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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Which enzyme is in charge of synthesizing the majority of the ribosomal RNA? Which of the following is NOT a type of spontaneous mutation? Mis-sense mutations are the ones which: Which of the following is not a "wobble base pair"? In which of the following DNA regions does the transcription initiation take place? Ans 1 DNA Polymerase Ans 2 RNA Polymerase I Ans 3 RNA Polymerase II Ans 4 Ribosome Polymerase Ans 5 Correct Answer 3

Tautomerism

Depurination

Slipped strand mispairing

Base analog guided mutation

Code for a different amino acid than the original one. Guanine-Uracil

Code for the same amino acid as the original one. Inosine-Uracil

Code for same amino acid as the original one but with a different function. Inosine-A denine

Code for a stop and can truncate the protein. Inosine-Guanine

Operator

Promoter

Regulator

Initiator

Which gene normally Growth gene codes for regulatory proteins controlling cell growth and cell differentiation? What are DNA, Euchromatin consisting of very large arrays of cyclically repeating, non-coding DNA fragments known as? Which of the following processes can be used to determine transcription initiation site? Which of the following is not required while making DNA probes through the Nick Translation process? Which of the following techniques did Messelson and Stahl use to show that DNA replication is semi conservative in nature? In Griffith's experiment, which of the following are INCORRECT with respect to Streptococcus pneumoniae for the process of transformation? Foot Printing

Proto-oncogene

Hormone gene

Immunoglobin gene

Heterochromatin

Telomere

Satellite DNA

Northern Blotting

Primer Extension

Nick Translation

DNA Polymerase

DNase

Deoxyribonucleotides

Primers

Radioactivity

Centrifugation

Chromatography

Dialysis

The extract of bacteria is treated with lipases, proteases and RNase did not jhave any effect on the ability to infect the mouse.

The live R strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae was potentially ineffective to infect the mouse.

The dead S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae was potentially ineffective to infect the mouse even when mixed with live R strain.

The extract of Streptococcus pneumoniae having live R starin and dead S strain could infect the mouse.

Which of the Beta-lactamase following enzymes is produced by lac operon? Which of the following viruses does not have DNA Tobacco Mosaic Virus

Alpha-amylase

Beta-galactosidase

Alpha-galactosidase

T2 bacteriophage

Small pox virus

Herpes virus

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question as genetic material? Which of the following chromosomes is a special type of chromosome found in amphibians, birds and insects but not found in mammals? What is the correct sequence of stages of cell division in meiosis? Which of the following enzymes causes negative superhelical turns during DNA replication? Which of the following is true for the parts of DNA double helix that tend to separate easily? Which of the following parts of messenger RNA has the start codon? Lampbrush chromosome Adrenal gland chromosome Micro chromosome Lampbead chromosome 1 Ans 1 Ans 2 Ans 3 Ans 4 Ans 5 Correct Answer

Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis, Leptotene, Zygotene DNA Gyrase

Leptotene, Zygotene, Diplotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis Diakinesis DNA Polymerase Helicase

Diplotene, Leptotene, Diakinesis, Pachytene, Zygotene DNA Primase

They have high GC content and high AT content.

They have high GC content and low AT content.

They have low GC content and high AT content.

They have low GC content and low A T content.

Leader sequence

Trailer sequence

Reading frame

Promoter region

Which of the Protein SR following proteins is involved in folding of Prokaryotic genome? With which of the DNA Helicase following enzymes does primase form a complex in order to assist in DNA replication? Which of the When RNA following causes Polymerase meets a transcription to stop? stop codon. Which of the Ligase following enzymes is a part of primosome complex that causes DNA replication? Which of the RNase H following enzymes cleaves the RNA primer from the DNA molecule during DNA replication? Which of the following is true for DNA replication? It takes place in 5'-3' direction and is semi conservative in nature.

Protein HU

Polymerase

Helicase

DNA Polymerase

DNA Ligase

DNA Nuclease

When DNA Polymerase meets a stop codon. DNA Polymerase

When DNA Polymerase meets a terminator sequence. Helicase

When Taq Polymerase meets a stop codon. Nuclease

RNase A

DNA Polymerase II

DNA Polymerase I

It takes place in 5'-3' direction and is conservative in nature. 3'-5' Exonuclease activity

It takes place in 3'-5' direction and is conservative in nature. 5'-3' Exonuclease activity Transposition

It takes place in 3'-5' direction and is semi conservative in nature. Endonuclease activity Replisome

Proof reading is a/an DNA Gyrase activity _______.

2 1

Which of the Holliday intermediate Klenow fragments following is a feature of homologous genetic recombination?

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Which of the following proteins activates transcription in E. Coli? Which of the following bases is not found in RNA genetic code? Which of the following maximizes the number of codons that can be read by a particular tRNA molecule? Upstream A ctivation Sequence (UAS) in yeast is also known as _______. Which of the following groups in Guanine is responsible for Guanine not being able to form a double bond with Adenine? What is the function of photolyases? Ans 1 cAMP receptor protein Ans 2 Transcription factor Humulin Ans 3 Ans 4 ATP-binding proteins Ans 5 Correct Answer 1

Adenine

Guanine

Thymine

Cytocine

Inosine

Xanthosine

Thymidine

Guanosine

Adaptor

Enhancer

Promoter

Activator

NH2

OH

CH3

SH

It cleaves phosphodiester bonds at the end of a polynucleotide chain.

It binds complementary DNA strands and breaks certain types of pyrimidine dimers. Kinases

It cleaves phosphodiester bonds within a polynucleotide chain.

It repairs singlestranded discontinuities in double stranded DNA molecules. DNA Polymerases

Which of the Nucleases following enzymes is used to join DNA fragments together? Which of the following groups of enzymes are responsible for base excision repair in E. Coli, a mechanism by which damaged nucleotides in DNA are removed and replaced? The lac repressor protein is a ________. DNA Glycosylase, AP Endonuclease, DNA Ligase and DNA Polymerase.

Ligases

AP Endonuclease, Photolyase, DNA Ligase and DNA Polymerase.

DNA Glycosylase, Kinase, DNA Ligase and DNA Polymerase.

Kinase, Photolyase, DNA Ligase and DNA Polymerase.

Dimer

Trimer

Tetramer

Hexamer

Which of the (i) and (ii) following is a feature of 'Restriction enzyme'? (i) It cuts double stranded DNA at specific sites. (ii) It cuts the methylated DNA. (iii) It makes two incisions, one on each strand, in the sugar-phosphate back bone. Beginning with 30 2x1010 molecules template DNA molecules, how many amplicons will be produced after 25

(i) and (iii)

(ii) and (iii)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

1x109 molecules

1x1010 molecules

2x109 molecules

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question cycles of Polymerase Chain Reaction? What are homing endonucleases? Which of the following is false for restriction endonucleases? Which of the following enzymes cuts the 3' hairpin loop during the construction of cDNA? They are DNase encoded by introns or inteins. They are found in Eukaryotes. They are DNase encoded by exons. They are DNase found in bacteria. They are DNA Polymerases. They do not require any other enzyme activity to cut the strands of DNA. Ribonuclease 1 Ans 1 Ans 2 Ans 3 Ans 4 Ans 5 Correct Answer

They were developed HindII was the first as defense restriction endonuclease to mechanism against be isolated. invading viruses. DNA Polymerase RNA Polymerase

S1 Nuclease

Transformation does DNA does not get not work well for integrated into the linear DNA because: main chromosome. Which of the Chemiluminescence following principles permits heating and cooling of blocks by reversing the electric current in a thermal cycler (PCR machine)? Which of the following is an ionic detergent used in Polymerase Chain Reaction which prevents formation of secondary structure? Which of the following classes of restriction enzymes cleaves methylated DNA? Tween-20

Exonuclease inside the bacteria rapidly degrades the DNA. Peltier effect

DNA gets degraded by heating the step at 42°C. Doppler effect

DNA is cleaved by DNA Polymerases. Electromagnetic effect

Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO)

Nonyl Triton-x 100 Phenoxypolyethoxylethanol (NP-40)

Type-I

Type-II

Type-III

Type-IV

Taq Polymerase used RNA Polymerase in Polymerase Chain Reaction is a heat stable _______. Which of the Protein following molecules does pyrosequencing operate on? Which of the following is best for DNA storage? SmaI is a restriction enzyme that produces ______. Which of the following is true for Type I restriction enzyme? Which of the following is true for M13 bacteriophage DNA replication? Normal saline

DNA Polymerase

mRNA Polymerase

tRNA Polymerase

DNA

RNA

Lipid

Tris EDTA

Distilled water

Acetic acid

Blunt ends only

Sticky ends only

Both blunt and sticky ends

Depends upon the molecule being cleaved.

It has ligase activity.

It has methyl transferase activity only.

It has both restriction and It has both ligase and methyl transferase activity. methyl transferase activity. It can use either positive or negative strand of the Replicating Form (RF) of the phage as template to form new strands.

It uses the negative strand of Replicating Form (RF) of the phage as template to form new strands.

It uses the positive The phage uses its own strand of Replicating proteins to synthesize the Form (RF) of the new strands. phage as template to form new strands.

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question How many fold 25 fold amplifications would happen if a target sequence, whose flanking sequence is unknown, undergoes 5 cycles in PCR? According to the 0.25 Menedelism, a typical monohybrid cross shows the phenotypic ratio of 3:1. What percentage of the offsprings will be having Bb genotypes if both of the parents are having Bb genotypes in a monohybrid cross? What is a sepiasomic It is a decrease in condition? chromosome number (2n-2). Which of the following has lost its protein coding ability? Which of the following types of genome annotations are ORFs related to? What is percent recombination in a test cross equal to? Mutation in SNC A gene that causes Parkinson Disease has been mapped at ____________. Which of the following diseases illustrates Mendel's law? The differences in genome sizes within a class of organisms are almost entirely due to differences in the amount of _______. Which of the following enzymes finds and removes RNA primers during DNA replication? Pseudogenes Ans 1 Ans 2 125 fold 3125 fold Ans 3 0 fold Ans 4 Ans 5 Correct Answer 4

0.5

0.75

It is an increase in It is an increase in It is a decrease in chromosome number chromosome number (3n). chromosome number (2n+5). (2n-1). Introns Exons Inteins

Functional annotation

Physical annotation

Chemical annotation

Structural annotation

Double cross over

Single cross over

Map-distance

Map area

Chromosome 7

Chromosome 4

Chromosome 5

Chromosome 1

Fragile X syndrome

Huntington's disease

Arthritis

Sickle cell anemia

Protein coding DNA

Non protein coding DNA

Protein coding RNA

Non protein coding RNA

RNA Primase

RNA Polymerase

DNA Polymerase epsilon

DNA Polymerase I

In direct reversal Phosphodiester bond Covalent bond DNA repair mechanism, what type of abnormal bond between adjacent pyrimidine bases is the result of formation of pyrimidine dimers upon irradiation with UV light?

Peptide bond

Glycoside bond

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Ans 1 Ans 2 mRNA-rRNA Duplexes C-terminus to N-terminus Ans 3 RNA-DNA Hybrid Ans 4 mRNA-tRNA Hybrid Ans 5 Correct Answer 3

Which one of the DNA-DNA Duplexes following is the most stable? Which of the N-terminus to following paths does C-terminus the 'protein translation from mRNA' take? _____________ is a Heterogeneous diverse group of nuclear RNA long primary transcripts formed in the eukaryotic nucleus, many of which will be processed to mRNA molecules by splicing. In genetic transcription, which short DNA sequence is the most common type of core promoter in eukaryotes? Transcription Factor II B

N-terminus to N-terminus

C-terminus to C-terminus

Homogeneous nuclear RNA

Large nuclear RNA

Small nuclear RNA

Transcription Factor II D

TATA Box

Template Strand

Which of the 3' terminal UGC ends 3' terminal AA U ends 3' terminal UGU ends following anticodons does the tRNAs have, that are complementary to the codon in mRNA and can be charged covalently with amino acids? Which of the following mutations causes Tay-Sachs disease? Point Mutation Missense Mutation Nonsense Mutation

3' terminal CCA ends

Frameshift Mutation

Which one of these Methylation-specific methods can be used PCR (MSP) for analyzing the pattern of methylation in a specific region of DNA? What do missense mutations code for? Which type of restriction enzymes target methylated DNA? In Cos sequences, which site holds the terminase while it is nicking and separating the strands? What is a terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transfrerase? Which of the following is SOLiD sequencing specifically used for?

Pyrosequencing

Southern Blotting

Bisulfite Mapping

Amino acid that Different amino acid codes for stop signal Type I Type II

Same amino acid Type III

Amino acid that code for a change Type IV

2 4

Cos B

Cos N

Cos Q

Cos X

A nuclease

A ligase

A polymerase

A lipase

dNTPs

ddNTPs

Oligonucleotides

Oligonucleosides

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Which technique is used for producing templates for pyrosequencing? Epistatis can be contrasted with dominance, which is an interaction between alleles at the: Ans 1 Solid Phase Template Preparation Same gene locus Ans 2 Liquid Phase and Enzymatic Template Preparation Different gene locus Ans 3 Enzymatic Template Preparation Ans 4 Liquid Phase Template Preparation Ans 5 Solid Phase and Enzymatic Template Preparation Correct Answer 5

Same allele locus

Different allele locus

Inheritance of skin Sex linked colour in human inheritance beings is an example of: In which phase of cell cycle can euchromatin and heterochromatin be distinguished? Which of the following is a consequence of overlapping genes? Interphase

Quantitative inheritance

Sex limited inheritance

Qualitative inheritance

Metaphase

Prophase

Anaphase

Increased the tolerance for mutation.

Reduced the tolerance for mutation. Y Chromosome

Trisomy

Tetrasomy.

Turner syndrome is X Chromosome an example of monosomy where an individual is born with: Which of the following is not a cause of damage to bases of DNA? Which of the following contains AT rich Autonomously Replicating Sequences (ARS)? Deamination

XXX Chromosome

XXY Chromosome

Depurination

Depyramidination

Depolymerization

Bacterial genome

Fungal Genome

Yeast genome

Viral genome

In which of the A-form following forms does DNA exists at a relative humidity of 70%? Which of the following operons require Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) for repression? (i) Lac operon (ii) Trp operon (iv) Arabinose operon. Which of the following RNA polymerase helps in transcription of t-RNA and small RNA? Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the functioning of prokaryotic ribosomes? Both (ii) and (iii)

B-form

C-form

Z-form

(i) only

(ii) only

Both (i) and (iii)

RNA Pol-I

RNA Pol-II

RNA Pol-III

None of above

Aminoglycosides

Chloramphenicol

Tetracycline

Cycloheximide

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question The ____________ have long terminal repeats (LTR's) similar to retroviruses. Which of the following is not an intercalating agent? During the synthesis of cDNA, 3'-OH is provided by formation of a loop by the single stranded DNA itself. This loop is further released by ___________. Which of the following plasmids contains partition genes that promote the even distribution of plasmids after bacterial cell division? Ans 1 Viral Transposons Ans 2 Non-Viral transposons Ans 3 DNA transposons Ans 4 RNA transposons Ans 5 Correct Answer 1

Ethidium Bromide

Daunomycin

Doxorubicin

Tris Chloride

EcoRI

S1 nuclease

RNA polymerase

Helicase

F-plasmid

Rec-plasmid

GFP-plasmid

Col-plasmids

Which of the DNA Polymerase-I following polymerase is produced in stationery phase and considered to be an error-prone polymerase? The process of Pyrosequencing sequencing of whole genome in which the DNA is broken into pieces, sequenced and finally, the reads are overlapped and correct reads are obtained is known as ___________. Which of the following molecules is not utilized &nbsp in pyrosequencing technique? Which of the following is not a substrate for glucuronidase? Which of the following is an application of cDNA libraries? DNA Polymerase

DNA Polymerase-II

DNA Polymerase-III

DNA Polymerase-IV

Shot-gun method of sequencing

Chromosome walking

Dideoxy method of sequencing

Luciferase

Apyrase

Dideoxynucleotides

5-bromo-4-chloro3-indolyl-beta-Dglucuronic acid (X-Gluc) Mendelian genetics

p-nitrophenylbeta-D-glucuronide

4-methylumbelliferylbeta-D-glucuronide (MUG)

Isopropyl-beta-D1-thiogalactopyranoside (IPTG) Inheritance studies

Reverse genetics

Entomology

When conjugation is Helicase initiated by a signal _______ creates a nick in one of the strands of the conjugative plasmid at the oriT and helps in transfer of DNA. In which of the following phases does independent assortment of genes occur in eukaryotes? Metaphase-I

Relaxase

Endonuclease

Exonuclease

Anaphase

Prophase

Telophase

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Ans 1 Ans 2 Ans 3 Heterochromatin and Cytoplasm respectively Ans 4 Cytoplasm and Nucleolus respectively Ans 5 Correct Answer 1

What do the densely Heterochromatin and Euchromatin and stained and lightly Euchromatin Nucleolus stained areas of a respectively respectively nucleus denote during the process of nuclear staining? Which of the Both A and D following is true? (A ) Crossing over happens between two non-sister Chromatids. (B) The complementarity of the strands after crossing over is not preserved. (C) Holliday Junction is the trihedral structure associated with crossing over. (D) Crossing over takes place only between homologous chromosomes. Which of the following is NOT a DNA damage? Thymine dimers A,B and C

Both B and D

B, C and D

Both A and C

Pyrimidine dimers

Cyclobutane Pyrimidine Dimers It is not site specific.

UV-endonucleasesensitive-sites It results into death of the cell.

Transposition is also It require homology called illegimate between sequences. recombination because ________________. The melting C+A temperature or Tm is highest for those DNAs which contain highest proportion of ______________. Zinc finger motif Beta strands comprises two beta strands and one alpha helical region. Which of these is/are responsible for interaction with the DNA? Which of the following requires TA TA Binding Protein (TBP) for proper initiation of transcription? RNA polymerase I

It helps in forming new recombinants.

A+T

C+G

A+T

One beta strand and the alpha helical region

The alpha helical region

Both the beta strands and the alpha helix together

RNA polymerase II

RNA polymerase III

All of the above

The relative distance The two genes are between two genes closer to each other can be calculated by on the chromosome. taking the offspring of an organism showing two linked genetic traits, and finding the percentage of the offsprings where the two traits do not run together. If the percentage of the descendants that does not show both traits are higher it

The two genes are far apart to each other on the chromosome.

The two genes are overlapping on each other on the chromosome.

The two genes do not belong to the same chromosome.

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question means that: Bacteriophages carry Transformation portions of DNA from one bacteria to another in a process called: Which of the following is the initiation codon? AUG Transfection Transduction Conjugation 3 Ans 1 Ans 2 Ans 3 Ans 4 Ans 5 Correct Answer

CUG

AUC

AGU

The complementary 3'-TACGATCATA T-5' 3'-A TGCTAGTATA-5' 3'-AUGCUAGUAUA -5' DNA strand for 5'-TACGATCATAT-3' would be: Which of the following is not true for house keeping genes? The first amino acid incorporated in a protein chain of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is: How does the strand directed mismatch repair system distinguish the new DNA strand from the old one? Constitutive euchromatin that is always turned on. Histidine Constitutive Constitutive euchromatin heterochromatin that that is always turned off. is always turned on. Alanine Cysteine

3'-GCATATACGCG-5'

3'-TATACTAGCAT-5'

Constitutive heterochromatin that is always turned off. Methionine

Hydroxyl groups are added to all A residues in the sequence GATC some time after the A has been incorporated into a newly synthesized DNA chain. They catalyze nucleoside triphosphate polymerization. DNA segment

Methyl groups are added to all A residues in the sequence GA TC some time after the A has been incorporated into a newly synthesized DNA chain.

Phosphate groups are added to all A residues in the sequence GATC some time after the A has been incorporated into a newly synthesized DNA chain.

Ethyl groups are added to all A residues in the sequence GATC some time after the A has been incorporated into a newly synthesized DNA chain.

What is the function of DNA topoisomerases during DNA replication? Which of the following is not a component of a nucleosome? What is the role of the cAMP-CAP complex in E. coli?

They help in opening They seal together the They help to relieve up the DNA helix so discontinuously helical winding and to that it can be copied. synthesized lagging-strand prevent DNA tangling. DNA fragments. Histone protein Chromatin Ribosomes

It binds to the operator, inhibiting transcription initiation.

It binds to the CAP It binds to the operator to site, where it stimulate the rate of interacts with RNA transcription initiation. polymerase to inhibit transcription initiation. the 5' splice site and the branch point the 3' splice site and the branch point

It binds to the CA P site, where it interacts with RNA polymerase to stimulate the rate of transcription initiation. the 5' splice site, the 3' splice site and the branch point

The mechanism of pre-mRNA splicing implies that the splicing machinery must recognize _______ of the precursor RNA molecule. Which of the following statements is true regarding eukaryotic mRNA?

the 5' splice site and the 3' splice site

Eukaryotic mRNA &nbsp is essentially mature upon transcription and requires no processing.

Eukaryotic translation Introns are &nbsp present is coupled to in the mRNA of all transcription and eukaryotes. occurs co-transcriptionally. Codons for the same amino acid tend to contain the same nucleotides at the first and second positions.

Both ends of eukaryotic mRNAs are modified by capping on the 5' end and by polyadenylation of the 3' end.

Which of the Most amino acids are following statements represented by more is false regarding than one codon. codons?

Three codons act as The tRNA molecule initiation sites signaling the binds to the codon start of the protein-coding during translation. sequence.

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question The two subunits of the ribosome join together on the ________ , usually near its _________ end, to initiate the synthesis of a protein. How does tetracycline inhibit the protein synthesis in bacteria? Ans 1 mRNA molecule, 5' Ans 2 rRNA molecule, 5' Ans 3 mRNA molecule, 3' Ans 4 rRNA molecule, 3' Ans 5 Correct Answer 1

It binds in the exit channel of the ribosome and thereby inhibits elongation of the peptide chain.

It blocks the peptidyl It blocks binding of transferase reaction aminoacyl-tRNA to A-site on ribosomes. of ribosome.

It blocks the translocation reaction on ribosomes.

Which of the They are naturally following statements occurring mutagens. is false regarding the use of transposable elements in genetic research? Insertions or deletions within coding regions may lead to ___________ and premature termination of___________. Missense mutation; transcription

They function as They act as cloning tags. DNA mismatch repair systems.

They function as vehicles for introducing foreign DNA into model organisms.

Frameshift mutation; Missense mutation; translation translation

Frameshift mutation; transcription

What feature(s) (i), (ii) and (iv) is/are required for a DNA molecule to serve as a vector? (i) It must be able to independently replicate itself and the fragment it carries. (ii) It should carry a selectable marker gene. (iii) It should contain several recognition sequences. (iv) It should be easy to recover from the host cell. pUC18 plasmid Blue, X-Gal carries a fragment of the bacterial lacZ gene, and the polylinker is inserted into this fragment. If a DNA fragment is inserted into the polylinker, the bacterial cell carrying the plasmid forms ________ colonies when grown on medium containing ______ . Which of the They are also called following statements phagemids. is true about cosmids? What is a knockout mouse? It contains multiple copies of a human gene.

(ii), (iii), and (iv)

Both (i) and (iii)

Both (i) and (ii)

All - (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

White, X-Gal

Blue, X-Lac

White, X-Lac

They can carry DNA They are plasmid vectors. inserts up to 15 kb in length. It lacks a known normal gene.

They contain a sequence of phage lambda.

It contains one normal and It contains a gene one mutant copy of a which is over expressed particular gene.

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question Ans 1 Ans 2 By colony hybridization. Transformation, calcium ions Ans 3 By recombinant DNA technology. Transvection, sodium ions Ans 4 By DNA hybridization. Ans 5 Correct Answer 2

How can a specific By gene targeting. clone be identified in a DNA library? ___________ is the Transformation, process by which a sodium ions host organism can take up DNA from its environment. E. coli can take up DNA after treatment with _________. What is the 0.5 probability that a plant of genotype AaBb will be produced from parental plants of the genotypes A aBb and Aabb if the two gene pairs independently assort during gamete formation? The following are A-B-C frequencies of crossing over between each pair of three genes: A and B 0.5 %; B and C 34.5 %, A and C 35.4 %. What is the order of the genes on the chromosome? How many possible 1 reading frames must be examined in searching for ORFs (Open Reading Frames) in an unidentified DNA sequence? Which of the following converts single stranded DNA to double stranded DNA during cDNA synthesis? DNA Polymerase

Transvection, calcium ions

0.25

0.125

B-A -C

A-C-B

B-C-A

Nuclease

RNase

Reverse Transcriptase

Infection of the same Anabolism cell by two viruses, in which one provides a gene product which the other requires is called ___________. The endonucleases Site specific which cut DNA nucleases molecules at a &nbsp particular point within a specific region of six base pairs are called ______________. The cofactor required for E.coli DNA ligase is: NAD+

Canabolism

Complementation

Symbiosis

Sequence specific nucleases

Base specific

Amino acid specific

ATP

NADPH

AMP

The best example for DNA Polymerase III processive enzyme in prokaryote DNA synthesis is:

DNA Polymerase IV

DNA Polymerase II

DNA Polymerase I

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question A fragment of synthetic DNA containing a restriction site that may be used for cloning of genes is called: Ans 1 Adaptors Linkers Ans 2 Regulator Ans 3 Ans 4 Homopolymeric tail Ans 5 Correct Answer 2

If a mutation is fixed Unitary pseudogenes Duplicated genes in the population, those genes are called: __________ alter the specificity of &nbsp RNA polymerase for a given promoter in prokaryotic transcription. Gamma factors Sigma factors

Processed genes

Overlapping genes

Delta factors

Alpha factors

Enhancement of Activators interaction between RNA polymerase & a particular promoter is done by: The large fraction of the C-value in eukaryotic cell is made by: The recombinant frequency of 1% is equivalent to: A genetic map is a map based on the frequencies of recombination between markers during: ___________ disease is an example for Mendelian trait. Mating the F1 hybrid with one of the parent is called __________. Misalignment of bases in DNA replication is not caused by: Mueller induced lethal mutation in Drosophila by treating with: Tranposons

Enhancers

Repressors

General Transcription factors

Insertinal elements

Nucleases

Mobile genetic elements

1 centimorgan

10 centimorgans

5 centimorgans

100 centimorgans

Meiosis

Mitosis

Crossing over

Replication

Mulberry Heart Disease

Sickle-cell anemia

Xerophthalmia

Scurvy

Test cross

Back cross

Three-point cross

Two-point cross

Acridine molecules

Alkylating agents

Base analogs

Nitrous acid

Gamma rays

X-rays

IR rays

Alpha rays

Maxam-Gilbert Chemical method involves _________ modification of DNA. In which of the Solid following sequencing method reversible-dye terminators are used? In which of the Automated following methods of sequencing sequencing the enzyme luciferase is

Enzymatic

Radioactive

Flourescent

Illumina

Ion semiconductor

Pyrosequencing

Pyrosequencing

Sangers dideoxy method

Maxam-Gilbert method

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question used? In which of the Shotgun Sequencing following sequencing methods the technique of chromosome walking is observed? The reporter gene, which causes cells that express it to glow green under blue light, is called: A tRNA attached to its amino acid is called _____________. Which amino acid does the IUBMB symbol "L" indicate? GUS Maxam-Gilbert method Automated sequencing Sangers dideoxy method 1 Ans 1 Ans 2 Ans 3 Ans 4 Ans 5 Correct Answer

GFP

Luciferin

YFP

Uncharged tRNA

Charged tRNA

Neutralized tRNA

Close ended tRNA

Phenylalanine

Histidine

Leucine

Lysine

The enzyme involved Aminoacyl-tRNA in the attachment of synthetase correct amino acid to each type of tRNA is ___________. Which of the following is stop codon amber? Which of the following is a feature of Prokaryotic genome? What is a ribozyme? UAA

DNA Polymerase

RNA Polymerase

Aminoacyl-tRNA ligase

UGA

UAG

UGG

It is usually circular and tangled during the cell growth phase. RNA without sugar which is found prokaryotic organisms.

It is found in the nucleoid region.

It is highly extended and tangled during cell division. RNA with enzymatic property.

It is compressed and folded.

RNA with extra phosphate.

RNA with catalytic property which is found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic organisms. Polyadenylation

Which of the Hydroxylation following reactions is NOT a post translational modification? What would IPTG do if it is added to a culture of bacteria growing on poorly utilized carbon source? It would bring conformational change in the structure of inducer molecule.

Glycosylation

Phosphorylation

It would induce the lac operon enzymes.

It would bring conformational change in the structure of repressor molecule.

It would repress the lac operon enzymes.

GA CNNN/NNGTC is Neoschizomers the restriction site for AspEI and A hdI. Therefore, the two enzymes can be known as: Aat II cuts at Isocaudomers (GACGT/C) and Zra I cuts at (GAC/GTC). Therefore, they can be known as: Which of the following is used as a tag for bases in automated DNA sequencing? What are neoschizomers? Radioactive tag

Isoschizomers

Isocaudomer

Blunt-end isomers

Neoschizomers

Isoschizomers

Blunt-end isomers

Fluorescent tag

Antibodies

Tracer dyes

Same restriction enzymes that recognize different sequences.

Different restriction enzymes that recognize different sequences.

Different restriction Same restriction enzymes that recognize the enzymes that recognize same sequence. same sequences.

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INTERVIEW QUESTIONS - SET 2

Choose the correct option. / Fill in the blanks. Question At which of the following positions does double stranded Lambda DNA has (a) small single stranded region(s)? Which of the following is true for preproteins? Which of the following is NOT a gene family? Which of the following is true for Rifampicin? Which among the following screening procedure is highly suited to find adjacent genomic clones from a library? Transgenic organisms are: 3' end Ans 1 5' end Ans 2 Ans 3 It does not have a single stranded region. Ans 4 In the middle of the DNA sequence. Ans 5 Correct Answer 2

They need posttranslational modifications to become active. Homeobox

They are proteins without signal peptide. Achaete-scute complex It prevents transcription of DNA to RNA. Colony and plaque hybridization

They need post transcriptional modifications. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) It is lipophobic in nature.

They need both post-translational and post-transcriptional modifications. All of the above belong to gene family. It allows transcription but inhibits at the translation. Primer walking

It inhibits DNA polymerase. Hybrid arrest

Chromosome walking

The ones that contain a foreign gene and extra copies of endogenous gene. It has a structure similar to retroviral genome.

Genetically manipulated organisms that contain multiple foreign genes.

Genetically manipulated organisms that contain multiple foreign genes, extra copies of endogenous gene.

The ones that contain a copy of endogenous gene and multiple copies of foreign genes. It is a genetic element which can amplify itself on a genome. It is found in the euchromatic regions of chromosomes.

Which of the following is true for a retrotransposon?

It encodes proteins It is flanked by long similar to retroviral terminal repeat reverse transcriptase. sequences(LTR). It forms a variable proportion of the total DNA, depending on the species. (ii) and (iii) It is composed of short repetitive sequences.

Which of the Prokaryotes are following statements devoid of it. is false regarding satellite DNA ? Which of the (i) and (ii) following statements is true about paired end sequencing? (i) Paired end sequencing is also called double barrel shotgun sequencing. (ii) Paired end sequencing is used to overcome the difficulty of having repetitive DNA sequences. (iii) Paired end sequencing permits the assembly of large genome scaffolds. _____________ is Biotransformation the process of secondary antibody linked to an enzyme. The protein beta-galactosidase is encoded by a gene called ____________. lacI

(iii) only

(i) only

(i), (ii) and (iii)

Bioconjugation

Biotransduction

Biotransfusion

lacY

lacZ

lacA

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