MGT 4314 Summer III, 2012 Exam I Tannous July 23, 2012 1.

2 1. Which of the following is not one of Garvins definitions of quality? a. transcendent b. value-based c. manufacturing-based d. user-based e. cost-based 2. __________ refers to the propensity for a product to perform consistently over its useful life. a. Conformance b. Durability c. Perceived quality d. Reliability e. Serviceability 3. __________ is concerned with monitoring process capability and process stability. a. Reengineering b. Statistical process control c. Redundancy testing d. Concurrent engineering e. Life testing 4. Which part of the Design Life Cycle is typically an interactive process a. Idea Generation b. Prototype Development c. Preliminary Design d. Implementation e. Product Design Evaluation 5. If a process is ___________ it will consistently produce products that meet specification. a. redundant b. technical c. capable d. random 6. Like engineers, operations managers are very concerned about product and process design. However, rather than focusing on only the technical aspects of those activities, operations concentrates on the __________ of these activities. a. Economics b. financing c. management 7. An improved understanding of the operations / marketing interface has resulted in an increased focus on the ________ in many firms. a. supplier b. associate c. quality control director d. customer e. human resource director

8. Which of these competencies is the base of the sand cone model as proposed by Ferdows and Demeyer? a. cost efficiency b. speed c. dependability d. reliability e. quality 9. Strategy refers to the planning processes used by an organization to achieve a set of: a. product quality dimensions b. marketing priorities c. operations management principles d. service quality dimensions e. long-term goals 10. The ultimate goal of strategic quality planning is to help an organization achieve: a. maximum profitability b. sustainable competitive advantage c. an order of magnitude increase in market chare. d. cost minimization e. growth in revenues 11. The marketer focuses on the __________ dimension of products and services. a. perceived quality b. durability c. conformance d. reliability e. performance 12. A coherent group of general propositions used as principles of explanation for a class of phenomena is referred to as a: a. postulate b. axiom c. theory d. corollary e. hypothesis 13. The __________ of a theoretical model involves the nature, direction, and extent of the relationship between the variables, a. why b. what c. how d. who e. when 14. A theory that is generated by observation and description is said to have been developed by the process of: a. deduction b. abstraction c. speculation d. induction

15. According to the textbook, the literature concerning quality is: a. clear and coherent b. contradictory and somewhat confusing c. consistent but somewhat confusing d. paradoxical yet very precise e. consistent and precise 16. Many of the models in chapter 2 ( Juran, Crosby, Feigenbaum, etc. ) are developed by a. induction b. deduction c. simple linear regression d. contingency analysis e. syllogisms 17. After World War II, Deming was sent to __________, where he lectured extensively on quality related issues. a. Germany b. England c. Japan d. France e. Australia 18. Deming believed that poor quality was not the fault of labor; it resulted from: a. poor management of the system for continual improvement b. poor human resource management c. consumer complacency d. a lack of commitment on the part of management e. poor engineering and design 19. The three aspects of Jurans trilogy are: a. planning, control, and improvement b. cost, quality, and customer satisfaction c. labor, management, and systems d. organizing, management, and control e. leadership, cost, and quality 20. The driving force of the Century of Productivity was the movement known as: a. total quality management b. statistical process control c. the human resources movement d. scientific management e. behavioral modification 21. __________ quality refers to those quality programs that receive a lot of hoopla and no follow-through. a. Wishful thinking b. Red Herring c. Latest fad d. Hothouse e. Promises, promises

22. While the U.S. trade deficit has remained relatively constant until 1995, recently a. both exports and imports have decreased b. exports, imports, and the trade deficit have increased c. exports have increased and imports have decreased d. exports have decreased and imports have increased e. there has been no change in export and import levels 23. By changing their __________ environment firms locate themselves near to or far away from natural resources. a. societal b. task c. physical d. global e. indigenous 24. The ______________________ facing globalizing corporations refers to cultural factors such as language, business customs, customer preferences, and patterns of communication. a. market diversity b. task environment c. physical environment d. social environment e. cultural horizon 25. By changing their ____________, firms locate themselves near to or far away from natural resources a. economic environment b. social environment c. technological environment d. legal environment e. physical environment 26. Which one of the following is an industry not eligible for the MBNQA ? a. manufacturing firms b. service sector firms c. public sector organizations d. healthcare firms e. consulting firms 27. Which of the following is not one of the seven categories that make up the evaluation criteria for the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award? a. Internet competencies b. information and analysis c. process management d. business results e. leadership 28. The basis of the Baldrige model is ________________ a. operations management b. information and analysis c. accounting and finance d. statistical process control (SPC) e. Six Sigma

29. Which Baldrige criterion focuses on how a firm assesses the relative importance of product or service functions? a. information and analysis b. process management c. customer and market focus d. leadership e. strategic planning 30. According to the textbook, which of the seven Baldrige criteria do applicants consider to be the most sensitive? a. process management b. strategic planning c. information and analysis d. business results e. customer and market focus 31. The main purpose of a Baldrige site visit is to: a. introduce the selection committee to the top management team of the contending firm b. formally congratulate an award winner c. verify and clarify those portions of the Baldrige application having the greatest impact on the judges scores d. discuss the outcome of the evaluation process e. collect additional information on each of the seven evaluation criteria

32. State quality programs that use the Baldrige criteria but with a simplified process or application subscribe to the: a. quasi-Baldrige approach b. Baldrige compatible approach c. full-Baldrige approach d. Baldrige-lite approach e. multi-level approach 33. Strategic planning has two important dimensions. These are: a) analysis and synthesis b) implementation and control c) strategic and routine d) proactive and standardized e) content and process 34. The plandocheckact cycle is associated with _____________. a. W. E. Deming b. Walter Shewhart c. Joseph Jurand d. Armand Feigenbaum e. Kaoru Ishakawa

35. What type of power is derived from the possession of special rewards that a leader can bestow upon subordinates in return for desirable action? a. coercive power b. legitimate power c. reward power d. power of expertise e. referent power 36. A case of __________ power is the mentor who is admired by his or her protegees who want to be like the mentor. a. reward b. referent c. legitimate d. coercive e. power of expertise 37. Which of the following selections is not a leadership skill? a. knowledge b. communication c. planning d. vision e. intelligence 38. A commitment to quality by top management can be demonstrated by: a. attrition b. venues c. CRI d. funding e. slogans 39. Nothing can damage a quality improvement effort faster than managements failure to consider ._________________ a. implementing changes that employees recommend.: b. an appropriate reward system c. meeting times during working hours d. Pareto analysis e. semi-annual reviews 40. Supporting a program of continuous improvement requires the development of an appropriate a. bottom line b. entrepreneurship program c. culture d. benchmarking program e. commission sales program 41. The PAF paradigm translates quality costs into three broad categories, which are then subdivided into other categories. The three categories are: a. price, appraisal, and facility costs b. process, attitude, and failure costs c. prevention, appraisal, and failure costs d. procedures, attention, and failure costs

42. __________ failure costs are those associated with on-line failure. a. Indigenous b. Domestic c. External d. Internal e. Spurious 43. Using the law of _________________, quality costs can be modeled to show the tradeoffs between these costs. a. diminishing marginal returns b. regression toward the mean c. Occams Razor d. law of attraction e. law of accelerating returns 44. __________ customers are employees receiving goods or services from a firm. a. Exogenous b. Fringe c. External d. Introverted e. Internal 45. __________ represents a proactive approach to satisfying customer needs that is based on gathering data about our customers to learn their needs and preferences and then providing products and services that satisfy customers. a. Customer-driven quality b. Product-driven quality c. Service-driven quality d. Process-driven quality e. Content-driven quality 46. The acronym RCDQ stands for __________ a. Reactive Customer Driven Quality b. Retro Coding and Data Quality c. Recombinant Client Design Questionnaire d. Re-engineered Community Driven Quality e. Reformed Cost Disclosure Quantifiers 47. Which of the following is not one of the four design aspects to customer relationship management mentioned in the textbook? a. corrective action or recovery b. guarantees c. feedback d. cost e. complaint resolution

48. According to the textbook, there are two main types of feedback: a. feedback to the customer and feedback to the firm b. feedback to the industry and feedback to the firm c. feedback to the customer and feedback to stakeholders in general d. feedback to the supplier and feedback to the customer e. feedback to the industry and feedback to stakeholders in general 49. Which one of the following is not a component of Customer Relationship Management a. Corrective action b. Close loop computing c. Feedback d. Guarantees e. Complaint resolution 50. The formal mechanism for identifying and correcting gaps is called: a. breach analysis b. scrutinizing the gap c. gap analysis d. conformance analysis e. boundary spanning 51. Typically, the _______ refers to the differences between desired levels of performance and actual levels of performance. a. difference b. ratio c. gap d. aperture e. interlude 52. ___________ means possession of the required skills and knowledge to perform the service a. reliability b. responsiveness c. competence d. access e. courtesy 53. __________ is a process for developing relationships with few suppliers for long contract terms. a. Sole sourcing b. Gap analysis c. Constrained sourcing d. Privileged partnering e. Gap sourcing 54. In __________, not only are suppliers sole source providers, but they also integrate information systems and quality systems that allow close integration at all levels. a. tactical partnerships b. competitive partnerships c. expedient partnerships d. strategic partnerships e. indigenous partnerships

55. A __________ is an organization recognized for its exemplary operational performance. a. benchmark b. milestone c. landmark d. model 56. There are two parties to each benchmarking relationships: a. a proactive firm and a reactive firm b. an initiator firms and a neutral firm c. a target firm and an industry referee d. an initiator firm and a target firm e. an initiator firm and an appropriate governmental agency 57. The process of dismantling a competitors product to understand the strengths and weaknesses of its design is referred to as: a. benchmarking b. catalytic reengineering c. environmental design d. inverse production e. reverse engineering 58. Which of the following is not listed in Foster as an input to the strategic quality planning model? a. competitive forces b. strategic plan c. company mission d. customer needs e. regulatory climate 59. A __________ is an organization recognized for its exemplary operational performance. a. benchmark b. competitor c. marketplace d. government e. regulatory agency 60. ___________________ allows initiator firms to assess their competitive position by comparing products and services with those of target firms. a. process benchmarking b. financial benchmarking c. performance benchmarking d. product benchmarking e. strategic benchmarking 61. The formula for scrap in which a company computes the ratio of cost of goods sold to scrap is a type of: a. capability ratio b. skill ratio c. effectiveness ratio d. productivity ratio e. scrap efficiency ratio

62. Return on assets (ROA) and return on investment (ROI) are examples of: a. structural measures b. market share data c. productivity ratios d. effectiveness ratios e. financial ratios

63. The outstanding global benchmark firms are referred to as: a. best-in-class b. best-in-industry c. best-in-nation d. best-of-the-best e. universal best 64. The conversion process of business process benchmarking results in: a. outputs that are sold to internal customers b. outputs that are eventually sold to customers c. improvements in human resource management productivity d. improvements in manufacturing effectiveness e. improvements in manufacturing efficiency 65. Which step in Xeroxs 10-step process of benchmarking predicts whether the performance gap for the benchmarked processes will narrow or widen in the coming years? a. develop action plans b. determine the current performance gap c. plan and conduct the investigation d. project future performance levels e. implement specific actions and monitor progress 66. _________________ requires definition of the product architecture, the design, production, testing of subassemblies, and testing of the system for production. a. manufacturing system design b. final product definition c. product design and evaluation d. technology development for process selection e. architecture transfer development 67. The cereal company used as an example of the importance of new product development in the text was __________. a. Malt-o-Meal b. Post c. General Mills d. Kellogg e. Quaker 68. Which of the following is not a step in performing a QFD? a. prioritize human resource needs b. identify the correlations between design elements in the roof of the house c. prioritize customer requirements d. develop a listing of technical design elements along the roof of the house e. develop a list of customer requirements

69. Correlations in the roof of the house of quality represented by an asterisk are: a. strongly positive b. positive c. no relation d. negative e. strongly negative 70. The individual who developed QFD was ____________. a. Yoko Ono b. Dr. S. Mizuno c. W. Edwards Deming d. Genichi Taguchi e. Dr. Ishikawa 71. The process of checking designs for accuracy is called: a. process evaluation b. design review c. multilevel review d. prototype analysis e. interference checking 72. CAT systems provide for inspection of parts performed by __________ and noncontact sensors that allow for parts to be inspected without handling, thereby reducing the change of damage to the products. a. ultraviolet b. gamma c. x-ray d. infrared e. UHF 73. At times, companies build __________. These are fully working models of the final product. a. robust prototypes b. paper prototypes c. working prototypes d. basic prototypes e. primary prototypes 74. A method for gathering and evaluating product-related data is referred to as: a. robust data management b. operational data management c. holistic data management d. product data management e. enterprise data management 75. __________ products, are new products using similar technologies that can coexist in a family of products.. a. sedentary b. supplementary c. conjugate d. conjugal e. complementary

76. The intangible nature of services means that they cannot: a. be replicable; in other words, no two services can be exactly the same b. obtain high levels of customer satisfaction c. be as innovative as manufactured goods d. produce as high of a net return as manufactured goods e. be inventoried or carried in stock over long periods of time

77. The participation of a customer in the delivery of a service product is called: a. participatory service delivery b. customer coproduction c. customer conformity d. customer/provider alliance e. customer compliance 78. Whereas in manufacturing, liability issues center around safety concerns, in services liability issues often relate to __________, which refer to the professionalism of the service provider and whether reasonable measures were taken to ensure the customers wellbeing. a. malpractice b. negligence c. indifference d. mismanagement e. inattention 79. Which of the following is not a quality dimension relating to services? a. empathy b. assurance c. durability d. tangibles e. responsiveness 80. The corporate motto of the Ritz-Carlton Hotels is: a. They will never notice the difference. b. Ladies and gentlemen serving ladies and gentlemen. c. A piece of chocolate on every pillow. d. The customer is always right e. Cultivate commitment 81. Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Beery developed an important service related tool called: a. QUALSERV b. NETSERVE c. PROSERVE d. PROQUAL e. SERVQUAL 82. The SERVQUAL instrument is useful for performing what is called: a. contrast analysis b. substance analysis c. gap analysis d. polarization analysis e. acceptance analysis

83. The fail points in the services blueprints are often referred to as__________ a. moments of indifference b. moments of truth c. teaching moments d. critical times e. time warps

84. Which of the following is not one of the four steps involved in developing a service blueprint? a. identify processes b. isolate fall points c. establish a time frame d. execute a plan e. analyze profits 85. The fail points in the service blueprint are often referred to as: a. defining events b. turning points c. service events d. moments of truth e. crucial moments 86. According to Chase, warning methods, physical contact methods, and visual contact methods are examples of different classifications for: a. R charts b. fail-safe devices c. acceptance sampling d. C charts e. flowcharts 87. Which of the following is not one of the support activities in the value chain? A. Procurement B. technology development C. human resource management D. marketing and sales E. firm infrastructure 88. One of the most significant aspects of the value chain is the _____ between a series of suppliers and consumers. A. cycle B. epicycle C. linkage D. coproduction E. colloid 89. A tool used by many firms to differentiate and discriminate among suppliers is called: A. provider appraisal B. supplier appraisal C. provider assessment D. partner assessment E. supplier evaluation

90. The auditing portion of a supplier development program is referred to as: A. supplier analysis B. supplier audit C. supplier review D. supplier assessment E. supplier checkup

91. Single sourcing: A. increases the number of suppliers a firm uses B. increases the number of suppliers a firms uses in manufacturing but decreases the number of suppliers a firm uses in services C. decreases the number of suppliers a firm uses D. increases the number of suppliers a firm uses in services industries but decreases the number of suppliers a firm uses in manufacturing E. has no effect on the number of suppliers a firm uses 92. Suppliers who successfully complete development activities are often designated as __________suppliers due to their alignment with customer needs. A. evaluated B. preferred C. implicit D. based E. major 93. The supplier development program developed by a Chrysler/Ford/General Motors supplier requirement task force was called: A. targets for excellence B. Q1 C. ISO 11000 D. QS 9000 E. championship supplying 94. Which of the following is not included in the management responsibility portion of the QS 9000 written standards? A. quality policy B. contract review C. organization D. resources E. organizational interface 95. During the __________ portion of the QS 9000 written standards the supplier examines the steps associated with contracting with its own suppliers. A. management responsibility B. quality system C. design control D. purchasing E. contract review

96. In regard to product traceability, QS 9000 requires: A. Nothing B. documented procedures for product traceability during the most critical stages of the production process C. that minimum product traceability guidelines be followed D. documented procedures for product traceability during all stages of the production process E. voluntary compliance with product traceability guidelines 97. Which of the following activities does not fall within QS 9000 guidelines for dealing with nonconforming product? A. reworked to meet specifications B. accepted with or without repair or concessions C. regraded for alternative applications D. rejected and scrapped E. remeasured to form the basis for new specifications 98. Which topic does TS 16949 not address? A. servicing B. design and development C. disposal D. installation E. production 99. I received assistance from another person to answer one or more question on this exam A. True B. False 100. I answered ALL questions on this exam without assistance from another person A. True B. False