CODE - A

JEE-ADVANCED(2013)

PART TEST - 1 (Paper I )

Ti me: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210

S y l l a bu s Cove red

Physics : Unit and dimension, Error Analysis, Kinematics, Laws of Motion and friction, Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept, Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter (Gaseous & liquid)
Mathematics : Functions, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite Integration

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. The Test ID is printed on the right hand top corner of this booklet. This should be entered on the OMR sheet.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are
not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical mark recognition sheet (OMR Sheet), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE OMR OR THE BOOKLET.
6. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Questi on paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each part has
3 sections.
8. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of
which only one i s correct
9. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of
which one or more i s/are correct.
10. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a singl e-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
answer will have to be appropriately darkened in the OMR as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.
C. Marking Scheme:
11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct
choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.


TEST ID 00043389
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A
1

PHYSICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


1. A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by a force of 80 N
as shown in the figure. Determine the value of friction force and
blocks acceleration [take g = 10 m/s
2
,
s
= 0.2,
k
= 0.15]
(A) 8 N, 0 m/s
2
(B) 32 N, 6 m/s
2
(C) 8 N, 6 m/s
2
(D) 32 N, 2 m/s
2


37
o
80 N
4 kg



2. If the acceleration of wedge in the shown arrangement is a
towards left then at this instant acceleration of the block would be,
(assume all surfaces to be frictionless)
(A) 4a (B)
( )
17 8 cos a
(C) 17a (D) 17 cos a
2

3. A racing car driver drives his car on a flat circular track of radius 25/3 m and coefficient of
friction 0.5. The magnitude of its tangential acceleration at an instant when car starts slipping at a
speed of 5 m/s is
(A) 2 m/s
2
(B) 3 m/s
2
(C) 4 m/s
2
(D) 1 m/s
2

4. An object of mass 10 kg is launched from the ground at t = 0, at an angle of 37 above the
horizontal with a speed of 30 m/s. At some time after its launch an explosion splits the projectile
into two pieces. One piece of mass 4 kg is observed at (105, 43 m) at t = 2 s. Find the location of
second piece at t = 2 s ? [Take g = 10 m/s
2
]
(A) (10, 2) (B) (48, 16)
(C) (10, 2) (D) Information is insufficient
5. Two masses m
A
and m
B
moving with velocities v
A
and v
B
in opposite directions collide elastically.
After that the masses m
A
and m
B
move with velocity v
B
and v
A
respectively. The ratio (m
A
/ m
B
) is
(A) 1 (B)
A B
A B

+
v v
v v
(C)
A B A
(m m ) / m + (D)
A B
/ v v
6. Two particles are projected from the same point on ground simultaneously with speeds 20 m/s
and 20 / 3 m/s at angles 30 and 60 with the horizontal in the same direction. The maximum
distance between them till both of them strike the ground approximately:
(g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 23.1 m (B) 16.4 m (C) 30.2 m (D) 10.4 m

JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)


A
2
7. Two bodies of mass m and 4m are attached with string as shown
in the figure. The body of mass m hanging from a string of length
l is executing oscillations of angular amplitude
o
while the other
body is at rest. The minimum coefficient of friction between the
mass 4m and the horizontal surface should be
(A)
0
2 cos
3

| |
|
\
(B) 2 cos
2

0
2

| |
|
\


(C)
0
1 cos
2

| |
|
\
(D)
0
3 2cos
4

| |
|
\

8. With what minimum speed v must a small ball should be pushed
inside a smooth vertical tube from a height h so that it may reach the
top of the tube? Radius of the tube is R:
(A) 2 ( 2 ) g h R + (B)
5
2
R
(C) (5 2 ) g R h (D) 2 (2 ) g R h


9. A thin rod AB is moving in a vertical plane. At a certain instant when the rod is inclined
at 30 to the horizontal the point A is moving horizontally with 3m/s while B is moving in
the vertical direction. Then velocity of B is
A
B
V
B
30
3 m/s


(A)
1
m/s
3
(B) 3 m/s (C) 3 3 m/s (D)
3
m/s
2

10. The mass and linear momentum in two systems of units are related as under:

2 1
m
y
x
m
|
|

\
|
= ;
2
2
1
) ( P y x P = . All the symbols with subscript (1) belong to one system and
all the symbols with subscript (2) belong to the other system. x and y are dimensionless
constants.
1
U and
2
U are potential energies in two systems of units. Then
(A)
2
3 2
1
) ( U y x U = (B)
2
3 3
1
) ( U y x U =
(C)
2
2
1
) ( U y x U = (D)
2
2 2
1
) ( U y x U =

SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.


4m
m

0
l
v
h
R
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A
3
11. Which of the following pairs have the same dimensions ?
(A)
h
e
and magnetic flux (B)
h
e
and electric flux
(C) electric flux and
0

q

(D) electric flux and
0
I
12. A simple pendulum of length L and mass (bob) M is oscillating in a plane about a vertical line
between angular limits and +. For an angular displacement (|| < ), the tension in the string
and the velocity of the bob are T and V respectively. The following relations hold good under the
above conditions:
(A) T cos = Mg
(B) T mg cos =
2
MV
L

(C) the magnitude of the tangential acceleration of the bob |a
T
| = g sin
(D) T = Mg cos
13. A particle of mass m moves on the x-axis as follows: it starts from rest at t = 0 from the point
x = 0, and comes to rest at t = 1 at the point x = 1. No other information is available about its
motion at intermediate times (0 < t < 1). If denotes the instantaneous acceleration of the
particle, then:
(A) cannot remain positive for all t in the interval 0 t 1
(B) || cannot exceed 2 at any point in its path
(C) || must be 4 at some point of points in its path
(D) must change sign during the motion, but no other assertion can be made with the
information given
14. Two resistances R
1
= (3.0 0.1) and R
2
= (6.0 0.2) are to be joined together.
(A) The maximum resistance obtainable is (9.0 0.3)
(B) The maximum resistance obtainable is (9.0 0.2)
(C) The minimum resistance obtainable is (2.0 0.3)
(D) The minimum resistance obtainable is (2.0 0.2)
15. A particle is projected in air with an initial velocity u directed at an angle above horizontal.
After time t
0
the velocity of the particle is directed at angle above horizontal.
(A) At time t
0
magnitude of vertical component of velocity of the particle is u cos cot
(B) At time t
0
magnitude of rate of change of speed of the particle is g sin
(C) the radius of curvature of the trajectory at P is

3
2 2
cos
cos
g
u

(D) the value of time t
0
is ucos ( tan - tan )/g



JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)


A
4
SECTION III
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y, and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following:




16. A particle is moving along the path given by
6
6
c
y t = (where c is a positive constant). The
relation between the acceleration (a) and the velocity (v) of the particle at t = 5 sec is a = kv, what
is the value of k ?
17. A 10 H.P. motor pumps out water from a well of depth 20m and fills a water tank of volume
22380 litres at a height of 10m from the ground. The running time of the motor to fill the empty
water tank is _________ minutes (g = 10ms
2
)
18. The chain of length 6m and coefficient of friction 1/2. The maximum length of chain which can
be held outside of table without sliding _________ m.
19. The number of significant figures in all the given numbers 25.12, 2009, 4.156 and 1.217 10
4
is ___
20. A light string fixed at one end to a clamp on ground passes over a
fixed pulley and hangs at the other side. It makes an angle of
30 with the ground. A monkey of mass 5 kg climbs up the rope.
The clamp can tolerate a vertical force of 40 N only. The maximum
acceleration in upward direction with which the monkey can climb
safely is ______m/s
2
(Neglect friction and take g = 10 m/s
2
)




CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. If a real gas obey following equation P(V nb) = nRT, at very low pressure, then the intercept
and slope of graph between
d
p
Vs P are respectively.
(A)
( )
2
M RT MR
,
T b
(B)
( )
2
M Mb
,
RT
RT

(C)
( )
2
Mb M
,
RT
RT

(D)
( )
2
RT b
,
M
M RT

30
a
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A
5
22. The number of S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer S
3
O
9
is
(A) Three (B) Two (C) One (D) Zero
23. The correct order of bond length of SiO, PO, SO and ClO in
4
4
SiO

,
3
4
PO

,
2
4
SO

and
4
ClO

is
(A)
4
ClO

>
2
4
SO

>
3
4
PO

>
4
4
SiO

(B)
3
4
PO

>
4
4
SiO

>
2
4
SO

>
4
ClO

(C)
4
4
SiO

>
3
4
PO

>
2
4
SO

>
4
ClO

(D)
2
4
SO

>
4
4
SiO

>
3
4
PO

>
4
ClO

24. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling at 1% of the speed of light

(A) 2.73 10
24
m (B) 2.42 10
10
m
(C) 242.2 10
10
m (D) None of these
25. A sample of H
2
O
2
solution labelled as 33.6 volume has density 264 gL
1
. Mark the correct option
representing concentration of same solution in other units. (Assume that solution contains only
H
2
O and H
2
O
2
).
(A) Mole fraction of H
2
O
2
in the solution = 0.20
(B) % w/V = 62%
(C) Molarity (M) = 6 M
(D) Molality (m) =
1000
m
54


26. The density of O
2
is 16 at NTP. At what temperature its density will be 14? Consider that the
pressure remain constant at
(A) 50C (B) 39C (C) 57C (D) 43C
27. The velocity of an electron in an excited state of hydrogen atom is
6
1.093 10 / m s . The
circumference of the orbit in which the electron is revolving is.
(A)
10
3.32 10 m

(B)
10
6.64 10 m

(C)
10
13.3 10 m

(D)
8
13.28 10 m

28. MnO
2
on ignition converts into Mn
3
O
4.
A sample

of pyrolusite having 75% MnO
2
, 20% inert
impuries and rest water is ignited in air to constant weight. What is the percentage of Mn in the
ignited sample?
(A) 24.6% (B) 37% (C) 55.24% (D) 74.5%
29. A 10.00 g mixture of Cu
2
S and CuS was treated with 200.0 mL of 0.7500 M
4
MnO

in acid
solution, producing SO
2
, Cu
2+
and Mn
2+
. The SO
2
was boiled off, and the excess
4
MnO

was
titrated with 175.0 mL of 1.000 M Fe
2+
solution. The percent CuS in the original mixture is:
(A) 78% (B) 64% (C) 58% (D) 52%
30. An electron whose total energy is 2.42 10
19
J given up a photon as its energy fall to
21.76 10
19
J. What is the wavelength of the emitted light?
(A) 806 (B) 1226 (C) 2812 (D) 5408

SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)


A
6
31. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d
5
4s
1
. (Atomic number of Cr = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type. (Atomic
number of Ag = 47)
(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN
3
is 3
32. In
3
I

(A) I
2
is Lewis acid and I

is Lewis base (B) I

2
is Lewis base and I

is Lewis acid
(C)
3
I

itself behaves as amphoteric anion (D)

3
I

is linear
33. Which of the following is correct for critical temperature
(A) It is the highest temperature at which liquid and vapour can coexist
(B) Beyond the critical temperature, there is no distinction between the two phases and a gas
cannot be liquefied by compression
(C) At critical temperature (T
C
) the surface tension of the system is zero
(D) At critical temperature the gas and the liquid phases have different critical densities
34. H
2
S acts only as a reducing agent while SO
2
can act both as a reducing and oxidizing agent
because
(A) S in H
2
S has 2 oxidation state
(B) S in SO
2
has oxidation state + 4
(C) Hydrogen in H
2
S more +ve than oxygen
(D) Oxygen is more ve in SO
2
35. For radial probability curves, which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The number of maxima in 2s orbital are two
(B) The number of spherical or radical nodes is equal to n 1
(C) The number of angular nodes are " "
(D)
2
Z
3d has 3 angular nodes

SECTION III
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y, and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following:




36. A gas is present at a pressure of 2 atm. What should be the increase in pressure (in atm) that the
volume of the gas can be decreased to 1/4
th
of the initial value if the temperature is maintained
constant ?
37. 100 ml of 0.1M HCl is mixed with 100 ml 0.2 M H
2
SO
4
so molarity of 50 ml NaOH for complete
neutralization of above mixture will be ___________
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A
7
38. The uncertainty in the location of circulating electron is equal to its de Broglie wavelength. The
minimum percent error in its measurement of velocity under this circumstance will be
approximately _______
39. Al and KClO
3
react together to form Al
2
O
3
according to
2KClO
3
2KCl + 3O
2

4Al + 3O
2
2Al
2
O
3

4 mol of KClO
3
(50% pure) on reaction with excess of Al forms Al
2
O
3
________ mol
40. The bond order of CN

is _______



MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. Which of following functions is derivable at x = 0;
(A) sin |x| + cos |x| (B) |x| + cos |x|
(C) |x| + sin |x| (D) |cos x| + cos |x|
42. If f(x) =
2
1
4 x
sin x sin x
+

, then the domain of f(x) is

(A) [2, 0] (B) (0, 2] (C) [2, 2] (D) [2, 0)
43. Let f(x) =
n
1
x sin , x 0
x
0 , x 0

, then f(x) is continuous, but not differentiable at x = 0, if

(A) n (0, 1] (B) n [1, )
(C) n (, 0) (D) n = 0
44. If the equation x
5
10a
3
x
2
+b
4
x +c
5
= 0 has three equal roots, then
(A) 2b
2
10 a
3
b
2
+c
5
= 0 (B) 6a
5
+ c
5
= 0
(C) 2c
5
10 a
3
b
2
+ b
4
c
5
= 0 (D) b
4
= 15 a
5
45. I =
x
dx
1 e +

is equal to
(A) log
e

x
x
1 e
e
| |
+
|
\
+ c (B) log
e

x
x
e
1 e
| |
|
+
\
+ c
(C) log
e
(e
x
) (e
x
+1) + c (D) log
e
(e
2x
+ 1) + c

JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)


A
8
46. Let f(x) = min { n(tan x), n(cot x)}. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) f(x) is continuous for x 0,
2
| |
|
\

(B) Lagranges mean value theorem is applicable on f(x) for x ,
8 4
(
(


(C) Rolles theorem is not applicable on f(x) for x
3
,
4 8
(
(


(D) Rolles theorem is applicable on f(x) for x
3
,
8 8
(
(


47. The number of solutions of [sin x] + |cos x| = 1, in 2 x 4, [where [.] = greatest integer
function], is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
48.
( )
2
2
x 0
sin cos (tan(sin x))
lim
x

is equal to
(A) (B)
4

(C)
2

(D) none of these

49.
( )
2
1
x 0
tan sec x
lim
xsin x

is equal to
(A) (B) (C) 0 (D) none of these
50.
2
dx
sin x cos x
=

(A) log |cot
x
2
| secx + c (B) log tan
x
2
+ cosec x + c
(C) log
x
| tan |
2
+ secx + c (D) log
x
| cot |
2
cosecx + c


SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

51. Let f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 2xy 1 x , y R. If f(x) is differentiable and f (0) = sin, then
(A) f(x) < 0 x R (B) f(x) > 0 x R
(C) f(x)
3
4
x R (D) 1 f(x) 1 x R
52. f(x) is a real valued function, satisfying f(x + y) + f(x y) = 2f(x).f(y) , x, yR. Then
(A) f(x) is an even function (B) f(x) is even if f(0) = 1
(C) f(x) is odd if f(0) = 0 (D) f(x) is even if f(0) = 0
53. If f(x) = (sin
2
x 1)
n
(2+ cos
2
x), n N; then x= /2 is a point of
(A) local maximum, if n is odd (B) local minimum, if n is odd
(C) local maximum, if n is even (D) local minimum, if n is even
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A
9
54. If
6 2 3
22 7
dx
n(z ) 9z 2z 18z c
x (x 6)
(
= + +

, then
(A)
1
54432
= (B)
7
7
x 6
z
x
| |

=
|
\
(C)
1
24432
= (D)
6
6
x 7
z
x
| |

=
|
\

55. The interval in which
3
y x = increases more rapidly than
2
6 15 5 y x x = + + is
(A) ( , 1) (B) (5, )

(C) ( 1, 5) (D) (0, )

SECTION III
Integer Answer Type

This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y, and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following:




56. If the value of
( )
5 2 2
3
x
x tan 1/ ( x ) 3x 7
lim
x 7 x 8

+ +
+ +
is equal to K /, then K = ?
57. Let f : R Q be a continuous function x R and f (5) = 5, find the value of f (3).
58. If f(x) is a twice differentiable function such that f(a) = 0, f(b) = 2, f(c) = 1, f(d) = 2,
f(e) = 0, where a < b < c < d < e, then find the minimum number of zeroes of
g(x) = (f(x))
2
+ f(x) f(x) in the interval [a, e].
59. Let f(x) = (x 1)
2
(x 2)
3
e
x
. Then f(x) has point of inflexion at x = _____________
60. Normal to the curve y = (1 + x)
y
+ sin
1
(sin
2
x) at x = 0 is x + y = a. Find the value of a.



JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper I)




A


JEE-ADVANCED PART TEST - 1

ANSWERS

Paper I

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. (A)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (A)
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (C)
10. (B)
11. (A), (C)
12. (B), (C)
13. (A), (C)
14. (A), (D)
15. (B), (C), (D)
16. 1
17. 5
18. 2
19. 4
20. 6


21. (B)
22. (D)
23. (C)
24. (B)
25. (D)
26. (B)
27. (C)
28. (C)
29. (C)
30. (B)
31. (A), (B), (C)
32. (A), (D)
33. (A), (B), (C)
34. (A), (B)
35. (A), (B), (C)
36. 6
37. 1
38. 8
39. 2
40. 3


41. (D)
42. (D)
43. (A)
44. (B)
45. (B)
46. (D)
47. (B)
48. (A)
49. (B)
50. (A)
51. (B), (C)
52. (A), (B), (C), (D)
53. (A), (D)
54. (A), (B)
55. (A), (B)
56. 1
57. 5
58. 6
59. 2
60. 1


A