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Feedback From Mar 2002 Module 1 Instruments

1. If you have a Radio altimeter system failure on approach to an airfield, what happens when it fails? (a) (b) (c) (d) height indication disappears *(on many types) flashing red light gives an audio tone * (on the Airbus) gives a tone and a red flashing light

(Challenged with the CAA) 2. If the static source becomes blocked but the ram air source remains open how will the ASI react? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. it it it it will will will will behave like an altimeter behave in the opposite sense to an altimeter * continuously over read continuously under read

With reference to fly by wire control system which of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) a computer surface a computer actuator * a computer surface a computer actuator inputs deviation data which outputs to the control inputs deviation data which outputs to the servo outputs deviation data which inputs to the control outputs deviation data which inputs to the servo

4.

What are the advantages of an electric float type fuel gauging system? (a) (b) (c) (d) cheap construction* it compensates for manoeuvres it compensates for temperature changes it compensates for volume changes

5.

An aircraft turns left on the taxyway. What are the turn and slip indications? (a) (b) (c) (d) needle needle needle needle left, ball left left, ball right* right, ball left right, ball right

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

6.

At 120kts what angle of bank would you use for a rate one turn? (a) (b) (c) (d) 12 18* 25 30

7.

How is torque normally measured? (a) (b) (c) (d) using oil pressure in a cyclicoidal(?) shaft in an engine gearbox* using pulse transmitters on the driveshaft using light beam diffraction patterns on the driveshaft ?

(This is being challenged with the CAA) 8. What height is measured by the radio altimeter? (a) (b) (c) (d) The height of the lowest wheel above the ground* The height of the aircraft belly above the ground The height of the aerial above the ground ?

4 other radalt questions including the width of the cone of transmission & does it sense altitude or height. 9. What does a modern pitot sensor measure? (3 points) (a) (b) (c) (d) 10. Pitot pressure Total and static pressure* Total pressure Static pressure

An angle of attack sensor senses: (a) (b) (c) (d) electrical output of vane deflection* INS flight path difference compared to aircraft flight path ? ?

11.

A GPWS is required to be fitted to aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15,000kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30 after the first of January 1999. This applies to which aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) turbine* piston propeller ?

(Challenged with the CAA)

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March 2002 Module 1

12.

What speeds are represented by the two ends of the white arc on an ASI? (a) (b) (c) (d) VFE & VS0 * VFE & VS1 VLE & VS0 VLE & VS1

13.

Is VM0 a (a) (b) (c) (d) TAS EAS CAS* IAS*

(Being challenged with the CAA) 14. Which of the following describes a Machmeter method of operation? (a) (b) (c) (d) 15. (P (P (P (P + S) S - S) S S) S* + S) S

An overspeed warning system that reacts to VMO and MMO contains a barometric aneroid capsule: (a) (b) (c) (d) which is subjected externally to dynamic pressure and an airspeed capsule which is subject to a static pressure and an airspeed capsule subjected internally to static pressure and an airspeed capsule subjected externally to dynamic pressure which is subjected externally to static pressure and an airspeed capsule which is subject to a static pressure*

16.

What will happen on a direct reading magnetic compass as you decelerate on a Westerly heading in the Southern hemisphere? (a) (b) (c) (d) It will indicate a turn to the South It will indicate a turn to the North * Heading indication will remain the same ?

17.

Where do you find 15.04 of drift? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0N 20N 45N 90N *

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March 2002 Module 1

18.

The flight director gives you an (a) (b) (c) (d) instantaneous intercept track for a VOR optimum intercept for a VOR * ? ?

19.

How many degrees of freedom does a Rate of Turn Indicator have? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0 1* 2 3

(one degree, two planes) 20. What does a Bourdon tube measure? (a) (b) (c) (d) 21. Pressure * Temperature ? ?

If you have a leak in the manifold pressure system what will be indicated on the manifold air pressure gauge? (a) (b) (c) (d) ambient pressure * lower than ambient pressure higher than ambient pressure ?

22.

If you turn through 90 onto North from West in the Northern hemisphere at what indicated heading would you roll out? (a) (b) (c) (d) 330 * 350 010 030

23.

A vibration meter senses what? (a) (b) (c) (d) frequency amplitude ? ?

(challenged, it senses amplitude & frequency and displays relative amplitude) 24. How is a go-around actioned? (a) (b) (c) (d) automatically manually on the overhead panel on the throttles by the pilot * ?
March 2002 Module 1

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25.

When does the Mach trim system operate? (a) (b) (c) (d) above a pre-determined mach number * when the autopilot is engaged as the centre of pressure moves forward on the wings at a set indicated airspeed

26.

What is the yaw damper indicator showing? (a) (b) (c) (d) rudder action pedal deflection yaw damper action * ?

27.

How does TCAS indicate non-threatening other traffic? (a) (b) (c) (d) Solid white or blue diamond Hollow white or blue diamond * Red square Yellow circle

28.

At FL330 with an air temperature of 40 what is the speed of sound? (a) (b) (c) (d) 594 601 574 582 kts * kts kts kts

29.

In a closed loop feedback system what mechanism provides a large output for a small input? (a) (b) (c) (d) a servo mechanism * ? ? ?

30.

If an autopilot is engaged with no control functions selected it will provide: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (a) (b) (c) (d) ? ? ? ? pitch control * wing levelling * IAS/Mach hold VOR radial hold Altitude hold aircraft stabilisation *

(challenged)

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March 2002 Module 1

31.

In an automatic landing what is disconnected at about 50ft? (a) (b) (c) (d) the localiser the glideslope * the localiser and glideslope ?

32.

During a full autoland with autopilot and autothrottle engaged when does it (the autopilot?) cease to control the aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) At the end of the landing roll * as the aircraft flares at Decision Height at 200ft

33.

During passage through the VOR cone of confusion what does the autopilot do? (a) (b) (c) (d) switch to heading mode hold present heading * ? ?

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

Flight Planning
61 questions, 78 points No altimetry questions, 5 questions on chart ED6 2 questions on climbs with still air distance and headwind given to find ground distance No relative velocity questions 8 10 questions on ICAO flight plan 3 CAT questions on different maps of Europe asking what severity. All approach plate questions gave page numbers for reference 1. An aircraft is travelling from N80 E170 to N75 E011 with a heading of 177 Grid. What is the final grid heading? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 177 * 357 ? ?

Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question. An aircraft is positioned at N4758 E01015 (MEMMINGHAM). What is the correct FIS frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 129.6 MHz 126.95 MHz * 135.6 MHz 117.2 MHz

3.

Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question. What is the STUTTGART (N4841 E009 13) ATIS frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 115.45 119.05 126.12 128.95 MHz MHz MHz * MHz

4.

Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question. What is the operating frequency for TANGO VORTAC (N4837 E00916)? (a) (b) (c) (d) 384 KHz 115.45 MHz 112.5 MHz 113.8 MHz

5.

Use EHI4(CAA map) to answer this question. What is the navigation aid Chioggia (N4504 E01217)? (a) (b) (c) (d) A VOR A VOR/DME & NDB * An NDB A VOR/DME
March 2002 Module 1

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6.

After landing at an alternate on a VFR flight plan ATCC must be contacted within: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 minutes 10 minutes 30 minutes 60 minutes

7.

Use the NAP chart to answer this question. What is the distance from Shannon to Gander? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1715 1820 3430 2420 nm * nm nm nm

8.

Where would you get health & customs information from? (a) (b) (c) (d) AIP* ATCC Notams Rad and Nav charts

9.

Where would you find the hours for temporary Danger Areas? (a) (b) (c) (d) NOTAMS & AIP * AIP Rad and Nav charts SIGMETS

10.

The term FEW used in a METAR indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 4 oktas 1 2 oktas * NOSIG ?

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

General Navigation
60 questions, 90 points 1. The ratio of the ellipticity is 1/297. With this information the semimajor axis is 6956km at the equator, what is the semi-minor axis (poles) (a) (b) (c) (d) 6979 6932 6902 6872 km km* km km

(challenged, terms not in the LOs) 2. When is the maximum difference between the apparent solar day and the mean solar day? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. December & June March & September February and November ?

When is the sun at its aphelion? (a) (b) (c) (d) Start of January Start of July ? ?

4.

What causes magnetic field variations? (a) (b) (c) (d) increasing field strength decreasing field strength annual movement of the poles* ?

(challenged) 5. What are isogrivs? (a) (b) (c) (d) 6. lines of equal magnetic dip lines of equal grivation* lines of equal variation ?

What is the magnetic dip at the South (magnetic?) Pole? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0 90* 180 360

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March 2002 Module 1

7.

Which statement is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) The Magnetic Blue Pole is in Northern Canada* The inclination depends on whether the magnetic equator is North or South of the real Equator ? ?

6 plotting questions over North And South Ireland using double DME arcs, radials, radials and DME. 3 questions using applications of the 1:60 rule 8. If you have an error of 1 from a VOR 200nm away how far off track might you be? (a) (b) (c) (d) 9. 1 nm 2 nm 3.5 nm* 6 nm

What does INS need for wind calculations? (a) (b) (c) (d) TAS* EAS Mach Number ?

10.

What can be used to enter positions on all INS systems? (a) (b) (c) (d) Waypoint names geographical co-ordinates* hexidecimals ranges and bearings

11.

What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers that is fixed to the aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) Laser Strapdown* Fixed ?

12.

What are the first three screens on an FMS that require data input? (a) (b) (c) (d) POS, RTE, DEP IDENT, POS, RTE IDENT, POS, INIT REF POS INIT, RTE, PERF INIT*

(challenged) The feedback did not include answer (d) which is correct. The sense of the question changes if the phrase that require data input is omitted, then it would be IDENT, POS INIT, RTE.

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March 2002 Module 1

13.

What is the symbol for an FIR boundary? (a) (b) (c) (d)

14.

With a 60 difference in runway and wind direction, if the minimum headwind is 10kt and the maximum crosswind is 35kt what are the minimum and maximum wind speeds? (a) (b) (c) (d) ? ? ? ?

15.

If you are standing at the South Pole which direction will you be facing? (a) (b) (c) (d) North * South East West

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

Meteorolgy
92 Questions, 110 points 1. There is a cold pool over land during the summer. What weather would you get associated with this? (a) (b) (c) (d) thunderstorms fair weather Cu CAVOK snow showers

(Challenged. A high or low level cold pool, stationary or slow moving?) 2. You are flying FL180 at a constant true altitude in the northern hemisphere. With a geostrophic wind you would have: (a) (b) (c) (d) a crosswind left to right a crosswind right to left no crosswind not enough information to answer the question

(true altitude was definitely used in the question) 3. Two charts were given covering the same period, one was temperature and wind at FL390, one was a sig wx chart from FL100 to FL450. The question asked the temperature over London at FL330. The wind and temperature chart showed 45 at FL390, the sig wx showed the tropopause at FL300. choices were: (a) (b) (c) (d) -33C -57C -66C ?

(If the trop is at FL300 the temperature should be constant above it. If it is 45 at FL390 it should also be 45 at FL330. This was not included in the feedback as an answer but it might have been in the exam question) 4. What type of cloud would the precipitation type GR be found in? (a) (b) (c) (d) Cu Cb Ci St

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March 2002 Module 1

5.

What is the most dangerous/hazardous cloud on a low level crosscountry trip? (a) (b) (c) (d) St Cb Altocumulus ?

6.

What is the most common cloud associated with tornadoes? (a) (b) (c) (d) St Cb ? ?

7.

What winds would you find between 10N and 20N over the mid Atlantic? (a) (b) (c) (d) NE SE SW NW

8.

How are low level clouds formed immediately ahead of a warm front? (a) (b) (c) (d) Rain falling through warm air and evaporating Rain falling through cold air and evaporating Reduced radiation because of upper cloud cover ?

9.

What cloud would you find in a squall line? (a) (b) (c) (d) Cb Cu ? ?

10.

What unit is windshear measured in? (a) (b) (c) (d) m/sec kt kt/100ft ?

11.

What is the height/width ratio of a jetstream? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1:1 1:10 1:100 1:1000

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March 2002 Module 1

12.

When is Darwin affected by tropical revolving storms? (a) (b) (c) (d) July October November December April ?

13.

What is the validity of a TAF? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 hours 9 hours It is stated on the TAF 12 hours

14.

Three aircraft report CAT on a flight to the ATCC. What is then sent out by the Met Office? (a) (b) (c) (d) SIGMET SPECI METAR NOTAM

15.

As a depression passes to the south of you in the Northern hemisphere what will the wind do? (a) (b) (c) (d) back constantly veer constantly back then veer veer then back

16.

Flying North to South above a jetstream in the southern hemisphere what happens to the outside air temperature? (a) (b) (c) (d) It It It It increases decreases stays the same increases then decreases

17.

As a hurricane approaches the Caribbean it changes direction. Which way will it go? (a) (b) (c) (d) It It It It heads heads heads heads East West deep into the USA West then South East West then North East

18.

Where would you find the worst aviation hazards in a tropical revolving storm? (a) (b) (c) (d) 600km away from the eye in the centre of the eye in the walls of the eye just around the eye?

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March 2002 Module 1

19.

The Bora is a cold airflow. Which sea does it blow onto? (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The Mediterranean Atlantic Adriatic Agean

20.

Where would you find the Chinook? (a) (b) (c) (d) The Rockies ? ? ?

21.

Where would you find the least precipitation with a Fohn wind over the Alps? (a) (b) (c) (d) South of the Alps with a Northerly wind South of the Alps with a Southerly wind ? ?

22.

Which is the worst aviation hazard? (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Challenged, if (c) is a mountain wave symbol it should not be cross hatched) 23. What is the most significant factor associated with an Equatorial Jet? (a) (b) (c) (d) Its Its Its Its direction strength width height

(Challenged, could be (a) or (d)) 24. What weather would you find over the Equator all year round? (a) (b) (c) (d) 25. Continuous showers Isolated thunderstorms and associated hazards ? ?

What is the effective way of making cloud disappear? (a) (b) (c) (d) Increase the temperature Decrease the pressure Convection Subsidence

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March 2002 Module 1

26.

You are flying over the sea at FL100 where the true altitude is 10,000ft and the QNH is 993HPa. Which of the following statements is true? (a) (b) (c) (d) The air mass below you is colder than ISA The air mass below you is warmer than ISA ? ?

27.

The ICAO definition of light icing is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Conditions in which change of heading and/or altitude may be considered desirable Conditions in which change of heading and/or altitude is considered essential Conditions less severe than those in which change of heading and/or altitude may be considered desirable Conditions more severe than those in which change of heading and/or altitude may be considered desirable

Options made up but (a) is moderate icing, (b) is severe icing and (c) is correct. (Appendix 1 to ICAO PANS-RAC) 28. What precipitation is associated with freezing fog? (a) (b) (c) (d) 29. Supercooled fog cold mist ? ?

What conditions are required to create hoar frost? (a) (b) (c) (d) small supercooled water droplets large supercooled water droplets water vapour climbing after take-off through an inversion

30.

What visibility would you find in an inversion? (a) (b) (c) (d) poor visibility because warm, moist air absorbs radiation medium to poor visibility because of little vertical movement good visibility in showers ?

31.

When would you expect thunderstorms over central Europe in the summer? (a) (b) (c) (d) Morning Sunrise Mid-afternoon ?

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March 2002 Module 1

32.

Which thunderstorm moves the fastest? (a) (b) (c) (d) Thermal Frontal Circulating ?

33.

Bombay in January is affected by the: (a) (b) (c) (d) North West Monsoon South West Monsoon South East Monsoon North East Monsoon

34.

What is the ratio of a warm front? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1:300 1:3000 1:50 1:150

35.

How wide are microbursts and how long to they typically last for? (a) (b) (c) (d) 8km 4km 4km 12km 5 15 minutes 2 5 minutes 5 10 minutes 10 15 minutes

36.

When wind conditions are compared above and below the inversion layer there is: (a) (b) (c) (d) a change of direction only a change of direction and strength a change of strength only not enough information to be specific about changes

37.

A METAR contains the following details: ....R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N.....NO SIG.... What are the weather conditions? (a) (b) (c) (d) visibility is improving poor visibility due to water droplets ? ?

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

38.

An air mass with a surface temperature of +15C and dew point +12C passes over water with a surface temperature of +5C. What type of fog would be created? (a) (b) (c) (d) Advection fog Radiation fog Sea fog ?

39.

When is RVR used to describe visibility? (a) (b) (c) (d) below below below below 500m 1500m 2000m 3000m

40.

The polar front occurs between which air masses? (a) (b) (c) (d) Arctic and Polar Polar and Tropical Arctic and Tropical ?

41.

Given the diagram below and with no other information when travelling from A to B which of the following statements is true?

Melbourne

(a) (b) (c) (d) 42.

The The The The

wind is stronger at B than A wind strength is the same at both B and A true altitude is higher at A true altitude is higher at B

At what latitude in the Northern hemisphere are predominantly westerly winds found? (a) (b) (c) (d) 80N 50N 30N 10N

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March 2002 Module 1

43.

In a warm occlusion which of the following occurs? (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The cold air undercuts the warm air warm air overrides the cold air cold air overrides the warm air warm air undercuts the cold air

44.

What is the maximum height of fog? (a) (b) (c) (d) 150ft 1,500ft 5,000ft 10,000ft

45.

What cloud type could you find at different levels in the atmosphere? (a) (b) (c) (d) Cumulus Stratus Nimbostratus Altostratus

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

Communications
28 questions each 1. When carrying out a missed approach procedure what is your radio call? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. going around* missed approach overshooting ?

What does the word CHECK mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) examine a system or procedure* pass the following information ? ?

3.

What does NEGATIVE mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) No; or Permission not Granted; or That is not Correct* ? ? ?

4.

What is the correct term for YES? (a) (b) (c) (d) YES AFFIRM* AFFIRMATIVE YEP

5.

What is the call sign suffix for an aerodrome approach control radar departure? (a) (b) (c) (d) RADAR CONTROL APPROACH DEPARTURE*

6.

Which is the correct abbreviation of XY-ABC? (a) (b) (c) (d) XY-BC* X-BC X-ABC XY-C

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March 2002 Module 1

7.

What should you do when asked Fastair 342 standby 118.9 for tower? (a) (b) (c) (d) Change frequencies Wait and do nothing Monitor Tower frequency* ?

8.

When aborting the take-off what call should be made? (a) (b) (c) (d) aborting stopping* cancelling ?

9.

Readability 2 means (a) (b) (c) (d) Readable now and then * Readable but with difficulty Readable Perfectly readable

10.

If the controller asks for flight conditions during a route what is passed? (a) (b) (c) (d) Whether VFR or IFR Whether VMC or IMC * A description of the cloud and weather in sight of the aircraft ?

11.

What is QNH? (a) (b) (c) (d) The altimeter subscale setting that gives a reading of zero on the ground The altimeter subscale setting that gives a reading of airfield elevation on the ground * ? ?

Bristol Groundschool

March 2002 Module 1

Human Factors
1. Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged. Which of the following is true? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. It is a family history condition It is age related It can be easily recognised at a medical and is easily remedied ?

In relation to otic barotrauma which of the following is true? (a) (b) (c) (d) It occurs when increasing altitude It is preceded by/causes pain in the ear ? ?

3.

How many breath cycles does the average human take per minute? (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 per minute 16 per minute 32 per minute 72 per minute

The anatomy of the ear consists of the which of the following? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (a) (b) (c) (d) ? ? ? ? Malleus & stapes Two canals Eustachian tube Otolith ?

(it might have been the whole ear, the middle or inner ear,) 5. The range of human hearing is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 20 150Hz 20 150MHz 20 150KHz 20Hz to infinity

(we would have said 20Hz to 10KHz, this wasnt in the feedback, maybe it was in the exam question)

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March 2002 Module 1

6.

Which part of the ear measures linear acceleration? (a) (b) (c) (d) Malleus Otolith organ Cornea Eustachian tube

7.

What is the definition of stress? (a) (b) (c) (d) How a person deals with/feels about a situation ? ? ?

8.

Which of the following is found in the vestibular area? (a) (b) (c) (d) Two ventricles Ossicles * Sicillies 3 semi-circular canals *

(two correct?) 9. Which of the following best describes the situation of a pilot making an approach to land in darkness with no reference lights? (a) (b) (c) (d) Will Will Will Will feel feel feel feel too too too too high and overshoot (ducking up/out?) high and undershoot (ducking in?) low and undershoot (ducking in?) low and overshoot (ducking up/out?)

(The ducking in/up/out bit confused the candidates)

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March 2002 Module 1

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