1.

A passive threat to computer security is—

(1) Malicious Intent(2) Sabotage
(3) Accident Errors(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these

2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification—

(1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate
(2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
(4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(5) None of these

3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail—
(1) TCP/IP(2) Ethernet(3)WAP(4) Token ring(5) None of these

4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—

(1) A Boot Record(2) A File Allocation Table(3) A Root Directory (4) Virtual Memory(5) BIOS

5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—

(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition(4)
Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition(5) None of these

6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a—

(1) repository(2) data warehouse(3) RAD(4) CASE(5) None of these

7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction(2) end-user query tool(3) end-user presentation tool(4) data store(5) None of these

8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.
(1) single-user license agreement(2) network site license(3) end-user license agreement(4) business software license
(5) None of these

9. A polymorphic virus—
(1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(5) None of these

10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is—
(1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available(5) None of these

11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?

(1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
(2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
(3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
(4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.(5) None of these

12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is—
(1) Biometrics(2) Compression(3) Encryption(4) Ergonomics(5) None of these

13. The word FIP stands for—

(1) File Translate Protocol(2) File Transit Protocol(3) File Typing Protocol(4) File Transfer Protocol(5) None of these

14. Voice mail—

(1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the
Internet
(2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet
(3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party
(4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations
(5) None of these

15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is—
(1) Bridge(2) Gateway(3) Router(4) Modem(5) All of these
16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the
Web?
(1) VB Script(2) Java Script(3) CSS(4) Java(5) None of these

17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client(2) Applications/Web server(3) Enterprise server (4) DBA(5) None of these

18. RSA is—

(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem(2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem(3) Block Cypher(4) Digital Signature(5) None of these

19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.

(1) CD-R(2) floppy disk(3) CD-RW(4) hard disk(5) None of these

20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
(1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse (2) The length of the mouse cord(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped
with(4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these

21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?

(1) Through a power cable(2) From an external power supply(3) Directly from the computer's power supply
(4) Through the USB cable(5) None of these

22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except—
(1) each computer must have a network card(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices(3)
there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information(5)
None of these

23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples.
(1) Rule discover(2) Signal processing(3) Neural nets(4) Case-based reasoning(5) None of these

24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.

(1) Cookies(2) Plug-ins (3) Scripts(4) ASPs(5) None of these

25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
(1) Servlet Request(2) Http Servlet Request(3) Servlet Response (4) Http Servlet Response (5) None of these

ANSWERS :
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1)6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2)16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)21.
(4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red(B) green(C) blue(D) black(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search(B) Cut(C) Document(D) Undo(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula(B) text(C) a name(D) a title(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

(A) Word processing(B) Presentation graphics(C) Database Management Systems(D) Electronic Spreadsheet(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte(B) megabyte(C) gigabyte(D) terabyte(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting(B) Merging(C) Embedding(D) Splitting(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication(B) application(C) system(D) word-processing(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking(B) pointing(C) Double-clicking(D) Secondary-clicking(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells(B) sheets(C) block lines(D) gridlines(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key(B) double-click the right mouse key(C) press the BACKSPACE key(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)

12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD (B). BIOS(C). CPU(D). DVD
Ans : (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs(B) Icons(C) Menus(D) Windows
Ans : (C)

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking(B) Streamlining(C) Multiuser(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.(B) event.(C) interrupt.(D) activity.
Ans : (C)

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s
attention.
(A) CPU(B) slice of time(C) stack(D) event
Ans : (B)

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click(B) user-friendly(C) command-driven(D) Mac
Ans : (C)

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.(B) peripheral device.(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)

20. A spooler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.(B) in the CPU.(C) in a flash card.(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)

23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot
errors.(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.(B) accessibility.(C) authentication.(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.(B) platform.(C) BIOS.(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)

27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.(B) the CD drive is not functioning.(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.(B) the power-on self-test.(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard
drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS(B) API(C) device driver(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.(B) ROM.(C) the CPU.(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration(B) CMOS(C) POST(D) ROM
Ans : (C)

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.(B) API.(C) CMOS.(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.(B) The video card and video memory are tested.(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.(D)
Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of
the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.(B) folders.(D) drives.(D) systems.
Ans : (D)

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.(C) Files are stored in RAM.(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.(B) the folder contains subfolders.(C) a text file.(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________
view.
(A) List(B) Thumbnails(C) Details(D) Icon
Ans : (C)

1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars
and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites(B) integrated software packages(C) software processing packages(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
Ans : (A)

2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?

(A) Can be updated by the end users(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats(C) Organized around important subject
areas(D) Contains only current data(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.

(A) Authentication(B) Main(C) Web(D) File(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers(B) spam(C) viruses(D) identify theft(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data(B) Sales(C) Query(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.

(A) five(B) six(C) seven(D) eight(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management(B) processing(C) utility(D) application(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers(B) Embedded computers(C) Robotic computers(D) Mainframes(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The following are all computing devices , except.........

(A) notebook computers(B) cellular telephones(C) digital scanners(D) personal digital assistants(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet(B) data(C) access method(D) token(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial
ports ____
(A) basic input/output system(B) secondary input/output system(C) peripheral input/output system(D) marginal input/output system(E)
None of these
Ans : (A)

12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse(B) Boot sector(C) Script(D) Logic bomb(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a meAns : by which users can interact with the
computer
(A) The platform(B) Application software(C) Operating system(D) The motherboard(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe(B) network(C) supercomputer(D) client(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

(A) To explain some observed event or condition(B) To confirm that data exists(C) To analyze data for expected relationships(D) To
create a new data warehouse(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. URL stands for ........

(A) Universal Research List(B) Universal Resource List(C) Uniform Resource Locator(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............

(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?

(A) Capture , process and store transactions(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions(D) Produce standard reports used for management
decision making(E) None of these
Ans : ()

19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?

(A) To provide security against unauthorized users(B) To process client requests for web pages(C) To process client requests for
database access(D) To provide TCP/IP(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy(B) information overload(C) duplicate data(D) data inconsistency(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds(B) Reserved words(C) Control structures(D) Reserved keys(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?

(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms(E) None of these
Ans : ()

23. ______ describe what is database fields.

(A) Structures(B) Field markers(C) Field definition(D) Field names(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router(B) modem(C) node(D) cable(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A goal of normalization is to __________

(A) minimize the number of relationships(B) minimize the number of entities(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet(B) intranet(C) internet(D) hacker(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL(B) Web site address(C) Hyperlink(D) Domain name(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE(B) SQL(C) OLAP(D) Sequel Server(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):

(A) transistor(B) resistor(C) integrated circuit(D) semiconductor(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:

(A) unlock the database(B) provide a map of the data(C) uniquely identify a record(D) establish constraints on database operations.(E)
None of these
Ans : (B)

31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language(B) syntax(C) programming structure(D) logic chart(E) None of these
Ans : ()

32. The design of the network is called the network:

(A) architecture(B) server(C) transmission(D) type(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk(B) cache memory(C) RAM(D) registers(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary(B) data table(C) data record(D) data field(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs(B) Webcasts(C) blogs(D) subject directories(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface(B) GUI(C) system utility(D) API(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation(B) programming(C) technical(D) user(E) None of these
Ans : ()

38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?

(A) Cable(B) DSL(C) Dial-up(D) Satellite(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware(B) adware(C) spam(D) malware(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.

(A) numeric(B) required(C) calculated(D) validated(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.

(A) Debugging(B) Compiling(C) Testing(D) Running(E) None pf these
Ans : ()

42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses(B) Macro viruses(C) Time bombs(D) Worms(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.

(A) open-source(B) Microsoft(C) Windows(D) Mac(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. What is a backup?

(A) Restoring the information backup(B) An exact copy of a system's information(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the
event of a system crash or failure(D) All of these(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database(B) character, record, field, database, file(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

46. The internet is ......

(A) a large network of networks(B) an internal communication system for a business(C) a communication system for the Indian
government(D) All of these(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs(B) Icons(C) Menus(D) Windows(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?

(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration(B) accessibility(C) authentication(D) logging in(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home
page.(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.B. spam.C. viruses.D. identity theft.
Ans : B

2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.

A. data mining B. data selection C. POS D. data conversion
Ans : A

3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data B. Point-of-sale (POS) C. Sales D. Query
Ans : B

4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the current price (and any
special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS B. POS C. inventory D. data mining
Ans : A

5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty
called:
A. robotics. B. simulation. C. computer forensics. D. animation.
Ans : C

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data B. processing data into information C. analyzing the data or information D. storing the data or information
Ans : C

7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.
A. POS B. RFID C. PPS D. GPS
Ans : B

8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known
as:
A. robotics. B. computer forensics. C. simulation. D. forecasting.
Ans : A

9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:

A. proprietary. B. open. C. experimental. D. in the public domain.
Ans : A

10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience B. Microelectrodes C. Computer forensics D. Artificial intelligence
Ans : A

11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience B. Nanotechnology C. Simulation D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Ans : D

12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process B. Software C. Storage D. Information
Ans : D

13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming. B. processing. C. storing. D. organizing.
Ans : B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present B. input C. output D. store
Ans : B

15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data. B. output. C. input. D. the process.
Ans : B

16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.

A. processing B. kilobyte C. binary D. representational
Ans : C

17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:

A. multimedia. B. words. C. characters. D. numbers.
Ans : D

18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes. B. eight kilobytes. C. eight characters. D. eight bits.
Ans : D

19. The term bit is short for:

A. megabyte. B. binary language. C. binary digit. D. binary number.
Ans : C

20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:

A. megabyte. B. byte. C. kilobyte. D. gigabyte.
Ans : B

21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.

A. kilobyte B. bit C. gigabyte D. megabyte
Ans : C

22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.

A. gigabyte B. kilobyte C. megabyte D. terabyte
Ans : C

23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware B. A device C. A peripheral D. An application
Ans : A

24. The components that process data are located in the:

A. input devices. B. output devices. C. system unit. D. storage component.
Ans : C

25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:

A. scanner. B. mouse. C. keyboard. D. printer.
Ans : D

26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?

A. scanner B. speaker C. CD D. printer
Ans : A

27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:

A. hard disk drives. B. printers. C. floppy disk drives. D. CD drives.
Ans : B

28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard B. memory C. RAM D. central processing unit (CPU)
Ans : D

29. The CPU and memory are located on the:

A. expansion board. B. motherboard. C. storage device. D. output device.
Ans : B

30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:

A. application software. B. system software. C. operating system software. D. platform software.
Ans : A

31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction B. Software C. Memory D. A processor
Ans : B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________ software to work
together.
A. management B. processing C. utility D. application
Ans : D

33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms. B. applications. C. programs. D. storage devices.
Ans : A

34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.
A. languages B. methods C. CPUs D. storage devices
Ans : C

35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network. B. mainframe. C. supercomputer. D. client.
Ans : A

36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers B. clients C. laptops D. mainframes
Ans : D

37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers B. Supercomputers C. Laptops D. Mainframes
Ans : B

38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.

A. network B. wireless C. slow D. broadband
Ans : D

39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
A. digital divide. B. Internet divide. C. Web divide. D. broadband divide.
Ans : A

40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology B. Micro-technology C. Computer forensics D. Artificial intelligence
Ans : A

41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process à Output à Input à Storage B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage C. Process à Storage à Input à Output
D. Input à Process à Output à Storage
Ans : D

42. ____________ bits equal one byte.

A. Eight B. Two C. One thousand D. One million
Ans : A

43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).

A. 8 B. 2 C. 1,000 D. 1
Ans : B

44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.

A. bit B. binary digit C. character D. kilobyte
Ans : C

45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the
computer.
A. The platform B. The operating system C. Application software D. The motherboard
Ans : B

46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication B. application C. system D. word-processing software
Ans : C

47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic
thermostat.
A. Servers B. Embedded computers C. Robotic computers D. Mainframes
Ans : B

48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions. B. the operating system. C. application software. D. the system unit.
Ans : A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet. B. transaction and application. C. Windows and Mac OS. D. system and application.
Ans : D

50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit. B. CPU. C. mainframe. D. platform.
Ans : A

1. Which of the following statement(s) reflects India's stand on new World Trade Organization's proposal on the issue of the subsidy to
agro products ?
(1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them
on cheaper rate.
(2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries.
(3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution
to the problem acceptable to all the parties.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 1 & 2(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following statement(s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ?
(1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector.
(2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan.
(3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth nof 4 % for agriculture sector.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 1 & 2(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (2007-08). Which of
the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 2006-07 ?
(A) China(B) Brazil(C) Russia(D) India(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in—

(A) Uttar Pradseh(B) Madhya Pradseh(C) Bihar(D) Haryana(E) Rajasthan
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the Indo-Russia Bilateral Defence Ties ?
(1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane.
(2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia
(3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 crore at present.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 1 & 3 only(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India
from—
(A) Nepal(B) China(C) Bangladesh(D) Myanmar(E) Pakistan
Ans : (C)

7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However ,
banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the
"traditional branch channel ". What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel(s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ?
(1) Putting biometric ATMs.
(2) Introduce mobile banking.
(3) Issue credit or debit cards
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) All 1, 2 & 3(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the
provision of which of the following Acts?
(A) Delimitation Act(B) Census Act(C) Parliament Act(D) State Reorganization Act(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by
various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is
laundered through the world's formal financial systems every year? About -
(A) US$ 500 billion(B) US$ 800 billion(C) US$ 1000 billion(D) US$ 1250 billion(E) US$ 1500 billion
Ans : (A)

10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradseh a few months back asserted that the State is India's Land of Rising
Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradseh
which is very much a part of India?
(A) Myanmar(B) China(C) Bangladseh(D) Bhutan(E) Nepal
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya
Swasthya Bima Yojana?
(A) Rs. 10,000/-(B) Rs. 20,000/-(C) Rs. 30,000/-(D) Rs. 40,000/-(E) Rs. 50,000/-
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 2007-08?
(A) Economy has "moved to higher growth phase"
(B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded.
(C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue.
(D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal.
(E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350% .
Ans : (E)

13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently?
(1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets.
(2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil.It has adversely affected the economy of
Europe and USA.
(3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock
markets.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 1 & 2(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all
weather roads by 2008-09?
(A) 1000+(B) 2000+(C) 3000+(D) 4000+(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on
which of the following?
(A) Availability of commodities in the market.(B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities.
(C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently.(D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?
(A) ICICI Bank(B) IDBI Bank(C) HDFC Bank(D) AXIS Bank(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman Programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present
level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same?
(A) 1.50 million hectares / year(B) 1.75 million hectares / year(C) 2.00 million hectares / year(D) 2.25 million hectares / year
(E) 2.50 million hectares / year
Ans : (D)

18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. of India / RBI normally take to control
the same?
(1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities
(2) System of Dual prices.
(3) Increased in supply of food grains.
(4) Control on credit and liquidity in market.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Only 2, 3 & 4(E) All 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans : (D)

19. How much Education Cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 6-14
years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(A) 0.50%(B) 0.75%(C) 1.00%(D) 1.50%(E) 2.00%
Ans : (E)

20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 2008-09?
(1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas.
(2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced.
(3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Only 2 & 3(E) All 1, 2 & 3
Ans : (E)

21. Which of the following statements reflects the aim(s) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?
(1) Give focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities.
(2) Provide basic services to the urban poors
(3) Scale up civic amenities and provision of utilities in urban areas.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) All 1, 2 & 3(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. The Press Freedom Day is observed on which of the following days?
(A) 1st May(B) 1st June(C) 3rd May(D) 3rd June(E) 10th June
Ans : (C)

23. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of
India. This means : it will now be applicable to about—
(A) 200 districts(B) 300 districts(C) 400 districts(D) 500 districts(E) 600 districts
Ans : (E)

24. As per the reports published by the Ministry of Finance recently the overseas borrowings by the Corporates and currency fluctuation
has gone up by which of the following percentage points? About—
(A) 1%(B) 2%(C) 3%(D) 4%(E) 5%
Ans : (C)

25. The Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India is planning to set up an autonomous "ATM corporation of India" in which various
banks can get together for common ATM operations. If this happens how will we all be benefited by the same?
(1) It will be a cost effective measure as each bank can share its operational cost with others.
(2) Clients can withdrawn money from any ATM from any location. They are not required to go to their banks' ATM only.
(3) It will indirectly help the IT business also as India has a large pool of IT skilled manpower waiting for suitable placement.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Both 1 & 2(D) All 1, 2 & 3(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. As per the news published in various newspapers the Govt. of India has decided to create a Strategic Reserve of—
(A) Oil & Petroleum(B) Rasoi Gas(C) Food grains(D) Cement & Steel(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. The Govt. of India had constituted a high level committee on financial sector reforms with Raghuram G.Rajan as its Chairman.
Which of the following is / are the recommendations of the committee?
(1) Liberalize the interest rate that banks/institution can charge to ensure credit for poors.
(2) Create an office of the Ombudsman exclusively for financial sector.
(3) Do not allow foreign investors in domestic stock markets.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 1 & 2(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

28. Yves Leterme has taken over as the prime minister of—
(A) Newzealand(B) Belgium(C) Croatia(D) Portugal(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. The State Bank of India recently opened its 10000th branch in Puduvayal (Tamil Nadu). Only a bank in China has more branches
than State Bank of India in the world. What is the name of that Chinese bank?
(A) Shanghai Commercial Bank(B) Bank of China(C) China Banking Corporation(D) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China(E) None
of these
Ans : (D)

30. Many a times we read about 'Globalization' and its impact on business practice in India. Which of the following is NOT one of the
important parameters of 'Globalization'?
(1) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations.
(2) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place.
(3) Promoting local industry to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be
reserved only for exports.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 2(C) Only 3(D) All 1,2 & 3(E) Both 2 & 3
Ans : (D)

31. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter 'C' in the term 'CBS'?
(A) Core(B) Credit(C) Continuous(D) Complete(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. As per news published in newspapers the Oil & Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) has purchased some oil assets in Latin American
Countries along with one other major company of India . What is the name of that company?
(A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation(B) Indian Oil Corporation(C) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(D) National Mineral Development Corporation of India(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. India's First centre to monitor climate change was opened recently at—
(A) New Delhi(B) Chennai(C) Jaipur(D) Bangalore(E) Kolkata
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of Non-Performing Assets in banking
system?
(A) SARFAESI ACT.(B) Banking Regulation Act.(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act.(D) Industrial Dispute Act.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. The————shows all the websites and pages that you have visited over a period of time.
(A) status bar(B) task bar(C) history list(D) tool bar(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

36. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?

(A) To provide security against unauthorized users(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access(D) To provide TCP/IP(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. A repair for a known software bug,usually available at no charge on the internet, is called a(n)—
(A) version(B) Patch(C) Tutorial(D) FAQ(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. In the URL http://www.prenhall.com, the portion lebelled http is the—

(A) host(B) domain name(C) protocol(D) top-level domain(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Which of the following organizations has recently given a US$ 600 million loan to Power Grid Corporation of India,a Govt. run
organization?
(A) Asian Development Bank(B) World Bank(C) International Monetary Fund(D) Bank of America(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

40. The ability to easily add additional users meAns : that a network is—
(A) Scalable(B) dedicated(C) Decentralized(D) Secure(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. In a database, a field is a—

(A) lable(B) table of information(C) group of related records(D) category of information(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—

(A) resolution(B) colour depth(C) refresh rate(D) viewing size(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. Wor processing , spreadsheet , and phoyo-editing are example of—

(A) application software(B) system software(C) operating system software(D) platform software(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a—
(A) repeater(B) router(C) gateway(D) switch(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. A————is approximately a million bytes.

(A) gigabyte(B) kilobyte(C) megabyte(D) terabyte(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

46. The time it takes a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to CPU is known as—
(A) clock speed(B) a processing cycle(C) CPU speed(D) access time(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

47. ——————controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means : by which users are interact with the
computer.
(A) The platform(B) The operating system(C) Application software(D) The motherboard(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. ——————meAns : that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable.
(A) Data redundancy(B) Data integrity(C) Data reliability(D) Data consistency(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. A(n) —————— is aprivate corporate network,used exclusively by company employees.

(A) Internet(B) local area network(C) peer-to-peer(D) intranet(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following?

(A) Manages file operations and is shared on a network(B) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC
(C) Acts as fat client and is shared on a network(D) Acts as fat client and is limited to one PC(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Quick Revision Notes on Computer Awareness

(For Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank, Dena Bank, Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India etc.)
Questions on Computer Awareness have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the
Bank exams we present to you the revision notes on Computer Awareness.

1. The earlier computers, which were massive in size, were based on vacuum tubes.
2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC, were actually meant to assist the armed forces.
3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch cards.
4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which pioneered 'stored program', was made possible with the help of the mathematician John von
Neumann.
5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly owned by universities and research labs.
6. The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson.
7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert & Mauchly.
8. The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC.
9. IBM was provided software for PCs by Microsoft.
10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated with mainframe computers.
11. The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors.
12. The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel.
13. The term 'micro' (extremely small) denotes 10-6m.
14. The Harvard student, who chose to write computer programs and dropped studies was Bill Gates.
15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors.
16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers.
17. Binary digits are briefed as bit.
18. A collection of bits is called byte.
19. C++, is a computer language.
20. The process of eliminating programming faults is called debugging.
21. Starting up on operating system is called booting.
22. A program used to browse the web is called browser.
23. An error in software designing which can even cause a computer to crash is called bug.
24. Click and double-click are achieved using the mouse.
25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are computer programming languages.
26. The device which sends computer data using a phone line is called MODEM.
27. 'Worm' and 'virus' are actually programs.
28. A 'file' is a unit of information.
29. A megabyte has 106(million) bytes.
30. A small, single-site network is called LAN.
31. A processor that collects several data and sends them over a single line is called bridge.
32. 'Nano' stands for one billionth part.
33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit code is 2n.
34. The part of a computer that works with the data/programs is called CPU.
35. To convert a binary number to a decimal, we have to express it in power of 2.
36. www stands for world wide web.
37. Mathematics employed in computers is called Boolean algebra.
38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte.
39. The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II.
40. 'PARAM' is a supercomputer.
41. A website containing periodic posts is called blog.
42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is temporarily stored in the clipboard.
43. http stands for hyper text transfer protocol.
44. The unwanted or non-requested emails are called "spam".
45. A computer framed to give various network services is called server.

1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait(B) Iran(C) Iraq(D) Lebanon(E) None of these

2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to
investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa
was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy(B) Germany(C) Spain(D) France(E) None of these

5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld(B) Business India(C) Economic Times(D) Business Standard(E) None of these

6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
(A) Physics(B) Economics(C) Chemistry(D) Literature(E) None of these

]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain(B) Sri Lanka(C) China(D) France(E) USA

8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—

(A) 5 permanent members including India and China(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category

9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh(B) Punjab(C) Gujarat(D) Haryana(E) Jammu & Kashmir

10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following
games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting(B) Archery(C) Power lifting(D) 400 mt. Race(E) None of these

11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?

(A) Infosys(B) Wipro(C) NIIT(D) Rolex(E) All are IT/Software Companies

12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?

(A) NPA(B) NAV(C) Liquidity(D) NAFTA(E) IPO

13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
(1) Sri Lanka(2) South Africa(3) Australia
(A) Only (1)(B) Only (2)(C) Only (1) and (2)(D) Only (3)(E) (1), (2) and (3) all

14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—

(A) Italy(B) France(C) Germany(D) China(E) Russia

15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
(A) South Korea(B) India(C) China(D) Pakistan(E) None of these

16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to
Information Act ?(A) Sam Pitroda(B) M. S. Swaminathan(C) Rakesh Mohan(D) Wajahat Habibullah(E) None of these

17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—

(A) Dhaka(B) Kathmandu(C) Islamabad(D) New Delhi(E) None of these

18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great
astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
(A) China(B) India(C) South Korea(D) Singapore(E) None of these

20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—

(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh(E) None of these

21. What is India’s position in terms of the number of Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd(B) 4th(C) 5th(D) 10th(E) None of these

22. Which of the following countries had emerged as World’s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures available upto April 2005)
(A) India(B) USA(C) Japan(D) China(E) None of these

23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented in rural areas which provides an assured employment of 100 days to a willing
youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)(E) None of these

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Doctor Zhivago’ ?
(A) Maxim Gorky(B) Boris Pasternak(C) Aldous Huxley(D) George Eliot(E) None of these
25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar(B) Lata Mangeshkar(C) Amitabh Bachchan(D) Prof. Amartya Sen(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief Justice of—
(A) Allahabad High Court(B) Mumbai High Court(C) Delhi High Court(D) Kolkata High Court(E) Supreme Court of India

27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Government Service(B) Community Leadership(C) Journalism(D) Public Service(E) Music

28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, is a citizen of—
(A) China(B) Britain(C) USA(D) Russia(E) Canada

29. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC ?

(A) Bhutan(B) Maldives(C) Sri Lanka(D) Surinam(E) All are members

30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Chess(B) Golf(C) Snooker(D) Badminton(E) None of these

31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System(D) Issuing new currency
notes/coins(E) Rationalization of Import Duties

32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in—

(A) Vienna(B) Geneva(C) New York(D) Nebraska(E) None of these

33. ‘Kyat’ is the monetary unit of—

(A) North Korea(B) Israel(C) Indonesia(D) Mongolia(E) Myanmar

34. Which of the following is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?

(A) Purchase Price and Power(B) Producer Price and Power(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity(E) None of these

35. Which of the following universities of North-East states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur(B) Shilong(C) Guwahati(D) Mizoram(E) None of these

36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?

(A) Australia(B) Canada(C) Japan(D) France(E) USA

37. ‘Quartz’, which is used in ornaments or in industries, is a crystal containing—

(A) Silicon Dioxide(B) Platinum Dioxide(C) Silver Chloride(D) Fluoro Carbon(E) None of these

38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost(B) Sewage Sludge(C) Cow dung(D) Urea(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?

(A) Push in(B) Scissor Kick(C) Hook(D) Smash(E) Dribble

40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous—

(A) Painter(B) Classical singer(C) Author(D) Politician(E) Social Worker

41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance related term ?

(A) Current Account(B) Pay Order(C) Par Value(D) Short Position(E) Infringement

42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman(B) Tansen Samman(C) Vyas Samman(D) Borlaugh Award(E) None of these

43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh(B) Himachal Pradesh(C) Karnataka(D) Kerala(E) West Bengal

44. The study of the origin of universe is known as—

(A) Cosmology(B) Chronology(C) Geology(D) Orography(E) None of these

45. ‘Radcliffe Line’ divides the borders of—

(A) India-China(B) China-Russia(C) Russia-Afghanistan(D) Pakistan-Afghanistan(E) India-Pakistan

46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi Arabia ?

(A) Taka(B) Rial(C) Baht(D) Ruble(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire(B) The Transparent Mind(C) A Brief History of Time(D) Indian Modernity(E) None of these

48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25 basis points. The present rate is—
(A) 4%(B) 4•25%(C) 5%(D) 5•25%(E) 6•00%

49. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tiger Reserve’ in India ?

(A) Sunderbans(B) Kaziranga(C) Sariska(D) Kanha(E) None of these

50. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games/sports ?

(A) Football(B) Hockey(C) Badminton(D) Cricket(E) None of these

Answers with Hints

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B) The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and
Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25.
(C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer’s use is restricted like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic sources—conventional / FYM, Compost
etc. and non-conventional organic sources like sewage, Municipal Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid(B) Liquid in a liquid(C) Liquid in a gas(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—

(A) 0.1 to 1.5(B) 1.5 to 3.0(C) 3.0 to 4.0(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?

(A) Copper(B) Nickel(C) Silver(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%(B) 65%(C) 67%(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?

(A) Novak Djokovic(B) Roger Federer(C) Rafael Nadal(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji(B) Dadabhai Naoroji(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—

(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—

(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits(C) Data that the computer fails to handle(D) A
special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—

(A) 5500 km(B) 6500 km(C) 7500 km(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir(B) Maharashtra(C) Karnataka(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—

(A) Delhi(B) Lakshadweep(C) Chandigarh(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)(B) Sadar (Delhi)(C) Kolkata North West(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?

(A) Vikram Seth(B) James Patterson(C) Ved Mehta(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?

(A) Fibrinogen(B) Heparin(C) Thrombin(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25
warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea
17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen(B) Kirit S. Parikh(C) Raj Krishna(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field
—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi(B) London(C) Now York(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan(B) Indonesia(C) Russia(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag(B) Anil Kumble(C) Irfan Pathan(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—

(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and
Tajikistan(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte
hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies(B) Wipro(C) HCL Infosystems(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position)
in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro(B) Reliance(C) Indian Oil Corporation(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—

(A) Shri Anupam Kher(B) Shri Gulzar(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide(B) Methane(C) Carbon dioxide(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?

(A) David Ricardo(B) John Stuart Mill(C) Thomas Malthus(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the
number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million(B) 8 million(C) 11 million(D) 13 million

30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—

(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill(B) Finance Bill(C) Supplementary Bill(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?

(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines(B) Welfare economics(C) Indian economy(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?

(A) Computer chips(B) Potato chips(C) Textile garments(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—

(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—

(A) Cost-push inflation(B) Demand-pull inflation(C) Disinflation(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?

(A) Milk and Sugar(B) Sugar and Tea(C) Tea and Coffee(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note(B) Taking loan from Government(C) Issue of securities(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965(B) 1970(C) 1975(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—

(A) Four types(B) Two types(C) Five types(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—

(A) Total revolution(B) Non-cooperation(C) Upliftment of all(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government(B) Morarji Desai Government(C) Narasimha Rao Government(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—

(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town(B) Durban(C) Johannesburg(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States(B) The capital city(C) Four or more States(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I(B) Part III(C) Part IV(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2(B) 3(C) 5(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?

(A) Bangladesh(B) Bhutan(C) Maldives(D) Myanmar

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—

(A) Original jurisdictions(B) Advisory jurisdictions(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru(B) Mahatma Gandhi(C) Dr. Ansari(D) Motilal Nehru

53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive
examination ?
(A) William Bentinck(B) Dalhousie(C) Mayo(D) Ripon

54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905(B) 1907(C) 1909(D) 1911

55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I(B) William Bentinck(C) Hastings(D) Auckland

56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—

(A) Mongols(B) Afghans(C) Turks(D) A Jat tribe

57. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by—

(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati(B) Swami Vivekananda(C) Keshav Chandra Sen(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded
the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913(B) 1914(C) 1915(D) 1916
59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935(B) 1919(C) 1892(D) 1862

60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu(B) Sucheta Kripalani(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur(D) Annie Besant

61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—

(A) Pratiharas(B) Rashtrakutas(C) Palas(D) Chalukyas

62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj(B) Brahmo Samaj(C) Arya Samaj(D) Rama Krishna Mission

63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—

(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals(B) Wells(C) Tubewells(D) Tanks

65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam(B) Gujarat(C) Off-shore Bombay High(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia(B) Brazil and Russia(C) Australia and U.S.A.(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

68. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to—

(A) Wildlife preservation(B) Forest conservation(C) Scientific agriculture(D) Deforestation

69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?

(A) Cauvery(B) Krishna(C) Narmada(D) Ganga

70. Baltora glacier is located in—

(A) Karakoram ranges(B) Pamir plateau(C) Shivalik(D) Alps

71. The largest producer of world’s mica is—

(A) U.S.A.(B) U.K.(C) Canada(D) India

72. The International Date Line is the—

(A) 180° Longitude(B) 88½° East Longitude(C) Equator(D) 0° Longitude

73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China(B) U.S.A.(C) Canada(D) India

74. Aryabhata was launched from—

(A) Sriharikota(B) Mahe(C) Chandipur(D) Daman

75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km(B) 220 km(C) 320 km(D) 420 km

76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?

(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise(B) Owl, Loris, Crow(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—

(A) Kidney(B) Liver(C) Pancreas(D) Thyroid

78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs(B) Weakened germs(C) Live antibodies(D) Activated germs

79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—

(A) Rickets(B) Scurvy(C) Beri-beri(D) Anaemia

80. Which is the national flower of India ?

(A) Rose(B) Lotus(C) Lily(D) Sunflower

81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—

(A) D. S. Paintal(B) C. N. Barnard(C) D. Shetty(D) P. K. Sen

82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—

(A) Aedes(B) Anopheles(C) House-fly(D) Culex

83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?

(A) Carbon dioxide(B) Chloro fluorocarbon(C) Carbon monoxide(D) Freon

84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—

(A) Troposphere(B) Exosphere(C) Ionosphere(D) Strato sphere

85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—

(A) A(B) C(C) D(D) E

86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—

(A) 60° C for 10 minutes(B) 63° C for 20 minutes(C) 63° C for 30 minutes(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner(b) Watson(c) Landsteiner(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping2. Penicillin3. Vaccination4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

88. Which of the following is most elastic ?

(A) Rubber(B) Wet clay(C) Steel(D) Plastic

89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo(B) Magellan(C) Newton(D) Challenger

90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—

(A) Yellow(B) Blue(C) Green(D) Violet

91. Comets revolve around the—

(A) Earth(B) Venus(C) Sun(D) Jupiter

92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction(B) Buoyancy of air(C) Turbulance caused by wind(D) Bernoulli’s theorem

94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—

(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents(D) To minimise power consumption

95. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is—

(A) Sodium chloride(B) Sodium nitrate(C) Ammonium chloride(D) Calcium chloride

96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—

(A) Petrol(B) Kerosene(C) Water(D) Pyridine

97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—

(A) Iron(B) Magnesium(C) Zinc(D) Cobalt

98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—

(A) Helium(B) Neon(C) Argon(D) Krypton

99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?

(A) Potassium(B) Magnesium(C) Aluminium(D) Beryllium

100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—

(A) 0(B) 31 – 66(C) 40(D) 80

Answers with Explanations

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64.8%.5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)30. (A) 31. (B)32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union
organisation in India to organise workers in the country.33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19,
1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)100. (A)

NEXT :-
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in
bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and
platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As
a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own.
The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored
and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates,
covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me
anything !”

His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”

“You’ll get it when you go far away.”

“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?

(A) He was restless by nature (B) He did not want to stay at home (C) He was rich and could afford to travel(D) His job was such that
he had to travel(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home(D) His job prevented him from taking leave(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?

1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None (B) Only 1(C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2(C) Both 1 and 3 (D) Only 3(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?

(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?

(A) She taught him the value of patience(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want
to burden the servants(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.

48. Left
(A) Gone (B) Quit(C) Remaining (D) Disappeared(E) Forgot

49. Packed
(A) Filled (B) Squeezed(C) Crowd (D) Collected(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly (B) Happily(C) Willingly (D) Fortunately(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following
sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’
mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—

(A) Every loan(B) Each one of the loan(C) Any of the loan(D) All of the loan(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at (B) Taken after(C) Being taken in (D) Taken up at(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked (B) having asked about(C) was asked that (D) is asking(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering(B) Consideration of(C) Considering(D) Being considerate to(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—

(A) That known when(B) Who knows how(C) Which knows how(D) Knowing what(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1) (B) (2)(C) (3) (D) (4)(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6) (B) (5)(C) (4) (D) (3)(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1) (B) (2)(C) (3) (D) (4)(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1) (B) (2)(C) (3) (D) (4)(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1) (B) (2)(C) (3) (D) (4)(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B),
(C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find
out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are
correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a
salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with
his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …
(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has
benefited me greatly.

71. (A) forward (B) towards(C) backward (D) up(E) around

72. (A) went (B) sent(C) visited (D) travelled(E) gone
73. (A) cared (B) occupy(C) guarded (D) taught(E) played
74. (A) them (B) whom(C) this (D) now(E) which
75. (A) expensive (B) deserving(C) helping (D) demanding(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity(B) ability(C) use(D) encouragement(E) achievement
77. (A) distance (B) extent(C) time (D) limits(E) degrees
78. (A) activity (B) hope(C) hobby (D) duty(E) worship
79. (A) despite (B) though(C) by (D) instead of(E) while
80. (A) sell (B) read(C) exchange (D) invest(E) buy

Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.52. (E)53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’
to ‘Most’.54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D)
65. (B)66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have
been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In the Indian scenario there are various prestigious scholarships that are available for the meritorious. Apart from the scholarship you
can start off with, immediately after your school education, i.e., the NTSE (National Talent Search Examinations), there are further
scholarships for higher studies in various categories.

The Ministry of Human Resource Development has several schemes whereby it funds students for their education within the country
and abroad. Besides, the ministry also offers scholarships and fellowships to those trying to pursue a career in the fine arts, such as
music, dance, theatre, painting and sculpture. Information regarding these regularly appear in the Employment News and National and
regional dailies.

Various opportunities are available for those students who want to build their careers in academics. The ICHR (Indian Council of
Historical Research) the ICPR (Indian Council of Philosophical Research), and the ICSSR (Indian Council of Social Science Research)
award scholarships and fellowships to those interested in higher studies in the fields of History, Philosophy and inter-disciplinary areas.

One thing of seminal importance is the choice of subject. It is not important whether you get umpteen (many) degrees and file them
away or you go to the choicest University to feel alienated from what you are doing. To judge this there are various tests like the
aptitude test that some Universities abroad conduct. At the end of the test, you are sure about what you want to study and whether you
are suited for it. A good number of career consultants is available and they can guide you in the right directions. Apart from personal
directions some of these also hold workshops. The Institute of Career studies at Delhi is amongst the pioneers in this field. After you get
enrolled with it, you are provided with ample information about all Universities all-over the world and it also keeps you updated with
minute details.

Along with the subject, selecting the University too is vital, since it determines future prospects. However for most, selection also
involves other considerations, such as the socio-political, cultural and intellectual climate prevalent in that country and of course, the
monetary considerations involved for the student who undertakes the course fully or partially on his own cost.

Talking of cost, shared scholarships are available with British Universities, which are funded by the foreign and commonwealth offices.
The scheme operates with four British Universities—Cambridge, Oxford, Leicester and the London School of Economics and Political
Science. Other Universities likely to participate are Durham, Wales, Warwick and the Imperial College of Science, Technology and
Medicine. The scholarships cover tuition fees and maintenance costs. However, the scholars have to pay for airfares. The normal
method of application for candidates is to state, at the time of applying to the University of their choice, to be considered for one of
these shared scholarships.

1. What is available to most intelligent students in Indian context ?

(A) Offers of higher jobs (B) Various prestigious scholarships (C) Admission opportunities in various good Universities
(D) Fellowships (E) None of these

2. What for does the abbreviation NTSE stand ?

(A) No Tuition Service Exists(B) National Tutorial Survey Estimates(C) National Talent Search Examination
(D) National Total Service Examination(E) No Test in Social Employment

3. As per passage, for what does the Ministry of Human Resource Development provide scholarships to students ?
1. For their education within country and abroad.2. For fine arts that is music, dance, theatre, painting and sculpture.
3. For C.A., M.B.A. and mechanical training.
(A) Both 1 and 3 (B) Both 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) None of these

4. Which of the following does not award or provide scholarships and fellowships to those who are interested in higher studies in the
fields of History and Philosophy and inter-disciplinary areas ?
(A) Indian Council of Historical Research (B) Indian Council of Rural Higher Education(C) Indian Council of Philosophical Research
(D) Indian Council of Social-Science Research (E) None of these

5. According to author, why do foreign Universities conduct various tests like the aptitude test ?
1. To see the choice of subject. 2. To judge the number of degrees one has.
3. Whether the student is interested in the University or not.
(A) Both 1 and 3 (B) Both 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 (D) All three 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

6. Which of the following is one of the best guides in the field of career studies selection ?
(A) Institute of Social Sciences Ambedkar University, Agra (B) Career and courses agencies (C) The Institute of Career Studies at Delhi
(D) A.M.U. Aligarh(E) None of these

7. According to the passage, which of the following is not true ?

(A) There are further scholarships for higher studies in various categories (B) One thing of primary importance is the selection of subject
(C) The scholarships cover tuition fees and maintenance costs (D) The Employment News does not publish information regarding these
scholarships(E) None of these

8. What does the Institute of Career-Studies at Delhi do after you get enrolled with it ?
(A) It assures a good job on good package (B) It bears your all responsibilities (C) You are provided with sufficient information about all
Universities all-over the world; it also keeps you updated with minute details (D) It administers strict discipline over the students to bring
them on line(E) None of these

9. Which of the following founded shared scholarships are available with British Universities ?
(A) Founded by British and India Government (B) By U.S.A. and U.K. (C) By the foreign and commonwealth offices
(D) Founded by U.A.R. and U.K. (E) Founded by Britain and Pakistan

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

10. Meritorious (A) Wire (B) Deserving (C) Diligent (D) Intelligent (E) Ranker
11. Resource (A) Source (B) Skill (C) Stock (D) Means (E) Way
12. Consultants (A) Friendly (B) Guide (C) Informer (D) Adviser (E) Counsellors

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

13. Personal (A) General (B) Impersonal (C) Public (D) Common (E) Joint
14. Foreign (A) Aboriginal (B) Connected (C) Native (D) Local (E) Inborn
15. Normal (A) Special (B) Insane (C) Contrary (D) Abnormal (E) Unnatural

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in
bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is
required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Her face buries itself on his rough shirt and he could feel the fragrance of her hair and the warmth of her as she sobbed against
his breast—
(A) sinking itself in his rough shirt (B) buried itself in his rough shirt (C) dipped itself in his rough shirt (D) sank itself in his rough shirt
(E) No correction required

17. ‘Allah’, he said, rising his face towards the star-spangled black sky, “punish me as much as you like-Mahesh died with thirst on
his lips.”
(A) raised his face towards the star-spangled black sky (B) had raised his face towards the star-spangled black sky
(C) rose his face towards the star spangled black sky (D) raising his face towards the star-spangled black sky
(E) No correction required

18. All of us carried plenty of food and sweets with us and we served the little fortunate human beings with our own hands—
(A) The lesser fortunate human beings (B) The less fortunate human beings C) The least fortunate human beings
(D) The unfortunate human beings (E) No correction required

19. Once again, the Indian tradition of ‘ahimsa’ comes out as infinitely most relevant, than much of what we learn in modern
education.
(A) The most relevant, than much of what we learn (B) More relevance what we learn (C) More relevant than much of what we learn
(D) No relevance in what we learn (E) No correction required
20. When it was decided to send the rescue team in the colliery, the experts showed their reluctance.
(A) into the colliery (B) inside the colliery (C) under the colliery (D) underneath the colliery (E) No correction required

21. Everything comes in the State Law and Order Restoration Council (SLORC), which was started with the intention of restoring
law and order.
(A) about the State Law and order Restoration Council (B) under the State Law and order Restoration Council
(C) within the State Law and order Restoration Council (D) into the State Law and order Restoration Council (E) No correction required

22. The whole atmosphere was sweetly dominated with the fascinating perfume and soft western music.
(A) from a fascinating perfume and…(B) of a fascinating perfume and…(C) by a fascinating perfume and…(D) nearly fascinating
perfume and…(E) No correction required

23. Power to expression has the ability to overcome, neutralise, change or strengthen the transient impression formed on others by
one’s initial facial appearance.
(A) Power into expression(B) Power about expression(C) Power for expression(D) Power of expression(E) No correction required

24. They (girls from middle class) become shy, withdrawn and lose confidence for themselves.
(A) lose confidence to themselves (B) lose confidence in themselves(C) lose confidence of themselves(D) lose confidence about
themselves(E) No correction required

25. One must remember that meteorological weather systems do not respect some geographic boundaries and can move from one
place to another and affect the local weather.
(A) do not respect many geographic boundaries(B) do not respect several geographic boundaries(C) do not disrespect geographic
boundaries(D) do not respect any geographic boundaries(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B),
(C) and (D). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word
which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. On the snow-covered land or frozan (A) water, the Eskimos (B) travel on-sledges dragged (C) by five, seven or nine strong dogs
called huskies. (D) All correct. (E)

27. When a complete stranger (A) offers unsolicited (B) advice, one either dismisses it outright (C) or takes up earnestly. (D) All
correct. (E)

28. I remember (A) reading somewhere, a field-biologist’s (B) estimate, that a colony of a thousand painted storcks (C) requires (D)
fifteen to twenty tons of food per day. All correct. (E)

29. The public was so much familiar (A) with Robichon that the audience (B) used to laugh (C) before he uttered (D) the first word of
his role. All correct. (E)

30. It is necessary (A) to have a scientific mind to be truly religious (B) because only with a scientific (C) mind can one be a truely
(D) cultured man capable of creating a new good world. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of
words denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the
same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

31. An engineering college requires a lot of…… and it is available in …… in this area.
(A) room…… abundance (B) things……ample(C) land……plenty(D) plots…… sufficient(E) pieces……number

32. A young lady, who was standing at a…… got trapped in a valley of bullets and was killed…… the spot.
(A) step…… in(B) scooter…… of(C) place…… upon(D) counter…… on(E) corner…… near

33. However, activity based……that makes learning a joy needs more time…… per topic.
(A) training……fixing(B) education……allotment(C) teaching……schedule(D) educating……taking(E) schooling……giving

34. At present, there are about four lac…… in Japan who survived the…… of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
(A) women……accident(B) men……incident(C) workers……trouble(D) employees……terror(E) persons……tragedy

35. We can …… a good world by keeping a truly scientific mind which……precise, clear and unprejudiced.
(A) create……is(B) generate……was(C) originate……are(D) maintain……were(E) keep……is

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. Five different kinds of rice are cooked in as many different colours, and from each of these, in a symbolic gesture.
2. They are then decorated and the rice preparations made the previous day are offered to them.
3. The third day of the festival is called the Mathu Pongal or the Pongal of the Cattle.
4. A rice ball is made and fed to five types of birds and animals.
5. In the morning, the animals are herded into the village pool and bathed.
6. This is also a time when the sister prays for the longevity and happiness of her brother.

36. Which of the following will be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

37. Which of the following will be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

38. Which of the following will be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

39. Which of the following will be the fourth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

40. Which of the following will be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.

What this approach lacks is the essential interaction with …(41)… and with other humans. Indeed in many environmental activities the
…(42)… takes place. A classic example of this is making of a herbarium or even worse, an insect …(43)…, so common in both formal
and nonformal education in India. A child is …(44)… encouraged to pluck leaves and …(45)… and run after butterflies with a net and is
…(46)… of a large group of children similarly working a …(47)… of nature within it. Such a child is not likely to develop any strong …
(48)… of respect for nature, or for the individual ‘specimens’ pressed in the …(49)… file or trapped in a jar. It is worse when the activity
is also competitive, i.e., who …(50)… the maximum.

41. (A) habit(B) tradition(C) practice(D) custom(E) nature

42. (A) antonym(B) against(C) enemy(D) opposite(E) opponent
43. (A) gathering(B) compilation(C) collection(D) assembly(E) bulk
44. (A) oft(B) often(C) frequently(D) mostly(E) many
45. (A) flowers(B) petals(C) buds(D) blossoms(E) delight
46. (A) division(B) segment(C) particle(D) portion(E) part
47. (A) piece(B) thatch(C) plot(D) patch(E) spot
48. (A) thinking(B) experiencing(C) feeling(D) knowing(E) viewing
49. (A) sapling(B) plant(C) creeper(D) nursery(E) tree
50. (A) collects(B) meets(C) piles(D) gathers(E) assembles

Answers with Hints

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)11. (D) 12. (E) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20.
(A)21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (D)26. (A) Frozan—Frozen27. (E)28. (C) Storcks—Storks29. (A) Familir—Familiar 30. (D) Truely—
Truly 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (E) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (A)
46. (E) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed
in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian
economies expanded at an average annual rate of 8•1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia
averaged only about 3•5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May, the average inflation rate throughout the region
reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11•6% annual rate in June, according to the
latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.

Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get inflation under control. But these same
measures suppress the investment and consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring inflation
makes economic policy-making tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal
gains. Inflation is cruel to the poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on necessities. In the
Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water buffaloes to plough their fields.

But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician
who doesn’t deliver the goods. So they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the process.
Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for their large populations. With prices soaring, doing
nothing is not an option. Most central banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its
benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8•5%.

The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin. Prices are being driven higher by a global
surge in oil and food prices, which individual governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia. World
Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made ‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in
overcoming poverty over the past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international front, so Asian
governments are on their own.
Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming months, no one is expecting an economic calamity.
According to the Asian Development Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and so are
far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have
learned their lessons and are more alert.

1. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from 2003- 2007 ?
1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.
(A) All 1, 2, and 3 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) None of these

2. Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries ?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.
2. Checks on lending. 3. Subsidising fuel for farmers. (A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 2 and 3 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these

3. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ?

(A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank
(B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
(C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries
(D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis (E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation

4. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies ?
1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.
2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.
(A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 3(C) Both 1 and 2(D) Only 2(E) None of these

5. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ?

(A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing antiinflation measures
(B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office
(C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off on its own
(D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively
(E) None of these

6. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ?

(A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential goods
(B) Politicians may be voted out of power(C) Economic growth rate remains constant
(D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices(E) None of these

7. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ?

(A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries(B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens(D) To create employment opportunities for citizens(E) None of these

8. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ?

(A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all(B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified
(C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions(D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring co-operation among
them(E) None of these

9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?

1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt.
2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation.3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation.
(A) None(B) Only 1(C) Only 2(D) Both 2 and 3(E) All 1, 2 and 3

10. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently(B) High population growth(C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide
(D) Reckless competition with China(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. stirs(A) trembles (B) moves(C) mixes (D) inspires(E) agitates

12. scale(A) descent (B) climb(C) hindrance (D) cut(E) measure

13. origin(A) ancestry(B) source(C) inauguration(D) down(E) heritage

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. turbulent(A) quiet (B) rest(C) soothes (D) stormy(E) lawful

15. gains(A) decreases (B) fails(C) deprives (D) frauds(E) losses

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following
sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’,
mark (E) as the answer.

16. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical music.
(A) will make children aware(B) is to make children aware(C) is making aware children(D) awareness of children(E) No correction
required

17. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early at the station.
(A) but later for(B) and been late to(C) after being late(D) and being late for(E) No correction required

18. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare subjects.
(A) rarely to subjects(B) of rare subject(C) with rarest of subject(D) in subjects rarely(E) No correction required

19. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped with the latest facilities.
(A) in the opening ceremony(B) which the ceremony will open(C) where the opening ceremony
(D) that the opening ceremony(E) No correction required

20. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.

(A) There has been(B) It has been(C) There is being(D) It may have been(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been
denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same
sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an international finance centre.
(A) constituted, convert(B) appointed, oversee(C) converged, evaluate(D) inducted, change(E) inaugurated, determine

22. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has………….. solicited foreign investment.
(A) importance, never(B) proposal, forcibly(C) objective, wanted(D) view, discretely(E) need, actively

23. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the world into the…………..of financial inclusion.
(A) represent, sphere(B) target, area(C) bring, realm(D) engage, achievement(E) convince, era

24. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays, he…………..cannot support his family.
(A) sufficient, however(B) lot, besides(C) much, thus(D) plenty, still(E) frequency, yet

25. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented at grass root level.
(A) relying, ensure(B) improving, secure(C) advocating, confirm(D) debating, necessitate(E) focusing, display

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris.
2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500 kilometre long cycling race.
6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed.

26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4(E) 5

28. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4(E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4(E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 5(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)

31. On account of the week (A) / long strike the factory (B) / was forced to close and (C) / next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No
error. (E)

32. Since the US economy experiences (A) / a recession many Asian countries (B) / are likely to have (C) / reduced growth rates this
year. (D) No error. (E)
33. Oil is now so expensive that (A) / India will have to cut subsidies (B) / instead face running out (C) / of funds to import oil. (D) No
error. (E)

34. It is unlikely that you will (A) / find a more qualified and experience (B) / candidate than Mr. Prasad (C) / for the post of President.
(D) No error. (E)

35. On account of the rising (A) / costs many people are (B) / finding it difficult (C) / to feed their families. (D) No error. (E)

36. By marketing agriculture (A) / products well, we (B) / can ensure that (C) / farmers make a good profit. (D) No error. (E)

37. The promotion means (A) /that you may be (B) / post in Chennai (C) / from next month. (D) No error. (E)

38. This project is (A) / too big to (B) / undertake successfully at (C) / such short of notice. (D) No error. (E)

39. When our company was (A) / faced financial difficulties (B) / the training budget was (C) / the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E)

40. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from
extinction. (D) No error. (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.

In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(41)… his ninetieth birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in
1999, but he has remained …(42)…, continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has launched an
Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(43)… Mandela’s prison number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …
(44)… was to promote leadership among young Africans.

During the 1990s, …(45)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long Walk to Freedom”, I …(46)… his leadership first
hand. During his election campaign we were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(47)… to landing the engine
failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(48)… them was looking at Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a
passenger on a morning train to work. The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(49)… to me, “I
was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others and this gave him the strength to …(50)… over his own
fear.

41. (A) tribute (B) remember(C) honour (D) celebrate(E) rejoice

42. (A) resigned(B) active(C) influenced(D) participant(E) reserved
43. (A) by (B) with(C) after (D) as(E) thereafter
44. (A) wish (B) pursuit(C) result (D) plot(E) aim
45. (A) when (B) that(C) period (D) later(E) alongside
46. (A) felt(B) acquainted(C) experienced(D) underwent(E) learned
47. (A) before (B) sooner(C) close (D) prior(E) advance
48. (A) calmed(B) soothing(C) composed(D) restraint(E) discipline
49. (A) speaks(B) confided(C) confidentially(D) entrusted(E) assured
50. (A) success (B) overcame(C) dominate (D) victory(E) triumph

Answers :1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E)16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (E)
19. (C) 20. (A)21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (E)31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (E)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (E)41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (A)46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (E)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold
to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master used to happily recall, “One day when I went into
the woods to pluck flowers, I found this baby under a pipal tree.” He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she was his
daughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word.

The music master grew old and didn't see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many people including young men travelled from far
and wide to hear her sing. This made the music master's heart quake with fear. “You will choose one of them as your husband. What is
to become of me ?” The girl replied, “I shall not be apart from you.” But on a full moon night during the harvest festival, the master's
chief disciple touched his feet reverently and said, “Master grant me your permission for your daughter has agreed to marry me.” The
master's tears flowed freely, “She has chosen well. Go and fetch her, let me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will sing
together.” The two began to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger. “Your daughter is very
fortunate-the king has sent for her,” the messenger said. At the palace the Queen summoned the girl to her and said, ”I place upon you
the honour of making sure my daughter is never unhappy at her husband's home.” There wasn't a single tear in the girl's eyes but she
thought of the master and her heart was heavy.

That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess's royal chariot led the procession and the girl's palanquin
followed close behind carrying trunks of silks, jewellry and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on both
sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarsen stood still by the wayside. A collective sigh escaped the crowd
gathered there wishing that the princess wouldn't feel homesick in her faraway home.
1. Which of the following can be said about the girl ?
(1) She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby.
(2) She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.
(3) She was only allowed to sing with the master's permission.
(A) Only (1) (B) Both (1) and (2) (C) Only (2)(D) All (1), (2) and (3)(E) None of these

2. What was the girl's reaction to leaving home ?

(A) She was honoured to be serving the princess(B) Sadness at leaving the master.(C) She entrusted the task of looking after the music
master to Kumarasen(D) She was thrilled to be living in luxury(E) None of these

3. What task was entrusted to the girl by the Queen ?

(A) Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely(B) Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj
(C) Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy(D) Ensuring the princess' happiness(E) None of these

4. What was the master's reaction to the girl's decision to marry his disciple ?
(A) He was upset and cried(B) He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together
(C) He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away(D) He was pleased with her choice of husband
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(1) The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married.
(2) The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer.(3) The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music.
(A) Only (1)(B) Both (1) and (2)(C) All (1), (2) and (3)(D) Both (1) and (3)(E) None of these

6. Why was the princess going on a journey ?

(1) She was going to her prospective husband's home to get engaged.
(2) Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen.
(3) To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her parents.
(A) None(B) Only (2)(C) Only (1)(D) Both (1) and (2)(E) Both (2) and (3)

7. Why was the master afraid ?

(A) He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly(B) He would be all alone after the girl's marriage
(C) The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home(D) He was slowly going blind.(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 8–9) Choose the word which is MOST NEARLY the SAME in MEANING as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.

68. fortunate(A) rich(B) liked(C) happy(D) successful(E) lucky

9. raised(A) nurtured(B) lifted(C) grew(D) built(E) high

10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word Collective as used in the passage—
(A) alone(B) separately(C) united(D) partial(E) single

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

11. In present the (A)/ prices of food grains (B)/ are high all (C)/ over the world. (D) No error (E)
12. Majority of the banks (A)/ today uses technology (B)/ to reach out to those (C)/living in rural areas. (D) No error (E)
13. I will give (A)/ you the advance (B)/ if you repay it as (C)/ soon as possibly. (D) No error (E)
14. Though he is very (A)/ wealthy and powerful (B)/ he has any (C)/ concern for the poor. (D) No error (E)
15. Mala has the (A)/ ability t o handle (B)/ many tasks at (C)/ the same time. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrases given in bold in the
following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is
required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice—
(A) came across(B) is come upto(C) came to(D) comes with(E) No correction required

17. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote—
(A) has been of(B) being over(C) who is having over(D) who is been(E) No correction required

18. The magazine that we subscribe to is published monthly—

(A) which is subscribed(B) we are subscribed(C) whom we subscribe(D) whichever we subscribe(E) No correction required

19. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty—
(A) All of his(B) Some of the(C) Only of his(D) One of his(E) No correction required

20. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank—

(A) have deposits in(B) had deposited(C) with deposits(D) have deposited(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The sailor was told it was placed there as warning signal to sailors to warn them of the danger.
(2) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship.
(3) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline.
(4) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very rock.
(5) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock.
(6) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)(B) (2)(C) (3)(D) (4)(E) (5)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)(B) (2)(C) (3)(D) (4)(E) (5)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)(B) (2)(C) (3)(D) (4)(E) (5)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)(B) (2)(C) (3)(D) (4)(E) (5)

25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)(B) (2)(C) (3)(D) (4)(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A),
(B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold
are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. We have incurred (A) an expense (B) of over fifty thousands (C) this year alone. (D) All correct (E)
27. World Earth Day is celeberated (A) as a means (B) to make people aware (C) about the environment. (D) All correct (E)

28. The key issue (A) discused (B) at the meeting was how to resolve (C) the food crisis. (D) All correct (E)
29. He deserves (A) some recognition (B) for working diligently (C) for the passed (D) five years. All correct (E)
30. There are many employment (A) opportunities (B) for fresh graduates (C) in the market (D) today. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.

I had …(31)… to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this. First, I took very …(32)… part in professional
associations. I …(33)… the National President of the Indian Society for Training and Development–one of the …(34)… organizations for
HR professionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My communication skills …(35)…. It also taught me …(36)… to conduct
meetings in an effective manner. My job …(37)… me to different parts of the country and I …(38)… believe that …(39)… provided me
with an education. I also wrote a lot. Newspaper editors often approached me with …(40)… to write articles for their publications.

31. (A) achieved(B) aim(C) try(D) dreamed(E) wanted

32. (A) selected(B) active(C) interesting(D) often(E) joint
33. (A) elected(B) voted(C) became(D) applied(E) decided
34. (A) respected(B) status(C) impressed(D) aged(E) common
35. (A) lacked(B) grown(C) learnt(D) improved(E) earned
36. (A) that(B) why(C) how(D) never(E) anyhow
37. (A) saw(B) showed(C) posted(D) discovered(E) took
38. (A) quiet(B) firmly(C) strong(D) first(E) not
39. (A) travelling(B) journey(C) visit(D) migrating(E) shift
40. (A) wish(B) offer(C) appointments(D) requests(E) commands

Answers with Explanations

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (B)6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B) 10. (A)11. (A) Write ‘At’ in place of ‘In’.12. (B) Write ‘use’.
13. (D) Write ‘possible’.14. (C) Write ‘no’ in place of ‘any’.15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (E) 19. (D)20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (D)
25. (B)26. (C) Write change ‘thousands’ to ‘thousand’.27. (A) Write ‘celebrated’.28. (B) Write ‘discussed’.29. (D) Write ‘past’.
30. (E) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (A)40. (D)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold
to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only
when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence.
Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms
and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of
economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.

Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low
income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not
under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food,
water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last
phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.

However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is
a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has
restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict
countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former
soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement
these measures almost immediately.

1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts(E) None of these

2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel

3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?

(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank (D) Providing economic oppor-tunities(E) None of these

4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?

(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid

5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?

(A) Long term studies should be commissioned(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country

6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?

(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers(D) Price of equipment is low(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
7. exist(A) live (B) fit(C) create (D) occur(E) survive
8. squander(A) lavish (B) spend(C) displace (D) lose(E) misuse

Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile(A) weak (B) lasting(C) long (D) strong(E) unstable
10. deficient(A) surplus (B) valued(C) short (D) secure(E) repaired

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—

A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.

B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.

11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?

(A) A (B) B(C) C (D) E(E) F

12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?

(A) A (B) B(C) C (D) D(E) E

13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?

(A) A (B) B(C) C (D) D(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A (B) B(C) C (D) D(E) E

15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?

(A) A (B) B(C) C (D) E(E) F

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully com-plete.

16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge (B) prompt(C) enforce (D) deploy(E) make

17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.

(A) assume (B) deny(C) object (D) rely(E) conscious

18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize(B) demonstrated(C) compiled(D) pursued(E) launched

19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.
(A) blessing(B) involvement(C) pursuit(D) dedication(E) command

20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed (B) eliminated(C) finished (D) magnified(E) considered

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick
out the option which represents that pair.

21. 1. moderate 2. easy3. significant 4. strenuous

(A) 2–4 (B) 1–2(C) 1–3 (D) 2–3(E) 3–4

22. 1. focus 2. trivial3. vital 4. site

(A) 1–2 (B) 2–4(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4(E) 2–3

23. 1. defer 2. dispute3. prefer 4. challenge

(A) 2–3 (B) 1–3(C) 2–1 (D) 2–4(E) 3–4

24. 1. consequence2. potential3. influence4. ability

(A) 4–3 (B) 2–4(C) 2–3 (D) 1–3(E) 4–1

25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose3. praise 4. distrust

(A) 1–2 (B) 2–3(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4(E) 2–4

Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.

Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in
the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)…
their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently
thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …
(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As
a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.

26. (A) minor(B) trivial(C) unachievable(D) irrelevant(E) salient

27. (A) process(B) policy(C) development(D) guideline(E) procedures
28. (A) expected (B) sheer(C) rough (D) steep(E) gentle
29. (A) assessment(B) evaluation(C) competence(D) fees(E) value
30. (A) flood (B) class(C) party (D) mob(E) rabble
31. (A) mislaid (B) lost(C) increase (D) found(E) establish
32. (A) slowly (B) hastily(C) deeply (D) waiting(E) out
33. (A) suitable (B) remain(C) study (D) live(E) place
34. (A) frequency(B) occurrence(C) event(D) chance(E) blocking
35. (A) fever (B) outshine(C) lean (D) dwarfed(E) horribly

Answers
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (E) 07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20.
(B)21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (E)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are
printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and
precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade for his subjects. On his way
back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet
hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only
companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what
they are playing.”

The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They
said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi.”
The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will
lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.

The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The King commanded, “Cane them hard.”
The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naive, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.”
The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of
Kanchi.” He went back to his camp.

That evening the Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and
vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been saved.” The priest said, “The goddess has
blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I
cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely
continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”

1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a sign of victory
(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(E) None of these

2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(C) To show other devotees that he was king(D) The priest requested him to do so
(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple

3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?

1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.
3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.
(A) Both 1 and 3(B) Only 1(C) Both 1 and 2(D) All 1, 2 and 3(E) None of these

4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?

(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(C) They were upset that their army had lost(D) They were in the habit of lying(E) None of these

5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.
(A) Only 1(B) Both 1 and 2(C) Only 3(D) Both 2 and 3(E) None of these

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple

7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?

(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh(E) None of these

8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?

1. He was jealous of the jester.2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.3. He did not have a good sense of humour.
(A) Only 1(B) Only 3(C) Both 1 and 3(D) Both 1 and 2(E) None of these

9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?
1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(A) Only 1(B) All 1, 2 and 3(C) Both 1 and 2(D) Only 2(E) None of these

10. Why was the king angry with the children ?

(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous(B) They had lied to him(C) They did not recognize him as king
(D) They had unknowingly insulted him(E) They were rude to him

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.

11. froze(A) cold(B) numb(C) shivered(D) stood still(E) chill

12. leave(A) holiday(B) transfer(C) exit(D) permission(E) farewell
13. spied(A) noticed(B) keep watch(C) followed(D) spot(E) caught

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. immersed in(A) safe from(B) distracted from(C) boring(D) drowning in(E) entertained by
15. pardon(A) punishment(B) excuse(C) convict(D) intolerance(E) imprison

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following
sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

(A) is dependable(B) depends on(C) being dependent(D) going to depend(E) No correction required

17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of(B) was feared to(C) was afraid to(D) had been afraid to(E) No correction required

18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.
(A) any of the place convenient(B) at places convenient(C) from a place of convenience(D) to a place convenient(E) No correction
required

19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of(B) as sharp a rise(C) sharp rises in(D) sharply rising(E) No correction required

20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit(B) required for submission(C) are required to submit(D) requirement of submitting(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the
lady who cleans your floor ?
2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet them.”
3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
5. I have never forgotten this lesson.
6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.

21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 6(E) 5

23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The
letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.

26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization. All correct (E)
27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All correct (E)
28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the long run. All correct (E)
29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)
30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)

31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error
(E)

32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)
33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)
34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No error (E)
35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)
36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)
37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss. (D) No error (E)
38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)
39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No error (E)
40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing management. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below
the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he …(41)… the company’s
growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to
everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was …(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic
in nature, by the time the plant was …(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich …(47)…
when the plant was commissioned.

Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar
example at the Asian Institute of
Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It
is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.

41. (A) achieved(B) implemented(C) visualised(D) persevered(E) aimed

42. (A) moved(B) shifts(C) missed(D) changes(E) lost
43. (A) Contrary(B) Opposite(C) Yet(D) Obedient(E) Different
44. (A) any(B) mean(C) short(D) no(E) less

45. (A) known(B) calculating(C) certain(D) dreamt(E) surely

46. (A) operational(B) install(C) use(D) produced(E) new
47. (A) supply(B) diversity(C) rewards(D) pay(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought(B) tried(C) wished(D) encourage(E) wanted
49. (A) expand(B) function(C) chose(D) run(E) risk
50. (A) responsibility(B) secret(C) guarantee(D) prize(E) value

Answers with Hints

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E)6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)26. (A) Correct spelling is ‘goal’.27. (C) Correct spelling is ‘cause’.28. (D) Correct spelling is
‘dividends’.29. (E) 30. (B)31. (A) Write ‘the government’s revised’.32. (B) Write ‘which of the’.33. (C) Write ‘the government is
organizing’.34. (C) Write ‘without obtaining’.35. (D) Write ‘efficient managerial staff’.36. (C) Change ‘very easily’ to ‘more easily’.
37. (C) Write ‘even though it would’.38. (C) Write ‘each in place of ‘all’.39. (D) Write ‘necessarily true’.40. (B) Delete ‘my’.
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B)46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)