Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Fred J. Knapp
Table of Contents
Introduction
1. What is a Marriage?
2. Should God abdicate the Throne?
3. What Jesus said about Divorce and what he did not say
4. What did Paul teach about Divorce?
5. Can the Divorced Remarry?
6. The Husband of One Wife
A) Respected Theologians
B) Greek Scholarship
C) The Church Fathers
D) The Scriptures
7. Summary and Conclusion
Bibliography
2
Introduction
If you are like me, learning the Bible has been an eye opening
experience. One of the biggest surprises was to learn that many beliefs
held dear by Baptists are mere tradition and not found in the Bible.
Sometimes, the Baptists have just as much church tradition as our
Romanist counterparts.
This short treatise on what the Bible says about divorce is being
especially prepared for a Pulpit Committee, but it has application for all
Christians.
3
A recent study of conservative believers stated that only 25%
believe divorce disqualified a man from the ministry. The problem is
that this 25% is extremely vocal and mean spirited. In this same survey,
50% of those against divorced men in the ministry said that they would
accept a repentant murderer in the pulpit. Do you see a problem?
Worse than that, I am amazed to see pastors who will not marry
divorced people, yet will receive them into the membership. Since they
are living in adultery according to them, why are they allowed to join
the church? See the paragraph above for the probable answer.
I do pray that the reader of this work will honestly search the
scriptures about the matter.
4
Chapter One: What is a Marriage?
5
Myth #2 – A Government Certificate constitutes a Marriage
This is the standard error made by most Christians. They think for
some reason that a marriage certificate constitutes a marriage. Now I am
not saying not to get one. You ought to. If you don't have one, you are
living in sin. The Bible says in 1 Pet 2:13, 14 that we are to “Submit
yourselves to every ordinance of man for the Lord's sake: whether it be
to the king, as supreme; "14": Or unto governors, as unto them that are
sent by him for the punishment of evildoers, and for the praise of them
that do well.” I am just stating the obvious fact that there were no
government agencies to facilitate marriages until very recently. So a
piece of paper does not make you married.
What are you asking me for? Let's consider what God has to say
and forget what anyone else says on the matter.
6
To marry someone, you are entering into a covenant with them.
The seal of this Covenant is the confession made before the recognized
authority. It expresses your desire to become one flesh and proclaims
your love one for another. That is the way to be a Bride – whether in the
spiritual realm or in the physical.
7
Chapter Two: Should God Abdicate the Throne?
Is 50:1 - “Thus saith the LORD, Where is the bill of your mother's
divorcement, whom I have put away? or which of my creditors is it to
whom I have sold you?”
Jer 3:8 - “And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel
committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce;
yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the
harlot also.”
The fact is that God Almighty, the Creator of Heaven and all Earth
is Divorced! I hear the squeals of protest from the unlearned. They will
say - “That is Different – That is God!” Oh I see…God holds us to a
higher standard than himself? Of course not! God is our perfect example
in every matter. The fact that some would disqualify a man from service
because of a divorce is blatant attack on the character of God. The Devil
did the same thing in Isaiah Chapter 14. Some have said that all divorces
are due to sin on both parts. Really? So where was God transgressing?
The very fact that God divorced Israel is proof that some divorces
are permitted (we will talk about remarriage later). If you dispute that,
you are pushing God off of the throne. There is no middle ground here.
Guess who is on the throne if God isn’t. Just look in the mirror.
8
Why did God divorce Israel? I am glad you asked. He divorced
Israel because of:
Adultery / Fornication
Jer 3:8 - “And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding
Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a
bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but
went and played the harlot also.”
Extreme Wickedness
Jer 3:2 - “Lift up thine eyes unto the high places, and see where
thou hast not been lien with. In the ways hast thou sat for them,
as the Arabian in the wilderness; and thou hast polluted the land
with thy whoredoms and with thy wickedness.”
Refusal to Acknowledge or Repent
Jer 2:35 - “Yet thou sayest, Because I am innocent, surely his
anger shall turn from me. Behold, I will plead with thee, because
thou sayest, I have not sinned.”
Abandonment
Jer 3:7 - “And I said after she had done all these things, Turn
thou unto me. But she returned not. And her treacherous sister
Judah saw it.”
Breaking of the Marriage Covenant
Deut 30:17, 18 - “But if thine heart turn away, so that thou wilt
not hear, but shalt be drawn away, and worship other gods, and
serve them;18: I denounce unto you this day, that ye shall surely
perish, and that ye shall not prolong your days upon the land,
whither thou passest over Jordan to go to possess it.”
We will soon see that these conditions are matched exactly in the
New Testament record.
9
If someone had a good heart and wanted to know the Bible
teaching on divorce, he would quickly learn that:
God is Divorced
If you disagree you have your choice of what you are saying:
God is a Sinner
hypocrite
I do not know what the Bible says on the Issue
Now don't get mad at me. I am just reading what the Bible has to
say. Stay with me as we search after truth.
10
Chapter Three: What Jesus said about Divorce
and what he did not say
Here we get into the meat of the matter. Most of the brethren who
would bar a divorced man from the ministry will run to 1 or 2 verses in
the gospels to prove their point. We will do more than that. We will
quote these verses. Unlike them, we will read the context. Then we will
see what else Jesus had to say about it. Please read what Jesus said about
divorce.
Mt 19:3-9 - “The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and
saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for
every cause?4: And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not
read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male
and female, 5: And said, For this cause shall a man leave father
and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be
one flesh? 6: Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.
What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7: They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a
writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8: He saith unto
them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to
put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9: And I
say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for
fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and
whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (This
is also recorded in Mt 5:31-32, Mk 10:1-12, and Lk 16:18.)
Now you would think any reasonable person would agree that Jesus
permitted divorce under certain circumstances. At that very least,
fornication would be a reason for a divorce. Right? Not on your life.
Many of the brethren read the words of our Lord and teach that there is
never any reason for divorce. We don't really care what they say. We
pray you will care, however, what Jesus said.
11
Now then – what did Jesus teach us here? He taught us that:
God created Adam and Eve to live together forever and that is
his ideal for a husband and wife. We do not dispute that at all.
The Reality of Sin prompted God to give recourse.
heart. This referred to the fact that a spouse would sin against
another in such a manner. It DID NOT refer to the one seeking
the divorce.
The main purpose of the bill of divorcement was to assign blame
to the guilty husband and protect the rights and reputation of the
innocent party.
This passage refers to Jews living under the Law. See Deut 24:1-
illegitimate reasons
Wherever a divorce is mentioned, a remarriage is always in the
context.
We hope that all are aware of the fact that Christians and Gentiles
are not bound by the Old Testament Mosaic Law. Rom 6:14 tells us that
“...sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law,
but under grace.”
It is very simple.
12
Now here is the important part. Let's look at what Jesus DID NOT say:
Jesus did not say this was the whole of the teaching on divorce
Jesus did not say he would rather the wronged spouse stay with
Jesus did not say that all divorced and remarried people were
living in adultery
Jesus did not say that a divorced person cannot remarry
We rely on the Holy Spirit to show you that you should believe
what Jesus said and not put words in his mouth. Next, we will see what
Paul said about the matter.
13
Chapter Four: What did Paul teach about divorce?
The honest Bible student will of course realize that just because
Jesus did not say certain things, it does not mean they are not so. We
realize that as well. The mature Christian understands that Paul never
contradicted the words of Jesus Christ. What he did was clarify them.
He took the words of Jesus Christ, illuminated them with the knowledge
of the Cross, and clarified them for his readers. We must see what Paul
said about divorce. Let us do that.
and remarriage.
Except for verse 10 and 11, Paul was giving new teaching on the
subject.
The Corinthians brethren were being heavily persecuted (see
14
Let us examine the first two verses of interest:
1 Cor 7:10, 11 - “And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the
Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11: But and if she
depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and
let not the husband put away his wife.”
Now the Romanist will immediately jump in and say “See! I told
you – it says not to depart!” It says more than that, however.
We notice the following:
Paul is restating what Jesus taught. Verse 9 says “not I, but the
Lord”. This obviously runs the student back to the gospels and
the teachings we have already covered.
According to the teachings of Jesus, which Paul is referencing,
contrasting what Jesus taught and new revelation from God. Re-
read Mt 19 again and notice the contrast between verses 6 and
12:
1 Cor 7:6 - “...I command, yet not I, but the Lord”
15
In 1 Cor 7, Paul speaks of two divorce situations and of a
remarriage following a divorce. We have just examined the first (v.10,
11). Let's look at the others (v. 12-17, and 27-28).
1 Cor 7:12-17 - “But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother
hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let
him not put her away. 13: And the woman which hath an husband that
believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave
him. 14: For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the
unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children
unclean; but now are they holy. 15: But if the unbelieving depart, let him
depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but
God hath called us to peace. 16: For what knowest thou, O wife,
whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man,
whether thou shalt save thy wife? 17: But as God hath distributed to
every man, as the Lord hath called every one, so let him walk. And so
ordain I in all churches.”
We can glean several things here:
God commands Christians to grant divorces to unbelievers if
depart.
The believer is free – just as if he/she was never married – v. 15
winning them
v. 16 is much misunderstood. It is not a plea from God to stay
16
What we have just stated is the PLAIN reading of these scriptures
and is not open to debate by sensible people. I implore you to just read
the verses. Let God show you the truth about them.
This is as clear as it can be. If you are loosed from a wife, you are
free to remarry. You have not sinned. Now some will say the passage is
talking about the natural death of a spouse. Try reading that back into
the passage. How exactly would you seek to be loosed if the passage is
talking about natural death? Paul is imploring his readers to not murder
their wives? You sure have a time of it when you have preconceived
notions about the Bible, now don't you!
One more midfield for the Romanist and we will move on:
1 Cor 7:39 - “The wife is bound by the law as long as her
The first two choices are equivalent as far as the ramifications of it.
The third choice is what we must address.
It is quite easy to see that Paul is not addressing the Law of God in
Rom 7. We see that by the fact that:
Paul just finished addressing the superiority of grace over the
law with the bondage that the Mosaic Law put on a man.
Far from trumpeting the Law, he stresses the bondage of it!
The context of 1 Cor 7 agrees. Paul had just finished addressing a series
of individuals in regarding to matrimony. He spoke to:
Single Men – v. 1, 7
God’s rules for remarriage are identical to his rules for marriage
• Those that disagree are asked to show one verse of scripture to
prove otherwise
• 1 Cor 7:27, 28 – “Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be
loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. "28": But and
if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath
not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I
spare you.”
19
Divorce means the dissolution of the marriage bond
You wouldn’t think that you would have to make this clear, but
many of the brethren are too educated to think very clearly. This fact is
illustrated in many scriptures:
• Jn 4:16-18 – “Jesus saith unto her, Go, call thy husband, and come
hither. 17: The woman answered and said, I have no husband.
Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband: 18:
For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not
thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.”
o This woman HAD 5 husbands. They were not married to her
any longer and Jesus said she had NO husband.
• Jer 3:8 – “And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding
Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill
of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went
and played the harlot also.”
Hos 2:2 – “Plead with your mother, plead: for she is not my wife,
neither am I her husband: let her therefore put away her
whoredoms out of her sight, and her adulteries from between her
breasts”
o God divorced Israel. They were no longer his wife. He was no
longer their husband. End of story.
• 1 Cor 7:10, 11 – “And unto the married I command, yet not I, but
the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11: But and if
she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her
husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.”
o The woman who divorced her husband is said to be unmarried.
• Mt 19:6 – “Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What
therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”
o The very fact that the Lord commanded the marriage to not be
put asunder proves it can be. Jesus is very clear.
20
2000 years of Jewish history affirmed the right of the wronged
woman to remarry
• In Mt 19, Jesus was called on to settle a dispute among rival Jewish
sects. The Hillel sect believed divorce could be obtained for ‘every
cause’, and the Shammai believed fornication was the only proper
motive for divorce. The issue was never remarriage, as all parties
took for granted the right of the wronged party to remarry.
• “Denial of remarriage after divorce was unknown to the Jews” –
Jewish Marriage Anthology – Goodman, p294
"On the __________ day of the week, the __________ day of the month
of __________ in the year __________ from the creation of the world
according to the calendar reckoning we are accustomed to count here,
in the city __________, which is located on the river __________, and
situated near wells of water, I, __________, the son of __________,
who today am present in the city __________, which is located on the
river __________, and situated near wells of water, do willingly
consent, being under no restraint, to release, to set free and put aside
thee, my wife __________, daughter of __________, who art today in
the city of __________, which is located on the river __________, and
situated near wells of water, who has been my wife from before. Thus do
I set free, release thee, and put thee aside, in order that thou may have
permission and the authority over thy self to go and marry any man thou
may desire. No person may hinder thee from this day onward, and thou
are permitted to every man. This shall be for thee from me a bill of
dismissal, a letter of release, and a document of freedom, in accordance
with the law of Moses and Israel." – Rabbi Maimonides and other
Jewish Sources
21
Every single recognized Hebrew or Greek lexicon has the same
definition for ‘divorce’ and that is the dissolution of the marriage
bond. There are no exceptions.
Jesus promised a blessing to those who forsake others for the sake of
the Gospel
• Mt 19:29 – “And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren,
or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for
my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit
everlasting life. “
• This includes a wife or a husband
• This teaching is found in the same chapter as the divorce teaching
(v.1-13)
• If to ‘forsake’ a spouse is not to divorce them, what exactly is it?
• While it is unclear how far you can take this, the fact is that Jesus
commended those that forsook a spouse. This cannot be denied.
• How can we refuse service to one whom the Lord has commended?
23
Chapter Six: The Husband of One Wife
If you have made it thus far, I commend you. Most Christians only
pursue their Bible study to the point where it crosses their dearly held
traditions. I am glad that you are pressing on.
Since you have reached this point, you probably believe the
following:
Divorce is a Terrible Thing
Greek Scholarship
The Scriptures
I believe all four areas will prove conclusively that the belief that
'husband of one wife' means 'only married once' is a heresy borrowed
from Rome. Let us begin our journey.
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1 Tim 3:1-7 - “: This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a
bishop, he desireth a good work.”2": A bishop then must be blameless,
the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to
hospitality, apt to teach; "3": Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of
filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; "4": One that ruleth
well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity;
"5": (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he
take care of the church of God?) "6": Not a novice, lest being lifted up
with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil. "7": Moreover he
must have a good report of them which are without; lest he fall into
reproach and the snare of the devil.”
Tit 1:5-9 - “For this cause left I thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in
order the things that are wanting, and ordain elders in every city, as I
had appointed thee: "6": If any be blameless, the husband of one wife,
having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly.”7": For a bishop
must be blameless, as the steward of God; not selfwilled, not soon
angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre; "8": But a
lover of hospitality, a lover of good men, sober, just, holy, temperate;
"9": Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may
be able by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the
gainsayers.”
25
Part I – Respected Theologians
I think all of us would admit that the great majority of what we
have learned was acquired from the hand of other godly men. Would
you prayerfully consider the opinion of these men who probably occupy
significant space on your bookshelf and have been such a blessing to the
body of Christ?
John R. Rice - "I believe that any of these major sins (wrong
26
Roy Branson Jr. - “...Why would it be improper to disqualify Paul
from service for the hideous crimes and sins he perpetrated against
God and His people before he was saved, and proper to disqualify
another who was guilty only of a foolish choice in marriage
partners?" - A BILL OF DIVORCEMENT (VOL 2) p411
J. Vernon McGee - “Can a man who is divorced and remarried
still be eligible for a position, such as deacon or pastor?" Answer:
"...If the deacon (or pastor) has scriptural grounds on which he got
a divorce, and the circumstances are pretty generally known, then I
see no reason for his not occupying the office of deacon (or
pastor)." - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Chuck Swindoll - "...phrase literally reads, "One-woman man."
As simple as that sounds, it has been the subject of numerous
interpretations....(some) have interpreted the phrase to mean that a
candidate for overseer must never have been divorced in his life,
including in his unsaved years. But this seems to be too
restrictive...in light of Jesus' words in Matthew 19:9, where he
permits--though He does not promote--divorce on the grounds of
sexual immorality. So what does 'husband of one wife' mean?
Taken in its most basic sense, it means that an overseer, if married,
must be married to only one woman (which excludes bigamy,
polygamy, and homosexuality) and must be devoted to his wife
(which excludes promiscuity and an unhealthy marriage)." -
EXCELLENCE IN MINISTRY STUDY GUUIDE ON FIRST
TIMOTHY, P41
Oliver B Greene - “...I believe with all my heart that Paul is also
saying here that man appointed to the office of a BISHOP should
be…a married man…I believe verse 5 proves that a bishop or
deacon should be married-the husband of one wife…” – THE
EPISTLE OF PAUL THE APOSTLE TO TIMOTHY AND
TITUS, p108
27
John MacArthur - "Paul is not referring to a leader's marital
status...rather the issue is his moral, sexual behavior. Many men
married only once are not one-woman men. Many with one wife
are unfaithful to that wife. While remaining married to one woman
is commendable, it is not indication or guarantee of moral purity.
Some may wonder why Paul begins his list with this quality. He
does so because it is in this area, above all others, where leaders
seem most prone to fall. The failure to be a one-woman man has
put more men out of the ministry than any other sin. It is thus a
matter of grave concern. ...Others maintain that Paul here forbids
remarriage after the death of a spouse. As already noted, however,
this standard, like all the rest refers to moral character, not marital
status. Further, the Scriptures permit and honor second marriages
under the proper circumstances....Still others hold that this
qualification excludes divorced men, from spiritual leadership.
That again, ignores the fact that Paul is not referring to marital
status. Nor does the Bible forbid all remarriage after a divorce. In
Matthew 5;31-32 and Matthew 19:9, our Lord permitted
remarriage when a divorce was caused by adultery. Paul gave a
second occasion when remarriage is permitted, when the
unbelieving spouse initiates the divorce. (1 Cor. 7:15). While God
hates all divorce (Mal. 2:16) He is gracious to the innocent party in
those two situations. Since remarriage in itself is not a sin, it is not
necessarily a blight on a man's character." - NEW TESTAMENT
COMMENTARY ON FIRST TIMOTHY page 104-105
M.R. DEHAAN - "If a man is saved after making the mistake, and
sees and confesses his fault, I would be the last one to put up a
hindrance to his ministry." - DEAR DOCTOR, I HAVE A
PROBLEM, page 109
28
Albert Barnes: “…the former is the correct opinion, seems to me
to be evident from the following considerations: (1.) it is the most
obvious meaning of the language, and it would doubtless be thus
understood by those to whom it was addressed. At a time when
polygamy was not uncommon, to say that a man should "have but
one wife" would be naturally understood as prohibiting polygamy.”
– BARNES’ NOTES ON THE NEW TESTAMENT, p1139
Jay Adams: “The phrase, ‘the husband of one wife’, strictly
speaking, permits only one interpretation: a prospective elder or
deacon (because he must be an example in all things) – may not be
a polygamist. The phrase ‘husband of only one wife’ at any given
time. It says nothing whatsoever about remarriage. But we are told
by advocates of anti-marriage viewpoints that there was no
polygamy in NT times. The facts prove otherwise; they are wrong.
Polygamy was not only continued among the Jews, but also among
the Greeks and Romans (and who knows where else?)”-
MARRIAGE, DIVORCE AND REMARRIAGE IN THE BIBLE,
p81
We could quote many others. How many know that Charles Stanley and
CI Scofield were both divorced. They are among the most widely used
preachers of the last century, are they not?
Prov 19:20 - “Hear counsel, and receive instruction, that thou mayest
be wise in thy latter end.”
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Part II – Greek Scholarship
Anyone who knows me well knows that it is extremely rare for me
to quote any Greek scholar. That being said, I have seen many people
quoting Greek scholars, root words, and lexicons to prove their point in
this regard.
Let us see what two of the prominent Greek scholars had to say
about the definition of 'the husband of one wife'.
Kenneth Wuest - "The entire context is one in which the character
of the bishop (pastor) is being discussed. Thus, one can translate,
"a one-wife sort of a husband," or "a one-woman sort of a man."
We speak of the Airedale as a one-man dog. We mean by that, that
it is his nature to become attached to only one man, his master.
Since character is emphasized by the Greek construction, the
bishop should be a man who loves only one woman as his wife." -
WORD STUDIES IN THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT (Volume
2, p53)
Spiros Zodhiates - "The expression mias gunaikos in known in
Greek grammar as...'a one-woman's husband," not a 'ladies' man,
in other words. The total context speaks of the moral conduct of the
bishop and the deacon. He should be totally dedicated to his wife
and not be flirtatious." - HEBREW-GREEK KEY STUDY
BIBLE, footnotes on page 1475 under 1 Timothy 3:2
30
Part III – Church Fathers
As with our references to Greek scholars and theologians of the
past, we do not claim perfect judgment for the Church Fathers. We do,
however, think it is dishonest to not consider what they taught about this
issue.
The fact of the matter is that the majority of the Church Fathers did
not believe that the term 'husband of one wife' referred to divorce; for
adultery or any other reason. They believed and taught that it was a
reference to bigamy. This is supported by the qualification for a bishop
and the practices of the early Church.
31
Part IV – The Scriptures
While it been quite enlightening to discuss what the Church
Fathers, great men of God, and Greek scholars have to say about the
issue, they are not the final authority. Our final authority is the King
James Bible. Let us prove any point from it. The following points should
convince anyone that Paul was NOT speaking of divorce in 1 Tim 3 and
Tit 1:
All of these qualifications are 'present tense' - none of us have
been 'blameless' over our entire life, for example. The irony of this
view is, that some people who have been 'married' for years, but yet
have been flirtatious, even had affairs in the past, or promiscuous
before marriage, are still allowed to be pastor later on, but not the
poor guy whose wife left him to perhaps run off with another man!
Why are some willing to forgive murderers, drunks, wife
beaters, and drug addicts, but exclude a man who is the victim
of divorce?
It is unreasonable to apply the term ‘blameless’ to the degree
some do. Was Peter (violent, cursing, and a blasphemer) totally
blameless? How about Paul (a murderer and a blasphemer)? I think
the point has been made.
There is no reason to believe that any one qualification is more
important than the other. For some strange reason, one
qualification has been elevated above the rest while ignoring the
others. This is improper.
Why are not the same inquiries made of the other qualifications
(1 Tim 3, Tit 1) and past sin in the life of the preacher? Why is
one singled out?
The phrase 'husband of one wife', was a slang phrase - Common
in that day, which meant a pastor or deacon had to be a ‘one
woman type of man'....not a 'flirt' or a 'ladies' man'...for obvious
reasons!
32
The mere fact that a man is divorced does not mean that he did
not ‘rule his own house well’. Ruling the house properly is often
the very reason a rebellious woman will seek a divorce. God is
divorced. Is he guilty of not ‘ruling his own house well’? Hardly.
If a man is called to the ministry, should he quit because his
wife turns from God? Is that the will of God? Ever?
Romanist Reasoning - which says a divorced person could never
be pastor or deacon but would allow a repentant murderer or child
molester to do so is not Biblical or sane.
The plain reading of English grammar - does not dictate any
reference to divorce. If I were to say I am the “owner of one car”,
you would never assume that I have only owned one car. Only a
scholar or a Pharisee would make that mistake!
If you hold that husband of one wife means only one marriage,
then men like Charles Spurgeon, Bob Jones Sr., Adoniram Judson,
and others who have had a wife die should have left the ministry.
After all, it says one wife, doesn’t it? It doesn’t say one wife unless
she died.
There are instances where divorce is not preferable and
sometimes God COMMANDS it (1 Cor 7:15a)
In the Millennium, you will find an adulterous murderer (King
David) reigning in Jerusalem, and a divorced King (Jesus)
reigning over the world. 1 Tim 3 and Tit 1 should be studied in
light of this.
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Chapter Seven: Conclusion
As we finish up this short study, I would like to make a couple of
brief comments in conclusion.
What will you do from here? We have proved from the Bible our
point. Extra Biblical sources only have reinforced this material. Will you
agree to make the position of the Bible your position? Or will you stick
to tradition as Roman Catholics do when confronted by the Bible?
I hope you do make the right decision. Not just for my sake. But for
the sake of the countless Christians who have been needlessly rejected
from fellowship and ministry because of tradition masquerading as
Scripture.
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May I quote an opponent of my position as a means of illustration?
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Bibliography
Greene, Oliver B. The Epistles of Paul the Apostle to Timothy and Titus.
Greenville, SC: The Gospel Hour, 1964
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