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2893. regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that. A.

all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system B . the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable conditions\ C . peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps D .all of the above Ans. B 2894. Regulations require the emergency bilge system to.. A. be independent of the main bilge system B. be a part of the independent bilge system C. have an independent priming pump D. have a cross connection to ballast system Ans.A 2895. Referring to regulations the emergency bilge system A. has no independent primary pump B. is independent of the main bilge system C. have a cross connection to ballast system D. is part of the independent bilge system Ans. B

2896. A compound gage is typically installed on the

A. suction side of a bilge pump B. exhaust manifold of an auxillary diesel C. discharge line from air compressor D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator Ans. A 2897. If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating,the A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped out C. aftermost bilge wells connected to that valve will siphon their contents to the forward bilge wells D. all of the above Ans. B 2898. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the. A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped out C. bilge well connected to that valve will siphonats contents to the forward bilge wells D. all of the above Ans. B

2899. The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well due to the bilge well suction being folded. With two feet of water over the top of the bilge well, which of the following actions should be carried out? A send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps D. transfer half the content of the drum of degreaser into the bilge well and pump out the bilge well with the system Ans. B 2900. When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the engine room bilges, you would..I use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime II partially open the sea suction valve then gradually switch over to the require A I only B II only C either I or II D neither I nor II Ans.C 2901.Bilge lines led through tanks , without using a pipe tunnel must be --------A of schedule 40 pipe B C D fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds coated with coal tar epoxy or similar corrosion resistant substance fitted with non return valves at the bilge suction Ans.D

2902. which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for overboard discharge A 100 ppm oily water separator B assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and assigning it to the bilge over board C D 15 ppm oily water separator a magnetic duplex strainer

Ans.C 2903.the bilge system has been performing well however the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out.which of the fOllowing should be done first to determine the cost A open the bilge pump for inspection B C remove each of the manifold valves remove only the manifold valves to be affected bilge well

D attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected Ans.D 2904. you are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well That is fouled with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well. What action should be carried out? A. send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps

D it is only the necessary transfer half the condense of a drum of degreaser Into the bilge well Ans .B 2905. the aft starboard bilge well is clogged,and backflushing has not been successful. The next practical solution would be to.. A change the trim of the ship to the portion order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage B place 75.7 ltrs(20 gallons) of fuel oil tank washin to the affected bilge well to clear the blockage C properly and safely empty the well with the portable pump then manually muck it out D all of the above Ans .C

Sanitary and sewage system

2906. the process of grinding, shredding ,or reducing the size of sewage particles known as .. A detension B maceration C bulking D chlorinating Ans .B

2907. In sewage treatment the term maceration refers to the process of. A breaking up solid matter into fine particles B precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank C chemically adjusting the sewage Ph to 7.0 D eliminating bacterium coil from the sewage Ans A 2908. A p-type trap and drain is used A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable B whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the deck C whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the bulkhead D as a condensate drain for a superheaters Ans. C 2909.the drains of the lavatory sinks are fitted with p-type or s-type traps is .. A reduce water velocity and minimizes erosion B create a strong siphon effect C provide a cushion of the water to reduce the effects of water hammer D provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment Ans.D

2910 A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by..

A holding all sewage onboard B treating sewage in an approved system C pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container D all of the above Ans. D 2911. a pneumatic pressure tank is installed ina sanitary system to .. A reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump B prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction C provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver D increase water flow through the system Ans.A

2912 The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by A allowing the escape of flammable vapors B dissipating the heat of a fire C absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity D preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank Ans. B

2913.the process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles known as A detention B comminution C bulking D skimming Ans.B

2914 A s-type trap and drain is used.. A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable B whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the deck C whenever the gray drain system connection is located in the bulkhead D as a condensate drain for a superheaters Ans. B 2915.traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent .. A drain noises in the living quarters B drains clogging at the toilets C air pockets in the sewer lines D escape of odours into the living quarters Ans.D

2916 Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent A system clogging

B escape of odors C air pockets D drain noises Ans. B HEAT EXCHANGERS

2917 Machinery operating features are designed to help conserve energy. which of the following results will not contribute energy conservation? A reduction of friction B insulation of hot surfaces C lubrication of moving parts D elevation of cooler outlet temperatures Ans. D 2918.the temperature differential occring between the inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled medium in a shell-and tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the flow designs listed? A crosis B parallel C counter D circular Ans.C

2919 The general purpose of heat exchanger is to. A eliminate hot air from the condenser B maintain steady pressure in a system C heat or cool one fluid by means of another fluid D reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates Ans. C 2920.the presence of scale and dirt on the salt water side of a tube oil cooler is usually indicated by A clogged lube oil strainers B seawater leaking into the lube oil system C decreasing lube oil pressure D gradually increasing lube oil pressure Ans.D.

2921 when a heat exchanger is used as a cooler excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent A erosive tube failure B waterside deposit buildup C tube sheet bowing D water hammer damage Ans. A

2922.zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to A inhibit oxidation B control electrolysis C prevent scaling D eliminate corrosion Ans .B 2923. In a heat exchanger excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent.. A erosive tube failure B waterside deposit buildup C tube sheet bowing D water hammer damage Ans. A 2924. sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of the heat exchangers to A B keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation ofmarine growth

C provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces D reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals Ans.D 2925 The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to

A. prevent leekage past the floating end tube sheet B. dissipate heat C. baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass D. modify to a mixer type cooler Ans: A 2926 When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should A. reroll the tube B. seal weld the tube C. plug the tube D. all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair until permanent repairs may be conducted Ans: C 2927 Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for A. start-up and scaling B. unusual high demand on the system C. increase capacity during times of peak demand D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency

Ans: A 2928 Which copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?
A. B. C. D. Red brass Manganese bronze Copper beryllium Cupro-nickel

Ans: D 2929 Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from A. high temperature B. waterside fouling C. excessive cooling water facility D. poor heat transfer Ans: C 2930
A. B. C. D.

The zinc plates are located in the

Saltwater side of the conductor Refrigerant side of the condenser Evaporator coils Suction strainer

Ans: A 2931
A. B. C. D.

Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system

Liquid strainer Liquid receiver Saltwater condenser Evaporator

Ans: C

2932 In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon
A. B. C. D. The temperature of the hydraulic fluid The flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid The temperature of the cooling water All of the above

Ans: D 2933 when performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use
A. B. C. D. Fresh water at or above the ambient temperature Circulated cold fresh water , while maintaining normal unit operating pressures Air and a soap solution to test all joints Phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source

Ans: A 2934 The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will
A. B. C. D. Remain constant along the tubes length Be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger Remain constant throughout the heat exchanger Vary from section throughout the heat exchanger

Ans: D 2935 Which of the following statement is correct concerning heat transfer?

A. Heat is given from a high temperature region known as heat sink B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat source and

heat sink D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance

Ans: C 2936 An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lubeoil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that
A. B. C. D. The valve will remain completely open The valve will prevent back flow The valve will never permit water flow from the lube-oil cooler The valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10F (5.5 C) cooler than if the valve were properly installed

Ans: C 2937 Which of the following condition must exist for heat too flow from one object to another?
A. B. C. D. The two object must be in physical contact The two object must be the same size There must be an existing temperature differential There must be an existing weight differential

Ans: C 2938 Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be provided for by the

A. B. C. D.

Packing and latern rings Floating end tube sheet Shell foundation bolts Directional transverse baffles

Ans: B

2939 In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of decreased performance is

A. B. C. D.

Loose tube bundle baffle plates Failure of the baffle plate Rupture of the tube bundle Fouling on the seawater side

Ans: D 2940 Evaporators and condensers are two forms of

A. B. C. D. Heat exchangers Liquid receivers Storage receptacles Flow inhibitors

Ans: A 2941 When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system condenser, you should
A. B. C. D. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion Renew the plates at each inspection Replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% File the plates to change the negative value

Ans: C 2942 In the heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower than freshwater pressure to
A. B. C. D. Eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side Reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces Ease the load on the service pump Prevent contamination should leaks develop

Ans: D

2943 Which of the statements is true concerning a radiator type heat exchanger?
A. B. C. D. Raw water is the cooling medium Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the highest finned tube Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium

Ans: D 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and abrasion by the use of
A. B. C. D. Metallic packing on the inlet end Fiber bushings in the ferrules Zinc pencils on the waterside Plastic tube end protectors

Ans: D


A. B. C. D.

The tendency of the flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its

Ignition temperature Flash point Flammable range Convection index

Ans: B 2946 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between flashpoint and ignition temperature?
A. B. C. D. Both are higher than normal tempetrature The flashpoint is always higher The ignition temperature is always higher They are not necessarily

Ans: C

2947 The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent Of any outside source of ignition is called
A. B. C. D. Explosive range Flash point Ignition temperature Combustion temperature

Ans. Convection index 2948 In order to maximize the performance of an operating centrifuge, youcan adjust the fuel oil.. 1 viscosity 11 through put
A. B. C. D. 1 only 11only Both 1 an d11 Neither 1 nor 11

Ans. C 2949 The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the

A. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to momentarily flash into flame when ignited B. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to continue to burn once ignited C. Temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization D. Temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace

Ans. A 2950 The flash point of a liquid is the..

A. The temperature at which it burns freely B. Temperature at which paraffin wax crystallizes out of the solution C. Lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an explosive air/vapor mixture D. Ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder

Ans, C

2951 The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes selfsustaining in the presence of a source of ignition is defined as the.
A. B. C. D. Auto ignition point Flash point Burning temperature Fire point

Ans. D 2952 The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the
A. B. C. D. Auto ignition temperature Vaporization temperature Flash point Fire point

Ans. D 2953 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between viscosity and specific gravity ?
A. B. C. D. Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific gravity Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific gravity Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not define or limit the other

Ans. D 2954 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it_______
A. B. C. D. Is an indication of the amount of non combustible material present in the fuel Indicates the quantity of energy released by during a unit amount of the fuel Is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system

Ans. A

2955 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it .. A. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of fuel B. is useful for determining the atomization temperature C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in the oil Ans: D 2956 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flash point of a liquid?
A. B. C. D. It is lower than the ignition temperature It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite It is the temperature at which a substance when ignited will continue to burn It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range

Ans: A 2957 The lowest temperature at which the fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to momentarily flash into Flame when ignited is defined as the
A. B. C. D. Burning temperature Ignition temperature Fire point Flash point

Ans: D 2958 the tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its

A. fire point B. pour point

C. flash point D. boiling point

Ans: C 2959 the lowest temperature at which fuel oil give off sufficient vapor to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the
A. burning temperature B. auto ignition temperature

2960 the size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a disk purifier is dependent upon the
A. rated capacity of the purifier B. viscosity of the oil being purified

C. maximum design speed of that purified D. specific gravity of the oil being purified 2961. the percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined By A. setting in a fuel tank B. testing in a laboratory centrifuge C. burning in a calorimeter D. testing in a closed cup Ans: B 2962.The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors B. at which point will burn steadily C. at which a liquid will explode D. that a liquid must reach before it flow readily Ans: A 2963. in order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge. you can adjust the 1. Number of disks in the stack . frequency shooting the bowl A.1 only B. only C. both 1 and D. neither 1 or Ans :D 2964. The temperature, in degrees celsius at which a liquid gives gives off a flammable vapor when heated in an cup tester is called the

A. Fire point B. Flash point C. vaporization temperature D. ignition temperature Ans: B 2965. the substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is A. sulphur B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen Ans: D 2966. the flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its A. viscosity B. pour point C. volatility D. lower explosive limit Ans: C 2967.what is the harmful of sulfur in a fuel ? A. it causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing points B. it doesnt readily burn when combined with oxygen C. it clogs fuel oil strainers more often D. it forms a corrosive acid when mixed water and vapor Ans: D 2968. the volatility of any oil may be indicated by A. the flash point B. the fire point C. the autogenous lunation point D. all of the above Ans : D 2969. in the duty of chief engineer to acquire the seal of sample fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be prevented until A. the voyage is completed B. that particular supply of oil exhausted C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personal for testing and the results entered in the oil record CG-480 D. return to the first point where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and findings submitted to the nearest officer in charge, marine inspection Ans: B

Marine control systems and instrumentation

2970 . the controller set point of an automatic control system is 65 c the value closes when the out put 0 0 temperature reaches 70 c , and reopens when the temperature falls below 60 the type of positioning action in this controller is known as A. one position single point B. two position single point C. one-position single point D. two- position single point

Ans: D 2971. in a pneumatic automation system a unit producing a single to govern the position of the controller of the measured variable relative to the value of measured variable is said to have A. reset action B. proportional value C. two position action

D. rate action Ans: B 2972.If the loading air pressure for diaphragm controlled value drops below the designed operating pressure , the value will A. fail to stroke open B. stroke slowly through its operating range C. stroke rapidly closed D. fail to stroke through its complete range Ans : D 2973. Every automated machinery plant must have an engineers assistance alarm . power for this alarm should be taken from the A. main bus B. emergency bus C. stand by generator D. general alarm power supply Ans:D 2974. the effect of reset when added proportional controller is to A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the input change takes in place B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of hunting C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the deviation of controlled variable from the set point
D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled return to the set point Ans: D 2975 which of the following statements express the function of proportional - plus reset action?

A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element B. The action gives control without set off under all load conditions C. The action combines proportional position action and rate action D. The action is very unstable for any thing but constant load condition
Ans :B 2976. one disadvantage of proportional position is that A. Corrective action is only proportional to off set B. Exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load C. The controlled variable is stabilized D .The corrective action is only proportional to deviation Ans :D 2977. filters are installed ahead of air line lubrication for the primary purpose of removing A. the heat is compression b. air supply pressure pulses C. moisture in the air supply D. turbuience in the air supply Ans: c 2978. the cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air compressors is an example of which mode control? A. two positions

B. derivative C. integral D. single speed floating 2979. which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station? A. moisture separator B. vacuum breaker C. lubricator D. nonreturn yalue Ans: A 2980. reset control is also referred to as A. proportional speed floating control B. derivate control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans : A 2981. reset control is also referred to as A. proportional speed floating control B. derivate control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans : A 2982. the quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the A. controlled variable B. manipulated point c. set point D. control point 2983. a computing relay is used pneumatic control system to A. extract square roots B. square C. divide D. all the above Ans: D 2984. The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same a 1. Proportional speed floating control derivate control A. 1 only B. Only C. Both and only D. Neither 1 nor Ans :A 2985. a mode control ,whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the derivation of controlled variable from set point , is called A. B. C. D. Rate control Derivate control Two position control Integral control

Ans : D 2986. which of the following definition can be used to define the term offset as a characteristic of controller action ? A. the period of time in which the set point and the control point coincide B. the periodic change between the set point and control point C. the variable difference between the set point and control point

D. constant difference between the set point and the control point Ans: D 2987. which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action ? A. the ratio of the out put in response to a specified change to the out which caused it B. The state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of control D. The time difference between the input change and the output change of the controller Ans: D 2988.Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? A. Prevent formation of a vacuum B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking D. To assist in emigrating the dead weight tester Ans: C 2989. A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that A. the form of the input and output energies must be same B. the ratio of the out put to the input must always greater than the numerical value of one C. the form of the input and output energies must be different D. the action must be either integral or derivative Ans : A 2990. the control mode which the final control element is moved from one of fixed position to other is known as A. dead and action B. neutral and action C. range D. on off action Ans: D 2991. a control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the speed at which the control variable is changing is known as A. reset action B. integral action C . derivative action D.Proportional action
Ans :C

the form of the input and output energies must bethe form of the input and output energies must bethe form of the input and output energies must be

A. B. C. D.

Evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status Evaluate a series of reading to obtain operating trends. Monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions. Ans : B Any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference Atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point Gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure A perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point Ans : D

A. B. C. D.

2996. A. B. C. D.

If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original amount, the _______________ pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a propotional amount. speed of the actuator will be reduced. Speed of the actuator will be increased. The actuator will move erratically. Ans : B The characteristic offset is inherent with which mode of control ? (1) proportional control (2) reset control (1) only (2) only Both (1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans : A The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the ________ . (1) form of the input and output energy must be the Same , (2) ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater than 1 (one). (1) only (2) only Both (1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans : A To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer bulb is often protected by a well or casing. In addition to Protecting the element, the well will also _____________ Cause consistently higher than actual readings Cause consistently lower than actual readings Require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium with the system being measured Increase the sensitivity of the element Ans: C reset control is considered to be the same as _____________. (1) proportional speed floating control (2) integral control (1) only (2) only Both(1) and (2) Neither (1) nor (2) Ans:C A mechanical and /or hydraulic action preventing the over-correction of the supply, while producing transient speed drop is called_____________


A. B. C. D.


A. B. C. D.


A. B. C. D.

3000. A. B. C. D.


A. stability B. hunting C. compensation D. sensitivity Ans:C 3002. A. B. C. D. What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic controller operates to maintain Set point Control point Deviation Offset Ans : B At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located ? Fuel oil service pump discharge flange Fuel oil strainer Fuel oil heater Fuel oil flow meter Ans : B Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a ___________ Diaphragm type gage Pressure transducer Manometer All of the above Ans : D In order to accurately measure very low pressure, which of the instruments listed should be used ? Compound gage Bourdon tube Manometer Deadweight gage Ans : C A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________ Relative humidity Air pressure Liquid levels in tanks Liquid pneumercations Ans : C The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a ____________ Fluid meter Calorimeter Viscosimeter Pneumercaror Ans : D Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will ___________ cause an alarm condition secure power to the indicator

3003. A. B. C. D.

3004. A. B. C. D.

3005. A. B. C. D.

3006. A. B. C. D.

3007. A. B. C. D.


A. B.


secure power to the monitored device

D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds Ans : A 3009. which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main propulsion system ? pitch indicator low oil temperature

A. B.

C. high oil pressure D. low oil pressure Ans : B 3010. A. B. C. D. A compound bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of measuring _____________ temperature and pressure wet bulb and dry bulb temperature humidity and temperature pressure and vaccum Ans : D 3011. A. B. C. D. The instrument always used in conjuction with a salinometer pyrometer thermometer hygrometer hydrometer Ans : B 3012. A. B. C. D. The control mode that is generally not used by itself is ___________ reset control integral control derivative control two position differential gap control Ans : C 3013. A. B. C. D. a closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with __________ a fixed final control element position simple on/off control no controller feedback feedback in the controller

Ans : D

3014. A. B. C. D.

while attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column drops rapidly. This may indicates _________ a leak in the gage line free surface effect in the tank an improperly calibrated gage excess air in the balance chamber Ans : A

3015. A. B. C. D.

A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in pressure, should be repaired by _________.\ Tapping the gage housing lightly. bending the needle to free the linkage. cleaning the residue from gear teeth. greasing the hair spring. Ans : C.

3016 A. B. C. D.

A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the __________. Pnuemercator is recharged with the air supply open. Pnuemercator balance chamber bleed of orifice is blocked by the oil being measured. Pressure in the system is allowed to equalize. Operating cock is placed in the vent position when the system is not in use Ans : B

3017. In an automation system increasing or decreasing the loading pressure by a set amount is known as ___________ A. B. C. D. positioning proportioning biasing controlling Ans : C Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems by using ____________ air intake heaters desiccated suction strainers multi-orificed suction valves resistance- temperature type Ans : C A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below _______________ absolute pressure latent pressure flow pressure atmospheric pressure Ans : D The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the _____________ bimetallic type diaphragm type multi-orificed suction values resistance-temperature type

3018. A. B. C. D.

3019. A. B. C. D.

3020. A. B. C. D.

Ans:c 3021. A. B. C. D. Temperature measurement is an indication of the _________________________ level of heat intensity total heat of a substance flow pressure atmospheric pressure Ans:A

3022. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action___________ I opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients II aids the reset action during increasing error transients A. I only B. IIonly C. Both I andII D. Neither I nor II Ans:c 3023 Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuity with a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometer because______________ A. The driving voltage of the meter, batteries can damage the circuit meter B. The pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter C. The eactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading D. Meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently magnetize the pyrometers pointer Ans:A 3024. A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________ I adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the pointer position. A. B. C. D. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II Ans:A

3025. A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________I adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the pointer position relative to the A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans:B 3026. In checking the level of a tank , three pneumercator readings have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that __________ A. B. C. D. excessive charging air was supplied insufficient charging air has been supplied the relief value is sticking the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans:D

3027. Devices such as a pressure gage that are subject to continous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural process that _______________ A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape C. allows a resilient material to resist permanent deformation D. is directly related to a materials elastic in it Ans:B 3028. In a automation system the effect of a control action sensed by a controller is known as ______________ command input insufficient charging air has been supplied the relief value is sticking the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans:B 3029. A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate______________ A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit A. B. C. D.

B. phosphates in boiler water C. tank fluid level D. micro ohms in condensate 3030. The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain is known a ______________ A. reset point B. control point C. deviation D. off set Ans:B 3031. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding with the set point is known as _____________ A. dead band B. control point C. deviation D. offset Ans:D

3032. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as.. a. integral action b. proportional action c. rate action d. derivative action. Ans a. 3033. While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage. All readings are found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range adjustments should be made by a. increasing the sector to pivot point length b. resetting the pointer on its shaft c. decreasing the sector to picot point length d. increase the set screw length ans. B 3034. offset is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of control modes?

a. two position b. proportional c. reset d. rate ans. B 3035. the meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service refrigeration system, is an example of a. two position control b. single speed floating control c. proportional control d. reset control ans. A 3036. A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element s linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called a. reset control b. integral control c. two position control d. derivative control ans. D 3037. when a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a change of the . a. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable b. floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component

c. value representing the readjusted controlled variable d. desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium ans. B 3038. the two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are a. compressed air and nitrogen b. helium and nitrogen c. oxygen and hydrogen. D. oxygen and acetylene ans. A 3039. When reset action is added to proportional action. a. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients b. aids the reset action during increasing error transients c. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients d. reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation ans. B 3040. Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance inspections because they a. are subjected to high compressive stress b. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures c. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of the valve. d.receive high pressure air from the pilot valve

ans.c 3041. When reset action is added to proportional action. a. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients b. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing error transients c. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing error transients d. the proportional action and the reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation ans. A 3042. When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is .. a. offset b. deviation c. control point d. load point ans. C 3043. Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportionalposition action, wil eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action? a. Neutral band B. floating action

c. reciprocal d. rate action ans. B 3044. A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a a. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube b. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to fluid flow c. movable orifice plate venture tube and high pressure tap d. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism ans. A 3045. double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because.. a. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but opposing forces b. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm c. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on the diaphragm d. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes ans. A 3046. The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is a. the range spring has become weakened b. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit c. a partially restricted loading air pressure line

d. a pinhole in the power diaphragm. Ans. C 3047. A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and a. humidity b. vacuum c. temperature d. density ans. B 3048. If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot , reducing vavle, you will a. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm b. release spring tension from the diaphragm c. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve d. decrease spring tension in the main valve ans. A 3049. How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective will be reduced? a. fill the well with nitrogen b. fill the well with water c. drill small holes in the well d. pack the space around the bulb with graphite. Ans. D

3050. Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a deadweight gage tested spinning when testing a gage for proper calibration? a. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error b. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape ans. A 3051. The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or automatic indexing is known as a detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can be found in a/an. a. rheostat b. engine order telegraph c. valve handwheel d. fuel/air ratio control knob ans. D 3052. Biasing in a pneumatic automated combustioncontrol system, refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the . a. control pressure b. loading pressure c. supply pressure d. rate relay pressure ans. B 3053. If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate reading you should. a. blow out the gage lie with compressed air b. lap the gage body with a wrench . c .remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle

d. replace the gage or have it calibrated and. D 3054. The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of. a. hair b. copper c. plastic d. steel ans. A 3055. A pneumercator tank gage utilizes a. a bourdon tube indicator b. a balance chamber c. an electronic sensing line d. all the above ans. B 3056. A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by a. chemical reactor b. light striking a photo sensitive substance c. heating a junction of two dissimilar metals d. squeezing crystals of certain substances ans. C 3057. A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through. a. suction pressure at the compressor

b. an electrically energized coil c. superheat at the evaporator outlet coil d. a vacuum operated bellows ans. B 3058. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional action I and the reset action are completely independent of one another II opposes reset action during decreasing error transients a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. B 3059. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional action..I. aids the reset action during increasing error transients II and the reset action are completely independent of one another.. a. I only B. II only c. Both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. A 3060. To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading you should a. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid b. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus

c. take the reading with operating cock in the vent position d. make certain the tank has been bled of air ans. A 3061. A pneumercator measures the liqueid level in a tank by sensing.I head pressure II liquid density a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II ans. A 3062. When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, the intial reading obtained can be quickly verified by. a. repeating the process and getting the same again b. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indication paste c. a guage reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge position d. a guage reading equal to supply air pressure when the control handle is in the purge position ans. A 3063. The control mode where the position of the final control element has a liner relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as a. two position control b. proportion control c. reset control

d. rate control ans. B 3064. The range of values through which the input can be varied without initiating an output response is known as a. deviation b. offset c. sensitivity d. dead band .. ans. d 3065. The ration of output response to a specified change in the input is known as a. primary feedback b. deviation c. sensitivity d. dead band ans . c 3066. A proportional band or range adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on which it is mounted c. changing out the pointer pinion d. flattering the cross-section of bourdon tube

ans. A

3067. The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by. a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on which it is mounted c. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer d. flattening the cross section of bourdon tube ans. B 3068. Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself A. two position action B. propositional action C. Integral action D. derivation action Ans. D 3070. Which of the following elements is common to all indicating instruments A. an electrical input B. a bourdon tube C. reset button D. a calibrated scale

Ans. D 3072.Which of the following propotional band values most closely approaches on- off control? A. 0.1 B.0.02 C.1 D.5 Ans.B 3074. Increasing the reset rate of a proportional plus reset controller A. narrows the proportional band B. widens the proportional band C. repeat the proportional action more frequently D. increase the stabililty 3069. A pure transducer utilizes A. integral action B.rate action C. propotional action D. derivative action Ans. C 3071.the mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a A. 2 position control B. single speed floating control

C. proportional speed floating D. reset control Ans. A 3073. The response line installed in a pneumatic action controller functions two A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle D. re adjust the total spring force in the air control relay Ans. B 3075. The two position single point action controller has been adjusted to minimize cycling and would only be suitable for A. constant load conditions D.increase the stability of the controller Ans. C 3076. The amount of charge of a controlled variable , that is necessary to cause a specific change in the position of final control element depends upon the A. differential gap adjustment B. range of value opening C. proportional band adjustment of the controller D. form of the controlled medium Ans. C 3078. A penumercator is used to indicate fuel oil

A. pressure B. level C. temperatue D. flow Ans. B 3080. when the vessels steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned thedifference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known as A. proportional band B. the error signal C. reset signal D. feedback Ans. B 3082.a compound gage is used to measure B.intermitted load conditions C.wide temperature fluctuation D.rate action only Ans A 3077.a controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the range of values produces no motin of the final control element . this range of values is called A.nutral zone B.

C.control point D. offset Ans A 3079.a pyrometer is generally used to measure A.grains of moisture per cubic foot of air B salinity concentration of condensate C.stack temperature D.level of fluid in a tank Ans C 3081.the gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high pressure is the A.volitile liquid type B.diaphragm actuated type C.bourdon tube type D.resistance temperature type AnsC

A.temperature and pressure B.humidity and temperature C.pressure and vacuum D.pressure and humidity Ans C

3084.a primery element with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension is a A.concentric orifice B.convergent nozzles C.venturi tube D.pilot tube Ans C 3086.which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic recorder A.time graduations fan out from the center charts are more easily stored than the circular charts C.variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates Dstrip charts are more difficult to read than circular chart Ans C 3088.on tank vessels using an automatic tank wells ,free moment of the tape is normally checked by A.removing the side plate B.operating the hard clutch C.comparing with a hand tape A.adjust the tape weight 3083.any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control system will A.delay transmission of the air signal B.increase the transmitted air signal intensity

C.reduce the transmitted air signal value D.accelerate transmission of air signal Ans A 3085.restrictions occurring in the small oreifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by A.moisture in the compressed air supply B.exessive dryness in the compressed air supply C.pressure surging in the compressed air receiver D insufficient lubrication of the system component Ans A 3087.when the pressure on a compound gage is released, trhe gage pointer is returned to zero psig by action of A.bourdor tube B.spring return arm C. compound diaphragm D.compansating spring Ans B

D.using litmus paste

3090.on tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks,the hand clutch is used to

A.adjust the tape weight B.lower the thieving rod C.rollup the tape D.callibrate the tank Ans C 3092.Most solenoid valves are actuated by A.a spring electromagnet C.the force of gravity D .refrigerant pressure Ans B 3094.the vessels steering gear is a classic example of a positioned type automation system.the variable input is provided through the steering wheel and the rudder position is fed back to the operating mechanism.the difference between the input signal an A.system differential B.proportional band C.error D.command input Ans C 3096.when a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be inaccurate , adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings .

3089.with regards to fluid flow control,an advantage of pneumatic control systems over electrical control systems is A.practically no limit to the power available for a given system transmission losses C.low energy input D.continued control through temporary electrical power losses Ans D 3091.which of the following statement is correct concerning the instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for an automated main propulsion plant? A.nonvital alarms are separated from vital alarms B.provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for testing all audible and visual alarms and indicating lights C.all alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is online D.all the above Ans D 3093.the type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the A.bimetallic type B.diaphragm type C.bourdon tube type D.resistance temperature type Ans C

The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to the sector gear will be changed when the A.pointer doesnot travel the correct distance as test weight is added B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is correct,but the total reading is wrong C.reading is correct only at the working pressure. D.reading are correct only at the minimum and maximumends of scale Ans A

3095.when the pressure applied to a bourdon tube type pressure gage is reduced to atmospheric pressure,the tube will begin to bend towards the centre of arc.small variations develop preventing the tube form returning to its exact original shape due to the A.hysterisis B.compression c.homiostatious deformation D.gas eddys Ans A











3131 If high relative humidity is maintained In a cargo hold there is a significant possibility that ________ I there will be an accumulation of static electricity II. mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
A. B. C. D. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans: B 3132 The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measured through the ________
A. B. C. D. vent line depth gage manhole cover sounding tube

Ans: D 3133 regulation require that any tank ship making a voyage of over a48 hour duration must have certain tests conduceted more than 12 hour prior to leaving port meeting this requriment includes thetesting of the___________ A.means comunication between the bridge and engineroom B.tire pump relief value C.water tight door to the shaft dally D.emergency lightining system Ans: A

3134 pillar cross sections of I ,H, or circular are used construction in location where there are large expanses, void intermediate decks and bulk heads, such as in cargo holes and engine rooms .A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of ver
A. B. C. D. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15 loose practically all of its strength as a support most likely expenses shear stress failure if not reinforced immediately not poce any problem, provided there are no cracked welds connecting it to any adjoining strength members

Ans: B 3135 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portion of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. The second short the chain is painted ________ A: white on the detachable link B: red for two links on either side of the detachable link C: white for two links on either side of the detachable link D: red on the detachable link Ans: C 3136 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The first shot of chain is painted_________
A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link B. white on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link

Ans:D 3137 The tester end is the _________

A. B. C. D.

tooped end of a mooring cable end of the chain shackled to the anchor fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel

Ans:D 3138 A shot of anchor chain is equal to_______

A. B. C. D. one chain link one -90 foot segment 90 fathoms one 15 foot segment

Ans:B 3139 All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted _______
A. B. C. D. yellow white red orange

Ans:A 3140 Stanchions prevent the entire deck load from load being carried by the _______
A. B. C. D. bulkheads stringers frames and beam brackets deck longitudinals

Ans: C 3141 According to the regulations ,a B class bulkhead shall be constructed ________
A. of steel or equivalent metal construction suitably stiffened and made intact from deck to deck and to shall or other boundanes

B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relativeto the passage of flame C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour D. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour

Ans: C 3142 The material design, construction and workmanship of main and auxiliary machinery shall _______(46 CFR)
A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant systems B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the port in which the vessel is being constructed C. be atleast equivalent to the standards established by the American Bureau of Shipping or other recognized classification society D. prevent the possibility of operator injury due to inefficient construction practices and appropriate material testing procedures

Ans: C 3143 According to regulation , an A class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed________
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the passage of flame C. that if subjected to the standaard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour D. that if subjected to the standard fite test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame and smlke for one hour

Ans: D 3144 The bleeder plug , or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank is used to_______
A. indicate when the tank is pressed up B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding C. Vent air from the tank when bunkering

D. Empty the tank when in drydock

3145 in ship construction beam brackets are triangular plates joining the deck beam to a..
A. B. C. D. Bulkhead Frame Stanchion Deck longitudinal

Ans.b 3146 the duties of the chief engineer upon taking charge of the department includes
A. B. C. D. Preparing a list of engine department personel for the the markets signature Taking acouple personal inventory of all engine room spare parts Determining any vital engineroom equipment is inoperatvie Obtaining a valid certification of inspection from the cosgaurd

Ans.c 3147 reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead are called

A. B. C. D. Side longitudanals Intercostals Stiffeners Brackets

Ans.c 3148 if a life boat which allows a life boat to descend to the water at an excessive speed you should____
A. B. C. D. Remove unneccesary weight from the boat Adjust the centrifugal break machine Adjust the david mounted limit swithches Engage the motors friction clutch bands

Ans. B

3149 when a vessil is dryed docked for inspection which of the following valves are required to b e opened during the this period
A. B. C. D. Ballast pump manifold valves High and low section values on fuel oil setting tanks Bottom blow skin value balls main and auxillary boilers Cooking water controls on refrigration condensers

Ans. C 3150 sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by the regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?
A. B. C. D. Washroom Laundrings Slop sinks Corridors

Ans.d 3151 on small passenger vessels , seperation of machinery on fuel tanks sapces shall be .
A. B. C. D. Provided between each of the space by water tight and vapour tight bulk heads Seperated from accomadation spaces by water tight bulk heads Not considered as essentials seperation from accomadation spaces by non continuous bulk heads

ans. B 3152 regulations require remote controls for stopping machineries driving fuel oil service pumps .these controls shall be .
A. B. C. D. Located at the control ptrol Provided with the locked cover Accseble to authorized personal only Protected against accidental operation

Ans. D 3153 the location of the vessels frame station may be optained from which of the listed drawings __________

A. profile B. base line Ans.A

C.cross section D.but tock

3154 where should you to find writing plates ?

A. B. C. D. In bow of the ship of the water line On the bottom of a fuel are ballest tank under the sounding tube Under the counyer above the propeller blade tips On the coffer dam man hole

Ans.B 3155what colour is used to indicuate the last short anchor chain?
A. B. C. D. Red White Blue Yellow

Ans.A 3156the principe purpose of an anchor windlas chain stopper is to____

A. B. C. D. Tigh of yhe warping head lines Absorb the breake thrust of the anchor windlas Hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcal

ans.C 3157 according to regulation ,the cargo pump shaft on tankers pierce the bulkheads..
A. readily accessible gas tight glance shall be provided B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discahrge cargo C. pressure gague or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gas tight seal in maintain D. the glance are to be kept under continuos section with power ventilation

ans. A

3158. in merchant ship construction , the term scantilings refers to A. a factor of safety involved with the hog and sag charecterestics of the hull B. hull guided strenght in terms of standard model C. D. Ans. C 3159 the structural member of hull extending in a fore and aft direction are called__________
A. B. C. D. frames joiners longitudinels knees

designed size of beams, stiffeners and shell platind ICE strength classification of the hull

ans.c 3160the minium member of crue member is prrmitted by law to opperate your vessel can be determined by checking the _____________
A. B. C. D. manning certificate class certificate masters crew list masters law group

ans.A 3161which of the fpllowing is ooperated from the main engine room console on an automator vessel?
A. B. C. D. Fire pump and lubeboil pump Lubeoil pump and distiling plant Distilling plant and shaft alley door Shaftalley door and fixed CO2 to relase


3162expantion times used in hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. What would be the normal temperature range of the water?
A. B. C. D. 80c to 100c 104c to 118c 127c to 138c 160c to 182c

Ans. 3163 which of the following statement describes the function of an alarm annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?
a) An alarm condition causes a light and siren to come on which remain on until the machinary is secured b) A flashing light comes on, followed by an audiable alarm. When an alarm acknowledged button is depressed the audiable alarm is silenced and light stays on c) An alarm condition gives an audiable and visual alar signal,bothof which are secured when the alarm acknowledged button is depressed d) An alarm condition causes a flashing light to come on, followed by an audiable alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the warning light is extinguished

Ans B 3164 according to regulation a standard fire is one..

a) b) c) d) Of many initial operating tests performed on newly commisioned boilers Which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels Which develops a serious of temperature relationships in atest furnace In which all emergency firefighting and releated safety equipment are tested

ans c 3165 with refrence to a vessels structural integrity the most significant characterictic of a cryogenic liquid is its
a) b) c) d) Capability of causing brittle fractures Highly corrosive action on mild steel Vapour cloud which reacts violently with saltwater Toxically at atmospheric pressure

Ans a

3166 with regard to opening and closing of watertight appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system which of the following is the master or a person in charge of a modu required to enter in th logbook?
a) The time required to close the appliances b) The reason for opening or closing each appliances c) The name of the person performing the opening and closing and closing of such appliances d) The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

Ans b 3167 the purpose of bilge keel is to.

a) b) c) d) Lower the center of gravity of ship Reduces the amplitude of the roll Reduce pitching Reduce yawing

Ans b 3168 which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?
a) Provides a surface for the surface for the application of force or the installation of machinary b) Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape c) Absorbs machinary vibration d) Prevents valve stern over travel

Ans b 3169 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out.specific portion of the chain are color and wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should have..
a) Three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link b) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link oneach side of the detechable link c) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side of the deteachable link d) One turn of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each side of the deteachable link

Ans b 3170 aboard tankers the term category A machinary space as defined by regulation means any spaceincluding trunks and tucts to space containing
a) Internal combustion machinary used for main propulsion b) One or more oil fired boilers or fuel units c) Internal combustion machinary used for purpose other than main propulsion where the total collective power is at least 500 brakehorsepower d) All the above

Ans d 3171 if high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a significant possibility that.I there will be an accumlation of static electricity II mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
a) b) c) d) I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans b 3172 if auxilary machinary vital to the main propulsion system is not provided with independent duplicate systems , which of the systems listed would satisfy regulations if servicedby two pumps?
a) b) c) d) Main condensate Lube oil service Fuel oil service All the above

Ans d 3173 which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification?
a) Forced draft fan b) Induced draft fan c) Fuel oil transfer pump

d) Allthe above

Ans d 3174 all of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted
a) b) c) d) Yellow White Red Orange

Ans c 3175 if a vessel is not provided with duplicate service systems, which of the systems listed the regulations if the serviced by two pumps?
a) b) c) d) Main condensate Fuel oil service Lube oil service All the above

Ans d 3176 the hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from
a) b) c) d) Wrought iron High alloy steel Mild steel Corrosion resisting steel

Ans c 3177 when any vessel is drydocked,examination shall be made of the propeller..
a) b) c) d) Fairwater cone and hull anodes by the chief engineer assigned to the vessel Propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the repair facility Keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer Stern bushing , sea connection and fastenings if deemed necessary by the class surveyor

Ans d

3178 The penetration of watertight bulkhead and watertight deck by rigid nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when a.fairwater cone and hull anodes by the Chief Engineer assigned to vessel b.propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the epair facility c. keel and stabilizing fins by a registereg marine engineer d. stern bushing,sea connection and fastening if deemed result by the class surveyor ans : a


In ship construction,a large number of watertight bulkheads result in

a.increased capacity to set flooding boundaries b.decreased capacity to set fioooding boundaries c. reduced compartmentation d.greater deck load capacity ans : a 3180 regulation require fresh weter tank vent terminating with in the machinery space to terminate well above the deep loat line unless the a.vent are fitted with suteble mechanical closures b.tenk have no boundaries in common with the hull c.vent are fitted with ball float check vales or an equivalent automatic closure device d.tank are fitted with suitable pressure vacuum relief value ans : b 3181 regulation prohibit aircompressor from being lacate in a.a space with in three meters of a cargo valve b. a space in whih cargo hose is stowed enclosed space containing cargo piping d.all of the above ans: d 3182 who responsiblefor completing the station bill or muster list and posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel a. b. c. d. Chief engineer Master Psc inspector None of the above Ans:b

3183when a vessel is in drydock the vessel engineer should a.examine the contion of the propeller b.chip and paint all hull projection zines c. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams d. inspects the hull for hogging or segging ans:a 3184 according to the regulation when reach rods to tank value pass through the deck stuffing box at this joint must be a. b. c. d. Grounded with bonding straps Water tight Gas tight Made of neon or nonmetallic material Ans : c

3185 when installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting unit which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to in accordance with regulation a. the tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately ventilated metal compartment in which the ambient temperature never exceeds 150 c b. iron or steel tanks shall be galvonised on the interior to prevent the formation of rust if any condensation should occur

c. the fuel tank should be adequately supported and branched to prevent movement and insulated from the vessels common ground to insure against static electricity d. all of the above ans: a 3186how often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessel to be tested a. b. c. d. prior to each cargo discharge operation at least once each voyage at least once a year at each biennial inspection ans:c

3187 machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must be fitted with a remote means of stopping the machinery from a. b. c. d. within the space concerned outside the space concerned the throttle station within the fireroom ans:b

3188 A cofferdam is a/an _________________ a. b. c. d. empty space between tank tops and bilges cement baffle in a fresh water tank tank for storing chemicals empty space separating compartments to prevent the content of one compartment from entering other compartment Ans:d

3189 The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ships is called the _______________ a. rider plate b.outer plate c.margin plate d. stealer plate ans:c

3190 In the longitudinal framed ship , the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called ______________ a.stringers b.web frames c.pillers d.brackets ANS :b 3191 Which of the following systems according to regulations must have An emergency stop, protected with a glass anclosure , and located outside of the machinery space? a. b. c. d. A. B. C. D. Main frame pump Fuel oil service pump Main circulating/bilge injection valve All the above Ans: b Chill shocking is necessary to remove scale Leakage at the second-stage condenser Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump Carryover in the first-stage

A. B. C. D. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit Decreased priming and lower salinity distillate First effect scale formation to be loosened Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D 3194. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principal of a flash-type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. Seawater is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum Seawater is passed over heated plates in a thin film Heated seawater is injected into a vacuum chamber Seawater is forced through a heated educator

Ans:C 3195. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. Production of high salinity distillate Seawater feed temperature below 75 C A leak in the first stage demiste A cracked distillate pump vent line

3196. One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube distilling plant over a double-effect unit is _________ Ans:D
A. B. C. D. Better water purity Less scale formation Less internal corrosion Greater evaporator efficiency

3197. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the_______ Ans:D
A. B. C. D. Electrical inductance of water Electrical conductivity of water Specific gravity of water Hydrogen ion concentration of water

Ans:B 3198. One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators as compared to most other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator________
A. B. C. D. High temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional flashing Scale formation is not more severe problem Cold shocking is more effective in removing scale Water purity is greatly increased at high capacity


3199. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell and tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser.More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser with the ________
A. B. C. D. Distillating condenser Salt water feed heater Distillate cooler Flash chamber

Ans:B 3200. If the supplied steam pressure to the first effect of a submerged tube distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller___________
A. B. C. D. Solenoid dump valve will trip Air ejector will operate erratically Water levels will automatically lower Brine density will increase

Ans:A 3201. Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an evaporator will__________

A. B. C. D. Eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect Increase the heat level in all effects Increase the probability of priming Automatically cold shock the evaporator

Ans:C 3202. The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed water, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an__________
A. B. C. D. Pressure regulator within the supply orifice Thermally actuated bypass valve Attemporator in the steam supply piping Sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve

Ans:C 3203. In a two stage flash evaporator heated feedwater is vaporized in the ________
A. Feed inlet box

B. Distiller feedwater heater C. First and second stage flash chambers D. First and second stage vapor separators

Ans:C 3204. Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from_________
A. B. C. D. Poor distillate quality Reduced evaporator capacity Low brine concentration Improper vacuum regulation

Ans:D 3205. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by ________
A. B. C. D. The flashing of the feed water The condensation of the saltwater feed Air ejectors,educators,or a separate vacuum pump Condensation of the distillate

Ans:C 3206. While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to the distill tanks.If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water temperature below 74 C, you should________
A. B. C. D. Continue the current evaporator operation Dump the evaporator to the bilge Secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be raised to 74 C or more Raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the three-way valve

Ans:A 3207. If a flash-type evaporator was designed to operate in seawater at 24 C, and the current seawater temperature is 10 C, without readjusting any valve associated with this evaporator________
A. B. C. D. The capacity will be doubled The capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater temperature It will probably trip off the line as a result of an excessive and violent rate of flashing It will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of distillate that can be produced

Ans:C 3208. Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually attained by ____________
A. B. C. D. Air operated air ejectors Vacuum pumps Increasing the rate of condensation in the distiller condensers A separated suction connection to the brine overboard pump

Ans:B 3209. In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will__________
A. B. C. D. Be frozen in its last position Direct distillate to the fresh water tank Dump distillate to the bilge Dump distillate to the makeup feed tank

Ans:C 3210. The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is_____________
A. B. C. D. Slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction Slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet Slightly higher than the second stage vacuum Slightly lower than the first stage vacuum

Ans:A 3211. Condensate formed within the firs-effect tube nest of a double-effect, low pressure evaporator, is removed by a__________
A. B. C. D. Series of baffles Crossover pipe Condensate separator Drain pump

Ans:D 3212. Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the__________

A. B. C. D.

Main steam line Turbine extraction line Turbo-generator steam supply line Air ejector exhaust line

Ans:B 3213. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is due in part to the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the__________
A. B. C. D. Steam flow rate to the air ejectors Float controlled level of the feed heater Capacity of the distillate pump Throughput of the brine overboard pump

Ans:D 3214. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause______________
A. B. C. D. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit Decreased priming and lower distillate salinity First effect scale formation to be lessened Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D 3215. A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to an evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to controlthe quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to_____
A. Reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to the salt water feed heater B. Produce more useful superheated supply steam C. Guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated D. Produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure

Ans:A 3216. When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
A. Stop the pump B. Close the pressure gage valves

C. Trip the three-way solenoid valve D. Close the sealing line valves to the pump

Ans:C 3217. A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a low pressure evaporator by the use of____________
A. B. C. D. Vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system Individual vacuum pumps A single non-conducting air ejector A two stage air ejector

Ans:D 3218. The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained moisture from the vapor by__________
A. B. C. D. Directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh Condensing water droplets on the metal vanes Tapping water droplets in the metallic mesh Abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow

Ans:D 3219. Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator,and the second stage air ejector________
A. B. C. D. Takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator Takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well Takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge Is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

Ans:C 3220. When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply is not conditioned, the evaporator___________
A. B. C. D. Capacity will be increased Capacity will be decreased Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will decrease significantly Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will increase significantly

Ans:B 3221. A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 24 C seawater, if operated in 10 C sea water_________
A. B. C. D. The absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design absolute pressures Absolute pressure in the evaporator stages will be higher The unit will operate at reduced capacity Thermal efficiency will decrease,but brine density will increase

Ans:A 3222. Inorder to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal around the_____________
A. B. C. D. Spray caps Demisters Saltwater heater vents Steam supply orifice plate

Ans:D 3223. Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator?
A. B. C. D. The valve must be manually reset The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 79 C The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm

Ans:A 3224. Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling plant?
A. B. C. D. Distillate pump discharge Tube nest drain pump discharge Air ejector condensation drain All of the above

Ans:D 3225. The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to___________

A. Prepare for a hydrostatic test B. Stress relieve the tubes

C. Break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes D. Test for leaks in the tubes

Ans:C 3226. Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?
A. B. C. D. The brine density is improper Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale Impure distillate is being produced Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing

Ans:B 3227. In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling plant rapid fluctuations of the absolute pressure tend to cause_____________
A. B. C. D. Scale formation with increased heat transfer Priming with increased salinity of distillate Slightly foaming at the distillate feed pump Improved operating conditions at the brine pump

Ans:B 3228 In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine density least important?
A. B. C. D. Solo shell evaporator Flash evaporators Submerged tube evaporators Basket evaporators

Ans B 3229 A multistage flash evaporators will be unable to produce consistency pure distillate if the?

A. B. C. D.

Distillate cooler is dirty Tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally Distillate meter stops Vacuum is fluctuating

Ans D 3230 When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
A. B. C. D. Close the pressure gage isolation valves Secure the casing vapor vent line Secure the stuffing box sealing water line Trip the three way dump valve

Ans D 3231 Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator can cause
A. B. C. D. Erratic air eject operation Air leaks in the tube nest Rapid scaling in all effects Priming in that effect

Ans D 3232 Improper waterside venting of the tube nest in a submerged tube evaporator can cause a/an
A. B. C. D. Fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator Loss of evaporator capacity Increased in the first effect Increased brine overboard flow rate

Ans B

3233 If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect
A. B. C. D. A weak in the feedwater heater Improper vacuum A malfunctioning brine pump A clogged desurperheater water strain

Ans C 3234 Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash type distilling plant will be a result of
A. B. C. D. Maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance Carrying the brine level below normal Leaks in the demister baffles Venting of the salt water heater drain pump

Ans C 3235 In a flash evaporator, scales as a result of higher than normal temperature is most likely to occur in the
A. B. C. D. Second stage feed heater Saltwater feed heater Distillate cooler Second stage vapor separator

Ans B 3236 Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to
A. Erratic water flow through the water educator

B. A clogged vent line from the air educator condenser C. Excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater D. A dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line

Ans D 3237 If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged through erosion the
A. Distillate produced in the second stage would flow toward the first stage B. Evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage C. Evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second stage D. Salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second stage Ans C

3238 In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly
A. B. C. D. Increasing its temperature Increasing its volume Decreasing its density Decreasing its pressure Ans D

3239 Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator?
A. B. C. D. Measure the hydrogen ion concentration Measure the electrical resistance of the water Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen Measures the voltage of the chloride ion

Ans B

3240 In the double effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize
A. B. C. D. Scale formation of the tube nest s Loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency Corrosion in the evaporator Carryover in the evaporator

Ans B 3241 Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing____________

A. B. C. D. Steam through heating coils Steam through cooling coils Heated water into a high pressure area Heated water into a low pressure area

Ans D 3242 A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by__________
A. B. C. D. Wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle Pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests Rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests High water levels in the last effect

Ans A 3243 In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by__________
A. Operating the unit at its rated capacity B. Maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature

C. The fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure D. The fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit

Ans D 3244 Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the hygienic quality of potable water?
A. B. C. D. Hydrochloric acid Chlorine Sulphuric acid Zinc chromate

Ans B 3245 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the designed vauum, the__________
A. B. C. D. Heat level drops Capacity increases Scale formation increases Distillate purity increases

Ans C 3246 Portable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be ___________
A. B. C. D. Disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound Independent of all other piping systems Cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion Flushed each time portable water is taken onboard

Ans. B 3247

Short cycling of the portable water pump is avoided by the proper use of a ___________
A. Hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at system operating pressure B. Hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water C. Charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 KPa) above system pressure with the hydropneumatic tank one quarter full of water D. Charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydropneumatic tank is half full of water

Ans. D 3248 A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to ____________ A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply pumps B. Maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the piping C. Return overflow from the pressure takes back to the potable water tanks D. Maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system Ans. D

3249 Which of the following components would be necessary for the proper operation of a potable hot water system?
A. B. C. D. Circulating pump Drift pockets Sterilizer Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank

Ans. A 3250

A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the discharge lie between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks to prevent___________
A. B. C. D. Excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks Salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks Overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks Contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks

Ans. B 3251 Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank_________
A. B. C. D. Through a detachable hose connection After passing through an activated charcoal filter After chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption through a solenoid operated three-way valve

Ans. D 3252 Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an_____________

A. B. C. D. psychometer salinometer anemometer sphygmomanometer

Ans. B 3253 Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result in___________
A. B. C. D. loss of second stage vacuum contamination of the distillate lower feed inlet temperature contamination of the second stage condenser

Ans. B 3254 In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the___________
A. B. C. D. saltwater heater shell second \-stage condenser atmosphere second-stage flash chamber

Ans. C 3255 Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler seawater temperatures?
A. B. C. D. steam carryover between stages is reduced Evaporator vacuum is increased The amount of available flash steam is decreased Feedwater flow from the feedwater heated is increased

Ans. B 3256 The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by_________
A. B. C. D. Distillate Seawater Brine Air

Ans. B 3257 The steam coils I a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater service should be descaled with_______

A. B. C. D.

A wire brush A needle gun A chipping hammer Soap and water

Ans. A 3258 Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause_________

A. B. C. D. Immediate loss of vacuum Increased distillate quality Immediate tube failure Induced evaporator capacity

Ans. D 3259 If the rated distillate production of a submerged tue type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam flow rate, the evaporator__________
A. Chemical feed must be increased B. Has a serious brine leak C. Temperature switch is defective heating surfaces are scaled

Ans. D 3260 The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage flash evaporator is___________
A. B. C. D. Equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure Higher than the secondstage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure Lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in the second stage Higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower shell absolute pressure

Ans. B

3261 In a two stage flash evaporator operating conditions in the second stage, as compared to the first stage, are__________
A. B. C. D. Higher temperature and higher absolute pressure Higher temperature and lower absolute pressure Lower temperature and higher absolute pressure Lower temperature and lower absolute pressure

Ans. D 3262 A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an___________
A. B. C. D. Steam trap Butterfly valve Loop seal Adjustable controller

Ans. C 3263 The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine density is equivalent to_____________
A. B. C. D. 1/32nd 1.5/32nds 2/32nds 3/32nds

Ans. A c. water flashing into vapor than boiling on the heat transfer surfaces . d. opening the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell pressure. Ans: c

3266. Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to indicate the ..I presence of leaks in the flash chambers. It quantity of the distillate produced A. 1 only B.2 only C. both 1 and 2 D.Neither 1 and 2 Ans:D 3267. Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of a flash distlling plant could result in a .. A. fluctualting vaccum in the flash heater shell B. flooded seawater feed heater shell C. high water level in the air ejector after condenser D. manufacturing check valve in the air ejector discharge Ans:A 3268. In a flash type evaporator, an electriacal salinity cell would be installed in the A. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler B. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler C. condestate drains from the distiller feedwater heater Ans:D 3269. Small droplets of water enternaid in the flashed vapour produced in a flash type evaporator, are removed by the

A. spray pipes B. demisters C. condensers D.splash baffles Ans: B 3270. The demisters installed in a flash type evaporator serve to A. decrease the first effect distillate B. filter the condensed flash vapour C. deaerate the first and second effet distillate D. remove small water droplets enternained in the flashed vapour Ans. D 3271. In a double effect distilling plant, the brine particals remaining enternaied with the vapour produced in the evaporator first effect, are separated by A. a flash chamber B. baffles and vanes C. the vapour feed heater D. a brine pump Ans. B 3272. The inability to maintain proper vaccum in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ejector nozzle B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests

C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests D. high water level in the evaporator shell Ans. A 3273. One function of the vapour feed heater in a double effect distilling unit is to A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first effect B. preheat distillate circulating to the second effect tube nest C. cool the incoming first effect evaporator feed D. condense all the distillate in the second effect tube nests Ans. A 3274. The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash type evaporator is important for maintain the control of A. the vaccum differential developed between both stages B. the absolute pressure developed between both stages C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell D. maintain distillate flow between the first and second stage in order to avoid dry seal opera tion of the loop Ans.D 3275. The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash type evaporator will A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at which it entered the flash chamber B. vapourize with the unflashed water equalizing to the sapotion conditions existing in the flash chamber

C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it entered the flash chamber D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom of the flash chamber Ans. B 3276. If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 71*C A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks B. the automatic three way solenoid dump valve should direct distillate to the bilge C. the demisters will become scaled D. priming will occur in the first effect Ans. A 3277. On a multistage flash type evaporator, the flash chamber is A. combine as part of the salt water feed heater B.the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages C.combined as the part of the distilate cooler D.another term used to describe the vapour fed water 3278.which of the listed conditions will cause the feed water,that has not flashed to vapour in the first stage of a flash evaporator to flow into second stage of a flash evaporator to flow into second-stage? A.gravity siphon effect B.higher vaccum in the second-stage C.difference in the brine density between first and second stages

D. lower pressure in first-stage ANS:B 3279.when a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water you may need to throttle the seawater supply to A.prevent cold shocking the evaporator B.maintain the feed water temperature above the required minimum input temperature C.avoid flooding the evaporator shell D.incerase the evapoaator distilling rate ANS:B 3280. the final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater B. heat exchange in the first stage feedbox C. vaporization in the first stage chamber D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser Ans: A 3281. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces A. increases brine density B. increases distillate salinity C. reduces metal corrosion D. reduces heat transfer Ans: D

3282. The efficiency of a flash type evaporate can be increased by A. lowering brine discharge density B. decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage C. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature D. increasing the pressure at the spray pipe Ans: B 3283. In a two stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through the A. first stage distilling condenser B. second stagedistilling condenser C. salt water feed heater D. all the above. Ans: D 3284. In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors the air and noncondensable gases are evacuated from the A. first stage flash chamber B. second stage flash chamber C. first stage after condenser D. second stage distilling condenser Ans: D 3285. The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of the distilling plant should be as possible to A. prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces

B. maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature C. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency D. prevent any salinity in the distillate produced Ans: C 3286. Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube evaporator because A. the distillate produced has greater purity B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces C. evaporation occurs at a higher rate D. the incoming feed is at a higher temperature Ans. B 3287. In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented directly to the A. sailwater heater shell B. first stage distilling condenser C. second stage flash chamber D. air ejector condenser Ans. C 3288. The thickness deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the A. distillate cooler B. first stage condenser C. saltwater feed heater

D. flash chamber Ans. C 3289. The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to submerged tube type evaporators, include A. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density B. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate produced C. less scale formation in a flash evaporator D. less feedwater required for a flash evaporator Ans. C 3290. In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is prevented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapour from the pump suction? A. Condensor circulating water pump B. feed water heater drain pump C. distillate pump D. air ejector condenser drain pump Ans. C 3291. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in the portable water system? A. the hydre pneumatic tank being properly B. the starting of the portable water pump C. a low water level in the portable water storage tank D. rapid closing of a spring closed basin fauce

Ans: D 3292 Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more efficiently when operating in cold seawater?
A. The coldest seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles of the various stages increases evaporator vaccum B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater heater altercondeser is increased C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder seawater D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first stage overflow weir Ans. A 3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single effect submerged tube evaporator? A. Greater purity of distillate B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of the distillate produced C. Less scale formation D. less complex to maintain and operate Ans. B

3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple-effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single effect submerged tube evaporator? A.greater purity B.lower consumption of steam per pound of dis late produced C.less scale fotmation D.less complex to maintain and operate Ans.B 3294.One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a submerged tube is A.greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation B.cold shocking for scale removal is not required

C.less internal corrosion because of lower brine density D.less feed water is required for equal plant capacity 3295.potable and non-potable water system aboard vessel A.may be temporily interconnected with a removal spool B.are permanently interconnected through a double stop value C.may never be interconnected by any means D.may be connected if they are used only for wash water Ans.C 3296.Which of the following statement is correct relative to distillation plant operation? A.distillation is the process of boling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh water B.evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed C.brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor D.distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor 3297.Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through A.gasketed joints B.valve stems C.gage glass packing D.all the above 3298.When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time you should

A.fill the unit with salt water B.fill the unit with deasealing compound C.completely drain the unit D.tightly seal the unit to exclude air 3299.The steam cols in the high pressure evaporator used for salt water service should be descaled with A.a needle gun B.soap and water C.a wire brush D.a chipping hammer 3300.The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly reduced by A.operating the unit at its rated capacity B.maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature 3301.Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to the flash chamber A.pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to feed water temoperture B.temperture being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feedwater

3301 c. Heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path the entering feedwater d. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash chamber. Ans:a 3302
a. b. c. d.

An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by

Excessive brine pump motor speed An excessive brine blowdown rate Failure of the brine pump Excessive distillate pump speed Ans:c 3303 A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels by using a. Constant speed supply pumps b. Variable speed supply pumps c. An air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank d. A pressure regular in the pressure tank discharge piping

Ans:c 3304 If the distillating plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal , while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory , the probable fault is due to
a. b. c. d. Loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages Priming in the second stage Failure of the brine pump An air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage

Ans:d 3305 salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the______________1. Location of a saltwater leak.2. size of the tank
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:a 3306 an automstic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding
A. B. C. D. 1ppm 5ppm 50ppm 1000ppm Ans:d

3307 In the operation of a two- stage flash-type distilling plant , which of the pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in order to remove vapors from the pump suction?
a. b. c. d. Condenser circulating water pump Feedwater heater drain pump Distillate pump Air ejector condenser drain pump Ans:c

3308 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator__________.1. vaporaization of the feed water would continue at second stage designed saturation conditions .2. all of the distillate produced would be certain to b
a. b. c. d. 1only 2only Both Neither 1 nor2 Ans:a

3309 If a holre were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator _________.1.vaporization of the feed water would continue .2. efficiency of the unit would only be moderately affected
a. 1only b. 2only c. Both

d. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans:a

3310 and
a. b. c. d.

priming in asubmerged lube evaporator can be caused by high water level

Low brine density Low steam pressure High absolute pressure Excessive brine density Ans:d

a. b. c. d.

Carryover in aflash type distilling plant can be a result of

Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump A pressure drop through the loopseal High distillate conductivity Low distillate conductivity Ans:d

3312 evaporator priming can be caused by high water level , fluctuating steam pressure , or

a. b. c. d.

Fluctuating shell vacuum Low brine density Low feed temperature A brine overflow weir set too low Ans:a

3313 when a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended period of time , the entire unit should be drained ,cleaned, and
a. b. c. d. Completely filled with salt water Filled with descaling compound Tightly closed to exclude air Vented to the atmosphere Ans:d


Which of the following statements is true concerning any evaporator?

a. b. c. d.

High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is excessive Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the distillers capacity Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filters the distillate Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard Ans:a

a. b. c. d.

A salinity indicator is used to determine the

Causes of salt contamination Location of salt water contamination Chemical makeup of feedwater Level of alkalinity in condensate Ans:b

3316 In the production of fresh water from seawater through a process of heating and cooling ,the cooling phase of the production is usually
a. b. c. d. Evaporation Distillation Dehydration Condensation Ans:d

3317 A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type evaporator unit , will divert impure distillate to the bilge
a. b. c. d. Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the first stage diatillate outlet Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the final stage distillate outlet Regardless of the cell selector switch position Only if the power to the salinity panel is interrupted. Ans:c

3318. The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is defined as. A. dehydration B. condensation C. evaporation D. dissolution Ans. C 3319. The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash distilling plant, function to

A. vent noncondensable gases B. recycle evaporator flash steam C. reheat the flash steam D. improve distillate purity Ans. D 3320. In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh type vapor separators function to A. improve distillate purity B. vent noncondensable gases C. recycle evaporator flash steam D. direct flash steam into the cooler Ans. A 3321. In a double-effect distilling plant, the evaporator feed remainingentrained in the first effect vapor, is removed by A. baffles and vanes B. a flash chamber C. the second effect separator D. the vapor feed heater Ans. A

3336. In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat in the _____ A. vapor feed heater B. air ejector conductor C. saltwater heater D. distillate cooler Ans. D 3337. In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage automatically passes_____ A. directly to the second stage feed heater B. directly overboard through the brine cooler C. into the second stage flash chamber D. into the second stage vapor condenser Ans. C 3338. The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage, flash type, distillating plant is_____ A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure B. lower than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure Ans. B

3339. Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube distilling unit will cause_____ A. increased heat level in the entire unit B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate C. first effect scale formation to be reduced D. priming in the last effect shell Ans. D 3340. Short cycling of the portable water systems pump is prevented by using _____ A. constant speed supply pumps B. variable speed supply pumps C. variable delivery supply pumps D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank Ans. D 3341. When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the_____ A. heat level rises B. heat level drops C. capacity increases D. scale formation decreases Ans. A

3342. A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure evaporator as_____ I.vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum II. Boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube surfaces A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I or II Ans. A 3343. The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is_____ A. evaporation is accomplished in vacuum B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate Ans. A 3344. If the brine level of the double effect soloshell evaporator is the above the sight glass, which action should be taken? A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve opened slightly C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm below the sea wateer heater bundle. Ans. B

PIPES AND VALVES 3345. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommened when recquiring_____ A. high pressure drops B. close regulation of flow C. no pressure drops D. no back flow Ans. B 3346. The designation schedule 80 extra strong refers to __________ A. weight of steel plate B. tensile strength of holts C. piping wall thickness D.tubing bursting strength Ans. C 3347. Piping cross-sections raging from 3 mm to 300 mm in diameter, are sized by _______ A. wall strength B. nominal inside diameter C. outside diameter D. threaded diameter Ans. B 3348. On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand wheel indicator registers the ________

A. exact lift position of the tank valve disk through 100% of its operation B. oxygen content of the tank C. approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened D. level of oil in the tank Ans. C 3349. Which of the following can be applied to the short lengths of pipes called nipples A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long and short B. Close, short, long and tank C. Standard, extra strong, double sxtra-strong and schedule 80 D. cast, wrought, stainless and brass Ans. B 3350 Fittings used to close the end of pipes are calle pipe ______
A. B. C. D. Caps Ells Tees Closures

Ans. A 3351 Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully closed when the handle is turned to 90 degrees?
A. B. C. D. A rising stem gate valve A globe stop valve A check valve A butterfly valve

Ans. D

3352 The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in apipeline is the ______
A. B. C. D. Gate valve Globe valve Check valve Plug valve

Ans. B 3353 As routine maintenance, the bilge mainfold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to resecurring the valve bonnets, the valve _______
A. B. C. D. Disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary Bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn Stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened All of the above

Ans. D 3354 On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves the type of power operator commonly used is
A. B. C. D. Hydraulic Electric Steam Diesel

Ans. A 3355 A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used _______
A. B. C. D. In either fully closed or fully opened positions Only eith the steam facing down Only for lube oil service To throttle the flow of liquid

Ans. A

3356 Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves

A. B. C. D. Are more suitable for throttling Operate withh little or no pressure drop when opened Are more easily removed Cannot be used for service requiring frequent operation

Ans. B 3357 Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacturepiping available in standard weight, extra strong and double extra strong wall thickness?
A. B. C. D. Plastic Copper Iron All of the above

Ans. C 3358 Which of the problems listed happen if you attempted to force open a valve frozen in position by using a wrench on the hand-wheel?
A. B. C. D. Bending of the bonnet assembly Bending of the valve stem Damage to the pressure seal Distortion to the valve body

Ans. B 3359 if used for regulating a fluid flow through a piping system , which of the valves listed could be damaged
A. B. C. D. Plug valve Globe valve Gate valve Needle valve

Ans. C 3360 Which of the valves listed below are best suited for throttling service
A. Plug

B. Globe C. Gate D. Butterfly

Ans. B 3361 When pipe is properly screwed into a tap hole, it will give the correct fit when
A. B. C. D. the pipe cannot be turned all the threads are covered half of the threads are covered all but 2 or 3 threads are covered

Ans. D 3362 Piping cross sections over 300 mm in diameter are sized by the
A. B. C. D. inside diameter wall thickness outside diameter threaded diameter

Ans. C 3363 excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of _______
A. B. C. D. opening a valve too quickly jamming a valve in the closed position low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline a scored valve stem

Ans. D 3364 Which of the pipe materials listed below has the best resistance to internal and external corrosion?
A. B. C. D. Cast iron pipe Cast steel pipe Spiral welded pipe Centrifugally cast pipe

Ans. A 3365 To connect two legths of pipepreviously set in place, you should use a pipe _____
A. B. C. D. Nipple B. union Coupling Tee

Ans. B 3366 When in completely opened position, which of the listed types of valve will offer the least resistance to flow?
A. B. C. D. Gate valve Globevalve Double-seat poppet valve Reed valve

Ans. A

3367 An arrow stamped on the valve bodyof a water regulating valve indicates the ___________
A. B. C. D. Direction of plunger side Closed position Open position Direction of the flow

Ans. D 3368 Fabric type packing such as flack or hemp is best suited for _________
A. B. C. D. Low temperature use High temperature use Use where allignment is critical Packing valves with badly groomed stems

Ans. A

3369When assembling a run of liquid surface piping, which of the following factors should be considered?
A. B. C. D. How the type of fittings used wil affect the flow What type pf gasket material should be used What radius should be used for each bend in the run All the aabove

Ans. D 3370 Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline you should ________

A. B. C. D. Determine the size of the gasket Hang a bucjket under the joint Have a first aid kit on hand Be sure no pressue exists in the line

Ans. D 3371 Smaal leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after installation because ________
A. B. C. D. The leak will probably worsen in time The gasket mwy not seal itself for several hours The leak will result in severe flange distortion Small leaks cause the pipeline to creek

Ans. A

3372 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of _______
A. B. C. D. Monrl Stellite A resilient material Admirality material

3375. The best gas cut material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is_________ A. sheet asbestos B. Oil-resistant sheet packing C. cork sheet packing D. unvulcanized packing ANS: B 3376. The threaded pipe fitting called street elbows have __________ A. Male threads only B. Female Threads Only C. Male and Female threads D. interpreted threads on eac end ANS: C 3377. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as A. A pressure drop will be excessive B. air bringing will develop C. the installation of an equalizing line will be nessecary D. wire drawing of the disc will result ANS: D 3378. A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______ A. Outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end B. Outside threads on both ends C. A left hand twist D. Inside threads on both sides ANS: D 3379. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removable of the pump for servicing_______ A. coupling

B. Union C. Quick disconnect D. Nipple ANS: B 3380 .which of the gasket materials and/or type listed is used on A. spiral wound composition asbestos B. wire impregnated sheet asbestos C. rubber D. wire impregnated rubber ANS: A

3381. Which of the following statements represent the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve A. direction of flow of valve is unimportant B. direction of flow of valve depends up on the type of seat design used in the valve C. direction of flow is from below the seat D. Direction of flow is from above the seat 3382. Which of the following statement is correct regarding grades of pipe? A. stainless steel is manufactured in four general grades B. the term extra strong is normally associated with schedule 160 steel pipe C. copper pipe is manufactured in two grades D. brass pipes is manufactured in three grades 3383. One revolution at the hand wheel of reach rod operated valve will cause the valve stern to rotate A. 1/4 of a turn B. 1/2 of a turn C. 3/4 of a turn D. 1turn
th th th

3384. Gate valve should not be for throttling as. A. The pressure drop will be excessive B. Air binding will develop C. The installation of an equalizing line will be necessary D. wire drawing of the disc will result ANS; D 3385.Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction? A. gate value B. globe value C. check value D. plug cock ANS; C 3386.Allowances may be made for the expansion in piping by the use of expansion joints or A. unions B. retractable flanges C. union bulkhead fittings D. bends or loops in the line ANS; D 3387.on tankers will manually operated tank valves, the type of value most commonly used is the A. butterfly valve B. globe valve C. gate valve D. check valve ANS; C 3388.valves used in the machinery space piping system, and constructed with threaded valve stems, must be A. right-hand opening (clockwise)

B. left-hand closing (counterclockwise) C. right-hand closing (clockwise) D. direction of opening and closing is unimportant ANS; C 3389.the movement of steam pipingas as result of changes in temperature,is compensated for by the use of A.expasion joints B.flexitallic gaskets C.rigid brackets D.union rings ANS;A 3390.which of the problemlisted could be happen,if you attemptedto force open a valvefrozenin by posistionby using a wrench on the handwheel A.over compression of the package B.bending of valve stem C.rapid corrosion of the valve disc D.cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve ANS;B 3391. Which of the valves listed should be used either in fully opened or the fully closed position? A. A gate valve B. a globe valve C. any check valve D. any needle valve 3392. Before making up a flanged joint, you should_____ A. Be certain that the flangs line up squarely B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel C. heat the pipeline o expand the bolt holes C. Have a second spare gasket on hand

ANS: B 3393. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are connected because___________ A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned B. misalignment permits excessive expansion C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of misalignment D. condersate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly aligned Ans. A 3394. The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a pipeline is a_______ A. gate valve B. globe valve C. swing-check valve D. plug-cock valve. Ans. B

A. be completely opened with the hand wheel locked hard at the end of the last opening B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn then rotate the wheel in the closing direction by approximately of a turn C. be opened by of the total number of turns available from full closed to full open D. be opened as much as needed , regardless of how little the gate has been moved from its seat Ans: B STEERING 3413. the action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to iocal control in order to use the steering gear room wheel is to__________

A . align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position B . set the six-way control valve in the wheel position C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel D . always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel Ans: A 3414 . as the designed rudder angle have been achieved,as a result of the original command input ,the steering gear follow up mechanism is_________ A . in motor , providing a null point B . not in motion ,thus provide a null input C . in motion providing an input to place the main pump on maximum stoke D . in motion providing an input to place the main pump at null stoke Ans: D 3415. if one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails the vessels steering can be initially and best maintained by using ___________ A . trick wheel B . accumulator C . standby pump D . telemotor Ans: C 3416 . when there is no movement of the ram on an electro hydraulic steering gear ,the tilting box of running pump is_______________ A . set of maximum torqe

B . on the purge and vent stoke C . in the neutral position D . rotating backwards Ans: C 3417 . when the helm demands a 20 right rudder movement from an electro hydraulic steering gear , which of the listed action will be the FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained? A . the six-way valve opens B . the steering service pump motor is stopped C . the follow-up gear takes the pump off stoke D . the cylinder relief valve bypass oil to the suction side of pump Ans: C 3418 In an electro-hydraulic steering system,rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the_____________ A .trickwheel B .follow-up control C .six-way valve D .Rapson slide Ans: B 3419 Which of these listed , when used onan electro-hydraulic steering gear,keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel? A .The follow-up gear

B .The rudder angle indicator C .The synchronous electric transmitter D .A rudder angle switch Ans: A 3420 Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 45 hours duration .Regulations require that the steering gear be examined and tested no earlier than____________ A.0600 hours B.0900 hours C.1200 hours D.1500 hours Ans: A 3421 The follow up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear_____________ A .relieves excessive fluid pressure B .takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is obtained C .allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of ships wheel D .returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released Ans : B 3422 which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single acting hydrallic ram is correct?
A. Hydrallic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram directional ports. B. The single acting ram is both extened and retracted by means of hydrallic force.

C. The single acting ram is not retracted by means of hydrallic force. D. Hydrallic force applied to a single acting ram results in a pulling motion.

Ans : C 3423 Which of the following types of hydrallic pumps would be used in a steering system?
A. Lobe B. Screw C. Radial piston D. Volute. Ans: C

3424 When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system the _______ A. Rudder will respond sluggishly B. Hydraulic rams will overspeed C. Slight glass will show bubbles D. Ram relief valves will lift Ans: A 3425 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be indicated by the _______ A. The pump overspeeding B. An improper rudder response C. Bubbles in the side glass D. Ram relief valves lifting

Ans: B

3426 while inspecting the steering system of the sea , you should check for _________ A. Air bubbles in the sight glass B. Any leaks in the system C. Over travel in the rudder angle indicator D. Lost motion in rams Ans:B 3427 when the steering wheel is turned,oil is directed to the steering gear rams to_________ A. Modulating the oil flow with the six way valve B. Moving the automatic pressure differential valve C. Moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two way valve D. Varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of the tilting box Ans: D

3428 The function of the hydraulic telemotor transistor used in the eletro hydraulic steering system is to___________ A. Transistor the rudder angle to the bridge indicator B. Prevention the control linking from striking the stops when hard over C. Automatically purge all entrained air from the system D. Sent hydraulic signals to the receiving unit

Ans: D 3429 A solenoid , direct acting , three-position , spring centered , directional control valves is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator . with the actuator under load there is no movement however , when the load is removed the actuator can be cycle A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spools has jammed in the valve body B. One or both the solenoid coils has sustained an open C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is un able to attain its rate speed of rotation D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is over speeding Ans: C 3430 When the helm angle position is changed the series of corresponding events of the steering gear which include ______ (i) legth of the time steering gear pups remains on the stoke is proportional to the helm angle input (ii) system pressure being higher A. (i) only B. (ii) only C. Both (i) and (ii) D. Neither (i) and (ii) Ans: A 3431 On an electro hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will keep the rudder from over traveling the bridge signal? A. Rudder angle indicator B. Follow-up gear

C. Electric transmitter D. Rudder angle limit switch Ans: B 3432 When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the first response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro hydraulic steering gear? A. The pump goes off. B. The 6 way valve aligns itself with the running pump C. Both port and starboard cables are energized D. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion Ans: D 3433 Air-trapped in the fluid of a steering system may be indicated by _______ A. The steering pumps overspeeding B. A jammed open relief valve C. A constantly occurring improper rudder response D. Excessive ram pressure Ans: C 3434 Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which ______ A. Function when the rudder is amidships B. Relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system C. Protect the pipng assembly from external rudder shock D. Relieve excessive telemotor pressure

Ans: C 3435 In an electro-hydraulic system, rudder shock is limited by A. A differential gear B. Return springs C. A hydraulic accumulator D. Relief valves Ans: D 3436 rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the steering wheel by the A. Return springs B. Six-way valves C. Follow up gear D. Differential gear Ans: C 3437 When the steering gear is in operation, you should ________ A. Check hydraulic oil levels every hour B. Check the rams for over-heating C. Check for excessive oil leakage rams D. Drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch Ans: C 3438 When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram electrohydraulic steering gear the _______

A. Ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder system B. Six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position C. Steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer switch D. Follow up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke Ans: D 3439 If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed conditionscould result? A. Loss of vessel steering B. Overheating of the gyro-compass C. Jamming the six-way valve D. Jamming of the follow-up device Ans: A 3440 a power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear would cause the rudder to _________ A. Swing 35deg right or left B. Remain locked in its last position C. Move to the middle ship position automatically D. Jam against the rudder emergency stops Ans:B 3441 regulation require that an indicating light ,located at the propulsion control station , beilluminated if there is an overload that would cause overheating of the_________ A. Forced draft bowler motion

B. Fuel pump motion C. Steering gear motion D. Condensate pump motion Ans: C 3442 a vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having a yoke quardrant or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned is the________ A. Rudder frame B. Rudder post C. Rudder stock D. Stern post Ans: C 3443 dual eletro-hydralic steering units usually operate________ A. With both pumps on the line at the same time B. With one pump on the standby C. With the follow up gear disconnected D. Only when the rudder is moved amidship Ans: B 3444 under normal operating condition the rudder us hydraulically locked unless__________ A. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering B. the variable stroke pump is off stroke C. the ruder order is given by control system

D. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear Ans: C 3445.when the helm angle position is changed,the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include ________i. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. Degree of tiliting plate box wi a.I only b.Iionly ANS B 3447. in an emergency ,the electro-hydralic streeling units can be directly controlledby the________ a.trick wheel b.rapson slide ans-a an eletro hydrlic streeling system damage due tonrudder shock is prevented by_____________ a.buffer springs b.relif values ans-b 3449.regulation requrierthat pior to deparature on a three day voyage the streeling gear whistile,and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested pior to depature no erlier than_________ a.1 hours b.4 hours

c.8 hours d.12 hours ans.d 3450.hydralic pumps most commanly used in steering are of the _________ a.lobe type b.screw type c.axile piston type d.volute type ans.c 3451.the purging of air from an eletro hydralic steering gear unit is necessary when_________ a.the system has been filled with new oil b.the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position 3452.air trapped in the hydralic fluid of a streeling system would be indicated by___________ improper rudder respons b.hammmering noises in the equipment or transmission c.popping or sputtering noises d.all the above ans.d 3453.regulatin system hydralic strelling gear system to be equipped with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency ths may be accomplised with___________

a.a sutible arrangement of stop vales in the main piping b.a postive arrangement of block and tackles powered by winches ans.a 3454.according to regulation which of the following state is correct reggarding the steering requrierment for a vessel over 75 meters in length a.hydralic structural rudder stops are mandatory b.on hydralic type steering gears a suitable arrangement of check values c.having two indepdentent pumps and connections d .allow the above ans .d 3455.regulation makes certain requrierments regarding overcurrent protection steering gear feeder circuits____________ a.a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip b.motor running over current pritection ans.a 3456.eletric eletro hydralic streeling gear motars are requried by regulation to be________ a.served by a sinle two conductors cable b.served by two feeder circuits ans.b 3457.of the equipent listed below which is not to tested more than 1__________ a.steering gear b.emergency generator

c.all internal vesselpower control communication and alarms d.all the above ans.a 3459.which of the listed system related to an engineer alarm panel is requried to be indicated by a continously illuminated light while in operation a.dearating tank low level b.port or starboard steering gear motor running 3460.relation of the steering wheel on the bridge intial oil pressure begains applied to the steering gear arms______________ a.moving the automatic differential value b.varying the angle of a tilling box or occentrictly of a floating ring ans.b ac synchronous tranismission type remote steeriling control system consists of a _________ a.transister at the streeling slation and a reciver at steering engine b.reversible motor at the steering station geard to the stearing pumps ans.a 3462.the purpose of the six way vale used in an eletro hydralic steering system is to__________ a.redirect hydralic fluid flow when changing over pump b.parallel rudder motion to the steering wheels ans.a

3463.according to regulation a power driven auxiliary streeing gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knots service speed must be able to met the rudder movement ______ a.6 knots b.7 knots ans.b 3464.a power driven auxilary steering gear requried by regulations capable of putting the rudder ovr 15 on one side to 15 the other side with the vessel running ahead_-----------a.7 knots b.10 knots ans.b 3465.regulation requrr that eletric andeletro hydalic streeling gear motors shall be __________ a.served by two eletric power feeder circuits b.served by single two conductor cable ans.a 3456.rudder position is shown on the bridge by the ___________ a.rudder angle indector b.follow up gear

ans.a an eletro hydralic streeing gear system when will the variable displacement pump be placed on stroke________

a.when the six way value is opened b.when the rudder ahe position of the whel released ans.a HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are accomplished by moving the _____________ a.floating ring b.cylinder body ans.a 3471.the usval number of single acting piston used in a variable strokes axial piston pump is ____________ a.7or9 b.9or11 ans.a 3472.dryseal threads typically used for tubeing to pipe connectors and threaded piping in hydralic system are ___________ a.radial plunger b.floting ring ans.b 3473.the size of flexible hose used in a hydralic system is indicated by _______ a.the inside diameter of the tube b.the numerical designation found on the skin of the hose ans.b charge a blader type hydralic accumulator___________ a.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preloaded pressure b.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system design pressure ans.a 33475.before doing any work on a hydralic system equipped with accumulators you should____________ a.bleed the accumulators and purge with oxygen b.bleed off all stored energy from accumlators

3476. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an o-ring? A. V-ring B .Cup seal C. U-RING D. quad ring Ans. D 3477. As a rule of thumb when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil,the oil will A .not be compressed as liquid are not compressible B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment C .increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment D. reduce in volume by % for every 70bar increment Ans.D 3478.The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system to. A. Collect any dirt in the system B.Collect fulid from any small leak

C.Preheat the fluid during cold weather D.Store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure in the system Ans.D 3479.Obstructed usction passage in the casing or pintle of a radial piston hydraulic pump will cause the. A.pump back pressure to decrease B.pump return and discharge pressures to equalize C.pumped fluid volume to decrease D.pump discharge flow to drop to zero Ans:C 3480.In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring seal be satisfactory used in providing a seal? A.high pressure pump shaft casing B.low pressure pump shaft casing C.linear actuator without nylon insert D.relief valve spool Ans:D 3481.Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing energy in an accumulator,you should.. A.pressurize the system to test for leaks B.bleed oil all pressure within the system C.operate the machine unit it reaches normal temperature D.disconnect the pump pressure control switch Ans:B 3482.When installing a hydraulic hose,which of the following precautions should be taken? A.the hose should not be twisted B.the hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to rubbing C.there should be some slack in the hose D.all of the above

Ans:D convert vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor,which of the following would have to be done? A.double the casing the thickness B.install an enlarged control ring around the rotor C.provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots D.provide one additional slot and vane Ans:C 3484.A reservoir,as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship,is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to.. A.act as a shock absorber B.maintain the stored oil under pressure C.act as a base or foundation for the powerunit D.eliminate pressure serges in the system Ans:C 3485.The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic cylinder is determined by the. A.position of the directional port in the cushion cavity B.adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve shape of the cylinder ends D.settind of the cushioning adjustment needle valve Ans:B 3486.Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to A.protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants B.prevent solid particles from entering the pump C.prevent solid particles from entering the filter D.protect the directional control valves Ans:B 3487.A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with detent will

A.have a infinite number of valve positionsn B.usually be shifted into three specific positions able to be varied through out the travel of the valve spool D.have an offset,directional control only Ans:B 3488.aAn O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to. A.compression set or wear B.low fluid pressure C.high fluid low D.low fluid temperature Ans:A 3489.Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when. A.adding small amounts of oil to the system B.the system has been overheated C.the system has been drained and then filled with new oil D.the system has been idle for along period of time Ans:C 3490.One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to. A.provide an area wher air can separate from the oil B.provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil C.acts as an oil and oil water separator D.absorb shocks occurring in the system Ans:D 3491.Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the A.reservoir expansion chamber B.hydraulic pumping flexibility C.atmosphere as heat

D.fluid as an friction Ans:C 3492.The movement of heat within a fluid ,caused by the application of thermal energy,is called.. A.radiation B.conduction C.convection D.condo-radiation varying the position Ans:C 3493.How can the change of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working oil hydraulic systems? A.clean the fittings before they are disconnected drip pans under leaky filtings C.seal any cracks in lines with permatex D.coat all threads with graphite oil Ans:A 3494.The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the A.sliding block B.pintle C.reaction ring D.tilting box or swash plate Ans:D 3495.If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation,the cause may be. air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir B.low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid oil laek across the pump shaft packing D.due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor Ans:A

3496.if the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation,this is a probable indication of. A.internal system fluid leakage B.air passing through the pump C.strained hydraulic fluid D.excess internal slippage Ans:B 3497.which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of a rotary pump is increased from the designed 3.50kg/cm2,while maintaining the same RPM? A.the pump capacity will be decreased B.the pump capacity will be increased C.pump efficiency will be increased D.internal liquid slippage will be reduced Ans:A 3498.If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the caused could be A.a low load on the unit B.a clogged pump suction strainer

C.a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor D.the hydraulic motor turning too fast Ans:C 3499.cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an. A.high fluid level in the reservoir b.hydralic fluid low floc point c.excessive discharge pressure from the pump d.clogged suction strainer in the reservoir 3500.return lines in a non-pressured hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to.. a.prevent foaming

b.prevent moisture accumulation c.prevent vacuum formation d.accommodate thermal expansion ans.a internal bypass is provided on somehydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of.. a.aeration of the oil b.contamination of the oil c.pump cavitation d.spongy actuator movements ans:c 3502:overheading of a hydraulic system may be a result of. a.changing pump oischarge pressure in response to normal load variations b.a high oil level c.incorrect fluid viscosity d.continued slow recirulation of the oil ans:c 3503.a reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to.. fluid until required by the system b.provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid c.provide a place for contaminants to settle out d.all of the above ans:d orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to. a.regulate the fluid flow in either direction b.restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction,but allow free movement in other direction c.allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions

d.allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only a.condensation on inside walls b.heat retention of working fluid c.frequency of working fluid d.all of the above ans:d a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to .I ensure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump II.assit in the removal of solid contaminants entrained in the returning oil a.I only b.II only c.both I and II d.niether I and II ans: c 3507. in a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to . I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect hydraulic pump II. Assit in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide heat removal a. I only b. II only c.both I and II d.neither I and II ans: b 3508. as a general rule of thumb the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity , when at normal level, approximately equal to A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system b.the flow rate through the system c. ten times the flow rate through the system d.the pump gym ans: A 3509. which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than specified ?

A.seal deterioration response and hunting c.increased power consumption d.oil film breakdown ans:c 3510. which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve? A.counterbalance valve B.offset two position valve C.sequenceing valve D. unloading valve Ans.B

3511. Why a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device? regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length. sloe the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects c. to allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve d.all of the above ans:b 3512.a hydraulic fluid flow circuit controlling linear actuator speed with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the a.metered-in circuit b.metered-out circuit c.bleed -in circuit d.bleed -off circuit ans:d 3513.a hydraulic fluid flow control circuit controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a .

a.metered-in circuit b.metered-out circuit c.bleed-off circuit d. bleed-in circuit ans: a 3514. the determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the a.external cover b. synthetic rubber inner tube 3515.the by-products of oxidation ,as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil,are generally.. a. removed by cellulose type filters b.gums,varnishes,and acids

C. braided layer D. teflon sleeve Ans : C 3516. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a highpressure system, the oil ___________ A. viscosity will increase B. viscosity will decrease C. volume will increase D. floc point will increase Ans: A 3517. If a radial piston hydrolic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be_______ A. contaminated fluid B.pitted thrust ring

C. worn pintle bearing D. odstruted suction passage Ans: D 3518. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the flow was required? A. counterbalance valve B. unloading valve C. compound, pressure-relief valve D. sequence valve Ans:B 3519. An axial position pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons are positioned__________ A.radailly from the shaft B. parallel to each other and to the shaft C. parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft D. at an angle other and to the shaft Ans: B 3520. Which of the divices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. three-position valve B. sequence valve C. unloading valve

D. counterbalance valve Ans: A 3521. The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by varying the ________ A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor B. fluid flow rate discharge to the motor C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump Ans: B 3522. Which gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent____________ A. overhead of the lube oil B. over speeding of the motor\ C. wear on the breaking system D. damage to the teeth Ans: D 3523. A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity should be carried out to___________ A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir C. pprevent the anchor from seizing the hawspipe D. renew the internal coating of lubrication Ans: D

3524. a mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding___________ A. haif the breaking strength of the mooring line B. the full breaking strength of the mooring line C. the maximum expected tention of the mooring line D. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line Ans: B 3525. The torque rating of fluid poer motor is expressed in___________ A. RPMs under a given load condition B. Newtons-metre at a given pressure C. Newton-metre per piston stroke D. Newton-metre per rate of input flow Ans:B 3526. The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying position of the ___________ A. slide block B. tilting box C. pintle D. reation ring Ans:B 3527. When changing to afire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the systems ________________ A. seals

B. metals and plating C. Paint D. all the above Ans:D 3528. Directinal control valve used in hydraulic pump is cotolled by varying the position of the ___________ A. manually B. mechanically C. electrically D. all d above 3529. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to _________ A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction B. minimize the amount of contaminated deposited from retrun line entering the system C. minimize the entrance air through the pump inlet line D. all the above Ans: D 3530. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system directional contor valve? A. Two-position valve B. Three-position valve C. Detented-position valve

D. Counterbalance valve Ans:D 3531. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the_________ A. accumulator B. actuator C. ram D. reservoir Ans:A 3532. in a typical hydrau/lic system, return lines to the reservoir are _______. I. terminated at or just above the normal level II. Placed as far from the pump suction as possible A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II Ans:B 3533. Proper interal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for extended periods can be accomplished by______ A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH C. checking the reservoir for proper level D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals

Ans: A 3534. Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure vessel? A. Low pressure evaporator B. Deaerting feed heater C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder D. Fuel oil heater Ans: C 3535. Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. Unloading valve B. Counterbalance valve C. Detented position valve D. Sequencing valve Ans:C 3536. If an anchor has been idle for some time , you should________ A. repack all valve stems B. lubricate it prior to uuse C. replace the foundation bolts D. balance the warping heads Ans:B 3537. Which of the following is the most common type of valving element used in hydraulic system directional control valves?

A. Nutating disk B. Sliding spool C. Elongation ball or cone D. Restricted orifice poppet Ans: A 3538. A device incorating a variable avariable orifice placed in series with a check valve in ahydraulic system, is used to__________ A. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions B. allow fluid flow in one direction only C. allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only D. restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both direction Ans:A 3539. Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause an oxidation process producing by products which are normally__________ A. gums, acids, and varnishes B. removed by cellulose type filters C. neutralized by oil additives D. not removed by absorbent filters Ans: A 3540. Hydralic machinery failures are commonly caused by contamination of the hydraulic fluid and ___________ A. fluid friction B. fluid turbulence

C. component misalignment D. pressure surges Ans:C 3541. The purpose of a resistor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to _______ A. prevent oil backflow to the actuators B. prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing D. resist the oil supply to the hatch cover not in use Ans: C 3541. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to_________. A. prevent oil back flow to the acutators B. prevent the hydraulic pump from over heating C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing D. restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use Ans: C 3542. prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition can cause _________. A. The hydraulic fluid to become over heated B. The fluid motor to become over loaded C. The relief valve to hum D. A wide variation in fluid pressure surges

Ans: A 3543. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by___________. A. changing the angle of the tilting plate B. changing the speed of the pump C. moving the slide block and rotor D. moving the shaft trunnion block Ans: B 3544. When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the normal pipe size of the piping always indicates the _________. A. actual inside diameter B. actual outside diameter C. wall thickness D. size for threaded connections Ans: D 3545. Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at either end of a hydraulic , two-way, speed-type directional control valve cylinder were to become plugged? A. The reservoir would become vapor bound B. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock C. The spring loaded relief ports would open D. The buffering chambers would be unable to function Ans: B

3546. return lines to hydraulic system reservoirs should__________. A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible C. provide a P or S trap in the return line as close to the reservoir as possible to trap sediment from entering the tank D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection plates to limit the number of openings on the reservoir Ans: A 3547. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur? A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out B. The sheating on the hydraulic lines will fracture C. cold hydraulic fluid D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir Ans: D 3548. The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the ________ A. tilting box B. slide box C. pintle D. reaction ring Ans:A

3549. A gradution decrease in the discharge pressure of an operation hydraulic pump can be caused by ____________ A. the four-way control valve failing to shaft B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position C. cold hydraulic fluid D. a clogged air vent on the reservoir Ans:D 3550. If you are given the lob of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring which and are not certain us to the type of fluid to use, you should _________ A. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir B. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute C. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fliud D. check the which manufacturers instruction book Ans: D 3551.Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather cap. If the breathe elements becomes fouled, the _________. A. reservoirs will becomes pressurized B. reservoirs will be subjected to a partial vacuum C. flow through the return lines will be stopped D. actuator response time will be halved Ans: B 3552. The oil in a cargo which gear box should be sampled periodically to_________.

A. prevent the gear box from leaking B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable C. make sure it has not become contamined D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated Ans: C 3553. A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely be located ____________. A. at the pump suction B. between the pump and the directional control valves C. between the control valves and the actuators D. in the actuator returnlines Ans: B 3554. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. sequencing valve B. two-position valve C. Three position valve D. spring-centered valve 3555. Flexible host under pressure in a hydraulic system will_________. A. tend to twist about its long axis B. Expand in length and in diameter C. contract to length and expand in diameter

D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure

3556.The pressure of an operating hydraulic system,as indicated by a pressure gauge,is a result of the fluid flow overcoming A.internal resistance to flow B.resistance of the internal components C.the load applied to the system D.all of the above Ans:D 3357.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system A.pressure reducing valve B.unloading valve C.Counterbalance valve Ans:D 3358.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second would be permitted A.counterbalance valve B.Unloading valve C.sequence valve D.pressure-reducing valve

Ans:C 3559.Which of the listed pressure control valves is used in a hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load unit required A.Pressure reducing valve B.counterbalance valve C.Unloading valve D.sequence valve Ans:B 3560.Which of the following statements describes the function of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system A.Dissipate heat B.Trap foreign matter C.Seperate air from the oil D.All of the above Ans:D 3561.Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet to prevent A.excessive pump cavitation B.expansion and contraction of the tubing fitting leaks from vibration and pressure surges flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure Ans:C

3562.When a linear actuator(cylinder) is being retracted without an applied load,the pressure on the oil leaving the cap end will be B.inversely proportional to the speed of retraction C.inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end D.increased as the speed of retraction increases Ans:D 3563.If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent A.failure of the hydraulic hose B.excessive flow through the line C.friction in other areas of the hydraulic system D.overheating of the hydraulic fluid Ans:A 3564.Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oils viscosity A.pour point point C.vaccum D.pressue Ans:D

3565.sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a result of A.insufficient load B.excessively high oil viscosity C.relief-valve pressure setting too high D.reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal Ans:B 3566.The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic accumulator should only be filled with A .pure water B.pure oxygen C.dry nitrogen D.dry hydrogen Ans:C 3567.Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak proof by A.seal welding the matting flange surfaces B.installing suitable gaskets or O-rings C.leather wipers installed with the flange seals D.enclosing the flanged connection in a container Ans:B 3568.The component which is used to thoroughly separate small,fine,dust like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is an A.accumulator B.filter

C.seperator D.strainer Ans:b 3569.The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring which must be set up light enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when A.excessive loads are placed on the winch B.minimum pull is being exerted by the winch C.automatic operation of the winch is desired D.wire is retrieved at the maximum rate Ans:A 3570.New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely decreased by using A.alcohol B.a water based detergent C.carbon tetrachloride D.a special petroleum solvent Ans:D 3571. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the A. inner tube B. braided inner layer(s) C. outer cover D. outer armor


3572.For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system,the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less A. the wall thickness B.1.5 times the wall thickness C. 2 times the wall thickness D. 2.5 times the wall thickness Ans:C 3573.An axial piston,variable stroke pump is used in a vessels hydraulic steering gear.under pressure oil continually outs from between the valve plate/cylinder barrel and will A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system B.result in extreme damage to the pump C.cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump casing D. result in the system high side pressure to substantially drop off Ans:C 3574.When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is perpendicular to the pump shaft which of the following conditions will exist A. the pistons reciprocate B. the B end cylinder barrel rotates C. there is no fluid flow

D. power is transmitted hydraulically Ans:C 3575. Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil having a viscosity higher than that specified for an oil heating hydraulic system A. external seal leakage B. hunting due to fast response C. hydraulic oil film breakdown D. increased power consumption Ans:D 3576. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure is the A. ram B. accumulator C. piping D. pump Ans:B 3577. The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cool Would have a viscosity index of A.20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

Ans:A 3578. A bent axis , variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater capacity than a comparable tilting box type axial piston pump,because the A. piston diameters are smaller B. length of stroke is greater C. RPM is doubled D. discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently Ans:B 3579. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative pistons of the A. pump shaft and central valve B. pump shaft and horizontal ports C. floating ring and pump shaft D. floating ring and cylinder body Ans:D 3580.A hydraulic accumulator,used in a hydraulic system is designed to A. stroke fluid under pressure B. act as the main fluid reservoir C. provide the only means of overpressure relief D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system Ans:A 3581. what is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used a system which operates at 17.6kg/cm2(250psl)

A. 93oC B. 102oC C. 149oC D. 157oC Ans:D 3582. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid flow,is called a A. relief valve B. reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. regenative valve Ans:C 3583. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of fluid flow is called a A. relief valve B. . reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. power valve 3584. Compensated flow control,or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to A. compensate for major leaks in the system B. maintain the original fluid viscosity C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system

D.assure constant fluid temperature 3585. Plug valves installed in hydraulic system are most suitable for use as A. main supply line throttle valves B. variable flow control valves C. two position flow control valves D. check and choke valves Ans:C 3586. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment Of the system components and by A.Hydraulic fluid contamination B. excessive fluid friction C. turbulent fluid flow D. fluid pressure surges Ans:A 3587. In the design of hydraulic piping equipment,consideration is given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid,as this will cause A. molecular fluid vibration B. energy losses C. wide pressure variations D. mechanical damage to control valves Ans:B

3588.One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to A. the reservoir B. a servo control circuit C. position a manually controlled valve D. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions Ans:B 3589. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in A. accelerated action of the system components B. over heating of the system C. overspending of the hydraulic pump D. extended system life Ans:B 3590. Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic motor may be caused by A. permanent loss of pump suction B. worn shaft seals C. high level in the oil pump D. low motor RPM Ans:B 3591. Which problems can offer if the break band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn

A. the driving engine will overspeed B. the anchor will immediately drop C. the clutch will over heat D. the brakes effectiveness will be reduced Ans:D 3592. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating the cause may be A. excessive drive motor speed B. excessive pump discharge pressure C. too low of a tilting box angle D. in sufficient drive motor speed Ans:B 3593.An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit C. rupture the pump discharge piping D. all of the above 3594. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve A. spring centered valve C. unloading valve C. three position valve 3595. Over heating of a hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor

Windlass can result from a/an

A. Overload on the pump motor B. Low fluid level in the reservoir C. Low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal

C. assists the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening for major or minor repairs D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage Ans: D
d. two-position valve ans. B 3696. As the general rule of thumb,the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity ,when at the normal level, approximately equal to Two to three times the normal flow rate through the system. The flow rate through the system. Ten times the flow rate through the system. The number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute. Ans. A

A. B. C. D.

3697.Hydraaulic systems typically operated for intermittent service donot require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following exept.
Constant tension mooning which system . Hatch cover system Water tight door system. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system. Ans.A 3598.Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed. A. Only by the pump as its primary function. B. By resistance to the fluid flow through the system. A. B. C. D.

C. By the thermal input to the systems fluid. D. Solely by the charge applied by the accumulators. Ans.B

3599.In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?
A. B. C. D. Constant tension mooring winch system. Hatch cover system. Water tight door system. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system. Ans.A

3600.If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient room for expansion , which of the following problems will develop?
A. B. C. D. The hose may pull loose from its fitting . The components connected to the hose will be damaged. The hydraulic unit will fail to acquire any power. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown. Ans.A 3601.When new piping section have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system,prior to installation the piping should be? A. Cleaned using a water based detergent. B. Descaled by using a pickling solution. C. Hydrostaically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure. D. All the above. Ans.

3602.While at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the?

A. B. C. D. Wind lass break only. Chain stopper or riding pawl. Riding spindle. Anchor shackle. Ans.B

3603.If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass Is over heating , the cause may be?
A. Increased pump speed.

B. Excessive pump discharge pressure. C. Too low of a tilting box angle. D. Low pump speed. Ans .B

3604.If a hydraulic pump is over heated, the cause may be ?

A. B. C. D. Excessive internal slip page in the pump. Low discharge pressure and fluid flow. Excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir. Operation of the pump at 100% efficiency. Ans.A

3605.When normal operatin pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil usedin a high pressure system, the oil?
A. B. C. D. Viscosity will decrease. Volume will increase. Volume will decrease. Pour point will be redused. Ans.C

3606.Increased internal leakage in addition to poor hydraulic system response,and inadequate lubrication, is the result of?
A. B. C. D. Pump bearing in poor conditon . Excessively worn actuator-piston packing. Broken directional control valve centering springs. Low hydraulic oil viscosity. Ans.D

3607.In high pressures, an O-ring has a tendancy to extrude into the clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator.Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion?
A. B. C. D. Doube seal ring. Lathe cut ring. Backup ring Static washer.

Ans .C

3608.A solinoid direct acting three position spring centred directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button depressed to extent the actuator it fails to move even though the pump is in op?
A. B. C. D. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed preventing the spool from shifting. The extend solinoid coil has developed an open. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move. Ans.D

3609.A solinoid direct acting , three position , spring centered ,directional control valve is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is relaesed ,but the actuator continues to extend slowly,which of?
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement preventing the spool from recentering. B. One of the two solinoids has sustained an open in its respective coil. C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from developing its required operating speed. D. The detect mechanism has failed ,preventing the valve from operating . Ans .A

3610.Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion, This action is a result of?
A. The trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum pump discharge pressure , then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves. B. The cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the actuator. C. Air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid.

D. Air providing better lubrication of internal components ,found in hydraulic systems,than hydraulic fluids. Ans.B

3611.In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow , the pump suction should?
A. Be provided with three to five inch in the vertical suction line to prevent pump starvation should the stainer become fouled. B. Be arranged to develop a maximum vaccum of approximately 10^n of mercury . C. Be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vaccum. D. Be take directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers. Ans.B

PAGE-194 3612.Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into the hydraulic sysems ?
A. B. C. D. Deterioration of paints ,seals, metals and electrical insulation may occur. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use . Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use. Only chemically active filters may be used, Ans.A

3613.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic pumps in general?
A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by variable of the pump drive speed. B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder block through which passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft. C. The amount of fluid displased per revolution of an axial piston rotatory pump is dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block and the valve plate. D. All the above. Ans.A

3614.Which of the listed components of a hydraulic systems would enable the pump to be temporarily shut down,and yet still provide an instantaneous sourse of hydraulic force?
A. B. C. D. Modulator. Pressure compen sator valve . Accumulator . Sump Actuator. Ans.C

3615.Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro hyraulic anchor windlass may indicate pump cavitation caused by?
A. B. C. D. Overload of the pump motor. Low oi level in the reservoir. Low fluiod viscosity existing only around the shaft seal. High oil level in the pump. Ans.B

3616.When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position ,the spring set break on the fluid motor drive shaft is ?
A. Engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure. B. Released by spring action and hyraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating . C. Engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by hydraulic pressure. D. Opened hydraulically and held open by spring action when ever the electrical supply is secured. Ans.A

3617.Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be installed between two points of relative motion?
A. Provided proper releasing mechanisms are availableto enable quick disconnect capabilities. B. But shall not be subjected to torsional deflection under any conditions of operations. C. Provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at a times.

D. To prevent the formation of loading stresses. Ans.B

3618.Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope with increasing pressure differentials by?
A. B. C. D. Diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex unit. Automatically bypassing the the fluid via an internal valve arrangement. Automatically securing the system . Diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction. Ans.B

3619.Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed up before being operated because?

A. B. C. D. Warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil. Warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested. Hydraulic trainers opeate only during the warm-up period. Hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity. Ans.D

3620.Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint?
A. B. C. D. Can cause rusting of internal parts. Breaks down hydraulic fluid. Can clog filters and promote component leakage. Solidifies and causes cracked lines. Ans.C

3621.With an increase in temperature , the volume hydraulic fluid ?

A. Contracts.

B. Remains the same. C. Remains constant if pressure decreases. D. Increases. Ans.D

3622.If you attempt to tighten a leaking hyraulic fitting with pressure on the system you will ?
A. B. C. D. Be successful every time. Find that the pressure will prevent the components from from being tightened. Cause the system to vibrate. Dislodge any scale in the tubing and it will damaga the system. Ans.B

3623.A fluid power system is considered to be fail safe if a component failure will result in ?
A. B. C. D. Continues operation of the system. A safety interlock produsing a regulated shut down of the system. The guaranteed and efficient operation of the system at all times. A slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger personnel.


3624.A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abrubtly slows towards the end of the stroke ,then continues to creep to the completion of its stoke.which of the following represents the probable cause?
A. B. C. D. The cusion adjustment needle valve is open too far. The cusion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. The rod wiper is jammed in the cusion spear. Ans.B

3625.When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest temperature recommended for proper operaton , you should operate the system at ?
A. B. C. D. Minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached. Neutral stroke until all of the air has been vanted. No load until the normal operating temperature is reached . Maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up. Ans.C

3626.A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stoke pumps to?
A. Vent off any accumulated air from the system. B. Drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started. C. Assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to operating for major or minor repairs D. Prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage


3627.A fluid power system shall be so designed ?

A. That power functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back pressure in the system. B. To maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders operating range. C. Such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for sufficient back pressure D. None of the above


3628. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve ,used in a hydraulic system ,the set point was reduced by 7bar . Which of the following statements

describes the result of the following statements describes the result of the set point being lowered? A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure prior to the relief valve being repaired B. the solenoid controlled, three position , spring centered control valve response will be quicker C. the fluid viscosity will increase during operation D. the movement of any system actuator will now be slower Ans: D 3629. Which of the following statements represents a disadvantage associated with a spool-type , the solenoid direct operating directional control valves ? A. back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower spool chamber B. the valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive throttling action C. the spool does not have hydro cushion capabilities to handle shock. D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of hydraulic oil residues Ans.D 3630. Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box? A. control over speed, direction and stopping would be better than having the pump equipped with the tilting box B. maximum speed when rotated in the hauling in direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke , while pay out would be the opposite

C. maximum torque ,when rotated in the pay out direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to the neutral stroke , while hauling in would be the opposite D. maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved just beyond of neutral stroke , making reversal of direction difficult Ans.D 3631. Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid , or trapped in an actuators will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of. A. the trapped air being compressed to9 a pressure above maximum pump discharge pressure then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure as the actuator moves allowing the air to re-expand , then repeating the process C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid D. air providing better lubrication of internal components , found in Hydraulic Systems , than hydraulic fluids Ans . B 3632. a flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has developed a slight leak . To stop the leak you should . A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut D.shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening

3633. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation , and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger , the fan should .. A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at loss than 87.8 degree celcius(190F) D.never be needed , expect when when the ambient temperature exceeds 32.3 degree celcius(90F ) Ans. A 3634.A pre charged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system,can be potentially dangerous if .. A.the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure B.the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil C.the bladder contains the top of the poppet is pre charged with free nitrogen Ans. A 3635.According to Regulations,nonmetallic flexible hoses used as supply and return lines to hydraulic system component must have.. A.the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end fitting B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both the end fittings inner tube construced of steamless reinforced polyster braid D.a dessigned bursting pressure of atleast four times the maximum working pressure of the system

Ans.D 3636.The hydraulic system of a deck which has been drained,fushed and refilled with hydraulic fluid.An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started indicates . A.the fluid level in the reservoir is too high B.air trapped in the system C.clogged suction line fluid filters D.abrasive matter circulating in the oil Ans.B 3637.when comparing a bent-axial position ,variable stroke hydraulic pump, to a variable angle tilting box ,axial position pump where the numbers ,diameter,rotating speed of the pistons are the same.The significant differrence is the.. A.maximum capacity B.maximum pressure C.minimum pressure D.minimum capacity Ans.A 3638.When fire safe or fire resistent fluid is to be used in a hydraulic system ,it is important that A.the resultant pressure due to the increase in fluid viscosity,is not excessive B.the fluid does not dissipate too much heat C.the fluid be compatible with all the seal materials used D.separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump

Ans.C 3639.Overheating of an oil in a hydraulic be caused by A.continuous ,unnecessaryand excessive pump discharge pressure increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers C.insufficient external pump slippage D.fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations Ans.A

Page-196 3640. In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor the speed is varied by A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter at the motor B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input D. controlling the input flow rate Ans. D 3641. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system , what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system? A. the relief valves in the system should be readjusted B. the filters and strainers should be checked frequently C. all system pressure should be readjusted

D. the system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating characteristics Ans. B, 3642. Ahydraulic fluid flow control circuit , used to control linear actuator speed during retraction , with the pump operating at above maximum pressure , is known as a. A. metered -in circuit B. metered -out circuit C. bleed -in circuit D. bleed off circuit 3643. In a typical hydraulic system , return lines to thereservoir are terminated below the normal oil level toprevent ..1.foaming of the oil 2.condensation of warm oil vapours upon return A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 and 2 Ans. A 3644. According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an. A. device in which bilge water may be stured prior to being pumped ashore B. unfired pressure vessel is which energy is stored under high pressure in the form of a gas and hydraulic fluid C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect oily bilge liquids

D. test products in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves are verified Ans. B 3645. Archiemedes principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a body immersed in a fluid A. acts vertically upwards through the centre of gravity of the displaced fluid and us equal to the fluid displaced B. will causes the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of floation C. is proportional in magnitude and direction , regardless of the direction originally developed when the object was submerged D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which it is contained Ans. A 3546. Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated by. A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistant , but higher than normal C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator D. over speeding of the pump Ans . A 3647. The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fiuid is. A. microscopic steel shavings B. abrasive waste C. anti-oxidant compounds

D. oxidation by-products 3648. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass , you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor . Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure? A. make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level B. Inspect the disc break on the electric motor for proper operation C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact D. check for full voltage supply to the electric motor Ans a 3649. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable line would be found between the..

A. B. C. D.

Number 1and 2 shots of chain Number 2 and 3 shots of chain Number 3and 4 shots of chain All the above

Ans A LUBRICATION AND ANTIFRICTION BEARINGS 3650. The term pour point is defined as the lowest temperature at which the lubricating oils will flow A. Rapidly B. By gravity C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature

D. has a rate of 60 cc per second Ans B 3651. Which of the following statements is used to describe the term base in reference to the greases? A. Texture of the grease under load B. Temperature at which the greases softens or melts C. Type of soap used in its production D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a lubricant Ans C 3652. A grease lubricated ball bearings or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease. A. fills only 10% of all void spaces within the bearings B. has a high grease penetration number(is hard) C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil D. is heated prior to packing the bearing Ans . B 3653. In a compression type grease cup , the lubricant is forced into bearing A. gravity B. spring C. force D. A zerk fitting Ans..B

3654. Which of the processes listed consumes the greatet amount of power while producing the greatest amount of heat? A.Overcoming sliding friction B. Overcoming rolling friction C. Overcoming fluid friction D. Overcoming oil wedge friction Ans. A 3655. The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by. A. gravity and feed oil cups B. grease cups C. hand during installation D. leakage through the stuffing box Ans. D 3656. An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite , is suitable as an oil additive when used in 3657. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to A.machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures B.antifriction bearings on general service pumps c.bearings subjected to fluctuating loads d.line shaft bearings Ans.A

3658 Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they A.utilize exotic and expensieve filtering media making them too costly for use. B. are only effective at temperatures below 37.8 c C.can adsorb no more thanfive times their weight I water. D.remove additives from the lube oil Ans.D 3660. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump should . A.have no plating joints at 90 B.retain the lube oils as long as possible before it recirculates through the system C.provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600 mm from the pump suction D. be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom. Ans.B 3662. the ability of lubricating oils to resist viscositychanges during temperature changes is indicated by the . A.American petroleum institute number B.Viscosity index number C.Seconds Saybolt furol number D.seconds saybolt Universal number Ans.b

3664. the flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system should be approximately A.27c to 38c B.60c to 71c C.121c to 149c D.177c to 232c Ans.D 3666. Which of the filter/ strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line? A.Simplex B.Duplex C.Canister D.Bypass Ans.B 3668 The function of lubricating oil is to.. A.reduce friction between two units. B.provide uniform distribution of bearing wear C.reduce the accumulatio of harmful detergents. D.maintain a constant oil temprature output at each bearing Ans.A 3670. The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has exceeded its permissible range,therefore it will be necessary to

A.centrifuge the oil B. add makeup oil C.renew the entire oil supply D.operate the machinery at reduced power Ans.c 3672. a grease gun is generally used to lubricate a. A.condensate pump ball bearing B.main shaft bearing C.main turbine bearing D.diesel engine wrist pin bearing Ans.A 3674 A graphite additive type grease is best suited for .. I.low temperature applications.II.High tempearature applications A.I only B.II only C.Both I and II D.neither I nor II Ans.B 3676 dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease lubricant beause the.. A.bearings will leak oil easily B.dirt will cause corrossion of bearing C. Grease will become inflammable.

A. B. C. D.

Add grease through zerk fitting Allow the winch to run at lower speeds Replace the bearing with a new one Apply a light oil to the bearing housing

Ans.C 3659 although lube oils are useed in main lubricating services systems should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition,they can create smoke and fire hazards when they, A.are exposed to vacuum B.come in contact with extremely hot surfaces C.are reduced in temperature tojust above the pour point D.Become extremely agitated or aerated Ans.B 3661. Design charateristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include . A.installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil. B. sufficient capacity to contain all lube oil in system except for th e contents of gravity tank. C.cooling coils made of welded seamlesssteel pipe. D.the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating. Ans.a 3663. which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency of lube oil.? a.emulsifiers

B.suppresents C.Deppresents D. Extreme pressure Ans.B 3665. which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod? A.Engine oil B. Oil mixed with Kerosene C.Graphite and oil D.Vegetable oil Ans.C 3667. which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fineresidue particles in lube oil? A.Floo point B.Suppresent C.Dispersant D.all of the above Ans.c 3669. the function of lubricating oil is to. A.maintain even distribution of bearing wear B.maintain a constant oil temperature C.maintain a pressurized flui d film between moving surfaces

D.remove entrained water Ans.C 3671.. With regardsto the viscosity of lube oilin an operating system under normal load, the highest viscosity should occur.. A.just prior to entering the lub oil cooler the lube oil cooler outlet the main lube oil pump discharge the narrowest pointof hydrodynamic wedge Ans.D 3673. An example of antifriction bearing is a A.rubber cutlass strut bearing. B.line shaft or spring bearing C.Kingsbury thrust bearing D. Ball bearing Ans.D 3675.The lubrication of high speed precision bearing depends upon a system that produces.. A.adequent quantity at sufficient pressure B.high detergent oil with pressure additives C. constant viscosity lubrication D.a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of system Ans.A

3677. same questionas abovePage 198 D.dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease Ans.a 3678. The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a .. A.low viscosity index B.High viscosity index C.High neutralization number D. Low demulsibility quality Ans.A 3679. Which of the following conditions should be used to support the .to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number? A.A decrease in the viscosity of oil B.An increase in the viscosity of oil C.A change in the cloud point D. A change in the floo point Ans. B 3680. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to. A.decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil B.cause water to separate from oil C.improve the lubricating oil viscosity D.displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction

Ans.D 3681. which bearing will carry the load on two small pointsdiametrically opposite to each other? ANeedle B.tapered roller C.Roller D.ball Ans.D 3682one characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is A.High TBN value B.High oil floo point C.low oil demulsibility D.low oil neutralization number Ans.c 3683. in most pump and pump motors overpacking the ball bearings full of grease will result in A.moisture emulsification of the bearing grease B.insufficient circulation and overheating of grease C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing D. sliding friction between balls and races Ans.B 3684. Main propulsionengine lube oil oil sumps should be constructed.. as to never be integral with the main engine foundation B.with a sloped bottom C.only of nonferrous noncorrosive metals D. with drain/return lines ferminating just above or at the desiged normal level Ans. B 3685The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that adsorbent filters is.. A.will remove additives from the lube oil B.soak up liquis contaminants directly into the filter media C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system D.attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of filter media. Ans.B 3686.Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because A.the bearings will require immediate flushing B.dirt will accumulate inside the bearings C.excess lubrication will result in slippage D. the bearing will overheat Ans. D 3687..if a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with grease. A.the bearing may heat up B.grease may flow out of seals C. early failure might result

D.all the above Ans. D 3688.Antifriction bearings may be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press,or wheeler puller with a A.ring gage B.split die C.Split washer or backup ring D. jack screw Ans.c 3689.An additive used to improve the ability of lube oil to reduce friction is known as an. A.suppresant additive B.dispersant additive C.Extreme pressure additive D.viscosity improver additive Ans.c 3690.the graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease,acts as a A.low temperature sealer B.moisture barrier C.filter to smooth surface irregularities D.coolant to carry away heat Ans.C

3691.when removing roller bearings from a shaft,the force of the puller must be applied to the bearing.. A.outer race.. B.raceway C.inner race D.retainer plates Ans.c 3692.demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as.. A.the ability of oil to separate from water B.the temperature at which oil flows rapidly C.a measure of the water in the lube oil system emulsion of different grades of oil Ans.a 3693.same question as above 3694. A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively used A. in only very high temperature installations an additive to depress pour point an additive to slow oxidation D.where a wide range of temperature variation exist Ans.d 3695. which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of lubricating oil?

A.emulsifiers B.Suppresents C.deppresents D.Extreme pressure Ans.c 3696.which of the following statements is correct about the viscosity of lubricating oil? A.Viscosity will increase as temperature increases B.viscosity is am easure of fluid internal resistence to flow. C.viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases D.viscosity is not dependant of temperature Ans.B 3697.Additive commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include A,antifoaming agents B.oxidation inhibitors C.extreme pressure additives D.all the above. Ans.D 3698. The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral lubricating oilis reflected as a measure of its . (no choices given) 3699.A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from the lube oil.A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is .

B. Allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up C. Prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft D. Reduce torisional vibration in the crankshaft Ans B 3738. a good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery should be

A. Acid free B. Capable of emulsifying C. A rapid oxidizer D. Additive free Ans. A

3739. which of the listed types of bearing is an example of a half bearing? A. Piston pin bushing B. Thrust bearing C. Spring bearing D. All the above Ans c

3740. if a continues and steady flow of lube oils provided, which of the listed pressures represent lowest supply pressure at which small high speed bearing can be safely s the lubricated? A. 0.1 kg/cm2 B. 0.3 kg/cm2 C. 0.6 kg/cm2 D. 1 kg/cm2 Ans.A 3741.if the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main propulsion machinery indicates an neutralization number the A. Acidity has increased B. Viscosity has decreased C. Demulisibility has improved D. Foaming is guaranteed to occur Ans A 3742. why do roller bearings have higher loading capacity than ball bearing? A. They are installed with tighter clearance B. They are subjected to less pitting and metal fatigue C. Hey have a higher tolerance for high speed application D. They have a greater contact area Ans D 3743. which of the listed tcols should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?

A. An arbor press B. A steel drift pin and hammer C. A acetylene torch and a hammer D. A tapering come-a-long Ans A 3744. The size of ball and roller bearing can be identified by the

A. Rolling member size B. Inner race cone width C. Manufacturers numerical code D. Outer ring width Ans C 3745. a filler commonly mixed with grease , such as graphite acts

A. as a mild abrasive B. To smooth surface irregularities C. To lower the friction coefficient D. All the above Ans D 3746. which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh lube oil strainer?

A. A 200 mesh will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 mesh wire cloth B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than 100 mesh wire cloth C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 mesh screen D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of small size particles, but each allow a different number of particles to pass through Ans A 3747. a grease drop point is

A. How far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in 5seconds when dropped B. How uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when ten dropped from a height of 5 feet C. The temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy D. The length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the underside of a surface coated with 25 millimeters of the grease sample Ans C 3748. after adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should A. Run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while B. Close the bearing housing and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in the bearing C. Remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

D. Save the used grease for analysis Ans A 3749. When referring to grease, penetration number is A How many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the sample B. The temperature at which a cone would bigin to penetrate athe sample C. The temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently fluid to fill the voids of a standard ball bearing D. The depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5 seconds. Ans D 3750. A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for lubrication. Under steady load condition , the journal rotating in the bearing will assume a position A. at bearing bottom center B. concentric in the bearing C. At bearing top center D. eccentric in the bearing Ans D 3751. Machinery with ball bearing designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that

A. A path of expansion is provided for the grease B. All air pockets are veined from the grease

C. Dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing D. The grease is properly distributed within the bearing Ans.A 3752. Solid containments are prevented from entering the main lube tube oil system by way of the main engine sump through the use of

A. Fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line en the sump. B. Baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the vehicles C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches(254mm) above the sump bottom D. a 10 inches (254mm)dome installed just below the suction inlet and provided within one inch of the dome. Ans. C 3753. As the speed of an oil lubricating ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat and should be avoided

A. Adding more lubricant until the ball bearing is completely covered with a layer of oil. B. Reducing the quantity of lubricating until only a mist of oil is presented on the ball bearing. C.maintaining a continuous fluid filim of oil on the bearings D.intiallings oil rings on the ball bearings Ans.B Page 202

3754. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearing installed in pumps?

a. b. c. d.

The inner race should be free to be turn on the shaft The outer race should be free to turn in its housing Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation They are usually pressed on to their shafts Ans.d

3755. A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by a. Allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five seconds and determining the depth of penetration b. Dropping a one ounce grease sample for one meter, and observing the resulting spread pattern uniformly of thickness, consistency of thickness and consistency of texture c. Allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup of ambient temperature and determining the time necessary for occur D. Determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies when heated and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice. Ans.D 3756. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings? a. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction b. They are well adapted to variable speed operation c. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention Ans.c

3757. Which of the following statements is correct regarding on oil regarding with a high viscosity index a. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in temperatures b. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperatures c. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in temperature Ans. C 3758. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with todays high detergent additive type oils a. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges b. Cylindrical elements containing fullers combined with cellulose c. Foamed poly urethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings d. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges ans .a 3759. Which of the following problem will occur if a disk type centrifugal lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting to follow the bowl? a. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result b. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force c. The lube oil will over heat and flash d. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be washed ans .d 3760. In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigeration admitted to the evaporator is directly related to

a. The compressor discharge pressure b. Condenser cooling water temperature c. The solenoid valve differential pressure d. The super heat of the refrigerant in that \coil ans.d 3761. In a flash distilling unit evaporator(sea water) absorbs in the a. Vapour feed water b. Air ejector condenser c. Salt water heater d. Distillate water ans.d 3762. The value of controlled variable which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller Operates to maintain is known as a. Set point b. Control point c.Deviation d. Offset ans.b 3763. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being safe for man and safe for life, this condition may change if a. The ambidient temperature changes

b. A product leaks into the certified tank c. Muck, sludge, or scale in the tank given off additional vapours d.all the above ans.d the event of an exhaust fire most dry chemical and carbon dioxide gally range fixed extinguishing systems areatomically activated through the action of a stain less steel cable spring and a a. Fusible link b. Stack switch c. Thermostal d. Pyrostat ans.a 3765. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire? A. co2 b. Water fog c. Halon d. Dry chemical Ans.b 3766. The horizontal and ft movement of a vessel is called a. Yaw b. Sway c. Heave

d. Surde ans.d

3767 which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for an Lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
A. B. C. D. When it is approved by the master. When working near or over the water When stowed away from the ring buoys A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket

Ans : D 3768 what safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available In bookle form on your ship?
A. B. C. D. Location of fire doors Location of the remote means of stopping fans Particulars of the fire detecting system All the above.

Ans : D 3769 when involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum superstructure. It is important to remember that aluminum structures exposed to the high heat __________ A. B. C. generate poisonous fumes Are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures are susceptible to spontaneous ignition

D. Ans :B

all the above.

3770 the fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric Drive vessel is usually a _____________
A. B. C. D. Fixed foam extinguisher Fixed co2 system Steam smothering system Carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system

Ans : B


when administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be Repeated about ______________
A. B. C. D. 12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute As fast as possible

Ans : A 3772 the most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________ A. B. C. D. Ans : C carbon dioxide flue gas water steam smothering

3773 a disadvantage of using co2 for fire fighting is that ________________ A. B. C. D. Ans: A 3774 approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels and shall be worn by Crew members _____________
A. B. C. When working near or over the water under unfavorable working conditions Under the supervision and control of designed ships officers As substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills weather permitting when a vessel is moored pierside D. All the above

the co2 does not cool the fire the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels they are not effective on class B fires they are not effective on class C fires

Ans: B

3775 according to regulations, all merchant vessels are required to have muster lists and are To be posted _______________
A. B. C. D. On the navigating bridge In the engine room In the crew accommodation spaces All of the above

Ans : D

3776 when required to work where there may be explosive gases ,you should use tools which Are ____________
A. B. C. D. Approved by the coast guard High carbon steel Fixed with a ferrous cover Non sparking

Ans : D 3777 A. B. C. D. Ans: C 3778 an acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is To _______________
A. B. C. D. Transfer the oil to the sea chest Pump the oil into slop tanks Discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide Pump the oil into a clean ballast tank

the vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as _____________ surge sway heave pitch

Ans : B

3779 when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR,the sternum should Be depressed about _______________

A. B. C. D.

inch or less to 1 inch 1 to 1 inches 1 to 2 inches

Ans : D 3780 personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of The listed practices?
A. B. C. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling Closing,tagging or securing valves that permit entrance of steam , water or air into a fitting or other equipment D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck

Ans : D 3781 halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the _________ A. B. C. D. Ans :D 3782 ________ A. B. C. when taking tank soundings, coating the tape with chalk helps to base of the equipment top of the equipment power source source of the fire

better identify the correct reading show the depth of any water in an oil tank make the tape roll easier

D. Ans:A

reduce possibility of sparks


when completing the ballasting operation of a containinated tank, which of the following problems must be guarded against?
A. B. C. D. Back flow of contaminated water Loss of pump suction Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents Motor overload due to high discharge head

Ans:A 3784 to release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft ,you must__________ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3785 A. B. C. D. Ans :B pitching is angular motion of the vessel about which axis? longitudinal transverse vertical centerline pull the release lanyard pull the hydraulic release push the release button pull on the ratchet handle

3786 A. B. riser C. D. Ans:D

a segregated ballast system is a sys tem where _________ all ballast is processed through the oily water separator ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck

ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams all ballast lines,tanks and pumps are independent of those used to oil

3787 A. B. C. D. Ans:D

what information must be entered on the muster list? names of all crew members use and application of special equipment listing of approved emergency equipment duties and station of each person during emergencies

3788 the most essential element in the administration ofCPR is ______________ A. B. C. D. to have the proper equipment for the process the speed of treatment the administration of oxygen the treatment for traumatic shock

Ans:B 3789 A. B. C. D. Ans:D 3790 in addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine maintenance is required for a Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?
A. B. C. D. Weigh the powder in the canister Discharge small amount to see that it works Check the hose and nozzle for clogs Check the external pressure gage

you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to ____________ keep the liferaft from capsizing navigate against the current keep personnel from getting seasick stay in the general location


3791 angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as ___________ A. B. C. D. Ans:D pitch surge sway roll

3792 safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness.order may be maintained by _______ A. B. for-sea C. together D. Ans:A 3793 when administering artificial respiration it is of the utmost importance to___________ A. B. C. D. Ans:B 3794 A. B. C. D. Ans:B when entering a compartment which is on fire ___________ you must wear rubber gloves the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters use the mouth-to-mouth method clear airways use rhythmic pressure method know all approved methods storing all items in an assigned place storing all items in a common storage container except those ready-

tagging all items according to their age and then storing them

disposing of worn-out items

3795 there are two disadvantages to co2 when used as a total flooding firefighting of these is the limited quantity avaivable and the other is _________
A. B. the C. D. Co2 pump It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases There is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space The lack of cooling effect on heated materials It cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available and

Ans:A 3796 the maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the _____ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3797 after abandoning a vessel,water consumed within the first 24 hours ________________ A. system B. C. D. Ans:A will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the load line mark certificate of inspection muster list tonnage mark

will help to prevent fatigue it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases helps to prevent seasickness

3798 a fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam concentrate with water To produce a foam solution ,then mixing the foam with air is termed _______________
A. B. C. D. Light water Halon 81 Chemical foam Mechanical foam

Ans :D

3799 angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as __________________ A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3800 if a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts, you should _______________ A. B. C. D. Ans :D notify the coast guard of a potential oil spill reduce plumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak notify the terminal operator then shut down and repair the leak yaw surge sway roll


load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________________
A. B. C. D. Life saving equipment Stability Mooring tension Riser tension

Ans :B 3802 the necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victims ________________
A. B. C. D. Vomiting Blue color and lack of breathing Irregular breathing Unconscious condition

Ans : B

C. Mechanical foam D. High velocity fog Ans: C 3805 An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for January 1976,and not equipped with an oily water separator ,all bilge slops may be retained
A. B. C. D. Onboard in the ships bilges In the forward peak tank In the pur fier reservoir In a cofferdam

Ans: A

3806 Drinking salt water will.

A. B. C. D. Be safe if mixed with fresh water Prevent seasickness Promote urine excretion Protect against heat cramps

Ans:C 3807 GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because
A. B. C. D. M is not fixed a t large angles There is no M at large angles G is not fixed at large angles There is no G at large angles

Ans: A 3808 The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during tanker operations is.
A. B. C. D. Due to collisions Routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing Loading and discharging Due solely to groundings

Ans : C 3809 Each fire pump on a cargo ship must have a pressure gage located
A. B. C. D. At the pump discharge At the manifold connection At each fire station discharge At the pump station

Ans: A 3810 If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is..

A. Ignore it and continue mouth to mouth ventilation B. Pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth to mouth ventilation C. Switch to mouth to mouth ventilation D. Turn the patients body to side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR

Ans: D 3811 When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
A. B. C. D. Straight overhead At the vessel whose attention you want to attract Into the wind At about 60 degrees above the horizon

Ans: D 3812 Oil pollution regulation (MARPOL) require any transfer , or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures can be recorded in the ..
A. B. C. D. Pollution control record Bridge log Oil record book Masters log

Ans: C 3813 Which of the listed fire fighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter..
A. B. C. D. Straight stream of water Light water and foam mixture Low velocity water fog Carbon dioxide interface

Ans: C 3814 A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the centre og gravity and all of its support is acting upward through the

A. B. C. D.

Keel Center of buoyancy Tipping center Amidship section

Ans:B 3815 One of the uses for low velocity fog is to .

A. B. C. D. Help produce mechanical foam Break apart class A combustibles Sweep burning liquids overboard Act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter

Ans: D 3816 The value of maximum righting arm is dependent upon the position of the center of buoyancy and the
A. B. C. D. Longitudinal center of gravity Transverse center of gravity Downflooding angle Vertical location of the center of gravity

Ans:D 3817 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?

A. B. C. D. Unsafe actions Orderliness Frequent inspections Good work habits/practices

Ans:A 3818 Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on a cargo ship should be accomplished (in sequence) ..
A. B. C. D. After control of fire , flooding, and structural repairs Immediately before emergency is under control After control of fire , but before control of flooding After stability is restored

Ans: A 3819 Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are..
A. B. C. D. Portable units Semi portable units Fixed systems Compact systems

Ans : A 3820 Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gases as a percentage of the
A. B. C. D. Flash point Upper explosive limit Lower explosive limit Fire point

Ans:C 3821 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only

A. B. C. D. With puncture wounds When all other means have failed When the victim is unconscious To prevent bleeding from minor wounds

Ans:B 3823 Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a..

A. B. C. D. Cooling agent Smothering agent Barrier against radiant heat All the above

Ans: D 3823 Which of the fire fighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing of air and foam concentrate?
A. Protein foam

B. Synthetic and alchohol foams C. Aqueous film forming foam(AFFF) D. All the above

Ans: D 3824 If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships,the vessel is subjected to ..
A. B. C. D. Pitch poling Hogging stresses Sagging stresses Yawing stresses

Ans:B 3825 To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process,due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid,the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank content

A. B. C. D.

One-half meter One meter One and one half meters Two meters

Ans:B 3826 A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too.
A. B. C. D. Rich to burn Lean to burn Cool to burn Dense to burn

Ans:B 3827 Which of the listed conditioned can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents?

A. B. C. D.

Speed Excessive knowledge or skill Human error Excitement

Ans:C 3828 AA continual change in the list or trim of any floating vessel indicates .
A. B. C. D. NegativeGM Progressive flooding Structural failure An immediate need to counterflood Ans:B

3829 Te fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any position pointing
A. B. C. D. 45 upward Vertically upward 90 upward Vertically downward

Ans:D 3830 To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be..
A. B. C. D. Kept in normal containers Discarded as soon as possible Cleaned thoroughly for reuse Kept in the paint locker

Ans:B 3831 Water log is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it.
A. B. C. D. Has a great cooling ability Will completely remove the toxic fumes from the air Will completely remove combustible vapours from the air Does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery


3832 With regards to the metacentric height ,whoch of the following statement is true?
A. B. C. D. it is used to indicate the quality of initial stability it is located below the centre of buoyancy it is measured vertically above the centre of buoyancy its determination is the objective of inclining experiment

Ans:A 3833Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with

A. B. C. D. a first aid kit an instruction manual a sea anchor all of the above

Ans:D 3834 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by..
A. B. C. D. applying direct pressure submerging the wound in lukewarm water cooling the wound with ice applying a tourniquet

Ans:A 3835 Damage stability of a ship is the stability .

A. B. C. D. Which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots Before collision After flooding At survival draft

Ans:C 3836 Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by .

A. Allowing better access in an emergency B. Eliminating potential fuel sources C. Eliminating trip hazards

D. Improving personal qualifications

Ans:B 3837 A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to.
A. B. C. D. Alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state becomes vapour Absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to vapour Rapidly contracts as water is converted from liquid to vapor Vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat

Ans:D 3838 Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial stability?

Ans:A 3839 Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2 ,it is advisable to..
A. B. C. D. Use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area Standby with water or other agents Thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2 Jettison all burning materials

Ans:B 3840 Which of the following must be carried out In order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
A. B. C. D. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link Decreases the hydrostatic release button It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel


3841 Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench and at least one .
A. B. C. D. hose rack or reel all-purpose nozzle foam applicator pc axe

Ans:A 3842 Force within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts.This difference is..
A. B. C. D. list heel trim flotation

Ans: A

A.1 inch B.2 inches C.3 inches D.3 inches Ans: B A.have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops B.stop the bleeding clean medicate and cover the wound C.apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleedingstops D.apply a hot towel to purge the wound,then medicate and cover it Ans.B

3845. which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock? A. weak pulse at wrist or neck B.flushed face C.respiration is weak or has stopped D.all of the above symptoms Ans :C 3846.heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door of the paint locker,the FIRST firefighting attack should be to A.leave the door and vents open,but release the CO2 flooding system the door to evaluate the extent of the fire C. enter and use a portable extinguisher the door and vents, then manually release the co2 Ans :D 3847. #REF A. B. C. D. Ans : #REF! #REF! #REF! #REF! #REF!

3848. if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability counterflooding into empty tanks may A. increase the righting moment

B.cause an increase in the right arm C.bring the unit to an upright aquilibrium position D.cause the unit to flop to a greater angle Ans :D 3849. the important initial stability parameter GM is the A. metacentric height B. height of the metacenter above the keel C. height of the centre of bouyancy above the keel D. height of the centre of gravity above the keel Ans :A 3850. on a cargo ship , a fire drill shall be conducted once every A.week B.month C.crew change D.other week Ans :A 3851. during the fire drill on a ship , which of the following actions is required to be carried out? A.each fire pump is to be started B.the lifeboat is to be lanched and operated inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made.

Ans :A 3852. as a last resort ,a tourniment can be used to A.hold a victim in a strecher B.stop uncontrolled bleeding C.hold a large bandage in place D. restrain a delirious victim Ans :B 3853. after using a co2 fire axtinguisher, it should be A.put back in service if some co2 remains B.hydrostatically tested C.retagged D. recharged Ans :D 3854. you are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure? A.placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest cardiac massage without artificial respiration C.rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through your arms and hand to their breastbone D.placing one hand across victims breastbone so that the heel of the hand covers the lower part Ans :B 3855. a slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indicator of

A.smallGM B.low center of gravity C.a shiff vessel D.large GZ Ans :A 3856.if a cargo ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause , you should first A.determine the cause before taking countermeasures B.assume the shift is due to off centre loading C.counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim D.assume the cause is environment forces Ans :A 3857. the abbreviation GM is used to represent the A.height of the metacenter B.righting arm C.righting moment D.metacenter height Ans :D 3858. automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for co2 system protecting the A.machinery spaces B.cargo compartments quarters D.galley Ans :A 3859.if a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb , you should A. attempt to set the fracture B. prevent futher movement of the bone C.apply a tourniquet without delay D.alternatively apply hot and cold compresses Ans : B 3860. you can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the A.certificate of inspection B.muster list C. vessels logbook D.vessels documentation Ans : B 3861. stability is determined principally by the relationship of the crntre of gravity and the A. aft perpendicular B. center of buoyancy C. keel D. center of flotation Ans : B

3862. in the event of a fire ,automatic activation of a fixed co2 extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas? A.machinery space B.paint locker C.cargo hold D.all the above Ans : D 3863. stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel the center of buoyancy and the A.metacenter B.geometric center of the water plane area of gravity D. center of flotation Ans : C 3864.where form extinguished systems are provided on a ship ,each machinary flat in the space must have a/an A.coaming B. alarm C. drain D. fire sensor Ans : A 3865. the muster list shows each crew lifeboat station , their duties during abandonment , basic instructions and

A.all emergency signals B.instructions for lowering the survival capsule C. the time each weekly drill will be held schedule Ans : A 3866. you are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm which of the listed actions should you take ? A. apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint B. apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line , splint and apply a pressure dressing C. force the ends of the bones back into line , treat the bleeding and sprint D. apply a bulky , sterile , pressure dressing to control bleeding , then apply a temporary sprint and place the victim in bed Ans : D 3867. in any major personal injury , first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional treatment ? A. application of CPR B. removal of any foreign objects C. administration of oxygen D. treatment for traumatic shock Ans : D 3868. the use of which fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation ?

A. foam B. dry chemical C. carbon dioxide D. halon 1301 Ans : A 3869. which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock ? A. keep the patient warm , but not hot B. have the injured person lie down C. massage the arms and legs to restore circulation D. relieve the pain of the injury Ans : C 3870. a class B fire is extinguished using foam by A. cooling the surface B. replacing the fuel C. smothering the fire D. all the above Ans : C 3871. when entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person , which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using ? A. protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight B. flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment C. combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask

D. self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines Ans : D 3872. which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock? A. administer CPR B. administer fluids C. open clothing to allow cooling of the body D. keep the victim in a sitting position Ans : B 3873. flooding of any snips compartment , resulting in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy will always A. increase the trim B. change the free surface effect C. decrease ship stability D. cause a serious list Ans : C 3874. a crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the pump room. Which of the following actions should be taken before entering the pump room to rescue the victim ? A. put on an approved self-contained breathing apparatus B. have someone stand by the entrance C. wear a lifeline D. all the above Ans : D

3875. what is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck ? A. the stability is increased B. the draft is increased C. the stability is decreased D. the reverse buoyancy is decreased Ans : C 3876. which of the following is considered as the correct action for the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere ? A. wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus B. attack a lifeline to the rescuer C. have someone stand by outside the compartment D. all the above Ans : D 3877. if the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the center of gravity , there will always be an increase in the A. metacentric height B. righting arm C. righting moment D. vertical moments Ans : D 3878. if a vessel losses its reserve buoyancy , it will be A. float upright with the main deck awash

B. capsize and float on its side C. remain unaffected if the hull remains intact D. most likely sink Ans : D 3879.since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to personnel , it is important to know that this gas is A.lighter than air B. heavier than air C. a yellow gas that is easily recognized D. midly toxic 3880. the purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine A. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location B. the position of the center of buoyancy C. the position of the metacenter D. the maximum load line

3937. On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be burning in class B fire ? A. B. C. D. Oil Wood Rags Electrical wiring Answer: A

3939.Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used A. with any foam extinguishing agents B. strictly in a cooling capacity

C. with any other dry extinguishing agents D. materials that contain their own oxygen Answer: D 3941.Radiation can spread a fire by A. B. C. D. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ships metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space Answer: D

3943.Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner which allow A. B. C. D. all sections to be quickly connected the nozzle end to be run out to the fire all sections to be quickly drained the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected cable Answer: B

3945.The off-load release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated A. B. C. D. when there is no load on the cable when there is a load on the cable only the doors are closed when the engine is started Answer: A

3947.If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see A. B. C. D. if the fuel valve is open if the air supply system is open if the water sparkler system is open if the limit switch is one your dri Answer: A

3949.Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will A. B. C. D. reduce your drift rate keep the survival craft from turning over aid in recovering the survival craft increase your visibility Answer: A

3951.To properly maintain fire hoses, you should

A. B. C. D.

keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns thoroughly drain them after each use keep them partly filled with fresh water Answer: C

3953.A class C fire would most likely occur in the A. B. C. D. engine room bilges main switchboard paint locker rag bin Answer: B

3955.When fighting a fire with a dry chemical extinguisher you should always A. B. C. D. direct the stream of chemical towards the base of the fire attack the fire from the leeward side bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members spray the chemical across the top of the flames Answer: A

3957.If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first A. abandon the survival craft 3938.Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be ranged to sense A. B. C. D. smoke rate of temperature rise ionized particles all of the above Answer: D

3940.Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to A. B. C. D. capsize run smoother run faster sink Answer: A

3942.Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke A. cold and moist skin, high body temperature

B. cold and dry skin, low body temperature C. hot and moist skin, high body temperature D. hot and dry skin, high body temperature Answer: D 3944.When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for A. B. C. D. personnel air supply additional floatation priming the sprinkler system filling the self-righting bags Answer: A

3946.A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the A. B. C. D. hose sections disconnected foam nozzle attached all-purpose nozzle attached hose sections rolled separately Answer: C

3948.Small oil spills on deck maybe prevented from entering the water by A. B. C. D. keeping the drip pans empty plugging all scuppers and drains placing floating booms alongside the ship closing ullage openings between soundings Answer: B

3950. To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should A. B. C. D. administer artificial respiration put him in a tub of ice water give him sips of cool saline solution take his blood pressure Answer: C

3952.During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to A. B. C. D. release the towline in an emergency help the helmsman steer look for food and water check water level in the bilge Answer: A

3954.When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check A. B. C. D. that all personnel are seated in the craft that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum which way the wind is blowing the hydraulic fluid level before lifting Answer: B

3956.Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may A. B. C. D. keep the propeller from being fouled increase propeller speed help calm spray given off from the waves in the vicinity of the craft increase the holding power of the sea anchor Answer: C

3958.The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with A. oxygen

3920.It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motar propelled life boat is emptied and the fuel is changed atleast once every A 3months B 6months C 12months D 24months Answer C

3921.If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period it will be unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has been opened for as they are may be A insufficient oxygen to support life B heavy concentration of sewer gas C excessive carbondioxide in the drum D toxic gases from organic decomposition Answer A 3922.When treating a chemical burn you should flood the burned area for atleast A 5minutes B 10minutes C 15minutes D 20minutes

Answer A 3923.In addition to the life jacket stowed in places that they are readily accessible life jacket must be stowed at

A mess room B each life boat C each manned watchstation D each fire station

Answer C 3924.Before entering any space that has been sealed oxygen level should be tested what level of oxygen in space is equal to fresh air A 0.18

B 0.198 C 0.208 D 0.218

Answer C 3925.In the material of the substance involved in the class B fire can be burning A diesel oil B magnesium C dunnage D electrical insulation

Answer A 3926.Which of the following precations should be taken in treating burns caused by contact with dry lins A water should be applied in a fine spary B the burned area should be immersed in a water C the entire burn area should be covered with ointment D before washing the lime should be brushed away gently

Answer D 3927.The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on aship is called A certificate of inspection B load line certificate C certificate of documentation D solas certificate

Ans b 3928.A load line assigned to the shipto insure adequate stability and A mooring tension B riser tension C lifesaving equipmemt D structural strength Ans d 3929.Burning paint,turpentine or greases would be example of which of the following classesof fire A class a B class b C class c Classd Ans b 3930.The international oil pollution prevention certificate is valid for a period of year from the date of issue B.two years from the date of issue C.three years from the date of issue D.fous years from the date of issue Ans:D 3931.Where would you find a FCC authorization for transmitting on your rigs EPIRB? A. B. C. D. Ans:A 3932.After having activated the emergency position indicating radio deacon you should On the ship station license. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter I the radio log On the certificate of inspection

A. B. C. D. Ans:D

Turn it off for five minutes Turn it off and on at five minute interval Turn it off during day light hours Leave it on continuosly

3933.A class b fire would most likely occur in the . A. B. C. D. Main switch board Engine room bilge Breathing compartment Electric fresh water transfer pump

Ans :b 3934.With no alternative but to jump from the ship the correct posture should include A. Holding down the life jacket against the chest with one arm crossing the other covering the mouth and nose with the hand and feet together B. Knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs C. Body straight and arms straightly at the sides for feet first entering into the water D. Both hands holding the life jacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed Ans :a 3935.Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the fire room bilges A class a B class b C class c Classd Ans b 3936. In the typical automatic fire alarm system which of the listed actions will cause An indication of the fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet? A. B. C. D. A rising temperature will activate the thermostat The fire alarm test push button is operated A manual fire alarm box is activated All the above

Ans :d

4027 when taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter you should ____
A. B. C. D. Only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than air Sample only near the ullages openings as all vapour accumulate there Avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings Sample as much of the tank as possible especially at the bottom

Ans- D 4028 when whistle signals are used as commands for llaunchings the lifeboats one short blast means __
A. B. C. D. Use flot-free method only Lower all boats Raise all boats Drill is over secure all boats

Ans B 4029 in cleaning up an oil spill the use of straw fibers would be an ex of which type of oil removel?
A. B. C. D. Chemical agent removal Mechanical removal Absorbant removal None of the above

Ans-C 4030 most important to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to___
A. B. C. D. open the CO2 inflation valve open the raft cointainer ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel inflate raft on vessel then lower it over the side

Ans-c 4031 what information can be obtained from a marine chemists certificate on tank barge?
A. B. C. D. Number of free extinguishers required onboard Quality of barge cargo Tanks which are safe to enter when certificate was issued Barge stability info

Ans-C 4032 symptoms of sugar diabetes include___

A. B. C. D. Increased appetite and thirst Decreased appetite and thirst Gain in weight Elevated temperature

Ans-A 4033 hydrocarbon vapors are detected by use of ____

A. B. C. D. Flames safetly lamp Combustible gas indicator Gasometer Oxygen indicator

Ans-B 4034 what statement about immersion suits is false ?

A. Suit should be worn only when abandoning ships B. Suits is received from manufacturer in an outer a storage bag that should be used aboard ship for storing suit C. Front zipper should be lubricated accordingly to manufacturers specifications D. Immersion suits provides protection against hypothermia even if ther is small leak

Ans-A 4035 ullage reading in the distantance given point at ____

A. Sounding tube to either side of track

B. Top of tank down to bottom of tank C. Top of liguid down to tank bottom D. Top of sounding tube down to surface of liquid

Ans-D 4036 infiatable liferaft is hand launched by____

A. B. C. D. Pulling a cord Cutting the wire restraining bands Removing the rubber packing strips Throwing the entire cointainer overboard

Ans-D 4037 If a person with diabetes has been injured symptoms of onset of a diabetic coma would include___
A. B. C. D. Reduced appetite and thirst Sneezing and coughing Excessive thirst and fever Slurred speech and loss of coordination

Ans-C 4038 most effective method in the use of co2 fire extinguisher is fir discharge to be directed at ___
A. B. C. D. Middle of fire Top and sides of a fire Base or nearest edge of a fire Highest flames of fire


4039 chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet that can undergo sudden and violent release of pressure and heat is called ___
A. Combustion B. Explosive C. Flammable

D. toxic

Ans-B 4040 when firing a prototype distress signal it should be aimed ___
A. B. C. D. Into wind Straight ahead At vessel whose attention you want to attract Approximately 60deg above the horizon

Ans-D 4041 oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are not required to cointain ___
A. Name of the person designated as person in charge of transfer B. Line diagram of the vessel oil transfer piping C. Special procedures for topping off tanks

Ans-A 4042 which of the following operations should be carried out when launching an inflatiable liferaft by hand Ans make sure operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side 4043 materials listed on a material saftely data sheet that violently self reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called ___
A. B. C. D. Pyrophic Toxic Explosives Unstable

Ans-D 4044 Most beneficialassistance for a person having an epileptic convulsion is to ___ Ans Keep him from injuring himself

4045 what is purpose of explosimeter

A. To identify combustible gases B. To detect combustible gases

Ans-B 4046 bayonel catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in ____
A. Mechanical form nozzle B. Mechanical foam pick up tube C. High velocity fog tip

Ans-c 4047 what terms is listed on a material saftety sheet to describe a chemical that can produce life threatening health hazard
A. B. C. D. Low toxicity Recommended toxicity Moderate toxicity High toxicity

Ans-D 4048 your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility if oil begins from one one tank vent which of the following actions should be taken Ans signal the shore control point to shutdown 4050 which health hazard term is listed on a material safety data sheet is to indicate that contact with substance will freeze body tissue on contact Ans Cryogenic 4053 which of following symptoms would be indicated if a persons appendix ruptured Ans mussle tensserness in entire abdomen 4054 physical data term on a material safety data sheet describibng if a liquid is lighter or heaver than water is ____

Ans specific gravity 4055 the all purpose is capable of producing a solid stream of water ____ Ans and high velocity water fog 4056 which of following conditions is NOT a function of covered lifr boat pressuired air supply Ans pressurissesthe water spray system 4057 if you wish to remove an inflatable from its cradle to free it is by Ans pushing the plunger on the center of hydrostatic release 4058 ewhen you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel you should first Ans Stop loading 4059 when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis the pain should be relieved by Ans keeping a ice bag over the location 4060 ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2% and an upper explosive limit of 100% By volume of air this means Ans there is no possible ethyelene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to burn 4061 according to regulations a person who discharge plastic or garbage mixed with plastic is liable for_____
A. B. C. D. Civil penality A fine Imprisonment for 5 yrs All the above

Ans-D 4062 seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the ______
A. B. C. D. Stomach Lower intestine Inner ear Bladder

Ans-C 4063 a chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed on material safely data sheet (MSDS) as a A B C D Ans: c 4064 A B C D Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by ballast control alarms excessive drift excessive list or trim a continual worsening of list or trim Skin contact hazard physical hazard sensitizer skin absorption hazard

Ans : A 4065 using a sea anchor will


reduce the drift rate of the liferaft keep the liferaft from turning over aid in recovering the liferaft increases your visibility

4066 while taking on fuel , notice oil on the water around the vessel which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? A B C D Ans: A 4067 the primary corcern in aiding a back injury patient is A B C D Ans:B 4068 the most practical method of extinguishing a class Afire ,involving burning dunnage ,is to use A B C chemical foam a hand portable co2 extinguishers purple k powder and light water relieving thepatients pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling preventing convulsions and muscle spasms cause by the injury providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration stop fueling notify the dispatcher notify the terminal superintendent determine if your vessel is the source

D Ans:D


4069 in order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all purpose nozzle,you must A B C D Ans:A 4070 which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted ? A B C D Ans:C 4071 if an incorrect entry were made in the oil record book ,youshould A erase the entry and rewrite it provide fresh air loosen clothing elevate head stimulate face with cold water pull the nozzle handle half way back push the nozzle handle completely forward insert an in-line fog applicator change to small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle handle

B notify the ship s officer-in-charge C completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside D draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it Ans:D

4072 generally,when lifting an inilatable liferaft back aboard ship,you would use the A B C D Ans:A 4073 a crack, located in the shell plating of a ship,may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by A B C D Ans:A 4074 which of the following procedures canbe used for checking for spinal vord damage to an unconscious patient? A . Beginning at the back of the neck and proceeding to the buttocks press the spine to find where it hurts B prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reactiom C selectively raise each arm and leg and watch patients face to see if he registers pain. D roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction drilling a hole at each end of the crack installing welded brackets across both ends v-groving and welding from both sides of the crack cutting a square notch at each end of the crack towing bridle main weather cover external lifelines righting strap

ANS:B 4075 First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns especially in the eyes includes A flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio B wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours C drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream D all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the severity of the burn Ans: a 4076 where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? A SOLAS regulations B certificate of inspection C muster list D ships articles Ans:c 4077 when off loading a garbage to another ship your records must identify that ship by name and____________ A home port B operator name of record C official number D master name

ANS:c 4078 the best means ofcombating an oilfire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier isto use
a. b. c. d. Water fog over the fire Solid water steams directly into thefire Dry chemical around the fire Foam directed against the vessel side

Ans:d 4079 in the order to find out which life boat you are aasinged you should look at the.. control plan b.Certificate of inspection

c.muster list d.shiop articles ans:c 4080 after the launching an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by a.opening the automatic drain plugs b.draining the water pockets c.using the electric bilge pump d.using the bailers and cellulose sponage ans:d 4081what is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? a.125% of forced draft rate

b.125% of shore side loading rate c.125% of cargo pump capcity d.125% of fan capacity ans:c 4082an inert gas system is desing ed to reduce the possibility of tank explosion by.. a.eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks b.removing all hydrocarbon gases from thecargo tanks c.blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam d.reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion ans:d 4083. Firehose can be used for purpose other than firefighting service when________. A. used for portable water service B. used for drills and testing C. determined by the chief engineer D. approved by Master Ans: B 4084. The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are____________. A. forward off, center fog, back: solid stream B. forward: solid stream, center, fog ,bag: off C. forward: fog , center, solid stream, back: off

D. forward: off, center: solid stream, back:fog Ans: A 4085. A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge or dispose of___________. A. incinerated ash at anytime B. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at anytime C. victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore D. absolutely no garbage at anytime Ans: C 4086. Where there are multiple accident victims ,which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment ? A. Major multiple fractures B. eye injuries C. Back injuries with spinal cord damage D. Airway and breathing difficulties Ans: D 4087. Where there are multiple accident victims , which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? A. Serve shock B. Eye injuries C. Burns D. Major multiple fracture Ans: A

4088. The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft ,is to ________. A. stow rain water , these four spaces will not take up valuable space B. act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position C. hold the fresh water required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed D. none of the above Ans: B 4089 in managing a situation involving multiple injuries ,the rescuer must be able to A.provide the necessary ineducation B.rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obivious injurious C accuratetly diagonise the ailment or injury D prescribe treatment for the victim Ans:B 4090 when an oil fire has been extinguished ,the surfaceof the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent A air from contacting the oil vapours permitting reignition B boiling of the heated oil C spontaneous combustion below the oil surface D toxic fumes from escaping to the surface Ans:a

4091 after an injury ,which of the following can be determinate by examining the condition of a victims pupils ? A the degree of pain being suffered B the degree of vision impairment C wether or not the brain is functioning properly D whether or not the victims blood pressure is normal Ans:c 4092when fighting an oil or gasoline fire ,which of the listed fire extinguish agents should NEVER be sprayed A .high velocity fog B .dry chemical C .low velocity fog D .steam smothering Ans : b 4093 what is the primary purpuose of a spint applied in frist aid? A .reduce pain B .control bleeding C .immobblize a frature D .reset the bone Ans :c 4094 bleeeinding from a vein may be ordinary control by ________ A .pinching the wond closed

B .applying direct pressure to the wond C .heavy application of a disinfectant D .pouring ice water directly into the wound Ans .b 4095 on most make of inflamablie liferaft the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the raft can be made to last longer by ___________ A .unscrewing the bulb during the daylight B .operting the switch for the light C .taking no action as there is no way of preserving power D taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight Ans:b 4096 fires resulting from spontaneous combustion are usually caused by the improper disposal of A cigarette butts B oily rags

C burner torches D lighted mathes Ans:b 4097 immediately after a class Bfire has been extinguished by the use of foam ,crewmen should A carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket B tade through the faom blanket to evently distribute the foam

C be careful not to disturb the foam blanket D sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment Ans c 4098 in all but the most severe ceases bleeding from a wound shoude be controll by ______________ A .applying a tourniquet B .cooling the wound C .submering the wound in lukewarm water D .applying direct pressure ot the wound Ans .d
4099. A person suffered from laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing What would u do next ? Apply a torniqiuet to prevent bleeding from restarting. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. Administer fluid to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. Ans: B according to regulations, a pressure-demand, open circuit, self contained breathing apparatus shall have a minimum of air supply. 30 45 60 90 Ans: A minutes and direct pressure.

A. B. C. D.


A. B. C. D.

4101. A. B. C. D.

spontaneous combustion can occur in Paint thinner in an open can. Fuel accumulated in the bilge. Oily rags stored in an unvented compartment. Gasoline stored in steel drums. Ans: C the rescuer can best provide an air-tight seal during mouth-to- mouth resuscitation by pinching the victims nostrils and Cupping a hand around patients mouth. Keeping the head elevated. applying his mouth tightly over the victims mouth. Holding the jaw down firmly.

4102. A. B. C. D.

Ans: B 4103. A. B. C. D. which of the following listed fire extinguishing agent would be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire ? A solid stream of water. Low velocity water fog. High velocity water fog. Mechanical fire fighting foam. Ans: A which of the following below is classified as grade E combustible liquid ? Benzene. Bunker C. Very light naphtha. Most commercial gasoline. Ans: B which statement is FALSE regarding halon as a fire extinguishing agent? It is more effective than CO2. It leaves no residue. It is non corrosive. It is always non toxic. Ans: D which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 ? The garbage t be discharged will sink. Garbage accumulated onboard has exceeded storage space. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for floatation. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. Ans: C the most likely place for a fire to start through the process of spontaneous combustion is in An electric switchboard. The pressure tanks. The fuel oil tanks. The oily rag bin. Ans: D when welding or burning is aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space A. B. C. D. Is properly vented. Contains no oil in the bilges. Has no oil in the bilges. All the above. Ans: D you are fighting a class B fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed At the seat of the fire, starting at the edge. Over top of the fire. At the main body of the fire. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire. Ans: A if a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used ?

4104. A. B. C. D.

4105. A. B. C. D.

4106. A. B. C. D.

4107. A. B. C. D.


4109. A. B. C. D.


A. B. C. D.

Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2. hand portable CO2, Semi-portable CO2, then last as a resort fixed CO2 system. hand portable CO2, fixed CO2, then last as a resort semi-portable CO2 system. Ans: C which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature ? Foam. CO2. Water stream. Water foam. Ans: B

4111. A. B. C. D.

4112. you are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If youre not wearing a self contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartments atmosphere to determine is/are A. B. C. D. sufficient oxygen to to sustain human life. An explosive mixture in the compartment. A toxic atmosphere in the compartment. All the above Ans: D liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their Shape. Shallow draft. Large sail area. All the above. Ans: D all the following are the part of fire triangle except Fuel. Oxygen. Heat. Electricity. Ans: D a tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY With puncture wounds. When the victim is unconscious. When all other means have failed. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds Ans: C the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a Dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water. Foam extinguisher and low velocity water. Foam extinguisher and solid velocity water. Foam and soda acid extinguisher. Ans: B the date of each fire and boat drill conducted on ship must be recorded In the official log book. In the operations manual. On the certificate of inspection. On the muster list.

4113. A. B. C. D.

4114. A. B. C. D.

4115. A. B. C. D.

4116. A. B. C. D.

4117. A. B. C. D.

Ans: A 4118. A. B. C. D. to produce a low velocity water fog spray with all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must Push the nozzle handle completely forward. Change the fire pump discharge pressure. Pull the nozzle handle completely back. Insert a low velocity fog applicator. Ans: D which of the following practices should be avoided since it represents a fire hazard? Smoking near the burner front. Smoking near the machine shop. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker. Stowing acetylene bottles in a vertical position. An: C when administering mouth to mouth resuction to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many rates per minute?

4119. A. B. C. D.

4120. A. B. C. D.

Ans: C 4121. A. B. C. D. when taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum vapours are Not volatile unless the ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC Lighter than air and dissipate rapidly. Unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame. Heavier than air and may enter bilges and/or deckhouse. Ans: D if you hear the sound of air escaping from the liferaft jus after it has inflated, you should Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates. Check the sea anchor line for a tear if the sea is rough. Check the painter line attachment for the tear caused by initial opening. Not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape. Ans: D the only portable equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is Battery fed. Self contained. Approved explosion proof. All the above. Ans: D

4122. A. B. C. D.

4123. A. B. C. D.

4124. the fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from engine room ? A. B. C. D. Immediately after the fire is extinguished. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished. After the metal surface have cooled down. Before any personnel in fireman outfit reenters the engine room. Ans: C which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after usin a portable CO2 extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor

4125. plates ?

A. B. C. D.

Possible surfocation from the CO2. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilaton system. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes. Rekindling of the fire. Ans: D petroleum vapors are heavier than air and A. B. C. D. Will normally dissipate rapidly. Will always form explosive vapors below 0oC ambient. May collect in ships bilge. Are of no concern of the wind is blowing. Ans: C


4127. A. B. C. D. 4128. A. B. C. D.

which portable fire extinguisher is recharged in shore facility ? Dry chemical(cartridge-operated) water(cartridge-operated) water(pump tank) carbon dioxide. which extinguishing agent is best for use in electrical fire Foam Co2 Dry chemical Water fog Ans: B you have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following procedures should be used during a prolonged period in a

4129. liferart ? A. B. C. D.

Wet clothes during day to decrease perspiration. Get plenty of rest. Keep the entrance curtains open. All the above. Ans: D it is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is fire in order to Cool the metal below. Form a dense coating of smothering stream. Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames. Prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat. Ans: D which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire ? Dry chemical. Foam. Water. Carbon dioxide. Ans: C as its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will Remain the same. Increase. Decrease. None of the above.

4130. A. B. C. D.

4131. A. B. C. D.

4132. A. B. C. D.

Ans: B 4133. A. B. C. D. if you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter. Find some wood for fire. Get the provisions out of raft. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it. Ans: A combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a compartment where there is a fire may be ignited. This ignition can

4134. occur by A. B. C. D.

Heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads. Combustion gases carried through the ventilation system. Direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire. Heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire. Ans: D the spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessels ventilation system, is an example of Conduction Convection Radiation Windage

4135. A. B. C. D.

4136. A. B. C. D. if the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first Abandon the survival craft. Check for cracks in the hull Shift all personnel to stern Check the bilge drain plug

Ans. D 4137. Which of the listed type of fires would the in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing? A. Mattress fire B.Fire in an electronics console C. Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates D. Fire in an ullage opening Ans. C fire extinguisher, shown

4138. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to A. assist in sleeping B. reduce appetite by decreasing nauses C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting D. prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness. Ans.C 4139. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST A. secure the ventilation B. find a soda acid extinguisher C. shut off the fuel oil supply D. secure he generator Ans. C 4140. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor life boat you should A. plot course for nearest land B. go only with the direction of the sea. C. stay in the immediate area D. go in one direction until the fuel gets over 4141. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire ? A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire

B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire. C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire. D. All four components must be eliminated o extinguish any fire. Ans. A 4142.Which of the following statements holds true for both co2 and H-ion 1301 fixed extinguishing systems? A. A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight is within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge. B. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, the ventilation system must be automatically shutdown by the release of the agent C. To avoid confusion during an emergency situation, there should be only one action necessary(such as a single pull box) to activate the system. D. all of the above. Ans. B 4143. A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed on a ship. Which of the following statements is true regarding these devices? A. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley. B. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces Would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed I the living spaces. C. sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point. D. None of the above , sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard vessels.

Ans. B 4144. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you should FIRST A. notify the engineer on watch B. isolate and secure the piping C. throw sand on the fire D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator. Ans. B Ans. B 4145.A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from the fire? A. oxygen B. Fuel C. Heat D. All the above 4146. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? A. Fire B. Explosion C. Asphyxiation D. All of the above 4147. Breathing problem vapors is hazardous and may cause A. temporary blindness

B. permanent deafness C. severe internal bleeding D. unconsciousness and death 4148. When making entries in the oil record book , all quantities should be A. recorded as cubic meter with a conversion to barrels B. verified by the chief engineer C. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor. D. consistently recorded through the oil record book in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) Ans. D 4149.When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire and A. contain the burning liquid B. prevent any deformation of the tank top C. cool the surrounding metal D. eliminate flammable combustion gases Ans. C 4150.Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion? A. A full tank of diesel oil B. A partially filled tank of diesel oil C. A full tank of lubricating oil D. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil Ans. B

4151.On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides , the No.2 lifeboat would be located A. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the starboard side B. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the port side C. aft of lifeboat No.1 on the starboard side D. All the above 4152. Which of the following conditions is true concerning a inflammable liquid with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? A. The mixture is too lean to burn. B. The mixture is too rich to burn. C. The vapor is about to explode. D. Conditions are perfect for combustion Ans. B 4153. The No.2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found A. forward port side B. forward starboard side C. aft of No.1 life boat port side D.aft of No. 1lifeboat starboard side 4154. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to A. secure all openings to the tank. B. discharge an intial of co2 with a hand portable extinguisher . C. direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main D. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling

Ans. A 4155. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ships whistle supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should A. start the fire pump to charge the fire alarm B. standby the main console and await order from the engineer on watch C. go to your fire station D. go to your lifeboat station. Ans. D 4156. Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a life boat in an emergency situation? A. Ration food and water supplies B. Take anti-seasickness pills C. determine position and closest point of land D. Check pyrotechnic supplies Ans. D 4157. Before attempting to put out a class C fire involving an electric driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST A. insulate your shoes B. ground the fore hose C. secure its power supply D. start the fire pump Ans.c

4158. Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are A. heavier than air B. toxic C. highly explosive D. all the above Ans. D 4160. When fighting an electrical fire, you should first A. stop ventilation to the area B. stop the vessel C. secure electrically to the circuit D. apply co2 to the fire Ans. C 4161. If the buoyant force on a ships hull is equal to or greater than the displacement tonnage , the ship will A. require ballest added to only the port side tanks B. be down by the head C. sink D. float Ans. D 4162. Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility , but the fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the A. flash point

B. auto ignition point C. volatility point D. upper explosive limit Ans. B 4163. When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts , the tendency of the vessel to return to its original position is caused by the shift in A. center of buoyancy B. center of gravity C. center of floation D. meta centric radius Ans. A 4164. Class C fires may be combated using a A. dry chemical extinguisher B. carbon dioxide extinguisher C. halon extinguisher D. all of the above Ans. D 4165.Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard ship? A. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle. B. Continuous blast of the ships for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.

C. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the gene alarm D. More than six short blasts and one long blasts on the whistles supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm. Ans.B 4166.which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical board on ship? A. dry chemical extinguisher B. carbon dioxide extinguisher C. halon extinguisher D. all of the above. Ans.C 4167. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use when combating a class c fire? A. co2 B. foam C. water fog D. aid Ans. A 4169. A continuous blasts of the whistle for a period of not less than10 seconds , supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a A. fire B. collision overboard D. flooded compartment Ans. A 4170. Before making any welded repairs to the internals to the internals of a vessels fuel tank in a port, the tank must be examined by A. the chief engineer B. the master of the vessels C. a certified marine chemist D. the insurance under writer Page 225

4171. The principle effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the volume of displacement of the vessel and the .. A) Height of liquid in the tank B) amount of liquid in the tank C) dimension of liquid surface D) weight of liquid in the tank ANS; D 4172. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is. A) inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours B) free for most flammable gas concentration C) thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours

D) free for dangerous concentration of flammatle or toxic gasses ANS: 4173. Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tank are partially filled as a result of the A) free surface effect B) free communication effect C) increase of buoyancy D) decrease in draft ANS: A 4174. Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous location such as a pumproom? A) the pump room is to be gas free B) the adjacent compartment are to be gas free C) each compartment where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be closed and secured D) All the above ANS: D 4175. TO PREVENT AN EXPLOSION when the pump room is not been certified gas free and repairs are to be carried out the only type of portable electric equipments allowed in the pumproom would be an approved A) explosion proof self contained battery powered lamp B) hp electric hand drill C) drop lamp and explosion cords

D) portable hand grinder ANS: A 4176. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES should be used to a cartridge operated dry chemical free extinguisher? A) make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured

C) Ensure the dry chemical is not become cacked D) ALL the above ANS: D 4177. proper maintenance of dry chemical fire extinguisher will include. a)adding water to the powdered b) painting the co2 cartridge red c) puncturing the co2 cartridge d) shacking the extinguisher to loosen the caked up portion of the powder ANS: D 4178. AVESSEL whose fuel tanks are half full is subjected to.. a)free surface effect b)serious lose of reserve buoyancy c) sevore sagging d)severe hogging ANS: A

4179. WHEN reentering an engine room that has been flooded by co2 with the investigation team should initially. A) leave the access door partially open b) enter from lowest level c) enter from the highest level d) attempt to operate machinery ANS: C 4180. liquid petrolieum product will become electrically charged as a result of the .. a) splashing or spraying of oil into a tank b) movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank c) oil moving through the pipe lines d)all the above ANS: D 4181.fuel tank should never be filled by liquid through an open hatch or manhole because.. a) excessive fuel vapour will be released b) static electricity could be generated generated by falling through vapour laden air c) spillange of fuel could be occur with an open hatch d)water contamination of the fuel could occur ANS: B

4182. When the petroleum product are handled static electrictycan be generated by a)splashing or agitation of the fluids b) excessive pressure of the fluids c) low temperature fluids only d)low viscosity fluids only ANS: A 4183. the state of charge of a store pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by.. a) visual inspection of the pressure gage b)weighting the cylinder c) removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical d) weighting the co2 cartridge ANS A 4184. WHEN fueling it is important to ground the ship with regard to static electricity therefore you must connect the a) fuel hosebefore the bonding cable b) bonding cable only if sparks are seen c) bonding cable before the fuel hose can been connected d) bonding cable through the ground fault circuit breaker ans:c 4185. to minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge of static electricity the vessel should

a) be electricity grounded to shore piping b) have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure c) have crew member use flashlight lamp rather than ac in vapour filled areas d)have cr4ew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas that may be contain explosive fumes ans: a 4186. the correct method for connecting a grounding cables or bonding cables is to .. a) open switch connected ground cables close switch and connect cargo hose b) connected ground open switch and connect cargo hose c) close switch connect cargohose open switch and connect ground cable d) connect ground cable connect cargo cable hose, open switch and then close switch ans: a 4187. which of the following statement describes the advantage of using a halon fire extinguisher versus a co2 fire extinguisher? a) halon cools rather than smothers fine b) halon is more effective than co2 c) halon can extinguisher combustible metals fire d) halon is not toxic and safe to breatheunder all condition ans:b 4188. you may improve a vessel stability by a) keeping the fuel tanks topped off

b)increasing thefree surface tanks atleast half full c) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full d) keeping at least one tank empty for slopes ans: a 4189. the inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for dertermining the exact location of the a) ships displacement in the sea water b)position of ship centre of gravity of buoyancy c) position of the ship centre of buoyancy d) position of the ship metacentre ans: b 4190. which statement is true concering halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment? a) the agent is highly toxic under all condition b) the agent is less effective than co2 c) halon extinguishing the fire smothering d) the agent is a colour less odorlessgas ans: d 4191. if a vessel rolls to the stateboard side and there are no movable or moving weight onboard the centre of gravity will.. a)move to port b) move to state board c) move directly down

d) stay in the same position ans: d 4192. if weight added at the keel the ship centre of the gravity will. a) move down b) move up c) merge with the metacentre d)pass through the centre of flotation ans: a 4193. the stability of the vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because the.. a) centre of the gravity is lowered b) centre of buoyancy is lowered c) reverse buoyancy is uncharged d) hull freedom is increased ans: a 4194. if you have to abandon ship the EPIRB can be used to. a) hold the life boats head up into seas b) generate orange smoke c) seal leaks in rubber rafts d) send radio homing signal to searching aircraft ans: d

4195. what is the major advantage of the demand type self contained breathing apparatus? a) theeqipment is light weight and the wear can work without difficulty in confined spaces b) the average operating time is over an hour c) the speed with it can be put into operation is round 5seconds d)the regulator is designed to prove the user with quick adjustment to their supply by knob located near the pressure hose connection ans: c 4196. to operate a co2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip handle you are to remove the locking pin and. a) raise the lower grip b) invert the extinguisher c) depress the upper grip d) rotate the cutter disc valvewheel ans: c 4197. annual servicing of a hand portable co2 fire extinguisher includes .. a) insoecting the pressure guage to ensure the needle is within operating range b) weighting the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the cylinder c) hydrostatic testing of the cylinder d)discharging ,cleaning inside and recharging ans: b

4198. while donning the self contained breathing apparatus you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the breathing differ from each other by 35bar which of the listed action you consider as appropriate? a)replace the defective gauges with a news pair from the sparts inventory b) replace the air cylinder with afull spare cylinder c) assume that the lower reading is correct d) take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure ans: c 4199. which of the following statements describes the correct procedure for closing a water tight door? a) loosely set up one opposite side from the higes snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side than evenly set up the remaining dogs b) loosely sets up two dogs adjacent to the hinges snugly set up one dog on the opposite side set up all the remaining dogs c) snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from two hinges then evenly set up all theremaining dogs d) loosely set up one dogs on the hinge side snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges then evenly set up all the remaining dogs ans: a 4200. which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and sent ashore for reacharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the full charge? a) foam b) soda acid c) dry chemical

d) carbon di oxide ans: d 4201. portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged a) when the remaing charge volume is less than 90% of the required volume b) at each biennial c) at each annual inspection d) when the charge weight is 10% less than the required weight ans: d 4202. With of the load line marks the reason for the placements of mark WNAis a) more severe weather is expected in the north atlantic in winter b) more freeboard is required in north atlantic in winter c) lessdraft is allowed in the north atlantic in winter d)all the above ans: d 4203 Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greater at the A. bow B. stem C. keel D. boot topping Ans. C 4205 To prevent overpressurization when loading liquid petroleum

Products,cargo tanks should be filled with a/an

A. B. C. D. Pressure vacuum valve Ullage opening Overpressurization valve Equalizing line

Ans: A 4206 Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be Kept in good working order to prevent
A. B. C. D. Escape of explosive vapors Oil spillage on deck Entry of burning substances Damage to tank boundaries

Ans: D 4207 which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on Diesel fuel?
A. B. C. D. Secure all lighting to the main deck Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes Prohibit smoking in the area Display a black triangle during daylight hours

Ans: C 4208 After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you Close FIRST?
A. B. C. D. Tank manifold filling valve Pump discharge valve Deck filling valve Sea suction valve

Ans: D 4209 During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to

your vessel. If however,it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel,you should
A. B. C. D. Secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined Make an entry in the oil record book to that effect Notify the port control All of the above

Ans: C 4210 The load on the top system used on many crude oil carriers, is to provide a method for
A. Calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks B. Loading ballast by gravity C. Maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks,and the loading of new cargo into the slop tank D. Calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank

Ans: C 4211 If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must Insure that
A. B. C. D. There is room for expansion The vents are sealed Vapor baffles are installed All of the above

Ans: A 4212 One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be removed is by the
A. B. C. D. Type of fuel transfer Size of the fuel storage tanks ashore Distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore Number of tanks to be filled

Ans: D 4213
A. B. C. D.

Fire main outlet valves,or hydrants shall be installed

In screened enclosures in all passageways Where they are protected from weather In a protected location to prevent cargo damage Pointing downward or horizontal to prevent cargo damage

Ans: D 4214 your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine wheather or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore , you should
A. B. C. D. Open the watertight door and take a quick look Open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges Tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level Feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot

Ans: C 4215 If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you Should
A. B. C. D. Stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound Throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping Vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors Gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid

Ans: A 4216 when preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, You should
A. B. C. D. Lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation Draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump Have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed Check for gland leakage and any fire hazard Ans: D


Tankers carrying cryogenic cagoes , such as LNG ,are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit.If the gas detector alarms sounds ,this means

A. The detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor Concentration is 30 percent by volume B. An explosion is about to take place C. The detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive D. A flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn

Ans: D 4218 An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the
A. B. C. D. Barrier spaces Cargo handling rooms Boiler burner supply piping All of the above

Ans: D 4219 which of the following statements describes how the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?
A. B. C. D. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the main bank

Ans: B 4220 During fueling operations which of the listed precautions should be

Taken when topping off fuel tanks?

A. B. C. D. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve Close all overflow valves Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level rises

Ans: D


When a fuel tank is being topped off during bunkering operations the tank valve should be closed

A. Slowly to prevent surge stresses B. To prevent gas from escaping through the pressure vacuum relief valves C. After the shore pumps are stopped D. Rapidly to prevent overflow

Ans: C 4222 The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil Is being received , is determined by the
A. B. C. D. Quantity of the fuel to be received Flash point of the fuel as it is received Fuel temperature as it is received Viscosity of the fuel being received

Ans: C 4223 According to regulations, when loading , or discharging oil in bunk at a dock , which of the following signals must be played?
A. B. C. D. A red flag (day), red light (night) A yellow (day), red light (night) A green flag(day), green light (night) A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline

Ans: A 4224 According to pollution prevention regulations , tank vessels are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device
A. B. C. D. Shuts off the main propulsion plant Shuts off the firefighting foam systems Stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel Secures electrical power to all motors

Ans: C 4225 The emergency shutdown requirements of pollution prevention regulations apply to
A. B. C. D. Condensate pumps Air compressors Induced draft fans Cargo transfer systems

Ans: D 4226 where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
A. B. C. D. The vessels certificate of inspection The vessels oil record book The vessels oil transfer procedures The vessels international oil pollution prevention certificate

Ans: C 4227 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to be recharged
A. When the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the required VOLUME B. At each inspection for certification C. At each annual inspection

D. When the weight loss exceeds 10%of weight of charge

Ans: D 4228 Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds
A. B. C. D. 4% by volume 8% by volume 12% by volume 16% by volume

Ans: B 4229 What is the required combined capacity for all fans in an inert gas system as related to the cargo pumps?
A. B. C. D. 0.5 0.75 1 1.25

Ans: D 4230
A. B. C. D.

Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be
Drained into the vessels bilges Reclaimed for other uses Held in a slop tank Purified and then reused

Ans: A 4231
A. B. C. D.

The purpose of deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent

Flammable vapors from entering machinery space Flue gas escaping to atmosphere Inert gas escaping to atmosphere Air entering inert gas system

Ans: A 4232 The pollution prevention regulations state that ships oily bilge Slops may be pumped in port only if the
A. B. C. D. Local port authority gives permission Local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection Discharge is led to a slop barge or shore side tank Engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection

Ans: C 4233 Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings , you find that a fuel tank level has increased . you therefore should suspect
A. B. C. D. Condensation in the fuel tank A crack in the hull position of the fuel tank A load of bad fuel Contamination from the saltwater flushing system

Ans: B 4234 According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion resistant wire is required to be of at least a mash of
A. B. C. D. 8x8 10x10 20x20 30x30

Ans: D 4235 A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by
A. Holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city Sewer system

B. Circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and Debris C. Holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shoreside Reception facility D. Pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue overboard

Ans: C 4236 Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?
A. One man report the fire , and the other two men fight the fire B. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man evacuate and secure the area C. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man act as a Safetly observer D. All three men fight the and report it immediately after it is

extinguished Ans: B 4237 In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the
A. B. C. D. E. Flange Hose Stud Bolt hole

Ans: B 4238 While on watch in the engine room , you hear a continuous sounding of the alarm. which of the following actions should you take?
A. Make an entry in the official logbook B. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system C. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure

D. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge

Ans: C