Income earned through
wealth and Property.
Capitalist Economy: The existence of
private industries in the process of
production.
Socialistic Economy: The production of
goods and the supply of goods are
managed by the government undertakings.
Mixed Economy: The existence of both
private industries and the public
enterprises in the production and supply
of goods and services.
Primary Sector: (Agriculture) Agriculture,
Plantations, Mines, Fishing
Secondary Sector: (Industrial Sector)
Small and big industries, Building
construction.
Tertiary Sector: (Service Sector) Banking,
Commerce, Communications,Computers
The Planning Commission was
established in 1950. The first Five Year
Plan was started in 1951.
At present 11th Five Year Plan (2007-12)
is in progress in India.
o.----_-o-.. :r..ee.=--
Important Multipurpose River valley projects
S.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Project
Bhakra-Nangal
Beas
Damodar valley
Hirakud
Nagarjuna Sagar
Tunga Bhadra
Kosi
Chambal
Gandak
Ram Ganga
Location
Built on river Sutlez in H.P.
Across Beas near Pang, Punjab.
Built on the river Damoder, Bihar
Across Mahanadi near
Sambalpur, Orissa
Across the river Krishna
Nandikonda (A.P)
Built on the river Thunga
Bhadra, Mallapur, Karnataka
Built across Kosi near Hanuman
nagar, Bihar
Built across the river chambal
Madhya Pradesh
Built across the river Gandak,
Valmika nagar, Bihar
Across Ram Ganga river
State or States whose needs
served
Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
West Bengal, Bihar
Orissa
Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka, A.P.
Bihar, Nepal
M.P., Rajasthan
Bihar,U.P., Nepal
Uttar Pradesh
W W W . S A K S H I . C O M / V I D Y A / B H A V I T H A
.- =.-r.
.--.--:oeasaaa+a
Practice
Bits
Important
Questions
Marks
Weightage
Quick
Review
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
2
1. Symbol for existantial quantifier is ____
2. p(qr) = (pq) (pr) is an example
for ____ law.
3. The symbol for universal quantifier is
____
4. The compound statement formed by
using the connective "if and only if" is
called ____
5. (p q) =
6. The law of (pq) = (p) (q) is ____
7. The law of pp = p is ____
8. "For all real values of x, x
2
0" write by
using quantifier ____
9. Counter example of "all primes are odd"
is ____
10. The true value of 4+3 = 7 or 54 = 9 is
____
11. The true value of 54 = 20 5+4 = 8 is
____
12.
A

B
In this series the current
flows A to B case ____
13. The true value of 4+3 = 7 and 53 = 10 is
____
14. The inverse of the statement p q is
____
15. The law of pt = p is ____
16. Always true statement is called ____
17. An implication and its contra positive are
____ statements.
18. The quantifier "for some" or "there exists
atleast one" is called the ____
19. pp is the example for ____
20. In an implication p q then p is called
____
21. The inverse of the statement "All natural
numbers are even numbers" is ____
22. The disjunction of the "5 is odd ; 5 is
positive" is ____
23. p is a statement then the value of (p) is
____
24. The compound statement which uses the
connective "AND" is called ____
25. (p) (q) is in which statements contra
positive ____
26. "In a triangle ABC, AB > AC then C >
B" the statement inverse is ____
27. The true value of "10+15 = 20 and 1510
= 5" is ____
28.
The current flows from A to B is ____
case.
29. The symbolic form of x = 3 if and only
if x+3 = 0 is ____
30. "All the students scored well in their unit
test" The above statement is an example
of ____ quantifier.
31. The statement obtained by modifying by
using the word "not" of a given statement
is called ____
32. pq true value is T then p, q true values
are ____
33. The algebraic law of p(p) = t is ____
34. Symbolic form of "p or not p" is ____
1. A B and B A then ______
2. A B and n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6 then
n(AB) = ______
3. A B then A B = ______
4. A, B are disjoint sets then A B =
______
5. A = {1, 2}, B = {4, 5}, C = {6, 7}. Then
the number of elements in A(BC) is
______
6. n(A) = 7, n(B) = 5 then the number of
maximum possible elements in AB is
______
7. A= {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 6, 7} then n(AB)
= ______
8. A, B are disjoint sets then A B = ______
9. A B then A B = ______
10. (A B)
1
= A
1
B
1
is ______ law
11. (AB)C = A(BC) is ______ law
12. A, B are disjoint. n(A) = 4, n(AB) = 10
then n(B) = ______
13. n(A) = 4, n(B) = 3, n(AB) = 5. Then
n(AB) = ______
14. A, B are two sets. AB. Then AB =
______
15. B = {1, 8, 27, 64, 125} then write the set
- builder form ______
16. A is a set then A A
1
= ______
17. Power set of is ______
18. A B, n(A) = 12, n(B) = 20. Then n
(BA) is ______
19. AA
1
= , AA
1
= are the algebraic
law of ______
20. The elements in the set is 4. Then the total
number of subsets in that set is ______
21. AB
1
= ______
22. AB = ______
23. A, B are two sets. Then x(AB) =
______
24. A is a set, then the value of (A
1
)
1
is
______
25. A is a set AA = A, AA = A then the
algebraic law is ______
26. The algebraic law of A(BC) = (AB)
(AC) is ______
27. The algebraic law of A = A, A
is ______
28. The sets which are having same cardinal
number are called ______
29. The set of prime numbers in 13 and 17 is
______
30. The law of A B, B C then A C is
______
31. In a group of 15 students 10 students are
brilliant in mathematics and 8 students
are in social. Then the number of students
who are brilliant in both subjects are
______
32. A B = then B A
1
= ______
33. n() = 10, n(A) = 6 then n(A
1
) = ______
34. n(A) = 50, n(B) = 20 and n(AB) = 10
then n(AB) = ______
1. 'f' is bijection means it is ____
2. The range of the function f(x) = 3 is ____
3. A function f : AB is said to be ____
function, if for all yB their exists xA,
such that f(x) = y
4. If I is an identity function then f
1
(4) =
____
5. f(x) = 2x3, then zero of the function is
____
6. If f = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 1)}. Then
fof = ____
7. If f(x) = 2x+3, g(x) = x1 then gof(3) =
____
8. If f = {(x, a), (y, b), (z, c)} and f
1
= g then
g
1
= ____
9.
From the above figure
gof = ____
10. f : AB is said to be real valued function
if ____
11. f = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2)} then the range of
f is ____
12. If the function f : AB is ____ function,
then the inverse f
1
: BA is again a
function.
13. The function f : AR (AR) is
intersecting x-axis at (a, 0). Then the zero
of the function is ____
14. The mapping f : A{5} is defined by
xA, f(x) = 5. Then it is ____
15.
From the above figure the zero value of
the given function is ____
16. f : AB is a bijective and n(A) = 4 then
n(B) = ____
17. f : AB to be a function and if f(x
1
) =
f(x
2
) x
1
= x
2
then f is ____
18. f = {(x, 2008) / xN} then f is ____
function
19. If y = f(x) = 3x1 then f
1
(y) = ____
20. f = {(4, 5), (5, 6), (7, 8)} then f
1
(8) =
____
21. f(x) = x then f is ____ function.
22. If f(A) = B then f: AB is a/an ____
function.
23. Let f : RR be defined by f(x) = 3x+2,
then the element of the domain of f which
has 11 as image is ____
24. Range of a constant function is a ____ set
25. f : AB is bijective then f
1
: BA is
____
26. Let f : NN be defined by f(x) = 12/x3,
x3 then the Domain of this function is
____
27. f : NN is constant function defined by
f(x) = 15 then f(10) = ____
28. The domains of f(x) and g(x) are equal.
Then the functions are called ____
29. The function f : AB is a ____ function
if there is an element CB such that f(x)
= C xA.
30. f : AB is a function, if AR, BR then
f is called ____
31. Let f : x 2x + 3, Domain of f = {x/0
x 3} then the range of f = ____
32. The set builder form of R = {(1, 3), (2, 4),
(3, 5)} is ____
33. If f(x) = x+1 / x1 then f(1/2) = ____
Mathematics FUNCTIONS SETS
The law of pt = p is?
STATEMENTS
FUNCTIONS (MAPPINGS)
SETS
Answers:
1. ; 2. Distributive ; 3. ; 4. Bi-
implication ; 5. p(q) or (p)q ; 6. De
Morgan's law ; 7. Idempotent ; 8. xR,
x0 ; 9. 2 ; 10. T (True) ; 11. F (False) ; 12.
pq ; 13. False ; 14. pq ; 15. Identity law;
16. Tautology; 17. Equivalent; 18.
Existential quantifier; 19. Contradiction;
20. Hypothesis ; 21. All natural numbers
are odd numbers; 22. (5 is odd) (5 is
positive) ; 23. p ; 24. Conjunction ; 25.
qp ; 26. In a triangle ABC, AB < AC then
C < B ; 27. False ; 28. pq ; 29. x = 3
x+3 = 0 ; 30. Universal quantifier ; 31.
Negation statement ; 32. True ; 33.
Complement law ; 34. p(p)
Answers:
1. A= B ; 2. 6 ; 3. B ; 4. ; 5. 0 ; 6. 5 ; 7. 1
; 8. A ; 9. B ; 10. De Morgan's ; 11.
Associative ; 12. 6 ; 13. 2 ; 14. A ; 15. B =
{x/x n
3
, n N and n 5}; 16. ; 17. ;
18. 8 ; 19. Complement ; 20. 2
4
or 32 ; 21.
AB ; 22. (AB) (BA) ; 23. x A x
B ; 24. A ; 25. Idempotent ; 26.
Distributive ; 27. Identity ; 28. Equivalence
relation ; 29. Null Set () ; 30. Transitive ;
31. 3 ; 32. B ; 33. 4 ; 34. 50
K.UmaMaheshwar Reddy
Sr. Teacher, A.P.R.S.
Beechupally
BITBANK Written by

p
q
A B
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
A f
B
g
C
(2,0) (2,0)
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
3
34. Every identity function is ____ function.
35. f = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4)} ; g = {(2, 5), (3,
6), (4, 7)} then fog = ____
36. The graph of a relation is a function if no
line parallel to y-axis cut the graph ____
37. f(x) = 2x, g(x) = x1, h(x) = x+1 then
[ho(gof)] (2) = ____
38. f = {(x, 3) / xN} then f is ____ function.
39. Let I : BB then I(x) = x then the
function is called ____
40. If f : xlog
2
x
then f (16) = ____
41. y = sinx function range is ____
42. f : AB is bijection, n(A) = 4. Then n(B)
= ____
43. f = {(1, 3), (2, 5)}, g = {(1, 6), (2, 10)}
then f + g = ____
44. If f
1
(y) = y3 then f(x) = ____
1. Inequation having solution "3x4" is
______
2. Remainder where ax + b divides f(x) is
______
3. If the sum of the co-efficients of a
polynomial is zero, then ______ is a
factor to it.
4. Sum of the roots of 6x
2
5 = 0 is ______
5. The discriminant of the quadratic
equation 2x
2
7x+3 = 0 is ______
6. The rationalising factor of a
1/3
+b
1/3
is
______
7. The graph of y = mx
2
(m > 0) is
symmetric about ______ axis.
8. Sum of the binominal co - efficients of
the expansion of (x/y + y/x)
4
is ______
9. If
n
C
8
=
n
C
7
then n = ______
10. If x + 1 is a factor of ax
2
+bx+c then the
condition is ______
11. The solution of x
2
x (+) +>0
______ between and
12. If there is no common point for the graph
y = x
2
and y = 4x 5 then the equation
______ does not have real roots.
13. If the number of terms in a binominal
expansion is 4 the exponent of the
binominal is ______
14. If 2 is a root of the equation x
2
px+q = 0
and p
2
= 4q then the other root is ______
15. If x
2
5x+4 < 0 then x lies between
______
16. (a
1/3
+b
1/3
) (a
2/3
a
1/3
b
1/3
+b
2/3
). = ______
17. If f(b/a)=0 then the factor of f(x) is
______
18. The number of terms of the expansion
(1+x)
n+1
is 6 then n = ______
19. If the roots of the equation px
2
+qx+r = 0
are equal then ______
20. If x
2
x2<0, then the value of x is
______
21. The last term in the expansion of (x+2/x)
5
is ______
22. If (xy) is a factor of x
n
y
n
, then 'n' is
______
23. Middle term in the expansion of (x/y +
y/x)
8
is ______
24. The graph of x = my
2
(m>0) lies in
______ quadrants.
25. If
.
Then x = ______
26. The nature of the roots of 4x
2
5x+4 = 0 is
______
27. The product of the roots of 3x
2
+9x+63
= 0 is ______
28. The graph y = mx
2
(m > 0) lies in ______
quadrants.
29. x = my
2
(m < 0) parabola lies in ______
quadrants.
30. 8C
2
+8C
4
= ______
31. The equation whose roots are 3+1 and
31 is ______
32. The constant term in the expansion of
(5/x+6x)
20
is ______
33. If (x) (x) <0 then x lies between
______
34. If the roots of 2x
2
+Kx+2 = 0 are equal
then K value is ______
35. If (x+y) is a factor of x
n
+ y
n
then the
condition is ______
36. (x2) is the factor of the function f(x)
then f(2) = ______
37. The equation whose roots 2, 5 are
______
38. "The sum of the co-efficients of even
powers of 'x' is equal to sum of the co-
efficients of odd powers of x'' then the
factor of f(x) is ______
39. If x
4
2x
3
+3x
2
mx+5 is divisible by
x3then the value of m is ______
40. The solution set of the inequation
x
2
6 x+8 > 0 is ______
41. The other name of the pascal's triangle is
______
42. The exponent of the binomial is 4 then
the co-efficients of the expansions are
______
43. If one root of ax
2
+bx+c=0 is five times
the other root then the condition is
______
44. The (r+1)
th
term of (1+x)
n
is ______
45. The sum of the co-efficients of (x+y)
7
expansion is ______
46. The discriminant of px
2
10x+8 is 4 then
p = ______
47. If the roots of x
2
7x8 = 0 are p, q then
p
2
+q
2
= ______
48. Which is the maximum value of K if the
roots of Kx
2
+10x+4 = 0 are real and
unequal ______
49. If (x+1) is a factor of
ax
5
+bx
4
+cx
3
+dx
2
+ex+f then the
condition is ______
50. If 2
x+1
= 4
x+1
then x = ______
51. If 30C
2r+3
=30C
3r+3
then r value is ______
52. If , are the roots of x
2
px+q = 0 then
the value of / + / = ______
53. The standard form of second degree
homogeneous equation in two variables x
and y is ______
54. Which term is independent of 'x' in the
expansion of (x+1/x)
8
is ______
55. ______ is a factor of 3
2n
+7 for all nN
56. f(x,y) is algebraic function in x and y. If
f(x, y) = f(y, x) then f(x, y) is ______
57. If f(x, y, z) = f(y, z, x) = f(z, x, y) then f(x,
y, z) is ______ expression.
58. The sum of the roots of the quadratic
equation is 7 and their product is 12 then
the equation is ______
59. If x+1/x = 3 then x
2
+1/x
2
= ______
60. If nC
2
=21 then n value is = ______
61. If 2x
4
7x
2
+ax+b is divisible by x3 then
the relation between a and b are ______
62. The first term of (5/x+6x)
20
is ______
63. (2, K) is the point on the parabola y =
2x
2
3 then K = ______
64. The arrangement of Binominal co-
efficient was in the form of a diagram
called Meru-prastara provided by ______
65. The two factors of x
3
+3x
2
x3 are (x1),
(x+1) then the other factor is ______
1. If ISO profit line coincides with a side of
polygon, then it has ____ solutions.
2. In linear programming, the expression
which is to be minimised or maximised is
called ____
3. If the profit line moves away from the
origin, then the values of the objective
function f is ____
4. The minimum value of f = x+y based on
the conditions x+y 6, 2x+y 8, x 0
and y 0 is ____
5. y = x passes through ____
6. Given then the value of P
at the point (0, 12) is ____
7. "The value of x+y should not be less than
15". This can be written as ____
8. Any point (x, y) in the feasible region
gives a solution to LPP is called ____
9. In a linear programming, the function f =
ax+by is called ____
10. The line x = K is ____ axis.
11. The point (2, 4) lies on ____ quadrant.
12. The slope of x-axis is ____
13. Q
1
, Q
2
are two quadrants then Q
1
Q
2
=
____
14. The knowledge of Linear Programming
help to solve the problems in ____ sector.
15. "The Maximum or Minimum value of f
occurs on atleast one of the vertices of the
feasible region". This is the statement of
the ____ theorem of Linear
Programming.
16. The solution set of constraints of a Linear
1 3
P x y
4 2
+
x 1 3 +
Mathematics LINEAR PROGRAMMING POLYNOMIALS
POLYNOMIALS
Answers:
1. Injection, surjection ; 2. {3} ; 3.
Surjection ; 4. 3 ; 5. 3/2 ; 6. {(1, 3), (2, 4),
(3, 1), (4, 2)}; 7. 8 ; 8. {(x, a), (y, b), (z, c)}
; 9. {(1, 7), (2, 6)} ; 10. BR ; 11. {2}; 12.
Bijection ; 13. a ; 14. Constant ; 15. 2; 16.
4 ; 17. Injection function ; 18. Constant
function ; 19. y+1 / 3 ; 20. 7 ; 21. Identity
function ; 22. Surjection ; 23. 3; 24. One-
element ; 25. Inverse function ; 26. N{3}
; 27. 15 ; 28. Equal functions ; 29.
Constant; 30. Real function ; 31. {5, 7, 9} ;
32. R = {(x, y) / y = x+2} ; 33. 3 ; 34.
Bijection function ; 35. Not Define ; 36.
One ; 37. 4; 38. Constant ; 39. Identity
function ; 40. 4 ; 41. {0, 1} ; 42. 4 ; 43. {(1,
9), (2, 15)}; 44. x+3
Answers:
1. x
2
x 12 0 ; 2. f(b / a) ; 3. x 1 ; 4.
0 ; 5. 25 ; 6. a
2/3
a
1/3
b
1/3
+ b
2/3
; 7. y-axis ;
8. 16 ; 9. 15 ; 10. a + c = b ; 11. does not ;
12. x
2
4x + 5 = 0 ; 13. 5 ; 14. 2 ; 15. 1 and
4 ; 16. a+b ; 17. ax b ; 18. 4 ; 19. q
2
= 4pr;
20. lies between 1 and 2 ; 21. 32 / x
5
; 22.
Even Number ; 23. 6
th
term ; 24. Q
1
and Q
4
; 25. 8 ; 26.Complex numbers ; 27. 6 ; 28.
Q
1
and Q
2
; 29. Q
2
and Q
4
; 30. 98 ; 31. x
2
23x + 2 = 0 ; 32. 20C
10
. 5
10
. 6
10
; 33.
lies between and ; 34. 4 ; 35. n is odd
; 36. 0; 37. (x2) (x+5) =0 or x
2
+3x10 = 0
; 38. x + 1; 39. 23 ; 40. x < 2 or x > 4 ; 41.
Arithmetic Triangle ; 42. 1, 4, 6, 4, 1; 43.
5b
2
= 36ac; 44. nc
r
x
r
; 45. 2
7
; 46. 3 ; 47. 65
; 48. 6 ; 49. a + c + e = b + d + f ; 50. 1;
51. 5 ; 52. p
2
2q / q ; 53. ax
2
+ bxy + cy
2
;
54.
8
C
4
; 55. 8 ; 56. Symmetric expression;
57. Cyclic ; 58. x
2
7x + 12 = 0 ; 59. 7 ; 60.
7 ; 61. 3a + b + 27 = 0 ; 62. 5
20
/ x
10
; 63. 5
; 64. Pingala; 65. (x + 3).
Sum of the roots of 6x
2
5 = 0 is?
LINEAR PROGRAMMING
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
4
Mathematics PROGRESSIONS REAL NUMBERS
Programming problem is a convex set
called ____
17. The solution set of xy, xy is ____
18. The function f = ax+by which is to be
____ is called L.P.P.
19. Any line belonging to the system of
parallel lines given by the objective
function for various values of the
objective function f is called ____ line.
20. If the line segment joining any two points
in a set lines entirely in a set then it is
called ____
21. The slope of y-axis is ____
22. A set of points which satisfy all the
constraints of a L.P.P. is called ____
23. If the point (3, 2) lies on 3x5y+k > 0
then the Minimum Value of k is ____
24. If the point (2, 3) lies on x3y+p < 0 then
the Maximum Value of p is ____
25.
The graph that represents ____
inequation.
26. The polygonal region which is the
intersection of finite number of closed
half planes is called ____
27. ISO-profit lines are ____
28. The line divides the plane into ____ point
of sets.
29. The line xy = 0 is passing through ____
30. If c < 0 then ax+by+c < 0 represents the
region ____
31. The point of intersection of x = 2 and y =
1 is ____
32. If none of the feasible solution Maximises
or Minimises the objective function, then
the problem has ____
33. The solution of x0, y0, 2x+3y 6 lies is
____ quadrant.
1. a
x1
= bc; b
y1
= ca; c
z1
=ab then
xy+yz+zx = ______
2. x
3/2
= 0.027 then the value of x is ______
3. The value of
=
______
4. If a+b+c= 0 then a
3
+b
3
+c
3
= ______
5. = ______
6. n = 10 then n
3
value = ______
7. x = 256 then value =
______
8. The value of (x
pq
)
r
.(x
qr
)
p
. (x
rp
)
q
. is
______
9. If (x
2/3
)
P
= x
2
then P value is ______
10. = ______
11. The value of (32)
4/5
= ______
12. The product of x
3/5
.x
4/3
.x
2/5
= ______
13. if x > 0, then then x value is
______
14. |x| < a, if a > 0 then the solution set x is
______
15. |69x| = 0 then x value is ______
16. =
______
17. n = 66 then n value is ______
18. f(x) = 3x then
= ______
19. =______
20. value ______
21. a0 and p+q+r = 0 then a
3p+3q+3r
= ______
22. = ______
23. The limiting position of a secant of a
circle is ______
24. (64)
x
= 22 then x value ______
25. a
x
=b, b
y
=c, c
z
= a then the value of xyz
is______
26. If x = 8 then |x 1| = ______
27. The modulus of a real number is never
______
28. The solution set of |x| a is ______
29. = ______
30. If 5x 5 = 15 5 then x
2
value is
______
31. The solution set of |x|>a is ______
32. Rationalising factor of 3 + 7 is ______
33. a
2/3
[a
1/3
(a
1/4
)
4
] = ______
34. = ______
35. =
36. numbers, which number is
greatest ______
37. The rationalising factor of
is
______
38. = ______
39. Value of (0.001)
1/3
______
40. If 2
x
= 3
y
= 12
z
then = ______
41. a
1/3
+b
1/3
+c
1/3
= 0 then (a+b+c)
3
= ______
42. If x
xx
= (xx)
x
then x = ______
43. If 64
x
= 22 then the value of x ______
44. If a
x
= b
y
= c
z
, and abc = 1 then
xy+yz+zx =
______
45. If a
1/x
= b
1/y
= c
1/z
and b
2
= ac then
(x+z)/2y = ______
46. 1/a + 1/b = 12, 1/a 1/b = 6 then the value
of a is ______
1. If there are 'n' Arithmetic Means between
a and b then d = ____
2. If arithmetic mean and geometric mean of
two numbers are 16 and 8 then their
harmonic mean is ____
3. If x, y, z are in Harmonic Progression then
y = ____
4. If the first and 4th terms of a G.P. are 1
and 27 respectively then the common
ratio r = ____
5. Geometric mean of 5 and 125 is ____
6. If TanA, TanB, TanC are in A.P., then
CotA, CotB, CotC are in ____
progression.
7. Sum of the n terms of the series 1, 4, 9,
16, ......... is ____
8. Harmonic mean of 3 and 5 is ____
9. If a, b, c are in A.P., then 1/a, 1/b, 1/c are
in ____ progression.
10. The 'n'th term of the series a, ar, ar
2
, ar
3
,
......... is ____
11. 'n'th term of the progression 8, 16, 32, 64,
........ is ____
12. The common ratio of the G.P., 1/2, 1/4,
1/8, 1/16, ......... is ____
13. 3/2, 3/4, 3/8, ......... progression, the 10th
term is ____
14. Sum of the first 'n' natural numbers is
____
15. The 7th term of the progression 1, 1/2,
1/4, ........ is ____
16. The nth term in an A.P. is 2n+5 then the
common difference 'd' is ____
17. The Harmonic mean between 1/a, and 1/b
is ____
18. If |r| < 1, then the sum to infinite terms of
the series a+ar+ar
2
+ ......... is ____
19. The nth term of G.P. is t
n
= 5 (0.3)
n1
then
the common ratio is ____
20. In a G.P., a = 2, S= 6 then r = ____
21. The relation between A.M, G.M. and H.M
is ____
22. If there are 'n' Geometric means between
a and b then the common ratio is ____
23. If 7 times the 7th term = 11 times the 11th
term, then 18th term is equal to ____
24. The A.M of 4 and 20 is ____
25. ____ term in A.P., 10, 8, 6, ............. is
22.
26. a, b are positive, then A.M, G.M, H.M, are
in ____ progressions.
27. If 5 Arithmetic means are between a and
b. what is the common difference is ____
28. 2/7, x, 7/2 are in G.P. then x value is
____
29. The 'n'th term of the series 2.5 + 4.7 + 6.9
+........ is ____
30. In an A.P, the sum of three terms is 39
then the middle term is ____
31. In an A.P, the first term is a, common
difference d then the 15th term in H.P., is
____
32. The number of 9 multiples in between 1
and 1000 is ____
33. In an G.P, the first term is 50, 4th term is
1350 then 5th term is ____
34. p/q form of is ____
35. If a, b, c are in Arithmetic progression
then K
a
, K
b
, K
c
are ____ progression.
36. The nth term of 1+(1+3) + (1+3+5)
+........is ____
37. a2d, ad, a, a+d, a+2d are in ____
progression.
1.56
Z(x 2y)
xy
+
3
2
x 2
x 2x 2
Lt
2x 3x 5

+
+ +
3 3
5 3
( )
3 3
2 2
3 and 3
5 5
3 3
x a
x a
Lt
x a

x 4
x 12
Lt
4

+
2
1
5 5
9 27
1

1
]
2
x 1
3
Lt 4
x

a 2 ab b
a b
+

2
x 0
x 5x
Lt
x

+
x 9
Lt f (x)

x
2x 3
Lt
3x 5

+
+
x
x x x
m m
n n
x a
x a
Lt
x a

x
n n
x a
x a
Lt
x a

x
1
Lt
x

The Slope of Y-Axis is...?

REAL NUMBERS
PROGRESSIONS
Answers:
1. Infinite; 2. Objective function ; 3.
Increase ; 4. 6 ; 5. Origin ; 6. 18 ; 7. x+y
15 ; 8. Feasible point ; 9. Objective
function or profit function ; 10. y-axis ; 11.
Q
3
; 12. 0 ; 13. ; 14. Business, Transport,
Industry etc., ; 15. Fundamental Theorem ;
16. Feasible region ; 17. x = y ; 18.
Minimum or Maximum ; 19. ISO profit
line ; 20. Convex set ; 21. Undefined ; 22.
Feasible region ; 23. 0 ; 24. 6; 25.
3x4y+12 > 0 ; 26. Polyhedral set ; 27.
Parallel ; 28. 3 ; 29. Origin ; 30. Below the
origin ; 31. (2, 1) ; 32. No solution ; 33. Q
1
B(4,0)
(0,3)
A
Y
X
Answers:
1. xyz ; 2. 0.09 ; 3. 0 ; 4. 3 abc ; 5. n a
n1
; 6.
100 ; 7. 4 ; 8. 1 ; 9. 3 ; 10. m/n a
mn
; 11.
1/16 ; 12. x ; 13. 2/3 ; 14. a<x<a ; 15. 2/3
; 16. 2/3 ; 17. 11 ; 18. 9 ; 19. 5 ; 20. a + b
; 21. 1 ; 22. 1 ; 23. Tangent Line ; 24. 1/4 ;
25. 1 ; 26. 9 ; 27. Negative ; 28. a x a
; 29. 9 ; 30. 9 ; 31. x < a or x > a ;
32. 3 7 ; 33. a
2
; 34. 1 ;
35. 5/3 a
8
or 5/3a
8
; 36.
37. ; 38. 2/7 ;
39. 0.1 or 1/10; 40. 1; 41. 27 abc ; 42. 9/4;
43. 1/4; 44. 0; 45. 1; 46. 1/9
3 3 3
25 15 9 + +
3
2
3
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
5
38. g
1
,g
2
are the two geometric means between
a and b the common ratio of G.P. is ____
39. The nth term of A.P. is 3n+1 then the sum
of n terms is ____
40. The sum of three terms in A.P. is 21 and
their product is 315 then the terms are
____
41. K+2, 4K6, 3K2 are in A.P. then the
value of K is ____
42. The 12th term of an A.P., x, 4x/3, 5x/3,
.............. is ____
43. The reciprocals of A.P., is ____
progression.
44. x3b, x+b, x+5b are in Arithmetic progre-
ssion then common difference is ____
45. 1+x, 6, 9 are in G.P. then value of x is
____
46. The sum of the first 'n' natural numbers is
15 and the sum of cubes of first 'n' natural
numbers is ____
47. The relation between n, n
3
is ____
48. a, b, c are in G.P. then log a, log b, log c
are in ____
49. If a, b, c, d, ............. are in Geometric
progression then a
K
, b
K
, c
K
, d
K
......... are
in ____ progression.
50. The sum of 'r' terms of the series (a1) +
(a2) + (a3) +........ is ____
51. The cotangent of /3, /4, /6 are in ____
progression.
52. n = 55 then n value is ____
53. In A.P. the first term is a, last term is l then
S
n
= ____
54. The Geometric mean of x
1
, x
2
, x
3
, x
4
is
____
1. ABC DEF, if A = 50, then E +
F = ______
2. If two circles touch externally, then
number of their common tangents is
______
3. If a line divides any two sides of a triangle
in the same ratio then the line is ______ to
the third side.
4. The point which is equidistance from the
vertices of a triangle ______
5. The length of the direct common tangent
to externally touching circles whose radii
are 5cm and 6cm is ______
6. The vertical angle bisector of X of the
XYZ , intersects the side YZ at p, then
______
7. If ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral with C
= 120 then A = ______
8. The point of intersection of angle bisector
of a triangle is ______
9. The number of circles drawn through
three non - collinear point is ______
10. The diagonal of a square is ______ times
to its side.
11. If ABC PQR then
=
______
12. Angle in the same segment are ______
13. The distance between the centres of two
circle is 'd'. If the radii are r
1
and r
2
then
the length of transverse common tangent
is ______
14. The angle in the major segment of a circle
is ______
15. If two circles of radii 3cm and 5cm touch
internally, then the distance between their
centres is ______ cm.
16. In ABC, B = 90, CAB = 30 and
AC = 10, then BC = ______
17.
In the adjacent figure is a tangent to
the circle at ACAX
= 80 and AB = AC then ABC = ______
18. The ratio of corresponding sides of two
similar triangles is 3:4 then the ratio of
their areas is ______
19. The height of an equilateral triangle with
side 23 is ______
20. Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral
are ______
21. If the two circles touches externally with
radii are 6 cm and 7 cm. Then distance
between their centers is______
22.
'O' is the centre of the circle, If BOA=
140 and COA = 100 then BAC =
______
23. ABC PQR, AB = 3.6, PQ = 2.4, AC
= 8.1cm then PR = ______
24. Angle in semi circle is ______
25. If a Rhombus is cyclic then it is ______
26. Two circles touch internally, then the
number of their common tangents are
______
27. The point of concurrence of the medians
of a triangle ______
28. The perpendicular bisectors of the sides
of a triangle is ______
29. In a triangle, a line dividing the two sides
in the same ratio is ______ to the third
side.
30. The bisector of the vertical angle of a
triangle divides the base in the ratio of the
other ______ sides.
31. If R, r are radii of the circles and d is the
distance between the centres of two
circles. If R = r + R then the two circles is
______
32. The angle between a line drawn through
the end point of a radius and its tangent to
the circle is ______
33. A line drawn through the end point of
radius and perpendicular to it is ______ to
the circle.
34. The number of tangents drawn from an
external point to a circle is ______
35. In ABC A= 90 AD BC then AD
2
=
______
36. If an arc subtends an angle of 80 at the
centre, its corresponding are subtends an
angle of ______ at the circumference.
37. The number of tangents drawn to the non
- intersecting and non - touching circle is
______
38. The length of the tangent drawn to a circle
with radius 'r' from a point 'p' which is 'd'
cm away from the centre is ______
39. In ABC , the circle drawn
as
diameter passes through A then the
triangle ABC is ______
40.
'O' is the centre of the circle if AOC =
130 then B = ______
41. If is a secant to a circle
intersecting the circle at A and B and PT
is a tangent segment then PT
2
= ______
42. If R, r are the radii of the circles. 'd' is the
distance between the centres of two
circles and if R + r < d then the two circles
are ______
43. If x,y,z are the midpoints of AB, BC and
CA respectively then the ratio of XYZ :
ABC = ______
44. The line which intersects a circle in two
distinct points is called a ______ of the
circle.
45. The number of common tangents drawn
to the concentric circles is ______
46. The number of circles drawn through
three non - collinear points is ______
47.
In this circle the chords AB and CD
intersects at E. AE = 8, EB = 6, CE = 4
then ED = ______
48. In ABC, the bisector of Ameets BC at
D and BD = 6cm, DC = 8 cm then the
ratio of AB:AC = ______
49. The Indian mathematician who proved
pythagorean theorem is ______
PAB
BC
XY

AB: AC
GEOMETRY
Answers:
1. 130; 2. 3 ; 3. Parallel; 4. Circum center
; 5. 230cm ;
6. ; 7. 60 ;
8. Incenter of the circle ; 9. 1 ;
10. 2 ; 11. ; 12. equal ;
13. ;
14. acute angle ;
15. 2 cm ; 16. 5 cm ; 17. 80 ; 18. 9: 16 ;
19. 3 ; 20. Supplementary ; 21. 13 cm ; 22.
60 ; 23. 5.4 ; 24. 90 or Right angle ; 25.
Squire ; 26. 1 ; 27. Centroid ; 28. Circum
Center ; 29. Parallel ; 30. 2 Sides ; 31.
Externally ; 32. 90 ; 33. Tangent ; 34. 2 ;
35. BD.DC ;
36. 280 ; 37. 4 ; 38. ;
39. equilateral Triangle ; 40. 115 ; 41.
PA.PB ; 42. Do not intersect circles ; 43.
1:4 ; 44. Secant line ; 45. 0 ; 46. 1; 47. 12;
48. 3:4 ; 49. Bhaskaracharya
2 2
d r
( )
2
2
1 2
d r r +
PQ; PR
XY YP
XZ ZP

Mathematics GEOMETRY PAPER - II

The relation between n, n
3
is?
Answers:
1. ba / n+1 ; 2. 4 ; 3. 2xz / x+z ; 4. 3 ; 5.
25 ; 6. Harmonic Progression ; 7. n(n+1)
(2n+1) / 6 ; 8. 15/4 ; 9. Harmonic
Progression ; 10. ar
n1
; 11. 2
r+2
or 82
r1
;
12. 1/2 ; 13. 3/1024 ; 14. 5050 ; 15. 1/64 ;
16. 2 ; 17. 2/a+b ; 18. a/1r ; 19. 0.3 ; 20.
2/3 ; 21. A.M G.M H.M. or (G.M.)
2
=
A.M H.M ; 22. (b/a)
1/n+1
; 23. 0 ; 24. 12 ;
25. 20 ; 26. G.P. ; 27. qp/6 ; 28. 1 ; 29.
2n(2n+3) or 4n
2
+ 6n ; 30. 13 ; 31. 1/a+14d;
32. 111 ; 33. 4050 ; 34. 155/99 ; 35.
Geometric Progression ; 36. n(n+1)(2n+1) /
6 ; 37. Arithmetic Progression ; 38. (b/a)
1/3
;
39. n(3n+5) / 2 ; 40. 5, 7, 9 ; 41. 3 ; 42.
14x/3 ; 43. Harmonic Progression ; 44. 4b ;
45. 2 ; 46. 225 ; 47. n
3
= (n)
2
; 48. A.P. ;
49. G.P. ; 50. r/2 [2ar1] ; 51. G.P. ; 52. 10;
53. n/2(a + l) ; 54. (x
1
. x
2
. x
3
. x
4
)
1/4
C
A
X
80

Y
B
C
A

O B
A
O
B
C
A
D
B C
E
6
4
8
130
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
6
Mathematics TRIGONOMETRY ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY
1. The slope of the straight line joining the
points (3, 1), (5, 3) is ____
2. The equation of the line passing through
(1, 2) and is parallel to 2x3y+8 = 0 is
____
3. The equation of a straight line that makes
intercepts of 5 and 3 units respectively on
x-axis and y-axis is ____
4. Equation of the line whose slope is 5 and
y-intercept is 3 is ____
5. The centroid of the triangle, whose sides
are given by x = 0, y = 0 and x+y = 6 is
____
6. Distance between the points (a Cos, 0),
(0, a Sin) is ____
7. The line x = my+c, cuts the y-axis at ____
point.
8. The angle between the lines x2 = 0, y+3
= 0 is ____
9. The slope of a straight line which is
perpendicular to x2y+5 = 0 is ____
10. The lines y = 2x3, y = 2x+1 are ____
11. The points (P, 2), (3, 4), (7, 1) are
collinear then P = ____
12. The equation of y-axis is ____
13. The slope of a line making an angle 45
with the positive direction x-axis is ____
14. The distance from origin to the given
point (a, b) is ____
15. If the slope of a line joining the points (3,
2) and (4, k) is 2 then k = ____
16. The slope of the line perpendicular to
3x+4y = 10 is ____
17. If ax+by+c = 0 represents a straight line
then condition is ____
18. The distance between the points (0, 1)
and (8, k) is 10 then k value is ____
19. The centroid of the triangle with vertices
(1, 0), (5, 2) and (8, 2) is ____
20. The area of the triangle with vertices (0,
0), (0, 2) and (1, 0) is ____
21. y = mx line as known as ____ form.
22. The line x = 3y+1 cuts x-axis at ____
23. The slope of the line ax+by+c = 0 is ____
24. Slope-point form of a line is ____
25. The intercepts form of a line is ____
26. Area of a triangle whose vertices are (x
1
,
y
1
), (x
2
, y
2
) and (x
3
, y
3
) is ____
27. The sum of the intercepts made by 3x+4y
= 12 on the axis is ____
28. Slope of the line y = 5 is ____
29. Who has introduced analytical geometry
is ____
30. If two straight lines are parallel, their
slopes are ____
31. The slope of x/a + y/b = 1 is ____
32. x-intercept of the line zxy+7 = 0 is ____
33. Three points are in the straight line then
the points are called ____
34. The slope of ax+7y = 0 is 2 then a value
is ____
35. The centroid of the triangle whose
vertices are (x
1
, y
1
), (x
2
, y
2
), (x
3
, y
3
) is
____
36. The mid point of the line join of (Sin
2
,
Sec
2
) and (Cos
2
, Tan
2
) is ____
37. Two lines are perpendicular then the
product of the slopes = ____
38. The slope of the line parallel to y-axis is
____
39. The equation of a straight line passing
(x
1
, y
1
) and (x
2
, y
2
) is ____
40. One end of the diameter of a circle is (3,
4) and the center is (0, 0) then the other
end point of the diameter is ____
41. The equation of a straight line passing
through the origin and slope 2/3 is ____
42. The line y = x makes the angle with x-
axis is ____
43. If the slope of the line is 2/5 then slope of
the line perpendicular to the above line is
____
44. The equation of the straight line passing
through (2, 3) and equal intercepts with
the axis is ____
45. The line 3x y + 50 makes an angle of
x-axis is ____
46. ____ diagram is formed the vertices of (0,
0), (5, 0), (5, 5) and (0, 5)
47. The centroid divides the median in the
ratio ____
48. The peremeter of the vertices of the
triangle (0, 0), (4, 0), (0, 3) is ____
49. (9, 3) and (1, 1) are the end points of the
diameter of the circle then the center is
____
50. Equation of a straight line parallel to x-
axis and it makes an intercept 4 units on
y-axis is ____
1. Tan
2
30 + Tan
2
60 = ______
2. If (Sec + Tan) = m the value of (Sec
Tan) = ______
3. Eliminate '' from x = 2sin; y = 2cos
then ______
4. If Tan(A+B) = 3, Tan A = 1 then B =
______
5. If a wheel makes 360 revolutions in one
minute, then through how many radians
does it turn in one second is ______
6. Eliminate '' from x = a Sec, y = b Tan
then ______
7. A minute hand of a clock is 3 cm. long,
the distance moved in 20 minutes is
______
8. The value of Sin interms of Sec is
______
9. One radian is equal to ______ degrees.
10. Eliminate from x = Cosec + Cot, y =
Cosec Cot is ______
11. If Cos 3/2 then the value of Sin
______
12. The value of Tan
2
50 Sec
2
50 = ______
13. The circular measure of 72 = ______
14. Sin
2
25 + Cos
2
25 = ______
15. The value of Cos . Tan = ______
16. If Sin = Cos2 then Cot value ______
17. If x = Sec + Tan, y = Sec Tan then
xy = ______
18. The sexagesimal measure of
c
/6 is
______
19. The value of Cos(/3) = ______
20. Cos (A+B) = ______
21. Sin 90 + Cos 0 +2Sin45 = ______
22. If Sin 5/13 than Cos(90) = ______
23.
= ______
24. value = ______
25. = ______
26. The value of (Sin + Cos)
2
+ (Sin
Cos)
2
= ______
27. One degree is equal to ______ radians
28. If 8Tan = 15 then Cot = ______
29. Cos2A is equal to ______
30. The radius of a circle is 14 cms. The
angle subtented by an arc of the circle at
the centre 45. Then the length of the arc
is ______
31. The centesimal measure of 150 is
______
32. The centesimal measure of 5
c
/2 is
______
33. The circular measure of 30
g
is ______
34. The sexagesimal measure 150
g
of is
______
35. Sec (1Sin) (Sec + Tan) value is
______
36. (1Cos) (1+Cos) (1+Cot
2
)= ______
37. If Tan = 1 then Cos
2
Sin
2
= ______
38. The value of =
______
39. The Range of Sin is ______
40. The Minimum value of Cos is ______
41. Cos1.Cos2.Cos3....... Cos17 =
______
42. The value of Sin 420 = ______
43. The value of Tan 30, Tan 45, Tan 60
are in ______ progression.
44. Cot /20. Cot 3/20. Cot 5/20.
Cot7/20.Cot 9/20 = ______
45. The value of Sin0.Sin1.Sin2 .........
Sin90 = ______
46. If Sin70 = Cos then = ______
47. Sin31Cos59 + Cos31Sin59 = ______
48. Angle of elevation of the top of the
electric pole from man 40 mts from its
foot is 60. Then the height of the pole is
______
49. Tan 1. Tan 2. Tan 3 ....... Tan89 =
______
50. The value of Sec (270-) = ______
2
Cosec 1
Cosec

4 4
2 2
Sin A Cos A
Sin A Cos A

Sin18
Cos72

2 2 2
Sin Cos Tan + +
The value of Sin interms of Sec is?
TRIGONOMETRY
Answers:
1. 2 ; 2. 2x3y+4 = 0 ; 3. x/5 + y/3 = 1 ; 4.
5xy3 = 0 ; 5. (3, 3) ; 6. a ; 7. (0, c/m) ;
8. 90 ; 9. 2 ; 10. Parallel ; 11. 1 ;
12. x = 0 ; 13. 1 ; 14. ;
15. 4; 16. 4/3; 17. |a| + |b| 0; 18. 7; 19. (4,
0) ; 20. 1 sq. unit ; 21. Slope ; 22. (1, 0); 23.
a/b ; 24. yy
1
=m(xx
1
); 25. x/a + y/b = 1;
26. ;
27. 7 ; 28. 0 ; 29. Rene Decarde;
30. Parallel; 31. 3/2 ; 32. 7/2 ; 33.
Collinear ; 34. 14 ;
35. ;
36. (1/2, 1/2) ; 37. 1 ; 38. Not define ; 39.
(y y
1
) (x
1
x
2
) = (x x
1
) (y
1
y
2
) ; 40. (3,
4) ; 41. 2x3y = 0 ; 42. 45 ; 43. 5/2 ; 44.
x+y1 = 0 ; 45. 60 ; 46. Square ; 47. 2:1 ;
48. 12 ; 49. (5, 1) ; 50. y = 4
1 2 3 1 2
x x x y y y3
,
3 3
+ + + + _

,
( ) ( ) ( ) 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2
1
x y y x y y x y y
2
+ +
2 2
a b +
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
7
1. The average of 2, 3, 4 and x is 4. The
value of x is ____
2. The formula for finding out A.M. by
deviation Method is ____
3. The median of 10, 12, 13, 15, 17 is ____
4. The median of x/5, x, x/4, x/2 and x/3 is 8
then the value of x is ____
5. The mode of 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 6, 7, 6, 5, 10
is ____
6. The class interval of the frequency
distribution having the classes 1020,
2030, 3040 is ____
7. Class middle value is used in ____
8. If arithmetic mean is 48.5, median is
46.25 a data, then mode is ____
9. In finding mode,
2
= ____
10. The median of natural numbers from 1 to
9 is ____
11. The mid value of the class 4050 is ____
12. If the mean of 10 observations is 7 and
the mean of 15 observations is 12, then
the mean of total observations is ____
13. The value of
1
while calculating the
mode in delta method is ____
14. The observation which occurs frequently
in a data is ____
15. The formula to the empirical relation
among mean, median and mode of a
given data is ____
16. In a histogram, the breadths of the
rectangles represent the ____
17. The range of the first 9 natural numbers is
____
18. The mean of the first 'n' natural numbers
is ____
19. The class interval of the class 1019 is
____
20. The median of scores x
1
, x
2
, 2x
1
is 6 and
x
1
< 2x
1
< x
2
then x
1
= ____
21. In the classes 15, 610, 1115, ........the
upper limit of the class 15 is ____
22. In a data the A.M. is 39 and mode is 34.5
then median = ____
23. In the data sum of 15 observations is 420
then the mean is ____
24. The range of 20, 18, 37, 42, 3, 12, 15, 26
is ____
25. For the construction of a frequency
polygon ____ and frequencies are taken
into consideration.
26. Formula for finding the mode of grouped
data is ____
27. In a frequency distribution the mid value
of class is 35 and the lower boundary is
30. Then its upper boundary is ____
28. If a data have two modes, then its is called
____
29. The lower limit of the class 1019 is ____
30. Formula for finding mean by deviation
method is ____
31. Formula for finding the median of
grouped data is ____
32. Father of statistics is ____
33. The difference between two consecutive
lower limits of the classes is ____
34. A histogram consists of ____
35. Central tendency value is based on all
observations of the data
36. The formula for mean of grouped data is
____
37. The greater than cumulative frequency of
a class is 83 and that of the next class is
73 then the frequency of that class is ____
38. Mean = where A is called
____
39. The most reliable measure of mean,
median and mode is ____
40. The cumulative frequencies are used to
measure the ____
41. The range of first 'n' natural numbers
____
42. The mean of 11 observations is 10.5. If an
observation is deleted then the mean of
the remaining observations ____
43. The mean of the squires of first 'n' natural
numbers is ____
44. ____ is not affected by the extreme
values.
45. The mode of 4, 8, 9, P, 7, 6, 4, 2 is 9 then
the value of P is ____
1. A square Matrix whose
determinant is zero is called ______
2. In a Matrix, if the rows and columns are
interchanged then the Matrix obtained is
called ______ of the given Matrix.
3. If then
AB =
______
4. If then |A| =
______
5. If = 0 then d =______
6. If has no
Multiplicative
inverse then a = ______
7. If then A
1
=
______
8. If = (1, 2) then the
order of
A is ______
9. If
then A+B
= ______
10. The Matrix is introduced by ______
11. The product
=______
12. The determinate of the singular Matrix is
______
13. If
then x = ______
14. If and ad = bc then
A is ______ Matrix.
15. The element of the second row and third
columns of
is ______
16. Order of matrix Ais 34, order of Matrix
B is 5 3 then the order of BAis ______
17. The determinate of the Matrix
is ______
18. If then a =
______
19. A, B are two Matrices then (AB)
T
=
______
20. If
is a scalar Matrix, then = ______
21. While solving the equation 3x+4y = 8 and
x 6y = 10 by Cramer's method, the
Matrix B
1
= ______
22. A, B are two Matrices then (AB)
1
=
______
23. If then A + A
T
=
______
24. A is square Matrix and A = A
T
then A is
called ______ Matrix.
25. The product is
______
26. If then |A|
=
______
27. The Multiplicative unit matrix of order
33 is ______
28. The inverse of the Identify Matrix is
______
29. If AB = I then 'B' is called ______ of 'A'
30. If A is a square Matrix, A.A
1
. A
1
A =
______
31. If the T =
______
32. If X + 2I = then
Matrix X =
______
3 1
1 2
1
1
]
T
4 3 4 3
2 16 2 2
1 1

1 1
] ]
Cos Sin
A
Sin Cos
_

,
( ) 1 2 3
2
3
4
_



,
1 3
A
5 6
_

,
4 0
P
0
1

]
a 3 2 7
1 2 1 0
_ _ _

, , ,
Sec Tan
Tan Sec
_


,
1 8 5
2 3 4
2 7 0
_

,
a b
A
c d
_

,
2 0
5 1
1

]
x y x y
2x 3y 2x 3y
+ _

+
,
( ) x y
a
b
_

,
1 3 1 2
A , B
2 1 3 0
_ 1

1

, ]
1 1
A
0 2
_

,
1 4
A
0 1
_

,
2a 5
6 3
_

,
d 2 5
4 2

4 3
A
2 1
_

,
1 0 0 1
A , B
0 1 1 0
_ _


, ,
fx
A C
N

+
STATISTICS
Answers:
1. 7 ; 2. ; 3. 13 ;
4. 24 ; 5. 6 ; 6. 10 ; 7. Mean ; 8. 41.75 ; 9.
ff
2
; 10. 5 ; 11. 45 ; 12. 7 ; 13. ff
1
; 14.
Mode ; 15. Mode = 3 Median2 Mean ; 16.
Length of the class interval ; 17. 8 ; 18.
n+1/2 ; 19. 10 ; 20. 3 ; 21. 5.5 ; 22. 38.5 ;
23. 28 ; 24. 39 ; 25. Mid value of the class;
26. ; 27. 40 ;
28. Bimodal ; 29. 9.5 ;
30. ; 31. ;
32. R. A. Fisher ; 33. Class-interval ; 34.
Rectangles ; 35. Mean ; 36.

x/n ; 37. 11 ;
38. Expected mean ; 39. Mean; 40. Median;
41. n1 ; 42. 10.65 ; 43. (n+1) (2n+1) / 6 ;
44. Median ; 45. 9
N
F
2
L C
f

+
i i
f x
A C
N

+
1
1 2
C
L

+
+
fd
A C
N

+
Answers:
1. 10/3 ; 2. 1/m ; 3. x
2
+ y
2
= 4 ; 4. 15 ; 5.
12
c
; 6. b
2
x
2
a
2
y
2
= a
2
b
2
; 7. 44/7 cm ;
8. ;
9. (57.3) or 5716' ; 10. xy = 1 ; 11. 1/2 ;
12. 1 ; 13. 2
c
/5 ; 14. 1 ; 15. Sin ;
16. ; 17. 1 ; 18. 30 ; 19. 1/2 ;
20. CosACosB SinASinB ; 21. 3 ; 22.
5/13 ; 23. Sec ; 24. 1 ; 25. 1 ; 26. 2 ; 27.
0.01745
c
; 28. 8/15 ; 29. Cos
2
A Sin
2
A ;
30. 11 cm ; 31. 500
g
/3 ; 32. 500
g
; 33. 27 ;
34. 5
c
/6 ; 35. 1 ; 36. 1 ; 37. 0 ; 38. Cos ;
39. [1, 1] ; 40. 1 ; 41. 0 ; 42. 3/2 ; 43.
G.P. ; 44. 1 ; 45. 0 ; 46. 20 ; 47. 1 ; 48.
403 m.; 49. 1 ; 50. Cosec
1
3
Sec 1
Sec

MATRICES
Mathematics MATRICES STATISTICS
Who is the Father of Statistics?
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
8
Mathematics WEIGHTAGE ANALYSIS COMPUTING
33. If and
A = B
then the value of x + y is =______
34. A is a Matrix then (A
1
)
1
= ______
35. If A is a Matrix then A
T
= A then the
Matrix is called ______
36. If and P+R = I
then
Matrix R = ______
37. A and B are two Matrices. The product
AB is defined ______
38. If Ais Matrix, A+ B = 0 when 0 is a null
Matrix. Then B is called ______ of A.
39. 2x+3y4 = 0, 5x7y+8=0 express the
above equations in Matrix equation form
AX = B then Matrix B = ______
40. If and A+B = A
then A
Matrix is ______
41. If A,B,C are three Matrices A(B+C) = AB
+ AC is ______ law
42. Ais a Matrix if AX = B then X = ______
43. If then AB
=
______
44. then A =
______
45. K is a Scalar, A is a Matrix then (KA)
T
=
______
46. Additive inverse Matrix is ______ Matrix
47. then the
order of
B Matrix is ______
48. If
then B
2
= ______
49. If
then
3A+2B = _____
50. If A is a Matrix then A.A
1
= ______
1. ____ is used to make a diagrammatic
representation of an algorithm.
2. The Rhombus shaped box is used in a
flow chart for ____
3. The second generation computers ____
were used.
4. An example for input unit is ____
5. Large scale circuits are used in ____
generation computers.
6. Father of the computers is ____
7. The language known to computers is
called ____
8. A language used in computers is ____
9. Expand C.P.U. is ____
10. To express the algorithm in a language
understandable by a computer is called
____
11. All parts of a computer are controlled by
____
12. The present day computers are make as
____ generation computers.
13. The set of instructions of solving a
problem by a particular method, written
in a language understands by a computer
is called ____
14. Small translators are used in ____
generation of computers.
15. A component of hardware is ____
16. Input, output, CPU are ____ of the
computer.
17. "Vacuum tubes" are used in ____
generation computers.
18. All the parts of a computer are controlled
by ____
19. Large amount of information is stored in
____ unit of a computer.
20. Electronic circuits are used in ____
generation of computers.
21. The number of major parts in a computer
is ____
22. The systematic step by step procedure of
solving a problem is called ____
23. All arithmetic operations are performed
in ____ of computer.
24. ____ unit is received the
result by C.P.U.
25. BASIC stands for ____
26. Yes/No box in flow chart is ____
27. Present computers are called ____
28. ____ is used entry/exist from another part
of the flow chart.
29. A set of instruction which leads to a step
by step procedure for solving a problem
on a computer called an ____
30. The example of output is____
31. In a flow chart, a rectangular box is used
for ____
32. Shape box is used for ____
33. A.L.U. means ____
2 4 4 3
A , B
6 5 5 7
1 1

1 1

] ]
x
X
y
_

,
3 8 7
A , B ,
6 1 31
_ _

, ,
( ) ( ) 1 2 3 B 3 4
( )
1 1
A 1 2
0 2
_

,
( )
x
A a b ;B
y
_


,
5 6
A
7 8
1

1
]
3 5
P
4 2
_

,
2 4 y x
A ; B
6 5 6 5
1 1

1 1
] ]
The Number of Major Parts in Computer?
COMPUTING
Answers:
1. Singular Matrix ; 2. Transpose Matrix ;
3. ; 4. 10 ; 5. 8 ; 6. 5 ;
7.
;
8. 1 2 ; 9. ;
10. J.J.Sylvester ; 11. ;
12. Zero ; 13. 1 ; 14. Singular ; 15. 4 ;
16. 5 4 ; 17. 1 ; 18. 2 ; 19. B
T
A
T ;
20. 4; 21. ; 22. B
1
A
1
23. ; 24. Symmetric Matrix ;
25.
; 26. 1 ;
27. ; 28. Unit Matrix ;
29. Inverse Matrix ; 30. I ; 31. 4 ;
32. ; 33. 6 ; 34. A ;
35. Skew Symmetric Matrix ;
36. ;
37. Number of Columns of the Matrix A is
equal to the number of rows of the Matrix
B ; 38. Additive Inverse ;
39. ; 40. Null Matrix
41.Distributive law ; 42. A
1
B; 43. (ax+by);
44. ; 45. KA
T
46. Null Matrix ; 47. 23 ;
48. ; 49. ; 50. I
14 6
8 29
1
1

]
3 7
6 31
1
1
]
1
1
2
_

,
4
8
_

,
4 5
4 3
_

,
1 1
1 0
_

,
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 1
_



,
2 4 6
3 6 9
4 8 12
_



,
2 8
8 12
_

,
8 4
10 6
_

,
ax ay
bx by
1
1
]
2 5
1 1
_


,
1 4
0 1
1
1

]
0 1
1 0
1
1
]
Answers:
1. Flow Chart; 2. Decision making; 3.
Transistor ; 4. Key Board or Mouse ; 5. 4th;
6. Bobbage; 7. Software; 8. BASIC,
COBAL, FORTRAN, PASCAL etc.,; 9.
Central Processing Unit; 10. Software or
programming language ; 11. Control unit ;
12. 4th; 13. Software ; 14. 2nd ; 15. C.P.U.;
16. Hardware ; 17. 1st; 18. Control unit ;
19. Memory unit; 20. IIIrd ; 21. 3 ; 22.
Algorithm; 23. Arithmetic and Logical Unit
(ALU); 24. Output; 25. Beginners All
purpose Symbolic Instruction Code; 26.
Rhombus box; 27. Numan computers; 28.
Loop; 29. Algorithm; 30. Monitor; 31.
Calculations; 32. Start/Stop; 33. Arithmetic
and Logical Unit ;
Paper - I
Chapter 5 Marks 4 Marks 2 Marks 1 Mark 1/2 Mark
Statements & Sets & 1 2 1 5
Functions (Mappings) & 2 1 1 5
Polynomials 1 1 1 1 6
Real Numbers & 1 2 1 6
Linear Programming 1 1 1 1 3
Progressions & 2 1 1 5
Paper - II
Chapter 5 Marks 4 Marks 2 Marks 1 Mark 1/2 Mark
Geometry 1 1 1 1 5
Analytical Geometry & 2 2 1 5
Trignometry 1 1 1 1 5
Statistics & 1 1 1 5
Matrices & 2 1 1 5
Computing & 1 2 1 5
Mathematics Chapter wise
marks weightage analysis chart
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
9
POLYNOMIALS
1. Using graph y = x
2
solve the equation
x
2
x2 = 0
2. Draw the graph y = x
2
+5x6 and solve
the equation x
2
+5x6 = 0
LINEAR PROGRAMMING
1. Maximise f = 5x+7y subject to the
condition 2x + 3y 12, 3x + y 12, x
0, y 0
2. Maximise f = 3x+y subject to the
constraints 8x + 5y 40, 4x + 3y 12, x
0, y 0
3. Minimise f = x+y subject to the 2x + y
10, x + 2y 10, x 0, y 0
4. A shop keeper Sells not more than 30
shirts of each colour. Atleast twice as
many white ones are sold as green ones.
If the profit on each of the white be Rs.
20 and that of Green be Rs. 25 how many
of each kind be sold to give him a
maximum profit?
5. Asweet shop makes gift packet of sweets
combines two special types of sweets A
and B which weight 7 kg. Atleast 3 kg. of
A and no more than 5 kg of B should be
used. The shop makes a profit of Rs. 15
on A and Rs 20 on B per kg. Determine
the product mix so as to obtain maximum
profit.
STATEMENTS & SETS
1. Define Conditional and write truth table?
2. Prove that A (BC) = (AB) (AC)
3. A, B, C are three sets then prove that
A(BC) = (AB) (AC)
4. If A, B are two subsets of a universal Set
, then prove that (AB)
1
= A
1
B
1
5. Show that (p(~q)) ((~p)q) is a
contradiction
FUNCTIONS
1. Let f be given by f(x) = x+2 and f has the
domain {x ; 2 x 5} find f
1
and its
domain and Range.
2. Let f: R R be defined by f(x) = 3x 5.
Show that f has an inverse and find a
formula inverse function f
1
3. Let f, g, h be functions defined by f(x) =
x, g(x) = 1 x, h(x) = x + 1 prove that
(hog)of = ho(gof)
4. Given f(x) = x1, g(x) = x
2
2, h(x) = x
3

3 for x R find
i) (fog)oh ii) fo(goh)
POLYNOMIALS
1. The expression ax
2
+ bx + c equals 2
where x = 0, leaves remainder 3 when
divided by (x1) and remainder 3 when
divided by (x+1). Find the values of a, b
and c.
2. Factorize the expression 4x
4
12x
3
+ 7x
2
+ 3x 2 using the remainder theorem.
3. Find a quadratic function in 'x' such that
when it is divided by x1, x2 and x3
leaves remainders 1, 2 and 4 respectively.
4. Find the independent term of x in
the expansion
REAL NUMBERS
1. If . show that 3y
3

9y = 10
2. If lmn = 1, show that
3. If a
x1
= bc, b
y1
= ca, c
z1
= ab show that
xy+yz+zx = xyz
4. Show that
5. Evaluate
6. Show that
PROGRESSIONS
1. The A.M., G.M and H.M of two numbers
are A,G,H respectively show that A G
H
2. If the sum of the first 'n' natural numbers
is S
1
and that of their squares S
2
and
cubes S
3
. Show that 9s
2
2
= s
3
(1 + 8s
1
)
3. Find the Sum of 'n' terms of the series 0.5
+ 0.55 + 0.555 +........n terms
4. Insert 6 H.M's between 1/12 and 1/42
5. If (b + c), (c + a), (a + b) are in H.P. Show
that 1/a
2
, 1/b
2
, 1/c
2
will also be H.P.
STATEMENTS and SETS
1. Define Disjunction and write truth table?
2. Write the inverse and contrapositive of
the statement ''If in a triangle ABC, AB >
AC then C > B"
3. Prove that if x is even then x
2
is even
4. Prove that A B = A B
1
= B A
1
5. If A B = show that B A
1
= B
6. Show that (A B)
1
= A
1
B
1
7. Show that (~p) (pq) = p q
FUNCTIONS
1. Let f(x) = x
2
+2, g(x) = x
2
2 for xr find
(fog)(x), (gof) (x)
2. Show that f(x) = 3x+4 is bijective
function.
3. If f:R-{3}R, is defined by f(x) = x+3/x3
show that f = 3x+3/x1 = x for x 1
4. If f(x) = x
2
+2/x15 for xR find
f(x
2
+2x15)
5. If f(x) = x+2, g(x) = x
2
x2 find
POLYNOMIAS
1. Find the value of m in order that
x
4
2x
3
+3x
2
mx+5 may be exactly
divisible by x3.
2. If 4x
2
1 divides 4x
4
12x
3
+ax
2
+3xb
exactly find the values of a and b
3. If a and b are unequal and x
2
+ax+b and
x
2
+bx+a have a common factor show that
a+b+1=0
4. Solve x
2
6x+5<0
5. Solve x
2
4x21>0
6. Find the middle term of the expansion of
7. Find the number which exceed its
reciprocal by
LINEAR PROGRAMMING
1. Define convex set and profit line?
2. Define objective function and feasible
solution?
3. For the given vertices (0, 0), (2, 3), (3, 0),
(0, 5) at which point the objective
function 2x+3y will have Maximum
value?
4. Indicate the polygonal region represented
by the systems of inequations x0, y0,
x+y 1.
5. In Linear programming problem the
objective function values 6 and 15 are at
the point of the vertices A(3, 0) and B(0,
5) then find the objective function?
REAL NUMBERS
1. If
then show that x = 1/2
(a a
1
)
2. If a
1/3
+b
1/3
+c
1/3
=0 show that (a+b+c)
3
=
27abc
3. If a+b+c=0 show that
4. If a
x
= b
y
= c
z
, b/a = c/b show that y/z =
2z/x+z
5. Show that
6. Evaluate
7. Solve
PROGRESSIONS
1. Insert 5 arithmetic means between 4 and
22.
2. The sum of first 3 number is 12 and the
product is 48. Find the numbers.
3. In an A.P. the 4
th
term is 7 and 7
th
term is
4 then show that 11
th
term is zero.
4. The 8
th
term of G.P. is 192 and common
ratio is 2 then find 12
th
term.
5. The sum of n terms of an A.P. is 2n+3n
2
find the 'r'
th
term
6. Which term of the A.P., 5, 2, 1, ....... is
22.
STATEMENTS and SETS
1. Define Tautologies and contradications?
2. Write true table "36 = 20 2+7 = 9
3. Write true table of Disjunction?
4.
Determine when the current flows from A
to B?
5. If A= {2, 4, 6, 8}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} then
find A B?
6. Prove that (A
1
)
1
= A
7. If n(AB) = 50, n(A) = 16, n(B) = 46
find n(AB)?
8. If A B then show that B
1
A
1
FUNCTIONS
1. If f(x) = x+1/x1 then find f(x) + f(1/x)?
2. Find the Range and Domain of R = {(x,
y): x = 2y, x, y N}
3. Define constant function and Indetity
function?
4. If f(x) = 3x5 then find f
1
?
5. If f(x) = 2x+3 then find {f
1
(x): 2x3}
6. If f(x) = 1+2x, g(x) = 32x then find the
values of (fog) (3) and (gof) (3)
7. If f = {(1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 7)}, g = {(3, 7),
(5, 9), (7, 10)} Find gof
8. Let f: RR, f(x) = 2x+3 is difines show
taht f(x) is bijective?
POLYNOMILAS
1. Find the roots of the equation x
2
+x(cb)
+(ca) (cb) = 0
2. Find the sum and the product of the roots
of the equation 3x
2
+ 9x + 63 = 0
3. Write the quadratic equation whose roots
are 2+3 and 23
4x 8
6
2

<
2
2
x 2
2x 7x 6
Lt
5x 11x 2

+
+
m m
m n
n n
x a
x a m
Lt a
x a n

2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
a b c a b c a b c 3
x .x .x x

2
a x x 1 + +
2
2
3
1
3x
2x
7
_
+

,
( ) ( ) ( ) g 1 g 2 g 3
f ( 4) f ( 2) f (2)
+ +
+ +
a b a c b c b a c a c b
1 1 1
1
1 x x 1 x x 1 x x

+ +
+ + + + + +
x a 2a
x a
+

x 1
x 1
Lt 4
x 3 2

+
1 1 1
1 1 1
1
1 m 1 m n 1 n

+ +
+ + + + + + l l
3
3
1
y 3
3
+
8
2
2
5
6x
x
_

,
4 Marks Questions
5 Marks Questions
2 Marks Questions
1 Marks Questions
Draw the Graph X
2
+5x-6
Mathematics Paper - 1 IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

p
q
A B
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
10
4. Define Ramainder theorem?
5. Find the remainder when
x
4
+4x
3
5x
2
6x+7 is divided by (x2)
6. The product of two consecutive numbers
is 56. Find the numbers?
7. Find the 5
th
term in the expansion (x/y +
y/x)
8
8. Define Mathematical induction?
9. Expand a
2
(b
2
c
2
)
LINEAR PROGRAMMING
1. Define open convex region?
2. Define feasible region?
3. What is Linear programming problem?
REAL NUMBERS
1. Simplify (a
p
/a
q
)
p+q .
(a
q
/a
r
)
q+r .
+ (a
r
/a
p
)
r+p
2. Solve if 2
3x
= 4
x+1
3. Solve |3 12x| = 0
\
4. Find the volume of
5. Find
6. Evaluate
7. If x = a
p
, y = b
q
and x
q
.y
p
= a
2/r
. Show that
pqr = 1
PROGRESSIONS
1. The first term of a G.P. is 2 and the sum to
infinity is 6 find the common ratio?
2. 2/7, x, 7/2 are in G.P. then find x value?
3. x, 4x/3, 5x/7, ........ are in A.P. then find
10
th
term?
4. Find the rational number of
5. The n
th
term of the G.P., 100, 110, 121,
..........
6. Find the Harmonic mean of 6 and 24
7. In an A.P., n = 50, a = 12 and l = 144 then
find S
n
= ?
GEOMETRY
1. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD,
where AB = 3cm, BC = 6cm, AC = 4cm
and AD = 2cm.
2. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC =
7cm, A = 70 and foot of the
perpendicular D on BC from A is 4.5cm
away from B.
3. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC =
5cm. A = 70 and median. AD through
A = 3.5 cm.
TRIGONOMETRY
1. Two pillars of equal height stand at a
distance of 100 mts. At a point in between
them, the elevation of their tops are found
to be 30 and 60 respectively. Determine
the height of the pillars and the position
of the point of observation.
2. There are two temples, one on each bank
of a river, just opposite to each other. One
of the temples A is 40 mts high. As
observed from the top of this temple A,
the angles of depression of the top and
foot of the other temple B are 1230' and
2148' respectively. Find the width of the
river and the height of the temple B.
3. An aeroplane at an altitude of 2500 mts
observe the angles of depression of
opposite points on the two banks of a
river to be 4120' and 5210'. Find in
metres, the width of the river.
4. From the ground and first floor of a
building, the angle of elevation of the top
of the spire of a church was found to be
60 and 45 respectively. The first floor is
5 mts high. Find the height of the spire.
GEOMETRY
1. Prove that alternate segment theorem.
2. Define and prove Basic proportionality
(Thales) theorem.
3. Prove that Pythagorean theorem.
4. Prove that the converse of alternate
segment theorem.
5. Prove that vertical angle bisector
theorem.
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY
1. Find the equation of the line
perpendicular to the line joining (3, 5),
(5, 7) and passing through (2, 3).
2. Find the equation of a line passing
through (4, 3) and making intercepts on
the co-ordinate axis whose sum is equal
to 1.
3. Find the equation of a line that cuts off
intercepts a and b on the x and y axis such
that a+b = 3 and ab = 2.
4. If the three points A(2, 3/2), B(3, 7/2)
and C(x, 5/2) are collinear. Find the value
of 'x'.
5. In what ratio is the segment joining the
points (3, 2) and (6, 1) divided by y-
axis.
6. Find the point of intersection of the
medians of a triangle whose vertices are
(2, 5), (3, 4) and (0, 3).
7. If A(1, 2), B(4, 1), C(7, 16) are the three
vertices of the parallelogram ABCD.
Find the co-ordinates of the fourth vertex
D and find its area.
8. Find the equation of a line whose slope is
4/5 and which bisects the line joining the
points P(1, 2) and Q(4, 3).
TRIGONOMETRY
1. If Sec + Tan = P then show that
2. Show that 3(Sinx Cosx)
4
+ 6(Sinx +
Cosx)
2
+ 4(Sin
6
x + Cos
6
x) = 13.
3. Prove that
4. Eliminate '' for the following equations.
xCos + ySin = a, xSin y Cos = b.
5. If Sin = 15/17 then find
STATISTICS
1. Find the median of the following
frequency distribution.
Class
6064 6569 7074 7579 8084 8589
Frequency
13 28 35 12 9 3
2. Find the mean of the data using short-cut
method.
Class
2140 4160 6180 81100 101120
Frequency
10 25 40 20 5
MATRICES
1. Given that find
the matrix D, satisfying AD = DA = A.
2. If
then show that A(BC) = (AB)C
3. 3. If
then show that (AB)
1
= B
1
A
1
.
4. Solve the given equations by using
Cramer's Method
4xy = 16 and 3x7 / 2 = y
5. Solve the equations by matrix inversion
method
2x3y+6 = 0, 6x+y+8 = 0.
COMPUTING
1. Given the principal amount and the rate
of interest, write an algorithm to obtain a
table of simple interest at the end of each
year for 1 to 5 years and draw a flow
chart.
2. Execute the flow chart, obtain the total
amount to be paid at the end of 6 years, if
P = Rs. 1000 and r = 12% and also write
algorithm.
3. Explain the structure of a computer by
means of a block diagram.
4. Find the selling price of an item, given
the gain percentage and the C.P. of an
item. Execute the flow chart for a gain of
25% and C.P. = Rs. 300.
GEOMETRY
1. ABCD is a rhombus, prove that
AB
2
+ BC
2
+ CD
2
+ AD
2
= AC
2
+ BD
2
.
2. In an equilateral triangle with side 'a'
prove that the altitude is
of length
3. If PAB is secant to a circle intersecting
the circle at A and B and PT is a tangent
segment than show that PT
2
= PA.PB.
4. Show that the lengths of the two tangents
drawn from an external point to a circle
are equal.
5. ABC is an obtuse triangle, obtuse
angled at B. If ADCB prove that AC
2
=
AB
2
+ BC
2
+ 2BC.BD
6. A vertical stick 12 cm long casts a
shadow 8cm long on the ground. At the
same time a tower casts the shadow 40m
long on the ground. Determine the height
of the tower.
7. In a triangle ABC, AD is draw
perpendicular to BC. Prove that AB
2

BD
2
= AC
2
CD
2
.
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY
1. Find the point on x-axis that is equi
distant from (2, 3) and (4, 2).
2. Find the co-ordinates of the point which
divides the join of (2, 4) and (5, 6) in the
ratio 5:3 externally.
3. Find the point of intersection of the
medians of a triangle whose vertices are
(1, 0), (5, 2) and (8, 2).
4. Find the co-ordinates of the points of
trisection of a segments joining A(3, 2)
and B(9, 5).
5. Find the area of the triangle whose
vertices are A(4, 1), B(1, 2) and C(4,
3).
6. Find the equation of the line passing
through (1, 1) and is parallel to 4x5y+3
= 0.
7. Find the equation of the line passing
through (4, 3) and perpendicular to the
3
a.
2
2 1 2 0
A , B
3 1 5 3
_ _



, ,
2 4 2 5 1 2
A , B , C
3 6 6 1 3 0
_ _ _


, , ,
1 2
A ,
3 4
_

,
15Cot 17Sin
8Tan 16Sec
+
+
Tan +Sec 1 1 Sin
Tan Sec 1 Cos
+

+
2
2
P 1
Sin
P 1

+
0.234
2
x 0
x 5x
Lt
x

+
( )
( )( )
x
(3x 1) 2x 5
Lt
x 3 3x 7

+
+
3
x 3
x 27
Lt
x 3

Mathematics IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Prove that alternate segment theorem
4 Marks Questions
2 Marks Questions
Matehmatics Paper-2
5 Marks Questions
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
11
line 2x5y+4 = 0.
8. Find the area of the triangle formed by
the line 2x 4y 7 = 0 with the co-
ordinate axis.
TRIGONOMETRY
1. If Sin = 12/13 then find Cos and
Tan.
2. If Tan(AB) = 1/3, SinA= 1/2 find the
value of in circular measure.
3. Show that 4(sin
4
30 + cos
4
60) 3 (cos
2
45
sin
2
90) = 2.
4. Prove that
5. Eliminate '' x = aSin bCos, y =
aCos + bSin.
6. If sec =
then find sin.
7. The angle of depression of a point 100
mts from the foot of the tree is 60. Find
the height of the tree.
8. Show that (1sin
6
+ cos
6
) = 3sin
2
.
cos
2
.
9. Find the value of 32 cot
2
/4 8sec
2
/3 +
8cot
3
/6.
MATRICES
1. If find order of M
and determine the matrix M.
2. If
find m if AB = BA.
3. If show that
A
2
(a+d) A = (bcad)I
4. If
then find B+A
1
.
5. If then show that
A+A
1
= A
1
A = I
6. If
find x, y.
7. if find 'P'.
STATISTICS
1. Write the merits of arithmetic mean.
2. Write the formula for mean by short cut
method.
3. The mean of 20 observations is 12.5. By
an error, one observation is registered as
15 instead of 15. Find the correct mean.
4. Observation of some data are
x/4, x, x/5, x/3, x/2, where x > 0.
If the median of the data is 5. Find the
value of x.
5. The mean and median of uni-modal
grouped data are 39 and 38 respectively.
Find the mode.
6. Find the mean of 2/5, 5/3, 1/3, 5/6, 1/6.
COMPUTING
1. What are the different boxes used in a
flow chart?
2. State any four languages you have to
known, that are used in computers.
3. What should be kept in mind while
writing an algorithm?
4. Define algorithm and flow chart.
5. What is meant by computer?
GEOMETRY
1. When two polynomials are similar?
2. Define converse of Pythagorian theorem.
3. A man goes 150m due east and then
200m due north. How far is he from the
starting point?
4. If two circles of radii 5cm and 6cm. touch
externally, then the length of their
transverse common tangent is ____
5. Write two conditions of similar triangles.
6. Define Appollonius theorem.
7. There is a circle of radius 3. From a point
P which is at a distance of 5cm from the
centre of the circle, a tangent is drawn to
the circle. Find the length of the tangent?
8. The circles of radii 5cm and 7cm. touch
externally, find the distance between their
centers.
9. In ABC, D and E are the points on AB
and AC respectively. D is the mid point of
AB and DE||BC find AE/EC.
10. Define converse of alternate segment
theorem.
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY
1. Find the slope and y-intercept of the line
x/a + y/b = 1.
2. Find the slope of the perpendicular to
2x+3y+5 = 0.
3. Two end points of the diameter in the
circle are (9, 3) and (1, 1). Find the
center of the circle.
4. Find the area of the triangle enclosed
between the co-ordinate axis and the line
joining the points (3, 0) and (0, 4).
5. Write the equation of the line passing
through (3, 5) and slope is 7/3.
6. Write the equation of the line passing
through the points (4, 7) and (1, 5).
7. Find the equation of the line 60 with the
positive direction of x-axis and having y-
intercept is 3.
8. Find the distance between the two points
A(7, 5) and B(2, 4).
9. Find the equation of the line making
intercepts 4 and 7 on the x and y-axis.
10. Find the equation of the line passing
through (2, 3) and making equal
intercepts of x and y-axis.
TRIGONOMETRY
1. Express the centesimal measure of 5
c
/2.
2. Eliminate '' from x = 2Sin, y = 2Cos.
3. Find the value of Cos0 + Sin90 + 2
Sin 45.
4. Prove that (Sin + Cos)
2
+ (Sin
Cos)
2
= 2.
5. Show that Sec (1Sin) (Sec + Tan) =
1.
6. Find the value of Cot 240.
7. Prove that 1/Cos Cos = Tan . Sin.
8. Express Tan value interms of Sec.
9. Eliminate '', x = Cosec + Cot and
y = Cosec Cot.
10. The radius of a circle is 14 cms. The
angle subtend by an arc of the circle at the
centre is 45. Find the length of the arc.
MATRICES
1.
find the
matrix 'X' satisfying AB+x = 0.
2. Given find the matrix R
satisfying P+R = I.
3. If find A
1
.
4. Define scalar and non-scalar matrices.
5. Inverse does not exist the matrix
of
then find 'a'.
6. If find 'd'.
7. If
then find 3A+2B.
8. If find A + A
T
.
9. If
find AB.
STATISTICS
1. The observations of an ungrouped data are
x
1
, x
2
and 2x
1
and x
1
< x
2
< 2x
1
. If the mean
and median of the data are each equal to 6.
Find the observations of the data.
2. The sum of the 15 observations is 420
then find mean.
3. The mean of 9, 11, 13, P, 18, 19 is P then
find the value 'P'.
4. The mean of the ungrouped data is 9. In
every observation multiplied by 3 and 1
then find the mean of the new data.
5. Write Median formula for grouped data?
6. The mean of 11 observations is 17.5. If an
observation 15 is deleted. Find the mean
of the remaining observations.
COMPUTING
1. In which bases the ability of the computer
is decided?
2. Define Loop?
3. Expand C.P.U.
4. Draw the structure of computer block
diagram.
5. What is meant by hardware?
6. What are the different parts of C.P.U.?
7. What is computer?
2 4 2 6
A , B
6 0 1 3
_ _

, ,
1 3
A
5 6
_

,
2 4 4 3
A , B
6 5 5 7
_ _

, ,
d 2 5
0
4 2

2a 5
6 3
_

,
2 3
A
5 1
_

,
3 5
P ,
4 2
_

,
1 2 2 4
A ; B ,
3 4 3 5
_ _


, ,
1 3 2 P
0 1 1 1
_ _ _

, , ,
3x 2y 6 5 6
2 2x 3y 2 1
+ _ _

, ,
7 4
A
5 3
_

,
1 2 2 0
A , B
1 3 5 3
_ _

, ,
a b 1 0
A andI
c d 0 1
_ _


, ,
1 4 2 m
A , B ,
0 1 0 1/ 2
_ _



, ,
( )
1 2
M 2 3
0 5
_


,
m n
2 mn
+
1 Cos
Cosec Cot
1 Cos
+
+

Mathematics IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
What is Meant by HardWare?
1 Marks Questions
Important symbols
1. Negation
2. And
3. Or
4. Implie
5. If and only if
6. For all
7. For some
8. Belongs
9. Not belongs
10. Subset
11. Superset
12. Union
13. Intersection
14. Powerset
15. Null set
16. Complement of A
17. Cartesion product of A, B is
18. Identify function
19. Discriminant
20. Transpose of A
21. Inverse of A
22. Fistle funciton A to B
23. Composite function of f and g
24. Sum of first 'n' natural numbers
25. n
th
term
26. Sum of 'n' terms
27. Arithmetic mean
28. Sum of frequencies

A
1
/ A
c
A B
I (A)
or D
A
T
A
1
f:AB
gof
n
t
n
s
n
x
f or N
: , r --.-- as..oaa+a
12
Mathematics Discriptions Formulas
Polynomials
Item
1. (x - ) (x ) < 0 ( < )
2. (x - ) (x) > 0 ( < )
Explanation/formula
1. Solution: < x <
2. Solution: x < x >
Real Numbers
Item Problem
1. Modules of a real number |x|
2. |x| = a solution
3. |x| a
4. |x| a
5.
6.
m m
n n
x a
x a
Lt
x a

n n
x a
x a
Lt
x a

Formula
1. |x| = x, if x > 0 = x if x < 0 = 0 if x = 0
2. x = a or x = a
3. a x a
4. x a or x a
5. na
n1
6. m/n a
mn
Progressions
Item
1. n
th
term in A.P.
2. Sum of n terms in A.P.
3. Arithmetic Mean of a, b
4. n
th
term in G.P.
5. Sum of n terms of G.P.
6. Geometric Mean of a, b
7. n
th
term in H.P.
8. Harmonic mean of a, b
9. n
10. n
2
11. n
3
Explanation / Formula
1. t
n
= a+(n1) d
2. S
n
= n/2[2a+(n1) d] or = n/2 [a + l]
3. A.M. = a+b/2
4. t
n
= a.r
n1
5. S
n
= a(r
n
1)/r1 if r > 0 or
= a(1r
n
)/1r if r < 0
6. G.M. = ab
7. t
n
= 1/a+(n1) d
8. H.M. = 2ab/a+b
9. n(n+1)/2
10. n(n+1) (2n+1)/6
11. n
2
(n+1)
2
/4
Discoveries in Mathematics
Topic
1. Sets;
2. Binominal Theorem ;
3. Arithmetic Triangle ;
4. n, n
3
formula
5. n
2
formula ;
6. Basic proportionality theorem;
7. Analytical Geometry ;
8. Trigonometrty;
9. Statistics ;
10. Matrices ;
Mathematician
George Comptor
Newton
Pascal
Aryabhatta
Archimedes
Thales
Rene descartes
Hipparchus
R.A. Fisher
Author Cayley
Analytical Geometry
Name
1. Slope 'm'
2. Distance between two points
3. General equation of line
4. Slope of ax+by+c = 0
5. Mid point
6. Division of a segment internally m:n is
7. Divisional of a segment externally in
the ratio
8. Gradiant or slope form of line
9. Slope - intercept form of line
10. Slope - point form of line
11. Two intercepts form of line
12. Two points form of line
13. Area of a triangle
14. Centroid
Formula
1. m = y
2
y
1
/x
2
x
1
2.
3. ax + by + c = 0
4. m = a/b
5. (x
1
+x
2
/2, y
1
+y
2
/2)
6. (mx
2
+nx
1
/m+n, my
2
+ny
1
/m+n)
7. (mx
2
nx
1
/mn, my
2
ny
1
/m+n)
8. y = mx
9. y = mx+c
10. yy
1
= m(xx
1
)
11. x/a + y/b = 1
12. (yy
1
) (x
2
x
1
) = (xx
1
) (y
2
y
1
)
13. 1/2 | x
1
(y
2
y
3
) + x
2
(y
3
y
1
) + x
3
(y
1
y
2
) |
14. (x
1
+x
2
+x
3
/ 3, y
1
+y
2
+y
3
/ 3)
( ) ( )
2 2
2 1 2 1
x x y y +
Geometry
Item
1. Basic proportionality
theorem
2. vertical Angle
Bisector theorem
3. Pythagorean theorem
4. Appolonius theorem
5. Circum Center
6. In center
7. Centroid
8. Orthocenter
Discription
1. In ABC, DE || BC then AD/DB = AE/EC
2. In ABC, the Bisector of A intersect BC inD then AB/AC =
BD/DC
3. In ABC, right angled at B then AC
2
= AB
2
+ BC
2
4. ABC, AD is Median, AN BC then AB
2
+ AC
2
=2(BD
2
+AD
2
)
5. Concurrence of perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the
Triangle
6. Concurrence point of Angles bisects of the Triangle
7. Concurrence of the Medians of a Triangle
8. Concurrence of the heights of a Traingle
Matrices
Linear Programming
1. Convex set
2. Linear Programming
Problem
3. Objective Function
4. Feasible Region
5. ISO Profit line
1. x is convex if the line segment joining any two points P, Q
in x is contained in x
2. Minimising or Maximising a function f = ax + 1 a, b R
3. In L.P.P, the expression f = ax+by, which is to be Maximised
or Minimised.
4. A set of points which satisfy all the constraints of L.P.P.
5. Any line belonging to the system of parallel lines given by
the objective function for various values of the objective
function.
1. A = A
T
is Symmetric Matrix
2. A
T
= A is non-Symmetric Matrix.
3. If AB = BA = I then B = A
1
4. If A = then
A
1
= 1/adbc
5. If number of columns of the matrix Ais
equal to number of rows of the matrix
then AB is exist.
6. If AX = B then X = A
1
B.
d b
c a
1
1

]
a b
c d
1
1
]
Trigonometry
1. Sin. Cosec = 1
Cos.Sec = 1
Tan.Cot = 1
2. Sin
2
+ Cos
2
= 1
Sec
2
Tan
2
= 1
Cosec
2
Cot
2
= 1
3. Sin0 = Cos90 = 0
Sin 30 = Cos 60 = 1/2
Sin 45 = Cos 45 = 1/2
Sin 60 = Cos 30 = 3/2
Sin 90 = Cos0 = 1
4. Range of Sin = [1, 1]
Range of Cos = [1, 1]
Range of Tan = (, )
Statistics
1. Ungrouped data mean = x/n
2. Grouped data mean = fx/N
3. By-short cut method mean =
4. Grouped
data median =
5. Grouped data mode =
6. The relation between Mean, Median and
Mode is
Mode = 3 Median 2 Mean.
( )
( )
1 1
1 2 1 2
f f C C
L or L
2f f f

+ +
+ +
fd
A C
N

+
N / 2 F
L C
f

+
o.----_-o-.. :r..ee.=--
Quick Review