IIFT SAMPLE PAPER -1

Please read the Instructions for the test carefully

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START. 2. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet. 3. This booklet contains 30 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after the signal to start is given, verify that all pages are printed properly. 4. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, Calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular phones, pagers, Digital or any other devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room. 5. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides. AT THE START OF THE TEST 6. 7. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 30 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.

HOW TO ANSWER 8. This test has FOUR sections which examine various abilities. In all there are 196 questions. You will be given TWO hours to complete the test. Section G.K. Verbal Ability Quant Logical Reasoning Net Total 9. No. of Questions 25 40 30 35 130 Weightage 2/5 1/2 3/5 3/5 Net Score 10 20 18 21

Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. Wrong answer carries negative marks of 1/5th.

10. 11.

Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.

AFTER THE TEST 13. At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum- Answer sheet from your seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, "You may leave now". The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cum-Answer sheets from every candidate in the room. You may retain the test booklet with you.

14.

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SECTION-1 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

1. A Techno company has 14 machines of equal efficiency in its factory. The annual manufacturing costs are Rs. 42,000 and establishment charges are Rs. 12,000. The annual output of the company is Rs. 70,000. The annual output and manufacturing costs are directly proportional to the no. of machines. The shareholders get 12.5% profit, which is directly proportional to the annual output of the company. If 7.14% machines remain closed throughout the year, then the percentage decrease in the amount of profit of the shareholders would be: (1) 12% 2. (2) 12.5% (3) 13.0% (4) None of these

In how many ways can four letters of the word SERIES be arranged? (1) 24 (2) 42 (3) 84 (4) 102

3.

The area of a triangle is 6, two of its vertices are (1, 1) and (4, 1), the third vertex lies on y = x + 5. Find the third vertex. (1) (2) (3) (4) None of these

4.

Sun Life Insurance Company issues standard, preferred, and ultra-preferred policies. Among the companys policy holders of a certain age, 50% are standard with a probability of 0.01 of dying in the next year, 30% are preferred with a probability 0.008 of dying in the next year, and 20% are ultra-preferred with a probability of 0.007 of dying in the next year. If a policy holder of that age dies in the next year, what is the probability of the deceased being a preferred policy holder? (1) 0.1591 (2) 0.2727 (3) 0.375 (4) None of these

5.

A company sells candles for Rs. 2.50 each. The monetary cost of producing candles is given by c=0.90x + 4480. How many candles must the company make and sell each month in order to have a profit? (1) Between 2500 and 2799 candles (3) 2800 candles (2) less than 2500 candles (4) more than 2800 candles

6.

Three Professors Dr. Gupta, Dr. Sharma and Dr. Singh are evaluating answer scripts of a subject. Dr. Gupta is 40% more efficient than Dr. Sharma, who is 20% more efficient than Dr. Singh. Dr. Gupta takes 10 days less than Dr. Sharma to complete the evaluation work. Dr. Gupta starts the evaluation work and works for 10 days and then Dr. Sharma takes over. Dr. Sharma evaluates for next 15 days and then stops. In how many days, Dr. Singh can complete the remaining evaluation work. (1) 7.2 days (2) 9.5 days (3) 11.5 days (4) None of these

7.

What is the value of

If log4 log4 4ab = 2 log4

+1

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4) 1

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8. In a square of side 2 meters, isosceles triangles of equal area are cut from the corners to form a regular octagon. Find the perimeter and area of the regular octagon. (1) (2)

(3) 9.

(4) None of these

The smallest perfect square that is divisible by 7! (1) 44100 (2) 176400 (3) 705600 (4) 19600

10.

A = B = C = D = E = F = G = H = 90. Also, AB = AH = EF = DE, and BC = CD = HG. What is the area of the figure ABCDEFGH ?

(1) 6 11.

(2) 8

(3) 10

(4) 12

Pawan retires at the age of 60 years and his employer gives him a pension of Rs.3600/- a year paid in half yearly instalments for the rest of his life. Assuming life expectancy in India is 70 years and interest is 6% per annum payable half yearly, determine the present value of the pension. [Given,(103)^(-20) = 0.55362] (1) 26, 728.50 (2) 26, 744.40 (3) 27, 782.80 (4) 26, 782.80

12.

The value of the expression 7777 + 7777 7777 (5 77) (11 35) is: (1) 1234321 (2) 12344321 (3) 77777 (4) None of these

13.

IBM-Daksh observes that it gets a call at an interval of every 10 minutes from Seattle, at every 12 minutes from Arizona, at the interval of 20 minutes from New York and after every 25 minutes he gets the call from Network. If in the early morning at 5:00 a.m. it has received the calls simultaneously from all the four destinations, then at which time it will receive the calls at a time from all places on the same day? (1) 10:00 a.m. (2) 5:00 p.m. + + (2) + . .. + up to and q = 1 + (3) 3:00 a.m. + + (4) Both (a) and (b) , < 1, then r = 1,

14.

If p = 1 + then r = 1 + (1)

+ . . . + up to , where 0 <

+ . . . + up to is equal to which of the following? (3) (4)

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15. The area of an acute triangle ABC is 302 units, and the two of its sides AB and AC measure 5 and 24 respectively. What is the included angle between these two sides? (1) 15 16. (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 75

Two series p1, p2, p3, . . . and q1, q2, q3, . . . are in Arithmetic Progression, such that p31 p13 = q24 q42. Also, p50 + q50 = 50. What is the sum of the first 50 terms of the series (p1 + q1), (p2 + q2), (p3 + q3), . . . , (pn + qn)? (1) 5000 (2) 2500 (3) 1275 (4) Cannot be determined

17.

A number N when divided by 25 gives a result, with fractional part of the form 0. ab. What is b if N = (310 624 + 750 299)? (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) None of these

18.

The side of a square is equal to 100 cm. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form a new square. Again, the midpoints of the sides of this new square are joined to form another square. This process is continued indefinitely. Find the sum of the areas of the squares. (1) 20000 cm2 (2) 10000 cm2 (3) 20000 2 cm2 (4) 10000 2cm2

19.

There are 16 points in a plane out of which 6 are collinear and no other set of 3 points is collinear. What is the sum of the number of distinct triangles that can be formed using these points as vertices and number of distinct lines passing through these points? (1) 106 (2) 278 (3) 540 (4) 646 ,1+ is:

20.

If p, q are the roots of the equation x2 ax + b = 0, the equation whose roots are 1 + (1) ax2 b2x + b2 = 0 (3) a2x2 2bx + b2 = 0 (2) bx2 a2x + a2 = 0 (4) a2x2 bx + b2 = 0

21.

If a, b, c, d are four angles of a cyclic quadrilateral, then the value of cos(a) + cos(b) + cos(c) + cos(d) is: (1) -1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) None of these

22.

The time is 2.15 p.m. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands ? (1) 22 (2) 37 (3) 43 (4) 15

23.

At the end of the year 2002, Rajoria Institute of Management (RIM) had conducted 108 Management Development Programmes (MDP). Henceforth, every year the institute added p% of the MDP topics at the beginning of the year and discarded q% of the outdated MDP topics at the end of the year, where p > 0 and q > O. If RIM scheduled 108 MDP programmes at the end of the year 2006, which one ofihe following is true? (1) p = q (2) p < q (3) p > q (4) None of these

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24. The digging work of the DMRC on the Adchini-Andheriamore stretch requires Twenty-four men to complete the work in sixteen days. As a part of the task if DMRC were to hire Thirty-two women, they can complete the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. Due to time bound schedule the work had to be completed in remaining 2 days, for which how many more men are to be employed? (1) 48 25. (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 16

Sumit works as a state contractor for PWD and supplies bitumen mix for road construction. He has two varieties of bitumen, one at Rs.42per kg and the other at RS.25 per kg. How many kg of first variety must Sumit mix with 25 kg of second variety, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 Rs/kg, gain 25% on the outlay? (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) None of these

26.

The Ghaziabad-Hapur-Meerut EMU and the Meerut-Hapur-Ghaziabad EMU start at the same time from Ghaziabad and Meerut and proceed towards each other at 16km/hr and 21km/hr, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km more than the other. The distance between two stations is: (1) 445 km (2) 444 km (3) 440 km (4) 450 km

27.

Ashok a master adulterator cum grosser sells haldi powder (turmeric powder), which contains five percent saw dust. What quantity of pure haldi should be added to two kilos of haldi (containing five percent saw dust) so that the proportion of saw dust becomes four percent? (1) 1 kg. (2) 2 kgs (3) 0.5 kg. (4) None of these

28.

Two commandos A and B are the equidistant from the target and the three are in a straight line. Another commando C stands equidistant from A and B such that the distance between him and either A or B is the same as the distance between A and B. What is the ratio of the distance AC and distance between C and the target? (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 3/2 (4) 2/3

29.

When 3/4th of a units digit is added to the tens digit of a 2-digit number, the sum of the digits becomes 10. If 1/4th of the tens digit added to the unit digit, then the sum of the digits is 1 less than previous. Find the number (1) 94 (2) 84 (3) 48 (4) 88 = 1, is

30.

The number of pairs of positive integers (a, b) where a and b are prime numbers and (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 8

-END OF SECTION-

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SECTION-2 DATA INTERPRETATION & LOGICAL REASONING

Directions for questions 1 to 5: In order to quantify the intangibles and incentives to the multi brand dealers (dealers who stock multiple goods as well as competing brands) and the associated channel members, a Company(X) formulates a point score card, which is called as brand building points. This brand building point is added to the sales target achieved points for redemption. The sales target achieved point is allotted as per the table 3 of this question. The sum of brand building point and sales achieved points is the total point that can be redeemed by the dealer against certain goods, as shown in the second table.

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There are 10 multi brand dealers in Nashik and the sales that they have achieved in the end of a quarter are:

1.

Maheshwari & Co has Company X signage along with other brand signage in the main entrance of the store, the exterior walls of the store have the painting of only company X, the side wall in the interior has the painting of Company X. The POP display of Company X is above the eye level with other brands while the stacking of goods of Company X is in the back row of the shelves. The brand building points when combined with the sales achieved points amounts to the total points that a dealer can accumulate in a quarter. The number of Tupperware Sets that Maheshwari & Co can redeem after the quarter (July to September) is? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

2.

Bhowmik Brothers has only other brands signage in the front of the store, and company X painting on the side wall in the exterior of the store, Company X painting on the side wall in the interior of the store, no POP display of any Company and the goods of Company X is stacked in the front row with other brands. What is the total point Bhowmik Brothers need to accumulate to make them eligible for minimum redemption? (1) 27 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 33 Page 7

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3. The Brand building points of Saha H/W is 85, and Mr. Saha the proprietor of the store wants to redeem a Kanjivaram Saree the next quarter by carrying forward the points accumulated this quarter to the next quarter. The sales target of Saha H/W is 25,000 units in the next quarter. It is assumed the brand building points for the next quarter is also going to be 85. How many extra units Saha H/W has to sell in order to get the Kanjivaram Saree? (1) 14688 4. (2) 12569 (3) 13658 (4) 15698

Malling Enterprise exhausted all its points while redeeming three Nike Caps and an Umbrella, what is its brand building points? (1) 75 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 90

5.

If Srikrishna Trader has 80 brand building points then the goods that it can redeem are _________? (1) Tupperware set, Kanjivaram (3) Tupperware set, Nike Cap (2) Umbrella and Tupperware set (4) Nike Cap and T-Shirt

Directions for questions 6 to 8: Answer the following questions based on the table given below Table 1: World merchandise exports by Select Countries Countries Combodia China India Japan South Korea Myanmar Singapore Thailand Vietnam 1999 1129 194931 35667 417610 143686 1136 114680 58440 11540 2000 1389 249203 42379 479249 172267 1646 137804 69057 14449 2001 1500 266098 43361 403496 150439 2381 121751 64968 15029 2002 1923 325596 49250 416726 162471 3046 125177 68108 16530 2003 2218 438228 57085 471817 193817 2483 159902 80324 20176 (Million Dollars) 2004 2005 2798 3100 593326 761954 75562 95096 565675 594905 253845 284419 2380 198637 96248 25625 2925 229649 110110 31625

6.

The third highest average annual export growth over the entire period (1999-2005) has been experienced by: (1) Cambodia. (2) India. (3) Myanmar. (4) Vietnam.

7.

Which of the following statement is not true? (1) During 1999-2000, Myanmar registered the highest annual export growth (2) India witnessed second highest annual export growth rate during 2003-04. (3) Cambodia registered third highest annual export growth rate during 2001-02. (4) The change in Thailands export growth rate from 2000-01 to 2001-02 was more than 10 percent.

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8. Which of the following statement is not false? (1) South Korea registered the third lowest export growth rate during the year 2000- 01. (2) The sum of the export growth of India and Vietnam during 2001-02 is lower than the export growth rate of China during that particular year. (3) Myanmar witnessed maximum number of years of positive export growth rate during the entire period. (4) The difference between the export growth rate of China and Japan during 2004-05 was lower than the export growth rate of Vietnam during that particular year. Directions for questions 9 to 11: Answer the following questions based on the table given below Table A gives the cumulative share price of stock A at the end of 6 trading sessions on the BSE. The share price at the beginning of the first trading sessions was 120. Table A Session 1 Session 2 Session 3 Session 4 Session 5 Session 6 230 340 480 560 700 810 Table B gives the ratio of advance and decline of 10 select shares including stock A on the BSE. Advance decline ratio is the ratio of number of shares that rise in price in a session to number of shares that fall in price in that session. A share is not taken into consideration for calculating the advance decline ratio if its price does not change over the previous session. Table B Session 1 Session 2 Session 3 Session 4 Session 5 Session 6 1:1 7:3 2:1 4:5 3:1 1:1 9. What was the maximum percentage change in share price of stock A in the 6 trading sessions? (1) 75% 10. (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) None of these

How many shares saw a decrease in their prices in session 1 ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) Indeterminate What is the maximum number of shares whose price has gone up in any of the 6 trading sessions ? (1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) Indeterminate

11.

Directions for questions 12 to 16: A Company manufactures chairs. In 1994 its installed capacity was 3 lacs. Now it doubled in 1998 and remained the same in 1999. Through 1995-1997 it was 2/3 the capacity of 1998. Capacity utilization is inversely proportional to capacity. In all years except 1994 capacity utilization was below 100% though production increased steadily over the years. In 1994 it was 110%, 1995-85%, 1996-90%, 1997-91% and 1998-76%. In 1999 it was the same as 1996 levels. The selling price was Rs4 per unit in 1994 increased at 10% per annum till 1996. In 1997 it was Rs5 per unit and thereafter it rose 20% per annum. Unit sales are 90% of production in 1994 and 1995 and 95% in 1997,1998,1999. 1996 was a boom year in which the company sold all that it produced in that year plus the inventory of the last 2 years (assume opening inventory to be zero in 1994). The company has been facing heavy competition and market share by value has been declining from 25% in 1994-95, it was 60% of that in 1998-99. 1996 & 1997 shares were equal to the average share of these 6 years. The company spends 4.33% of its sales revenue every year on advertising.

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12. What was the production in 1997? (1) 350,000 (2) 360,000 (3) 364,000 (4) 365,000

13.

What was the total sales revenue in 1996? (1) 1,900,360 (2) 2,066,680 (3) 1,890,560 What was the advertising expenditure in 1998? (1) 112,545 (2) 120,000 (3) 135,000 What were the unit sales in 1996? (1) 427,000 (2) 450,000 (3) 360,000 What was the total market in 1997? (1) 84.39lac (2) 86.45lac

(4) 2,135,500

14.

(4) 123,345

15.

(4) 365,000

16.

(3) 79.69lac

(4) cannot be determined

Direction for question 17: Refer to the following pie chart and answer the question that follows. The chart shows the number of units produced in degrees, by Company X in different States of India for the quarter July-Sep 2010.

17.

By how many units does the number of units produced in Bihar exceed the number of units produced in Madhya Pradesh, if the total production in the quarter is 72, 000 units? (1) 2300 units (2) 2520 units (3) 3516 units (4) 2860 units

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Directions for questions 18 to 20: The following graph shows population data (males and females), educated people data (males and females) and number of male in the population for a given period of 1995 to 2010. All data is in million. From the information given in the graph answer the questions that follow:

18.

In which year the percentage increase in the number of females over the previous year is highest? (1) 1996 (2) 1999 (3) 2004 (4) 2005

19.

In 2002 if the ratio of number of educated male to professionally educated female was 5:4. If the number of educated males increased by 25% in 2003. What is the percentage change in number of uneducated females in 2003? (1) +25% (2) +30% (3) +34% (4) +56%

20.

In year 2005 total population living in urban area is equal to sixty eight percent of educated population. The ratio of number of people living in urban area to people living in rural area is 43:12 in 2010. What is the ratio of the rural population in 2005 to that in 2010? (1) 0.8 (2) 0.47 (3) 2.05 (4) None

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Direction for questions 21 to 25: Read the information given below, and answer the questions that follow. All the roads in Modern Pune city are either parallel to each other or are perpendicular to each other. The information about few roads and places in the Modern Pune city is as follows: (Note: All distances are measured along straight line joining the two points.) I. Every 2 km, there is a cross, i.e the place where two perpendicular roads meet. All the places mentioned here are very prominent and are situated only at crosses. II. Municipal Corporation building is at the point where Bridge Road and M G Avenue meet. III. Modern Plaza is 25 km away from Cool Palace, that is 4 km away from Profile Heritage. IV. Modern Plaza is on the Bridge Road, while Cool Palace is on the J N Highway. V. Profile Heritage and Cool Place are equidistant from Municipal Corporation building. VI. Modern Plaza is on the S V Marg, while Cool Palace is on the M G Avenue.

21.

Distance between Municipal Corporation building and Modern Plaza is (1) 2 km (2) 4 km (3) 2 2 km (4) None of these S V Marg is parallel to (1) M G Avenue (2) Bridge Road (3) J N Highwayd. (4) None of these

22.

23.

If Krishna Residency is at 42 km from Profile Heritage, then it must be on (1) J N Highway (2) S V Marg (3) Both J N Highway and S V Marg (4) Cannot say

24.

The mayor of Modern Pune city inaugurated international marathon held in the city. As a part of it, he participated in the event along with other competitors. If he joined the runners at Cool Palace, and then reached Modern Plaza by the shortest possible road in the process, he has covered the distance of (1) 25 km (2) 20 km (3) 6 km (4) None of these

25.

Which of the following pairs of roads of Modern Pune city is a pair of parallel roads? (1) M G Marg and Bridge Road (3) S V Marg and J N Highway (2) M G Marg and J N Highway (4) Bridge Road and J N Highway

Directions for Questions 26-28: i. Five girls- Seema, Reema, Neeta, Mona and Veena have total five tickets of movie theatres- Priya, Chanakya, M2K, PVR Saket, Satyam where movies - Gangster, Khiladi, Hero, Saalaam Namaste and Iqbal are currently playing. Each girl has one movie ticket of one of the five theatres. ii. Movie Gangster is running in Priya theatre whose ticket is not with Veena and Seema. iii. Mona has ticket of Iqbal movie. iv. Neeta has ticket for the M2K theatre. Veena has the ticket of Satyam theatre where Khiladi is not running. V. In PVR Saket theatre Saalaam Namaste is running. 26. Which is the correct combination of the Theatre Girl Movie? (1) M2K Neeta Hero (3) Satyam Veena Iqbal BYJUS CLASSES (2) Priya Mona Gangster (4) PVR Saket Seema Saalaam Namaste Page 12

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27. Which movie is running at Chanakya? (1) Gangster 28. (2) Iqbal (3) Hero (4) Data inadequate

Who is having the ticket of the movie Hero? (1) Reema (2) Veena (3) Seema (4) Mona

Directions for questions 29 to 33: Read the following information and choose the right alternative in the questions that follow. During the cultural week of an institute six competitions were conducted. The cultural week was inaugurated in the morning of 19 th October, Wednesday and continued till 26th October. In the span of 8 days six competitions namely debate, folk dance, fash-p, street play, rock band, and group song, were organized along with various other cultural programs. The information available from the institute is: i. Only one competition was held in a day ii. Rock band competition was not conducted on the closing day. iii. Fash-p was conducted on the day prior to debate competition iv. Group song competition was conducted neither on Wednesday nor on Saturday v. None of the competition was conducted on Thursday and Sunday vi. Street Play competition was held on Monday vii. There was gap of two days between debate competition and group song competition

29.

The cultural week started with which competition? (1) Fash-p competition (3) Street play competition (2) Debate competition (4) Rock band competition

30.

How many days gap is there between rock band competition and group song competition? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

31.

Which pair of competition was conducted on Wednesday? (1) Rock band competition and debate competition (2) Debate competition and fash-p competition (3) Rock band competition and Folk dance competition (4) None of these

32.

Which competition exactly precedes the street play competition? (1) Rock band competition (3) Debate competition (2) Group song competition (4) Fash-p competition

33.

Fash-p competition follows which competition? (1) Debate competition (3) Rock band competition (2) Street play competition (4) None of these

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34. How many zeroes are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by a nine but not immediately followed by seven? 7090070890702030045703907 (1) One 35. (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

A Retail chain has seven branches in a city namely R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7 and a central distribution center (DC). The nearest branch to the DC is R6 which is in the south of DC and is 9 Km away from DC. R2 is 17 Km away from DC in the west. The branch R1 is 11 Km away R2 further in the west. The branch R3 is 11 Km in the north east of R1. R4 is 13 Km from R3 in the east. R5 is 11 Km in the north east of the distribution centre. In the north east of R6 is R7 and distance between them is 15 Km. The distance between R1 and R6, R2 and R6, R6 and R5 is 23 Km, 19 Km, 13 Km respectively. R3 is 14 Km away from the DC in the North West direction, while R2 is also 14 Km away from R4 in the north east direction of R2. A truck carrying some goods starts from the distribution center and has to cover at least four stores in a single trip. There is an essential good that has to be delivered in the store R7, but the delivery at R7 has to be done in the end, so what is the shortest distance the truck would travel? (1) 55 (2) 56 (3) 63 (4) 66 -End of Section-

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SECTION -3 PART -1 READING COMPREHENSION

Passage-1
Kodak decided that traditional film and prints would continue to dominate through the 1980s and that photo finishers, film retailers, and, of course, Kodak itself could expect to continue to occupy their long-held positions until l990. Kodak was right and wrong. The quality of digital cameras greatly improved. Prices plunged because the cameras generally followed Moore's Law, the famous prediction by Intel co-founder Gordon Moore in the l960s that the cost of a unit of computing power would fall by 50 percent every eighteen to twenty-four months. Cameras began to be equipped with what the industry called removable media - those little cards that hold the pictures - so pictures were easier to print or to move to other devices, such as computers. Printers improved. Their costs dropped, too. The Internet caught the popular imagination, and people began e-mailing each other pictures rather than print them. Kodak did little to ready itself for the onslaught of digital technology because it consistently tried to hold on to the profits from its old technology and underestimated the speed with which the new would take hold. Kodak decided it could use digital technology to enhance film, rather than replace it. Instead of preparing for the digital world, Kodak headed off in a direction that cost it dearly. ln 1988, Kodak bought Sterling Drug for $5.1 billion. Kodak had decided it was really a chemicals business, not a photography company. So, Kodak reasoned, it should move into adjacent chemical markets, such as drugs. Well chemically treated photo paper really isnt that similar to hormonal agents and cardiovascular drugs. The customers are different. The delivery channels are different. Kodak lost its shirt. lt sold Sterling in pieces in 1994 for about half the original purchase price. George M. C. Fisher was the new CEO of Kodak in 1993. Fishers solution was to hold on to the film business as long as possible, while adding a technological veneer to it. For instance, he introduced the Advantix Preview camera, a hybrid of digital and film technology. Users took pictures the way they always had, and the images were captured on film. Kodak spent more than $500 million developing Advantix, which flopped. Fisher also tried to move kodaks traditional retail photo-processing systems into digital world and in this regard installed tens of thousands of image magic kiosks. These kiosks came just as numerous companies introduced inexpensive, high-quality photo printers that people could use at home, which, in fact, is where customers preferred to view their images and fiddle with them. Fisher also tried to insert Kodak as an intermediary in the process of sharing images electronically. He formed partnerships that let customers receive electronic versions of their photos by e-mail and gave them access to kiosks that let them manipulate and reproduce old photographs. You don't need Kodak to upload photos to your computer and e-mail them. Fisher also formed a partnership with AOL called "You've Got Pictures." Customers would have their film developed and posted online, where friends and family could view them. Customers would pay AOL $7 for this privilege, on top of the $9 paid for photo processing. However sites like Snapfish were allowing pictures to be posted online free. Fisher promised early on, that Kodak's digital-photography business would be profitable by 1997. lt wasn't. ln 1997 Philippe Kahn lead the advent of cell phone camera. With the cell phone camera market growth Kodak didn't just lose out on more prints. The whole industry lost out on sales of digital cameras, because they became just a feature that was given away free on cell phones. Soon cameras became a free feature on many personal computers, too. What had been so profitable for Kodak for so longcapturing images and displaying them- was going to become essentially free. In 1999 Fisher resigned and Carp became the new CEO. In 2000, carps first year as CEO, profit was about flat, at $l.4l billion. Carp, too, retired early, at age fifty-seven. Carp had pursued Fisher's basic strategy of "enhancing" the film business to make it last as long as possible, while trying to figure out some way to get recurring revenue from the filmless, digital world. But the temporizing didn't work any better for Carp than it had for Fisher. Kodak talked, for instance, about getting customers to digitize and upload to the Internet more of the 300 million rolls of film that Kodak processed annually, as of 2000. Instead, customers increasingly skipped the film part. ln 2002, sales of digital cameras in the United States passed those of traditional cameras-even though Kodak in the mid-I990s had projected that it would take twenty years for digital technology to eclipse film. The move to digital in the 2000s happened so fast that, in 2004, Kodak introduced a film camera that won a "camera of the year" award, yet was discontinued by the time Kodak collected the award. Kodak staked out a position as one of the major sellers of digital cameras, but being "one of" is a lot different from owning 70 percent to 80 percent of a market, as Kodak had with film, chemicals, and processing. In 2002 competition in the digital market was so intense that Kodak lost 75 percent of its BYJUS CLASSES Page 15

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stock-market value over the past decade, falling to a level about half of what it was when the reporter suggested to Carp that he might sell the company. As of 2005, Kodak employed less than a third of the number who worked for it twenty years earlier. To see what might have been, look at kodaks principal competitors in the film and paper markets. Agfa temporized on digital technology, then sold its film and paper business to private-equity investors in 2004. The business went into bankruptcy proceedings the following year, but that wasn't Agfa's problem. lt had cashed out at a halfway reasonable price. 1. As per the passage which of the following statements truly reflects the real theme of' the passage? (1) Moores law predicted that cost per unit of computing power would exhibit a standard deviation of 25% per annum. (2) Popularity of removable media and internet lead to high demand for computers. (3) Kodak managers were able to predict the flow of digital technology and their critical value drivers. (4) Kodak did not have a vision to plough back the profits from old technology to research and development in new technology. 2. Which of the following statements is not true? I. Kodak bought sterling drug as a strategic choice for a chemical business as it was already in the business of chemically treated photo paper. II. The chemical business was in sync with the existing business of Kodak running across the customer segment, delivery channels and the regulatory environment. III. Kodak committed a mistake by selling sterling in pieces at a loss of 50%. IV. kodaks diversification attempt with purchase of sterling to strengthen its core business and shift to digital world was a shift from its strategic focus. (1) Only I and II 3. (2) Only II and III (3) Only III and IV (4) Only I, II, III

Kodak lost a big piece of its market share to its competitors because of the following best explained reason. I. When Carp became the CEO the digital Technology eclipsed film technology business and further Carp had been with the company for twenty nine years and had no background in technology. II. Carp in 2004 introduced a film camera that won camera of the year award, yet it was discontinued by the time Kodak collected the award. III. Kodak moved from traditional retail photo processing systems into digital world installing several thousands of image magic kiosks that failed to deliver real benefits to the customers. IV. Phillipe Kahn led the advent of cell phone camera and Kodak lost out on the print business and ability to share images became a free feature with no additional charge. (1) I and II (2) II and III (3) I and IV (4) III and IV

4.

Arrange the given statements in the correct sequence as they appear in the passage. I. Kodak lost to its competitors a big pie of its market share. II. Kodak ventured into chemical business to strengthen its digital technology business. III. Kodak downsized its workforce drastically. IV. Kodak tied up with business firms for photo processing. (1) I, II, III, IV (2) III, IV, II, I (3) II, IV, I, III (4) I, III, II, I

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5. Match the following

(1) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

(2) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

(4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

Passage 2
The trouble started on May 4, 2004, only days after Googles celebrated coming out party. Geico, the giant automobile insurer, filed a lawsuit against the search engine for trademark infringement. The insurer claimed that Googles advertising system unlawfully profited from trademarks that Geico owned. Since all of Googles revenue and growth was from advertising, the disclosure of the lawsuit appeared ominous. We are, and may be in the future, subject to intellectual property rights claims, which are costly to defend, could require us to pay damages, and could limit our ability to use certain technologies, Google disclosed in a public filing outlining potential risks. Abroad, where Google had promising growth prospects, similar court challenges also arose. A court in France held us liable for allowing advertisers to select certain trademarked terms as keywords, the company declared. We have appealed this decision. We were also subject to two lawsuits in Germany on similar matters. To make matters worse, it turned out that prior to its IPO filing, Google had eased its trademark policy in the U.S., allowing companies to place ads even if they were pegged to terms trademarked and owned by others. That was a significant shift, and one. Google warned could increase the risk of lawsuits against the company. It was also a practice that Yahoo, its search engine rival, did not permit. Google claimed it made the policy change to serve users, but some financial analysis said it appeared designed to pump profits before the IPO. And there was more. Competition from Yahoo and Microsoft posed a greater challenge to Google following the disclosure about its mammoth profitability. With so much money at stake, the intensity of the competition would heat up. Such competition might be good for computer users searching the Internet, but Google said it posed additional risk for potential shareholders, If Microsoft or Yahoo are successful in providing similar or better Web search results compared to ours or leverage their platforms to make their Web search services easier to access than ours, we could experience a significant decline in user traffic, the company disclosed. In addition, Google warned that its momentum seemed unsustainable due to competition and the inevitable decline in growth rates as our revenues increase to a higher level. Then there was the question of Googles exclusive reliance on advertising, and one particular type of advertising, for all of its revenue. That was potentially quite problematic. If Yahoo or Microsoft gained ground on search, users could flock to their Web sites, and advertisers could follow. The reduction in spending by; or loss of, advertisers could seriously harm our business, the company disclosed in its SEC filing. In the beginning, the firm earned all of its money from ads triggered by searches on Google.com. But now, most of its growth and half of its sales were coming primarily from the growing network of Web sites that displayed ads Google provided. This self-reinforcing network had a major stake in Google's successful future. It gave the search engine, operating in the manner of a television network providing ads and programming to network affiliates, a sustainable competitive advantage. But there was a dark side there too, because of the substantial revenue from a handful of Google partners, notably America Online and the search engine Ask Jeeves. If at any point they left Google and cut a deal with Microsoft or Yahoo, the lost revenue would be immense and difficult to replace. "If one or more of these key relationships is terminated or not renewed, and is not replaced with a comparable relationship, our business would be adversely affected," the company stated. Google's small, nonintrusive text ads were a big hit. But like major television and cable networks, which were hurt by innovations BYJUS CLASSES Page 17

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that enabled users to tune out commercials, the company faced the risk that users could simply turn ads off if new technologies emerged. Going public also posed a potentially grave risk to Google's culture. Life at the Googleplex was informal. Larry and Sergey knew many people by their first names and still signed off on many hires. With rapid growth and an initial public offering, more traditional management and systems would have to be implemented. No more off-the-shelf software to track revenue on the cheap. Now it was time for audits by major accounting firms. As Google's head count and sales increased, keeping it running without destroying its culture was CEO Eric Schmidt's biggest worry. Google, the noun that became a verb, had built a franchise and a strong brand name with global recognition based entirely on word of mouth. Nothing like it had been done before on this scale. The Internet certainly helped. But Google's profitability would erode if the company were forced to begin spending the customary sums of money on advertising and marketing to maintain the strength of its brand awareness. Marketing guru Peter Sealey said privately that the advice he gave Google to study consumer perception of the Google brand was rejected by the company and that they were unwilling to spend money on marketing. 6. Which of the following statement is true? (1) Google's growing popularity has been a threat to other players operating in that market segment like Yahoo and Ask Jeeves, as Google eroded their market share. (2) According to Google its decision to considerably relax its industrial design policy in the US was geared to satisfy its clients. (3) One of the major challenges for Peter Sealey has been to expand the Google Empire while keeping its existing internal work culture intact. (4) Google's business potential is likely to be threatened seriously if the capacity, accessibility and quality of the Web search offered by its competitors like Microsoft or Yahoo becomes superior than the same offered by it. 7. Which of the following Statement is false? (1) Google has been potentially vulnerable to external competition owing to its exclusive reliance on advertising for resource generation. (2) By writing the "the noun that became a verb", the author indicates the growing popularity of the search engine. (3) "Non-intrusive in the current passage refers to the advertisement format that does not directly hamper or distract the flow of operation of the person working in the computer. (4) The legal dispute between Google and the automobile giant Geico during May 2004 cantered on the advertising system and the trademark policy adopted by the latter. 8. What conclusion can you form about Altavista' from the passage? (1) It has been a partner of Google. (2) It has been a Competitor of Google. (3) It cannot be concluded from the passage. (4) It was a partner of Google initially, but later emerged as a major competitor. 9. Which of the following sentence is false? (1) Google has not been keen to undertake any major analysis on the popular impression about the Google brand. (2) Google's resolution to provide the search engine and programming to collaborators like America Online ensured significant revenue for both sides involved. (3) Google's perceived concern over Intellectual Property issues in the passage has been quoted from a confidential company report. BYJUS CLASSES Page 18

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(4) With increase in the volume of Google's total annual revenue, it was anticipated by the management that the annual growth rate of their business may decline.

Passage 3
Around the turn of the century; an interesting trend was slowly becoming prominent in retailing across the globe. Department stores were slowly becoming less and less popular with customers. Large department stores offered a wide range of product categories - from apparel, luggage, toys, crockery, to home furnishing - as well as owned and managed the stock of products they sold inside the store and from their warehouses. Industry analysts stared questioning whether this could still be the ideal retail model, and whether the changing retail environment marked the end of large department stores as we knew them. On one side there were the stores that focussed on a particular category - electronics, toys, women's wear or home appliances. Over the years, these had evolved into giant superstores and had become very popular with customers who went shopping for a particular product. On the other hand, there were discounters, hypermarkets and wholesale clubs that served the bargain-hunting customer very well. Department stores were squeezed in between and the new age shoppers found their ambience to be formal and boring. To keep pace with these trends, some department stores were steadily reinventing themselves. The most prominent among them was UK based Selfridges chain. In 2003, Selfridges launched a new store in Birmingham, England that completely reinvented the idea of the department store. Brands competed with each other within the store bur there was no hierarchy of goods: watches competed with perfume, and luggage with fashion. In addition the store organised various shows, stunts and performances through the day and called it, 'shopping entertainment.' Similar stores had come up in various parts of Southeast Asia, Japan and Europe. For customers, these new-age department stores seemed like a mall, just that they didn't have the walls that separate the different stores within a mail. While this trend was becoming more and more apparent abroad, within India too, certain consumer patterns were emerging. Our experience showed that a customer visiting a mall typically walks into four or five stores. That includes a large store and a few smaller brand showrooms. After that fatigue sets in and he or she is unwilling to walk into any more stores at the mall. So we asked ourselves, what would happen if we removed the walls between the different stores in a mall? In that case, a customer would be exposed to multiple brands at the same time, without the necessity of walking in and out of different stores. And along with shopping we could also provide her with other entertainment options. Within the company itself there was a renewed confidence and an urge to play a larger role in shaping the modern retailing space in India. We had completed more than six years in retailing. With Big Bazaar we had tried and tested our skills at offering a wide range of categories while Pantaloons was firmly positioned in the lifestyle segment. We could now create shopping and entertainment landmarks in the cities in which we had already established a strong presence. These three insights - the metamorphosis of department stores into developed markets; customer fatigue at the existing shopping malls in India; and the need to create destination malls in Indian cities formed the genesis of the next format we started working on, Central. The objective was to create a retail format that was much larger and totally different from what India had seen till then. It would offer everything from multiple brands for shopping, to restaurants, coffee shops, entertainment options and gaming zones - all under one roof. If we were able to deliver on these two fronts, we could attract customers from every part of the city and make it the city's prime shopping destination. There were a couple of other issues that the Central model addressed quite well. Pantaloons outlets had limited space. We were positioning it as a fashion destination and the business model was based on selling mostly brands that we owned, or what are called private labels. However, with its increasing popularity; we were being approached by multiple foreign and Indian brands to stock these at Pantaloons. Central, being far bigger in size allowed us to open up a lot of space for other brands. However, unlike in any other mall, these brands didn't pay us rent. Instead the brands paid us a certain percentage of their sales in the mall as commission. Based on the performance of these brands, we could decide on which to keep and which to discard. The first Central mall was launched in Bangalore in May 2004. Measuring 1,20,000 square feet, it was spread over six floors and housed over three hundred brands in categories like apparel, footwear, accessories, home furnishing, music and books. In addition we had coffee shops, food courts, a Food Bazaar, restaurants, pubs and discotheques. A customer could also book tickets for movies and concerts, book travel tickets and make bill payments. BYJUS CLASSES Page 19

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What has primarily made Central the 'destination mall' for Bangalore is its location. It is located in the heart of the city, at M.G. Road, where once Hotel Victoria stood. Moreover, we added a lot of features to further establish it as the focal point of the city. The Central Square located outside the mall building has been made available for art exhibitions, cultural performances, shows and product launches. And in 2005, the vintage car rally was flagged off from the Central flag-point, which has since become the epicentre for many such events. Thus, Central captured in all its glory what we wanted a destination mall to be, and lived up to its tagline of Shop, Eat, and Celebrate.' Soon after the launch of Bangalore Central, we opened the second Central in Hyderabad in November 2004. Once again it was located at the heart of the city on the Punjagutta Cross Road. Here, the roads connecting the city centre with Secunderabad, Jubilee Hills and the old part of the city; converge. It was more than double the size of Bangalore Central. Apart from over hundreds of brands to shop, it had food courts, restaurants, as well as a five-screen multiplex managed by PVR Cinemas. Much like the one in Bangalore, Hyderabad Central didn't take much time to become the nerve centre of the city. With an annual retail turnover of around Rs 200 crore it is presently among the largest retail destinations in the country. 10. Which of the following statement is true? (1) The Central mall in Hyderabad in 2004 occupies more than 2,40,000 square meter in area and currently considered as one of the largest retail destinations in the country with a generated annual retail turnover of around Rs.200 crore. (2) It has been observed during the last decade that the hypermarkets are slowing, failing to retain consumers in competition with the department stores. (3) The market analysis convinced the company referred in the text that the time is ripe to introduce now shopping and entertainment landmarks in cities, where they already enjoy some market presence. (4) While the consumers were able to look for a certain category of products at length in the specialty stores, wholesale clubs allowed them to purchase a number of products at a cheap and negotiable 11. Which of the following statement is false? (1) The recent consumer response towards department stores led to the quest for a new business Model which may replace it in the coming days. (2) Since inauguration the Central Square outside the mall in Hyderabad has been used for various purposes so far including, art exhibitions, cultural shows, product launches etc. (3) When the company mentioned in the passage decided to capitalize on the emerging changes in consumer mind-set on the retail sales, they already had an experience of nearly six years of operating in this market segment. (4) The changing structural framework of the new type of malls became very popular in various European and Southeast Asian countries, owing to their boundary-less arrangement of products, coupled with shopping entertainment options. 12. Which of the following terms has not been mentioned in the above passage? (1) Department Stores (2) Hypermarkets (3) Wholesale Clubs (4) Super-speciality stores 13. Which of the following statement is true? (1) The firm discussed here allowed various foreign and Indian garment companies to display their products in their show room on the condition that they will pay them either some rent, or a predecided percentage of their sales as commission. (2) Before going for the Central venture, the firm already had the experience of offering a wide range of product categories through Big Bazaar and in specialized segments through Pantaloons. BYJUS CLASSES Page 20

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(3) The Central mall in Bangalore provided importance to both goods and services for business development; it displayed around two hundred brands in categories like garments, footwear, music, books etc. On one hand, and ensured eating and entertainment options, ticket-booking for movies and concerts, travel services and bill payments within its premises on the other. (4) The reasons behind the losing out of the specialty stores had been multifarious, covering the traditional and unexciting environment, steep price competition from other rivals, inflexibility in operation etc. 14. Which of the following statement is false? (1) In tune with the changing time, the new store created in Birmingham allowed brand competition within the store without explicit hierarchy of products, and organized various events to ensure lively amusement for the shoppers. (2) Since visiting different stores even within a mega shopping complex gets monotonous once the initial excitement is over, the exposure to multiple brands simultaneously with removal of the walls has been a consumer-friendly move. (3) The idea behind setting up a mega retail network was to make it city's unique shopping location by ensuring exposure to multiple brands on one hand, and by making it an excellent hang-out option through setting up of entertainment and nourishment options on the other. (4) The market analysis by the company described in the passage revealed that a representative buyer to a shopping centre goes to at the most four or five stores, selecting large or small showrooms randomly. -End Of Section-

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SECTION-3 PART-2 VERBAL ABILITY

Directions 1 - 3: In each sentence below, there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence some pairs of words are given which are numbered (1), (2) (3) and (4), Pick out the most appropriate pair to fill In the blanks in the same order, to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 1. Since we... read every book, we .... only the famous ones. (1) have, sold 2. (2) should, buy (3) must, ignore (4) cannot, select

Suddenly out of the... of weariness an old lady... unexpectedly. (1) mosaic, raised (2) context, appeared (3) texture, rose (4) fabric, awakened

3.

We have to... in our young men and women sense of discipline, which is a... for progress and happiness. (1) generate, concomitant (3) produce, necessity (2) instill, need (4) inculcate, prerequisite

Directions 4 - 6: In the following questions the first and the last parts of sentence are the numbered as 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P. Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which combination correct. 4. 1. There are very few moments P. in a man's existence Q. little charitable commiseration, R. distress, or meets with so S. when he experiences so much ludicrous 6. as when he is in pursuit of his own hat. (1) SRPQ 5. (2) PSRQ (3) QRSP (4) PRQS

1. From the way P. speech patterns we can Q. his words and R. a person pronounces S. builds them into 6.usually estimate his education, (1) SQPR (2) RQSP (3) QSPR (4) SQRP

6.

1. In making our P. reports of people's Q. confined ourselves R. conversations we have so far S. to straightforward 6. marks and observations. (1) PRQS (2) RPSQ (3) RQSP (4) PRSQ

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Directions 7 13: In each of the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four pair of phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. 7. SCURRY: MOVE:: (1) chant: sing 8. (2) chatter: talk (3) carry : lift (4) sleep : drowse

DROPCLOTH: FURNITURE:: (1) banner: flagpole (2) towel : rack (3) pillow: bending (4) apron: clothing

9.

ARCHIPELAGO: ISLAND:: (1) arbour: bower (2) garden: flower (3) mountain: valley (4) constellation: star

10.

PRESENTIMENT: HINDSIGHT (1) anticipation : reminiscence (3) congratulation : consultation (2) provocation : exasperation (4) optimism : despair

11.

ASCETIC: SELF-DENIAL:: (1) nomad: dissipation (2) miser: affluence (3) zealot: fanaticism (4) renegade: loyalty

12.

SYCOPHANT: FLATTERY (1) impostor : deference (3) swindler : fraudulence (2) bandit : hypocrisy (4) advocate : defamation

13.

ABYSS: DITCH (1) conflagration : campfire (3) umbrella : rain (2) velocity : acceleration (4) square : rectangle

Directions 14 - 16: among the four choices given below, pick the one which spells the word correctly: 14. 15. 16. (1) Partisan (1) difenestration (1) discombobulate (2) Partesan (2) defenestration (2) discombobulata (3) Partisane (3) defenistration (3) discombombulate (4) Partison (4) definestration (4) discombobmulate

Directions 17 - 19: Below we are giving several passages that make a logic argument. One of the sentences is missing from the paragraph. From amongst the given choice find out the sentences that should be put in place of the sentence so that the logical coherence of the given paragraph is maintained. 17. But theres little room for complacency. After all, the US buys 18.9 percent of India exports, making it the single- largest buyer of Indian products. The top three items are software services ($91.6 billion), gems and jewellery ($534 million) and garments, including accessories ($268 million). .. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), many of them American, have been driving the Indian stock market for the past year and, through 2000, the Indian stock market has moved in tandem with the NASDAQ. Clearly, theres a lot at stake. Page 23

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(1) Many companies of India depend upon European mother-companies for survival. (2) Whats more, the US accounts for around 10 per cent of Indias foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows. (3) Nevertheless, the US is ignored by Indian policy pundits. (4) Moreover, nearly 25% of Indian import bills are by G-8 of which the US is a signatory. 18. For a corporate sector that has been gunning for MAT since introduction in July, 1996, theres disappointment in store. The report merely asks for MAT to be reconstituted from the existing 7.5 percent of the book profit to a 0.75 percent of adjusted net worth, plus 10 percent of the dividend distributed. Companies were fudging figures, says the committee member, to evade MAT. Counters Shyamal Mukherjee, partner, Price Waterhouse & Co: Net worth can also be manipulated. In any case, points out U. R. Bhat, Chief Investment Officer, Jardine Fleming, the tax burden will be the same. Concurs Kapila: The capital base, which would be the basis for computing MAT, could well be locked up in non-performing assets. (1) Besides, the new system will penalize companies that post returns. (2) Moreover, the new system may put foreign companies at an unfair advantage. (3) Moreover, MAT has already failed as a means of tax collections. (4) The government is seriously reconsidering withdrawing MAT. 19. Bank and financial institutions (Fls) are dismayed over the proposed law (based on the report of the V.B. Eradi committee on the law relating to insolvency and winding up of companies). Laments Shashi Bhojani, Deputy Managing Director, ICICI: This merely renames the BIFR and burdens it with more work. Kishore Soni, Chief Executive Officer of Soni Industrial Restructuring Consultants, point out that while the BIFR merely attempted to revive dying companies, the NCLT will have to both cure sick firms and perform the last rites. As a result, he warns, . (a) NCLT will have to perform duties of World Bank without having the matching power. (b) Labour disputes will only augment, leading to breach of industrial peace. (c) Revival and winding up of companies, each of which already takes nearly four years to complete, will only get further delayed. (d) Bureaucratic control over NCLT will only increase. Directions 20 - 21: In each sentence below, there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence some pairs of words are given which are numbered (1), (2), (3), and (4). Pick out the most appropriate pair to fill in the blanks in the same order, to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 20. Sachin another feather his cap by his wonderful performance in the one-day match. (1) kept, by 21. (2) captured, interest (3) took, in (4) Added ,to

Some people have the .. for learning foreign languages but they have no in speaking any. (1) mania, urge (3) stamina, fondness (2) aptitude, interest (4) capacity, ability.

Directions 22 - 24: In the following five questions you are given a sentence. A part of the sentence is underlined which may or not contain an error. From among the given choices (a) indicates no error in the sentence because it is nothing but the underlined portion of the question, reproduced.) 22. Undaunted by the political repercussions of his decision, the new gasoline rationing plan was announced by the Governor at the state office building last Friday. (1) the new gasoline rationing plan was announced by the Governor BYJUS CLASSES Page 24

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(2) the Governors new gasoline rationing plan was announced. (3) the Governor made announcement concern earning the new gasoline rationing plan (4) the Governor announced the new gasoline rationing plan 23. Parkers testimony made it clear that he appointed Ryan before he had become aware of Ryans alleged underworld connections. (1) he appointed Ryan before he had become aware (2) he appointed Ryan before his awareness (3) he had appointed Ryan prior to his become aware (4) he had appointed Ryan before becoming aware 24. Despite its being smaller in size than are conventional automobile engines, the new Adcock Engine can still deliver the horsepower needed most short-distance city driving. (1) Despite its being smaller in size than are (2) In spite of its being smaller than (3) Although smaller than (4) Despite its relative to Directions: In the sentences given below, pick out the synonym from the four given choices: 25. RELIED (1) Emphasised (2) Depended (3) Convinced (4) Followed 26. OBTAINED (1) Combined (2) Procured (3) Acquired (4) Followed

-End Of Section-

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SECTION-4 GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Select the correct Year - Summer Olympics host city match: YEAR 1 2 3 4 1964 1972 1980 2000 i ii iii iv 2) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii 4) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii SUMMER OLYMPICS HOST Tokyo Moscow Munich Sydney

1) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv 3) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-I 2.

Select the correct Sportsperson - Book/Movie match: SPORTSPERSON Muhammad Ali Sergei Bubka Pele Prakash padukone BOOK/MOVIE i ii iii iv Touch Play The greatest: my own story An attempt is reserved Escape to victory

1 2 3 4

1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii 3) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv 3.

2) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii 4) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i

Select the correct Country - Currency - City match: COUNTRY A B C D (1) A Belize Algeria Bhutan Cambodia (2) B (3) C CURRENCY Dollar Dinar Pula Won (4) D CITY Kriol Tindouf Thimpu Phnom Penh

4.

Select the correct Arjuna Awardee - Sport match: Arjuna Awardee 1 Limba Ram 2 Syed Modi 3 Alok Kumar 4 Maria Irudayam (1) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-I (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-I

Sport i ii iii iv Billiards Carom Archery Badminton

(2) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii (4) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

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5. Select the incorrect Group - Location of Headquarter - Member match: International Organisation 1 2 3 4 South Asian association for regional co-operation(SAARC) Association of south east Asian nations(ASEAN) Asian clearing union(ACU) Asia pacific economic cooperation(APEC) (2) B (3) C Location of HQ Kathmandu Jakarta Tehran Tokyo Bhutan Brunei Iran Philippines Member

(1) A 6.

(4) D

Select the correct International Organization - Location of Headquarter - Year of Formation match: International Organisation Location of HQ Year of formation 1945 1945 1945 1945

A B C 4

International court of justice(ICJ) Economic and social council(ECOSOC) World health organization(WHO) International monetary fund(IMF)

Hague Washington D.C. Geneva New York

(1) A 7.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Select the incorrect Cricket World Cup Finalist - Year - Host City of Finals match: Cricket world cup finalist A B C 4 Australia England Sri lanka Australia Year 1975 1992 1996 1987 London Sydney Lahore Kolkata Host city of finals

(1) A 8.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Select the correct Country - Parliament/Legislature match: Country Malaysia Maldives Moldova Mauritius Parliament/legislature Parliamental Majlis Barlamene Dewan rakyat

A B C 4

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

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9.

Select the incorrect Book - Author match: Book Old man and the sea To kill a mocking bird The stone diaries Interpreter of maladies Author Ernest hemingway Harper lee Richard ford Jhumpa lahiri

A B C 4

(1) A 10.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Select the correct Treaty - Participating Countries - Year match: Treaty Treaty of Frankfurt Treaty of Stockholm Treaty of London Treaty of Madrid Participating countries Austria, Germany Sweden, Denmark France, England Germany, France Year 1489 1607 1518 1801

A B C 4

(1) A 11.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Select the correct Business Merger Purchaser - Purchased - Year match: Purchaser British petroleum America online inc (AOL) Glaxo welcome plc. J P Morgan Chase & co. Purchased Chevron Time warner Smithkline Beecham plc. Bank One Corp Year 1998 2000 2002 1801

A B C 4

(1) A 12.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Select the correct Organisation - Purpose match: Organisation ISO ASTM SAE W3C Purpose To develop standards for engineering of powered vehicles To promulgate worldwide proprietary industrial and commercial standards To develop standards for internet To develop and publish voluntary consensus technical standards

1 2 3 4

i ii iii iv

(1) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (3) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-I 13. The largest retailer of the world is (1) IBM (2) Wal-Mart

(2) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-I (4) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

(3) Macys

(4) Nordstrom

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14. The president of NASSCOM is (1) Ashok Soota 15. (2) Pradip Kar (3) Jerry Rao (4) Som Mittal

Winner of Durand Cup 2003 is (1) Mohan Bagan (3) Salgaocar Club (2) JCT Mills Phagwada (4) East Bengal

16.

Orange is the name of the cellular service provider from (1) Hutchison Max Telecom Ltd. (3) Idea Cellular Ltd. (2) BPL Communications (4) Reliance Infocomm

17.

The name by which the Indica car is known as in UK is (1) Player (2) Mover (3) City Rover (4) Cruiser

18.

The name of the space shuttle in which Kalpana Chawla was travelling and that met with a fatal accident is (1) Discovery (2) Columbia (3) Explorer (4) Spirit

19.

Which of the following is also known as The land of midnight sun? (1) Japan (2) South Korea (3) Norway (4) Italy

20.

She is the richest woman in India and is the owner of Biocon International. Identify her from the given options. (1) Indira Nooyi (2) Kiran Majumdar Shaw (3) Chanda Kochar (4) Anu Agha

21.

The costliest city in the world is (1) Washington DC (2) New York (3) Berlin (4) London

22.

The venue of the first Afro Asian Games is (1) New Delhi (2) Bhopal (3) Bangalore (4) Hyderabad

23.

The seat of the Lok Sabha cannot remain vacant for more than a period of (1) six months (2) three months (3) two months (4) one month

24.

My Life, is a famous work of (1) Mikhail Gorbachev (2) Bill Clinton (3) Dick Cheney(4) Jacques Chirac

25.

Who is the Chairman of the Censor Board of India? (1) Anupam Kher (2) Sharmila Tagore (3) Leela Samson -End Of Paper(4) J. P. Dutta

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