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COMEDK 2011
ANATOMY
1. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygo palatine fossa EXCEPT A. Greater palatine canal B. Foramen Rotundum C. Pterygoid canal D. Palatovaginal canal 2. Ultimobronchial body forms A. C cells of thyroid gland B. Principal cells of parathyroid gland C. Acidophils of pituitary gland D. Pituicytes of pituitary gland 3. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen on A. Posterior maxillary surface B. Lateral maxillary surface C. Intra temporal surface D. Pterygo palatine fossa 4. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the muscles EXCEPT A. Styloglossus B. Stylopharyngius C. Palatoglossus D. Genioglossus 5. One of the following nerve is the motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis A. Great auricular B. Lesser occipital C. Third occipital D. Posterior auricular
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6. Infection from the dangerous area of face spreads via one of the following veins A. Maxillary vein B. Retromandibular vein C. Superficial temporal vein D. Ophthalmic veins

PHYSIOLOGY
7. In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the A. Magnitude of the stimulus B. Intracellular potassium concentration C. Extracellular sodium concentration D. Resting membrane potential 8. Contraction in smooth muscle is initiated when calcium binds to A. Calbindin B. Calmodulin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin 9. Non myelinated axons differ from myelinated ones in that they A. Are more excitable B. Lack nodes of Ranvier C. Are not capable of reneration D. Are not associated with Schwann cells 10. All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissues EXCEPT A. Thyroid stimulating hormone B. Glucagon C. Estrogen D. Epinephrine

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BIOCHEMISTRY
11. Ehrlich test is done to detect A. Bilirubin B. Urobilinogen C. Bile salts D. Protein 12. Plasma Ceruloplasmin is a A. Alpha 1 globulin B. Alpha 2 globulin C. Beta 1 globulin D. Beta 2 globulin 13. An example of a isotope that is predominantly a beta emitter is A. 125 Iodine B. 32 Phosphorus C. 51 Chromium D. 99 m Technetium 14. The nitrogen content in 50 gm of a typical dietary protein is most likely to be A. 5 gm B. 8 gm C. 10 gm D. 16 gm

18. Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanisms A. Membrane attack complex killing B. Oxidative and Non oxidative killing C. Zipper killing D. Chemotaxis

MICROBIOLOGY
19. A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetranus toxoids, confers immunity for how many years A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 20. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A. Produces heat stable enterotoxin B. Causes Shanghai fever C. Cannot be destroyed at 55 at 1 hr D. Does not produce any pigment 21. Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by A. M. kansasii B. M. ulcerans C. M. chelonae D. M. smegmatis 22. The most frequent non sporing anaerobic bacilli isolated from clinical specimens is A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Bacteroides vulgatus C. Prevotella melaninogenica D. Fusobacterium nucleatum 23. Anaphylaxis refers to the A. Severe reaction followings reinjection of protein solutions in a sensitized individual B. Severe reaction followings primary injection of protein solutions C. State of immunity developed by repeated injection of any foreign substance D. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens

GENRAL PATHOLOGY
15. Sarcoidosis is A. Uncommon in Afro Caribbean B. Less common in smokers C. Seen in temperature climate D. Single system disorder 16. Ubiquitin is involved in A. Intracellular proteolysis B. Electron transport chain C. Transport of ATP D. Protein folding 17. Durck granules are seen in A. Berylliosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Malaria

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PHARMACOLOGY
24. Which among the following is used as an immunosuppressant A. Cyclosporine B. Cycloserine C. Cyclopentolate D. Cyclizinc 25. Which of the following Anti Tubercular drug is bacteriostatic A. INH B. Ethambutol C. Pyrazenamide D. Streptomycin 26. Among the drugs given below, which is LEAST likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis A. Isoniazid B. Streptomycin C. Ripampicin D. Pyrazinamide 27. Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adult male is A. 0.06 mg B. 0.6 mg C. 60 mg D. 600 mg 28. Which among the following drugs is NOT used orally? A. Quinidine B. Verapamil C. Lignocaine D. Phenytoin 29. Which among the drugs given below, does NOT act by protease inhibition? A. Ritonavir B. Saquinavir C. Nelfinavir D. Zanamivir

30. All of the given drugs are positive inotropes EXCEPT A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Digoxin D. Doxepin 31. During the cell cycle, Colchicine is known to act in A. G1 phase B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase 32. The use of vasoconstrictors adrenaline noradrenaline with LA is contraindicated in patients on A. Antiepileptic drugs B. Antihypertensive drugs C. Tricyclic antidepressant drugs D. Anxiolytic drugs

GENERAL MEDICINE
33. In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are A. Right axillary nodes B. Left axillary nodes C. Right supraclavicular nodes D. Left supraclavicular nodes 34. Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is A. Sialoperoxidase B. Secretory IgA C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor D. Histidine rich proteins 35. Oral ulceration resembling Apthae are encountered in A. Gluten Enteropathy B. Chronic Smokers C. Excess of B Complex D. Anti malarial medication

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36. Acute rheumatic fever usually follows an infection with A. Streptococcus mutans B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Streptococcus viridians 37. Which is a DNA virus A. Hepatitis A virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Hepatitis D virus 38. Warthin Finkeldey multinucleated giant cell is diagnostic of A. Tuberuculosis B. Mumps C. Measles D. Sarcoidosis 39. Treatment of Torsades de pointes is intravenous A. Magnesium B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Saline D. Glucose 40. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C 41. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Clostridium difficile induced colitis? A. Gentamicin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Metronidazole D. Linezolid 42. The syndrome is usually associated with A. Congenital heart lesions B. Respiratory disorders C. Endo cranal abnormalities D. Cleft lip and Palate

43. Following dental problem are usually association with it, EXCEPT A. Retarded eruption B. Late shedding of deciduous teeth C. Hypodontia D. Microdentia 44. Among the different types of denture stomatitis diagnosis of candida associated denture stomatitis is confirmed by A. Based on clinical features B. Based on intensity of erythematous lesions C. By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae in a direct smear or isolation of candida in high numbers D. By examining the existing dentures 45. In the management of candida denture stomatitis the following is used A. Chlorhexidine 2% B. Betadine C. Gention violet D. Local therapy with nystatin or amphotericin B 46. Increased levels of hemoglobin A2 is characteristic of A. Sickle cell triat B. Thalassemia minor C. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D. thalassemia 47. Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Wide pulse pressure C. Kussmauls sign D. Forceful apical impulse
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GENERAL SURGERY
48. All the following nerves are encountered during submandibular gland resection EXCEPT A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Marginal mandibular nerve 49. Malignant ulcer is differentiated from Benign by A. Heaping up of margins B. Fibrous scars radiating from crater C. Induration of base D. Clean base 50. Which of the following statement is true regarding thyroglobulin? A. It is a specific marker for anaplastic carcinoma B. Elevation after complete therapy suggests recurrence in well differentiated thyroid malignancies C. Pre op elevation always suggests thyroidal disease D. Intra op estimation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis

53. The best pickling solution for gypsum banded investments A. Hydrochloric acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulphuric acid D. Phosphoric acid 54. The most practical method for avoiding any possible delayed distortion of the wax pattern is to A. Use of heated instruments during carving of the wax pattern B. Invest the wax pattern immediately C. Swaging the wax pattern in a closed vessel D. Applying finger pressure during cooling of the wax 55. Materials that facilitates removal of impression from cast is A. Rosin B. Starch C. Sodium chloride D. Borates 56. ADA specification number for gypsum products are described under A. 1 B. 4 C. 12 D. 25 57. Frozen slab technique is applicable to A. Zinc phosphate cement B. Glass consumer cement C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement D. Resin cement 58. The material used to outline the area to be soldered in order to restrict the flow of solder is called A. Antiflux B. Flux C. Soldering D. Welding

DENTAL MATERIALS
51. The safest method for soaking dental cast is A. Placing in a saturated solution of calcium sulfate B. Placing in water C. Placing in saturated solution of sodium chloride D. Placing in solution of gypsum slurry
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52. Electralloy R B is alloy of gold and A. Carbon B. Platinum C. Calcium D. Palladium

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DADH
59. Nerve endings of temporomandibular joint, confined to ligaments associated with the joint A. Ruffini corpuscles B. Pacini corpuscles C. Golgi tendon organs D. Free nerve endings 60. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process is innervated by buccal nerve and A. Superior Alveolar Nerve B. Mental Nerve C. Interior Alveolar Nerve D. Greater Palatine Nerve 61. The intimal B cells of synovial membrane of temporomandibular joint are A. Fibroblast like B. Macrophage like C. Lymphocyte like D. Plasma cell like 62. The maximum rate of eruption, as the tooth cusps reach the surface epithelium is around _______ m/day A. 100 B. 75 C. 50 D. 25 63. Striae of Retzius A. Are not found in permanent teeth B. Represents the daily growth rate of enamel C. Results from temporary constriction of Tomes process D. Has more number of crystals 64. In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the deciduous teeth are called A. Volkmann canals B. Canals of Hirschfield and Zuckerkandl C. Haversian canals D. Gubernacular canals

65. Successor permanent teeth develop from A. Buccal extension of Dental lamina B. Lingual extension of Dental lamina C. Distal extension of Dental lamina D. Main or parent Dental lamina

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

66. Denture sore mouth are also known as A. Acute psuedomembranous candidiasis B. Acute atrophic candidiasis C. Chronic atrophic candidiasis D. Chronic hyperplastic candidasis 67. Multiple pulp stones are seen in A. Downs syndrome B. Ehlers Dahlos syndrome C. Marfan Syndrome D. Aperts syndrome 68. A positive Chvosteks sign is suggestive of A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Acidosis 69. Sinusitis may cause referred pain in A. Maxillary anterior teeth B. Maxillary posterior teeth C. Mandibular anterior teeth D. Mandibular posterior teeth 70. Intake of which of the following leads to increased incidence of dry socket A. Antihypertensives B. Antiepileptics C. Oral hypoglycemic D. Oral contraceptives 71. Rushton bodies are seen in A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst B. Gingival cyst of adults C. Gingival cyst of new born D. Lateral periodontal cyst

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72. Kveim Siltzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Cat scratch disease 73. Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in A. Aplastic anemia B. Cancer chemotherapy C. Acute leukemia D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 74. Von willibrands disease is due to the A. Deficiency of factor X and factor IV B. Deficiency of factor XII and factor IX C. Deficiency of factor VII and decreased platelet adhesion D. Deficiency of factor X and factor V 75. Neo Natal teeth erupt at A. At birth B. In first 30 days C. In first Week D. In first 2 Week 76. Which of these is NOT a pre malignant condition for oral cancers A. Leukoplakia B. Apthous ulcers C. Erythroplekia D. Submucous fibrosis 77. Freys syndrome is caused due to the injury of A. Lesser occipital nerve B. Auriculo temporal nerve C. Supra trochlear nerve D. Infra orbital nerve 78. Aspirate which is creamy white viscoid with the value of total protein less than 5.0 gms/ 100 ml is suggestive of A. Infected cyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Odontogenic Keratocyst D. Ranula
COMEDK 2011

79. Mucocutaneous lesion associated with neoplasia A. Pemphigus vegetans B. Parapemphigus C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus D. Familial benign pemphigus 80. The above mentioned condition is A. Inherited Autosomal dominant disease B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X linked disease D. A syndrome of unknown cause 81. One of the following is also a manifestation in the above mentioned condition A. Caf au lait pigmentation of the skin B. Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin C. Basal cell carcinoma of the skin D. Peri oral dermatitis 82. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardeners syndrome may also is seen in one of the following A. Multiple polyposis of large intestine B. Osteomas of the jaws C. Desmoids tumors of the skin D. Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts 83. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardeners syndrome may also is seen in one of the following A. Tricho dento osseous syndrome B. Hereditary intestinal polyposis C. Cowdens syndrome D. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome 84. What is this clinical situation called as A. Epuli fissuratum B. Traumatic ulcers C. Denture irritational hyperplasia D. Denture stomatitis 85. One of the following syndromes is associated with Lichen Planus A. Grinspans syndrome B. Ellis van Creveld syndrome C. Patterson Kelly syndrome D. Fanconis syndrome

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86. What would be your choice of next investigation A. Excision biopsy B. Aspiration Cytology C. CT Scan D. PET Bone scan 87. A dirty white aspirate with a protein estimation of < 4 gm % is suggestive of A. Ossigfying fibroma B. Dentigerous cyst C. Muco epidermoid carcinoma D. Odontogenic Keratocyst 88. Odontogenic Keratocyst is noted for its A. Malignant transformation B. Daughter cysts and high rate of recurrence C. Impacted teeth D. Nodal metastasis 89. Management of Odontogenic keratocyst involves A. Marsuplisation B. Enucleation C. Enucleation with periphereal ostectomy D. Resection and Radiation 90. Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to A. Invasion B. Endotoxin C. Exotoxin D. Capsule 91. Most common salivary gland tumor arising in the jaws A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Acinic cell carcinoma 92. Which among the following is NOT a common feature of trigeminal neuralgia A. Usually affecting the middle aged and elderly B. Sharp, stabbing pain lasting seconds

C. The most common sites involved are the mandibular canine and maxillary canine areas D. Pain usually crossing the midline of the face 93. One of the systemic factors predisposing to candida associated denture stomatitis is A. Nutritional deficiencies B. Hypertention C. HIV D. Systemic lupus erythematosis 94. The whitish striations in Lichen Planus are called A. Striae of Retzius B. Wickhams striations C. Step ladder striations D. Linea alba buccalis 95. The following are different clinical forms of Lichen Planus EXCEPT A. Atrophic Lichen Planus B. Hypertrophic Lichen Planus C. Bullous Lichen Planus D. Verrucous Lichen planus 96. What clinical features suggest that the discharge is CSF Leak A. Continuous discharge B. Appearance of tram line or halo rings C. Stoppage of discharge on pressure D. None of the above 97. What investigation is most confirmatory for detecting CSF leak A. CT scan B. MRI Scan C. Presence of Glucose in the Fluid D. Presence of transferrin beta
COMEDK 2011

ORAL RADIOLOGY
98. Digital image in computerized Radiography is made up of A. Pixels B. CCD C. CMOS D. Silver halide crystals

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99. Deterministic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response A. Is proportional to the dose B. Is determined by the operator C. Depends on composition of tissue D. Depends on volume of exposed tissue 100. Which of the following interactions does not cause film fog A. Coherent scattering B. Transient scattering C. Photoelectric absorption D. Compton scattering 101. Cervical burnout is a phenomenon caused by decreased X ray absorption in the cervical region of A. Teeth with proximal caries B. Normal teeth C. Teeth with root caries D. Hypoplastic teeth 102. Following organ is LEAST radiosensitive to the effects of exposure to radiation A. Testis B. Bone marrow C. Muscle D. Intestine 103. Sharpened pencil appearance of mandibular condyle on a radiograph indicates A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious arthritis D. Juvenile arthrosis 104. Compared with calcium tungstate screens, rare earth screens decrease patient exposure by about A. 15% B. 35% C. 55% D. 75% 105. The minimum amount of tooth demineralization required for radiographic detection of dental caries is A. 20%

B. 40% C. 60% D. 80%

ORTHODONTICS
106. Clock wise rotation refers to Mandibular rotation A. Downward and posteriorly B. Downward and anteriorly C. Upward and anteriorly D. Upward and posteriorly 107. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary sinus is due to involvement by tumor of A. Anterior wall of the sinus B. Posterior wall of the sinus C. Roof of the sinus D. Floor of the sinus 108. When protraction headgear was used, most of the orthopedic changes are observed within the first ______ A. 1 month B. 34 months C. 810 months D. 1 years 109. Who proposed the Nasal Septum theory of craniofacial growth A. Moss B. Sicher C. Vander Linden D. Lathan 110. Quad helix is used to correct A. Posterior cross bite B. Anterior cross bite C. Lateral open bite D. Deep bite 111. Schubiger attachment has a screw base common to the A. Introfix attachment B. Quintivan attachment C. C shaped ring D. Gerber attachment

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112. Which of the following surgical procedures aid in prevention of Relapse? A. Sagittal split technique B. Alveoloplasty C. Segmental Osteotomy D. Circumferential Supracrestal Fibrotomy

118. Occult disease refer to disease that A. Is very apparent B. Does not occur at all C. Presents no clinical sign or symptom D. Does not show any image on X ray 119. Guidance to Eruption is another term for A. Frankels appliance B. Activator C. Serial Extraction D. Bionator 120. The first macroscopic development occurs at approximately A. 8 weeks in utero B. 10 weeks in utero C. 11 weeks in utero D. 13 weeks in utero 121. Who developed the complete pulpectomy technique for primary molars A. Pinkham B. Starkey C. Mc Donald D. Finn 122. Joseph Wolpe developed the following behavior management techniques A. Modeling B. Tell Show Do C. Desensitization D. Voice Control 123. During development of speech function, the first speech sounds acquired are A. Bilabials B. Consonants C. Sibilants D. Nasolabials 124. Which type of Head shape is commonly seen A. Oligocephaly B. Dolicocephaly C. Brachy cephaly D. Mesio cephaly

PEDODONTICS
113. When vertical cephalometric analysis reveals increase in the skeletal components of anterior face height, it is termed A. Apertognathia B. Brachygnathia C. Leptognathia D. Mesognathia 114. The window of infectivity during which most children acquire the cariogenic organism A. 19 months to 33 months B. 19 weeks to 33 weeks C. 29 months to 39 months D. 29 weeks to 39 weeks 115. The tendency for drifting of posterior teeth into extraction space is more in A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Maxilla and Mandible D. Primary than Permanent teeth 116. Sorbitol acts in the prevention of dental caries by A. Microorganisms lack the enzyme to metabolize sorbitol B. Lactic acid cannot be produced C. Fermentation of sorbitol does not occur D. Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate 117. In case of deep carious lesion incomplete debridement is done to A. Allow secondary dentin formation first B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain D. Avoid microleakage

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125. Often IQ of the patient will be A. IQ 140 170 B. IQ 140 170 C. IQ 140 170 D. IQ 140 170 126. Usually digit sucking habits are outgrown by A. 6 7 years B. 3 4 years C. 1 2 years D. 11 12 years 127. In thumb sucking protraction of the maxillary teeth is seen when A. When the pollex is held upward against the palate B. When the pollex is held downward against the tongue C. When the pollex is held inward against the cheek D. None of the above 128. The foremost line of treatment in this patient is A. No treatment wait and Watch B. Extraction of first premolars followed by Hawleys appliance C. Psychiartric consultation prior to any therapy D. Extraction of second premolars followed by Hawleys appliance 129. The tongue thrust seen in this case is A. Retained Infantile swallow B. Simple tongue thrust C. Complex tongue thrust D. Compound tongue thrust 130. An effective state of consciousness in which joy, sarrow, fear, hate or the likes are expressed is termed as A. Behavior B. Emotion C. Condition D. Complex

131. A parent asks the dentist, Is the treatment necessary? after initial examination and explanation about treatment required. The behavior of the parent is termed as A. Neglectful B. Manipulative C. Hostile D. Overprotective

P AND SD
132. The study which proceeds from cause to effect A. Retrospective B. Case control C. Cohort D. Descriptive 133. The basic tools of measurement in epidemiology are A. Place person time B. Determinants, frequency, distribution of disease C. Rate, ratio, proportion D. Agent, host and environment 134. Presenting data to the man in the street is by A. Pie chart B. Pictogram C. Bar chart D. Simple Tables 135. The heart of randomized control trial (RCT) is A. Protocol B. Follow up C. Assessment D. Randomization 136. The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmers on parents A. Side effect B. Secondary effect C. Ripple effect D. String effect

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137. The recognized behavior in a society is called A. Custom B. Tradition C. Culture D. Folkways 138. Trace elements presents in drinking water are reported to be caries protective is A. Selenium B. Iron C. Vanadium D. Iodine 139. A progressive increase or decrease of a disease over a long period of time, generally several years or decades is known as A. Secular trends B. Cyclic trends C. Seasonal trends D. Periodic fluctuations 140. The ratio of rates of occurrence is A. Attributable risk B. Relative risk C. Occurring risk D. Distribution risk 141. Over jet and overbite of malocclusion is assessed using WHO survey form 1997 with the help of instrument A. Williams probe B. CPI probe C. Measuring scale D. Straight probe 142. Examination is carried in individual clinical practice corresponding terms in public health practice is A. Diagnosis B. Evaluation C. Assessment of need D. Appraisal and review

PROSTHODONTICS
143. The technique to produce limited removal of epithelial tissue in the sulcus while a chamfer finish line is being created in tooth structure is called A. Soft tissue modification B. Gingettage C. Gingival displacement D. Electrosurgery 144. For accurate interocclusal records the material of choice is A. 28 gauge casting wax B. ZOE Bite registration paste C. Elastomeric bite registration material D. Base plate wax 145. Hanau H2 articulator has a intercondylar distance of A. 90 mm B. 100 mm C. 110 mm D. 120 mm 146. The untimate in finish lines that permit an acute margin of metal is A. Shoulder B. Chamfer C. Knife edge D. Shoulder with Bevel 147. According to Atwoods residual ridge classification order III denotes A. High well rounded B. Low well rounded C. Knife edge D. Depressed 148. The term Height of contour is coined by A. Kennedy B. McCracken C. Cummer D. De Van

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PERIODONTICS
149. Thickness of basal lamina is A. 100 to 200 A B. 200 to 300 A C. 300 to 400 A D. 400 to 500 A 150. The cell type of periodontium that plays a role in pathogenesis as well as healing is A. Epithelial B. Langerhans C. Fibroblast D. Mast cell 151. The most reliable indicator of gingival inflammation is A. Color change B. Change in the contour C. Change in consistency D. Bleeding on probing 152. BANA test measures activity of A. Calculus B. Cathepsin C. Elastase D. Trypsin like enzyme 153. Soluble components of complement system account for about A. 1 -2 mg/ml of total serum protein B. 3 -4mg/ml of total serum protein C. 5 -7 mg/ml of total serum protein D. 7 -8 mg/ml of total serum protein 154. Haversian systems (osteons) are found primarily in the A. Spongy bone B. Periosteum C. Alveolar bone proper D. Endosteum 155. Furcation involvements is best diagnosed by A. Nabers probe B. Williams probe C. Michigan o probe D. Explorer
COMEDK 2011

156. Definitive information regarding the bone architecture is obtained by A. Periodontal probing B. Radiographic examination C. Combination of probing & radiographs D. Surgical exposure of the osseous defect 157. Brushite crystal forms of calculus is more common in A. Maxillary anterior B. Maxillary posterior C. Mandibular anterior D. Mandibular posterior 158. These fibers in the lamina propria of the gingiva, help to bind the free gingiva to the tooth A. Alveologingival B. Circular C. Dentoperiosteal D. Dentogingival 159. Transplantation between genetically different members of the same species is termed as A. Autograft B. Isograft C. Allograft D. Xenograft 160. The most likely infection is A. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis B. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis C. Acute Herpetic Gingivostomatitis D. Desquamative Gingivitis 161. The microbial etiology of this condition is A. Streptococcus species B. Fusospirochetes C. Herpes simplex virus D. Actinomyces species 162. This infection is reported to have an increased incidence in A. Diabetes mellitus B. HIV C. Tuberculosis D. Syphilis

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163. Surgical procedure for severe tissue destruction in such infection is A. Reshaping the gingiva (Gingivoplasty) B. Resection of the gingiva (Gingivectomy) C. Apically displaced flap surgery D. Coronally displaced flap surgery

169. Mode of failure during dislodgement of prosthesis cemented with zinc poly carboxylate cement is usually seen at the A. Cement tooth interface B. Cement prosthesis interface C. Cleavage through the cement layer D. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis 170. In pin retained amalgam restoration, failure is more likely to occur at the A. Pin restoration interface B. Pin dentin interface C. Both of the above D. Inside of restoration (Restoration fracture) 171. 90 butt joint for silver amalgam preparation is done because of A. Fear of marginal failure of amalgam B. Amalgam has poor strength in thin sections C. Amalgam is stronger than tooth structure D. Amalgam is weaker in compression 172. pH of which cement remains below 7 even after 1 month after insertion into the cavity A. GIC B. Zinc phosphate C. Resin cement D. Silicate cement 173. How long does it take for an etched enamel to return to normal conditions A. 30 days B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 1 week 174. Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins A. Argon B. Nd YAG C. Er YAG D. CO2

CONS AND ENDO

164. The treatment of choice for acute irreversible pulpits is A. Pulpotomy B. Pulpectomy C. Direct pulp capping D. Indirect pulp capping 165. Which of the following is true also thermal and electrical tests after trauma A. Sensitivity tests evaluate the nerve and circulatory condition of the tooth B. False positive tests are more likely than false negative tests C. It may take up to nine months for normal blood flow to return D. It may take a few hours for normal blood flow to return 166. The potentially hazardous irrigant causing an emergency during treatment is A. Saliva B. Chlorhexidine C. Sodium Hypochlorite D. Metrogyl 167. In which of the following is one visit root canal treatment not advocated A. Pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic B. Pulp is necrotic and symptomatic C. Pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract D. Pulp is vital and symptomatic 168. The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation is A. 2 mm B. 0.8 mm C. 0.4 mm D. 0.3 mm

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ORAL SURGERY
175. Craniofacial dysfunction seen in A. Lefort III fracture B. Guerrins fracture C. High Lefort I fracture D. None of the above 176. A fractured coronoid process of mandible displace upwards by the action of one of the following muscle A. Buccinators B. Lateral Pterygoid C. Mylohyoid D. Temporalis 177. Among the following pain theories, the most accepted theory is A. Specificity theory B. Pattern theory C. Gate control theory D. Calcium displacement theory

178. Which of the following fibres are responsible for conduction of pain impulse A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Gamma 179. A male patient had a pin point oro antral communication. The treatment is A. Berger flap B. Palatal flap C. Cald well procedure D. None 180. The most common complication of CSF Rhinorrhea is A. Brain herniation B. Blindness C. Ascending Meningitis D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

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ANSWERS
13. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 718 14. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 55 Explanation Nitrogen conent of the total dietary protein is 16% 50gms proteins contain 50 16/100= 8 gms

ANATOMY
1. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 339 2. Ans: A Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 111 3. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 36 4. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaursia, 1/E, p. 297 5. Ans: D Ref: BD Chourasia, 5/E, p. 55 6. Ans: D Ref: BD. Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 63

GENRAL PATHOLOGY
15. Ans: B Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 737 16. Ans: A Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 10 17. Ans: D Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 403 Explanation In malignant cerebral malaria caused by P. faliparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, each cell containing dots of hemozoin pigment called Malarial or Durck granules and small focal inflammatory reactions are called Malarial or Durck granulomas 18. Ans: B Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 53
COMEDK 2011

PHYSIOLOGY
7. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 61 8. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 95 9. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 68 10. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 1016, 1017

BIOCHEMISTRY
11. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 216 12. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 186

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MICROBIOLOGY
19. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 260 20. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 316 21. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 362 22. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 267 23. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 163

31. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 206 32. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 356

GENERAL MEDICINE
33. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 877 34. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol - 01, p. 1146 35. Ans: A Ref: Davidson,21/E, p. 863 T 36. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 612 37. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 947 Table 38. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, p. 1215 39. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 568 40. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 446 41. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 249 42. Ans: A Ref: Harrison,17/E, Vol II, p. 1458 43. Ans: B Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol II, p. 1458 44. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1242 45. Ans: D Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1255

PHARMACOLOGY
24. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 837 25. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 742 26. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 722 27. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 582 28. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 514
COMEDK 2011

29. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 778 30. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 442 Table

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209

46. Ans: B Ref: Harrison, Vol. I, 17/E, p. 641 47. Ans: A Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1491 59. Ans: C

DADH
Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 66 60. Ans: A Ref: Wheelers, 9/E, p. 257 61. Ans: A Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 258 62. Ans: B Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 290 63. Ans: C Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 113 64. Ans: D Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 361 65. Ans: B Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 22

GENERAL SURGERY
48. Ans: C Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 757 49. Ans: A Ref: Bailey & love, 25/E, p. 596 50. Ans: B Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 797

DENTAL MATERIALS
51. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 278 52. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 550 53. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 336 54. Ans: B Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 289 55. Ans: B Ref: Manappallis Basic Dental Materials, 2/E, p. 93 56. Ans: D Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 273 57. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 465 58. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 563

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

66. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 365 67. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 834, 835 68. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 617 69. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 509 70. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 601 71. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 262 72. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 669
COMEDK 2011

210

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

73. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 830 74. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 787 75. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 48, Neville, 3/E, p. 81 76. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 86 77. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 848 78. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 685 79. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 821 80. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 81. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 82. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 83. Ans: A Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 105 84. Ans: D Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 365 85. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E. 800 86. Ans: B
COMEDK 2011

88. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 686 89. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 686 90. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 312 91. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 232 92. Ans: D Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 279 93. Ans: A Ref: Burkit, 11/E. 79 94. Ans: B Ref: Burkit, 11/E. 91 95. Ans: D Ref: Burkit, 11/E. 90 96. Ans: A Ref: Neville, 2/E, p. 351 97. Ans: D Ref: Text Book of Oral Medicine, Ongole and Praveen, 1/E, p. 178

ORAL RADIOLOGY
98. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 78 99. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 19 100. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 61 101. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 152

Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 260 87. Ans: D Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 685

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102. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22T 103. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 492 104. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 57 105. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 273

115. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 1/E, p. 448 116. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p. 200 117. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 400 118. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 186 119. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 474 120. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 53 121. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 401 122. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 150 123. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 65 124. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 633 125. Ans: D Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 633 126. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 494 495 127. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 499 128. Ans: C
COMEDK 2011

ORTHODONTICS
106. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 115 107. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 325 108. Ans: B Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 502, 504 109. Ans: D Ref: Sameer. C. Bishala Text book of Orthdontics, p. 50 110. Ans: A Ref: Profitt, 4/E, p. 498 111. Ans: D Ref: Precision Attachments in Prosthodontics, Harold . W . Prieskel, Vol. 2, p. 160 112. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 454 Explanation Circumferential supracrestal Fibrotomy is also known as Pericision

PEDODONTICS
113. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p.540 114. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p.178

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 501 129. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 493 494

212

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

130. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon , 2/E, p. 21 131. Ans: C Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 282 143. Ans: B

PROSTHODONTICS
Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 627 Explanation Gingettage is also known as Rotary Curettage 144. Ans: C Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 308 145. Ans: C Ref: Boucher, 9/E, p. 313 146. Ans: C Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 220 147. Ans: A Ref: John Manappallil, 1/E, p. 12 148. Ans: A Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 84

P AND SD
132. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.104 133. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 4/E, p. 44 134. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 749 135. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 112 136. Ans: C Ref: Community Dental Health, Anthony Jong, 4/E, p.191 Explanation The terms like spread effect and ripple effect are used to describe the impact of school based health programmes on parents 137. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 655 138. Ans: C Ref: Joseph John, 1/E, p. 43 139. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/0E, p. 62 140. Ans: B
COMEDK 2011

PERIODONTICS
149. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52 150. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 58 151. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 364 152. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 591 153. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 215 154. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 79 155. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 163

Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 74 141. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.589 142. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 16

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213

156. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 950 157. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 172 158. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 498 159. Ans: C Ref: Carraza, 10/E, p. 1135 160. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 391 161. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 396 162. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 396 163. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 709

169. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 11/E, p. 471 170. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 828 171. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 720 172. Ans: D Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 498 173. Ans: C Ref: Current Therapy in Dentistry, Vol. 7, p. 160 174. Ans: A Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 505

ORAL SURGERY
175. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.357 176. Ans: D Ref: Killys, 4/E, p. 14 177. Ans: C Ref: Monheims, 7/E, p. 5 178. Ans: C Ref: Monheims, 7/E, p. 6 179. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 574, 575 180. Ans: C Ref: Killeys, 5/E, p. 27
COMEDK 2011

CONS AND ENDO

164. Ans: B Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 617 165. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 362 166. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 268 167. Ans: C Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 23 168. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 713