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Aviation Law

Exam 1. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 70 questions. 1. The Convention concerning people who have had damage inflicted on them by a foreign airline was: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. the the the the Rome Convention Tokyo Convention Hague Convention Warsaw Convention

The minimum age for a CPL holder is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 21 18 17 16 years years years years

3.

The Transition Altitude can never be less than: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2,500 2,000 3,000 1,500 feet feet feet feet

4.

When required for an outbound aircraft what is the maximum number of copies of the general declaration document, the cargo manifest and the stores list ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 general declaration documents, 1 cargo manifest and 1 stores list 1 of each 2 of each 3 of each

5.

The minimum specification for a crew members' licence to be recognised by an ICAO Contracting State is set out in which Annex to the Chicago Convention ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 1 2 3 4

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

6.

Unless cleared for Special VFR operation a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when the cloud base and visibility are below: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1,000 1,500 2,000 1,000 feet feet feet feet and and and and 5 5 5 8 kilometres kilometres kilometres kilometres

7.

In order to positively identify an aircraft on radar ATC may instruct the pilot to turn through: (a) (b) (c) (d) 45 30 or more 20 10

8.

When should a transponder be ON ? (a) (b) (c) (d) when requested by ATC only in controlled airspace at the Captain's discretion at all times during flight

9.

The vertical distance of an aircraft when reported above the Transition Level is: (a) (b) (c) (d) elevation height altitude flight level

10.

The Minimum Descent Height (MDH) on a straight-in approach cannot be less than: (a) (b) (c) (d) 200 feet 400 feet 500 feet the relevant OCH

11.

A precision approach is a direct instrument approach which requires: (a) (b) (c) (d) azimuth and elevation information azimuth, elevation and height information a crew of at least two properly trained pilots azimuth, elevation and distance information and a flight director or autopilot certified to a height of 200 feet

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

12.

What information is contained in a position report ? (a) (b) (c) (d) aircraft identification, position, time, next position and ETA aircraft identification, position, time, next position and ETA, destination aircraft identification, position, time, destination aircraft identification, position, time, next position and ETA flight level or altitude, flight level or altitude, flight level or altitude, Mach Number, flight level,

13.

An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190M. The inbound hold track is 010M. The correct entry type would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) parallel or direct offset or direct parallel or offset reciprocal or direct

14.

When joining a hold the permitted track deviation between sectors is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 2.5 5 10

15.

The abbreviation DER means: (a) (b) (c) (d) distance end of route departure end of route distance end of runway departure end of runway

16.

An aircraft has been allocated a transponder code of 5230. If the aircraft subsequently suffers a radio failure in flight the correct transponder code to be set would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7600 0030 5200 7630 with with with with mode mode mode mode C C C C

17.

If an aircraft suffers a complete radio failure when on an IFR flight but in VMC the correct action would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) maintain the last assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions exist continue to fly VMC and land as soon as possible return to the aerodrome of departure continue to fly at the last assigned altitude and commence the approach on flight plan ETA

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

18.

Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end ? (a) (b) (c) (d) when an obstacle clearance of 50 metres has been achieved and can be maintained when established in the climb at the missed approach point when en-route to either the hold or departure

19.

The type of turn to be executed by an aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track if the tracks are not reciprocal is: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a base turn reverse procedure turn racetrack procedure turn

20.

When navigation aids can give frequent fixing of position and speed and the preceding aircraft has a TAS at least 40 kts greater than the following aircraft the minimum time separation between two aircraft at the same altitude is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 minutes 5 minutes 6 minutes 10 minutes

21.

When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation between them must be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 nm 2.5 nm 3 nm 5 nm

22.

When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation between them required for wake turbulence must be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 3 4 5 nm nm nm nm

23.

In order to establish a controlled aerodrome there must be: (a) (b) (c) (d) an aerodrome control zone an area of controlled airspace around the aerodrome an aerodrome control tower providing an aerodrome control service an aerodrome control tower providing a flight information service

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

24.

Passengers for a flight have been security screened but, because of a delay, they have mixed with unscreened passengers. What security check is required now ? (a) (b) (c) (d) the baggage belonging to the passengers should be re-screened no further checks are required providing none of the passengers have left the airport the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage should be re-screened before boarding the aircraft the unscreened passengers and their cabin baggage should be checked

25.

The State of Design should ensure that a continuing integrity programme, including specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, to ensure the airworthiness of an aeroplane for: (a) (b) (c) (d) any any any any aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum take-off mass over 5,700 kg maximum landing mass with a maximum take-off mass of 5,700 kg or more with a maximum landing mass of 5,700 kg or more

26.

How should passenger entry documents embarkation/disembarkation cards) be completed ? (a) (b) (c) (d) type written by electronic data-processing techniques hand written in ink or lead pencil hand written in ink using block lettering type written

27.

When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control: (a) (b) (c) (d) when advised to do so by the Tower before entering cloud immediately after the aircraft is airborne when established on the first heading and clear of the aerodrome

28.

Section 2 of a routine AIREP contains: (a) (b) (c) (d) present position and estimated time of arrival (ETA) ETA at the next FIR boundary and endurance estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance ETA and endurance

29.

An aircraft entering a holding pattern at FL140 using the offset procedure should fly outbound from overhead the beacon for how long before commencing the procedure turn ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 1 2 2 minute minute 30 seconds minutes minutes 30 seconds
Exam 1

Bristol Groundschool

30.

What is the normal climb gradient for a missed approach ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0.8% 2.5% 3.3% 5.0%

31.

Which Annex to the ICAO agreement gives details of aerodrome design? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 10 16 12 14

32.

The alert phase is defined as: (a) (b) (c) (d) a situation where an aircraft reports that all fuel on board has been used a situation where the aircraft and its occupants are assumed to be threatened by danger a situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants a situation where it must be assumed the occupants of an aircraft are in distress

33.

Unless in designated airspace what is the minimum vertical separation for IFR flight below FL 290 ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 500 feet 1,000 feet 1,500 feet 2,000 feet

34.

The purpose of an accident investigation is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) prevent accidents occurring prevent accidents occurring and assist any judicial inquiry apportion blame prevent accidents occurring and assist the aircraft manufacturer

35.

What braking action can be expected for a measured coefficient of 0.25 ? (a) (b) (c) (d) poor poor to medium medium good

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

36.

The common mark for an aircraft is allocated by: (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the state of registration ITU ICAO aircraft owner

37.

The normal holding speed for a jet aircraft at FL110 is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 240 230 170 280 kts kts kts kts

38.

The following aircraft arrive at the scene of an accident which requires Search and Rescue (SAR) service in the order given: First: Second: Third: an aircraft which cannot contact the Rescue Coordination Centre an aircraft which can contact the Rescue Co-ordination Centre a SAR helicopter

The aircraft in charge of the operation at the scene would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 39. aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft three one one one one then aircraft three throughout the operation then aircraft two by mutual consent then aircraft two by mutual consent then aircraft

An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in IMC and suffers a total communications failure. The correct procedure is: (a) (b) (c) (d) try to make contact with another aircraft or ground station ask another aircraft to relay information continue the flight at the planned levels and according to the planned ETAs land immediately at the nearest suitable aerodrome

40.

If an aircraft is in distress the appropriate mode A code to be set is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7500 7600 7700 7000

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

41.

An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in airspace where VFR flight is permitted. If the aircraft commander wishes to continue the flight under VFR and can maintain VMC which is the correct combination of the statements shown below ? 1. 2. 3. 4. (a) (b) (c) (d) the pilot must the pilot must the pilot must flight plan the flight plan 1 2 1 2 & & & & 4 3 3 4 inform ATC "cancel IFR' request and obtain a new clearance request a change of IFR flight plan to a VFR becomes a VFR flight plan automatically

42.

The pilot of an aircraft which is on the correct approach glide path would see x red lights of the PAPIs. x is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 2 3 none

43.

The centre line and barette lights of a category one precision approach lighting system have to be: (a) (b) (c) (d) flashing green and adjustable flashing white and adjustable fixed green and adjustable fixed white and adjustable

44.

Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are: (a) (b) (c) (d) fixed red flashing red fixed orange flashing yellow

45.

If a passenger is refused entry into a country other than their own he will be brought back to the operator for transport away from that country and: (a) (b) (c) (d) the operator is then responsible for transporting the passenger the country refusing admission is responsible for transporting the passenger the state of the operator is responsible for transporting the passenger the operator is responsible for offering transport to the passenger but may charge the appropriate fare

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

46.

Assuming all aircraft report their distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint the minimum separation based on RNAV distances may be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 80 60 50 20 nm nm nm nm

47.

The minimum separation for wake turbulence purposes between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft departing from the same runway is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 2 3 4 minute minutes minutes minutes

48.

What is the appropriate quadrantal level for an aircraft flying on a track of 358T, with variation 3E and drift 2S ? (a) (b) (c) (d) FL110 FL140 FL165 FL135

49.

What distance after completion of the turn in a turning departure is track guidance acquired in a turning departure ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 kms 10 kms 15 kms 20 kms

50.

What is the speed limit in class E airspace ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 250 250 250 250 kts kts kts kts IAS IAS IAS IAS for for for for IFR IFR IFR IFR and VFR below FL100 only below FL150 only at all levels only below FL100

51.

Independent parallel approaches can be made on parallel runways when the missed approach track of one runway diverges from the missed approach track of the other by at least: (a) (b) (c) (d) 20 25 30 45

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

52.

Airspace in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights receive a control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights, and VFR flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights would be classified as: (a) (b) (c) (d) Class Class Class Class B A E D

53.

The accuracy required by Mode C before it can be used by the ATC controller is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 200 250 300 500 feet feet feet feet

54.

The maximum period for which a licence issued by another Contracting State may be rendered valid under JAR is: (a) (b) (c) (d) one year for CPL/ATPL permanently as a PPL until the expiry date on the licence at the discretion of the Contracting State accepting the licence

55.

What letter on a flight plan indicates the change from IFR to VFR ? (a) (b) (c) (d) I V Y Z

56.

When does a medical certificate become valid ? (a) (b) (c) (d) after a medical assessment has been carried out it is permanently valid from the date of a change to any rating from the date of the initial general medical examination

57.

If a transponder failure is detected before departure from an aerodrome the aircraft: (a) (b) (c) (d) cannot fly can fly for up to 24 hours by which time the transponder must be repaired can fly to an aerodrome where the transponder can be repaired can only fly VMC/VFR

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

58.

The section of the Aeronautical Information Document (AIP) which contains information about SIGMETs is: (a) (b) (c) (d) GEN MET ENR AD

59.

Temporary changes of long duration or changes of short duration which require extensive text and/or graphical representation are published as AIP supplements. Long duration is considered to be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 3 6 1 months or longer months or longer months or longer year or longer

60.

What colour code is issued when an ASHTAM indicates that the volcanic ash cloud is detected above FL250 ? (a) (b) (c) (d) green orange yellow red

61.

Which Annex to the ICAO Convention gives information concerning the entry and departure of goods in transit ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 8 9 10 14

62.

The minimum notification required for a non-scheduled flight from one Contracting State to another is: (a) (b) (c) (d) receipt arrival receipt arrival receipt arrival receipt arrival of flight information at least one hour in advance of of flight information at least two hours in advance of of flight information at least four hours in advance of of flight information at least twelve hours in advance of

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

63.

A control zone must extend at least: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the direction from which approaches are made 10 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the direction from which approaches are made 15 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the direction from which approaches are made 20 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the direction from which approaches are made

64.

A clearway is a specified area which is established to: (a) (b) (c) (d) protect an aircraft during take off and landing enable the aircraft to stop after an aborted take off enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specific altitude decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which take off

65.

Which of the following statements is correct ? (a) (b) (c) (d) runway runway runway runway markings are white and taxiway markings are yellow and taxiway markings are white and taxiway markings are yellow markings are yellow and taxiway markings are white

66

Runway approach lights must include: (a) (b) (c) (d) flashing lights a group of at least three white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway green lights a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway

67.

The ground sign X seen in a search and rescue area indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d) engineering or technical assistance required landing not possible medical assistance required all personnel have been found

68.

If an aircraft is thought to have encountered difficulty the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of: (a) (b) (c) (d) air traffic control centres only search and rescue co-ordination centres air traffic control co-ordination centre air traffic control and flight information centres

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

69.

On an instrument approach runway which is more than 2,400 metres long there will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) an aiming point marking and centreline markings only touchdown zone markings and centreline markings only aiming point markings and touchdown zone markings an aiming point marking 150 metres from the runway threshold

70.

A flashing white light signal from ATC to an aircraft in flight indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d) clear to land land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron give way to other aircraft and continue circling aerodrome unsafe; do not land

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

Aviation Law
Exam 1, Answers A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32

D
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64

D
65 66 67 68 69 70

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1

Answers 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (d) 11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (b) 31 (d) 32 (c) 33 (b) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (c) 41 (a) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (a) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (a) 51 (c) 52 (d) 53 (c) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (b) 60 (d) 61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (a) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (b)

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 1