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Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes Questions 177

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

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PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

1 H 1.0 3 Li 6.9 11 Na 23.0 19 K 39.1 37 Rb 85.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.0 12 Mg 24.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.6 56 Ba 137.3 88 Ra 226.0 21 Sc 45.0 39 Y 88.9 57 La * 138.9 89 Ac 227.0 22 Ti 47.9 40 Zr 91.2 72 Hf 178.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.1 90 Th 232.0 23 V 50.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.0 42 Mo 95.9 74 W 183.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.2 92 U 238.0 25 Mn 54.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55.8 44 Ru 101.1 76 Os 190.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.7 46 Pd 106.4 78 Pt 195.1 29 Cu 63.5 47 Ag 107.9 79 Au 197.0 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.4 80 Hg 200.6 5 B 10.8 13 Al 27.0 31 Ga 69.7 49 In 114.8 81 Tl 204.4 6 C 12.0 14 Si 28.1 32 Ge 72.6 50 Sn 118.7 82 Pb 207.2 7 N 14.0 15 P 31.0 33 As 74.9 51 Sb 121.8 83 Bi 209.0 8 O 16.0 16 S 32.1 34 Se 79.0 52 Te 127.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.0 17 Cl 35.5 35 Br 79.9 53 I 126.9 85 At (210)

2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)

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Passage I (Questions 17) The Hubble Space Telescope (HST) is an astronomical satellite in low orbit above the earths atmosphere. The telescope provides the best photometric measurements ever to be achieved from any astronomical image. Light enters the telescope and is focused by the primary mirror onto the secondary mirror. The secondary mirror then reflects light through a small hole in the primary mirror to the focal plane, which is shared by redirecting mirrors and electromagnetic measuring instruments. The redirecting mirrors send light to the guidance center and wide-field/planetary camera (Wiff-Pick). The rays of light that are not intercepted by the redirecting mirrors pass on to the instruments: the faint-object camera (FOC), the high-resolution spectrograph (HRS) and the faint-object spectrograph (FOS).
Guidance Center

R=

1 1+z

Equation 2 The value of R determines how large the universe was when it emitted the light. For example, if a galaxy is observed with a z = 1, then R = 1 . Therefore the universe 2 was one half its present size when the light was emitted. (Note: c = 3.00 x 108 ms1; h = 6.626 x 1034 Js) 1. Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the red shift? A. B. C. D. Ionization Reflection Refraction Doppler effect

Primary Mirror

Secondary Mirror

FOC FOS HRS

2. Based on composition analysis, a certain star is expected to emit light at a of 250 nm. The FOS indicates that the star is emitting a of 750 nm. What was the relative size of the universe when the light was emitted? A.
Wiff-Pick
*not drawn to scale

B. C. D.

1 3 1 2

Figure 1 The primary mirror is approximately spherical and has a focal length of 58 m and a diameter of 2.4 m. The secondary mirror is flat and .3 m in diameter. The primary and secondary mirrors cooperatively focus the light at the focal plane. The mirrors are coated with aluminum and magnesium fluoride, giving them the capability to reflect light with wavelengths between about 110 nm and 1 mm. The HST enables astronomers to capture light from distant galaxies. Light emitted from the distant edges of the rapidly expanding universe is shifted to greater wavelengths by a quantity called the red shift (z). The red shift is expressed as: z= obs - emit emit

2 3

3. Which of the following ratios represents the scale factor of the universe? A. B. C. D. 1 R= 1+ obs emit R= obs obs R= emit 1 R = obs emit

Equation 1 where obs is the wavelength measured by the HST and emit is the wavelength emitted by the object. The red shift is converted into R, the scale factor of the universe, using the formula:

4. The primary mirror can be described as A. B. C. D. convex, converging convex, diverging concave, converging concave, diverging GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 3

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5. Which are the radius of curvature of the primary and secondary mirrors respectively? A. B. C. D. 1.2 m; 0.15 m 29 m; 0.15 m 29 m; infinity 116 m; infinity

6. Which of the following electromagnetic waves can the HST mirrors reflect?
1024 1020 - rays 1018 X - rays 1016 1014 UV Visible 1012 1011 1010 IR Microwaves 108

(sec-1)
Radiowaves

I. Visible II. IR III. Microwaves A. B. C. D. I only II only II and III only I and II only

7. If incoming parallel rays, when reflected by the mirrors, converge 2 m to the left of the reflective side of the primary mirror, what is the approximate distance between the two mirrors? A. B. C. D. 14 m 28 m 58 m 116 m

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Passage II (Questions 813) A student conducts an experiment comparing different techniques for drying coffee. A liter of dilute coffee is brewed by grinding sumatra beans, adding 1 L of water at 100C, then passing the mixture through filter paper to remove the coffee bean solids. A student divides the coffee into two 0.48 L samples and uses different techniques to remove water from the samples. Experiment 1 Following brewing, sample 1 is quickly placed in a 105C chamber whose temperature and pressure can be carefully controlled. The 5L chamber can be considered an open system that allows the transfer of mass and energy. With the temperature and pressure (1 atm) of the chamber held constant, the temperature of the coffee rises and the water evaporates. When all of the water has evaporated, the dry powder left in the flask is removed. It has a mass of 2.11 grams. Experiment 2 Sample 2 undergoes a process known as freeze drying. The sample is frozen and placed in an identical chamber at -20C. The pressure in the chamber is then reduced to 0.005 atm. With chamber pressure held constant, the chamber temperature is raised to 5C. The sample is allowed to sublime until only a granular solid remains. Figure 1 is a phase diagram for water.

8. At any given temperature and pressure, the H of sublimation for a substance will be: A. B. C. D. more than its H of vaporization. less than its H of fusion. the same as its H of fusion. the same as its H of vaporization.

9. Consider the frozen sample in Experiment 2. When this sample is placed in the chamber at an initial pressure of 1 atm, which of the following phases of water is the most thermodynamically stable? A. B. C. D. gas liquid solid plasma

10. Which of the following could be the boiling point and freezing point of coffee, respectively (273 K = 0C)? A. B. C. D. 373K, 273K 398K, 298K 374K, 270K 370K, 276K

1000 100 Pressure (atm) 10 1 0.1 0.01 A 0.001 200 250 300 350 400 450 500 Temperature (K) 550 600 650 Solid H2O Liquid H2O B

11. Freeze drying produces a more aromatic and flavorful coffee because the process provides a slower oxidation rate, decreased protein denaturation, and reduced transport of volatile flavor and aroma species. Which of the following would be expected to improve the quality of coffee over that produced by Experiment 2? A. B. C. replacing the air in the chamber with helium gas at 0.005 atm changing the final temperature of the chamber to 0C providing a larger interface area between the surface of the frozen coffee and the air in the chamber compressing the frozen sample using a piston mechanism

Gas H2O

D.

Figure 1

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12. Regulation of the chamber temperature is achieved by increasing or decreasing the flow of liquid nitrogen (200C) or steam (150C) through pipes about the chambers metal walls. Which of the following could describe the flow of heat from the sample in Experiment 2? A. B. C. D. conduction then radiation radiation then conduction radiation then conduction then convection convection then radiation then conduction

13. A glass of pure water at room temperature is placed in the chamber and the pressure is decreased to 0.05 atm. A heat sink is used to extract heat from the chamber at a constant rate and the temperature of the water is measured at intervals. Which of the following plots best indicates the temperature of the water over time? A. Temperature C 25

-25 Time B. Temperature C 25

-25 Time C. Temperature C 25

-25 Time D. Temperature C 25

-25 Time

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Passage III (Questions 1419) The Michelson interferometer exploits the phenomenon of interference between light waves. A simplified schematic of such a device is shown below: M1

shape: It will show a series of maxima and minima (bright and dark fringes) corresponding to constructive and destructive interferences respectively (Figure 2). The condition for constructive interference for the Michelson interferometer is: |d1 d2| = m/2 where m = 0, 1, 2, and is the wavelength of the radiation source.

d1 radiation source beamsplitter M2 d2 detector Figure 1 A beam of electromagnetic radiation (usually in either the visible or infrared region) falls upon a beamsplitter. The beamsplitter, which is essentially a mirror that is semitransparent to the radiation used, causes the beam of radiation to be split such that half of the intensity is transmitted while the other half is reflected. These two beams then strike mirrors M1 and M2, one of which is fixed and the other movable. The beams are reflected back towards the beamsplitter, where they interfere and are then directed towards the detector. In the diagram shown above, d1 is the distance between the beamsplitter and M1, and d2 is the distance between the beamsplitter and M2. Depending on the difference between d1 and d2, the two beams may interfere either constructively or destructively. Consider the case where the radiation is monochromatic (i.e. when it consists of electromagnetic waves of a single frequency). If d1 is equal to d2, the distance traveled by the two beams of radiation will be identical, and thus the waves will interfere constructively. However, if the two distances differ by an amount x, the lengths of the paths traveled by the two beams will differ by 2x (since the distance between the beamsplitter and each mirror is traversed twice). Destructive interference occurs when this difference of 2x, known as the retardation, causes the two beams to be 180 out of phase. As the movable mirror is translated, its distance from the beamsplitter increases smoothly, and so does the retardation. The intensity of the radiation reaching the detector will vary as the interference goes from constructive to destructive and back. The interferogram, a plot of the intensity versus retardation, will exhibit a sinusoidal 0 0 /2 Figure 2 14. If a helium-neon laser is used as the light source ( = 6328 ), how far should the movable mirror be displaced to move from one bright fringe to the next one? A. B. C. D. 3164 6328 9492 12660 3/2 retardation intensity 15. If the frequency of the monochromatic radiation is increased (all else being the same), which of the following would result? I. The maximum intensity registered by the detector would be lower. II. The minimum intensity registered by the detector would be lower. III. More maxima and minima will be encountered for a given distance. A. B. C. D. I only II only III only II and III only

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16. If the source radiation consists of light of two distinct wavelengths 1 and 2 that are relatively close in value, which of the following characterizes the appearance of the interferogram? A. B. C. D. a beat wavelength of |1 2| a beat wavelength of |1 + 2| a beat frequency of | 1 a beat frequency of | 1 +
c c c 2 | c 2|

17. One application of the interferometer is the determination of the index of refraction of a gas sample. If the wavelength of light in vacuum is 0, then how many wavelengths will fit in a distance d in a medium with an index of refraction of n? (The speed of light in a medium with an index of refraction n is given by v = c/n.) A. B. C. D. n 0 /d nd/ 0 0 /nd d /n 0

18. If the source radiation consists of a continuous range of wavelengths, the resulting interferogram: A. B. C. D. exhibits maximum constructive interference only when the retardation equals zero. exhibits the same periodicity as the lowest wavelength component of the source radiation. exhibits the same periodicity as the highest wavelength component of the source radiation. exhibits no constructive interference.

19. If the beamsplitter did not split the beam exactly in half: A. B. C. D. constructive interference would have a lower maximum amplitude. destructive interference would not be total. the arm with the stronger intensity would need to have its distance increased. the arm with the stronger intensity would need to have its distance decreased.

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Passage IV (Questions 2024) Chemiluminescence occurs when a chemical reaction produces an electronically excited species, which then emits a photon in the visible range as it relaxes to the ground electronic state. The following is an example of a reaction scheme exhibiting chemiluminescence: NO + O3 NO2* + O2 NO2* NO2 + h where the asterisk denotes an excited state. Monitoring the intensity of the luminescence produced in this reaction sequence, for example, offers an accurate and very sensitive way of determining the concentration of NO in a sample of air. Chemiluminescence can also be used as an analytical method in the liquid phase; reactions involving the chemiluminescent compound luminol are a case in point. Upon oxidation, luminol forms the 3-aminophthalate anion which then luminesces in the blue region of the spectrum.
NH2 O NH NH O NH2

20. Chemiluminescence of which of the following colors corresponds to radiation with the highest frequency? A. B. C. D. Red Yellow Green Violet

21. Upon oxidation to the 3-aminophthalate anion, the number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms in luminol: A. B. C. D. increases by 2. remains unchanged. decreases by 2. decreases by 4.

22. Not all of the energy of the excited state molecule is necessarily emitted during luminescence. Molecules can also undergo nonradiative relaxation, in which part of the energy is dissipated through collisions with other molecules. One consequence of this collisional deactivation channel is that: A. increasing the total pressure of the system would lead to higher frequency luminescence for a gas-phase reaction. increasing the total pressure of the system would lead to higher intensity luminescence for a gas-phase reaction. molecules may luminesce over a range of wavelengths rather than at a single discrete one. molecules may remain in the excited state and never luminesce.

oxidizing system (catalyst)

COO

+ h
COO

B.

C. D.

luminol

The oxidation reaction of luminol by hydrogen peroxide requires a catalyst such as peroxidase or Fe2+ ions. The intensity of the luminescence increases linearly with the concentration of the catalyst (at least over a certain range of concentrations). The luminol reaction can also be used as the basis for an analytic technique to determine the concentration of species that cause suppression of chemiluminescence. Many organic molecules, for example, complex with metal ions. In the luminol reaction, the presence of these molecules will make the Fe2+ ions unavailable as catalysts, i.e., the ions are effectively removed from the system. To determine the concentration of the organic species, the intensity of the chemiluminescence is first recorded when none of the organic molecules is present. This establishes a baseline signal. Then, the reaction is carried out again in the presence of the organic species, and the intensity is again recorded. The decrease in intensity is an indication of the concentration of the organic species. 9

23. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable Lewis structure for NO? A. N O C. N O

B. N O

D. N O

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24. In order to carry out the analysis described in the last paragraph of the passage, which of the following conditions needs to be true? A. The Fe2+ ions should encounter the organic species before being introduced into the luminol-peroxide mixture, and the concentration of the organic species should be lower than the concentration of Fe2+. The Fe2+ ions should encounter the organic species before being introduced into the luminol-peroxide mixture, and the concentration of the organic species should be higher than the concentration of Fe2+. The Fe2+ ions should encounter the organic species after being introduced into the luminolperoxide mixture, and the concentration of the organic species should be lower than the concentration of Fe2+. The Fe2+ ions should encounter the organic species after being introduced into the luminolperoxide mixture, and the concentration of the organic species should be higher than the concentration of Fe2+.

B.

C.

D.

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Questions 25 through 29 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


25. How does the magnitude of the restoring force change as the simple pendulum below swings from positions 1 through 3?

27. What physical quantity can be determined by dividing Newtons (N) by an amount of mass? A. B. C. D. Work Energy Velocity Acceleration

28. In which of the following situations will the normal force on a box be the greatest? A. B. 1 2 A. B. C. D. increases then decreases decreases then increases remains the same It cannot be predicted. 3 C. D. When the box is placed in a stationary elevator. When the box is placed in an elevator moving upwards at a constant velocity. When the box is placed in an elevator accelerating downwards. When the box is placed in an elevator accelerating upwards.

26. Consider the static pulley system illustrated below. Which of the following would be sufficient information to determine the mass B? (Assume a frictionless system, g = 10 m/s2)

T d

A. B. C. D. Mass of A and angle Tension T, height h and distance d Height h and angle Angle and distance d

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29. The following titration curve would be expected from which of the following amino acids? 10 8 pH 6 4 2

2 OH (equivalents) C.
OH H2N CH2 C O

A.
H 2N

O CH C CH CH3 CH3

O CH C OH

B.
H2N CH2

O CH C OH

D.
H2N CH2 CH2

O CH C OH

N NH

C O

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Passage V (Questions 3034) A chemist determined the amount of chloride ion in a solid unknown sample by gravimetric precipitation with silver ion. A 0.2020 g sample of the unknown was dissolved completely in 100 mL of dilute, aqueous nitric acid. The subsequent addition of 20 mL of 0.20 M aqueous silver nitrate solution resulted in the immediate formation of a white precipitate. The solution containing the precipitate was swirled and cooled, then filtered through a sintered glass crucible. The precipitate was then washed with cold, dilute nitric acid and dried. The mass of silver chloride recovered was determined to be 0.3485 g. Reaction 1 describes the solubility of silver chloride in water at the temperature at which the analysis was done. Ag+ (aq) + Cl (aq) Ksp = 1.56 Reaction 1 1010

31. Which of the following would have the least effect on the accuracy of the results obtained from the analysis described in the passage? A. B. C. D. prolonged exposure of the precipitate to sunlight filtration and recovery of the precipitate at elevated temperatures NaNO3 impurities in the AgNO3 solution washing the precipitate with dilute HCl instead of HNO3

32. What is the minimum concentration of chloride ion necessary to induce precipitation upon addition of the silver nitrate solution in the procedure outlined in the passage? A. B. C. D. 4.68 x 109 M 3.12 x 1011 M 5.20 x 1012 M 6.24 x 1012 M

AgCl (s)

Until it is dried, a silver chloride precipitate is susceptible to photodecomposition (Reaction 2): 1 hv AgCl (s) Ag (s) + Cl2 (g) 2 Reaction 2

33. The precipitate obtained in another experiment following the described procedure was a light violetgray. A possible explanation for the color is: A. B. contamination by nitrate ion due to excessive washing with nitric acid. higher temperatures leading to an excess of silver ions trapped within the crystal lattice of the precipitate. the presence of finely divided silver produced by photodecomposition. silver chloride precipitates are violet in color.

The further reaction of excess silver ion with dissolved chlorine gas (Reaction 3) is also a possibility. 3Cl2 (aq) + 5Ag+ (aq) + 3H2O (l) 5AgCl (s) + ClO3 (aq) + 6H+ (aq) Reaction 3

C. D.

34. If the solution containing the silver chloride precipitate is to be stored overnight before filtration, which of the following would be true? A. The sample must be protected from light to avoid photodecomposition of the precipitate. The extra time will allow for an increase in the mass of precipitate formed. Evaporation of the solvent will lead to a decrease in the mass of precipitate recovered. Exposure of the solution to chlorine vapors in the air will lead to artificially low results.

30. What is the approximate mass percent of chloride ion in the original sample? A. B. C. D. 34% 43% 58% 85%

B. C. D.

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Passage VI (Questions 3539) A ship is engineered with the ability to right itself under severe environmental conditions. When waves and wind cause a ship to tilt, a torque is generated that restores the ship to equilibrium. However, if the angle of tilt is too great, a ship will overturn and sink. On calm water, a ship is in rotational equilibrium. The forces of gravity and buoyancy act along the centerline of the ship and are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Referring to Figure 1, the buoyant force (Fb) acts at the hydrostatic center (H), which is the center of gravity of the fluid displaced by the ship. The gravitational force (Fg) operates at the center of gravity of the ship (C). When a ship tilts, H shifts to the leaning side (the center of gravity does not shift) and the forces no longer operate along the same axis. The point at which the buoyant force vector intersects the centerline is called the metacenter (M). The displacement from C to M is called the metacentric height (m).
Calm Water Rough Water
y x

tional to the height of the ship because the higher center of gravity decreases the metacentric height. (Note: Fb = gV)

35. More torque is generated when a ship tilts at a greater angle because: I. H is displaced further from the centerline II. a greater is generated III. the buoyant force increases A. B. C. D. I only II only I and II only I, II and III

36. A ship will overturn when A. B. C. D. the force of gravity exceeds the buoyant force. the metacentric height becomes negative. the hydrostatic center and center of gravity are not along the same line. the restoring torque reaches a minimum.

M m C Fb Fg H C

37. Which of the following correctly represents the mass of the water displaced by a tilting boat?
H

A. B.

Fbsin gmsin Fb gV

centerline

C. Figure 1 D.

gV

The buoyant force exerts a torque () about the center of gravity according to the equation: = Fb m sin Equation 1 where Fb is the buoyant force, m is the metacentric height, and is the angle between the buoyant force vector and the metacentric height. The torque exerted by the buoyant force is referred to as the restoring torque. The stability of the ship depends on the magnitude of the restoring torque. The restoring torque is proportional to the width of the ship, because the hydrostatic center gets displaced further. The restoring torque is inversely propor-

38. According to Newtons third law, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Which of the following is the reactive force to gravity on the ship? A. B. C. D. Restoring torque Buoyant force Gravity on the earth Gravity on the fluid

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39. Which of the following represents the component vector of the force that generates the restoring torque? A D B M

A. B. C. D.

A B C D

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Passage VII (Questions 4045) The apparatus for the Joule-Thomson experiment is shown below in Figure 1. Two chambers of gas are separated by a porous plug. A piston is used to force the gas in chamber 1 at constant pressure P1 through the plug into chamber 2 at constant pressure P2, where P1 > P2. The entire system is thermally insulated and the plug is also made of thermally insulating material. As a result, the process takes place adiabatically, and each chamber is maintained at its own constant temperature.

The van der Waals constants for some gases are given in Table 1: Table 1 Gas He H2 O2 N2 CH4 CO2 HCl a (atmL2/mol2) 0.0341 0.244 1.36 1.39 2.25 3.59 3.67 b (L/mol) 0.0237 0.0266 0.0318 0.0391 0.0428 0.0427 0.0408

P 1,V1,T 1

P 2,V2,T 2

porous plug Figure 1 An ideal gas undergoes no temperature change as it moves into the second chamber. For a real gas, however, internal work is done against the intermolecular forces and so the temperature changes as the gas expands into the other chamber. In general the expansion of the real gas into the second chamber may either raise or lower the temperature. Every real gas has a characteristic inversion temperature, Tinv. When the temperature is below this inversion temperature, the Joule-Thomson effect causes cooling; when the temperature is above the inversion temperature, heating results. If the real gas is adequately described by the van der Waals equation of state, its Tinv can be expressed as Tinv = 2a Rb

40. Which of the following gases has the highest inversion temperature? A. B. C. D. He H2 N2 CH4

41. If the amount of gas that is transferred from chamber 1 to chamber 2 does net work upon expansion, which of the following must be true? A. B. C. D. T1 > T2 T1 < T2 |P1V1| > |P2V2| |P1V1| < |P2V2|

42. A real gas is compressed at constant temperature from an initial pressure of P0 and an initial volume of V0 to a final volume of 1 V0. Its final pressure is:
2

where R is the universal gas constant, and a and b are the van der Waals constants that appear in the van der Waals equation of state, which offers a semi-empirical model for the behavior of real gases: (P + an2 )(V nb) = nRT V2

A. B. C. D.

more than 2P0. 2P0. less than 2P0. indeterminate, depending on the precise initial conditions.

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43. Which of the following is true about an ideal gas that undergoes the Joule-Thomson process? A. B. C. D. It does no net work on the environment. Its entropy decreases. It will be liquefied. Its change in internal energy is of a higher magnitude than that of a real gas.

44. Which of the following diagrams best illustrates the potential energy of interaction between two real gas molecules as a function of their separation r?
A. U C. U

B. U

D. U

45. Two separate vessels of equal volume are filled with gas at the same temperature and pressure. One vessel contains neon, while the other contains argon. If the same amount of heat is added to both vessels at constant volume, which of the following is true? (Assume that both gases are ideal.) A. The two gases will be at the same final temperature, but the neon atoms will be moving faster on average. The two gases will be at the same final temperature, and the neon atoms and the argon atoms will be moving at the same average speed. The vessel containing neon will be at a higher final temperature. The vessel containing argon will be at a higher final temperature.

B.

C. D.

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Passage VIII (Questions 4649) A long plastic tube is partially filled with water as shown in Figure 1. A spigot at the bottom of the tube allows water to be drained away, lowering the water level.

The values of the air column lengths corresponding to resonance are recorded below:

Frequency of tuning fork (Hz) 256 426.7 384

air column

Length of air column at resonance (cm) 31.9 0.5 96.0 0.5 20.0 0.5 59.8 0.5 21.5 0.5 66.3 0.5 Table 1

spigot Figure 1 A tuning fork of known frequency is struck with a rubber mallet and then placed near the open end of the tube, initiating vibrations in the air in the tube. The surface of the water always corresponds to a node and the mouth of the tube corresponds to an antinode. While the tuning fork rings near the opening, the spigot is opened to lower the water level. This causes the length of the air column to increase, and occasionally it will reach a value at which the frequency of the fundamental, or one of its overtones, is the same as the frequency of the tuning fork. (See Figure 2.) When this happens, resonance occurs and a loud ringing response is heard.

46. In the experiment, which of the following could be the next resonance value of the length of the air column, using the tuning fork of 426.7 Hz? A. B. C. D. 80 cm 100 cm 120 cm 160 cm

47. The speed of sound in air decreases as the temperature decreases. If the experiment were conducted at a lower temperature: A. B. C. D. the resonance air column lengths decrease. the resonance air column lengths increase. the frequency of the standing waves decrease. the frequency of the standing waves increase. would would would would

Fundamental

First Overtone

48. The experiment is performed again using a liquid other than water to partially fill the tube. The results of the experiment turn out to be the same as that recorded in Table 1. What can we conclude about that liquid? A. B. C. D. It has the same density as water. It has the same index of refraction as water. It has the same molecular weight as water. Its properties relative to water cannot be determined.

Figure 2

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49. When using the tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz, the spigot is closed at the first resonance so that the length of the air column remains at 31.9 cm. What is the next frequency that will resonate at this length? A. B. C. D. 384 Hz 512 Hz 768 Hz 896 Hz

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Questions 50 through 54 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


50. An engineer designs an underground tunnel with two ventilation pipes as shown below. Pipe A opens to the air at ground level, while Pipe B extends above ground level and is exposed to air moving at a higher velocity. Which of the following is true? (Assume constant air density, P + 1 v2 + gy = constant)
2

53. Which of the following species has the same molecular (or ionic) geometry as SO2? A. B. C. D. CO2 NO2XeF2 NH3

54. A straight wire is placed above a wire ring and currents flow as shown below. In which of the indicated regions could the magnetic field be zero?
i i

Pipe B

Pipe A
1

Tunnel
2 i

A. B. C.

D.

Air will flow from left to right in the tunnel. Air will flow from right to left in the tunnel. The direction of air flow in the tunnel depends on the direction of air flow (wind) in the environment. Air will flow into the tunnel more rapidly via Pipe B than via Pipe A. A. B. C. D. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4

51. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? A. B. C. D. Au Na Li S

52. Which of the following can be measured in Joules (J)? A. B. C. D. Kinetic Energy Velocity Weight Power

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Passage IX (Questions 5561) The extreme cost of transporting fuel into space led researchers to seek more efficient thrusters for long range space missions. The ion propulsion system (IPS) is up to 13 times as efficient as traditional chemical thrusters and has the added advantage of relying on an inert fuel, in contrast to a chemical engines highly combustible fuel. The Deep Space 1 vehicle, shown in Figure 1, was the first to test a xenon IPS. In an IPS, ions of a noble gas are accelerated by an electrical field and ejected from the thruster at high velocity, sometimes exceeding 30 km/s. Although the thrust produced by the IPS is relatively small (Deep Space 1 can produce 92 mN at maximum thrust), the IPS can operate over a long period of time, allowing the space vehicle to reach very high speeds.

Mass of Deep Space 1 = 489.5 kg (408 kg spacecraft, 81.5 kg xenon) Mass of electron = 9.11 x 1031 kg Charge of electron = 1.60 x 1019 C 55. Assume that the initial velocity of Deep Space 1 is 5,000 km/h. Which of the following indicates the change in momentum of Deep Space 1 caused by the ejection of a mole of xenon ions from the thruster at a velocity Vx? A. B. C. D. (131.3g)Vx
(131.3g)Vx 489.5kg 5,000 km (131.3g h (131.3g 131.3g 489.5 kg

) Vx
131.3g(Vx)2

489.5kg) (5,000 km )2 h 489.5kg

Ca th od e
+
Xe

Positive grid (1090V)

Xe
Anode
Xe

+
Xe

e-

+
Xe

Cathode eXe

+ +
Xe Xe

+ +
Xe

56. Consider what happens if the fuel in Deep Space 1 is replaced with the nobel gas argon, everything else being kept the same. Compared to those of xenon, which of the following will be true regarding the kinetic energy and momentum, respectively, of an ion of argon ejected from the IPS? A. B. C. D. higher, lower same, lower same, higher lower, same

Magnet ring

Negative grid (-225V)

Figure 1 Xenon gas is injected into a bombardment chamber at a controlled rate. A hollow cathode introduces electrons into the bombardment chamber. The electrons move towards the peripheral anode, but their path is made longer by a magnetic field produced by ring magnets about the chamber. This increases the likelihood of collisions between electrons and xenon atoms. Some of these collisions are energetic enough to ionize xenon, producing a positively charged xenon ion (Xe+) and another electron (e). The xenon ion is then accelerated through a potential of 1315 V and is ejected from the thruster at a high velocity. In order to produce a neutral ion beam, a separate cathode ejects electrons into the stream of xenon ions leaving the chamber. This prevents the xenon ions from being attracted back towards the chamber. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 21

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57. Which of the following magnetic fields will cause the electron to move along the path indicated below?

59. If Deep Space 1 fires its thruster at maximum power for 1 second, the space crafts change in momentum is: A.
(1 s)(489.5 kg) 92 mN

eCathode e-

B. C. D.

(92 mN)(1 s)
92 mN (489.5 kg)2 92 mN (489.5 kg)2

(1 s)2 (1 s)

A.

C. 60. Which of the following plots best illustrates the velocity of Deep Space 1 over time? (Assume that the IPS fires continuously at maximum thrust and that the mass of Deep Space 1 is constant.) A. C.
Velocity Velocity Time

Cathode

Cathode

B.
x Cathode x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x

D.

Cathode

Time

B.
Velocity

D.
Velocity Time

58. When ion propulsion was invented by Dr. Harold Kaufman in 1959, mercury ions were used instead of noble gases. Which of the following is true about the electrons required to ionize mercury? A. They are higher energy electrons than those that ionize xenon because xenon has a lower ionization energy. They are higher energy electrons than those that ionize xenon because xenon has a lower electron affinity. They are lower energy electrons than those that ionize xenon because xenon has a higher ionization energy. They are lower energy electrons than those that ionize xenon because mercury has a higher ionization energy.

Time

B.

61. Which of the following best describes what would happen if the exterior neutralizing cathode on the Deep Space 1 IPS failed in midflight? A. The vehicle would slow down because the negative grid would be accelerated towards the positive ions. The positive acceleration of the vehicle would increase because the xenon ions would repel the positive grid. The acceleration would decrease because the xenon ions would apply a force that would decrease the net force on the vehicle. The vehicle would stop because thrust would decrease.

C.

D.

B.

C.

D.

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Passage X (Questions 6267) The Winkler method was developed as a means of determining the amount of oxygen dissolved in water. Several variants of the method exist, all involving the oxidation and reduction of manganese-containing compounds. Manganese, as a transition metal, can exist in a number of oxidation states. The standard electrode potentials for some of the half-reactions involving manganese are given below in Table 1. Half-reaction Mn(OH)2 + 2e Mn + 2OH Mn2+ + 2e Mn Mn2O3 + 3H2O + 2e 2Mn(OH)2 + 2OH MnO2 + 2H2O + 2e Mn(OH)2 + 2OH 2MnO2 + H2O + 2e Mn2O3 + 2OH MnO42 + e MnO43 MnO4 + e MnO42 MnO4 + 2H2O + 3e MnO2 + 4OH MnO42 + 2H2O + 2e MnO2 + 4OH MnO43 + 2H2O + e MnO2 + 4OH Mn3+ + e Mn2+ Table 1 E (V) 1.57 1.18 0.234 0.044 0.146 0.27 0.56 0.588 0.60 0.93 1.56

Mn(SO4)2 + 2KI MnSO4 + K2SO4 + I2 Reaction 4

The iodine is finally titrated with thiosulfate in the presence of starch indicator to a clear endpoint: I2 + 2S2O32 S4O6 + 2I Reaction 5

62. For which of the following half-reactions should the electrode potential be expected to increase as the pH of the solution increases? A. B. C. D. Mn2+ + 2e Mn Mn2+ Mn3+ + e MnO2 + 2H2O + 2e Mn(OH)2 + 2OH Mn(OH)2 + 2OH Mn2O3 + 3H2O + 2e

63. Which of the following should NOT be a limiting reagent in the series of reactions comprising the Winkler method? A. B. C. D. O2 MnO(OH)2 Mn(SO4)2 KI

In one variant of the Winkler method, the first step involves the formation of a precipitate of manganous hydroxide in basic aqueous solution: MnSO4 + 2KOH Mn(OH)2 + K2SO4 Reaction 1

The manganous hydroxide then reacts with the dissolved oxygen to form a brown precipitate: 2Mn(OH)2 + O2 2MnO(OH)2 Reaction 2

64. When the endpoint of the titration is reached in the Winkler method, the ratio of the number of moles of thiosulfate ions used to the number of moles of oxygen molecules originally present in the solution is: A. B. C. D. 1:2 1:1 2:1 4:1

The mixture is then acidified, and upon the addition of KI forms iodine: MnO(OH)2 + 2H2SO4 Mn(SO4)2 + 3H2O Reaction 3

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65. Disproportionation occurs when the same species acts as both the reducing agent and the oxidizing agent. Based on the electrode potentials given in Table 1, which of the following disproportionation reactions could be used to construct a galvanic cell? A. B. C. D. 2MnO43 + 2H2O MnO42 + MnO2 + 4OH 2Mn2O3 + 2H2O 2Mn(OH)2 + 2MnO2 2Mn(OH)2 Mn + MnO2 + 2H2O 2Mn2+ Mn3+ + Mn

66. In the reaction between manganous hydroxide and oxygen, the oxidation state of manganese changes: A. B. C. D. from +2 to +3. from +3 to +2. from +2 to +4. from +4 to +2.

67. NO2 ions can react with iodide in the following manner: 2I + 2NO2 + 4H+ I2 + N2O2 + 2H2O If NO2 ions were present in the solution during the thiosulfate titration, how would the result of the analysis be affected? A. B. C. D. The concentration of O2 will appear higher than it actually is. The concentration of O2 will appear lower than it actually is. The solution will appear clear even before the addition of any thiosulfate. The result of the analysis is not affected.

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Passage XI (Questions 6872) A student connected the following circuit. S1, S2 and S3 are switches that can be closed to make electrical connection. The resistors are rated at the following values: R1 = R2 = R3 = R6 = 10 , R4 = R5 = 20 . Unless otherwise indicated, the battery can be assumed to be ideal (no internal resistance). 120 V

71. An uncharged capacitor is added to the circuit as follows: 120 V

R1

R4

S1

R2

R5 R6

S2 S3 S4

R1

R4

S1

R3

R2

R5 R6

S2 S3

R3

S4 and S3 are then closed, causing the capacitor to be charged. Which of the following statements is correct? 68. What is the current through the circuit when only S2 is connected? A. B. C. D. 1.5 A 3A 4A 6A A. B. C. D. The maximum charge stored in the capacitor would be the same if S3 had remained open. The capacitor would not be charged if S3 had remained open. The maximum charge stored in the capacitor would be lower if S3 had remained open. The maximum charge stored in the capacitor would be higher if S3 had remained open.

69. The circuit is initially connected via S1 only. If another switch is then closed, the power dissipated by R1: A. B. C. D. increases. decreases. remains the same. increases if the switch closed is S2, decreases if the switch closed is S3.

72. All three switches are closed. What can we say about the potential difference across R1 if the internal resistance of the battery is no longer negligible? A. B. C. The voltage drop across R1 is higher than in the ideal case. The voltage drop across R1 is lower than in the ideal case. The voltage drop across R1 is the same as in the ideal case, but the current through it is higher. The voltage drop across R1 is the same as in the ideal case, but the current through it is lower.

70. What is the effective resistance of the circuit when all three switches are closed? A. B. C. D. 7.5 15 20 30

D.

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Questions 73 through 77 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


73. Which of the following is the electron configuration of Ag? A. B. C. D. [Ar]5s14d10 [Kr]5s24d10 [Kr]5s14d10 [Kr]4d8

77. The nucleus of the 228U nuclide contains how many neutrons and protons, respectively? A. B. C. D. 124, 104 92, 136 136, 92 228, 92

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

74. The equilibrium constant for a reaction, K, is related to the change in entropy (S) and change in enthalpy (H) as follows: ln K =
S H R RT

The formation of products will always be favored when A. B. C. D. S is positive, H is positive S is negative, H is positive S is positive, H is negative S is negative, H is negative

75. Which of the following changes would NOT increase the acceleration of a ball down an inclined plane? A. B. C. D. Increasing the angle of inclination. Decreasing the friction between the ball and the slope with a lubricant. Decreasing the density of the air to decrease air resistance. Increasing the mass of the ball.

76. A marksman fires a bullet of mass M from a height H towards a target D meters away at an angle to the ground and at velocity V. The center of the target is H meters above the ground. Which of the following MUST be true if the bullet hits the target center? (Assume there is no air resistance). A. The bullet reaches its maximum height at a distance of B. C. D.
D from the target. 2

VHsin = VHcos The initial velocity of the bullet, V, must be greater than Mgsin. The angle must be less than 45.

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Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 Minutes Questions 78137

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

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VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal Reasoning Section. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding oval on your answer document.
Passage I (Questions 7884) A balance of power arises when a group of neighboring countries enter a state of economic and military equilibrium. In a balance of power system, a nation state cannot violate the independence or the essential rights of another without incurring reprisals. Diplomacy and trade in a balance of power is a continuum of action and reaction, rather than a series of attempts at independent policymaking. Peace or the safety of an individual nation is less important in a balance of power than the continuing preservation of the system itself. What conditions are necessary for a balance of power to occur? Firstly, states must be aligned in a state system. The states involved must be independent, close in proximity (often possessing shared borders), and near equals in power. When one state far outstrips its close neighbors in power, it dictates economic and military policy for the region. When neighbor states are commensurate, however, interaction on issues of shared concern creates a level playing field for determining policy. A second factor in the formation of a balance of power is the framework of the system. To maintain an effective balance of power, a system must include a minimum of three states. A true equilibrium cannot exist between two states, because one state inevitably gains an ascendancy over the other. A balance of power is also generally characterized by a common ground of culture in the state system. A group of states is more likely to align in a cooperative manner if constituent states perceive a degree of cultural similarity with their neighbors. Added to this, the mechanisms of diplomacy must be in place for a balance of power to thrive: there must be a distribution of skilled diplomats and economic alliance structures within the system. If this apparatus exists, the system will be sufficiently flexible to survive short-lived economic fluctuations and military antagonisms. Inherent in this need for a framework system is a third precondition for the evolution of a balance of power system: rational estimation. Countries involved in a balance of power must have a rational means of estimating power within the system. For an economic equilibrium to persist, trade between countries must be accompanied by a flow of information; a nations economic planning should encompass the dynamics of the entire state system, in addition to its own agriculture and industry. A similar diffusion of information must occur on national security issues. This means that the stability of a state system depends on the development of sophisticated military intelligence agencies. The importance of military intelligence is perhaps best illustrated on a smaller scale. Suppose that your neighbor has stolen your lawnmower and you are considering taking retribution by picking a fight with him. For your survival and for the continued survival of the balance of power in your neighborhood, you must first be aware of all relevant personal defense issues. In particular, it is critical that you find out whether your neighbor possesses a gun and might be likely to use it under such circumstances. Without the gathering and sharing of such information, the balance of power in your neighborhood cannot be maintained.

40

45

10

50

15

55

20

25

30

35

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78. The bulk of the passage is devoted to: A. B. C. D. explaining how a particular phenomenon occurs. advocating a system of international trade. comparing international relations to interpersonal ones. outlining three distinct systems of government.

82. The passage suggests that in order to participate in a balance of power, a country must: I. plan its agricultural and industrial development. II. possess information on its neighbors economies. III. disclose its military secrets to its neighbors. A. B. C. D. II only I and II only I and III only I, II and III

79. Suppose that interest rates in a country are adjusted in response to economic conditions of neighboring countries. This finding would best support the authors view that: A. B. C. D. Flexibility on interest rates is critical to a countrys economic survival. Countries tend to consult their neighbors on economic issues. A countrys economic policy can be influenced by conditions elsewhere. Economic policy is closely linked to military intelligence gathering.

83. The analogy between an international balance of power and the interrelations between neighbors is based on which of the following assumptions? A. B. Both neighbors and neighbor states must avoid conflict whenever possible. Power relations between neighbors are dependent on similar factors to those between neighbor states. A degree of cultural similarity is required for peaceful coexistence. The use of force for self-preservation is always justifiable.

80. Which of the following, if true, would help explain why a balance of power is generally characterized by a common ground of culture (line 26)? A. B. C. D. Countries with shared borders often have similar cultures. Cultural differences between two nations are often the source of military conflict. An extremely powerful nation often influences the cultures of all nations surrounding it. Economic alliances among a group of nations are often driven by shared cultural beliefs.

C. D.

84. According to the passage, which of the following would be LEAST critical to the survival of a neighborhoods balance of power? A. B. C. D. An alliance network of a minimum of five or more neighbors. The presence of a number of skilled negotiators. Information about the location of dangerous weapons. Shared knowledge of neighbors typical behavior in times of conflict.

81. The authors use of the phrase level playing field for determining policy (line 19) is probably meant to indicate that in a balance of power: A. B. C. D. states coordinate policy in a democratic manner. diplomatic initiatives generally work to the advantage of all member states. each state has some influence on economic and military events. member states form alliances against countries outside the balance of power.

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Passage II (Questions 8590) One of the many remarkable properties of water is the unwillingness of bodies of water of substantially different temperature to mix together. It is this unwillingness that is responsible for the formation in freshwater lakes of a stratification phenomenon known as the thermocline. Fisheries biologists must take the thermocline into account when determining management strategies for a lakes sport fishery. Consider the annual temperature fluctuations in a typical deep-water impoundment in the southern United States. In late winter, usually the end of February or the first of March, whatever ice may have previously formed at the surface of the reservoir melts, and the lakes temperature measures a uniform 38-42 degrees. Wave action stirs oxygen into the water at the reservoirs surface, and the temperature uniformity allows distribution of this dissolved oxygen to all depths. With oxygen plentiful, many of the reservoirs fish species, both predator and forage, are found throughout the vertical water column. The windy, sunny days of early spring warm the reservoirs surface quickly. As the surface temperature increases, that water expands. Because 50-degree water is lighter than 40-degree water, a layer of warmer water develops at the surface, resting like a pillow on the mass of colder water below. The pillow of surface water increases in thickness only slowly, as heat is transferred into the depths by the limited stirring of wave action. By early summer, a remarkable stratification has occurred. A sharp boundary separates two independent bodies of water within the reservoir. The boundary is a temperature gradient that acts as a barricade to prevent any further mixing of oxygenated surface water into the chilly depths. Depending on wind and ambient air temperatures, the water temperature at the surface near the dam on July 1 might be 86 degrees, 84 degrees ten feet down, and 82 degrees at 20 feet. But at 24 feet, the temperature has plunged to 65 degrees. That sharp change in temperature occurs in a narrow band called the thermocline. It is not colder water temperatures in the depths that force fish and other aquatic life to congregate in the zone between the thermocline and the surface during the summer months. Instead, the inability of the two layers of water to mix creates a relative absence of oxygen in the lower, colder zone. The absence of oxygen grows more pronounced as summer progresses...

50

The cold nights of autumn reverse the warming. Sometime in the fall, water at the surface cools to the point that it is heavier than the water below the thermocline. This initiates a process known as the turnover: A current of cold but richly oxygenated water plunges to the bottom of the reservoir, forcing stagnant water back to the surface. The reservoir reaches equilibrium by early winter and remains there until the story repeats itself the following spring. As winter ends, the depths are well-oxygenated. But as the thermocline sets up in late spring, the supply of oxygen to the depths abruptly shuts off. No oxygen can circulate downward from the surface to replenish the oxygen consumed by fish and dying zooplankton. In reservoirs built within the past few years, this process is hastened by the constant decay of thousands of trees left standing in the lake. Because of the lack of oxygen in the depths, fish are forced to move upward through the water column into the relatively thin layer of warm water at the surface. Soon most of the reservoirs volume is virtually devoid of fish. The more shallow the depth at which the thermocline sets up, the more vulnerable the fish population becomes to the increased angling pressure of the summer vacation months.

55 10

60

15

65

20

25

30

85. The author refers to the phenomenon known as turnover (line 49) primarily in order to: A. B. C. D. demonstrate an inverse connection between water temperature and dissolved oxygen levels. illustrate the negative effects a thermocline can have on a deep-water reservoir. identify the conclusion of a reservoirs seasonal stratification process. suggest that changes in surface temperature ultimately have an inconsequential effect on a reservoir.

35

40

45

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86. The author would most likely argue that: A. B. C. D. the effects of temperature stratification on an individual reservoir can be predicted. temperature stratification is the primary influence on a lakes fish populations. the effects of temperature stratification increase as reservoirs get older. temperature stratification is only a problem in deep-water reservoirs.

89. Given the information in the passage, which of the following fisheries management strategies would the LEAST likely to succeed in maintaining a fish population in a deep-water reservoir? A. B. Stocking a species of fish that will not feed in water warmer than 65 degrees. Stocking a species of fish whose metabolism slows dramatically in water cooler than 65 degrees. Stocking a species of fish that primarily feeds on zooplankton. Stocking a species of fish that grows rapidly in warm water.

C. 87. Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the authors description of the decay of trees in the passage? A. B. Only in recent years have trees been left standing in reservoirs. Temperature stratification problems can be avoided by removing all trees before a reservoir fills. The decay process consumes large quantities of oxygen. The rate of a trees decay is related to the trees depth in the water. D.

90. Which of the following conclusions can be safely drawn from the information in the passage? A. B. C. D. Temperature stratification always affects fisheries adversely. Wind patterns can influence the stratification of a lake. Fish cannot penetrate the boundary formed by the thermocline. The thermocline is found at the same depth every year in a given reservoir.

C. D.

88. Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the authors contention that the formation of a thermocline leaves game fish more vulnerable to angling pressure? A. B. C. D. Fish feed more frequently in warmer water. Most fresh water anglers prefer to catch fish at moderate depths. Most people who visit large reservoirs during the summer months do not fish. Many anglers prefer to fish during the cooler weather of spring and fall.

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Passage III (Questions 91-97)


50

The diversity of moral views has always been an obstacle in the search for objective moral principles. This task is hardest when a moral dispute is based upon differences in basic moral standards. As we look around the world, we find societies with radically different standards of justice. Since many of these standards of justice conflict with each other in a fundamental way, they cannot all be correct. But it is difficult to choose among them without presuming the validity of a particular cultural standpoint. Deliberative universalism is a recent school of thought that attempts to respond to this moral problem. Deliberative universalists argue that since certain moral standards are shared by all cultures throughout the world, there must be a set of core values that transcend cultural differences. For example, an individual traveling around the world might conclude that the freedom to not be tortured is a moral belief shared by people everywhere. But deliberative universalists also believe that certain values that are widely but not universally shared should also merit consideration as core human values. Freedom of conscience, for instance, is a belief that is widespread but by no means universal. The belief that an individual has the right to form and express independent opinions on any given subject is a central tenet shared by Western democracies. And yet our world traveler would find that this apparently fundamental human value conflicts with the religious and ideological beliefs held in many of the countries he visited. How do deliberative universalists account for differences in moral standards? Their response is perhaps best illustrated in comparison to two popular alternative moral theories: cultural relativism, in which it might seem that there are no objective requirements at all, and comprehensive universalism, which holds that there is a single correct answer to every moral question. Cultural relativists argue that each society develops its own distinct system of values. To a cultural relativist, the moral integrity of an individuals actions can only be assessed in a cultural context. Working on the day of a particular religious holiday, for instance, is considered morally wrong in one country, but not in another. In a purely relativistic universe, no action can be considered morally wrong from an objective standpointit can only conflict with the standards set by a particular culture. The comprehensive universalist maintains a dogged position at the other end of the spectrum. He argues that a set of objective moral criteria can be determined, and that values that conflict with these criteria are simply wrong.

55

60 10

If cultural relativism and comprehensive universalism are black and white approaches to moral theory, deliberative universalism is a grey position that fits in between these two extremes, incorporating some objective standards, while reserving judgment on such non-universal values as freedom of conscience. On the one hand, deliberative universalists assume that the fact that some moral values appear to transcend all cultural barriers must indicate that there is a set of innate, universal human values. On the other hand, they reserve the right to debate the merits of moral principles that are commonly-held, but not universally subscribed to. One critique of deliberative universalism is that, like the comprehensive universalism, it is ultimately dogmatic in its assertion of a set of universal values. Conversely, because it narrows the scope of those values that are considered universal, deliberative universalism is also vulnerable to the main charge laid against cultural relativismnamely that it turns a blind eye to behavior that many of us find reprehensible. If certain moral values transcend cultures, what follows? The fact that a feature is commonplace is not itself a reason to support it. Suppose that you are in a world of dictators where all the tyrants have discovered foolproof methods for retaining power. Then, we could say that certain features are shared by all societies, but we would still have reasons to reject those features.

15

65

20

70

25

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91. Critics of deliberative universalism might claim that it: A. B. C. D. presents a dogmatic defense of culturally specific values. incorporates the problems of two extreme positions. offers too broad a conception of universal values. ignores the issue of core human rights.

40

45

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92. The standards of justice in Country X are radically different from those in Country Y. The author would cite this as evidence of: A. B. C. D. the need for cultural relativism. the failure of deliberative universalism. the obstacle to finding objective morals. the key to comprehensive universalism.

96. Which of the following most parallels the authors critique of basing universal moral principles on practices which are common to most cultures? A. B. C. Tyrannical societies will always exist despite universal principles. Moral individuals must resist the immoral consensus of a majority. Universal law should be based on formal principles rather than social practice. The fact that something is universally practiced does not make it universally acceptable.

93. According to the passage, a purely relativistic universe (line 41) would be one in which: A. B. C. D. There would be no religious holidays. Working on religious holidays would be outlawed. The government would guarantee freedom of religion. Working on a religious holiday would never be objectively wrong.

D.

97. According to the passage, a deliberative universalist recognizes two main categories of moral value: A. B. C. D. legal versus social universal versus debatable cultural versus historical innate versus transcendent

94. If a deliberative universalist were to speak before a tribunal on human rights he would most likely: A. B. C. D. stress that the majority should not determine what is right for the minority. argue that each society must decide its own moral principles. emphasize that values which are not universally shared can be debated. call for the elimination of grey areas caused by moral relativism.

95. The author uses the hypothetical example of a world of dictators (line 71) in order to: A. B. C. D. illustrate a flaw in deliberative universalism. indicate an obstacle in the search for moral principles. point out the innate desire for power in human beings. argue that deliberative universalism is the most practical moral theory.

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Passage IV (Questions 98-103) The art of music, performed at the highest level of artistry, utterly defies our attempts to describe it. Our reaction on leaving a satisfying concert is one of wonder, and our attempts to discuss the experience suggest that we are 5 powerless to penetrate its mysteries; a symphony is breathtaking, a cadenza is dazzling, and a guitar solo is awesome. And yet, the fact that music is sublime continues to inspire people to write about it. Nevertheless, our biggest obstacle to understanding music is that our interpretation of it must 10 be mediated by language. To discuss music, we must translate it, form and function, into a crude system of words and phrases, nouns and adjectives, and lose its ineffable essence in the process. What is lost in the translation from the intensity of performance to the printed page is the meaning of the musical experience. Music is above all an act of communication: it uses musical form to convey complex emotional statements. The haunting beauty of jazz trumpeter Miles Davis work, for instance, cannot be explained in technical terms 20 alone. Every phrase that he recorded can be analyzed in terms of its pitch, tone quality, harmonic and rhythmic foundation. And yet what he is remembered for has little to do with his undoubted command of his craft. He is venerated for his ability to search inside, tap the emotional core 25 of his own experience, and express it in music. It is symptomatic of twentieth century art that such a sensitive, almost dangerously introspective musician is lauded throughout the world for his understanding of the human condition.
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One can see how a purely academic approach can result in a travesty of the musical experience. Consider an analysis of The Beatles early work that compared the structure of their songs to those of other groups at the time. Such scholarship would serve to clarify Lennon and McCartneys development as composers, and perhaps help to identify their influences. But without mentioning The Beatles effect on audiences, this redoubtable study would fail to address the factors that made this phase in the groups development significant. Less obvious are the pitfalls of the journalistic endeavor. Caught up in describing the listeners experience, the music critic often does a disservice to the composer or musician by pre-forming his judgments or not paying sufficient attention to the performance at hand. Worse still, artistic standards suffer when criticism is not rooted in some technical analysis of music. Audiences need to understand that a great work or a great performance is not simply a matter of each listeners judgment: it is the result of inspirational handling of musical structure or instrumental technique.

The problem in writing about music is our failure to unite our analysis and our appreciation of it. Two quite separate discourses dominate the field of music criticism. On the one hand, the academic study of music presents a scientific approach, in which musical works are analyzed 35 in terms of pitch, rhythm, harmony and melodic development, and related to other works of a similar type or genre. The academic approach concentrates on the quantifiable aspects of music, resolutely shutting out the murky, qualitative world of interpretation. At the other end of the spec40 trum is the discourse of music journalism, which focuses primarily on the subjective response of the listener. Often deficient in technical analysis, journalistic discourse is more representative of the average listeners experience of music than its academic counterpart. Music is a magic art; 45 on hearing a Mahler Adagietto, most of us would find it easy to describe our emotional response, but difficult to identify its exact cause.
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98. Which of the following statements from elsewhere in the authors writing would be most relevant to the first paragraph of the passage? A. Musicians and writers must first master the rules of their craft before they can transcend those rules. The effect of music is as easy to describe accurately as the taste of a particular wine. A virtuoso performance gives the audience an insight into the musicians inner experience. Counterpoint is best understood as a dialogue between two musical parts.

B. C. D.

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99. The passage suggests that to fully understand the haunting beauty of Miles Davis music, listeners should: I. examine his use of harmony and rhythm. II. assess its emotional impact on audiences. III. consider the factors behind his continuing popularity. A. B. C. D. I only I and II only II and III only I, II and III

102. The passage suggests which of the following about The Beatles and their early work? A. B. C. The classical orientation of their early work had a profound influence on audiences. Most appraisals of their early work have been academic rather than journalistic. The musical influences on Lennon and McCartney were not the most significant influence on the early phase of the Beatles development. The music created by Lennon and McCartney was more structurally complex than that of other groups at the time.

D.

100. The authors argument that academic discourse can be a travesty of the musical experience is based on the assumption that: A. B. C. D. a composers influences have no effect on the popularity of his music. a critic should assess both the objective and subjective aspects of a composers work. only those who witness a live performance are qualified to criticize it. music criticism should restrict its scrutiny to legitimate composers.

103. According to the passage, an academic scholar would most likely object to an article by a music journalist on which of the following grounds? A. B. C. D. The article draws conclusions that cannot be objectively verified. The article fails to put the performance of music in a broader social context. The article does not represent the average listeners experience of music. The article requires from its readers a technical understanding of music.

101. According to the passage, some degree of technical analysis is necessary in music criticism so that audiences: A. B. C. D. can incorporate expert opinions into their discussions of music. are not influenced by subjective judgments in evaluating a work or performance. are able to distinguish between an inspired performance and a mechanical one. can better comprehend the technical basis of an excellent performance.

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Passage V (Questions 104-109) When Alfred Wegener first published the continental drift hypothesis in 1912, his novel explanation for why the continents seem to fit together like pieces of a jigsaw puzzle drew explosive criticism from many geologists. It was 5 not until the 1960s that a growing tide of evidence for continental drift produced a general change of attitude within the discipline. For at least 300 years, people had noticed that the bulge along the eastern edge of South America fits remarkably well into the bight of Africa; Francis Bacon suggested in 1620 that the fit could not be accidental. Several 19thcentury scientists offered explanations for the fit; these explanations included most notably the contracting-Earth hypothesis of Austrian geologist Eduard Seuss and the lunar hypothesis of English physicist Osmond Fisher. (Fisher argued that the oceans were created when the newly formed Earth flung off the Moon.) Wegeners explanation was far more comprehensive than any of the earlier hypotheses offered by his predecessors, and it paved the way for the modern theory of plate tectonics...

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expected location along the coast of South America adds additional proof that the two continents once formed part of a larger land mass. The fossil record also contains evidence that Africa and South America were formerly connected. Large bodies of water act as barriers to the migration of many types of animals, as evidenced by the unique fauna of the Galapagos Islands. Yet the fossils of identical species of plants and animals are found on both sides of the southern Atlantic Ocean. The remains of Mesosaurus, a small reptile of the Permian that lived in shallow, brackish swamps, are found in only two locationsin the Early Permian Dwyka Formation in South Africa and in the Irarare Formation in Brazil. The rock formations are the same age, are similar in composition, and lie directly across the ocean from each other. Additionally, the fossil remains of a fourfoot-long amphibian from the Triassic have been unearthed in Africa, South America, and Antarctica, from a layer of rock common to all three continents. These and other fossil discoveries strengthen the likelihood of continental drift.

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Wegener used gravity measurements and the observation that the surface of the Earth generally consists of two levelsthe surface of the continents and the bottom of the oceansto deduce that the continents are composed of 25 lighter rock than the basalt that lies beneath the ocean floors. The continents, he suggested, float on the denser layer of basalt like icebergs on water. Wegeners early critics excoriated him for not proposing a mechanism for propelling the continental icebergs through solid basalt, 30 although now there is some theoretical basis for thinking that convection might drive the process. Wegener did not live long enough to find the clear and convincing evidence his revolutionary hypothesis required, but since his death in 1930, geologists have learned much that supports 35 Wegeners earth-shattering idea. Belts of complimentary rock formations found along the African and South American shorelines of the Atlantic Ocean make a strong argument for continental drift. In one extended experiment, geochronologists used both the 40 potassium-argon and the rubidium-strontium radioactive dating methods to determine the age of a distinctive layer of crystalline basement rock in Ghana. The scientists then predicted where the same rock layer would be found at the edge of the South American continent if the two continents 45 had indeed been contiguous. By sampling and dating rocks in northeastern Brazil, the scientists demonstrated that the layer does occur in its predicted location. Another belt of two-billion-year-old rock that abruptly ends at the edge of the West African continental mass and begins again at the 36

104. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument that South Africa and South America were once part of a larger continent? A. In South America, rock deposits that formed relatively recently differ significantly from South African rock deposits that formed relatively recently. A certain species of modern bird flourishes only in South Africa and northern Europe. The distinctive layer of crystalline rock that was sampled in Ghana is found at the same position in the bedrock all around the world. South America does not share common rock formations with Europe or Asia.

B. C.

D.

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105. According to the passage, the continental-drift hypothesis was originally: A. B. C. a modification of an earlier hypothesis about the contracting Earth. rejected by most geologists because it failed to explain the origin of the Moon. Wegeners attempt to explain why South America and Africa share common rock formations and fossils. relatively detailed but lacking in supporting evidence.

108. With which of the following statements about the contracting-Earth hypothesis of Eduard Seuss would the author most probably agree? A. The contracting-Earth hypothesis more effectively explains the complimentary shapes of South America and Africa than does the lunar hypothesis. The contracting-Earth hypothesis was more limited in scope than was the continental drift hypothesis. The contracting-Earth hypothesis provided a useful theoretical framework for Wegeners continental drift hypothesis. Most scientists who criticized the continental drift hypothesis preferred the contracting-Earth hypothesis.

B.

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106. The authors conclusion about the two-billion-yearold rock formations in Africa and South America implies which of the following? A. The rock formations would not be in their current locations if the continents had never been connected. The rock formations were on the surface at the time the continents broke apart. The rock formations would be much younger if the continents had never been connected. The rock formations must contain fossils common to both Africa and South America.

D.

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109. If true, which of the following most weakens Wegeners claim that continents float on a denser layer of basalt like icebergs on water? A. The density of basalt removed from the ocean floor is greater than that of most rocks found on the surface of North America. Samples of Moon rock are the same density as continental rock on Earth. The continents extend below the basalt of the ocean floors. The density of continental rock varies from location to location.

B. C.

107. The conclusion that belts of complimentary rock formations are evidence for continental drift presupposes which of the following? A. B. C. D. Crystalline basement rock cannot be created in the absence of continental drift. There was no intervening land mass that sank to the level of the ocean floor. The continents must have separated about 2 billion years ago. These rock formations can be found at no other locations on Earth.

D.

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Passage VI (Questions 110-116) The social movements which have emerged in the U.S. and Western Europe since the late 1960s differ distinctly from political movements of the early 20th century. Differences can be characterized in terms of: membership, issues, values, and methods of action used to achieve political ends. A current hypothesis about the post-1960s social movements proposes the following: class membership in these new movements tends to be more diverse than in the earlier movements; political issues tend to focus more on personal freedom as opposed to improved social status; values tend to be less revolutionary and more in accord with dominant culture; and methods of action tend to be outside of existing political structures as opposed to within. While pre-1960s social movements were generally comprised of same class members with similar institutional interests, the new social movements consist of members of various classes whose political affinities cut across party and class lines. In U.S. politics, the 1960s Civil Rights movement included a diverse mixture of middle class, working class, and ruling class elements, while the trade-union movements of the 1930s featured fairly homogenous class affiliations. The central issues for early 20th century social movements were economic, including economic stability, equitable distribution of wealth, and security of social status, whereas post-1960s social movements have focused on a variety of issues such as gender and racial equality, environmental health, and nuclear disarmament. Many of the new social movements have rejected the older movements political methods of collective bargaining and party competition. Instead, the new groups operate through a highly decentralized system of internal organization, pursuing non-institutional means of political action such as demonstrations and protests. This analysis of new social movements in the U.S. and Western Europe can be used to examine political action in non-Western cultures, such as China. The pro-democracy demonstrations in Tiananmen Square in 1989 fit the paradigm for new social movements in some ways, but not in others. Membership in the movement was not organized around discreet class groupings, but came out of a peripheral social grouping of university students... To some extent, the relevant issues of the Chinese movement resemble the model of the older social movements in the West. The students list of demands included:
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increased funding for education, freedom of the press, and a crackdown on government corruption. This focus on economic and human rights issuesas opposed to an emphasis on the newer categorizations of race and gendermore closely mimics the older model of early 20th century social movements... At the same time, the Chinese case confirms the hypothesis of new social movements in terms of its underlying values. Values in the post-1960s social movements of the West were in sync with the values of the dominant culture. Hence the rhetoric of these new social movements often critiques the dominant institutions for reneging on promises or violating agreed upon standards of justice . Martin Luther Kings metaphor of the bad check or promissory note in the I Have a Dream Speech is a good example of this... The Chinese movement strongly upheld values which were promoted by the Chinese government as well: the Chinese government certainly supported the idea of the dictatorship of democracy through official speeches and in the Chinese constitution. But other values of the student movement fall between the old and new paradigms. The Chinese student movement advocated neither a complete overhaul of the existing political structure nor an individualized system of personal freedom along gender, race, or class lines. The Chinese case thus presents several anomalies to the hypothesis of new social movements based on the U.S. and Western European model.

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110. Which of the following best describes the structure of this passage? A. B. C. The U.S. Civil Rights movement is contrasted with the Chinese pro-democracy movement. The values of Western and Eastern social movements are compared. The characteristics of pre- and post-1960s movements are contrasted and the Chinese movement is presented as an example of the former type. A hypothesis is presented about social movements in the West, and the Chinese pro-democracy movement is examined in relation to that theory.

114. Which of the following questions are answered in the passage? I. How have social movements changed over time? II. How do social movements differ across cultures? III. Why are there differences between social movements? A. B. C. D. I only I & II only III only I, II, & III

D.

111. According to the passage, the class-based movements of the 1930s which relied upon collective bargaining and party politics to bring about social change were: A. B. C. D. highly decentralized in their means of political action. similar to the Chinese movement in terms of traditional values. typical of pre-1960s movements in terms of membership and methods. flawed by their reliance on collective bargaining.

115. The author most likely calls the classification of new social movements a hypothesis because: A. B. C. it is an untested theory which must be tested by the Chinese case. it is based on a series of hypothetical situations. it is a prediction based on prior patterns, but needs to be tested in a number of social settings such as China. it can never be objectively proven, but provides the best prediction of what might happen.

D.

112. The bad check example (line 61) from Martin Luther Kings I Have a Dream speech is used to support the claim that late 1960s social movements: A. B. C. D. were generally concerned with economic issues. challenged the racism of dominant culture. were based on dominant culture values. failed in their attempts to achieve racial equality.

116. Suppose that all people over 65 created a social movement whose method of action was to form a political party. What can be concluded based on the information in the passage? A. B. C. D. This movement resembles pre-1960s movements in terms of membership, but not methods. This movement resembles post-1960s movements in terms of values. This movement has elements of both pre- and post-1960s movements. This movement resembles the Chinese prodemocracy movement in all respects.

113. According to the passage, all of the following are characteristics of the Chinese pro-democracy movement EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. its membership was class-based. it raised economic issues. its values reflected dominant culture. it opposed censorship of the media.

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Passage VII (Questions 117-124) I do not believe that literary studies as such have a future, but this does not mean that literary criticism will die. As a branch of literature, criticism will survive, but probably not in our teaching institutions. The study of Western literature will also continue, but on the much more modest scale of our current Classics departments. What are now called Departments of English will be renamed departments of Cultural Studies where Batman comics, Mormon theme parks, television, movies, and rock will replace Chaucer, Shakespeare, Milton, Wordsworth, and Wallace Stevens. Major, once-elitist universities and colleges will still offer a few courses in Shakespeare, Milton, and their peers, but these will be taught by departments of three or four scholars, equivalent to teachers of ancient Greek and Latin. This development hardly need be deplored; only a few handfuls of students now enter Yale with an authentic passion for reading. You cannot teach someone to love great poetry if they come to you without such love. How can you teach solitude? Real reading is a lonely activity and does not teach anyone to become a better citizen. Perhaps the ages of reading - Aristocratic, Democratic, Chaotic - now reach terminus, and the reborn Theocratic era will be almost wholly an oral and visual culture... ...The teaching of poems, plays, stories, and novels is now supplanted by cheer leading for various social and political crusades. Or else, the artifacts of popular culture replace the difficult artifices of great writers as the material for instruction. It is not literature that needs to be redefined; if you cant recognize it when you read it, then no one can ever help you to know it or love it better. A culture of universal access is offered by post-Marxist idealists as the solution to crisis, but how can Paradise Lost or Faust, Part Two ever lend themselves to universal access? The strongest poetry is cognitively and imaginatively too difficult to be read deeply by more than a relative few of any social class, gender, race, or ethnic origin. When I was a boy, Shakespeares Julius Caesar, almost universally part of the school curriculum, was an eminently sensible introduction to Shakespearean tragedy. Teachers now tell me of many schools where the play can no longer be read through, since students find it beyond their attention spans. In two places reported to me, the making of cardboard shields and swords has replaced the reading and discussion of the play. No socializing of the means of production and consumption of literature can overcome such debasement of early education. The morality of scholarship, as currently practiced, is to encourage everyone to replace difficult pleasures with universally accessible pleasures precisely because they are easier.

Trotsky urged his fellow Marxists to read Dante, but he would find no welcome in our current universities... ...Precisely why students of literature have become amateur political scientists, uninformed sociologists, 55 incompetent anthropologists, mediocre philosophers, and over determined cultural historians, while a puzzling matter, is not beyond all conjecture. They resent literature, or are ashamed of it, or are just not all that fond of reading it. Reading a poem or a novel or a Shakespearean tragedy is 60 for them an exercise in contextualization, but not in a merely reasonable sense of finding adequate backgrounds. The contexts, however chosen, are assigned more force and value than the poem by Milton, the novel by Dickens, or Macbeth. I am not at all certain what the metaphor of 65 social energies stands or substitutes for, but, like the Freudian drives, such energies cannot write or read or indeed do anything at all. Libido is a myth, and so are social energies. Shakespeare, scandalously facile, was an actual person who contrived to write Hamlet and King 70 Lear. That scandal is unacceptable to what now passes for literary theory. Either there were aesthetic values, or there are only the overdeterminations of race, class and gender. You must choose, for if you believe that all value ascribed to poems, or plays or novels and stories is only a mystification in the service of the ruling class, then why should you read at all rather than go forth to serve the desperate needs of the exploited classes? The idea that you benefit the insulted and injured by reading someone of their own origins rather than reading Shakespeare is one of the oddest illusions ever promoted by or in our schools. The deepest truth about secular canon-formation is that it is performed by neither critics nor academies, let alone politicians. Writers, artists, composers themselves determine canons, by bridging between strong precursors and strong successors.

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117. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree? A. Literature should challenge the reader to become more sensitive to those from another class or race. Literature should be morally edifying, even if it means offending members of certain minority groups. Literature that is worthwhile often can only be appreciated by a few. Contextualization is an extraneous and misguided process when approaching literature.

120. Which of the following would be most heartening to the author if it were to occur? A. The compilation by English professors of a definitive list of works of literature that every student should read as part of the canon. A community service requirement in the curriculum. Revision of the requirements for a degree in English that would ensure that students become knowledgeable in political science, sociology and anthropology. A revival of genuine interest in reading among students.

B.

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118. The author claims that Trotsky would find no welcome in our current universities because: A. the post-Marxist approach of making culture universally accessible is not feasible in the realm of literature. literature that challenges its readers is not in favor in current academia. literature departments are concerned only with the most fashionable trend in literary theory and Marxism has now been totally discredited. the works of Dante are a poor substitute for the tragedies of Shakespeare.

121. The author cites the anecdote about Julius Caesar to: A. B. C. D. investigate why reading is no longer fashionable among students. illustrate that we no longer challenge our students with literature. expose how current scholarship has abandoned morality. give an example of how literary study has degenerated into cultural study.

B. C.

D.

119. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the authors contention that the study of literature is declining? A. Many students have been able to apply the themes from works of literature written by the oppressed to solve todays social and political problems. Some universities, in response to students desires, have had to redefine the curriculum used by their literature departments. More and more students are interested in pursuing a degree in literature, thus necessitating the increase in the number of classes offered. Because of student interest, universities have added courses that focus on the close reading of Shakespeare and Milton.

122. The author claims that the dwindling of Departments of English in the future is a development that hardly need be deplored (line 16) because: A. B. C. even now English departments are hardly recognizable as such. it is part of a natural cycle that written literatures give way to oral ones. there will always be individuals with a strong enough passion for reading to sustain the tradition. this will ensure that the institutions for higher learning become more egalitarian than elitist.

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123. What is the scandal that the author refers to in line 70? A. B. That creators of literature are individuals rather than confluences of social forces That literature departments would think of substituting Batman comics for the works of writers like Chaucer The imminent languishing of English departments in universities The view held implicitly by some that social energies are what create literature

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124. The author predicts that in the future, reading will: A. experience a rebirth as more people realize that classic literature needs to be appreciated for its aesthetic value. be surpassed by media that stimulate the participant through oral and visual cues. become more integral in the moral restructuring of society. become more accessible as the world becomes smaller because of advances in communication and technology.

B. C. D.

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Passage VIII (Questions 125-130) Contamination is the unintended presence of harmful substances or organisms in food. While it is true that recent scientific advances have resulted in safer foods, better methods of preservation, and improved storage practices, it is still necessary to guard against practices that can increase the likelihood of food contamination. Because foodborne illness poses a potentially serious threat to public health, preventing contamination of safe food needs to be a prime objective of every foodservice manager. A foodservice manager must possess accurate information on the different hazards associated with the contamination of food in the event that a foodborne illness crisis does arise. A full understanding of the biological, chemical, and physical hazards allows the foodservice manager to implement the control measures necessary to minimize the health risks associated with food, and thus to decrease the possibility of contamination. The most serious risk associated with food is the biological hazard. Biological hazards are dangers to food from pathogenic (disease-causing) micro-organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi, and from toxins that occur in certain plants and fish. When biological hazards result in foodborne illnesses, these illnesses are generally classified as either infections or intoxications. A foodborne infection is a disease that results from eating food containing living harmful micro-organisms. One of the most frequently reported diseases of this type is Salmonellosis, which results from the consumption of food contaminated with live pathogenic Salmonella. The other major form of biologically induced foodborne illness is the foodborne intoxication, which results when toxins, or poisons, from bacterial or mold growth are present in ingested food and cause illness in the host (the human body). These toxins are generally odorless and tasteless, and are capable of causing disease even after the micro-organisms have been killed. Staphylococcus food intoxication is one of the most common types of foodborne illness reported in the United States. In addition to the biological hazard, food is vulnerable to chemical and physical hazards as well that could lead to foodborne illness. A chemical hazard is the danger posed by chemical substances contaminating food all along the food chain. For example, pesticides spread over the grazing area of livestock may eventually be found in meat products consumed by humans. Such contamination can also occur through the use of certain foodservice chemicals such as detergents and sanitizers, or excessive use of additives and preservatives. 44

A physical hazard is the danger posed by the presence of particles or items that are not supposed to be part of a food product. Chips from broken glasses and metal fragments from dishes and tableware fall into the category of physical contaminants, as do other foreign objects such as packing staples, tacks, and pins which can accidentally fall 55 into food.
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126. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The only way for food contamination to result from a physical hazard is for a foreign object to accidentally fall into food. A restaurant owned by someone who does not possess accurate information regarding food contamination hazards cannot be operated safely. Anyone infected by an odorless and tasteless toxin transmitted by a bacterial growth will develop a Staphylococcus food intoxication. It is possible for the root cause of a human illness to be traced back to a farmers use of pesticides.

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127. The author of the passage would most likely agree that a foodservice managers comprehension of the nature of potential food hazards is: A. B. C. D. crucial to the safety of a foodservice operation. necessarily limited due to the complexity of contamination sources. the primary factor in an employers decision to hire that manager. utilized exclusively for the prevention of foodborne illness.

130. Which one of the following actions best accords with the authors view of the relationship between recent scientific advances and food safety as that view is presented in the passage? A. Motorists drive more recklessly in response to statistics showing that automobile airbags have made driving safer. Television producers call for scripts of literary adaptations due to the successful ratings of a television version of a classic Russian novel. Patients with high cholesterol continue to monitor their diet despite adding a new cholesterollowering drug to their regimen. A veterinarian recommends preventative surgery for a dog despite the fact that the dog is exhibiting no noticeable signs of illness.

B.

C. 128. According to the passage, pathogenic micro-organisms (line 20): A. B. C. D. are the most common form of biological hazard. can only trigger a foodborne illness when alive. are toxins that occur in certain plants and fish. include life forms such as bacteria and parasites.

D.

129. The author of the passage mentions packing staples and pins in the sixth paragraph most probably in order to: A. B. C. demonstrate the importance of better methods of food storage and preservation. prove that certain food hazards are more dangerous than others. suggest that it is far easier to prevent physical hazards than chemical hazards from contaminating food. provide examples of another type of food contamination hazard.

D.

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Passage IX (Questions 131-137) The first condition of desert is that you do something or that something be done to you. To deserve punishment, one must have at least acted in the external world and, we can assume for the time being, this action must have had an impact on other people. The action must bring about a state of affairs that other people wish either to condemn, reward, or punish. There is no punishment for thoughts aloneat least in the secular legal systems. The same principle applies, by and large, to positive desert. We praise people for what they do, for what they make of their own lives, and for the contributions they make to others. We do not reward them simply for having the right thoughts. We have considerable experience evaluating the negative forms of conduct that lead to criminal punishment. The relevant factors are the value of the interest attacked and the attitudeor state of mindof the offender.Those who kill intentionally are thought to be worse than those who kill recklessly or negligently. The assumption seems to be that intentional actors invest more of themselves in the crime and therefore become more clearly identified with the evil they do. Also, the voluntariness of the action might be important; if at the time of the homicide, the offender suffers from partial insanity called diminished responsibility in the lawthe degree of his culpability is reduced. If the act is less than fully voluntary, the actor is less than fully responsible for the outcome. These points are taken for granted in the criminal law, but intriguingly, their analogues do not seem to apply in the field of positive desert, particularly as measured by the market. Lets imagine that the inventor of Velcro thought his sticky cloth would make a better mousetrap; mice would get stuck on it, spelling their end. He gets a patentand puts it on the market. Consumers seize on it and convert it into an all-purpose fastener, sales and royalties from which make him a billionaire. Under the principles of capitalism, he deserves the money whether he intended or thought he was doing nothing more than building a better mousetrap.This, then, represents an asymmetry between the positive and negative desert. Yet one reason to think that intention matters, even in the case of positive desert, is the evolution of our thinking about attempts. Attempted crimes are signaled by trying and failing to harm someone, say, by shooting and missing. Though the criminal law initially insisted on actual harm, legal systems around the world began about two centuries ago to punish criminal attempts. The person who tries and 46

fails deserves punishment simply because he has committed himself to doing evil and has tried to execute his plan. At first blush it seems that we do not reward attempts to do good that fail, yet pedagogic principles of recent years seem to reward effort as well as accomplishment. The pupil who tries hard deserves recognition whether she suc55 ceeds or not. This shift from result to effort represents a recognition that attitude matters for positive desert; there is no positive effort worthy of reward without consciously and intentionally setting ones sights on a goal. Thus it seems that our attitudes toward positive desert may be in 60 flux.
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It is not surprising that we are relatively more certain about the conditions for negative than for positive desert. Negative desert has been pondered for centuries in working out the rules that govern the sentencing of convicted 65 criminals. Positive desert finds no precise institutional counterpart. Because there is no area of the law concerned with measuring appropriate rewards, we are left to rely on our accumulated moral sensibilities about who deserves more and who deserves less.

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25

30

131. Which of the following examples of positive desert is most equivalent to that enjoyed by the inventor of Velcro? A. B. A robber who gives away his stolen merchandise to charity is nonetheless punished. A physicist wins the Nobel Prize when the laser she invented for diffraction studies revolutionizes eye surgery. A patient obtains a needed liver transplant even though he brought on his condition by reckless, self-indulgent drinking. A student obtains a high score on an exam even though he did not study at all.

35

40

C.

D.

45

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132. What is the nature of the asymmetry between negative and positive desert referred to in line 41? A. B. That we punish criminal attempts but generally do not reward attempts to do good. That legal systems and penal codes are more prepared to settle issues dealing with negative rather than positive desert. That we diminish punishment if intent was not present, but do not diminish rewards similarly. That positive desert takes the form of material rewards, but negative desert results in loss of personal freedom.

135. Reducing a criminals punishment if he is insane: A. B. contradicts the principle of not giving out rewards or punishments on thought alone. exemplifies how desert is determined by general societal judgments rather than well-codified rules of law. is justified if the criminal attempt fails and does not lead to actual harm to others. demonstrates how intent has been incorporated into our determination of negative desert.

C. D.

C. D.

136. The authors primary purpose is to: 133. Suppose a man sacrificed his own education to earn money to finance his brothers. The brother, however, gambled the money away. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. The mans good intentions are irrelevant because right thoughts alone are not worthy of reward. The man could be held partly responsible for his brothers crime under our legal system. To reward the man for his attempted good deed would be consistent with punishing attempted criminal acts. In fairness, the man should receive the same amount of positive desert regardless of how the brother actually used the money. A. B. C. D. argue that the legal system should treat negative and positive desert equally. decry the relative lack of theorization of positive desert. discuss the variant social and institutional responses to positive and negative desert. question the ethics of basing systems of punishment and reward upon mere intention.

B. C.

137. What does the author conclude are the minimal conditions of negative desert? I. action II. impact on others III. setting ones sight on a goal A. B. C. D. I only II only I and III only I, II, and III

D.

134. The claim that there is no positive effort worthy of reward without consciously and intentionally setting ones sights on a goal (lines 5658) is: A. B. C. D. necessarily true, given the information presented in the passage. perhaps true, but not supported by evidence in the passage perhaps true, and supported by evidence in the passage. necessarily false, given the information presented in the passage.

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

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Writing Sample
Time: 60 Minutes 2 Prompts, Separately Timed: 30 Minutes Each

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WRITING SAMPLE
DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. The section contains two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each part. Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. Your response to Part 1 must be written only on the answer sheets marked 1, and your response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets marked 2. You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 minutes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes. If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up, you may review your work on that part, but do not begin writing on Part 2. If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up, you may review your work only on Part 2. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing a response, read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand exactly what you are being asked to do. You may use the space below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your responses. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can make it in the allotted time. You may make corrections or additions neatly between the lines of your responses, but do not write in the margins of the answer booklet. There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your responses, three pages for each part of the test. You are not required to use all of the pages, but to be sure that you have enough space for each essay, do not skip lines. Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. In addition, essays that are not written in English will not be scored.

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Part 1
Consider the following statement: Objectivity should be the primary goal in reporting the news. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a news report might justifiably not be completely objective. Discuss what you think determines whether or not objectivity should be the primary goal of news reporting.

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Part 2
Consider the following statement: The more people rely on computers, the more people become alienated from one another. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which computers might not alienate people from one another. Discuss what you think determines whether or not computers alienate people from one another.

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Biological Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes Questions 138214

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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS


1 H 1.0 3 Li 6.9 11 Na 23.0 19 K 39.1 37 Rb 85.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.0 12 Mg 24.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.6 56 Ba 137.3 88 Ra 226.0 21 Sc 45.0 39 Y 88.9 57 La * 138.9 89 Ac 227.0 22 Ti 47.9 40 Zr 91.2 72 Hf 178.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.1 90 Th 232.0 23 V 50.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.0 42 Mo 95.9 74 W 183.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.2 92 U 238.0 25 Mn 54.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55.8 44 Ru 101.1 76 Os 190.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.7 46 Pd 106.4 78 Pt 195.1 29 Cu 63.5 47 Ag 107.9 79 Au 197.0 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.4 80 Hg 200.6 5 B 10.8 13 Al 27.0 31 Ga 69.7 49 In 114.8 81 Tl 204.4 6 C 12.0 14 Si 28.1 32 Ge 72.6 50 Sn 118.7 82 Pb 207.2 7 N 14.0 15 P 31.0 33 As 74.9 51 Sb 121.8 83 Bi 209.0 8 O 16.0 16 S 32.1 34 Se 79.0 52 Te 127.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.0 17 Cl 35.5 35 Br 79.9 53 I 126.9 85 At (210) 2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)

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Passage I (Questions 138144) Carbon exists in a number of natural solid forms or allotropes. Graphite and diamond (shown in Figure 1) are the most familiar. Graphite is composed of planar sheets of linked carbons while each carbon in diamond is bonded tetrahedrally to four neighboring carbons.

138. Identify the 1H NMR spectrum of C60 (Buckminsterfullerene): A.

6.0

5.0

4.0 3.0 PPM ( )

2.0

1.0

B. Graphite Figure 1 A different form of naturally occurring carbon, buckminsterfullerene, was discovered in 1985. Researchers attempting to synthesize large carbon chains were surprised by the results of mass spectrometry on the samples produced. A single peak at 720 amu predominated. Under the experimental conditions, the formation of this 60 carbon molecule was particularly favorable. The researchers suspected, and it was later confirmed by NMR, that the structure of this 60 carbon molecule was the soccer balllike buckminsterfullerene, or Buckyball. Figure 2 shows the front of a Buckyball (the carbons in back are not shown). Diamond

6.0

5.0

4.0 3.0 PPM ( )

2.0

1.0

C.

6.0

5.0

4.0 3.0 PPM ( )

2.0

1.0

D.

Figure 2
6.0 5.0

The Buckyball has both 6 and 5-membered rings joined together to form a spherical structure. Each carbon is bonded to three neighbors, giving a pattern of alternating single and double bonds as the carbon-carbon bond structure is traced. Different resonance structures can be drawn for the Buckyball and resonance stabilization contributes to the very high stability of this form of carbon. The Buckyball (C60) reacts in a manner similar to electrondeficient alkenes such as tetracyanoethylene.

4.0 3.0 PPM ( )

2.0

1.0

139. What are the hybridization(s) of the carbon atoms in C60 (Buckyball)? A. B. C. D. sp2 sp3 sp and sp2 sp2 and sp3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 55

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140. Which of the three naturally occurring states of carbon has the greatest angle strain? A. B. C. D. graphite buckminsterfullerene diamond Angle strain is the same in all three.

144. What compound reacted with C60 to form the following Diels-Alder adduct?
OCH3

141. A researcher wishes to dissolve a sample of C60 for analysis. Which of the following solvents would be most appropriate? A. B. C. D. benzene acetone ethanol DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide)

A.

OCH3

S B. OCH3

142. How many moles of hydrogen gas (H2) would be used in the hydrogenation of a mole of C60 on a platinum catalyst? A. B. C. D. 30 40 60 120

S OCH3

143. Which of the following organic compounds would react in a manner most similar to buckminsterfullerene (C60)? A. OCH3 B.

C.

O D. O S O S O

C. H C 3

CH3

D.

OCH3

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Passage II (Questions 145151) In the average adult, the small intestine absorbs around 7 liters of water per day. Most of the water is transported passively, driven by the osmotic gradient generated by sodium-potassium pumps in the capillary-side membrane of the epithelial cells. It has been suggested that water is also brought into the cell by secondary active transport, coupled to the transport of sodium and glucose into the epithelial cells by proteins in the lumenal membrane. The osmotic movement of water has been understood for many years. Sodium pumps in the membrane adjacent to the capillaries transport sodium out of the cell into the interstitial fluid. This lowers the concentration of sodium within the cell and generates a high concentration of sodium in the interstitial fluid. Sodium is absorbed from the lumen of the small intestine, down its concentration gradient, in co-transport with glucose or amino acids. In concert with the movement of sodium from the lumen into the interstitial space, water moves by osmosis, through the cell and across the tight junctions between cells. Both water and sodium then diffuse into the capillary system of the villus. It is important to note that water can diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer directly. Although this movement of water is associated with the transport of sodium (and other solutes), it is not directly coupled with the activity of a membrane transport protein. Passive osmosis can only occur from a hypotonic to a hypertonic environment. Thus, it does not describe the ability of the small intestine to absorb water when the contents of the small intestine have a higher osmolarity than the blood. It has been proposed that Na+-glucose-water cotransport proteins exist. These membrance proteins move a water molecule into the cell with each sodium ion and glucose molecule it caries across the membrane. These proteins can transport water uphill (against the water concentration gradient) and provide an explanation for the observed absorption of water when the lumenal contents are hyperosmolar.

145. Assume that water is only transported by passive mechanisms. Which of the following best describes the effect of oubain, a Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitor, on the absorption of water in the small intestine? A. B. C. D. Water will only be absorbed if the lumen is hypertonic to the blood. Water will only be absorbed if the lumen is hypotonic to the blood. Water will be absorbed if the lumen is hypertonic or isotonic to the blood. Water will be absorbed if the lumen is hypotonic or isotonic to the blood.

146. A researcher observes no absorption of water from a hypertonic Na+ solution in the lumen of a small intestine tissue sample. Which of the following observations would support the claim that water is absorbed by secondary active transport, as described in the passage? A. B. C. D. Addition of Na+ to the lumen does not promote water absorption. Dilution of the lumen solution promotes water absorption. Addition of glucose to the lumen promotes water absorption. Addition of Na+ to the lumen promotes water absorption.

147. A single intestinal epithelial cell is exposed to an isotonic solution of salts, glucose and amino acids. Which of the following would be a good means of monitoring the relative activity of the proposed water co-transporter? A. B. C. D. Tracking the usage of ATP with radio-labelled phosphate. Measuring minute changes in cell volume over time. Observing the uptake of radio-labelled glucose. Measuring cell metabolic activity through purification of mitochondrial by-products.

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148. Endothelial cells lining the digestive tract are said to be polarized because they: A. B. C. D. are electrically charged. absorb light with a particular electric field orientation. have regions of the membrane that differ in their constituents. absorb water in an active mechanism.

151. Which diagram best illustrates the co-transporter proposed in the last paragraph of the passage? A. lumen 3Na+

cytoplasm 2K+ B. 2K+

149. All of the following utilize a membrane carrier protein EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. lysine water cholesterol glucose

lumen

cytoplasm glucose 3Na+ C. lumen cytoplasm H2O D. lumen cytoplasm glucose H2O

150. The large intestine uses the same passive absorption mechanism described in the passage to absorb the water which the small intestine was insufficiently efficient to absorb. Which of the following characteristics of the large intestine contributes to the greater efficiency of this mechanism in the large intestine than in the small intestine? A. The endothelium of the large intestine has tighter tight junctions that block the leakage of sodium ion back into the lumen. The large intestine endothelium has more powerful Na+/K+ pumps that transport 5 Na+ for each ATP hydrolyzed. The greater surface area of the large intestine endothelium facilitates more efficient absorption. The greater length of the large intestine provides a longer exposure to the lumenal contents.

glucose Na+ Na+

B.

C.

D.

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Passage III (Questions 152157) Human cells use metabolites of arachidonic acid as chemical mediators to elicit a wide variety of responses such as vasodilation, clot formation and bronchoconstriction. The pathway of arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism begins with the rate-determining step, the conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid. The pathway proceeds as follows:

152. What is the IUPAC name for salicylic acid? A. B. C. D. o-hydroxybenzoic acid 1-hydroxybenzoic acid 2-carboxyphenol 1-hydoxy-2-carboxybenzene

153. What is the relationship between prostaglandins D2 and E2? A. B. C. D. Structural isomers Enantiomers Diastereomers Geometric isomers

Cell Membrane Phospholipids Phoshoplipase A2 Arachidonic Acid (AA) COOH

Cyclooxygenase Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) COOH O O OH O O OOH Prostaglandin D2 (PGD2) OH COOH

Aspirin

Prostaglandin G2 (PGG2) COOH

154. What is the other reactant used in the acid catalyzed deacylation of aspirin shown in Reaction 1? A. B. C. D. Acetone Water Lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4) Ethanol

Prostaglandin H2 (PGH2) O O OH COOH

OH

155. Which of the following CANNOT be the rate law for the production of AA metabolites? A. B. C. D. R = k[arachidonic acid][cyclooxygenase] R = k[phospholipase A2] R = k[phospholipase A2][phospholipid] R = k[phospholipase A2][phospholipid]2

Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) O COOH

OH

OH

It is medically useful to inhibit the formation of AA metabolites. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) inhibits cyclooxygenase, thereby serving to reduce pain and fever. Aspirin is rapidly converted to the metabolically active product salicylic acid via an acid catalyzed deacylation reaction:
O OH O H3C O H+ OH O OH O

156. The molecule PGH2 can be classified as which of the following? A. B. C. D. Alkyne Ether Ketone Peroxide

H3C

OH

157. Which of the following descriptions is NOT consistent with the deacylation of aspirin? A. B. C. D. Nucleophilic acyl substitution Ester hydrolysis Electrophilic addition Equilibrium controlled

Aspirin

Salicylic acid

Reaction 1

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162. Which of the following is a -hydroxy ketone?

Questions 158 through 162 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


158. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during inspiration of heavy breathing? A. B. C. D. Diaphragm contracts rib cage expands intrathoracic pressure drops air enters lungs Intrathoracic pressure drops diaphragm contracts rib cage expands air enters lungs Diaphragm contracts intrathoracic pressure drops rib cage expands air enters lungs Rib cage expands diaphragm contracts intrathoracic pressure rises air enters lungs

A.

C.

OH B. O OH D. H O

OH

OH

159. What is the approximate pH of the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion? A. B. C. D. 6 7 8 10

160. Which of the following compounds is aromatic? A. C.

B.

161. -D-(+)-Glucopyranose has a specific rotation of +18.7. In solution, however, an equilibrium is gradually established with the -anomer. What happens to the specific rotation of a sample of the -anomer in solution as time goes on? A. B. C. D. remains at +18.7 decreases until it reaches 0 decreases until it reaches 18.7 cannot be predicted without more information GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 60

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Passage IV (Questions 163168) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) is a neurodegenerative disease of the optic nerve that causes bilateral loss of central vision that eventually leads to blindness. LHON is an unusual genetic disease in that it results from a mutation in the mitochondrial genome. The defect is a transition mutation where an adenine is erroneously substituted for a guanine. A definitive diagnosis of LHON is made through analysis of a persons DNA. A sample of a patients DNA is amplified via PCR technology and then analyzed for the gain or loss of restriction enzyme sites. Restriction enzymes are bacterial DNAases that recognize specific DNA sequences (about 6 nucleotides in length) and cleave the DNA at that site. The digested DNA is then run through gel electrophoresis to separate the DNA fragments according to size. Larger fragments cannot pass through the gel as freely as smaller fragments and so remain closer to the top of the gel. A researcher analyzing a patients DNA performs a restriction enzyme analysis using the restriction enzyme Acc I. The LHON mutation causes the loss of the Acc I restriction enzyme site. Lane 1 contains DNA size markers, lane 2 contains an undigested sample of the patients DNA, lane 3 contains a normal DNA sample treated with Acc I, and lane 4 contains the patients sample treated with the enzyme. Sample Start 1 2 3 4 Direction of migration
G

Normal Mitochondrial Genome A T C G

Mutant Mitochondrial Genome A T C

Figure 2

163. A transition mutation is: A. B. C. D. a point mutation in which a purine is substituted for a purine. a point mutation in which a pyrimidine is substituted for a purine. an insertion mutation in which a purine is substituted for a purine. an insertion mutation in which a pyrimidine is substituted for a purine.

164. The patient whose DNA digest is shown in Figure 1: A. B. C. D. gained an Acc I site and has LHON. gained an Acc I site and does not have LHON. lost an Acc I site and has LHON. lost an Acc I site and does not have LHON.

165. A researcher analyzing a sample of DNA performs a restriction enzyme analysis using the restriction enzyme Mae III. The LHON mutation causes a gain of a Mae III restriction enzyme site. Compared to normal DNA treated with this enzyme, the DNA from a patient with LHON treated with Mae III would be expected to: A. B. travel a shorter distance during gel electrophoresis. travel a greater distance during gel electrophoresis. travel the same distance during gel electrophoresis. travel the same distance as it would if it were not treated with the Mae III enzyme.

Figure 1 C. A sample that is suspected of having the LHON defect is confirmed by DNA sequencing. As evidenced from Figure 2, there is a loss of guanine and an addition of adenine at the expected location within the gene controlling the disease. D.

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166. The LHON mutation results in a defective cytochrome protein of similar molecular weight to the normal protein. The mutation is best described as: A. B. C. D. Frame shift Non-sense Missense Silent

167. Although LHON invariably leads to blindness, the patients pupillary responses to light remain intact. This suggests that: A. B. C. D. drops of epinephrine applied to the eye will cause pupil dilation. the afferent nerve fibers are completely destroyed. the sympathetic response of pupil contraction is intact. the patient can regain their vision.

168. Sperm that are to be used for artificial insemination are not checked for the genetically inheritable LHON because: A. B. C. D. restriction enzyme analysis is expensive and time consuming. sperm with defective mitochondria do not produce enough energy to reach the egg. the acrosomal reaction cannot occur with sperm that have defective mitochondria. when sperm and egg fuse, mitochondria do not enter the egg.

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Passage V (Questions 169174) Neurons have a long process called the axon that propagates action potentials away from the cell body towards a distant target cell. In humans, the longest axons can extend up to a meter from the base of the spinal cord to the tip of the big toe. The axon ends at a synapse the point at which the electrical signal is converted to a chemical signal and passed on to an effector (such as a gland or muscle) or to another nerve cell. The distance of the axon terminal from the locus of the neurons metabolic activity necessitates an efficient transport mechanism for moving materials along the axon. Microtubules extend across the length of the axon. Microtubules have a polar structure, and in the axon all of the microtubules are directed with their positive ends towards the synapse. In contrast, the microtubules in dendrites can be oriented in both directions. Specialized motor proteins carry materials towards the synapse (anterograde transport) or towards the cell body (retrograde transport). Kinesins are responsible for the anterograde transport of membrane-bound organelles. The organelles bind to kinesins which are themselves bound to the microtubules. With each ATP hydrolyzed, the kinesin walks down the microtubule, taking 9 nm steps as it transports the vesicle to the axon terminal at a rate of about 1 m per second. Dyneins are primarily responsible for retrograde transport. Materials taken up at the axon terminal are transported back towards the cell body for processing. Although the mechanism of transport differs from that of kinesins, both utilize the microtubule cytoskeleton. 169. A researcher studying the movement of materials through a squid axon ties a thin string around the axon to cut off the flow of materials. After a few hours, the researcher examines the materials on either side of the ligature. According to the passage, the researcher should find: A. B. C. D. more motor proteins on the cell body side of the string. more motor proteins on the synapse side of the string. more dyneins on the cell body side of the string. more kinesins on the cell body side of the string.

170. Some neurotransmitters have inhibitory effects on the post-synaptic neuron, making it more difficult to stimulate the cell to fire an action potential. These inhibitory neurotransmitters function by: A. B. C. D. binding antagonistically to receptors for stimulatory neurotransmitters. blocking the re-uptake of stimulatory neurotransmitters by pre-synaptic cell. hyperpolarizing the post-synaptic cell membrane by opening ion channels. setting voltage-gated sodium channels to the off conformation characteristic of the action potential refractory period.

171. Kinesins transport all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. excitatory neurotransmitter receptors. neurotransmitter proteins. phospholipids. voltage-gated ion channel proteins.

171. Action potentials originating at the axon hillock of the cell body are carried towards the axon terminal by: A. B. C. D. kinesins. dyneins. local transmembrane ion fluxes. anterograde movement of sodium ions.

173. The membrane components of neurotransmitter vesicles are labelled with radioactive phosphorus and allowed to travel along a nerve axon. Following secretion of their neurotransmitter, the radiolabelled phosphorus will be found in: A. B. C. D. the axon terminal membrane vesicles bound to kinesins in the axon the synaptic cleft the post-synaptic cell membrane

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174. The by-products of neurotransmitters released into the synapse are taken up by the axon terminal for processing in the cell body. A researcher wishes to purify these by-products from a neuron cytoplasm extract. Microtubules are aligned on a glass surface with their plus-ends towards the right. The extract is placed on the middle of the surface. In order to collect the desired components, the researcher should collect components that: A. B. C. D. remained in the center of the glass surface. were enclosed in membrane bound vesicles. flowed to the right side of the glass surface. flowed to the left side of the glass surface.

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Passage VI (Questions 175181) The following elimination reaction was carried out, and its kinetics were monitored.
Cl CH3CH2CHC(CH3)3 + CH3CH2O CH3CH=CHC(CH3)3 + CH3CH2OH + Cl

175. Which of the following is the correct reaction profile for the E1cB mechanism as described in the passage? A. energy C. energy reaction coordinate reaction coordinate D. energy energy reaction coordinate reaction coordinate H H3C C H B. H H3C C H CH3 C CH3 CH3 C F F D. Cl F C. Cl H C H H C Cl

Reaction 1 B. The rate of the reaction is found to be proportional to both the concentration of the haloalkane and the concentration of the ethoxide ion. Two mechanisms, both consistent with the observed second order kinetics, were proposed. Mechanism A: The reaction is bimolecular and has only one step, in which the proton extraction by the ethoxide and the departure of the chloride are concerted and take place in an antiperiplanar configuration. This is known as E2. Mechanism B: The reaction progresses through two steps. The first step consists of the extraction of a proton by the ethoxide ion from the haloalkane, leading to the formation of an anion intermediate, CH3CHCHClC(CH3)3. This intermediate may either go back to reform the reactant (haloalkane), or may undergo a second, rate-determining step in which the chloride ion leaves and the carbon-carbon double bond forms. This mechanism is given the name E1cB, where the 1 refers to the fact that the rate-determining step involves the reaction of only one molecule (the anion), and cB stands for conjugate base, again in reference to the anionic intermediate. Even though the rate-determining step is unimolecular, the concentration of the intermediate is dependent on both the base concentration and the substrate concentration, and so the reaction exhibits second order kinetics overall. An E1cB-like mechanism is thought to be operative in certain aromatic substitution reactions. Most aromatic substitution reactions are electrophilic and proceed through an addition-elimination pathway. Nucleophilic aromatic substitutions, however, proceed through an elimination-addition pathway, in which a substituted benzene undergoes an E1cB-like reaction. The product of this reaction then undergoes addition to yield the desired substitution product.

176. Which of the following, if true, would most support the E1cB mechanism over the E2 mechanism in the elimination reaction described? A. B. C. Use of a heavier isotope of chlorine in the starting molecule slows down the reaction. Use of a bulky base favors elimination over substitution. Use of deuterated solvent results in deuterium being incorporated into the reisolated starting product. Doubling the concentration of the base leads to a doubling of the reaction rate.

D.

177. Which of the following molecules would react to form the most stable intermediate under the E1cB mechanism? A. CH3 C F F C F F F

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178. What are the two intermediates, X and Y respectively, in the nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction of bromobenzene to form aniline (aminobenzene) shown below?
Br NH2 X Y

179. If, in the E1cB mechanism, the formation of the anion intermediate were rate-determining, which of the following can be concluded? A. B. C. It would lead to first order kinetics. The nature of the leaving group would have no significant effect on the kinetics. The intermediate would be thermodynamically more stable than when the second step is ratedetermining. The intermediate would be thermodynamically more stable than the starting haloalkane.

+ NH2

D.

NH2

180. What would be the E2 elimination product of the following molecule? Br H3CH2C CH3 CH2CH3 H

A.

Br

H3C

A. B.

C.

H3C

CH2CH3

H3CH2C B. C. Br H3CH2C H

CH2CH3 H D.

H3C H3C

CH2CH3 CH2CH3

CH(CH3)2 H3CH2C

CH3

D.

Br

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181. In principle, both the cis and the trans isomer can be formed in Reaction 1. Which of the following statements is true? A. The cis isomer is thermodynamically more stable because alkyl groups are electron-donating relative to hydrogen atoms. The cis isomer is thermodynamically more stable because it is more polar and has a higher boiling point. The trans isomer is thermodynamically more stable because there is less steric crowding. The trans isomer is thermodynamically more stable because it is less polar and thus has less charge separation.

B.

C. D.

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Passage VII (Questions 182187) Humans have a remarkable ability to acclimatize to high altitudes up to 12,000 ft. with little detrimental effect.
20 18 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0 20
d to Hb boun en yg Ox

100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 120

Oxygen in blood (Vol %)

venous blood (sea level)

arterial blood (sea level)

Hb Saturation (%)

III. At the time of exposure to low atmospheric pressure, the body increases cardiac output. The cardiac output falls back to normal after about 2 weeks. Over time, there is an increase in the capillarity of the tissues. IV. In humans native to high altitudes, mitochondria and oxidative enzymes are more plentiful than in humans born at sea level. This cellular acclimatization allows more efficient oxygen utilization.

182. According to the graph in Figure 1, under normal conditions, the bodies tissues utilize approximately: A. B. C. D. 75% of the oxygen bound to Hb. 75% of the oxygen transported in the blood (in solution and bound to Hb). 50% of the oxygen transported in the blood (in solution and bound to Hb). 25% of the oxygen bound to Hb.

40 60 80 100 pO2 in blood (mmHg)

Figure 1 When a mountain climber ascends to 10,000 ft, the atmospheric pO2 can decrease from 104 mmHg (at sea level) to 60 mmHg. Figure 1 shows that at 60mmHg, the hemoglobin is still around 90% saturated. At this altitude, when the hemoglobin releases oxygen to the tissues, the venous blood pO2 falls to 35 mmHg, only 5 mmHg lower than its normal value. Hemoglobins bonding characteristics are very effective at maintaining delivery of oxygen, but the body can actually alter its functioning in a number of ways to respond to low atmospheric pO2. Acclimatization to altitude occurs in a number of ways: I. The body immediately responds by increasing ventilation to around 65% above normal. This increase leads to the exhalation of CO2 and an increase in blood pH which tends to inhibit the respiratory center and oppose the stimulatory effect of decreased pO2. Over a period of 2-5 days, this inhibition declines and ventilation can increase up to five times normal. II. After about 2 weeks at high altitude, the concentration of erythrocytes increases. Consequently, hemoglobin concentration in the blood increases as well.

183. Within the normal range of blood pO2, most hemoglobin molecules bind how many oxygen molecules? A. B. C. D. 1 to 2 1 to 4 2 or 3 3 or 4

184. A blood sample taken 1 week following exposure to high altitude would contain: A. B. C. D. a significantly higher concentration of erythrocytes. a somewhat higher concentration of erythropoietin. a much lower concentration of erythropoietin. a significantly lower volume of oxygen (in solution and bound to hemoglobin)

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185. According to the passage, 2 weeks after exposure to high altitude, the cardiac output falls back to its normal level. This does not impair the delivery of oxygen to the tissues because: A. B. C. although the heart rate decreases, the stroke volume remains the same. the respiratory rate will have increased to 65% of its normal value. after two weeks, the concentration of hemoglobin in the blood has increased and thus oxygen transport is more efficient. after two weeks, the number of mitochondria in the cells has increased and thus oxygen transport is more efficient.

D.

186. The acclimatizations described in the passage would alter the curve in Figure 1: A. B. C. D. by shifting it to the right. by shifting it to the left. by increasing the slope. not at all.

187. At an altitude of 10,000 feet, blood in the pulmonary arteries has a pO2 closest to: A. B. C. D. 90 mmHg 60 mmHg 40 mmHg 35 mmHg

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Questions 188 through 193 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


188. Which of the following would be expected to contain an abundant amount of smooth endoplasmic recticulum? A. B. C. D. adrenal cortical cells epithelial cells endothelial cells adipose cells

191. Which of the following bonds is broken when ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP?
H2N C N HC N A C H H C C C N O H2C H C C H B C D O N CH O P OO O P OO O P OO-

OH OH

189. Which of the following intramolecular forces help stabilize the DNA double helix? I. Hydrogen bonding between complementary nitrogenous bases. II. Electostatic attraction between adjacent phosphate groups. III. Hydrogen bonding between adjacent ribose sugars. A. B. C. D. I only I and II only I and III only I, II and III

A. B. C. D.

A B C D

192. The widespread use of anti-bacterial soaps has lead to a greater prevalence of resistant strains of bacteria. This is an example of: A. B. C. D. stabilizing selection. directional selection. disruptive selection. speciation.

190. A scientist transplants embryonic cells from the arm bud of a fetal frog to the head. The cells continue to develop into an arm. The removed cells must have been: A. B. C. D. Totipotent Differentiated Mutant Determined

193. Osteoblasts secrete large quantities of alkaline phosphatase when they are actively depositing bone matrix. Insufficient dietary calcium would be indicated by: A. B. C. D. increased concentration of alkaline phosphatase in the circulation. decreased concentration of alkaline phosphatase in the circulation. decreased concentration of osteoclasts in the circulation. increased concentration of Ca++ in the circulation.

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Passage VIII (Questions 194197) A student carried out the extraction of caffeine from tea leaves as follows: Four tea bags were boiled in 100 mL of distilled water with sodium carbonate for 10 minutes. Impurities known as tannins precipitated out in the form of sodium salts. After removing the tea bags and filtering out the precipitate, the aqueous solution was cooled to room temperature with an ice bath. An extraction was then performed in a separatory funnel with three washings of dichloromethane (CH2Cl2), each of 20 mL. The CH2Cl2 extractions were washed with NaOH, a procedure that helps to remove more tannins. The solvent was then evaporated off on a hot plate. The light green residue left behind had a melting point of 198201C, compared to the literature value of 238C for the melting point of caffeine. This residue was then sublimated under vacuum to yield a white crystalline substance corresponding to the pure product. The structure of caffeine is shown below in Figure 1.

196. If a strong acid were added to the aqueous solution before the CH2Cl2 extraction: A. B. C. D. the extraction would fail because the caffeine would remain in the aqueous phase. the extraction would fail because the CH2Cl2 would become protonated. the extraction would work but more NaOH is needed in the subsequent washings. the extraction would work but no NaOH should be used in the subsequent washings.

197. What is the bond angle indicated below? O H3C N O N CH3 N CH3 N

O H3C N O N CH3 Figure 1

CH3 N

A. B. C. D.

90 107 109.5 120

194. Which of the following can be concluded about tannins? A. B. C. D. They can act as a Lewis base. They possess acidic protons. They are of low molecular weight. They are insoluble in CH2Cl2.

195. If thin layer chromatography is performed on the light green residue using CH2Cl2 as the solvent, which of the following would be true? A. B. C. D. There would be one spot with a high Rf value. There would be one spot with a low Rf value. The spot would disappear as the caffeine dissolves in the solvent. Several spots with different Rf values would be observed. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 71

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Passage IX (Questions 198203) Diseases that affect renal function can grouped according to two syndromes, the nephrotic and nephritic.
Absorption 5.0 4.0 3.0 2.0 1.0

Patient Absorption

A 1.0

1.9 3.25 1.75

Nephrotic Syndrome The nephrotic syndrome is caused by the release of an unknown chemical mediator from leukocytes, possibly from T-cells, that damages glomerular capillary beds. Proteoglycans that electrostatically repel proteins from Bowmans capsule are damaged, allowing proteins (mostly albumin, the predominant protein in the blood) to leak into the nephron. Reabsorptive mechanisms are quickly overwhelmed, resulting in a sustained proteinuria that causes a severe drop in serum albumin levels resulting in decreased plasma osmotic pressure. This drop in osmotic pressure causes generalized swelling of the body, especially the extremities. Nephritic Syndrome The nephritic syndrome is the result of an unchecked inflammatory response. Circulating immune complexes deposit beneath the capillary epithelial cells of the glomeruli, attracting leukocytes that infiltrate and injure the cells by stimulating an inflammation reaction. The damage allows red blood cells to enter the nephron, but does not allow a significant amount of protein to escape. The blood loss induces hemodynamic changes that reduce the amount of blood reaching the kidneys, causing decreased urine production. The retention of water and release of renin result in severe hypertension. To determine if a person has an abnormal amount of protein in their urine, a total protein assay is performed. A 24-hr urine sample is collected and the amount of light the sample absorbs is measured using a spectrophotometer. The protein concentration can then be determined using a calibrated curve, like the one shown in Figure 1. The normal range for total protein urine concentration is 3.5 5.0 gm/dL.

20

40

60

80

100

Total Protein (mg/mL)

Figure 1 198. Which of the following is true for both the nephrotic and nephritic syndromes? A. B. C. D. Elevated protein in the urine Blood in the urine Hypertension Immune mediated

199. What is the most likely mechanism for protein reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule? A. B. C. D. Diffusion Facilitated diffusion Primary active transport Endocytosis

200. Why is swelling part of the nephrotic syndrome? A. B. C. Injury to the nephron causes water retention. Fluid cannot be reabsorbed at the venule end of capillaries. The drop in osmotic pressure results in ADH release, resulting in water reasbsorption and swelling. The drop in blood pressure stimulates the Starling response, which serves to increase interstitial fluid.

D.

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201. How can the release of renin cause hypertension? A. B. C. It stimulates an increases in salt and water reabsorption. It stimulates the release of ADH, resulting in water reabsorption. It stimulates the release of cortisone from the adrenal glands, resulting in salt and water reabsorption. It activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing vasoconstriction.

D.

202. In a normal individual, all of the following are filtered through the glomerulus into Bowmans capsule EXCEPT: I. Sodium II. Urea III. Red blood cells A. B. C. D. I only II only III only II and III only

203. Which of the following patients have proteinuria? A. B. C. D. A A and B C B and D

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Passage X (Questions 204210) The Baeyer-Villiger oxidation is a method of converting ketones to esters. A peracid (RCO2OH), which contains a peroxide bond, attacks the carbonyl carbon of a protonated ketone to give a tetrahedral intermediate known as the Criegee intermediate. The intermediate then proceeds to form the ester via the migration of an alkyl group as the carboxylic acid is displaced. A partial mechanism is shown below:

OH

OH

OH

OH

H+
R2 R1 R2 R1 R2

H+
R1 R2 O O O R3 R3 O OH O

H+
R1 O O R2

R1

R3

OH

(rate-determining step)

O R1 O R2

OH

H+

R1 O O R2

+
R3 OH

Figure 1 Either one of the two alkyl groups in the starting ketone can in principle migrate, leading to the formation of two different esters (assuming R1 R2). The tendency of a group to migrate is known as its migratory aptitude, and A student carries out the following reaction: generally increases in parallel with the ability to stabilize positivecharge. Migratory aptitude therefore decreases in the following order: tertiary alkyl > secondary alkyl > primary alkyl > methyl.

CH3CO3H CHCl3, H+
O O O

OCH3 HO

Y
O OCH3 O

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204. The major product of the Baeyer-Villiger oxidation of 2-butanone is: A. B. C. D. Ethyl acetate Methyl acetate Ethyl propanoate Methyl propanoate

207. In the reaction shown in Figure 2, if the starting ketone were O-18 labeled, where would the isotopic labeling end up in the product? (ii) O (i) O OCH3 (iii)

205. Which of the following R groups is expected to have the highest migratory aptitude in a methyl ketone, CH3COR? A. C.

A. B. C. D.

(i) (ii) (iii) Incorporated into a solvent molecule

R=

R= 208. How many chiral centers does the starting compound in the reaction shown in Figure 2 have? A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4

CH3 B. D. R=

Cl

R=

OCH3

CF3

209. In the transition state of the rate-determining step of the Baeyer-Villiger oxidation (Figure 1), a partial bond exists between all of the following pairs of atoms EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. The carbonyl carbon of the starting ketone and the carbon atom of the migrating group The attacking oxygen on the peracid and the carbon atom of the migrating group The carbonyl carbon of the starting ketone and the attacking oxygen on the peracid The two oxygen atoms of the peracid

206. The second step in the reaction shown in Figure 2 is a transesterification and the third step is an oxidation. The unknown reagents X and Y are: A. B. C. D. NaOH and KMnO4 respectively NaOH and PCC respectively CH3CH2OH and KMnO4 respectively CH3OH and PCC respectively

210. Which of the following is the strongest acid? A. B. C. D. CH3CO3H CF3CO3H C6H5CO3H C6H5CH2CO3H

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Questions 211 through 214 are NOT based on a descriptive passage.


211. The 1H NMR of which of the following molecules has the most shielded proton absorption spectrum? A. B. C. D. CH3Br CH3F CH2CH2 CH4

213. What is the mode of inheritance of the genetic disorder depicted in the following pedigree chart?
Normal female Affected female Normal male Affected male

212. The five-membered imino ring of the amino acid proline prevents the -amine nitrogen from participating in hydrogen bonding. Which of the following is true? H N C HO A. B. C. D. Proline cannot form peptide bonds. Proline cannot be part of a -pleated sheet. Proline cannot act like a Brnsted-Lowry base Proline cannot be amphoteric. O A. B. C. D. Huntingtons disease, an autosomal dominant disease. Tay Sachs disease, an autosomal recessive disease Retinitis pigmentosa, a X-linked dominant disease. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a X-linked recessive disease.

214. A mature human sperm cell contains 23 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in the secondary spermatocytes arrested in metaphase of meiosis II? A. B. C. D. 23 (22 somatic plus either one X or one Y chromosome) 24 (23 somatic plus either one X or one Y chromosome) 46 (44 somatic plus either XY or XX chromosomes) 92 (88 somatic plus either two XY or two XX chromosomes)

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

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