Saudi council for health specialities

NURSING EXAM

NAME: ……………………………………………………………………………………………...………

INSTITUTE: ……………………………………………………………………………………….………
Choose the most correct answer in all of the followings:-
1. (NPO) means that:
a. No parking
b. No smoking
c. Fasting
d. No visit
2. A 22 years old male patient has burns on the head and face & arms. the appropriate
percentage of his body that has been involved is:
a. 27%
b. 18%
c. 45%
d. 54%
3. Dr. order: “give penicillin 600.000 u IM stat”.
AVAILABLE : penicillin 800.000 u per 2 cc
How many ml should you give ?
a. 1 ml
b. 1.5 ml
c. 2 ml
d. 2.5 ml
4. The type of anesthesia that affects the whole body is:
a. local anesthesia
b. partial anesthesia
c. spinal anesthesia
d. general anesthesia
5. The smallest gauge needle of the following is :-
a. 19 gauge
b. 20 gauge
c. 21 gauge
d. 22 gauge
6. You take vital signs immediately after surgery as following:
a. Every 5 minutes
b. Every 10 minutes
c. Every 15 minutes
d. Every 30 minutes
7. Hemophilia A is a deficiency of which factor :
a. Factor VI
b. Factor VII
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor IX
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8. Morphine sulphate is:
a. Analgesic
b. Narcotic
c. Antidepressant
d. Sedative
9. Otoscope is used to examine:
a. The eye
b. The ear
c. The throat
d. The nose
10. The process of killing all the encapsulated bacteria is called:
a. Cleaning
b. Disinfection
c. Sterilization
d. None of the above
11. The function of oxytocin during delivery is:
a. Relaxation of uterus
b. Contraction of uterus
c. Growth of uterus
d. All of the above
12. The physician’s order to administer 3 L of IV fluid 5% D \ 0.45 % normal saline
over 24 hours . the drop factor is 60 gtt / ml . the nurse regulates the IV at:
a. 25 gtt / min
b. 100 gtt / min
c. 125 gtt / min
d. 150 gtt / min
13. When open fracture is presented ?, the nurse should be aware of which of the
followings:
a. mal-alignment
b. infection
c. bleeding
d. pain
14. As a child increases in age , cardiac and respiratory rate should:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain unchanged
d. Stabilize at the adult level
15. A must important nursing measure in the prevention of thrombophebitis for the
post-partum patient is:
a. Elastic stocking
b. Early ambulation
c. Anticoagulant
d. Isometric exercise

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16. The difficulty in urination is called:
a. Oliguria
b. Dysuria
c. Polyuria
d. Anuria
17. Dr. order: “give G/S 2000 cc I.V Q 24 hrs”, then the rate will be:
a. 21 drop/m
b. 42 drop/m
c. 84 drop/m
d. 125 drop/m
18. A characteristic of normal flora is:
a. Cause diseases
b. Should be killed
c. It is normal in location
d. None of the above
19. The fastest stage of growth and development is:
a. First year
b. Second year
c. Adolescent
d. School age
20. The nursing process is composed of how many steps:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. None of the above
21. The antidote for warfarin is
a. Calcium
b. Vitamin K
c. Magnesium
d. Protamine sulphate
22. You can check the pulse in the unconscious patient from:
a. Radial artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Carotid artery
d. Femoral artery
23. If there is a blood with vomiting, then this is called:
a. Vomiting
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hematemesis
d. Melena
24. The male sex hormone is:
a. Estrogen
b. Growth hormone
c. Testosterone

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 d. None of the above
25. The gland that is responsible for the regulation of other endocrine glands is:
a. Pituitary
b. Thyroid
c. Adrenal
d. Parathyroid
26. The discoloration of the skin by bluish color is called:
a. Erythema
b. Jaundice
c. Paleness
d. Cyanosis
27. The main function of ventolin in the body is:
a. Analgesic
b. Vasoconstrictor
c. Bronchodilator
d. Anticoagulant
28. Which of the following orders is considered true:
a. Ampicillin 250 mg I.M Q 12 hrs
b. Maalox 30 cc p.o
c. Humulin R insulin SQ in am and pm
d. OPV 1cc
29. Dr order: give 3000 cc dextrose 5% I.V Q 24 hrs,, how many drops per minute you
should give the pt. ( the drop factor is 20 gtt/min)
a. 12
b. 21
c. 31
d. 41
30. The first dose of MMR is given at:
a. One month of age
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
31. The most common location for dislocation is:
a. Knee
b. Shoulders
c. Wrest
d. Femur
32. When the patient defecate a black stool, this is an indication of a G.I bleeding in:
a. Rectum
b. Duodenum
c. Stomach
d. None of the above

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33. All of the followings are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock except:
a. Nausea
b. Hypotension
c. Fever
d. Pale skin
34. Taking a specimen from the cerebrospinal fluid is called:
a. L.D
b. L.P
c. I.D
d. I.T
35. The best position for a patient with dyspnea is:
a. Setting position
b. Semi-setting position
c. Supine position
d. Prone position
36. The first step in physical examination is:
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
37. The most accurate site for temperature is:
a. Oral
b. Axilla
c. Rectal
d. Tympanic
38. When the pulse of the patient is 45 beat per minute, this is called:
a. Tachypnea
b. Tachycardia
c. Bradypnea
d. Bradycardia
39. The best diet for a hypertensive patient is:
a. High protein and low fat
b. Low salt and low fat
c. High vitamins and high salt
d. None of the above
40. The best site for iron absorption is:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

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41. Dr. order: “give 1000 cc dextrose 5% I.V Q 8 hrs”, how many drop per minute you
should give to the patient:
a. 15 drop/m
b. 31 drop/m
c. 45 drop/m
d. 60 drop/m

42. The angle of inserting S/C injection is:

a. 15 degree
b. 30 degree
c. 45 degree
d. 90 degree
43. Dr. order: “give 1500 cc N/S 0.9% I.V Q 24 hrs, how many drop per minute you
should give:
a. 16 drop/m
b. 20 drop/m
c. 25 drop/m
d. 31 drop/m
44. The abbreviation ( t.i.d ) means:
a. once daily
b. twice daily
c. three times daily
d. four times daily
45. The normal range of blood sugar in the newborn is…
a. 50 – 100 mg/100cm
b. 40 – 80 mg/100cm
c. 70 – 110 mg/100cm
d. 40 – 100 mg/100cm
46. The baby is considered preterm if his gestational age was less than…
a. 30 weeks
b. 37 weeks
c. 42 weeks
d. 48 weeks
47. Dehydration may result from…
a. diarrhea
b. vomiting
c. bleeding
d. all of the above

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48. The most vital immediate observation to a new born baby is:-
a. Cardiac rate
b. Respiration rate .
c. Color
d. Tone
49. To detect the effectiveness of cardiopulmonary resuscitation [CPR], there should be
a. Constricted pupils
b. Dilated pupils
c. Non-reacting pupils
d. A symmetrical pupils
50. Deep breathing and coughing exercise should be done :-
a. at angle of 90 degree
b. angel 45 degree
c. lie laterally
d. semi-fowler’s position
51. The treatment for chronic renal failure is :-
a. Dialysis
b. kidney transplant
c. diuretics
d. force fluids
52. The child with rubella should stay at home until :-
a. The rash appears
b. The rash disappears
c. One week after The rash disappears
d. The temperature is normal .
53. The antidote for warfarin is:
a. Protamine sulphate
b. Vitamin K
c. Narcan
d. Aspirin
54. Post-operative patient to do deep breathing & change of position every:-
a. 2 hourly
b. 4 hourly
c. in each shift
d. hourly
55. In fracture , the nurse should be aware of which of the following when open fracture
is presented ?
a. mal-alignment
b. infection
c. bleeding
d. pain
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56. An excellent diet suggestion for an elderly patient is :-
a. High-calorie , low-fat , high carbohydrate diet
b. low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables
c. High-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
d. low-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
57. Hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure above:-
a. 140/90 mmHg
b. 150/190 mmHg
c. 160/100 mmHg
d. 160/110 mmHg
58. The normal arterial O2 saturation is:-
a. 85%
b. 92%
c. 97%
d. 100%
59. When the appearance , odor , or color of a medication changes , the nurse should :-
a. Disregard this & give the medication as ordered
b. Have the registered nurse give the medication
c. Withhold the medication & consult the pharmacist .
d. Understand this is a normal occurrence when dealing with chemicals
60. Preparations coated to dissolve in the intestines & not in the stomach are referred to
as :-
a. Sustained – action
b. Enteric coated
c. Lozenges
d. A tablet within a tablet

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