SEMESTER 1 Histology Review

MINI 1
Dr. M. Moore 1) In the accompanying electron micrograph (EM), at which location are tRNA genes being actively transcribed? A) location E B) location C C) location D D) location A E) location B

2) Which of the following statements concerning membrane structure is CORRECT? A) Peripheral membrane proteins cannot be fluid in the membrane and are fixed in one place. B) When the two halves of a bilayer are separated during freeze fracture, the P face of the bilayer is the face closest to the extracellular space. C) Saturated fatty acid tails on phospholipids increase membrane fluidity. D) Integral membrane proteins can be removed from a membrane bilayer with high salt. E) Glycolipids are formed by the attachment of carbohydrate to lipids 3) Which of the following would probably never pass through nuclear pores in an interphase nucleus? A) mRNA B) ribosomal protein C) none D) histones E) tRNA 4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the actin cytoskeleton? A) binds spectrin B) forms microvilli C) forms lamellipodia D) forms the contractile ring that separates daughter cells at mitosis E) forms cilia

5. This question is about the organelle shown in the box marked A. Which of the following post-translational protein modifications DOES NOT occur in this organelle? A) Formation of disulphide bonds B) Formation of GPI anchors C) Addition of N-linked carbohydrate D) Protein folding E) Addition of O-linked carbohydrate 6. This question is about the organelle shown in the box marked B. This organelle DOES NOT carry out which of the following processes? A) Lipid synthesis B) Protein synthesis C) Carbohydrate synthesis D) rRNA synthesis E) mRNA synthesis 7. Which of the following WOULD NOT be found on the half of the plasma membrane bilayer facing the cytoplasm? A) phosphatidylserine B) phosphatidylethanolamine C) cholesterol D) peripheral membrane protein E) carbohydrate moiety of integral membrane protein

8. Which of the following are active during the phase of the cell cycle shown in the accompanying drawing? A) nucleoli

B) condensins C) ribosomes D) cohesins E) nuclear lamins 9. Which of the following types of proteins are translated on ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) instead of being completely translated on ribosomes free in the cytosol? A) cytoskeletal proteins B) mitochondrial proteins C) lysosomal proteins D) peroxisomal proteins E) nuclear proteins 10. You have engineered a protein construct mRNA that will encode for a protein not normally found in nature that is 60 kD in size. To a soluble protein that is normally a cytoplasmic protein you have added an ER signal sequence to its amino terminus, and an NLS to its carboxy terminus. There are no other targeting signals present in this protein. After transfection into the cell, what is the final destination of the translated construct protein? Assume that this protein folds correctly such that it is not recognized as misfolded. A) cytoplasm B) lumen of the ER C) lumen of the Golgi D) secreted into the extracellular space E) the nuclear interior 11. Which of the following statements about caspases is INCORRECT? A) Caspases are proteases that degrade specific intracellular proteins B) Caspases are only found in certain specialized cells C) Caspases are directly responsible for most of the observed morphological changes during apoptosis D) Caspases are found in the cytoplasm E) Caspases are inactive until the cell enters apoptosis

12) At the end of prophase, how many chromosomes does a mitotic human cell have? A) 23 B) 46 C) 69 D) 92 E) 115 13) Which of the following is a site of mRNA transcription? A) ribosome B) nucleolus C) heterochromatin D) rough ER E) euchromatin

14) Which of the following statements about mitochondria is CORRECT? A) Mitochondria import proteins co-translationally through contact sites in the membrane. B) Mitochondria maintain an acidic pH inside the lumen of the intermembrane space. C) Mitochondria localize most of the protein components of the respiratory chains in the inner mitochondrial membrane or the matrix. D) Mitochondria pump protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane into the matrix. E) Mitochondria localize their DNA inside the intermembrane space. 15) Of the following cellular compartments, which one maintains the most acidic pH? A) lumen of early endosome B) mitochondrial matrix C) lumen of lysosome D) lumen of trans-Golgi E) peroxisomal matrix 16) Which of the following statements about SRP (the signal recognition particle) is INCORRECT? A) There is an SRP receptor on the ER membrane B) SRP also functions in the post-translational import of proteins into the mitochondria C) Binding of SRP causes a pause in translation of the nascent chain D) SRP is found in the cytoplasm E) SRP is required for correct insertion of all plasma membrane integral membrane proteins containing a transmembrane domain 17) All of the following events can occur in the same cell that is either about to commit apoptosis or is in the process of doing so. Which of the following would occur FIRST during this process? A) Degradation of nuclear lamins B) Exposure of phosphatidylserine on the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane C) Activation of caspases D) Release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria E) UV damage to cellular DNA Dr. Yin 18) Which of the following characterizes the tissue type shown in the light micrograph?

A) The cell type labeled A synthesizes collagen type I B) The area labeled C contains large amount of hydroxyapatite. C) The cell type labeled A gives rise to perichondrium. D) The structure labeled B contains fibroblasts and chondroblasts. E) This type of tissue grows via appositional growth only. 19) The following tissue type can be found in which of the locations?

A) Tibia B) Tendon C) Epiglottis D) Rib E) Trachea

Dr. R. Kalliecharan 20) Which of the following cell types is found lining the epididymis? A) Stratified cuboidal epithelium with stereocilia B) Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells C) Transitional epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium with striated border and goblet cells E) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia 21) Which of the following junctions allows the cytoskeleton of the cell to bind to Ca++ dependent cadherins? A) Zonula occludens B) Zonula adherens C) Hemidesmosomes D) Focal adhesions E) Gap Junction 22) Which of the following cell types is involved in opsonization? A) Macrophage B) Mast cell C) Fibroblast D) Mesenchymal cell E) Plasma cell

23) Which of the following are the three basic components of connective tissue? A) Mast cells, fibroblast, and macrophages B) Type I collagen, reticular fibers and fibroblast C) Cells, fibers and ground substances D) Simple squamous cells, basal lamina and loose connective tissue E) Proteoglycans, cell and glycosaminoglycans 24) Which one of the following statements about microvilli is FALSE? A) They include stereocilia B) They form the brush border in the proximal tubule of the kidney C) They facilitate absorption D) They form the striated border along intestinal absorptive cells E) They contain a core of keratin filaments 25) Which one of the following statements about stratified squamous epithelium is FALSE? A) The surface layer of cells may be keratinized B) The cells in its most superficial layer are squamous C) All cells are supported by a basal lamina D) Its cells possess desmosomes E) Some cells may show pigmentation 26) Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to the basal lamina? A) It contains type IV collagen B) It includes the reticular lamina C) It consists of a lamina densa and a lamina rara (lucida) D) It contains proteoglycans (mostly heparin sulfate) E) It contains laminin that binds integrins to collagen type IV Match each description below with the corresponding lettered structure shown in the electron micrograph.

27) Contains a core of actin filaments A) B) C) D)

28) Is directly associated with keratin filaments (tonofilaments) A) B) C) D) 29) A zone in the apical cytoplasm containing more than one type of filament A) B) C) D) 30) Prevents movement of materials in the lumen into the intercellular space A) B) C) D)

MINI 2
DR. YIN 1) Bipolar neurons are located in A) Dorsal root ganglia B) Paravertebral ganglia C) Retina D) Olfactory epithelium and autonomic ganglia E) Ventral horn and lateral horn of spinal cord 2) In normal condition, which of the following structures should not be found in the brain tissue? A) Glucose B) CO2 C) Amino acids D) Toluidine blue E) Steroid 3) Which of the following statements concerning peripheral nerves is correct? A) The connective tissue coat that covers each individual peripheral nerve is called perineurium. B) Peripheral nerve is made of bundles of tracts. C) Peripheral nerve can be found in the brain cortex. D) Unmyelinated nerve fibers cannot be found in the peripheral nerves. E) One peripheral nerve could contain both sensory nerve fibers and motor nerve fibers. 4) Which of the following organelles can be found in Nissl Bodies? A) Mitochondria B) Golgi complex C) Nucleus D) Rough ER E) Lysosome 5) Oligodendrocytes are derived from the A) monocytes B) Schwann cells C) bone marrow

D) neural tube E) neural crest cells

6) Which of the following are pseudounipolar neurons? A) Neurons in an autonomic ganglion B) Photoreceptors C) Olfactory epithelium D) Neurons in the lateral horn of the spinal cord E) Neurons in the dorsal root ganglia 7) Which of the following statements concerning neuron and its structures is correct? A) Microtubule and neurofilaments are found in the soma, dendrites, and axon. B) Dendrites conduct nerve impulse from the cell body towards the effector organ. C) Some neurons have two axons. D) The basophilic granular structures within the axon are called Nissl bodies. E) Pseudounipolar neurons do not have axons.

Dr. Kalliecharan 8) Which of the following processes concerning fertilization of the ovum is CORRECT? A) The mature spermatid fuses with the oocyte plasma membrane B) Release of cortical granules causes the zona pellucida to be altered in composition C) The corona radiata is composed of theca interna cells D) The sperm releases acrosomal enzymes which breaks down the oocyte plasma membrane E) About 2 million sperms surrounds the oocyte at the time of fertilization

9) The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division A) before ovulation B) at the time of ovulation C) before birth D) at fertilization E) at puberty

10) During the reproductive cycle which substance enhances glandular secretion of the endometrium so that implantation can occur?

A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone E) Testosterone

11) Which of the following statements concerning a primary follicle is CORRECT? A) It has a large antral cavity B) Is composed of secondary oocyte and many layers of granulosa cells C) It contains a primary oocyte and is surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal follicular cells D) It lacks a basal lamina E) It is surrounded by the theca interna and theca externa 12) At which of the following stages of development is division of embryonic material not likely to result in normal monozygotic twins? A) Two-cell stage B) Morula C) Blastocyst D) Eight-cell stage E) Primitive streak

13) During meiosis I what is the amount of DNA / chromosomal number during metaphase I ? A) 2n DNA B) 2n DNA C) 4n DNA D) 4n DNA E)1n DNA 23 chromosomes 46 chromosomes 23 chromosomes 46 chromosomes 23 chromosomes

14) Which of the following tissue (or cell ) type is derived from mesoderm? A) Simple columnar epithelium of gut B) Loose connective tissue of the esophagus C) Dermis of facial skin D) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the respiratory tract E) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium 15) Which of the following is derived from neural crest? A) Bones of the forearm B) Connective tissues of the G.I. tract C) Aorticopulmonary septum D) Cortex of adrenal gland E) Occipital bone of the skull

16) During the reproductive cycle which substance stimulates the theca interna? A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone E) Testosterone 17) Which of the following statements concerning a secondary follicle is CORRECT? A) it has a large antral cavity B) Is composed of secondary oocyte and many layers of granulose cells C) It contains a primary oocyte and is surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal follicular cells D) It lacks a basal lamina E) it is surrounded by the theca interna and theca externa 18) Which of the following chromosomal numbers in a sperm normally results in a male embryo if it fertilizes on oocyte (ovum)? A) 22 + 0 B) 22 + X C) 22, X D) 23 + X E) 23, Y F) 23 + Y G) 23, X

19) Which of the following is the best definition of a cytokine? A) Small secreted protein that attracts cells to move towards its source. B) Substances that activate or chemoattract leukocytes C) Extracellular signal protein or peptide that acts as a local mediator in cell--cell communication D) Secreted substance made by one white blood cell that acts on another white blood cell Dr.Yin 20) Thick filaments are anchored to Z disks by A) nebulin B) C protein C) titin D) -actinin E) myomesin 21) Which of the following statements concerning cardiac muscle cells is true? A) Each muscle fiber is syncytium.

B) Cardiac conducting system is made of neurons and glia cells. C) They possess dense bodies. D) They require an external stimulus to undergo contraction. E) They have sarcomere and myofibrils. 22) Extrafusal fibers are innervated by A) Sensory fibers B) Somatic motor fibers C) Sympathetic nerve fibers D) Parasympathetic nerve fibers E) Both sensory and somatic motor fibers 23) Which of the following structures can be found in smooth muscle? A) Triads B) Sarcomeres C) Intercalated discs D) Myofilaments E) Troponin
24) After birth, growth in the length of long bones occurs primarily through A) Appositional growth from the periphery B) Interstitial growth of cartilage cells in the epiphyses C) Increased bone formation under the periosteum D) The action of osteoblasts in the primary ossification center E) The action of osteoblasts in the secondary ossification center 25) The molecular basis for shock absorption and resiliency within articular cartilage is the A) Type I collagen B) Hydroxyapatite C) Ability of GAGs to bind anions D) Hydration of GAGs E) Type II collagen 26) Which of the following is synthesized by the cells in the zone of hypertrophy of the epiphyseal plate? A) Acid phosphatase B) Type I collagen C) Osteocalcin D) Alkaline phosphatase E) H+

27) A 45-year-old woman presents with a pain in the left leg that worsens on weightbearing. X-ray shows demineralization and decalcified biopsy shows reduction in bone quantity. The patient had undergone menopause two years ago without estrogen supplement. She also suffers long-term diarrhea. Further laboratory tests shows low level of 25 hydroxyvitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus and elevated alkaline phosphatase. A second bone biopsy, which is not decalcified, shows uncalcified osteoid on all the bone surfaces. Based on the data, your diagnosis would be A) Scurvy B) Osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Osteomalacia

Dr. Boaz 28). A newborn presents with very low muscle tone and is termed a floppy baby by the nursing staff. After tests are run a diagnosis of congenital hypomyelinating neuropathy, a variant of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease, is made. Microscopic examinations of the neonates peripheral nerves indicate a lack of myelin sheaths. What primordial cell type has been affected? A) neural crest cell B) Hofbauer cell C) oligodendroblast D) neurectodermal cell E) paraxial mesodermal cell 29. Growth of long bones during the fetal period occurs primarily A) by increasing wall thickness B) by lengthening of the diaphysis C) due to induction by the developing muscular system D) the migration of neural crest cells E) by growth at the epiphyseal plates 30. Epaxial divisions of myotomes give rise to A) the erector spinae muscles B) rectus abdominis muscles C) trapezius muscles D) extensor muscles of the upper limb E) all muscles attaching to the neurocranium

Dr. Moore 31) Which of the following are abundant in bone marrow stroma? A) Skeletal muscle cells B) T lymphocytes C) Macrophages

D) Smooth muscle cells E) Platelets 32) Which of the following ARE NOT found in reticulocytes? A) Glycophorin molecules B) Spectrin molecules C) Ribosomes D) Lysosomes E) Hemoglobin molecules 33) Which type of blood cell can live the longest in the human body? A) Monocyte B) Erythrocyte C) Lymphocyte D) Eosinophil E) Neutrophil 34) Which of the following hematopoietic cells would you predict is the most numerous in bone marrow? A) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast B) CFU-Eo C) Neutrophilic band cell D) CFU-Ba E) Neutrophilic myelocyte

MINI 3
Dr. Rhodes 1) What is a morphogen? A) A molecule that can easily change its structure depending on the type of tissue it is expressed in B) A molecule that forms a concentration gradient to pattern a tissue C) A molecule only involved in cell migration D) A molecule only involved in cell morphogenesis 2) A new patient comes into your practice complaining of numbness and tingling in the arm. After examination, it was discovered that the patient had a cervical rib. This is a congenital abnormality where the 7th cervical vertebra develops an extra rib. Based on your knowledge of molecular embryology, what family of genes is most likely to be involved in this type of abnormality? A) Cadherins B) Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) C) Hox genes D) Fibroblast growth factors (FGFs)

3) After birth, growth in the length of long bones occurs primarily through A) Appositional growth from the periphery B) Interstitial growth of cartilage cells in the epiphyses C) Increased bone formation under the periosteum D) The action of osteoblasts in the primary ossification center E) The action of osteoblasts in the secondary ossification center 4) Considering the major events in each zone of endochondral bone formation, which of the following is synthesized by the zone of hypertrophy? A) Acid phosphatase B) Type I collagen C) Osteocalcin D) Alkaline phosphatase E) Cyclins 5) A 45-year-old woman presents with a pain in the left leg that worsens on weight-bearing. X-ray shows demineralization and decalcified biopsy shows reduction in bone quantity. The patient had undergone menopause two years ago without estrogen replacement. She also suffers long-term diarrhea. Further laboratory tests shows low level of 25 hydroxyvitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus and elevated alkaline phosphatase. A second bone biopsy, which is not decalcified, shows uncalcified osteoid on all the bone surfaces. Based on the data, your diagnosis would be A) Scurvy B) Osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Osteomalacia Dr. Moore 6) A cross-section of which type of blood vessel is shown in the drawing below?

A) Vein B) Muscular artery C) Venule D) Elastic artery E) Arteriole 7) Which of the following statements about healthy, intact capillaries is CORRECT? A) Satellite cells share their basal lamina B) They control blood pressure C) They are lined by a simple columnar epithelium D) They have a smooth muscle coat E) They inhibit clot formation 8) Which of the following statements about the lymphatic vascular system is INCORRECT? A) all lymph flows towards the heart B) lymphatic capillaries consist of a single layer of endothelial cells C) lymphatic vessels contain valves D) lymphatic capillaries drain into blood capillaries E) elastic fibers hold lymphatic capillaries open

9) Which of the following structures in the respiratory tract is covered with stratified squamous epithelium? A) laryngeal pharynx B) large bronchus C) terminal bronchioles D) trachea E) false vocal chords 10) You accidentally press your arm against a hot iron, and receive a second-degree burn on a patch of skin. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be killed by this burn? A) Cells within a Meissner's corpuscle B) Cells within an apocrine gland C) Cells within a Pascinian corpuscle D) Keratinocytes of the stratum corneum E) Smooth muscle cells of the arrector pilli muscle Dr. Moore

11) In this EM of a section of lung, the arrow is pointing to the nucleus of which cell type? A) Endothelial cell B) Type 1 pneumocyte C) Type 2 pneumocyte D) Smooth muscle cell E) Dust cell

12) Shown above is a drawing of a section of lung. The arrow is pointing to the nucleus of which cell type? A) Dust cell B) Endothelial cell C) Type II pneumocyte D) Smooth muscle cell E) Type I pneumocyte

13) Which of the cell types above is directly responsible for the formation of a keloid? A) Cell type A B) Cell type B C) Cell type C D) Cell type D E) None of the above

14) In the drawing above, pick the cell (A, B, C, D, or E) that would be actively engaged in secreting lamellar bodies to waterproof the skin? A) Arrow A B) Arrow B C) Arrow C D) Arrow D E) Arrow E
Dr. Moore

15) In the EM above that shows a portion of a venule (on the left) and arteriole (on the right), the nucleus of which cell type is located at the tip of the arrow? A) Fibroblast B) Endothelial cell C) Reticular cell D) Smooth muscle cell E) Macrophage

16) In this drawing of a blood vessel, .each of the numbered arrows is pointing to the nucleus of a specific cell type. Which two cells are of the same cell type? A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 1 and 4 D) 2 and 3 E 2 and 4 17) Which of the following statements about capillaries is INCORRECT? A) Pericytes can be found closely associated with capillaries B) Permeability of capillaries can be altered by histamine C) Capillaries are the primary site in the body where oxygen is transferred from the blood to the tissues D) A somatic capillary contains fenestrae in it E) Capillaries carry out lipolysis of lipoproteins

MINI 1 1a, 2e, 3c, 4e, 5e, 6c, 7e, 8b, 9c, 10 d, 11b, 12 b, 13 e, 14 c, 15 c, 16 b, 17e, 18 d, 19 c, 20e, 21b, 22a, 23c, 24 e, 25 c, 26 b, 27 c, 28 b, 29 d, 30 d, MINI 2 1C, 2D, 3E, 4D, 5D, 6E, 7A, 8B, 9D, 10D, 11C, 12E, 13D, 14B, 15C, 16B, 17E, 18E, 19C, 20C, 21E, 22B, 23D, 24B, 25D, 26D, 27E, 28A, 29E, 30A, 31C, 32D, 33C, 34A, MINI 3 1b, 2c. 3b. 4d. 5e. 6b. 7e. 8d. 9a. 10a. 11b. 12b. 13e. 14e. 15d. 16c. 17d