1. For every relationship, there are six possible referential integrity actions. A. True Answer: Option A B.

False

2.Scalar aggregate are multiple values returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

3. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that: A. A B. C. A (B,C). Answer: Option A B. A C. D. (B,C) A.

4. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies are called: A. normal forms. B. referential integrity constraints. C. functional dependencies. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

5. A primary key is a composite key that was selected to be the main identifier for the relation. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

6. The use of the double NOT EXISTS can be used to find rows that do not match some specified condition. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

7. The lost update problem is when User A reads data that have been processed by a portion of a transaction from User B. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

8. Some advantages of the database approach include all, but: A. minimal data redundancy. B. improved data consistency. C. improved data sharing. D. program-data dependency. Answer: Option D

9. User views are included as part of which schema? A. Internal C. External Answer: Option C B. Conceptual D. None of the above.

10. A conceptual schema is usually depicted in graphical format using E-R or object-modeling notations. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

11. A pointer is a detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

12. Mirrored databases are almost always provided in high-availability systems. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

13. Composition is a stronger form of which of the following? A. Aggregation C. Inheritance Answer: Option A B. Encapsulation D. All of the above.

14. Database objects are almost always transient. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

15. A pointer is a detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

16. Which of the following situation requires the use of ID-dependent entities? A. Association relationships only

B. Multivalued attributes only C. Archetype/instance relationships only D. All of the above use ID dependent entities Answer: Option D

17. Cascading updates refers to child rows being automatically deleted when a parent row is deleted. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

18. The ODBC core API consists of which of the following functions? A. Commit or rollback transactions only B. Connect to data sources with driver-specific information only C. Connect to data sources only D. Both 1 and 3 above are in the OBDC core API. Answer: Option D

19. An OLE DB interface is specified by a set of objects and the properties and methods that they expose. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

20. What standard, protocol or language was generalized to become a standard protocol for sending messages of any type, using any protocol? A. SOAP C. SQL Answer: Option A B. SGML D. ADO

21. A shared database should: A. be accurate and available. C. be secure. Answer: Option D B. provide for backup and recovery. D. All of the above.

22. Database management systems were first introduced in the 1950s. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

23. The primary mechanism for providing context for data is metadata. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

24. The three-schema components include all, but: A. internal schema. C. programming schema. Answer: Option C B. conceptual schema. D. external schema.

25. When mapping a supertype/subtype relationship which of the following is true? A. The supertype primary key is assigned to each subtype. B. The subtype primary key is assigned to each supertype. C. There is no link between the supertype/subtype entities. D. There is no primary key/foreign key relationship between a supertype/subtype. Answer: Option A

26. A server-side extension is needed to do what? A. Allow a request from a client to access the database. B. Allow a request from a client to access a HTML-formatted page. C. Allow a request from a client to access Web pages. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

27. Which of the following is true concerning the standard network protocol for connecting a client to a Web or database server via the Internet? A. Both TCP and IP are needed. B. TCP is needed but IP is not needed. C. TCP is not needed but IP is needed. D. Neither TCP and IP are needed. Answer: Option A

28. An attribute's value is always literal. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

29. When a business rule involves three or more graphical symbols, you can show the constraint as a note and attach the note to each of the symbols by a dashed line. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

30. Specialization is which of the following processes? A. Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and forming supertype/subtype

relationships. B. Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and forming supertype/subtype relationships. C. Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships. D. Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships. Answer: Option A

31. Poor data administration can lead to which of the following? A. A single definition of the same data entity B. Familiarity with existing data C. Missing data elements D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

32. Which type of SQL Server cursor concurrency places an update lock on a row when the row is read? A. READ_ONLY B. SCROLL_LOCK C. OPTIMISTIC D. READ COMMITTED Answer: Option D

33. Relationships cannot have attributes. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

34. Authorization tables contain highly sensitive data and should be protected by stringent security rules. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

35. Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database? A. Database analysts C. Both A and B. Answer: Option A B. Database administrators D. Neither A or B.

36. When a foreign key column is created without a corresponding foreign key constraint, we have created a "casual relationship" between the two tables. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

37. A reason for using an SQL view to hide columns is: A. to simplify a result only. B. to prevent the display of sensitive data only. C. to accomplish both of the above. D. None of the above are reasons for using an SQL view. Answer: Option C

38. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, accessing the validity of possible referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is (part of) the: A. first step. C. third step. B. second step. D. fourth step.

Answer: Option C

39. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the general-purpose remarks column problem? A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row. B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column. C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column. D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 19781988" in a column. Answer: Option D

40. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement: A. can only be used with two tables. B. can always be duplicated by a join. C. has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join. D. cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY. Answer: Option C

41. The SQL keyword(s) ________ is used with wildcards. A. LIKE only C. NOT IN only Answer: Option A B. IN only D. IN and NOT IN

42. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________ qualifier specified must be included. A. ONLY B. UNIQUE

C. DISTINCT Answer: Option C

D. SINGLE

43. SQL query and modification commands make up a(n) ________ . A. DDL C. HTML Answer: Option B B. DML D. XML

44. Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other entity called a discriminator? A. Supertype entity C. Archetype entity Answer: Option B B. Subtype entity D. Instance entity

45. Which of the following is an SQL trigger supported by Oracle? A. BEFORE C. AFTER Answer: Option D B. INSTEAD OF D. All of the above.

46. The SQL statement used to create a view is CREATE VIEW. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

47. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a: A. dependency graph. C. graphical display. B. data model. D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option A

48. Money is defined in Oracle with the Currency data type. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

49. Oracle, the world's most popular DBMS, is powerful and robust, is able to run on many different operating systems. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

50. Legacy data is which of the following? A. Data contained in a newly-installed system B. Data rejected during the installation of a new system C. Data contained in a file system D. Data contained by a system used prior to the installation of a new system Answer: Option D

51. Which of the following is true for a relational database? A. Data is represented by tables. B. It is difficult to access data. C. Complex programs have to be written for simple queries. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

52. If an entity adheres to the disjoint rule, then an entity instance can be a member of more than one entity for a given supertype.

A. True Answer: Option B

B. False

53. Hashing algorithm converts a primary key value into a record address. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

54. It is usually not very important to design the physical database to minimize the time required by users to interact with the information systems. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

55. ROLLBACK WORK is to ask SQL to empty the log file. A. True Answer: Option A B. False

56. Activities of a DBMS occur in the processing component logic. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

57. The extract process is which of the following? A. Capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems B. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems C. Capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems D. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems Answer: Option B

58. Which of the following is valid SQL for an Index? A. CREATE INDEX ID; C. ADD INDEX ID; Answer: Option A B. CHANGE INDEX ID; D. REMOVE INDEX ID;

59. Each entity is represented as a(n): A. tuple. C. attribute. B. table. D. file.

60. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first: A. clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only. B. test any changes on a test database only. C. create a complete backup of the operational database only. D. All of the above should be done. Answer: Option D

61. Changing cardinalities in a database is: A. a common database design task. B. a rare database design task, but does occur. C. a database design task that never occurs. D. is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it. Answer: Option A 62. A cursor type in which the application can only move forward through

the recordset is called: A. forward only. C. keyset. Answer: Option A B. static. D. dynamic.

63. In ODBC, a data source that is local to a single computer is called a: A. system data source. C. user data source. Answer: Option A B. file data source. D. SQL text file.

64. The data warehouse DBMS needs to be the same DBMS used for the operational database. A. True Answer: Option B B. False

65. Which of the following conditions should exist if you want to convert a relationship to an associative entity? A. Some of the relationships for the participating entities are "many". B. The resulting associative entity has an independent meaning. C. The resulting associative entity has no attributes. D. All of the above Answer: Option B

66. Performance analysis and tuning is which of the following? A. Undertaken one time at the time of a DBMS installation B. Undertaken one time at the time of the implementation of a new application C. Undertaken as an ongoing part of the backup of a database

D. Undertaken as an ongoing part of managing a database Answer: Option D