Baptist Lui Ming Choi Secondary School Mock Examination (2001 - 2002) Form 7 Physics (Paper II)

Time Allowed : 3 hours SECTION A - Multiple-choice Questions - Answer ALL Questions SECTION B - Answer Any THREE Questions The answer sheet for Section A and the answer book for Section B must be handed in separately at the end of the examination. INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A

Date : 6 / 3 / 2002 Time : 1 : 30 4 : 30 p.m.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet and insert the information required (including the Q.P. Code) in the spaces provided. All the answers should be marked on the Answer Sheet. Note that you may only mark ONE answer to each M.C. question. score NO MARKS. All questions carry equal marks. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers. Look for the words END When told to open this book, check that all the questions are there. Section B. Two or more answers will

OF SECTION A after the M.C. questions and END OF PAPER after the last question in

6.

Useful Formulae Sheet in Advanced Level Physics is given to you as reference only. write anything on it and do return it back after the examination.

Don't

SECTION A There are 45 questions in this section. Answer ALL questions. Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Select the best answer in each case. Where necessary, take g to be 10 m s-2 and take c to be 3 x 108 ms-1.

1. Which is not a base SI unit?

A. Kelvin B. metre C. radian D. second 2. It is given that x = 50 2, y = 10 1 and p = 3x 4y. A. 110 2 B. D. 110 4 110 10 What is the correct value of q?

What is the correct value of p?

C. 110 6

3. It is given that x = 10 2, y = 30 6 and q = 3xy. A. 900 360 B. D. 900 120 900 24

C. 900 36

P.T.O.

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Physics II (2001 - 2002)

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4. A sphere is projected downwards from P with a speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 30 to the horizontal. The sphere rebounds from the ground, first at Q and then at R. If the collisions are perfectly elastic, which of the following statements is/are correct?

NOT TO SCALE

(1) (2) (3)

The horizontal distance between P and Q is half QR. After rebounding at Q, the maximum height h of the ball rises 30 m from the ground. The vertical component of the velocity of the sphere at Q is 26.5 m/s.

A. (1) only B. (3 ) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only

5. The table tennis ball is aimed to shoot at the target held by an electromagnet by adjusting the angle between the barrel of the gun and the horizontal as shown. The target will be released at the same time when P leaves the barrel of the toy gun. Which of the following determine(s) the value of

(1) (2) (3)

The speed of the ball on leaving the toy gun. h, the vertical height of the target above the level of the ball P. l, the horizontal distance of the ball P from the target.

A. (1) only C. (1) and (2) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

6.
30 Radius of path = 500 m

The diagram shows the front view of an aeroplane of weight 1.0 x 105 N flying in a horizontal path of radius of curvature 500 m in air. The angle of tilt is 30. Calculate the speed of the aeroplane. A. 17.0 ms-1 C. 93.1 ms-1 53.7 ms-1 2890 ms-1
To Be Continued

B. D.

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Physics II (2001 2002)

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7. A stunt man riding on a motor-cycle is ready to travel round the vertical loop-the loop. As he passes point X the speed of the motor-cycle is still increasing. At X, the direction of acceleration of the stunt man is

A. along the tangent XT. B. along the radius XO. C. between XT and XO. D. between XT and XV.

8. A simple pendulum is undergoing a forced oscillation. When it is at resonance, which of the following quantities of the pendulum is /are in phase with the applied force?

(1) (2) (3)

Displacement Acceleration Velocity

A. (1) only B. (3) only

C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only

9. A horizontal mass spring system, when placed on a smooth surface, can undergo S.H.M. with a period T in air. If the whole system is put into water and set into vibration, which of the following is true?

A. The period of the new motion is less than T. B. The amplitude of the new vibration decreases at a constant rate. C. The velocity of the new vibration at points of maximum displacement decreases at a constant rate. D. The rate of dissipation of energy of the system is constant.

10. A mass m moving with velocity u collides totally inelastically with a mass M, initially at rest, and they stick together after impact. What fraction of the initial kinetic energy of mass m is lost during the collision?

A. m / M B. (M m) / M C. m / (M m) D. M / (M + m)
P.T.O.

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Physics II (2001 - 2002)

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11. A mass m strikes a smooth surface with speed u and rebounds with velocity v, and are the angles that the paths of m make with the surface before and after impact. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
smooth surface

A. It must be an elastic collision as the surface is smooth. B. u must be equal to v because the surface is smooth. C. The change in momentum of the mass m perpendicular to the surface is mv sin - mu sin . D. The change in momentum of the mass m perpendicular to the surface is mv sin + mu sin . 12. Huygens Principle stated: Each point on a phrase needed to complete the sentence? (i) A. ray B. ray (ii) a secondary an individual a secondary an individual (iii) wavelets ray wavelets wavelets (i) is (ii) source of (ii) . Which response gives the

C. wavefront D. wavefront

13. A small amplitude progressive wave in a stretched string has a velocity of 20 ms-1 and a frequency of 100 Hz. What is the phase difference between two points 2.5 cm apart along the string? /4 /2

A.

B. D.

C. 3 / 4

14. Youngs fringes are investigated using radar waves of wavelength 30 mm. The fringes spacing is 300 mm. If the detector is placed 1 m further away from the slits, the fringe spacing becomes 900 mm. How far apart are the slits?

A. 30 mm B. 50 mm C. 300 mm D. 500 mm

15. Infrared ray of a certain frequency passes through water (refractive index 1.31), strikes onto a germanium surface (refractive index 4.09) and is reflected. At what angle of reflection will the radiation be most plane polarised?

A. 17.8 B. C. 18.7 52.6

D. 72.2

To Be Continued

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16. Sound waves pass through a narrow slit. A series of loud (L) and quiet (Q) fringes is observed on the other side. The angle between the slit normal and the first quiet fringe is . If becomes larger, what property of the waves must have increased?
sound wave Q L

A.

amplitude

B. frequency C. D. width of slit wavelength

narrow slit

17. The average sound level of human speech is 70 dB. produce a sound level of 86 dB?

How many people , talking simultaneously, would

A. 16 C. 32

B. D.

24 40

18. Ultrasonic waves rather than audible sound waves are used in scanners to examine the internal organs of patients. Which of the following correctly explain(s) this?

(1) (2) (3)

Ultrasonic waves have shorter wavelengths and they give a clearer picture of the organ under investigation compared with audible sound waves. Ultrasonic waves can penetrate greater distance through the tissues than audible sound waves. Ultrasonic waves can travel in vacuum.

A. (1) only C. (1) and (2) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

19. A microscope consists of an objective of focal length 1.5 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 3.0 cm. The lenses are placed 16 cm apart. To obtain the best view, the distance between the observers eye and the eyepiece should be

A. As close as possible. C. 3.4 cm

B. D.

1.5 cm 3.7 cm

20. Which of the following methods can increase the angular magnification of a compound microscope which consists of two converging lenses?

(1) (2) (3)

Moving the object closer to the objective lens, but keeping their separation greater than the focal length of the objective. Moving the eyepiece so that it is almost in the same position as the intermediate image formed by the objective lens. Replacing the objective lens with a longer focal length.

A. (1) and (2) only C. (1) only

B. D.

(2) and (3) only (3) only

P.T.O.

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21. Which of the following statements about stationary waves and progressive waves set up in the air is/are correct? (1) (2) (3) The wavefront of a progressive wave moves forward with a velocity equal to that of the particle at the same position as the wavefront. All particles between two adjacent nodes in a stationary wave have the same phase. Air particles in both types of waves are undergoing simple harmonic motion.

A. (1) only C. (1) and (2) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

22. A tall vertical cylinder is filled with water and a tuning fork vibrating at 400 Hz is held over its open end. The water is slowly run out and the first resonance of the air column is heard when the water level is 0.21 m below the top of the cylinder. Neglecting end corrections, how far from the top will the water level be when the next resonance is heard?

A. 0.63 m C. 0.95 m

B. D.

0.84 m 1.05 m

23. Which of the following statements gives a satisfactory explanation to the cause of beats when two sources of slightly different frequencies emit waves together?

A. One source has a greater amplitude than the other. B. A standing wave is set up between the two sources. C. D. There are constructive and destructive interferences occurring periodically at the receiver. The two sources are not in phase.

24. Consider the earth to be a perfect sphere of uniform density rotating about the polar axis. following statements is / are correct? (1) Observed gravity at the equator increases if the earth rotates slower. (2) Observed gravity at equator is greater than that at the pole.

Which of the

(3) Observed gravity at the pole increases if the radius of the earth increases and the density remains unchanged.

A. B. C. D.

(1) only (2) only (1) and (3) only (2) and (3) only

25. The escape speed on the earth is v. For a planet with density four times of that of the Earth and with radius twice of that of the Earth, the escape speed from the planet is

A. B. C. D.

v/2

2v
2v 4v
To Be Continued

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P is positively charged and

26. Both P and R are metal spheres with insulated stands as shown in the figure. R is earthed. Which of the following is / are correct?
+ +

+ + P

+ +

(1) Both electric field and electric potential at R is zero. (2) No net charge appears on R. (3) Electric field points from P to R.

A. C.

(1) only (1) and (3) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

27. In the figure, capacitors C1 , C2 and C3 of identical capacitance C are charged by a dry cell. following statements is / are true?

Which of the

(1) Number of charge stored by C3 is equal to the sum of the number of charge stored by C1 and C2. (2) Voltage across C3 is equal to the voltage across C1. (3) The capacitance of the system is 2.5 C.

A. C.

(1) only (2) and (3) only

B. D.

(2) only (1) and (3) only

28. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged by a battery and the energy stored in the capacitor is E. The connections of the battery are then removed. If the plate-separation is doubled, the electrical energy stored in the capacitor will

A. C.

decrease to E / 4. remain the same.

B. D.

decrease to E / 2. increase to 2 E.

29. Which of the following physical quantities will be increased when the voltage across a metal wire is increased? (1) Number of conducting electrons (2) Speed of electrical signal (3) Drift velocity of conducting electrons

A. C.

(1) only (1) and (3) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

P.T.O.

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30. A circular coil of wire with diameter 5.0 cm is placed so that its plane is at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 3.0 x 10-3 T. The coil is then rotated through 90o so that its plane is parallel to the magnetic field. What is the magnitude of the change of magnetic flux through the coil due to this rotation? A. C. 5.9 x 10-6 Wb 2.4 x 10-5 Wb B. D. 1.2 x 10-5 Wb 4.7 x 10-5 Wb

31. The magnetic field at one end P of a solenoid of length L, is 0.016 T. N is the other end of that solenoid. Q is a point outside and on the axis of the solenoid. Q is at a distance L away from N. The magnetic field at Q is 2 x 10-3 T. If an identical solenoid is connected to N and same current flows in these two solenoids, find the magnetic field at Q. A. C. 0.014 T 0.018 T B. D. 0.016 T 0.032 T

32. Two parallel wires carry identical currents in the same direction. shown below.

The wires are viewed from the ends as

wires

Which of the following diagrams best represent the magnetic field in the region near the wires? A. B.

C.

D.

33. An electric meter draws a small current through coil of wire sitting inside a radial magnetic field. The front of the coil is labeled X-Y and the magnetic poles of the radial magnetic field as shown in the diagram.

The main reason for using a radial magnetic field in the meter is to A. B. C. D. allow the torque to remain constant as the meter needle moves across the scale. allow the divisions on the scale to be in a uniform linear pattern. produce a uniform magnetic field between the opposite poles. allow the torque on X-Y to act always in the same direction.

To Be Continued

Form 7
34.

Physics II (2001 2002)

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When a CRO is connected to a circuit, the trace obtained is shown in the above figure. following circuits has the CRO been connected?

To which of the

A.

B.

C.

D.

35.

The circuit of an op-amp has an output potential of 3V. resistor?

What is the current flowing through the 2 k

A. C.

0.5 mA 1.0 mA

B. D.

0.75 mA 1.5 mA

36. The diagram represents an operational amplifier. The open circuit gain of the amplifier is 105 , Vn is 5V and Vi is -3V.

The output voltage Vo is A. C. 0.2 V 0.8 V B. D. 0.3 V 9.0 V

P.T.O.

Form 7
37.

Physics II (2001 - 2002)

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The above graph shows the distribution of speed (v) of the molecules in a constant mass of gas. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The value v = c at which the peak of the curve occurs increases when the temperature drops. (2) Provided that the temperature does not change, the kinetic energy of each molecule is fixed. (3) The peak of the curve drops when the temperature rises. A. C. (1) and (3) only (3) only B. D. (1) and (2) only (1) only

38. The below figure shows the potential energy U, of a pair of atoms as a function of their separation, r, for two solids, X and Y. From the graphs, it can be deduced that

(1) the equilibrium separation of the atoms in Y is greater than that in X. (2) Y is stiffer than X. (3) the energy required to separate two atoms of X from equilibrium to infinity is more than that of Y.

A. C.

(1) only (1) and (2) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

39. If the piston of a syringe is pulled outwards quickly, which of the following changes is INCORRECT?

A. B. C. D.

The pressure of the gas decreases. The average speed of the molecules increases. The density of gas inside the syringe decreases Work done by the gas is positive.

40. An atom emits light of wavelength 122 nm and 103 nm when one of its electrons returns to its ground state from its first and second excited states respectively. Find the wavelength of light emitted when the electron transits from the second excited state to the first excited state.

A. C.

112 nm 225 nm

B. D.

113 nm 661 nm
To Be Continued

Form 7
41. The electron-volt is a unit of A. B. C. D. potential difference. charge. energy. power.

Physics II (2001 2002)

Page 11

42. The Figure shows a photoelectric cell. speed of the electrons,

EM wave C A

C is the emitter and A is the collector.

To increase the maximum

(1) light of higher frequency is used. (2) the distance between C and A is decreased. (3) the light intensity is increased.

A. B. C. D.

(1) only (3) only (1) and (2) only (2) and (3) only

43. A radioactive waste of initial activity 200 Bq is put into an isolated room everyday morning. The activity of the radioactive source increases to a steady value even if the radioactive waste is discharged to the room everyday. If the half life of the radioactive waste is 2 days, determine the activity at the steady state.

A. C.

683 Bq 200 Bq

B. D.

231 Bq 100 Bq

44. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the Gold-foil Scattering Experiment? (1) Electrons exists in different orbits. (2) Alpha particles are helium nuclei. (3) The positive nucleus in an atom is confined in a very small region.

A. C.

(1) only (1) and (2) only

B. D.

(3) only (2) and (3) only

45. A helium atom, a hydrogen atom and a neutron have masses 4.003 u, 1.008 u and 1.009 u respectively. Assuming that hydrogen atoms and neutrons fuse together to form a helium nucleus, the binding energy of a helium nucleus is (Given that 1 u 934 MeV) A. 7.21 MeV C. 462.2 MeV B. D. 28.95 MeV 924 MeV

END OF SECTION A
P.T.O.

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SECTION B

Physics II (2001 - 2002)

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Answer any THREE questions from this section.

Write your answers in the ANSWER book provided.

1.

(a)
k e m A m

O e<A A+e<L P Q

A light spring of natural length L and force constant k is hanged from a fixed point O. When a heavy small bead of mass m is hanged to the free end of the light spring, the spring is extended by an extension e to P. Then the bead is pulled down a further distance of A to Q and released from rest. Take P as the reference level (displacement is zero at P) and downward as positive in the following.

(i) (ii)

By considering the forces acting on the bead, show that the subsequent motion is a S.H.M. Sketch , for one cycle, three separate graphs to show how the displacement, velocity and acceleration of the bead vary with time. Comment on their phase relationship. (No mathematical derivation is required.)

(iii) Find the expressions for the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of the system (bead and spring) as a function of displacement. (iv) Sketch , for one cycle, on the same graph showing how the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of the system (bead and spring) vary with displacement. Comment on the values of the energy. (10 marks)

(b) Describe an experiment to verify that a simple pendulum undergoes S.H.M.

(6 marks)

2.

(a)

Explain qualitatively the cause and apparent result of Doppler effect. Give one daily example of Doppler effect. (2 marks)

(b)

A source is emitting sound wave of frequency fs. Assume Sound wave travels with a velocity of c in air. Deduce the expression for the Doppler effect (i.e. apparent frequency) for the following cases, (i) An observer moves towards a stationary source with a velocity of vo. (4 marks)

(ii) A source is moving towards a stationary observer with a velocity of vs. (c)

Using results in (b) or otherwise, explain how the speed of an approaching aircraft may be measured by using microwave radiated from a stationary station on the ground. Derive an expression relating the speed of the aircraft to the change in frequency between the emitted signal and that received signal at the station. (4 marks)

(d)

With the aid of a diagram, describe an experiment to find the speed of sound in air by using Kundts tube together with a loudspeaker. State any precautions which should be taken in the experiment and explain what would be observed. (6 marks)

To Be Continued

Form 7
3. (a) (i)

Physics II (2001 2002)

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A simple a.c. amplifier can be constructed from a NPN transistor in common-emitter configuration. Draw a circuit diagram to show how you would construct this amplifier. You should include in your diagram a d.c. bias circuit, a base resistor Rb, a load resistor RL and blocking capacitors. State typical values for the components used.

(ii)

What are the functions of the blocking capacitors?

(iii) Derive from first principles the voltage gain of this amplifier to be G = in your derivation.

RL . State assumption(s) Rb

(iv)

Draw the Input-Output Voltage Characteristic of the amplifier and discuss the physical significance of the shape. Also, show how an a.c. source can be amplified without distortion. (12 marks)

(b)

Compare and contrast the differences in characteristics between a NPN transistor amplifier and a non-inverting operational amplifier. (2 marks)

(c)

A student argues that the use of amplifiers to increase the magnitude of small a.c. signal is actually not necessary. Since a step-up transformer with the number of secondary coil greater than that of the primary coil can step up voltage easily, in most cases amplifiers can be substituted by step-up transformers with appropriate turn ratio. Do you agree with his argument? Explain your reasoning. (2 marks)

4.

(a)

(i)

Define magnetic flux linkage.

(ii)

Explain why a search coil with C.R.O. can be used to measure varying magnetic field.

(iii)

Describe an experiment to investigate the magnetic field strength surrounding a long current-carrying straight wire with a search coil and a C.R.O. (8 marks)

(b) (i)

Account for the attractive force between two long wires with current in the same direction.

(ii)

Hence, or otherwise, define the unit of current, ampere. (4 marks)

(c)

In discovering isotopes, J.J. Thomson created a mass spectrometer. One key feature of this apparatus was a velocity selector. The velocity selector combined the use of an electromagnet, a pair of electric plates, and a screen with a hole in it.

(i)

Draw a labeled diagram showing the arrangement of the main parts of the velocity selector.

(ii)

Explain why only charged particles of certain velocity can pass the hole in the velocity selector and show that the velocity depends on the ratio of the electric field and magnetic field. (4 marks)

P.T.O.

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Physics II (2001 - 2002)

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5.

(a) (i)

What are the microscopic meanings of temperature and gas pressure of an ideal gas in kinetic theory model? Derive PV =

(ii)

1 Nmc 2 for ideal gas in a cubic container, which relates the macroscopic physical 3
c 2 of gas molecules.

quantities, namely gas pressure P and volume V; and the microscopic physical quantities, namely number N, mass m and the r.m.s. speed

(iii)

Now, the ideal gas is put in a container and a cycle of operations is illustrated in the PV graph of the gas as shown in Figure 5.1. If the initial state is (1), describe all the processes in a cycle and state if there is any change in the internal energy U, energy transfer due to heating Q and work done W in a complete cycle.

Figure 5.1 (10 marks)

(b) (i) (ii)

Describe and explain the speed of running water if the month of the tap is covered by half. Figure 5.2 shows a small polythene ball spinning in a steady stream of air ejected out of a nozzle N. The ball is observed to be stationary in mid air as shown. stream make an angle with the horizontal. The nozzle and the direction of the air

Figure 5.2

Copy Figure 5.2 to your answer book and draw the spinning sense and the free body diagram of the ball stating all nature of the force(s). figure. (6 marks) Hence, or otherwise, explain why the ball can stay in mid air as in the

END OF PAPER

To Be Continued