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S.No 1 Question Answer Maypole deformity

This Type III(b) atresia (apple peel, Christmas tree) is also called as :. 2 All are True about RTK ( Rhabdoid Tumour of Kidney) except: a. Highly malignant Renal Tumour of Infants & Young children. b. Rhabdomyoblast is the cell of origin. c. Concurrent Brain tumours are frequent. d. Deletion of INI - 1 gene on 22q. Syndromic variety of biliary hpoplasia carries a good prognosis true/ false All are True about CMN except : ( Congenital Mesoblastic Nephroma) a. Most Common Renal tumour in infants. b. Mixed CMN is the most common Histological subtype. c. Classic CMN resembles Infantile Fibromatosis. d. Cellular CMN resembles Congenital Fibrosarcoma. b

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false b

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Opsomyoclonus in neuroblastoma carries a good prognosis. True / false Most common extra-gonadal site for GERM CELL TUMORS is : . What is the treatment for trichotilophagy ? Predominantly presacral SCT presenting in late infancy carries greater risk of malignancy - True / False ? Deficiency of which enzyme causes hypertension in CAH? Introduction of Platinum based chemo for malignant sacro -coccygeal germ cell tumors has promoted the survival rate to Mention one of the risks of alpha 2A Interferon therapy for Infantile Haemo-Endothelioma liver : The floor of Penile Urethra is fully formed by . weeks of intra uterine life. Radiotherapy effectively controls inoperable Infantile Haemo Endothelioma Liver. True / False ? During Left Upper Lobectomy, Superior Segmental Artery is ligated & divided on the Anterior surface of the Left Pulmonary Hilum. True/False Paediatric Surgical Speciality was first established in India in the year

true Sacro-coccygeal region counselling True 11beta Hydroxylase > 80% Rebound lesions. Spastic diplegia. 11 weeks False False 1965

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Unilateral coronal synostosis leads to ...... During the third trimester , urine constitutes what percentage of amniotic fluid ? (a) 50 % (b) 100 % (c) 70 % (d) 90 % (e) 10 %

Plagiocephaly (d) By the third trimester, urine production equals 30 40 ml/h and comprises up to 90 % of amniotic fluid volume. Answer: (a) The lower the mHz of the probe, the better tissue penetrance is obtained. In order to image the kidneys in a large 14-yearold child, the 3 Mhz probe offers the best tissue penetrance and would be the best choice. D.Hyperglycemia


Which of the following ultrasound probes would be most appropriate to image the kidney of a large 14-year-old boy? (a) 3 mHz (b) 5 mHz (c) 7.5 mHz (d) 10 mHz (e) Any of the above probes would be appropriate



All the following are related to Beckwith Weideman Syndrome except : A Exomphalos B Visceromegaly C Hepatoblastoma D Hyperglycemia An 18-month-old child is seen in the office for ultrasound. During the exam, an overlying rib obscures the child ' s left kidney and she becomes increasingly agitated and uncooperative . Which of the following positions is optimal to obtain an image of this ki dney? (a) Supine with the probe placed in laterally along the axillary line

(d) The prone position is the best position to image a kidney obscured by ribs. In an

(b) Left lateral decubitus position (c) Prone position (d) Have the caregiver hold the child and image the kidney from the prone position (e) Supine with the probe anterior ly in an intercostal space.


Rex shunt is done between ..


A two-month-old child is seen in the office for evaluation of severe unilateral hydronephrosis. You perform an ultrasound . Which of the following findings would be suggestive of a severely obstructed pelvic ureteric junction (PUJ) rather than a multicystic dysplastic kidney? (a) An echogenic contralateral kidney (b) Contiguity of the dilated renal pelvis and dilated calyces (c) Involution of the kidney on serial follow -up exams (d) Elongated kidney without reniform shape with multiple cysts (e) All of the above

uncooperative younger child, the comfort of being held by the caregiver will often calm the child down and allow a better exam. Mesentericoportal Rex-shunt as a treatment for extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (b) The differentiation between a severely obstructed kidney and a multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK) can be challenging. The key differential feature is the contiguity of the dilated renal pelvis with the dilated calyces that is not seen in a MCDK and the lack of involution of the severely obstructed kidney on serial exams.

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Which coagulation factor deficiency may be associated with Wilms tumor ? A ultrasound is performed on routine follow -up on a 14 -day -old neonate found to have bilateral prenatal sonographically evident renal pelvis(SERP). Examination of the bladder ultrasound demonstrates echogenic material within the bladder lumen . Which of the following is most likely responsible for this finding? (a) Bladder calculi (b) Phosphate crystals (c) Uric acid crystals (d) Tamm-Horsfall protein (e) Hypercalcuria

Furthermore, additional features suggestive of a MCDK include: an echogenic elongated kidney without reniform shape; multiple noncommunicating cysts; a contralateral echogenic kidney; and perhaps most importantly, involution of the MCDK over time. VWf, vWFactor Factor VII (d) The echogenic characteristic of a neonate' s bladder is usually due to the Tamm-Horsfall protein. The normal urine in older children is echolucent. Answer: (c) The formula to estimate the bladder capacity


What is the expected bladder capacity of a 6 -year-old child ? (a) 140 ml (b) 180 ml (c) 240 ml (d) 280 ml (e) 340 ml


All the following are POOR PROGNOSTIC SIGNS in ANORECTAL MALFORMATIONS except : a. Abnormal sacrum b. Flat perineum c. Cloacas with common channel > 3 cms. d. Prominent midline groove The radioactive tracer providing the most effective relative mea sure of GFR in children more than 5 year of age is: (a) 99m Tc-diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA) (b) 99m Tc mercaptoacetyl triglycine (MAG3) (c) 131 I - or 123 I-orthoiodohippurate (OIH) (d) 99m Tc -dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) (e) 131 I radioiodin e

is as follows: Bladder capacity (ounces) = age (years) + 2. To convert ounces to ml, one multiples the capacity by 30. Thus, a 6-year-old child should have a bladder capacity of 240 ml (or 8 ounces). d) Prominent midline groove


Answer: (a) 99m Tc DTPA has > 95 % excretion by glomerular filtration and becomes a reliable method of measuring relative function on each side and measuring GFR in children more than 5 years of age. DTPA is taken up by the kidney through

glomerular filtration and is not secreted or reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Once it reaches the kidney, about 20 % is accumulated and the remainder flows away. 28 All of the following are findings of bladder exstrophy by screening fetal ultrasound except : (a) Lower abdominal bulge (b) Low set umbilicus (c) Nonvisualization of the bladder (d) Hydronephrosis (e) Small penis Answer: (d) Studies have identified five common prenatal finding on ultrasound to suggest bladder exstrophy: inability to visualize bladder on multiple ultrasounds, lower abdominal bulge, small penis with anteriorly placed scrotum, low set umbilicus, and abnormal widening of the iliac crests. Although hydronephrosis can be found in addition


Prune belly syndrome is classically defined by all of the following abnormalities except: (a) Deficiency of the abdominal wall musculature (b) Hypospadias (c) Bilateral cryptorchidism (d) Dilated, dysmorphic urinary tract Based on Woodard's classification, the majority of patients with prune belly syndrome reside in which category? (a) I (b) II (c) IIa (d) III (e) IV



What is the muscle that forms the Passavants Ridge ?

to bladder exstrophy, it is not indicative of the diagnosis. (b) Hypospadias is not a classi finding associated with prune belly syndrome. (d) Woodard described three major categories for children with prune belly syndrome, with Category III, the last category, to be the mildest. Category III patients are affected by the external abdominal features and undescended testes, but neither pulmonary nor renal function is significantly impaired. Palatopharyngeus

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All are true about Zinc Deficiency in Short Bowel Syndrome except: (1) 17mg/L loss in Ileostomy Fluid (2) Acrodermatitis Enteropathica (3) Serum Acid Phosphatase is a surr ogate marker Which is the ImmunoHistochemical marker for Interstitial Cell of Cajal ? Which is the most common salivary malignancy in children ? The most important/immediate factor which aff ects prognosis in the newborn with prune belly syndrome is: (a) Renal involvement (b) Pulmonary involvement (c) Cardiac involvement (d) Orthopedic abnormalities (e) Gastrointestinal abnormalities.

3marker is SerumAlkPO4ase c-Kit MucoEpidermoidCa Answer: (a) Prognosis of a child with prune belly syndrome is directly related to renal function and the degree of renal dysplasia. It has been proposed that the renal dysplasia seen in prune belly syndrome is due to combination of a ureteric bud and metanephric defect. Answer: (a) The anterior urethral abnormalities associated with prune belly syndrome range from urethral atresia to


The most common anterior urethral abnormality associated with patients with prune belly syndrome is: (a) Megalourethra (b) Hypospadias (c) Microurethra (d) Urethral duplication (e) Nonobstructing bulbar urethral stricture


The most frequent musculoskeletal/orthopedic abnormality in patients with prune belly syndrome is: (a) Talipes equinovarus (b) Polydactyly (c) Congential dislocation of the hips (d) Syndactyly (e) Scoliosis

fusiform megalourethra. Both scaphoid and fusiform megalourethra may be associated with prune belly syndrome. Answer: (c) Intrauterine compression and oligohydramnios may cause lateral dimples of the elbows and knees at the milder end of the spectrum, and, most commonly, congenital dislocation of the hips at the severe end. Scoliosis, talipes equinovarus, polydactyly and syndactyly are rare anomalies associated with prune belly syndrome.


In regards to ambiguous genitalia which of the following is true ? (a) The most common cause is mixed gonadal dysgenesis (b) The most common enzyme deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is11B hydroxylase (c) CAH may be life-threatening secondary to low serum potassium and high serum sodium levels (d) 17 -hydroxyprogesterone levels will be elevated when CAH is present (e) CAH is the most likely diagnosis when the karyotype is 46XX and uterus is not visualized on ultrasound.

Answer: (d) The most common cause of ambi guous genitalia is CAH. The most common enzyme deficiency associated with CAH is 21-hydoxylase deficiency. The second most common deficiency is 11-hydroxylase. Lastly, 3beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase can also cause CAH but is extremely rare. CAH, if unrecognized and untreated, is life threatening in the salt-waster secondary to poor feeding, dehydration, and hyperkalemia leading to arrhythmias and shock. When the cause is 21-hydroxylase,


The most common solid malignancy in the neonate i s: (a) Neuroblastoma (b) Wilms ' tumor (c) Renal cell carcinoma (d) Congenital mesoblastic nephroma

blood tests for 17hydroxyprogesterone and progesterone will be elevated. These tests should be ordered after day 2 of life because they may be falsely elevated early in life from the stress of delivery. 45XX CAH patients will still have Mllerian ducal structures, such as a uterus, visible on pelvic ultrasound. Answer: (d) Neuroblastoma is the most common solid malignancy in the neonate. Wilms ' tumors are the most common renal tumors in children but rarely occur in the neonate. Renal cell carcinoma is rare in young


Anorectal malformations are associated with a urologic abnormality in 20 60 % of patients. One of these, neuropathic bladder, should be studied early in the evaluation process with urodynamics. What is the expected etiology of a neuropathic bladder in

children. However, in children older than 10 years of age, presenting with a solid renal mass, 50 % will be of renal cell origin. Congenital mesoblastic nephroma is the most common solid renal mass in the neonate. Many are detected prenatally or in the first month after birth. The cellular variant is capable of metastasis and once this occurs the child will require chemotherapy. The classic variant is not capable of metastasis and nephrectomy alone is the treatment of choice. Answer: (a) When vertebral anomalies are

this population? (a) Tethered cord (b) Spina bifida (c) Lipomeningocele (d) Syrinx (e) Myelomeningocele


In the newborn nursery on routine examination 5 hours after a prolonged vaginal delivery, an erythematous, firm and tender right hemiscrotum is discovered. On reviewing the delivery examination notes, both testes were thought to be present at birth and the scrotum was normal. The next step should be: (a) Allow discharge home (b) Observation in the nursery for 24 hours (c) Immediate exploration for susp ected testicular torsion (d) Attempt to detorse at the bedside and then obtain an ultrasound (e) Obtain a KUB radiograph

present, a tethered spinal cord is the most common etiology of a neuropathic bladder in this population. Although the other processes may occur, it is not an anticipated finding in this population. Answer: (c) Neonatal torsion may present in the early postdelivery time period. It is hallmarked by a change in the scrotal exam as compared to immediate delivery. In this setting, i.e. < 6 hours, immediate exploration is warranted. The pathogenesis is likely to be extravaginal torsion. Bilateral inguinal




All the following statements regarding breast feeding are true except one a. Start feeding early on day 1 even in small and sick babies b. Formula milk is the best food for low birth c. weight neonates d. initial exclusive breast feeding should be complemented by complementary foods by six months of age e. None of the above Most prevalent nutritional defi ciency is infants and children a. Xerophthalmia b. iron deficiency anemia c. Megaloblastic anemia d. Dimorphic anemia During the evaluation of gross hematuria for a 1 -week-old premature infant born to a diabetic mother, a renal ultrasoun d reveals an edematous kidney with minimal but present arterial wave form. A renal scan reveals an enlarged kidney with decreased blood flow and function. The most likely diagnosis is: (a) Adrenal hemorrhage (b) Renal artery thrombosis (c) Renal trauma secondary to prolonged vaginal delivery (d) Congenital mesoblastic

incisions are most commonly used because of the increased incidence of a patent process. Also, in rare cases, a testicular tumor is responsible for the torsion of the testicle. b)Formula milk is the best food for low birth weight neonates

b)iron deficiency anemia

Answer: (e) Although all of these may result in gross hematuria in the neonate, given the above history, renal vein

nephroma (e) Renal vein thrombosis.

thrombosis is the most likely etiology. Infants of diabetic mothers may be initially dehydrated and result in renal vein thrombosis. A renal ultrasound of renal artery thrombosis typically does not demonstrate an edematous kidney and the renal scan will reveal no function and no blood flow. The management of renal vein thrombosis may consist of hydration and/ or anticoagulants depending on the clinical a.histopathologic picture, which may show


The diagnosis of Congenital esophageal stenosis (CES) is confirmed by a. histopathologic picture b. narrowing of the esophagus in barium swallow

c. narrowing of the esophagus in esophagoscopy d. Manometric studies Studies frequently employed in the initial evaluation of a child with a history of febrile UTIs include all except: (a) Intravenous pyelography (b)Renal and bladder ultrasound (c) Contrast voiding cystourethrogram in boys (d)Direct radionuclide cystography in girls (e)DMSA renal scintigraphy


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Opsomyoclonus in neuroblastoma carries a good prognosis. True / false All the following statements regarding Microgastria are true except one a) secondary to defective mesodermal development around the 4th to 5th weeks of intrauterine life

fibromuscular disease (FMD) or tracheobronchial remnants (TBR). Answer: (a) Intravenous pyelography has no role in the evaluation of the child with UTI. Other imaging protocols, including the standard combination of cystography and sonography, or the recent topdown approach that obtains early DMSA renal scans as the first-line evaluation tool, are more appropriate for evaluating. True c)Megaesophagus is a common association with microgastria and

b) presents with recurrent vomiting, respiratory infection and failure to thrive. c) Microesophagus is a common association d) can be managed with Hunt -Lawrence pouch

is thought to be secondary to reflux or to the esophagus taking over the stomachs reservoir capacity d.bronchial adenoma

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Choledochocele belongs to which type in Todani classification? Kartagener Syndromes is characterized by all the following except : a) dextrocardia b) male infertility c) situs inversus d) bronchial adenoma