Aviation Law

Exam 2. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 70 questions. 1. Transition altitude can never be less than: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 1500 2000 2500 3000 feet feet feet feet

What is the holding speed for a jet aircraft at FL 110? (a) (b) (c) (d) 240 280 265 230 kts kts kts kts

3.

The following three aircraft arrive at the scene of an accident which requires SAR involvement: 1. 2. 3. Aircraft 1, an aircraft that cannot contact the RCC Aircraft 2, an aircraft that can contact the RCC Aircraft 3, a SAR helicopter

If the aircraft arrive in the order 1; 2; 3, who takes charge of the SAR operation? (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Aircraft 1 then aircraft 3 Aircraft 1 to the end of the operation Aircraft 1 then aircraft 2 by mutual consent Aircraft 1 then aircraft 2 by mutual consent then aircraft 3 to the end of the operation

Which Convention covers hijacking? (a) (b) (c) (d) Madrid Rome Tokyo Warsaw

5.

With regard to a general declaration document, a cargo manifest and a stores list, what is the normal number of each document required for an outbound aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 of each 2 of each 3 of each 2 general declaration documents, 1 cargo manifest and 1 stores list

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 2

6.

When does a medical certificate become valid? (a) (b) (c) (d) It is permanently valid After a medical assessment has been carried out From the date the medical assessment is issued When there is a change to any rating

7.

What action is required if transponder failure is detected before departure from an aerodrome? (a) (b) (c) (d) The aircraft cannot fly The aircraft can fly for 24 hours and then the transponder must be repaired The flight plan is amended and ATC will issue a clearance for the aircraft to proceed directly to an aerodrome where repairs can be made The aircraft can continue to fly VMC

8.

If ATC want to identify an aircraft, they can instruct the pilot to: (a) (b) (c) (d) turn turn turn turn the the the the transponder transponder transponder transponder to STANDBY to ON to OFF from ON to STANDBY and back to ON

9.

To identify an aircraft on radar, ATC might instruct the pilot to change heading by: (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 20 30 or more 45

10.

What is the purpose of accident investigation? (a) (b) (c) (d) To To To To prevent accidents occurring prevent accidents occurring and to assist a judicial inquiry apportion blame prevent accidents and assist the aircraft manufacturer

11.

Who allocates the common mark for aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) The State of Registration the ITU the ICAO or the ITU the ICAO

12.

When should a transponder be on? (a) (b) (c) (d) At all times during flight When requested by ATC Only in controlled airspace At the discretion of the captain

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Exam 2

13.

What letter on a flight plan indicates a change from IFR to VFR? (a) (b) (c) (d) I V Y Z

14.

What is meant by the term total EET for a VFR flight? (a) (b) (c) (d) The time en-route taking into account pressure altitude and temperature Time from take-off to overhead the airfield Time from take-off to landing Time from off blocks to on blocks

15.

What braking action can be expected for a 0.25 measured coefficient? (a) (b) (c) (d) Poor Poor/Medium Medium Medium/Good

16.

What is the minimum vertical separation for an IFR flight below FL 290? (a) (b) (c) (d) 500 feet 1000 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet

17.

What is the Calvert type runway approach lighting system? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 crossbars lighting 3 crossbars lighting 4 crossbars lighting 5 crossbars lighting with 1, 2 and 3 lighting units providing centreline with 1 and 2 lighting units providing centreline with 2 and 3 lighting units providing centreline with 1, 2 and 3 lighting units providing centreline

18.

How are instrument approach runways categorised? (a) (b) (c) (d) Non precision approach runway, precision approach runway category I, II, III Instrument approach runway, precision approach runway category I, II, III Precision approach runway category I, II, III Visual approach runway category I

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Exam 2

19.

If an aircraft is subject to unlawful interference, the State in which the occurrence took place should look after the passengers: (a) (b) (c) (d) until they can continue with their journey during the investigation if the passengers request it and return them to their country of origin

20.

What information is contained in a position report? (a) (b) (c) (d) Aircraft identification, position, destination Aircraft identification, position, position and ETA Aircraft identification, position, altitude, next position and ETA Aircraft identification, position, position and ETA, destination time, flight level or altitude, time, fight level or altitude, next time, Mach No., flight level or time, flight level or altitude, next

21.

What should you do if, when flying under IFR, you experience total communication failure in conditions of no cloud and unlimited visibility? (a) (b) (c) (d) Proceed to destination under VFR Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATS Continue under IFR and follow your filed flight plan

22.

You are inbound to the hold tracking 232M. The inbound hold track is 052M. What type of entry will you make to the hold? (a) (b) (c) (d) Direct or Parallel Parallel or Offset Offset or Direct Reciprocal or Direct

23.

What is the deviation allowed either side of track between sectors when joining a hold? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 2.5 10 2

24.

Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? (a) (b) (c) (d) When a height of 50 metres has been achieved and maintained When established in the climb At the missed approach point When en-route either to the hold or departure

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Exam 2

25.

When flying at night and you see a light signal for distress. What should the aircraft commander do? (a) (b) (c) (d) Keep the distressed craft in sight by circling overhead Overfly as low as possible and rock your wings as you pass overhead Flash landing or navigation lights twice at irregular intervals Reply with the letter R in morse code

26.

You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the ground. What does this signify? (a) (b) (c) (d) Medical assistance required Mechanical assistance required All have survived All are uninjured

27.

What term best describes the turn executed by an aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track? (The tracks are not reciprocal.) (a) (b) (c) (d) A A A A procedure turn reverse procedure turn racetrack base turn

28.

You are flying IFR in IMC and you experience total communications failure. Do you: (a) (b) (c) (d) try to contact another aircraft for relay? try to make contact on another frequency with either a ground station or another aircraft? land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS? continue the flight according to the flight plan ETAs?

29.

On an instrument approach, when may the pilot in command descend below MSA? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d) When the terrain below the aircraft and the destination airfield is in sight and is likely to remain so When under radar control When visual with the underlying terrain but not the airfield When commencing a published approach procedure all of the above (i) and (iv) (i), (ii) and (iv) (ii) and (iii)

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Exam 2

30.

Concerning aerodrome identification codes, combinations can not be used if they can be mistaken with: (a) (b) (c) (d) codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents letter combinations beginning with Q 3 letter combinations that are used as international morse code 5 letter combinations that are used as international morse code

31.

Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): (a) (b) (c) (d) facilitates ATC service but is not an official organisation only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight or on the ground has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither continuous or regular can only give limited service to its users, but cannot give ATC services in any case.

32.

When an ASHTAM is issued, what colour code is used to indicate the level of alert for volcanic activity if the volcanic ash cloud is detected above FL250? (a) (b) (c) (d) Green Yellow Orange Red

33.

What is required to establish a controlled aerodrome? (a) (b) (c) (d) An aerodrome control tower providing an aerodrome control service The aerodrome must be situated within a Control Zone The aerodrome must be situated within controlled airspace An aerodrome control tower providing a flight information service

34.

Which Annex gives information concerning the entry and departure of goods in transit? (a) (b) (c) (d) 8 9 15 16

35.

What is the correct quadrantal level for a track of 358 T with variation 3E and deviation 2W? (a) (b) (c) (d) FL165 FL140 FL110 FL135

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Exam 2

36.

How much notification is required for a non-scheduled flight flying from one Contracting State to another? (a) (b) (c) (d) Receipt Receipt Receipt Receipt of of of of flight flight flight flight information information information information at at at at least least least least 1 hour in advance of arrival 2 hours in advance of arrival 4 hours in advance of arrival 12 hours before ETA

37.

At an aerodrome passengers have been security screened for their departure. Because of a delay screened passengers mix with unscreened passengers. What security check is now required? (a) (b) (c) (d) Nothing The baggage belonging to the passengers concerned shall be rescreened The passengers concerned and their cabin luggage shall be rescreened before boarding the aircraft The unscreened passengers shall be checked

38.

What registration mark should not be used in case it can be mistaken for a distress code, Q codes or a survival signal? (a) (b) (c) (d) TTT FFF LLL RCC

39.

When should the State of Design ensure that a continuing structural integrity programme, to ensure the airworthiness of an aeroplane, exists? (The programme shall include specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control.) (a) (b) (c) (d) Any Any Any Any aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft over 5700 kg maximum take-off mass over 5700 kg maximum landing mass at or below 5700 kg maximum take-off mass at or below 5700 kg maximum landing mass

40.

What do you call the procedure when you descend in a holding pattern? (a) (b) (c) (d) Base turn Procedure turn Race track Shuttle

41.

What distance, from the end of the runway, is track guidance acquired for a turning departure? (a) (b) (c) (d) Within Within Within Within 5 km 10 km 15 km 20 km

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Exam 2

42.

Who decides whether a type rating is considered necessary for any type of aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The aircraft manufacturer Contracting State Licensing Authority State of Registration

43.

How should entry documents be completed? (a) (b) (c) (d) Type written Hand written in ink using block lettering Type written by electronic data-processing techniques Hand written in ink or lead pencil

44.

What is the accuracy required by the ATC controller before Mode C can be used? (a) (b) (c) (d) + + + + 200 250 300 500 feet feet feet feet

45.

When do you report to departure control when taking off in IMC? (a) (b) (c) (d) Immediately after the aircraft is airborne When advised by the tower Before entering cloud When clear of the aerodrome and established on your first heading

46.

What does it mean if your departure clearance expires at 0920hrs? (a) (b) (c) (d) Return to the ramp and re-file the flight plan for a departure after 0920hrs You cannot take off before 0920hrs You require a new clearance after 0920hrs You can take off any time between 0920hrs and 0930hrs

47.

You plan to enter the hold at FL 160 by the offset procedure. For how long do you fly outbound from overhead the beacon before commencing the turn inbound? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 1 2 2 min min 20 secs. mins mins. 30 secs.

48.

When must Mode C be switched on? (a) (b) (c) (d) At all times in controlled airspace Only when advised by ATC At the discretion of the pilot in command Continuously unless otherwise directed by ATC
Exam 2

Bristol Groundschool

49.

What is the maximum period of validity if another ICAO Contracting State renders your licence valid? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 year for ATPL/CPL The licence becomes valid as a PPL Valid to the expiry date on the licence The Contracting State decides

50.

Using DR navigation techniques, how is lateral separation provided between two aircraft on converging tracks? (a) (b) (c) (d) A track divergence of at least 45 and at a distance more from the point of intersection is required A track divergence of at least 30 and at a distance more from the point of intersection is required A track divergence of at least 15 and at a distance more from the point of intersection is required A track divergence of at least 45 and at a distance more from the point of intersection is required of 15 nms or of 15 nms or of 15 nms or of 10 nms or

51.

What is the normal minimum climb gradient for a missed approach? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0.8% 2.5% 3.3% 5%

52.

Which ICAO Annex gives details of aerodrome design? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 10 12 14 16

53.

What do you do when acting as Pilot in Command when you suspect that a person has committed or might commit a penal offence? (a) (b) (c) (d) Request assistance from other passengers Request help from other crew members Ask the person to disembark Hand the person over to the appropriate authorities

54.

What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach? (a) (b) (c) (d) One third of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach One half of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach The total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach Three quarters of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

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Exam 2

55.

A person on the ground was injured by an object falling from an aircraft in flight. Which convention allows them to sue the carrier? (a) (b) (c) (d) Rome Warsaw Hague Montreal

56.

What is the speed limit for VFR in class C airspace below FL100? (a) (b) (c) (d) Not applicable 250 TAS 270 IAS 250 IAS

57.

In the circuit you have radio failure, do you: (a) (b) (c) (d) Flash Flash Flash Flash the the the the landing lights off/on repeatedly landing lights off/on 3 times nav lights off/on 3 times landing lights off/on 4 times

58.

How many hours or days would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would have to inform the authorities ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 24 20 12 12 hours days hours days

59.

Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern? (a) (b) (c) (d) Left Right Depends on w/v Depends on entry made

60.

When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC? (a) (b) (c) (d) Transition altitude Transition level 3000ft above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher Within the transition layer

61.

When may the pilot operate the ident switch on the transponder? (a) (b) (c) (d) In controlled airspace When requested by ATC In uncontrolled airspace When under radar control

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 2

62.

What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit? (a) (b) (c) (d) Control area Air Traffic Zone Control Zone TMA

63.

What class of airspace can you get advisory service for IFR traffic and FIS for VFR traffic: (a) (b) (c) (d) C D G F

64.

The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 300m 150m 200m 500m

65.

AIRAC is: (a) (b) (c) (d) A breakdown service Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP A medical evacuation flight An army Air Corps publication

66.

What does the Aerodrome Reference Code use to determine the particular code number: (a) (b) (c) (d) aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft fuselage length only wing span only reference field length and main gear wheel span fuselage length and wing span

67.

What type of lights are runway end light (a) (b) (c) (d) Red omni-directional Red uni-directional Green omni-directional Blue uni-directional

68.

The abbreviation OIS stands for (a) (b) (c) (d) Obstacle Obstacle Obstacle Obstacle interference slope identification surface inner surface identification slop

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Exam 2

69.

What type of lights are high intensity obstacle lights? (a) (b) (c) (d) Flashing red Flashing white Steady white Steady red

70.

A friction coefficient of 0.25 or less indicates that the braking action will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) good medium/good medium/poor poor

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Exam 2

Aviation Law
Exam 2, Answers A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 B C D 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 A B C D 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 A B C D

Bristol Groundschool

Exam 2

Answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. D D D C B C C D C A B A C B A B D A A B C B A B A A D 28. 29 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. D C C B D A B A B C A A D B C D C A C B D C A B C D C 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. A D A C B B B C D C B C B B B D

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Exam 2