P32 has a half life of 14 days.

After 3 months, what would be the residual radioactivity of 1 milliCurie of ATP labeled with P32? (2.5 mins) 62.5 microCurie 6.25 microCurie 15.5 microCurie 1.55 microCurie Explanation: In 3 months, 6 half lives have passed. 1 mCu 0.5 mCu 0.25 mCu 0.125 mCu 62.5 microCu 31.25 microCu 15.625 microCu Penicillin inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell wall by binding to (1 min) Alanine transferase Trans-peptidase N-acetylgalactosamine N-acetylmuramic acid Explanation: Trans-peptidase is the enzyme which catalyzes the last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan. i.e. pentaglycine crosslinking after recognizing terminal D-alanine. Penicillin inhibits this enzyme and thus inhibits crosslinking. For an enzyme catalyzed reaction following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, doubling the enzyme concentration will result in (2 mins) Increase in Vmax, Km remains the same Decrease in Vmax, Km remains the same No change in Vmax, Km increases No change in Vmax, Km decreases Explanation: The metal cofactors bound to a protein can be identified by using (1 min) SDS PAGE analysis Size exclusion analysis Atomic absorption spectroscopy Ultraviolet spectroscopy Explanation: Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy in analytical chemistry is a technique for determining the concentration of a particular metal element within a sample. Atomic absorption spectroscopy can be used to analyze the concentration of over 62 different metals in a solution. Which of the following does not occur during the dark reaction of photosynthesis? (1 min) Utilization of NADPH Utilization of ATP Evolution of oxygen Synthesis of glucose Explanation: Evolution of oxygen occurs in the light reaction of photosynthesis. A Ribonuclease has 6 disulphide bonds which were reduced by Dithiothreitol in presence of 8M urea. These reagents were removed by dialysis so that the protein could refold and the

disulphide bonds reformed. If the reformation of S-S bonds occurred randomly, the expected recovery of the biological activity would be (3 min) 100% 80% 0.95 % 0.0096 % Explanation: With 12 Cys residues, the first to pair has one chance in 11 of selecting the correct partner. Of the 10 remaining Cys residues, the first to pair has 1 chance in 9 to pair correctly. With 8 Cys residues, the first to pair has one chance in 7 of selecting the correct partner. Of the 6 remaining Cys residues, the first to pair has 1 chance in 5 to pair correctly. Four Cys residues remain; the first of these has 1 chance in 3 of pairing correctly. The final pair is determined by the previous pairings. Therefore the probability of the 3 correct choices required to produce an active enzyme is: 1/11 x 1/9 x 1/7 x 1/5 x 1/3 x 1/1 = 0.0096% Which of the following antibiotics resembles the 3 end of a charged tRNA molecule? (1.0 min) Puromycin Streptomycin Tetracycline Kanamycin Explanation: Puromycin is an aminonucleoside antibiotic, derived from the Streptomyces, that causes premature chain termination during translation taking place in the ribosome. Part of the molecule resembles the 3' end of the aminoacylated tRNA. It enters the A site and transfers to the growing chain, causing the formation of a puromycylated nascent chain and premature chain release. Which of the following statements is true? (1.5 mins) An allele is either dominant or recessive, not in between A particular gene can have only two alleles A single trait can be affected by many genes The environment is irrelevant to gene expression Explanation: One of the strands of a B-form DNA double helix is replaced by another strand with identical nucleotide sequence but with a backbone made up of all ribose sugars. The structure of the new duplex would adopt is (1.5 min) A form B form C form Z form Explanation: Double-stranded regions of RNA and some RNA-DNA hybrids adopt a doublehelical form very similar to that of A-DNA. You dissolve one mole of sodium acetate in 1 L of pure water. The concentration of sodium acetate in this solution is (1.5 min)

1.0 M 10.0 M < 1.0 M > 1.0 M Explanation: To make 1 M solution of Na acetate, 1 mole is dissolved in total 1 L of solution i.e. the final volume should be 1 L. So concentration will be less. Amino acid composition analysis revealed that a peptide has 2 Arg, 2 Lys and I Tyr. Further, a) Arg is observed at the, N-terminus before and after digestion with chymotrypsin and b) a free Lys is released after digestion with trypsin. Identify the sequence of the peptide? (2 min) Arg-Arg-Tyr-Lys-Lys Arg- Tyr -Lys-Arg-Lys Arg- Tyr -Lys-Lys- Arg Arg- Tyr -Arg-Lys-Lys Explanation: Chymotrypsin - Specific for aromatic side chain on carboxyl side of peptide bond i.e Tyr, Phe, Trp. Trypsin - Specific for basic side chain on carboxyl side of peptide bond i.e Lys and Arg. From condition a) we can understand the N terminal is Arg before and after digestion. Arg-Tyr -Arg-Lys-Lys. From condition b the free lys can be seen only if the sequence is like in option D. That is trypsin can cleave C terminal of LYS and ARG. A DNA chip contains a complete set of random octanucleotide (8-mers) probes. Out of the 4^4= 65536 probes, how many will form perfect complementary duplexes with sequences within the 14 nucleotide singles handed target DNA, 5' -GAACTGCATTGATA-3'? (2 min) 10 9 7 6 Explanation: GAACTGCATTGATA _________ 1 __________2 _________ 3 __________ 4 ___________ 5 ____________ 6 _____________ 7 For a 8-mer, the probability of finding any particular sequence is 1/4*1/4*1/4*1/4*1/4*1/4 *1/4*1/4 = 1/(48). The probability that any given 8-mer is present in 48 random sequences is near unity. Note how many different sequences of 8-mers are present in the above sequence. A parental cross involving pure tall-round seeded and pure dwarf-wrinkle seeded pea plants produced tall-round seeded plants. Upon interbreeding the F1 tall-round seeded plants, a total

of 400 F2 plants were produced. How many among them were dwarf-round seeded plants? (2.5 min) 25 50 75 250 Explanation: Dwarf round plants should be in the ratio of 3 out of 16 F2 plants. So if the total no. of F2 plants is 400 then the no. of dwarf-round plants will be 75 (400*3/16) There are two concentric circles. The radius of the outer one is twice the radius of the inner circle. What is the ratio of the area between the circles to that of the inner circle? (2.5 mins) 1:1 2:1 1:3 3:1 Explanation: We have to find (A2 A1)/A1 A2 = R2 A1 = r2 R = 2r So, (A2 A1)/A1 = (R2 - r2)/ r2 = (4r2- r2)/ r2 = 3/1 What is the role of hypoxanthine in HAT medium used for hybridoma generation? (2 min) It is an antibiotic It blocks de novo DNA synthesis It is used for negatively selecting myeloma cells It is used for negatively selecting B cells Explanation: Aminopterin blocks denovo synthesis. No agent is added in HAT medium for negative selection of B cells because, they are differentiated cells and have limited lifespan. Myeloma-myeloma fusion cells have to be negatively selected, so hypoxanthine is added. Myeloma cells are HGPRT-negative i.e. cannot make enzyme that can utilize Hypoxanthine. So in HAT medium these cells die, as denovo pathway blocked (aminopterin) and salvage pathway blocked (HGPRT- negative). The average density of a soluble protein is 1.33 g/cm3. Calculate the specific volume of a soluble protein, given that the average molecular weight of an amino acid residue is 120 Daltons. (2 min) 0.50 mL/g 0.75 mL/g 0.33 mL/g 1.00 mL/g Explanation: Specific volume of a substance is the ratio of the substance's volume to its mass. It is the reciprocal of density. So, Ans = 1/1.33 = 0.75 mL/g

In a family, both husband and wife haved blood group A. The first child born to them was found to have O blood group. What is the probability that their next child will have blood group A? (2.5 min) 0.0 0.25 0.50 0.75 Explanation: Both wife and husband have blood group A, but their 1st born has blood group O, that means the parents are heterozygous for A allele i.e. both are IoIa. The probability of a child with blood group O is 25%, and the probability of a child with blood group A is 75% (either IoIa or IaIa) Rifampicin is an inhibitor of transcription in bacteria. Rifampicin resistant mutants normally map to one of the following subunits of RNA polymerase (1.5 mins) subunit subunit subunit subunit Explanation: Resistance to rifampicin arises from mutations that alter residues of the rifampicin binding site on RNA polymerase, resulting in decreased affinity for rifampicin. Resistant mutations map to the rpoB gene, encoding RNA polymerase beta subunit. To amplify the DNA sequence (5 ATCTTCTACG..AAGCTTGCGG 3) by PCR, which of the following primer sets would you use? (2.5 mins) 5 ATCTTCTACG 3 and 5 AAGCTTGCGG 3 5 TAGAAGATGC 3 and 5 TTCGAACGCC 3 5 GATATCTTCTACG 3 and 5 CGGCCGCAAGCTT 3 5 ATCTTCTACG 3 and 5 TTCGAACGCC 3 Explanation: In PCR, 2 primers are required. 1 primer is complementary to 1 DNA strand. The 2nd primer is complementary to the other DNA strand. Both are read in the 5 3 direction. During early division of an embryo, a cleavage furrow caused two groups of cells to separate completely. Each part developed independently and gave rise to a complete adult. This shows that (1.5 mins) Genes have only a minor role to play in development The environment is important for development Cell differentiation depends on the relative locations of different cells Imprinting is a significant phenomenon Explanation: The cell fate determined to each and every cell during development will make the embryo to develop into complete adult. Some bacterial mRNAs begin translation at GUG codon instead of AUG codon. From these mRNAs protein synthesis begins with (1.5 mins) Met f-Met Val

f-Val Explanation: Start codon is AUG in most of the time, but sometimes GUG(8%) and UUG(1%) work as start codon. when GUG is read as a start codon, it is translated to formyl-methionine. If Solution A has pH of 3 and Solution B has pH of 6, the difference in their hydrogen ion concentration is (2 mins) A < B by [103] A > B by [103] A < B by [10-3] A > B by [3] Explanation: B has lesser H+ ion concentration than A. Since pH = -log [H+], difference in pH of 3 represents difference in H+ concentration by 10^3. A person develops gas and diarrhea frequently on consumption of dairy products. The likely enzyme deficiency could be (1.5 mins) -galactosidase -glucosidase -galactosidase Lactase Explanation: Lactose intolerance refers to the inability of the body to digest lactose. The enzyme lactase, which is normally produced by cells lining the small intestine, breaks down lactose into substances that can be absorbed into the bloodstream. Lactose intolerance occurs when, due to a deficiency of lactase, lactose is not completely broken down and the glucose level does not rise. A solution of lysine (pI 9.6) and glycine (pI 5.97) is placed between two electrodes. At pH 9.6, when current is passed between the two electrodes (2 mins) Glycine migrates to cathode Both lysine and glycine do not migrate Lysine migrates to cathode Glycine migrates to anode Explanation: At pH above the pI, the amino acid becomes negatively charged and moves towards the positive electrode i.e. cathode. At pI, net charge on amino acid is 0 and at pH lower than pI, the charge on amino acid is positive. In a sequencing reaction, the dATP was left out of the tube to which ddATP was added. What would be the consequence? (2 mins) No DNA synthesis would occur Synthesis would always stop at the position at which the first A was incorporated Synthesis would terminate randomly regardless of the nucleotide incorporated Normal DNA synthesis would occur Explanation: ddATP will have Deoxy groups at 2 & 3 position. Since dATP is not added, at the 1st position in the DNA strand where dATP should be added, ddATP is added and no free 3OH group for addition of next nucleotide, so growth of chain stops.

Three polypeptides (A, B and C), whose masses are 55kDa, 50kDa and 75 kDa with pI of 6.5, 7.0 and 8.0 respectively, were subjected to standard reducing SDS-PAGE. The order of their separation from top to bottom would be (1.5 mins) A, B and C B, A and C A, C and B C, A and B Explanation: SDS-PAGE separates on the basis of mass, not on charge. Smallest mass will travel the farthest. Let us consider a sphere of a certain radius and a cone of the same radius. The height of the cone is twice the diameter of its base. What is the relationship between volumes of sphere (S) and cone (C)? (2.5 mins) S>C C>S S=C No definite relationship exists between S and C Explanation: If r is the radius of sphere, then radius of the base of cone is also r. Volume of sphere = 4r3/3 Volume of cone = 1r2h/3 h of cone = 2 diameter = 2(2r) = 4r So, Volume of cone = 1r24r/3 = 4r3/3 So, S = C In the presence of a compound X, protein synthesis can initiate, but only dipeptides are formed that remain bound to the ribosome. Therefore, compound X affects eukaryotic protein synthesis by blocking (2 min) The activity of elongation factors The activation of amino acids The recognition of stop signals The formation of peptide bonds Explanation: If dipeptides are formed, the compound X does not inhibit peptide bond synthesis. But during the elongation mechanism, the translocation of ribosomes is affected due to which the dipeptides cannot be increased in length. A mammalian cell typically has 1.2 meters of double stranded DNA when completely outstretched. The total time to duplicate the DNA is 5 hours. If the rate of duplication is 16 meters/min, how many origins of replication will be formed? (3 min) 250 15000 1 500 Explanation:

In 1 min 16 meters In 300 min (5 hrs) 16 * 300 meters Length of DNA = 1.2 m = 1.2 * 10^6 meters No. of origin of replication = 1.2 * 10^6 / 16 * 300 = 250 A pulse chase experiment is used to measure the half life of a protein inside a bacterial cell. Which of the following isotopically labeled compound is best suited for this experiment? (1.5 min) Water with O18 Methionine with S35 Phosphotyrosine with P32 Ammonium acetate with N15 Explanation: All others have groups that can be exchanged/reacted in many different metabolic processes. The S of methionine is fairly stable in protein. The cross between a mutant mother and a normal father gives rise to offspring that are all mutant; the reciprocal cross gives rise to offspring that are all normal. This means the mutation is likely to be (2.5 min) In the mitochondrial genome In the nuclear genome Dominant Recessive Explanation: If there are 1000 cells per ml in the middle of the log phase, and the generation time of the cells is 30 min, how many cells will be there 2 hours later? (2 min) 2000 8000 10000000 16000 Explanation: Nt = No * 2^n Nt = 1000 * 2^4 Nt = 16000 Consider the function y = x(x3 343)/(x-7). As x takes values very close to 7, what is the value of y? (1.5 min) Indeterminate or infinity 0 7 1029 Explanation: Values close to zero in denominator gives infinity Two trains of same length running at the same speed of 80 kilometers per hour in opposite directions in parallel tracks cross each other in 9 seconds. What is the length of the trains?

100 meters 200 meters 400 meters 800 meters Explanation: A sign is hammered into a tree 2 m above the trees base. If the tree is 10 m tall and elongates 1 m each year, how will the sign be after 10 years? 12 m 4m 2m 7m Explanation: Only the upper part i.e. apex of the tree grows in length, whereas the lower part of the tree grows in thickness Myoglobin has 153 amino acids residues. If it was a continuous -helix, the length of myoglobin -helix would be 36 nm 53 nm 55 nm 23 nm Explanation: The -helix has 3.6 residues per turn and the pitch of the alpha-helix (the vertical distance between one consecutive turn of the helix) is 5.4 . Distance between 2 amino acids in a helix is 1.5 . In a population at large, there is a rare disease that affects one person in a thousand. A diagnostic test for the disease is 99% accurate. This means that there is a 1% chance that the test wrongly identifies a healthy person as having the disease. Suppose you take the test and the result is positive. Then the chance that you indeed have the disease is about (5 min) 9% 1% 50% 0.1% Explanation: Suppose 100,000 people are tested for disease D. Consider the people who actually have the disease (column 1). Since the disease prevalence is 1 in 1000, about 100,0000.1% = 100 actually have the disease. And since 99% of people with the disease test positive, those 100 people will get about 99 positive tests and 1 negative test. Now look at the healthy people (column 2). Out of the 100,000 who took the test, 100,000100 = 99,900 dont have the disease. Of the healthy people, 99,90099% = 98,901 will test negative, and the other 999 will test positive. Finally, add across to find the row totals (column 3). There are 99+999 = 1,098 positive test results and 1+98,901 = 98,902 negative test results.

From this chart, you can easily answer the questions, Whats the probability that testing positive means I have the disease? Whats the probability that testing negative means I dont? Out of the 1,098 tests that report positive results, 99 (9%) are correct and 999 (91%) are false positives. Therefore the probability that you actually have disease D, when youre given a positive test result, is just 9% for a test that is 99% accurate! Symbolically you can write this as (P(have D | test positive) = 9%. (Remember that P(A|B) is the probability of if B then A or A given that B is true.) To reiterate, the conditional probability that you test positive given that you have the disease is P(test positive | have D) = 99100 = 99% and this is usually what the accuracy of the test means. But the conditional probability that you have the disease if you test positive is P(have D | test positive) = 991098 = about 9% Can you believe a negative result? Well, if you test negative, the probability that you are actually negative is P(healthy | test negative) = 98,901/98,902, virtually 100%, so a negative result is almost certainly correct.